FINAL COACHING IN CRIME DETECTION AND

INVESTIGATION

DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

1. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

a. RA 987
b. RA 9165
c. RA 1017
d. RA 6195

2. The scientific name of marijuana.

a. cannabis sativa L
b. pappaversomniferum
c. deoxyribonucleic acid
d. methamphetamine

3. The original components of heroin and morphine.

a. codeine
b. caffeine
c. opium
d. methamphethamine

4. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.

a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency

b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board
d. Food and Drug Administration

5. Themost common form of stimulant.

a. heroin
b. codeine
c. morphine
d. shabu

6. It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride.

a. heroin
b. codeine
c. morphine
d. shabu

7. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.

a. codeine
b. heroin
c. morphine
d. caffeine

8. Another term for drug addiction.

a. drug use
b. drug net
c. drug pushing
d. drug dependence

9. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living
organism.

a. alcohol
b. poison
c. drug
d. vice

10. The king of all drug?

a. Shabu
b.Marijuana
c. Alcoholic Beverages
d. Solvent

12. What are the “right questions” to ask a police interviewee in any police investigations?
A. ask hypothetical questions that would put the interviewee at ease
B. ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his own words what he saw
 C. check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
D. ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and answerable by TRUE or FALSE

13. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing witnesses, citizens and victims?
A. place interviewee at ease
B. conduct interview in private
C. develop a plan of action
D. ask the right question

14. All of the following are the rules to be observed in questioning, EXCEPT
A. one question at a time
B. saving faces
C. avoid implied answer
D. broad questions

15. It is the raw data gathered?

A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Probe

16. Investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete information especially with uncooperative subjects.
A. logical mind C. perseverance
B. integrity D. self control

17. The simple questioning of a person?

A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation

18. It is an art and science which deals with the identity of the criminal?
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation

19. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning?
A. simplicity of the questions
B. accept implied answer
C. one question at a time
D. laughter

20. The private investigator must grab a seat while conducting a proper interview. The statement is correct, is it
correct?
A. False
B. Yes
C. No
D. Partially True

21. _______ shall designate special courts from among the existing Regional Trial Courts in each judicial
region to exclusively try and hear cases involving violations of Dangerous drug laws?
 A. Court of Appeal C. Department of Justice
B. PDEA D. Supreme Court

22.Which of the following is punishable by life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging from
500,000.00 to 10,000,000.00?

A. possession of 45 grams of shabu

B. possession of 9 grams of cocaine
C. possession of equipment, apparatus and other paraphernalia for dangerous drugs
D. possession of 500 grams of marijuana

23. What is tendency to increase dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect in the body?
A. treatment C. tolerance
B. use D. opiate

24. RA 9165 is known as the Dangerous drug law of 2002 which provide stiffer penalty, it was approved
on_______.
A. June 4, 2002 C. July 4, 2004
B. June 14, 2002 D. July 4, 2002

25. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be composed of how many members?
A. twelve C. ten
B. seventeen D. four

26. Stimulants are known as “mood elevators’ while heroin and opiates are known as:
A. the poor man’s cocaine
B. the enslavers
C. the superman
D. the assassin of the youth

27. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. heroin C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

28. Marijuana often called grass, Indian hemp or weed is a crude drug made from cannabis sativa, a plant
that contains a mind-altering ingredient. Which one is NOT an immediate effect of marijuana?
A. acute panic anxiety reaction- external fear of losing control
B. altered sense of time/ distortion
C. impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
D. moderate heart beat and pulse rate

29. What drug was discovered by fredrich Serturner?

A. opium C. heroin
B. codeine D. morphine

30. What should be the appropriate penalty to be imposed upon any person apprehended or arrested, who
is found to be positive for use of any dangerous drugs?
A. six years rehabilitation in a government center
B. six months imprisonment without probation
 C. life imprisonment to death
D. six months rehabilitation in a government center for first offense

31. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?

A. yes C. it depends
B. maybe D. no

32. What government agency shall take charge and have custody of all confiscated dangerous drugs, plant
sources, essential chemicals, controlled precursors, etc.?
A. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Department of Health
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. Philippine National Police

33. What is the penalty provided under RA 9165 for any person who is found guilty of planting of any
dangerous drugs and/ or controlled precursor?
A. life imprisonment C. six years and 1 day
B. twelve to twenty years D. death penalty

34. It is known as the policy- making and strategy- formulating body in the planning and formulation of
policies and programs on drug prevention and control.
A. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Department of Health
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. Philippine National Police

35. How many years were given to personnel absorbed and on detail service to finally decide to join the
PDEA?
A. six years C. ten years
B. five years D. one year
36. The most recent popular scientific tool in the identification of person is:
A. dactyloscopy C. discoverer
B. computer D. Deoxyribonucleic acid
37. What is the effect of heat of sunlight to DNA sample?
A. sanitation C. contamination
D. preservation D. none of these
38. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax, create a feeling of well being
and produced sleep to the user?
A. opium C. LSD
B. barbiturates D. marijuana
39. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?
A. Crime scene search & crime sketch
B. Removal of the victim’s body
C. Photographs, fingerprint lift and other evidence taken
D. Notes properly taken and witnesses identified
40. Which of the following is NOT a reason for taking drugs?
A. high self esteemed and ego
B. accessibility of sources such as drug stores, medicine cabinets, etc.
C. personal reasons such as family problems and social pressure
D. influenced by friends and peers
41. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are known as “downers”?
 A. hallucinogens C. barbiturates
B. solvents D. cocaine
42. What is the state arising from the repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing
basis?
A. Habituation C. Drug dependence
B. Drug addiction D. Physical dependence
43. In crime scene photography, the crime photographer should be interested only in ______________.
A. Taking the pictures of the relatives
B. Portraying the facts of the case
C. Taking the view only
D. Taking good photographs
44. What is street name for morphine?
A. dust C. lahar
B. monkey D. bata
45. What are the symptoms of the use of dangerous drugs?
A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness
B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
C. false perception of objects and experiences
D. all of these
46. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of sensation, thinking, self- awareness and emotion?
A. narcotics C. stimulants
B. depressants D. hallucinogens
47. As a basic guide to investigator, he should look upon the pieces of evidence as serving to establish
_____________.
A. identification of the guilty person
B. any of these
C. method of operation
D. the corpus delicti
48. Cannabis Sativa for the most part known as:
A. opium poppy C. coca bush
B. marijuana tops D. Kush
49. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as source of a prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana C. Opium
B. Coca bush D. Peyote
50. Proof of poisoning may be obtained from the post mortem examination and by:
A. toxicology
B. pathologic analysis of the tissue
C. necropsy
D. chemical analysis of the organs

DRUG EDUCATION & VICE CONTROL

1. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 refers to as:

a. RA 6425 c. RA 9165 XXXX
b. Executive Order 25 d. Presidential Decree 125
2. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person w/ or w/out his/her knowledge
either by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means:
a. Dispense c. Deliver
b. Administer XXXX d. Inject
3. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities:
a. Hide-out Operation c. Confidential
b. Disguised Operation d. Clandestine Operation XXXX
4. An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or affirm the result of preliminary or
screening test
a. Screening Test c. Confirmatory Test XXXX
b. Physical Test d. Clarification Test
5. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80%
of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of?
a. Thailand-Laos-Burma c. Iran-Afghanistan-Pakistan
b. Thailand-Laos-Myanmar XXXX d. Peru-Colombia-Bolivia
6. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relieves pain and induces
sleepiness:
a. Hallucinogens c. Stimulants
b. Sedatives/Depressant d. Narcotics XXXX
7. One of the most abusive hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contains active components known as
Tetrahydrocannabinol:
a. Ecstasy c. Psilocybin
b. LSD d. Marijuana XXXX
8. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance:
a. Codaine c. Opium Poppy XXXX
b. Heroine d. Morphine

9. Refers to a group of drugs that increase alertness also referred to as uppers:

a. Stimulants XXXX c. Shabu
b. Amphetamine d. Cocaine
10. Agency of the government that will take charge and have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
a. Dangerous Drug Board c. PNP Anti-Narcotics Task Force
b. PDEA XXXX d. PNP, AIDSOTF
11. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina/ energy
a. Ecstasy c. Anabolic Steroid XXXX
b. Diacetylmorphine d. Methylenedioxy
12. The PDEA is headed by a Director General w/ a rank of Undersecretary, assisted by two Deputies and is
appointed by:
a. DILG Secretary c. Commission on Appointment
b. President XXXX d. Dangerous Drug Board
13. They serve as permanent consultant of Dangerous Drug Board:
a. PDEA Director General & PNP Chief
b. NBI Director & PNP Director General XXXX
c. Secretary of DOJ & DILG
 d. Senate President & House Speaker
14. The form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug event to the point of interfering w/ the
person’s ability to function normally:
a. Tolerance c. Habituation
b. Addiction d. Psychological Dependence XXXX
15. Exhibited when a user relies on a drug to achieve a feeling of well-being. It is also arises from the ability to
satisfy some emotional or personality needs of an individual.
a. Physical Dependence c. Emotional Dependence XXXX
b. Psychological Dependence d. Sociological Dependence
16. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
Circumstances:
a. Conducted in the presence or w/ the help of minor
b. Established w/in 100 meters of a residential, business, church and school premises
c. Employment of a practitioner, chemical engineer, public official, foreigner
D. All of these XXXX

17. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:

a. June 7, 2002 b. July 30, 2002
c. July 4, 2002 XXXX d. June 18, 2003

18. The most powerful derivative from the papever somniferum w/c has no medical value:
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Heroine XXX X d. Cocaine
19. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed
to obtain intoxication fall?
a. Depressants b. Tranquilizers
c. Energizers d. Inhalants XXX

20. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be composed of how many Ex-officio Members?
a. 2 c. 3
b. 12 XXXX d. 17

21. Upon the filing of the case concerning Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act, the court shall
proceed with the ocular inspection of the confiscated drugs within how many hours?

a. 24 hours c. 72 hours XXXX

b. 36 hours d. 48 hours

22. It is the policy making and strategy formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control, under the Office of the President.

