Practice Test - 2 | 2025

Date: 18/02/2024 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 4:30 PM to 7:30 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted.
You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other question apart
from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the five previously
answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the
 sign for positive values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50,
3.25, 0.08)

Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature
 Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

PART - I : PHYSICS 100 MARKS

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2 kg is in contact with a rectangular block B of mass 4 kg and
vertical wall as shown in the figure. All surfaces are smooth. Find normal reaction by vertical wall on
sphere A. (Take g  10 m/s 2 )

(A) 20 N (B) 25 N (C) 80 N (D) 45 N

2. A particle of mass m is suspended from a ceiling through a string of length L. The particle moves in a
L
horizontal circle of radius r such that r  . The speed of particle will be:
2
1/2 1/2
 gr  1/2  gr 
(A) 
 3
 (B)  3gr  (C) ( gr )1/2 (D)  
 2 

3. The coefficient of static friction between two blocks is 0.6 and the table is smooth. The maximum
horizontal force that can be applied to move the blocks together is : (Take g  10 ms 2 )

(A) 15 N (B) 18 N (C) 21 N (D) 20 N

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4. Column -I shows x-t graph for a particle moving on straight line and column -II shows v-t graph. Match
Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II

A. I.

B. II.

C. III.

D. IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
5. A particle starts from rest from point A with a constant angular acceleration
2rad / sec 2 in a circle of radius 1 m. Find the acceleration of particle when it
reaches the point B.
(A) 2 2  4 m/s 2 (B) 2 42  1 m/s2
(C) 4 m/s 2 (D) 2 m/s 2
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6. Figure shows two cylindrical rods whose center of mass is marked as A and B.
Line AB divides the region in two parts one containing point O (region 1) and
other containing point O’ (region 2). Choose the correct option regarding the
centre of mass of the combined system.
(A) The center of mass of the system lies in region 1
(B) The center of mass of the system lies in region 2
(C) The center of mass of the system lies on line AB
(D) The center of mass of the system may lie in region 1 or region 2 depending on the mass of the
rods
7. A solid cylinder is rolling along the ground at 7.0 m/s. It comes to a hill and starts rolling up without
slipping. Assuming no losses to friction, how high does it get before it stops? (Take g  9.8 m/s 2 )
(A) 1.2 m (B) 3.7 m (C) 4.2 m (D) 5.9 m

8. An air bubble of radius r rises steadily through a liquid of density  with velocity v. The coefficient of
viscosity of liquid is:
2 r 2g 2 r2g 2 vg 2 g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 v 9 v 9 r2 9 vr 2

9. The distribution of relative intensity of blackbody radiation from a solid object versus the wavelength 
is shown in the figure. If the Wien displacement law constant is 2.9  103 mK , what is the approximate
temperature of the object?

(A) 10 K (B) 50 K (C) 250 K (D) 1500 K

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10. A pipe of length 10.0 m increases in length by 1.5 cm when its temperature is increased by 90°F. What is
its coefficient of linear expansion?
(A) 30  106 / C (B) 17 10 6 / C (C) 13  106 / C (D) 23  106 / C
11. The diagram shows the pressure-volume (PV) relationship for a gas.

Which of the following area(s) is/are equal to the work done by the gas as it expands?
(A) area I (B) area II (C) area I + area II (D) area I – area II
12. During an adiabatic expansion, a gas does 50 J of work against the surroundings. It is then cooled at
constant volume by removing 20 J of energy from the gas. The magnitude of the total change in internal
energy of the gas is:
(A) 70 J (B) 50 J (C) 30 J (D) 20 J
13. The Carnot cycle consists of a combination of __________ and __________ processes.
(A) Isobaric, Isochoric (B) Isochoric, Adiabatic
(C) Isobaric, Isothermal (D) Adiabatic, Isothermal

14. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount Everest becomes fast.
Reason R: The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) is less at Mount Everest than its value on the
surface of earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A is correct but R is not correct.
(C) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
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15. A solid cylinder of mass m and volume v is suspended from ceiling by a spring of spring constant K. It
has cross-section area A. It is submerged in a liquid of density  upto half its length. If a small block of
mass M 0 is kept at the centre of the top, the amplitude of small oscillation will be:
M0g M0g
(A) (B)
K  vg K  Ag
( M 0  m) g M0g
(C) (D)
K  Ag K

16. A rod of mass m and length  is suspended from ceiling with two strings of length  as shown. When
the system is rotated slightly in the plane of page and released, time period of oscillation is T1 and when
2
T
the rod is given a push perpendicular to plane, time period of oscillation is T2 . The ratio 12 is:
T2
10
(A) 1 (B)
9
9 3
(C) (D)
10 2
17. A cylindrical container filled with a liquid is being rotated about its central
axis at a constant angular velocity  . Four points A, B, C and D are chosen in
the same plane such that ABCD is a square of side length a and AB is
horizontal while BC is vertical. A and D lie on the axis of rotation. Let the
pressure at A, B, C and D be denoted by PA , PB , PC and PD . Now, consider the
following two statements:
2g
(I) PC  PA for all values of  (II) PB  PD only if  
a
Which of these options is correct?
(A) Both (I) and (II) are correct (B) (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
(C) (II) is correct and (I) is incorrect (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
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18. A solid cylinder of mass M, radius 2R and height 9R is melted and formed into a solid sphere. Find the
ratio of moment of inertia of solid cylinder about its axis to solid sphere about its diameter.
5 9
(A) (B) (C) 1:1 (D) 2 :1
9 5
19. A liquid is filled in a container to a height H . A small hole is opened in
the side of the container a height h below the surface of the liquid. Let the
distance of the point where the stream of liquid leaving the container meets
the ground from the bottom of the container be L . Then, if h  2 H /5 , the
L
ratio is equal to:
H
2 4 2 6 4 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 15 5 5

20. The orbital velocity of satellite around a planet is independent of :

(A) Mass of satellite (B) Mass of planet
(C) Radius of orbit of satellite (D) Universal gravitational constant
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. A boat travels upstream and after one hour has gone 10 km. The boat next travels downstream and after
one hour has gone 14 km. If the boat’s speed relative to the water is constant, what is the speed (in km/h)
of the current in the river?
2. Consider a circle of radius 42 cm. An insect crawls with uniform speed of
1.3 cm/s along the chord AB then along the circular arc BCD to reach point
D and then following cord DA to reach finally A. Time (in sec) spend by
the insect to crawl from A to A is ___________ .

3. A particle is projected from the ground with a speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 60° with the ground. The
time after which the speed of the particle is minimum during the flight is n sec. Find n.
4. A body of mass 4 kg collides head-on elastically with another body of mass 2 kg kept at rest in free
space. Time of collision is 0.02 sec and average impulsive force acted on each body is 100N. Find the
velocity (in m/s) of the 2 kg body after the impact.
5. A metallic body of material with density of 8000 kg/m3 has a cavity inside. A spring balance shows its
mass to be 10.0 kg in air and 7.5 kg when immersed in water. The ratio of the volume of the cavity to the
volume of the material of the body is x : 1. Find x.
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6. An otherwise thermally insulated room can only exchange heat with the surroundings through a window
with a glass pane of area 1.2 m 2 and thickness 0.5 cm. A heater placed inside the room supplies heat to
the room at a constant rate 1920 W. On a day when the temperature outside the room is 14 °C, the
temperature inside the room (in °C) a long time after the heater is switched on becomes__________.
(Thermal conductivity of glass  1.0 W / m °C )

7. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end of a uniform rod CD of mass

2 kg and length 1m pivoted at its end C on a vertical wall as shown in figure.
It is supported by a cable AB such that the system is in equilibrium. The
tension in the cable is ________ Newton. (Take g  10 m / s 2 )

8. In the figure shown, all surfaces are smooth and force constant of spring is 10 N/m. Block of mass 2 kg
is not attached with the spring. The spring is compressed by 2m and then released. The maximum
distance (in meter) travelled by the block over the inclined plane will be _____ . (Take g = 10 m/s2)

9. A planet P has mass 10 times the mass of earth and radius one-tenth the radius of earth. The escape
velocity from the surface of planet is n times the escape velocity from surface of earth. Find n.