A. NAPOLCOM C. DILG
B. DDB XXXX D. PDEA
23. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 2 years C. 6 years XXXX
B. 4 years D. co-terminus
24. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its
members from being hook to addiction?
 A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family XXXX D. School

25. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly
B. It is sellable in the market
C. It is easy to cultivate
D. It is in demand XXXX

26. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
a. hallucinogens XXXX c. stimulants
b. sedatives/depressant d. narcotics
27. A method of therapy on alcoholism that is based on conversion and fellowship is called?
A. Aversion Method
B. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous XXXX
C. Psychotherapy method
D. None of the above
28. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid XXXX

29. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification XXXX
30. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
A. Ketamine XXXX C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
31. The head of the PDEA has a cabinet rank of.
A. Director General C. Chairman
B. Under Secretary XXXX D. Senior USEC
32. The title of the existing law on dangerous drug.
A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2000
B. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 1972
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2009
D. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
33. The Dangerous Drug Board is headed by.
A. Director General C. Executive Director
B. Chairman XXXX D. CEO
34. MDMA is commonly known as:
A. Shabu C. Cocaine
B. Opium D. Ecstasy XXXX
35. Cases involving violation of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drug act shall be terminated after how many
days?
A. 30 days C. 45 days
B. 180 days XXXX D. 60 days
36. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
A. 15 days C. 45 days
B. 30 days XXXX D. 60 days
37. The law the penalized the use and possession or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
 A. P.D. 1519 C. P.D. 1916
B. P.D. 1619 XXXX D. P.D. 580
38. What agency of the government supervises drug rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and
laboratories?
A. Department of Health XXXX
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Social Welfare and Development
39. The PDEA Academy shall be headed by a Superintendent with the rank of Director and who shall be
appointed by:
A. The President C. Chairman of DDB
B. Chief, PNP D. PDEA Director General XXXX
40. One who provides gratification for the lust of others? A male procurer of clients for a prostitute.
A. Pimps XXXX C. Brothels
B. Bugaw D. Madam
41. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of
dangerous drugs and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or
facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows.
A. Pusher C. Financier
B. Coddler XXXX D. Importer
42. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates XXXX C. shabu
B. track D. coke
43. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. opiates C. heroine
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens XXXX
44. What drug acts on the central nervous system, producing excitement, alertness and wakefulness?
A. barbiturates C. opiates
B. depressant D. stimulant XXXX
45. Cannabis Sativa L is commonly known as:
A. opium poppy C. coca bush
B. marijuana XXXX D. peyote
46. It shall be the institution responsible in the recruitment and training of all PDEA agents and personnel.
A. PDEA Academy XXXX C. NCRTC
B. Phil. Public Safety College D. NBI Academy
47. Shall designate special courts from among the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and
hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ C. Supreme Court XXXX
B. DDB D. Sandiganbayan
48. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu XXXX
49. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption
of the minds and body.
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
B. Gambling D. Vice
50. These countries are major cultivators of opium and referred to as the golden crescent:
a. Iran, Iraq and Thailand
b. Iran, Afghanistan, India and Pakistan XXXX
 c. Burma, Laos and Thailand
d. Iran, Thailand and Philippines

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

1.What is the upper section of an extension ladder?
A. top C. fly
B. butt D. extension

2. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes
to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. fire exit C. fire trap
B. damper D. fire alarm

3. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?
A. radiation C. conductor
B. oxidizing agent D. vapor

4. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached to and
extending below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into
separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent?
A. fire door C. fire trap
B. electric arc D. curtain board

5. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen
readily?
A. organic peroxide C. corrosive liquid
B. blasting agent D. combustible fiber

6. What is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines?

A. Presidential Decree No 448
B. Presidential Decree No 1184
C. Presidential decree No 421
D. Presidential Decree No 1185

7. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:

A. reduce vibration of the hydrant
B. ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. prevent water hammer
D. close the coupling

8. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?

A. hydrant key C. key board
 B. fire hose D. jumper

9. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

A. 20 C. 30
B. 10 D. 15

10. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure

11. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
_______________.

A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation

12. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?

A. Ignition point C. Temperature
B. Flash point D. Boiling point

13. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start
____________.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams

14. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
combustion?
A. Smoke C. carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember

15. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ________.

A. Infection C. shock
B. burns D. asphyxiation

16. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

A. fire point C. none of these
B. ignition temperature D. flash point
17. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal
atmospheric temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas C. liquefied gas
B. compressed gas D. nuclear gas

18. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?
A. heat C. smoke
B. fire D. temperature

19. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether ventilating is
necessary and if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision?
A. Observing density of smoke through windows
B. Observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the building
C. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
D. Observing the color of the flame

20. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:

A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder

21. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is
called as what?
A. smoke ejector C. forced ventilation
B. horizontal ventilation D. vertical

22. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation C. cross ventilation
B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation

23. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the
entire surface?
A. oxidation C. flash over
B. back draft D. combustion

24. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the
base to the top of the building.
A. sprinkler system C. vertical shaft
B. flash point D. standpipe system

25. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than
four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side
collapses under fire condition:
A. firewood C. post wall
B. fire wall D. fire trap
26. Descriptive of any materials which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other
elements produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
A. oxidizing material C. curtain board
B. dust D. cryogenic

27. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method
is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution

28. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:
A. prevent water hammer
B. to ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. close the coupling
D. reduce the vibration of the hydrant

29. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the fire fighter should avoid _______.
A. cutting a very large hole
B. cutting several small holes
C. cutting roof boards near the beam
D. making openings over the fire

30. Which of these statements is TRUE?

A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion
B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

31. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

A. spontaneous combustion C. electrical wiring
B. leaking gas pipes D. smoking and matches

32. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called___________.

A. radiation C. oxidation
B. convection D. conduction

33. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of these C. burning nipa hut
B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire

34. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. unexplained explosion D. thick reddish smoke

35. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited
supply of oxygen because ________.
 A. carbon reacts with carbon monoxide
B. carbon reacts with carbon dioxide
C. carbon monoxide is an effective reducing agent
D. greater oxidation takes place

36. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?

A. burning metals are too hot
B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
C. there is the danger of electrocution
D. explosion may occur

37. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is
connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant

38. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling
fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher

39. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc.
A. Class D C. Class A
B. Class C D. Class B

40. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose.
What is the most likely reason for taking this position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes

41. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?

A. burning metals are too hot
B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
C. there is the danger of electrocution
D. explosion may occur

42.. Carbon dioxide is hazardous because it:

A. is poisonous
B. explodes when ignited by spark
C. does not support life
D. supports combustion

43. Is there any Foiled Incendiarism?

A. Wholly Yes
B. Partially No
 C. Wholly No
D. Perhaps

44. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.
A. intensity
B. ignition
C. flash over
D. starter

45. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated,
since the proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.

A. intensity
B. ignition
C. flash over
D. starter

46. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of
light.
A. ignition
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction

47. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. ignition
B. convection
C .radiation
D. conduction

48. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to….
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. photograph opportunity in the fire/crime scene

49. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C .fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
50. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm

51. Under what category can the execution of a criminal act be classified?
A. attempted, frustrated, consummated
B. attempted, consummated, frustrated
C. frustrated, attempted, consummated
D. frustrated, consummated, attempted

52. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate?

A. presence of humid substance
B. flying ash
C. presence of phosphorus
D. presence of nitrates

53. SPO3 Karding has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his district.
At this point it is most important that _____________.
A. the proper scale be used
B. a high grade of paper and ink be used
C. no changes be made on the sketch
D. this sketch be refined and improved

54.Under what department is the Bureau of Fire Protection?

A. Department of National Defense
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Justice

55. Which of the following areas must a police fire prober consider important as he stands to
testify as witness?
A. Court procedure C. human nature
B. Rules on evidence D. Court jurisdiction

56. The primary reason a finished sketch at fire incident is made from a rough sketch is for
_____________.
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation

57. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial,
date and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. recording
58. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves.
This heat transfer is
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection

59. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key C. key board
B. fire hose D. jumper

60. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot be
checked, the safest practice is to
A. use foam to put off the fire
B. permit the fire to burn itself
C. use fog to extinguish the fire
D. use sand to smother the flame

61. How can a wound by bomb explosion be identified?

A. All of these
B. Sharpnels all inner the body
C. Presence of powder burns
D. Severe tearing of clothing

62. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators choosing
propitious moments shout out a pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are
in rage?
A. Pretense C. Bluff
B. Bolt D. Jolt

63. Which of the following is a characteristic of COMPLEX EMERGENCIES?

A. Politically driven resources war
B. All of these
C. Cultures, ethics, minority groups at risk of extinction
D. High levels of violence

64. Which is the most effective approach in report writing for fire incident?
A. Make it objective and impartial
B. Make it brief
C. Improve qualities of expository style
D. Make the reports clear

65. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting
B. Smelling D. Seeing
66. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to
the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle

67. Which of the following is considered endangering arson prober report writing under
Philippine setting?
A. poor English construction
B. missing notebook
C. absence of the investigator
D. poor memory

68. What are the “right questions” to ask in arson investigator interviewee in any fire
investigation?
A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at ease
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his own words
what he saw
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and answerable by
yes or no

69. Generally, if black soot and smoke particles are found around the bullet hole, what do these
indicate?
A. none of these
B. discharge occurred close to target
C. discharge occurred far from target
D. discharge occurred at medium range from target

70. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing witnesses, citizens
and victims?
A. place interviewee at ease
B. conduct interview in private
C. develop a plan of action
D. ask the right questions

71. Conduction is heat transfered through

A. electromagnetic waves C. smoke
B. air motion D. solid materials

72. What is the stage in report writing where the fire prober assesses his report and interprets
some facts if needed?
A. gathering facts C. documentation
B. evaluation D. organization

73. The _________ of the report should be natural and straight forward, without exaggerated
rhetoric.
A. outline C. style
 B. format D. synopsis

74. When a fire officer arrives in a fire scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. preserve human life
B. cordon the area
C. summon emergency personnel
D. apprehend the arsonist

75. To whom should written statement be taken by an investigator?

A. reluctant witnesses C. subjects and/or suspects
B. any of these D. key witnesses

76. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

E. Crime scene search & crime sketch
F. Removal of the victim’s body
G. Photographs, fingerprint lift and other evidence taken
H. Notes properly taken and witnesses identified

77. The narrative account of the fire investigation report should be _________.
A. arranged logically with an eye to reader comprehension
B. arranged chronologically and numbered
C. arranged logically
D. supported by annexes