10. A uniform heavy rod of weight 10 kg ms 2 , cross-sectional area 10 cm 2 and length 40 cm is hanging
from a fixed support. Young modulus of the material of the rod is 4  1011Nm 2 . Neglecting the
internal contraction, the elongation of rod due to its own weight is x  109 m. Find x.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART - II : CHEMISTRY 100 MARKS

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. If the pK a of lactic acid is 5, then which of the following is correct? Lactic acid is 2-hydroxy propanoic
acid.
(a) pH of 0.0025 M calcium lactate and 0.005 M lactic acid solution is 5.
(b) pH of 0.005 M calcium lactate is 8.5.
(c) pH of 0.001 M lactic acid is 3.
(A) a and b (B) b and c (C) a, b and c (D) Only b
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and, the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Gases expand and occupy all the space available to them.
Reason R : There is no force of attraction between the particles of gas at ordinary temperature and
pressure.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
3. Match the List-I and List-II.
List-I (Titration) List-II (Indicator)

(P) H2C2O4 vs Acidified KMnO4 (I) Starch

(Q) FeSO4 vs Acidified K 2Cr2O7 (II) Phenolphthalein

(R) CuSO4 vs KI (III) Self-indicator

(S) H2C2O4 vs NaOH (IV) Diphenylamine

(A) (P)-(II); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(I); (S)-(III) (B) (P)-(III); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(I); (S)-(II)
(C) (P)-(IV); (Q)-(III); (R)-(I); (S)-(II) (D) (P)-(I); (Q)-(II); (R)-(III); (S)-(IV)
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4. Which of the following is not disproportionation reaction?
(a) 2F2  2HO (aq) 
 2F (aq)  OF2 (g)  H 2O
(b)  2PbSO4 (s)  2H 2O()
Pb(s)  PbO2 (s)  2H2SO4 (aq) 
(c) F2 (g)  H 2O(s) 
 HF(g)  HOF(g)
(d) (CN)2 (g)  2HO (aq) 
 CN  (aq)  CNO (aq)  H 2O()
(A) a, c and d (B) b and d (C) d only (D) a, b and c
5. How many of the following is/are protic acid?
(a) Orthoboric acid (H3BO3 ) (b) Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO 4 )
(c) Oxalic acid (H 2C2O 4 ) (d) Carbonic acid (H 2CO3 )
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
6. Which of the following is correct effect of increase of temperature on synthesis of ammonia using
dinitrogen and dihydrogen according to Haber’s process?
(A) Rate of reaction and yield of ammonia both increases
(B) Rate of reaction and yield of ammonia both decreases
(C) Rate of reaction increases but yield of ammonia decreases
(D) Rate of reaction decreases but yield of ammonia increases
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7. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I : A dynamic equilibrium exists between the production and decomposition of ozone in the
stratosphere.
Statement-II : Conversion of oxygen to ozone is thermodynamically non-spontaneous.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(C) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(D) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
8. U of combustion of methane is  x kJ mol 1. The value of H is:
(A)  U  (B)  U  (C)  U (D) 0
9. Match the List-I and List-II.
List-I (Intermolecular forces) List-II
(P) Ion-Dipole forces (I) Vander Waals forces
(Q) Dispersion forces (II) Always attractive

(R) Dipole-Dipole forces (III) Interaction energy is proportional to 1/ r 6

Powerful force in determining the structure
(S) Hydrogen bond (IV)
and properties of proteins
(V) Not Vander Waals forces
(A) (P)-(I, II, III); (Q)-(I, II, III, IV); (R)-(I, II, III, IV); (S)-(I, II, IV, V)
(B) (P)-(V); (Q)-(I, II, III); (R)-(III); (S)-(IV)
(C) (P)-(II, V); (Q)-(I, III); (R)-(II, III); (S)-(II, IV, V)
(D) (P)-(I, II); (Q)-(II, III, IV); (R)-(III); (S)-(IV, V)
10. Molecular shape of XeF4 is square planar. What is hybridization state of the central atom?