78.When fire prober ascertain all of the circumstances of a crime and then bring these factors
into focus they are, in effect __________.
A. Reproducing C. Reconstructing
B. Reiterating D. Reenacting

79.Which method is considered appropriate in fire scene search involving big space or area?
A. perpendicular C. double strip
B. quadrant zone D. circular wheel type

80. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure

81. Anything that is real, has substance, and helps to establish the facts of the case
______________.
A. direct evidence C. corroborative evidence
B. circumstantial evidence D. physical evidence
82. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
A. proof of ownership of the camera
B. date and hour when each photograph of the fire incident was taken
C. focal length of the lens
D. identification of the fire prober

83. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until presentation in
court must take certain safeguards. What is the total processed called?
A. integrity of evidence C. standards of comparison
B. physical disposition D. chain of custody

84. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

A. distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion

85. Except, How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver and/or charred corpse?
A. study his bones C. study his dentures
B. study his skull D. study hair DNA strands

86. What kind of report refers to the analysis, evaluation, summation of all facts and
circumstances surrounding the case?
A. advance C. initial
B. final D. progress

87. Which of the following ought to be avoided by a fire investigator while securing a dying
declaration?
A. advising the dying person of the rubbish of making such statement
B. memorizing the victim’s statement
C. manifest an atmosphere of an impending death
D. Observe the mental condition of the victim

88. Evidence to be presented in court must be presented in the same substantial condition as it
is at the time the crime was committed. Thus, protection must be made from ____________.
A. accidental alteration C. all of these
B. natural alteration D. intentional alteration

89. If an individual takes someone else property after the fire incident, hide it and denies any
knowledge of its whereabouts the intent to steal ________________.
A. is not present C. is manifestly absent
B. would have to be inferred D. depends upon ownership

90. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?
A. presence of nitrate
B. indicate humid substance
C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay
D. presence of phosphorus
91. After completion of the crime search, what is that effect made by the investigator to
determine from the appearance of the place and it`s objects what actually occurred and what
are the circumstances of the crime?
A. Crime reconstruction C. All of these
B. Crime scene stripping D. Crime sketch

92. In what crime would the matter of preserving the crime scene LEAST dealt with?
A. Robbery C. Rape
B. Arson D. homicide

93. A fire officer searching a crime scene should look upon evidence as serving to establish one
or all of the following _____________ .
A. identity of the victim
B. identity of the guilty party
C. perpetrator’s modus operandi
D. corpus delicti

94. Which among the following is the most accurate governing interview of a new informant?
A. uninterrupted time and sufficient space
B. safety of investigation
C. all of these
D. privacy of interview

95. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as steel beams, metal conduits and ducts.
A. conduction C. radiation
B. combustion D. convection

96. In collecting glass standards after the fire, samples must at least be the size of a quarter,
and must be taken from what area?
A. any of these
B. near as possible to point of contact
C. from the point of contact
D. from the biggest cluster of fragments

97. What could be the best camera position in taking photographs showing a view of what a
witness might have seen after the fire incident?
A. at 6 foot distance from cameraman
B. overhead
C. parallel to the subject or witness
D. at eye level

98. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

A. none of these
B. establishment of corpus delicti
C. identity of the perpetrator
D. malicious intent of the perpetrator
99. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
_______________.

A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation

100. When do you post a “close case” stamp on a criminal case report?
A. Upon failure to establish corpus delicti
B. Facts are incomplete
C. Upon death of the subject
D. Upon completion of investigation

101. In crime scene photography, the crime photographer should be interested only in
______________.
E. Taking the pictures of the relatives
F. Portraying the facts of the case
G. Taking the view only
H. Taking good photographs

102. Which of the following is an investigative deficiency in arson evidence collection?

A. Any of these
B. Inadequate sampling
C. Clue materials usually found in the presence of a foreign collection
D. Sub-standard samples

103. Except, aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the
following facilities should you check?
A. Electric switch system B. Gift-wrapped packages
B. Building exit route D. Cellphones

104. When taking a photograph with the purpose of showing a view that a witness might have
seen the camera, position would normally be ________.
A. in its normal position
B. at eye level
C. parallel to the subject matter
D. overhead

105. What should the firefighter do when ventilating a peaked roof?

A. Make openings at right angles to ridge pole
B. Make openings on ridge pole on windward side of the roof
C. Rip off roof covering on lee side and cut sheathing
D. Make opening on windward side of the roof peak

106.What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?

C. Ignition point C. Temperature
D. Flash point D. Boiling point
107. What kind of evidence links the suspect to the crime scene or offense?
A. Associative C. Physical
B. Tracing evidence D. Corpus delicti

108. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start
____________.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams
D. None of these

109. What is the most difficult challenge for an investigator regarding informants?
A. Tapping outside source
B. Convincing an insider to “spill the beans”
C. Outsourcing information
D. Convincing a peripheral informant to act as witness

110. In a crime scene physical investigation, what is the interest of the fire investigator in
relation to the criminal or suspect?
A. scene reconstruction
B. extent of influence of the victim as reflected by the physical evidence
C. pattern of actions or modus operandi
D. traces from the scene imparted on the criminal/ suspect

111. How do you handle interview of suspicious types?

A. transform him in to an ideal witness
B. employ physical influences
C. his fears must first be allayed
D. lead subject to relevant matters

112. If proof is the outcome of evidence, what is evidence?

A. measurement of guilt C. instrument of proof
B. means of social control D. means sanctioned by rules

113. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal
atmospheric temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas C. liquefied gas
B. compressed gas D. nuclear gas

114. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?
A. heat C. smoke
B. fire D. temperature
115. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether ventilating
is necessary and if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such
decision?
A. Observing density of smoke through windows
B. Observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the building
C. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
D. Observing the color of the flame

116. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and
discussing about it and using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, and sometimes
lead to criminality such as arson cases, he is _____________.
A. socially dependent on drugs
B. mentally dependent on drugs
C. psychological dependent on drugs
D. physically dependent on drugs

117. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is
called as what?
A. smoke ejector C. forced ventilation
B. horizontal ventilation D. vertical

118. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation C. cross ventilation
B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation

119. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the
entire surface?
A. oxidation C. flash over
B. back draft D. combustion

120. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how
the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. point of impact
C. the driver under the influence of liquor
D. vehicle has break failure

121. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
A. self- closing door C. jumper
B. overloading D. oxidizing material

122. The intelligent and logical questioning of a suspect about a crime to secure a confession of
guilt is called:
A. Admission C. Information
 B. Interview D. Interrogation

123. It is one that induces the criminal to act and need NOT to be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A. Motive C. Intent
B. Alibi D. Opportunity

124. Arsonist maybe identified by:

A. Confession C. All of these
B. Eyewitness D. Circumstantial evidence

125. What is that physical evidence which linked the suspect to the crime scene or offense?
A. Associative evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Corpus delicti

126. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime was committed and established by a series of
crimes under one classification?
A. Associative evidence C. Confession
B. Modus operandi D. Tracing evidence

127. The process of identification by witness of the unknown suspect mixed with innocent
persons lined before the witness.
A. Verbal description C. Physical line- up
B. Physical show- up D. General Photographs

128. The accuracy of identification by eyewitness depends on the following factors:

1. Ability of the witness to observe distinct appearance of suspect
2. Visibility condition when the crime was committed
3. Degree of intelligence of the witness
4. Lapse of time in filing the case
A. 1 & 3 is correct C. 1 & 4 is correct
B. 3 & 4 is correct D. 1 & 2 is correct

129. He is a person who provides information to the fire investigator on a regular basis. They
are either paid regularly or in a case to case basis.
A. Informant C. Informer
B. Infiltrator D. Saboteur

130. These are information provided by the underworld characters such as prisoners or ex-
convicts.
A. Regular C. Cultivated
B. Grapevines D. Special
131. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed in
order to determine such, he must have knowledge of the so called cardinal questions of
investigation and there are ____ cardinal of investigation.
A. Four C. Nine
B. Six D. Seven

132. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the
base to the top of the building.
A. sprinkler system C. vertical shaft
B. flash point D. standpipe system

133. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than
four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side
collapses under fire condition:
A. firewood C. post wall
B. fire wall D. fire trap

134. Heat transferred by direct contact from one body to another is known as:
A. nuclear fission C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation

135. Passage way from one building to another or through or around a wall in appropriately the
same floor level.
A. smelting C. fulminate
B. vestibule D. horizontal exit

136. Instrument used to open and close fire hydrant

A. hydrant key C. key board
B. kilowatts D. bunch of key

137. There are three tools of the police investigator: Information, interrogation and
instrumentation. Of these three, information is deemed the most important simply because it
answers the question_______.
A. “what is malicious” C. was a weapon used”
B. “why did it happen” D. “who did it”

138. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/ exit?

A. the prober C. SOCO
B. the chief D. sleuth

139. Which among the following is the primary source of evidence in arson cases?
A. victim C. fire scene
B. suspect D. pyromaniac
140. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method
is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution

141. Which of these statements is TRUE?

A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion
B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

142. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

A. spontaneous combustion C. electrical wiring
B. leaking gas pipes D. smoking and matches

143. If a complaint or incident is NOT fully disposed of as a result of the first investigation, a
_______ report should be submitted.
A. case disposition report C. investigation report
B. follow- up report D. crime report

144. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called___________.

A. radiation C. oxidation
B. convection D. conduction

145. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of these C. burning nipa hut
B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire

146. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. unexplained explosion D. thick reddish smoke

147. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited
supply of oxygen because ________.
A. carbon reacts with carbon monoxide
B. carbon reacts with carbon dioxide
C. carbon monoxide is an effective reducing agent
D. greater oxidation takes place

148. Why water is prohibited to quench Class C fires?

A. burning metals are too hot
B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
C. there is the danger of electrocution
 D. explosion may occur

149. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is
connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant

150. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling
fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher

151. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol,
etc.
A. Class D C. Class A
B. Class C D. Class B

152. What law amends P.D. 1185?

A. R.A. 9517
B. R.A. 9514
C. R.A. 8514
D. R.A. 1185

153. SPO3 Karding has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his district.
At this point it is most important that _____________.
A. the proper scale be used
B. a high grade of paper and ink be used
C. no changes be made on the sketch
D. this sketch be refined and improved

154.Under what department is the Bureau of Fire Protection?