(A) dsp 2 (B) sp3d 2 (C) sp3 (D) sp2d

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11. Which of the following is correct order of first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg, Al and Si?
(A) Na < Mg < Al < Si (B) Si < Al < Mg < Na
(C) Na < Al < Mg < Si (D) Na < Al < Si < Mg
12. Identify quantum numbers of an atomic orbital having only conical node?
(A) n  4;   2; m  0 (B) n  3;   2; m   2
(C) n  3;   2; m  0 (D) n  2;   1; m  0
13. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and, the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Ethene is more stable molecule in comparison to ethane.
Reason R : Strength of the double bond of ethene is greater than that of a carbon-carbon single bond in
ethane.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
14. In which of the following, it is possible to separate and isolate different forms?
(a) Conformational isomers of ethane (b) Geometrical isomers of 2-butene
(c) Positional isomers of chloropropane (d) Optical isomers of 2-chlorobutane
(A) Only a (B) a and d (C) a, b and d (D) b, c and d
15. Which of the following property of benzene can be explained by using concept of oscillating nature of
double bonds in benzene?
(A) Unusual stability of benzene
(B) Preference to substitution reactions than addition reactions
(C) Formation of only one mono substituted derivative
(D) Formation of only one ortho disubstituted derivative
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16. Identify major product (P) and (Q).
Na H2
(Q)   CH3  C  C  CH 3  (P)
NH3 (  ) Lindlar's catalyst
(P) (Q)
(A) trans-2-Butene ; cis-2-Butene
(B) cis-2-Butene ; trans-2-Butene
(C) cis-2-Butene ; CH 3CH 2C  CNa
(D) Butane ; CH 3CH 2C  CNa
17. The best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of amino acids is:
(A) Fractional distillation (B) Sublimation
(C) Differential extraction (D) Chromatography
18. Which of the following is necessary to use for acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur by lead
acetate test?
(A) Sulphuric acid (B) Nitric acid (C) Acetic acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
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19. Which of the following are correct for electromeric effect?
a. The organic compounds having a multiple bond show this effect in the presence of an attacking
reagent only.
b. It involve complete transfer of a shared pair of  -electrons to one of the atoms joined by a
multiple bond even in the absence of an attacking reagent.
c. It is a permanent effect and called as polarizability effect.
d. It is annulled as soon as the attacking reagent is removed from the domain of the reaction.
e. When inductive and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions, the electromeric effect
predominates.

f.

g.

(A) a, d, e, f, g (B) b, c, f, g (C) a, d, e (D) c, d, e, g

20. Match the List-I and List-II.
List-I List-II
(I) B2 (P) Only pi-bonds
(II) C2 (Q) Two nodal planes in HOMO
(III) N2 (R) Four nodal planes in HOMO
(IV) O2 (S) s-p mixing
(A) (I)-P, Q, S; (II)-P, Q, S; (III)-Q, S; (IV)-Q, S
(B) (I)-P, Q, S; (II)-P, Q, S; (III)-Q, S; (IV)-R
(C) (I)-P, Q, S; (II)-P, Q, S; (III)-P; (IV)-R
(D) (I)-Q; (II)-P, Q; (III)-Q, S; (IV)-R
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. The ionization constant of dimethylamine is 5.4 104. The x 102 % of 0.02 M dimethylamine is
ionized if the solution is also 0.1 M in NaOH. What is value of x?
2. In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by system and 394 J of work is done by the system. What is the
change (in J) in internal energy for the process?
3. A hydrocarbon (A) of molecular weight 54 g/mole gives white precipitate with ammonical AgNO3
solution. (A) reacts with an excess of Br2 in CCl4 to give a compound (B) whose molecular weight is
x% more than that of (A). However, on catalytic hydrogenation with excess of hydrogen, (A) forms (C)
whose molecular weight is only y% more than that of (A). Find the value of sum of x and y.
[Nearest integer]
4. A certain particle carries 2.5  1016 C of static electric charge. Calculate the number of electrons
present in it. [Nearest integer]
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5. How many different isomers (including stereoisomers) corresponding to the 5th member of alkyne series
are possible?
6. A sample of hard water contain 183 ppm HCO3 ions and 96 ppm SO 24 ions and Ca 2 as the only

cation. The concentration of Ca 2 ion is x ppm. Find the value of x.