A. Department of National Defense
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Justice

155. Which of the following areas must a police fire prober consider important as he stands to
testify as witness?
A. Court procedure C. human nature
B. Rules on evidence D. Court jurisdiction

156. The primary reason a finished sketch at fire incident is made from a rough sketch is for
_____________.
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation
157. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial,
date and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. recording

158. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves.
This heat transfer is
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection

159. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key C. key board
B. fire hose D. jumper

160. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot be
checked, the safest practice is to
A. use foam to put off the fire
B. permit the fire to burn itself
C. use fog to extinguish the fire
D. use sand to smother the flame

161. How can a wound by bomb explosion be identified?

A. All of these
B. Sharpnels all inner the body
C. Presence of powder burns
D. Severe tearing of clothing

162. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators choosing
propitious moments shout out a pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are
in rage?
A. Pretense C. Bluff
B. Bolt D. Jolt

163. Which of the following is a characteristic of COMPLEX EMERGENCIES?

A. Politically driven resources war
B. All of these
C. Cultures, ethics, minority groups at risk of extinction
D. High levels of violence

164. Which is the most effective approach in report writing for fire incident?
A. Make it objective and impartial
B. Make it brief
C. Improve qualities of expository style
D. Make the reports clear
165. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting
B. Smelling D. Seeing

166. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally
to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle

167. Which of the following is considered endangering arson prober report writing under
Philippine setting?
A. poor English construction
B. missing notebook
C. absence of the investigator
D. poor memory

168. What are the “right questions” to ask in arson investigator interviewee in any fire
investigation?
A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at ease
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his own words
what he saw
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and answerable by
yes or no

169. Generally, if black soot and smoke particles are found around the bullet hole, what do
these indicate?
A. none of these
B. discharge occurred close to target
C. discharge occurred far from target
D. discharge occurred at medium range from target

170. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing witnesses, citizens
and victims?
A. place interviewee at ease
B. conduct interview in private
C. develop a plan of action
D. ask the right questions

171. Conduction is heat transfered through

A. electromagnetic waves C. smoke
B. air motion D. solid materials

172. What is the stage in report writing where the fire prober assesses his report and interprets
some facts if needed?
A. gathering facts C. documentation
 B. evaluation D. organization

173. The _________ of the report should be natural and straight forward, without exaggerated
rhetoric.
A. outline C. style
B. format D. synopsis

174. When a fire officer arrives in a fire scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. preserve human life
B. cordon the area
C. summon emergency personnel
D. apprehend the arsonist

175. To whom should written statement be taken by an investigator?

A. reluctant witnesses C. subjects and/or suspects
B. any of these D. key witnesses

176. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

A. Crime scene search & crime sketch
B. Removal of the victim’s body
C. Photographs, fingerprint lift and other evidence taken
D. Notes properly taken and witnesses identified

177. The narrative account of the fire investigation report should be _________.
A. arranged logically with an eye to reader comprehension
B. arranged chronologically and numbered
C. arranged logically
D. supported by annexes

178.When fire prober ascertain all of the circumstances of a crime and then bring these factors
into focus they are, in effect __________.
A. Reproducing C. Reconstructing
B. Reiterating D. Reenacting

179.Which method is considered appropriate in fire scene search involving big space or area?
A. perpendicular C. double strip
B. quadrant zone D. circular wheel type

180. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure
181. Anything that is real, has substance, and helps to establish the facts of the case
______________.
A. direct evidence C. corroborative evidence
B. circumstantial evidence D. physical evidence

182. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
A. proof of ownership of the camera
B. date and hour when each photograph of the fire incident was taken
C. focal length of the lens
D. identification of the fire prober

183. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until presentation in
court must take certain safeguards. What is the total processed called?
A. integrity of evidence C. standards of comparison
B. physical disposition D. chain of custody

184. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

A. distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion

185. Except, How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver and/or charred corpse?
A. study his bones C. study his dentures
B. study his skull D. study hair DNA strands

186. What kind of report refers to the analysis, evaluation, summation of all facts and
circumstances surrounding the case?
A. advance C. initial
B. final D. progress

187. Which of the following ought to be avoided by a fire investigator while securing a dying
declaration?
A. advising the dying person of the rubbish of making such statement
B. memorizing the victim’s statement
C. manifest an atmosphere of an impending death
D. Observe the mental condition of the victim

188. Evidence to be presented in court must be presented in the same substantial condition as
it is at the time the crime was committed. Thus, protection must be made from ____________.
A. accidental alteration C. all of these
B. natural alteration D. intentional alteration

189. If an individual takes someone else property after the fire incident, hide it and denies any
knowledge of its whereabouts the intent to steal ________________.
A. is not present C. is manifestly absent
B. would have to be inferred D. depends upon ownership
190. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?
A. presence of nitrate
B. indicate humid substance
C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay
D. presence of phosphorus

191. After completion of the crime search, what is that effect made by the investigator to
determine from the appearance of the place and it`s objects what actually occurred and what
are the circumstances of the crime?
A. Crime reconstruction C. All of these
B. Crime scene stripping D. Crime sketch

192. In what crime would the matter of preserving the crime scene LEAST dealt with?
C. Robbery C. Rape
D. Arson D. homicide

193. A fire officer searching a crime scene should look upon evidence as serving to establish
one or all of the following _____________ .
A. identity of the victim
B. identity of the guilty party
C. perpetrator’s modus operandi
D. corpus delicti

194. Which among the following is the most accurate governing interview of a new informant?
A. uninterrupted time and sufficient space
B. safety of investigation
C. all of these
D. privacy of interview

195. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as steel beams, metal conduits and
ducts.
A. conduction C. radiation
B. combustion D. convection

196. In collecting glass standards after the fire, samples must at least be the size of a quarter,
and must be taken from what area?
A. any of these
B. near as possible to point of contact
C. from the point of contact
D. from the biggest cluster of fragments

197. What could be the best camera position in taking photographs showing a view of what a
witness might have seen after the fire incident?
A. at 6 foot distance from cameraman
B. overhead
C. parallel to the subject or witness
 D. at eye level

198. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

A. none of these
B. establishment of corpus delicti
C. identity of the perpetrator
D. malicious intent of the perpetrator

199. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
_______________.

A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation

200. How many percent of air in the atmosphere?

A. 10
B. 21
C. 15
D. 28
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION

1.) Criminals can also be classified according to this behavioral system. What crime are those criminals
who have high degree of organization that enables them to commit crime without being detected and
usually operates in a large scale?
A. Organized Criminals C. Professional Criminals
B. Situational Criminals D. Organization Criminals

2.) White collar crime coined by Sutherland and also Known as?
A. Edwin Sutherland C. Commercial Crime
B. Emile Durkheim D. Cessare Lombroso

3.) The strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of the Mafia members is called ___.
A. Omerta
B. Triad
C. Silencer
D. Mafioso

4.) Waray-AbuyogGroup,from the provinces of?

A. Negros Oriental and Occidental
B. Lemery, Batangas
C. Samar and Leyte
D. General Santos and South Cotabato

5.) Known as modern day slavery?

A. Piracy C. Trafficking in persons
B. Sex Business D. Fencing
6.) He founded the MNLF.
A. HashimSalamat
B. NurMisuari
C. Jose Maria Sison
D. Abu AlBuChoi

7.) The compromise and or prejudice agreement to establish peace in the Autonomous Region
in Bangsamoro land.
A. Huwangyan Agreement
B. Treaty of France
C. Bangsa Moro BasicLaw Agreement
D. Baho di Masinloc Agreement

8.) Jabidah Massacre took place in what place?

A. 1920’s
B. Corregidor
C. Sulu
D. Basilan

9.) It literally mean Islamic Congregation, It is a Southeast Asian militant Islamist terrorist organization
dedicated to the establishment of a DaulahIslamiyah (regional Islamic caliphate) in Southeast Asia
founded by:
A. Abu Bakar Bashir
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

10.) It is an Islamic fundamentalist political movement in Afghanistan.It is founded by Mullah

Mohammed Omar Mujahid.
A. Taliban
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

11.) It literally means "swordsmith", is a militant Islamist group based in and around Jolo and Basilan,
Philippines founded by?
A. MILF
B. MNLF
 C. ASG
D. NONE

12.) It means "Western Education is Forbidden", is an Islamist terrorist movement based in north-east
Nigeria.
A. Taliban
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

13.) It means "The Base', is a global militant Islamist organization founded by Osama bin Laden and
Other militants.
A. Taliban
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

14.) It is an Islamic extremist rebel group controlling territory in Iraq and Syria, with operations in
Lebanon, Libya, the Sinai Peninsula of Egypt, and other areas of the Middle East.
A. ISIS
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

15.) It literally means "The Youth", is a jihadist terrorist group based in Somalia.
A. ISIS
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Al-Shabaab

16.) It is a street gang and organized crime group with origins in the Philippines. The gang was formed in
the early 1940s among Filipino inmates in large and dangerous Manila correctional facilities. Member's
value of fatalism is that it didn't really matter what one did if fate was against you.
A. Akya-Bahay Gang
B. Bahalana Gang
C. KuratongBaleleng
D. Martilyo Gang

17.) It is an organized crime syndicate in the Philippines that once was an anti-communist
vigilante group.
 A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Bahalana Gang
C. KuratongBaleleng
D. Martilyo Gang

18.) This gang is notoriously known for robbing jewelry shops and useswrench, hammer and other tools
to smash store windows.
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Bahalana Gang
C. KuratongBaleleng
D. Martilyo Gang

19.) The conman or woman suddenly hugs the victim like they’re old friends. With a knife poked on his
side, victim is ordered to quietly turn over cash and other valuables. A Modus operandiof what criminal
gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang

20.) Two cohorts falsely accuse victim of stealing. Naturally denying it, victim is asked to show proof of
character. Once he fishes out an ID card from the wallet, the gang men grab the money and scram. An
MO of what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang

21.) Three to four males and females befriend a lone tourist. After gaining his confidence, they tour him
around, then invite him to dine in their shanty. Then a potent sleeping pill, is slipped into the drink. The
drugged victim is stripped of belongings, then dumped in a secluded place. A Modus Operandi of what
criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang

22.) A woman seducing the victim, then drugging him in the hotel room. Most victims are knocked out
for days learning later all of his/herbelongings are gone. Committed usually by what criminal gang?
A. Akyat-Bahay Gang
B. Salisi Gang
 C. Ativan Gang
D. Martilyo Gang

23.) This Gang operates in threes or fours. Victim is shoved into distraction, while his pocket is picked or
mobile snatched. Theusually operates in buses, trains and stations and crowded areas.
A. Tutok-Kalawit Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang

24.) The conman or woman suddenly hugs the victim like they’re old friends. With a knife poked on his
side, victim is ordered to quietly turn over cash and other valuables. This Modus Operandi is
committedby what criminal gang?
A. Tutok-Kalawit Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang

25.) Perpetrators are courteous and well dressed, with props like attaché case or jewelry to look
businesslike and affluent. They pick out a victim who is so engrossed in talk or texting to
leave belongings unattended. In swift motion they swipe the bag or laptop, and casually leave. A Modus
Operandi committed by whatcriminal gang?
A. Tutok-Kalawit Gang
B. Salisi Gang
C. Ipit Gang
D. Budol-Budol Gang

26. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting
B. Smelling D. Seeing
27. Which of the following steps is part of the method of investigating robbery by use of force upon
thing?
A. description of the stolen articles
B. written testimony of the complainant
C. each of these
D. determining the points of entry and exit by the perpetrator
28. Rank in the order of importance the following physical evidence against kidnap for ransom.
A. written statement of complainant, detention gadgets, victim
B. recorded conversation, ransom money, vehicles used
C. detention gadgets, safe house site, firearms, of any
D. written statement of complainant, recorded conversation, ransom money

29. These are information provided by the underworld characters such as prisoners or ex- convicts.
A. Regular C. Cultivated
B. Grapevines D. Special
30. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed in order to
determine such, he must have knowledge of the so called cardinal questions of investigation and there are
____ cardinal of investigation.
A. Four C. Nine
B. Six D. Seven
31. Death due to throttling is highly indicative of___.
A. suicide C. homicide
B. accident D. none of these
32. In crime of rape in relation to Organized crime, its most likely place of commission cannot be
specified, unless the victim or witness pinpoints the same, what is considered critical observation to be
done by the investigator?
A. Evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim
B. All of these
C. Evidence to show sexual intercourse
D. Look for evidence of struggle

33. All of the following are act of sexual assault constituting the crime of rape by syndicate, EXCEPT
A. By inserting his penis into another person’s mouth
B. By inserting any instrument into another person’s genital or anal orifice
C. By inserting any instrument into another person’s mouth
D. By inserting his penis into another person’s anal orifice
34. The term "Stockholm Syndrome" was coined by the criminologist and psychiatrist Nils Bejerot, who
assisted the police during the robbery, and referred to the syndrome in a news broadcast. Who originally
give the term Stockholm syndrome?
a. Nils Bejerot c. Frank Ochberg
b. Edwin Sutherland d. Gabriel Tarde
e. Daniel Classier
35. Under the concept of three (3) stage negotiation, negotiation must be performed through opening,
bargaining, and ____.
a. Negotiating
b. Closing
c. Goodbye Joe
d. Containing
36. It is a Subjectively defined behavioral characteristic, assigned to those with rare or dysfunctional
conditions.
a. Abnormality d. Behavioral Conduct
b. Abnormal Behavior
c. Dysfunctional
37. It is develop when one or more terrorists or criminals hold people against their will and try to hold off
the authorities by force, threatening to kill the hostages if provoked or attacked.
a. Hostage Crisis d. Crisis
b. Hostage Negotiation
c. Hostage
38. This is a type of hostage-taker which is viewed as a group of psychopaths with a cause, all under the
leadership of one of the group. When caught in a criminal act, many of them rationalize their behavior by
claiming to be revolutionaries who are merely seeking social justice. This hostage-taker is known as ___.
a. Criminal Hostage-taker d. Terrorist Hostage
b. Fanatic Hostage-taker
c. Psychotic Hostage-taker
39. What is the most important element of hostage negotiation?
a. The Hostage d. Time
b. Witnesses
c. Hostage Negotiator

40. Under the Eight Stage Negotiation Process if the hostage negotiator tries to understand the hostage-
taker and the negotiator also seek to hear and listen to the captor, what is the process practiced by the
hostage negotiator?
a. Preparing and Opening
b. Opening and Arguing
c. Signaling and Exploring
d. Packaging and Sustaining

41. One policy in a hostage negotiation is to avoid mistake. If a hostage negotiator gives the hostage-taker
no other alternative but to fight this mistake of negotiation is known as ___.
a. Accepting Position d. Cornering
b. Accepting Statement
c. Hurrying
42. Under the Special Procedure of the Philippine National Police Operational Procedure which of the
following steps should not be undertaken during hostage situation?
a. Incident scene shall be secured and isolated.
b. Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed to enter and exit to the incident scene.
c. A Crisis Management Task Group shall be activated immediately.
d. Assault team shall target the hostage-taker immediately.

Case 1
On September 21, 2009 Mr. Jeffrey Boy Ganao boxed Mr. Raymundo Puntil during their Criminology
Licensure Examination review in Baguio City Calla lily apartment for unknown reason. However, they
successfully passed the exam and entered also in the police service. 20 years later, in one police
conference, without any caution C/Supt. Raymundo Puntil take hold of C/Supt. Jeffrey Boy Ganao at the
roof top of Makati hotel. C/Supt. Puntil cautioned to injure his victim if Ganao’s parents will not
apologize for what had happened 20 years ago and anyone who will intervene will be killed. In short,
there is a hostage crisis. After 4 days of negotiation, C/Supt. Puntil released his captive out of sympathy.
However, after the incident they became close friends forever.
43. From case 1, the incident that took place in Makati is known as ___.
a. Makati Mutiny c. Hostage Negotiation
b. Makati Siege d. Hostage Crisis

44. From case 1, on that incident what factor played as the most important thing that led to the released of
C/Supt. Puntil? Answer as a hostage negotiator.
a. Sympathy is very important. d. Time
b. The negotiator is good.
c Stockholm Syndrome
45. From case 1, based on the aforementioned situation C/Supt. Puntil is known as hostage-taker while
C/Supt. Ganao is not known as ___.
a. Hostage d. Hostage Taker
b. Captive
c. Hostage Victim
46. A woman with an unwanted pregnancy may be morally opposed by abortion. Specifically, what is this
kind of conflict?
a. Frustration d. Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
b. Approach-Avoidance Conflict
c. Approach-Approach Conflict

47. It is a kind of defense mechanism in which a person returns to an earlier stage of development in
response to some perceived threat. An adult for instance who is unable to solve problems that confront
him may resort to childish tactics. He may cry what he wants. This refers to:
a. Withdrawal Reaction d. Regression
b. Repression
c. Aggression
48. It refers to the unpleasant feelings that resulted from the blocking of motive satisfaction- that is, the
feelings we experience when something interferes with our wishes, hopes, plans and expectation. This is
considered as a universal experience?
a. Depression d. Frustration
b. Emotion
c. Phobia
49. Emergency came from the Greek word “emergentia” meaning a dipping. Funk and Wagnall defined
emergency as a sudden condition or state of affair calling for immediate action.
a. True d. False
 b. Partially True
c. Partially False
50. The word Crisis came from the Latin word “crisis”, which means emergency. As defined by Funk and
Wagnalls, crisis is turning points in the progress of an affair or a series of events.
a. No d. Partially Yes
b. Partially No
c. Yes

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION

1. Which of the following steps is part of the method of investigating

robbery by use of force upon thing?

A. description of the stolen articles

B. written testimony of the complainant
C. each of these
D. determining the points of entry and exit of the
perpetrator
ANS. D

2. Which among the following items are to be gathered as evidence in a

crime scene of criminal abortion?
A. syringe and catheter C. all of these

B. prohibited drugs D. blood on the panties

ANS. A

3. A form of violent death brought by the suspension of the body by a

ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is
the weight of the body?
A. asphyxia by suffocation
B. manual strangulation
C. asphyxia by hanging
D. none of these
ANS. C

4. Is it still possible to get DNA to a hair even if without root?

 A. yes C. no

B. it depends D. possible

ANS.

5. A, the neighbor of B, shot the pig of B which was eating A’s camote
plants. A, thereafter cook the pig’s meat (pork) and consumed the
same. What is A liable for?

A. violation of Anti- fencing law

B. violation of Anti- Cattle Rustling law
C. malicious mischief
D. theft

ANS. D

6. A girl was found dead wearing pajama. What is the possible time of
the commission of the crime?
A. daytime C. lunchtime

B. none of these D. nighttime

ANS. D

7. If the sharp edge portion of the wounding instrument is the first

to come in contact, then the wound produced is:
A. punctured C. hematoma

B. lacerated D. stab wound

ANS. D

8. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude:

A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have been a success
D. all available information have been uncovered
ANS. C

9. Is it possible to have a number of gunshots wound entry less than

the exit wound?
A. maybe C. possible
 B. impossible D. none of these

ANS. C

10. The Revised Penal Code refers to the breaking and entering into
house or building with felonious intent as ___________.

A. burglary C. robbery

B. theft D. larceny

ANS. C

11. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

A. crime scene search and crime sketch

B. removal of the victim’s body
C. photographs, fingerprint left and other evidence taken
D. notes properly taken and witness identified
ANS. B

12. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is

elongated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end
of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the
drop of bloods indicates___.

A. route C. fresh blood

B. direction movement D. dried stain

ANS. B

13. “A” found in his caratela a purse containing money and jewelry
left by a passenger. “A” delivered it to “B”, a policeman, with
request to give it to “C”, the owner thereof. “B” did not give it to
“C” and appropriated it. What crime did “B” commit?

A. robbery C. estafa

B. coercion D. theft

ANS. C
14. Pedro threw a hand grenade at Juan who was killed as a result of
the explosion. What crime was committed?

A. parricide C. murder

B. frustrated murder D. homicide

ANS. C

15. Rose is a despondent mother of Roderick. Due to poverty, Rose has

thought of killing Roderick who is three months old to save the baby
from further suffering. What crime was committed?

A. homicide c. none of these

B. parricide D. infanticide

ANS. B

16. What is frequently being used as a disguise by bank robbers?

A. Hoods C. Sunglass

B. Hats D. Wigs

ANS. C

17. Which among the following is NOT one of the types of death that an
investigator will generally encounter?

A. suicide C. accidental

B. homicide D. natural cause

ANS. D

18. What type of blood stain pattern is produce when the blood is
thrown off at great speed or falls a large distance?
 A. elliptical C. crenellated

B. circular D. none of these

ANS. B

19. What reagent is used by crime scene investigators to locate occult

blood, even if it has been cleaned or removed?

A. precipitin C. luminol

B. walkers test D. acid phosphatase

ANS. C

20. After death, blood remains fluid in the blood vessel for how many
hours?

A. 8 to 12 C. 12 to 24

B. 6 to 8 D. 24 to 36

ANS. B

21. What crime is committed by any person who with intent to gain
shall buy articles, objects or anything of value which he knows to
have been derived from the proceeds of crime of robbery or theft?

A. Violation of PD 1185 C. Violation of RA 6539

B. Violation of PD 1612 D. Violation of PD 533
ANS. B

22. The act of killing of a father by his own child is called?

A. homicide C. murder

B. parricide D. patricide

ANS. D

23. What is the color of post- mortem lividity if the cause of death
of the victim is cyanide poisoning?
 A. dark lividity

B. cherry red to pinkish color

C. dark brown lividity

D. blue specks

ANS. B

24. How do you treat a “kidnap for ransom gang”, if you are an
investigator?

A. all of these
B. a slightest mistake on the part of the law enforcement
would mean death of the victim
C. as witty, experienced and dangerous armed criminal
D. news black out
ANS. B

25. If your are the officer in charge of PACER, what significant

requirement would you consider critical of police officers being
utilized in the campaign against kidnap for ransom syndicates?

A. well connected
B. trusted
C. experienced field officer
D. FBI trained
ANS. C

26. What is the logical assumption when a body is found with wounds
which indicate that much blood has been lost but the amount of blood
appears to be less than what would normally expect to find?

A. the crime committed was murder

B. the suspect fled with the victim

C. the crime was committed elsewhere

D. the crime will never be solve

ANS. C

27. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of VACILLATE?

A. hesitate C. veracity

B. sincere D. none of these

ANS. A

28. Which among the following type of behavior or individuals are most
often NOT associated together?

A. tribadism and men

B. transvertites and homosexual
C. sadism and masochism
D. frotteurs and women
ANS. B

29. In hostage survival, how do we increase the odds for hostage

takers?

A. stay alert, collect and store information

B. all of these
C. control instinctive behavior and get small or non-
threatening
D. analyze route of travel and don’t volunteer information
ANS. B

30. Police usually come in contact with acts of sodomy when it

involves___________.

A. violence and murder C. male and female

B. animals and people D. stomasexuals

ANS. C

31. Anti- Highway Robbery Law is known as __________.

A. P.D. 1185 C. P.D. 1612

 B. P.D. 532 D. P.D. 1602

ANS. B

32. In order to have a successful interrogation, one of the most

important factors to consider is:

A. subject’s emotion C. knowledge of all facts

B. cooperation D. privacy

ANS. C

33. In crime of rape, its most likely place of commission cannot be

specified, unless the victim or witness pinpoints the same, what is
considered critical observation to be done by the investigator?

A. Evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim

B. All of these
C. Evidence to show sexual intercourse
D. Look for evidence of struggle
ANS. D

34. What are the “right questions” to ask a police interviewee in any
police investigations?

E. ask hypothetical questions that would put the interviewee at

ease
F. ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his
own words what he saw
G. check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
H. ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and
answerable by yes or no
ANS. B

35. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before

interviewing witnesses, citizens and victims?

A. place interviewee at ease

 B. conduct interview in private

C. develop a plan of action

D. ask the right question

ANS. C

36. What method promotes anxiety by placing the accused on a line- up

and he is identified by several fictitious witnesses or victims who
got associated with him in different offenses until subject becomes
desperate and confesses to the offense in order to escape accusations?

A. greater or lesser guilt C. reverse line-up

B. line- up D. stern approach

ANS. C

37. A truck loaded with stolen boxes of rifles was on the way out of
the checkpoint in south harbor surrounded by a tall fence when a
security guard discovered the boxes on the truck. What crime was
committed?

A. attempted felony C. consummated felony

B. frustrated felony D. none of these

ANS. C

38. All of the following are the rules to be observed in questioning,

EXCEPT

A. one question at a time

B. saving faces

C. avoid implied answer

D. broad questions

ANS. B
39. Investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete
information especially with uncooperative subjects.

A. logical mind C. perseverance

B. integrity D. self control

ANS. C

40. In collecting glass standards, samples must at least be the size

of a quarter, and must be taken from what area?

A. any of these
B. near as possible to point of contact
C. from the point of contact
D. from the biggest cluster of fragments
ANS. C

41. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in

questioning?

A. simplicity of the questions

B. accept implied answer

C. one question at a time

D. saving faces

ANS. D

42. What method of interrogation is applicable when there are more

than one suspect and the suspect are separated and one is informed
that the other has talked?

A. reverse line- up C. pretense of evidence

B. indifference D. split pair

ANS. D

43. What is that imposition of restriction on physical behavior such

as prolonged interrogation, deprivation of water, food or sleep?

A. duress C. coercion

B. contempt D. psychological

ANS. A

44. Which of the following is considered the most scientific approach

of noticing that there is loss of public funds?

A. By inspection and audit

B. By information
C. By accident
D. Disappearance of the embezzler
ANS. A

45. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a

mental organ function of a person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous

B. all of these D. respiratory

ANS. C

46. Modus operandi files would normally be most valuable if the crime
was ______.

A. a first time offender C. an old offender

B. a female offender D. a juvenile offender

ANS. C

47. What should be highlighted for publicity in a kidnap for ransom

case?

A. Victim’s identity
B. None of these
 C. Police investigator fine performance
D. Details of ransom rate
ANS. A

48. What should the police officer do to make other think while he is
on the witness stand?

A. making the streets a safer place

B. defending the victim
C. trying to convict the criminal
D. merely presenting facts
ANS. D

49. Police departments are encouraging people to engrave a number on

their valuables to serve as means of identification as it will
facilitate the recovery of lost and stolen property. Which of the
following number can be recommended for individual identification?
A. Social security number C. Date of birth

B. Age D. Home address

ANS. A

50. While walking down the main street, Johnny finds a wallet with Php
200, a driver’s license and credit cards. Johnny decided to keep
the money and wallet and destroyed the license and credit cards,
under the circumstances Johnny is guilty of
A. Larceny
B. Misappropriation of property
C. Embezzlement
D. No crime
ANS. A

TRAFFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

1. This pertains to all lines, patterns, words, colors officially placed for the purpose of regulating,
warning or guiding traffic.
A. traffic sign C. traffic lights
B. pavement markings D. any of these
2. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT
A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
 B. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
C. absolutely no overtaking
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
3. Single white continuous line in a Two-lane traffic way indicates all of the following except:
A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
B. overtaking is extremely dangerous
C. could be found in road sections that are dangerous
D. passing and overtaking can be made by ONLY under circumstances when there
is no oncoming traffic
4. Single continuous line on a Four-lane indicates all of the following EXCEPT
A. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming possible
B. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake by passing over the solid
white line
C. Lanes 1 and 4 ( outer lanes ) for slow moving vehicles. Vehicles on this lane
should not be BELOW the minimum speed limit
D. Lanes 2 and 3 ( inner lanes ) are usually for faster moving vehicles
5. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between means all EXCEPT
A. overtaking is extremely dangerous
B. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid lines
C. absolutely no overtaking
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
6. A yellow or white line with a dotted white line do not mean EXCEPT
A. overtaking is extremely dangerous
B. that you cannot overtake if the solid line is on your side
C. absolutely no overtaking
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle

7. Refers to any device mounted on portable support whereby a message is conveyed by means
of words or symbols officially installed for the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.
A. traffic signal light C. traffic lights
B. traffic signs D. any of these
8. These signs are also known as “caution signs” These signs have equilateral triangular shape
with one side horizontal and having red borders.
A. regulatory signs C. informative signs
B. danger warning signs D. any of these
9. These signs are also known as “guide signs” or “direction signs”. It is rectangular in shape
and white white-colored on blue background.
A. regulatory signs C. informative signs
B. danger warning signs D. any of these
10. These are signs which impose legal restrictions applicable at particular location usually
enforceable in the absence of such signs. They are usually round in shape with the exception of “
stop sign” and “yield sign”
A. regulatory signs C. informative signs
B. danger warning signs D. any of these
11. These are issued to foreign diplomats and consuls assigned in the Philippines
A. private C. government
B. public utility vehicles D. diplomat
12. These are registered primarily for the conveyance of passengers and other commercial goods.
A. private C. government
B. public utility vehicles D. diplomat
13. These are motor vehicles used for the personal use of their owners.
A. private C. government
B. public utility vehicles D. diplomat
14. These are motor vehicles owned by government offices and are used for official purposes
only.
A. private C. government
B. public utility vehicles D. diplomat
15. Driving a motor vehicle in the Philippines is a matter of right granted by the Philippine
government. Of course this statement is true, this is?
A. true C. maybe true
B. false D. sometimes false
16. When a driver’s license is confiscated for violations of RA 4136 the traffic enforcer must
issue a receipt of Temporary Operators Permit which is good for_____ within which the driver
may continue to operate his vehicle.
A. 15 days C. 5 days
B. 24 hours D. 72 hours

17. This license is issued to a driver hired or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle
whether private use or for hire to the public.
A. Student permit C. Pro DL
B. Non-pro DL D. Military DL
18. This kind of license is issued to owners of privately owned motor vehicles or those not for
hire or paid for driving.
A. Student permit C. Pro DL
B. Non-pro DL D. Military DL
19. It is issued to persons who desire to learn to drive.
A. Student permit C. Pro DL
B. Non-pro DL D. Military DL
20. Bonafide tourist and transients who are duly licensed to operate motor vehicles in their
respective countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not beyond?
 A. 12 months C. 90 days
B. 60 days D. 3 years
21. A student permit is valid up to ______ from the date of issue.
A. 12 months C. 90 days
B. 60 days D. 3 years
22. Pedestrians when crossing on the road should use only the:
A. pedestrian walk C. sidewalk
B. crosswalk D. all of the above
23. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the traffic light?
A. red, yellow, green C. green, amber, red
B. green, red, yellow D. red, green, yellow
24. What is the minimum age of a person who has the statutory qualification to drive a motor
vehicle with professional license?
A. 16 years old C. 18 years old
B. 17 years old D. any of these
25. Which of these is the first domesticated animal?
A. dog C. ox
B. donkey D. elephant
26. The application of the processes of planning, organizing, directing and controlling to traffic
affairs is referred to as-
A. Traffic administration C. traffic operation
B. traffic management D. traffic supervision
27. The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another is referred to as-
A. traffic C. traffic management
B. transportation D. any of these