7. Find the sum of number of  -bonds and number of  -bonds in ethene-1, 1, 2, 2-tetracarbonitrile.
8. The subshell that will come after ‘f’ subshell is called the ‘g’ subshell. Find the maximum number of
electrons that can be accommodated in ‘g’ subshell.
9. How many of the following will give positive Lassaigne’s test for both nitrogen and halogen?
CH 3 NH 2  HCl; NH 4Cl; NH 2OH  HCl; N 2 H 4  HCl; NCl3 ; N-Bromosuccinamide (NBS);
NH 2CONHNH 2  HBr
10. Organic compound P(C5 H8 ) on complete reductive ozonolysis gives formaldehyde and 2-
ketopropanal. Find the maximum number of atoms in (P) that are lying in the same plane.
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PART - III: MATHEMATICS 100 MARKS

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. The harmonic mean of x and y equal to 620 . If  x  219320  y  219320   32 , then
   1   1 1
is equals to: (where ,  N )
2
(A) 1599 (B) 800 (C) 799 (D) 1518
3 2
2. If 1 i  is a root of the equation z  2  2  i  z   4  5i  z  1  3i  0 where i  1, then other
two roots are:
(A) 1 and 2  i (B) 2 and 1  i (C) 1  i and 1  i (D) 1 and 2 i

1 7
 log7  4.3
x 2  
9 
log 9| x 2|
3. Two values of x for which sixth term of the expansion of E  3 3  75    is
 
 
567, is:
(A) 3,4 (B) 3,1 (C) 2,7 (D) 3,5
25 1000 999 998
4. The coefficient of x in the expansion of 1  x   x 1  x   x 2 1  x   ...  x1000 is:
1001 1002 1000 1000
(A) C 25 (B) C25 (C) C25 (D) C26
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n
5. 
If 5  2 6   I  f when I  N , n  N and 0  f  1, then:
1 1
(A) I   f  1 (B) I   f  1
f f
1 1
(C) I  f (D) I  f
1 f 1 f
6. If L is the line whose equation is ax  by  c . Let M be the reflection of L through the y-axis and let N
be the reflection of L through x-axis. Which of the following must be true about M and N for all choices
of a, b and c?
(A) The x intercepts of M and N are equal
(B) The y-intercepts of M and N are equal
(C) The slopes of M and N are equal
(D) The slopes of M are N are reciprocals of each other
x y
7. Line   1 cuts the coordinates axes at P  c,0  and Q  0, d  . Another line
c d
d ' x  cy  cd '  0 cuts coordinates axis at R  c, 0  and S  0, d ' . If the points P, Q, R, S are
concyclic then the orthocentre of PQR is:
 dd ' 
(A) (0,0) (B)  0, d '  (C) (0, c) (D)  0, 
 c 
8. Let L be the line belonging to the family of straight lines  a  2b  x   a  3b  y  a  8b  0 ,
a, b  R, which is farthest from the point (2, 2). Area of triangle formed by line L with coordinates axes
is:
4 9 49
(A) sq.units (B) sq.units (C) sq.units (D) 4 sq. units
3 2 8
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9. The locus of centre of all circles passing through (1,2) and cutting circle x 2  y 2  16 orthogonally is:
(A) 4 x  2 y  21  0 (B) x  2 y  11  0
(C) 2 x  4 y  21  0 (D) 2 x  y  11  0
10. Let C1 : x 2  y 2  10 and C 2 : x 2  y 2  16 . The tangent at point (1,3) on C1 meets the circle C2 at
points A and B. The tangents drawn at A and B to C2 meets in T, then the coordinate of T is:

 9 18   8 24 
(A)  ,  (B) (4,5) (C) (8, 24) (D)  , 
5 5  5 5 
11. If the circle x 2  y 2  2 gx  2 fy  c  0 cuts each of the circles

x 2  y 2  9, x 2  y 2  4 x  2 y  4  0 and x 2  y 2  2 x  6 y  6  0 in such a way that it bisects

the circumference of each of them. Then:
2 2 7 7
(A) g (B) g  (C) f  (D) f 
5 5 10 5
12. If from the point P (2,3), Q (5,6), R (99,100) tangents are drawn to a circle x 2  y 2  1 , then area of 
formed by their chord of contacts is:
(A) 5 sq. units (B) 9 sq. units (C) 7 sq. units (D) zero

13. A tangent to the ellipse E1 : x 2  9 y 2  9 meets the ellipse E 2 : x 2  3 y 2  12 at A and B. Angle

between the tangents at A and B to the ellipse E2 is:
 2  
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6 3
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14. Let P(5,6), Q(3,2) be the points on a parabola, where tangents are drawn and intersect at R  2,3  ,then
slope of axis of parabola is:
2 1 3
(A) (B) 6 (C) (D) 
5 6 5
x2 y 2
15. If inside the ellipse 
16 4
 
 1, a light ray emerges from point A 2 3,0 , after four internal

reflections, vanishes at A itself, then the distance travelled by ray is:

(A) 32 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 24

 3
16. If tangent at point P  3t ,  on hyperbola xy = 9 is a normal to the parabola y 2  8 x, then t is:
 t
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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17. The length of latus rectum of curve given by 289  x  3 2

  y  1
2
  15x  8 y  13 is:
2

50 100 150 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17 17 17 17
x2 y 2
18. If image of   1 with respect of y  x is curve ax 2  by 2  225, then value of a  b is:
25 9
(A) 8 (B) 34 (C) 16 (D) 24
3
2  1
19. If  be a root of equation x  x  3  0 , then the value of is equal to:
   4  3   2
5

2 4 3 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 4 16
2
20. For a natural number n, let  n  a n  b n where a and b are roots of x  9 x  18  0 . Then the value of
99  10
equals to:
68
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. If z1, z2 and z3 be three complex number such that z1  1  1, z2  2  2, z3  4  4, then the
maximum value of z1  z2  z3 is ________.
2
2. Let z   cos12  i sin12  cos 48  i sin 48  , then lm (z) is equal to  cos2 18 then  is ____ .
3. If the pair of straight line x 2  2 pxy  y 2  0 and x 2  2qxy  y 2  0 bisect angle between each
other of and pq is equal to k, then k is ________.
4. If circles have radii 2 and 5 with distance between centres are 6, then the acute angle between the direct
a
common tangents is , then value of a  b is equal to (a, b are relative prime) ________.
b
5. An incident ray hits the line x  2 at  2, 4  and after getting reflected it is tangent to the circle

x 2  y 2  4 . If slope of incident ray is k, then |16 k| is ________ .

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6. For parabola y 2  4 x, length of chord of contact of a pair tangents drawn from point  4, 0  is____.

x2 y 2
7. Two points P and Q on hyperbola   1 with centre C are such that CP is perpendicular to CQ.
3 6
1 1 1
If value of 2
 2
 , then is ________.
CP CQ 
8. If equation of hyperbola whose asymptotes are 2 x  y  3 and 3x  y  7  0, passing through (1,1) is

6 x 2  xy  ay 2  bx  cy  d  0, then a  b  c  d is _______.

x 2  3x  
9. The range of f  x   is R, then the exhaustive set of values of  is  , k  then k is____.
x2
1
10. If cot 7  n1  n2  n3  n4 , where n1, n2 , n3 , n4  N then n1  n2  n3  n4 is equal
2
to____________.
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