28. R.A. 8750 is otherwise known as

A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Land transportation code D. Anti-Carnapping Act
29. The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is-
A. amber C. green
B. red D. brown
30. What was the main problem in transportation when wheeled carts and carriages were
introduced?
A. lack of technical knowledge to operate the vehicle
B. lack of animals to pull the carts
C. narrow man and animal pathways
D. inferior raw materials for wheel manufacturing
31. The portion of the traffic way which is either of the edges of the road or highway is referred
to as:
 A. sidewalk C. shoulder
B. traffic way D. roadway
32. Free flowing travel, stop time and acceleration or deceleration are the elements of what we
call?
A. time of travel C. speed
B. vehicle travel time D. transportation
33. This field deals mostly on the implementation and enforcement of traffic laws rules and
regulations.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Economy
B. Traffic Environment D. Traffic Enforcement
34. Which of the following is the Land Transportation Code?
A. R.A. 4136 C. R.A. 7659
B. P.D. 4136 D. R.A. 8749
35. Which of the following is not included in the parking prohibitions as provided for by the
Land Transportation Code of the Philippines?
A. on a sidewalk
B. within an intersection
C. in front of a private driveway
D. within four meters of the driveway entrance of any fire station
36. Which of the following is not true about the proper use of a vehicles headlight?
A. it should be switched on one hour after the sunset and should be switched one hour
before the sun rise
B. it should be dimmed when meeting with another motor vehicle
C. It should be dimmed when traversing through a well-lighted thoroughfare
D. any of these

37. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he committed?
A. illegal unloading C. illegal loading
B. traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
38. When the two vehicles approach the intersection at approximately at the same time, which
shall give the right of way?
A. the vehicle coming from the right
B. the vehicle coming from the center
C. the vehicle coming from the left
D. the one which arrives there first
39. A professional driver is one who operates a motor vehicle:
A. for public or private use
B. who is highly skilled and has broad experience in handling any type of motor vehicle
C. for hire or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle, whether for private use or
for hire to the public.
D. which is strictly for hire
40. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by except:
A. poor legislation activities
B. lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C. slow drivers or bad driving habit
D. effective and efficient traffic officers
41. The government office that is responsible in the enforcement of drivers’ licensing is the-
A. PNP C. DOTC
B. LTO D. LTFRB
42. It is the process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge.
A. Public information program C. traffic education
B. Safety campaign D. practical driving
43. The process of training road users in the avoidance and prevention of traffic related accidents
is referred to as:
A. safety operation C. safety consciousness
B. traffic safety education D. traffic safety campaign
44. It is the law providing for the abatement of air pollution from motor vehicles and for other
purposes.
A. PD 98 C. RA. 8749
B. PD 96 D. RA 7924
45. What law created the Land Transportation Franchising and Regulatory Board?
A. E.O. 202 C. RA 4136
B. RA 7924 D. D.O. 93-693

46. It has a number of wheels, when propelled or intended to be propelled by attachment to a

motor vehicle shall be classified as separate motor vehicle with no power rating.
A. passenger automobiles C. trailers
B. lawn mowers D. any of these
47. What law regulates the use of sirens, bells, horns, etc. unless the vehicle belongs to the AFP,
NBI, LTO, PNP, BJMP, BFP, and hospitals?
A. PD 98 C. PD 1181
B. PD 96 D. RA 7924
48. It is the instrument used to measure the velocity of a vehicle specially those in highways?
A. velocity gun C. glue gun
B. speed gun D. CCTV
49. It is considered as one of the most dangerous roads in the world because of prevalence of
number of accidents?
A. EDSA C. C-5
B. Commonwealth D. Balete drive
50. When could a driver leave the area of accident without being held liable for HIT and RUN?
 A. when his life is in imminent danger of being harmed by other person/s by reason of
the accident
B. he surrenders to proper authorities
C. he summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. all of these
51. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how
the accident happened?

E. hole on the road pavement

F. point of impact
G. the driver under the influence of liquor
H. vehicle has break failure

52. Which of the following is a safe place for over taking?

A. commercial lanes C. rural highways
B. expressways D. dry pavement
53. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?
A. braking distance C. reaction distance
B. reaction time D. braking reaction
54. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the vehicle and may serve as a clue
in traffic investigation is referred to as:
A. scuff marks C. scratches and gouges
B. skid marks D. flat tire marks

55. Kind of criminal whereby the description and characteristics maybe vague that identification
maybe difficult.
A. professional criminal C. ordinary criminal
B. known fugitives D. unknown fugitives

56. When there is a collision between a train and bus, which unit of the police takes charge?

A. Homicide division
B. Traffic investigation unit
C. General investigation unit
D. Traffic management group
57. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT
A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
B. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
C. absolutely no overtaking
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
58. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets and highway traffic by improving road
efficiency?

A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic education

 B. Traffic management D. Traffic direction
59. PO1 Cruz is preparing a rough sketch of a traffic incident. What should be given merit and
importance?

A. proper scale to be used

B. high grade of paper
C. no changes
D. sketch be reprinted and improved
60. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of

A. adequate utilization of traffic resources

B. effective traffic enforcement
C. correct attitude and habit
D. sustained information campaign

CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION and PREVENTION 15%

1.What is the value of hypnotism in criminal investigation?

A. hypnotist can very well not guide investigator on case
B. desired information can be abundantly gathered
C. admissible in court proceeding
D. subject totally under control by hypnotist which will
not suffice probe

2. Can a strong acid burn completely and never to recur fingerprints?

A. always C. none of these
B. it depends D. no

3. The accuracy of identification by eyewitness depends on the

following factors:
1. Ability of the witness to observe distinct appearance
of suspect
2. Visibility condition when the crime was committed
3. Degree of intelligence of the witness
4. Lapse of time in filing the case

A. 1 & 3 is correct C. 1 & 4 is correct

B. 3 & 4 is correct D. 1 & 2 is correct

4. In photographing a crime scene, what view will best feature the

nature of the crime scene?
A. medium C. close- up
B. general D. extreme close- up
5. What kind of question suggests to the witness the answer which the
examiner wants?
A. Relevant C. Pertinent
B. All of these D. Leading

6. Microscopic examination is a:
A. conformity test C. physiological test
B. physical test D. scientific test

7. Photographs are valuable in crime investigations for it provides

law enforcers an easier works in court:
A. duties C. testimony
B. function D. appearance

8. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system

which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. fire exit C. fire trap
B. damper D. fire alarm

9. What is the effect of heat of sunlight to DNA sample?

A. sanitation C. contamination
D. preservation D. none of these

10. One of the most expensive instruments used for examination of

documents that would show three (3) dimensional enlargements?
A. polarizing light C. stereoscopic microscope
B. infra- red gadget D. ultra- violet lamp

11. What is a system of identification which was used earlier than

fingerprint system, made by measuring various bony structure of human
body developed by Alphonse Bertillion?
A. Portrait parle C. Tattoo
B. Anthropometry d. Photography

12. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?
A. radiation C. conductor
B. oxidizing agent D. vapor

13. A document completely written and signed by one person is called:

A. questioned document C. disputed document
B. holographic document D. carbon copy

14. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude __.
 A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have been a success
D. all available information has been uncovered

15. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant

materials attached to and extending below the bottom chord of roof
trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate
compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a
roof vent?
A. fire door C. fire trap
B. electric arc D. curtain board
16. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun
barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the:
A. gun from which a bullet was fired
B. direction from which a shot is fired
C. bullet which caused a fatal wound
D. person who fired the particular gun

17. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound

which releases oxygen readily?
A. organic peroxide C. corrosive liquid
B. blasting agent D. combustible fiber

18. Official records and other documentary materials are _______

sources of data.
A. basic C. tertiary
B. primary D. secondary

19. One of the motives of an informant for providing the investigator

necessary information solely for the material gain he is to receive.
A. Vanity C. Remuneration
B. Repentance D. Civic mindedness

20. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer when using a

flash unit?
A. synchronization C. parallax
B. neutral density D. multiple image

21. In introducing physical evidence at a trial, three important

factors must be constructed: First, the evidence must be material
and relevant, second the article must be properly identified and:
A. it must be part of the modus operandi
B. there must be a knowledge of laboratory procedures
C. the object must have been use in the commission of the
crime
D. the chain of custody must be established
22. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. unexplained explosion D. thick reddish smoke

23. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to
floor as well as from the base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point

24. What is the most popular and traditional mode of removing powder
residue?
A. swabbing cotton moistened with 5% nitric acid
B. washing hands with vinegar
C. washing both hands with hot water
D. spraying hands with sodium rhodizonate
25. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:
E. reduce vibration of the hydrant
F. ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
G. prevent water hammer
H. close the coupling

26. What is the stiffening of a certain group of muscles at the moment

of death, usually associated with violent deaths due to extreme
nervous tension or even fatigue?
A. cold stiffening C. cadaveric spasm
B. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis

27. What kind of questions should be formulated for purposes of

polygraph examination in investigation?
A. narrative style
B. those answerable by yes or no
C. those that call for positive response
D. elaborated subject matter

28. Which among the following scientific aiders in crime detection can inform the investigator as to
the death of a person?
A. fingerprint expert C. medical examiner
B. ballistician D. cardiologist

29. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like
kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc.
A. Class D C. Class A
B. Class C D. Class B
30. There are three tools of the police investigator: information,
interrogation and instrumentation. One of these three, information is
deemed the most important simply because it answers the questions?
A. “what is malicious?” C. “was a weapon used?”
B. “why did it happen?” D. “who did it?”

31. What is that method of identification discovered in 1985 by Prof

Alec Jeffreys in United Kingdom?
A. minerological test C. DNA fingerprinting
B. paraffin D. ballistics

32. What is the secret of a good shooting form?

A. firing slowly and carefully
B. relaxed and natural position
C. proper sighting of the target
D. keeping the thumb along the hammer

33. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system and if he does
not take drugs, he develops withdrawal signs such as restlessness,
pain, or convulsions. Pedro is
A. physically dependent on drugs
B. mentally dependent on drugs
C. psychologically dependent on drugs
D. socially dependent on drugs

34. What should the police officer do to make other think while he is
on the witness stand?
E. making the streets a safer place
F. defending the victim
G. trying to convict the criminal
H. merely presenting facts

35. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a chain of events which

usually produce unintended injury, death, or damage to property?
A. Calamity C. Accident
B. crime D. Assault

36. Which of the following evidence referred to the body of the crime?
A. training C. corpus delicti
B. associative D. circumstantial

37. When taking a photograph with the purpose of showing a view that a
witness might have seen the camera, position would normally be
________.
 E. in its normal position
F. at eye level
G. parallel to the subject matter
H. overhead

38. LASER is also referred to as

A. ultra- violet light C. coherent light
B. infra- red light D. visible light

39. Under what category can the execution of a criminal act be

classified?
E. attempted, frustrated, consummated
F. attempted, consummated, frustrated
G. frustrated, attempted, consummated
H. frustrated, consummated, attempted

40. What is the key to gaining an inside informant from a terrorist

group?
A. Knowledge of frustration within the organization
B. Knowledge of the person
C. Knowledge of the person and organization
D. Knowledge of the organization

41. Which object as mentioned below requires individual photographs?

A. any clue to the perpetrator’s identity
B. identifying marks
C. tools or weapons used
D. wounds of the victim

42. These are drugs capable of provoking changes of sensation,

thinking, self- awareness and emotion.
A. narcotics C. depressants
B. hallucinogens D. stimulants

43. What is the usual behavior symptom of an innocent subject in lie

detection?
A. oftentimes the requesting party
B. nervous
C. receptive to the test
D. all of these

44. The greater the number of similarities and differences, the

greater for the conclusion to be correct?
A. Law of Division conclusion
B. Law of multiplicity of evidence
C. Law of Talion for penalty
D. Law of comparison and exclusion
45. What is the taking of a person into custody so he can answer for
the commission of the offense?
A. Imprisonment C. Confinement
B. Bail D. Arrest

46. What is that movement of persons, good, and vehicles either

powered by animal or is an animal- drawn vehicle on by combustion
system from one place to another?
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction

47. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system
and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
A. Amphetamines C. Naptha
B. barbiturates D. Diazepam

48. Conduction is heat transfer through:

A. solid materials C. electromagnetic waves
B. smoke D. air motion

49. What is meant by a “demurrer to evidence”?

A. motion to inhibit C. motion to deny
B. motion to dismiss D. motion to postpone

50. The most common motive for arson is

A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge

51. Police departments are encouraging people to engrave a number on

their valuables to serve as means of identification as it will
facilitate the recovery of lost and stolen property. Which of the
following number can be recommended for individual identification?
A. Social security number C. Date of birth
B. Age D. Home address

52. One of the two requisites of admissibility of evidence is when it

is relevant to the issue and what is the other requisite?
A. It observes continuity of rules
B. It is not excluded by laws or rules
C. It multiplies admissibility chances
D. It has a heavy weight of evidence
53. What is that of physical evidence which linked the suspect to
crime scene or offense?
A. associative C. tracing evidence
B. circumstantial evidence D. corpus delicti

54. What is the objective of traffic control?

A. to arrest traffic violators
B. to increase safety level
C. to prevent scalawags
D. to solve crimes

55. This type of police report is submitted immediately after the

conduct of an investigation.
A. closing report C. progress report
B. development report D. initial report

56. There is __________ if the killing was considered beforehand and

that is was motivated by more than a simple desire to engage in an act
of violence.
A. implied malice C. express malice
B. deliberation D. premeditation

57. What is the first action of an investigator upon arriving at a

homicide scene?
A. Dying victim in the hospital
B. Crime scene search
C. Witness interviewing
D. Identification of witness

58. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate?

E. presence of humid substance
F. flying ash
G. presence of phosphorus
H. presence of nitrates

59. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the

firing distance?
A. Walkeirs test
B. Firing a series of test shots from various distances
C. The amount of concentration and powder residue or metal
traces
D. Visual observation

60. Can a police officer file a civil case?

 A. yes C. no
B. maybe D. perhaps

61. What enforcement action consists of taking a person into custody

for purpose of holding or detaining him to answer a charge of
violation before a court?
A. Traffic enforcement C. Traffic patrol
B. Traffic investigation D. Traffic arrest

62. John stabbed Pedro three times resulting to the latter’s death. Due
to circumstantial evidence presented, it was found out that Pedro is
John’s brother. What crime was committed?
A. murder C. homicide
B. parricide D. infanticide

63. A, the neighbor of B, shot the pig of B which was eating A’s
camote plants. A, thereafter cook the pig’s meat (pork) and
consumed the same. What is A liable for?
D. violation of Anti- fencing law
E. violation of Anti- Cattle Rustling law
F. malicious mischief
G. theft

64. Light is transferred by light rays through the method of

A. conduction C. oxidation
B. convection D. radiation

65. B is less than three days old. He is a child of X by his paramour

Y. B is killed by X to prevent his discovery by X’s legitimate wife,
Z. The crime committed by X is:
A. homicide C. parricide
B. infanticide D. murder

66. Under what department is the Bureau of Fire Protection?

E. Department of National Defense
F. Department of Social Welfare and Development
G. Department of the Interior and Local Government
H. Department of Justice

67. ____________ are facts and circumstances that would lead a

reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has
been committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place to be searched.
 A. probable cause C. none of these
B. warrant of arrest D. search warrant

68. What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land
Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public
highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license

69. What is that accusation made in writing charging a person with an

offense, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the court?
A. Counter- affidavit C. affidavit
B. Information D. Complaint

70. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space,

sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. opiates C. heroine
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

71. In which of the following offices should an Information be filed?

A. Prosecutor C. Police
B. Barangay D. Courts

72. What mental condition is characterized by agitation or inactivity

and sad, remorseful or brooding mood?
A. depression C. psychosis
B. neurosis D. epilepsy

73. The most common use of moving camera or motion picture by the
police is on cases involving ___________.
A. an auto theft C. potential bribes
B. drunken drivers D. a narcotic buy

74. What crime is committed when A, driving a truck, ran over a girl
crossing the street during a torrential rain and the girl died?
A. homicide
B. serious physical injury
C. reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
D. murder

75. What is the purpose of cross-examination?

A. Totest witness accuracy and truthfulness
B. To explain the witness answers
C. To prevent relevant facts
D. To test witness credibility
76. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the
non- volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and
condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified
substance?
A. combustion C. evaporation
B. distillation D. condensation

77. It means "The Base', is a global militant Islamist organization

founded by Osama bin Laden and Other militants.
A. Taliban
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah

78. “A’s” superior officer fired him for no apparent reason. “A” lit a
rag soaked with petroleum and placed it near the wooden wall of his
office to get even. Only small portion of the wall got burned because
another employee put out the fire. What crime was committed by “A”?
A. Frustrated arson C. Complex Crime of Arson
B. Attempted arson D. Consummated arson

79. Which of the following areas must a police investigator consider

important as he stands to testify as witness?
A. Court procedure c. human nature
B. Rule of evidence D. Court jurisdiction

80. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch
is for _____________.
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation

81. A and B, living together as husband and wife, but not married. A
killed B. What crime does A committed?
A. murder C. homicide
B. parricide D. physical injury

82. Which among the following instances is an example of a qualifying

circumstance to a crime of murder?
A. recidivism C. insanity
B. treachery D. intoxication

83. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off
vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with
air?
A. evaporating point C. boiling point
 B. ignition point D. flash point

84. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the

investigator inscribe initial, date and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. none of these

85. As a criminologist/ responder to terrorism how would you protect

yourself and the public by isolating terrorism?
A. Note down specific dangers
B. Free the captured victim right away
C. Collect and share threat information
D. Downplay potential threats

86. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?

A. inflammable substance found in the premises
B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. building insurance
D. any of these

87. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through
electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection

88. What is the period of prescription of crimes punishable by death,

reclusion perpetua, temporal?
A. 15 years C. 20 years
B. 5 years D. 10 years

89. A writer deliberately tried to alter his usual writing habit from
hopes of hiding his identity. His writing is called
A. plain writing C. regular writing
B. cursive writing D. disguised writing

90. A patient who have lost contact with reality is suffering from ___
A. neurosis C. schizophrenia
B. psychoneurosis D. psychosis

91. What is the rule in criminal law about doubts?

A. proven doubts should be resolved in favor of the accused
B. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the accused
C. verified doubts shall be resolved in favor of the
accused
D. doubts duly annotated is resolved in favor of the
accused
92. What will be the best action of a shadower if conscious subjects
jump off quickly from a public conveyance?
A. immediately follows the subject
B. remain on board the public conveyance until the next
stop
C. ask the driver to slow down
D. shout for immediate assistance

93. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have _______.

A. blue background and white symbol
B. red background with white symbol and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols

94. Bomb threat is either a written or verbal threat communicated

through electronic means, oral or other means that threatens to place
or uses an IED at a certain time, date, or place against any specific
person or place. The First Responder, the police investigator, and the
police detective must remember the following basic facts on bomb
threat: EXCEPT
A. A threat is considered only a threat until something
visible is found
B. Determined bombers do not frequently give warnings of a
possible explosion/incendiary attack
C. Threats are an excellent way to disrupt productivity
with actually risking life, limb and/or property
D. The consequences of conviction for “threatening” are not
necessarily as serious as those that could result from
actual placement/initiation of a bomb.

95. Galton, one of the fingerprint pioneers, scientifically estimated

that the possibility of the prints of just two fingers being identical
to each other is_______.
A. 70 billion to 1 C. 65 billion to 1
B. 50 billion to 1 D. 100 billion to 1

96. Blood stain evidence analysis can be used to determine a course

and________ of events that occurred during the commission of the
crime.
A. time
B. sequence
C. severity
D. number
97. A form of violent death brought by the suspension of the body by
a ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the
weight of the body?
E. asphyxia by suffocation
F. manual strangulation
G. asphyxia by hanging
H. none of these

98. What medical evidence can show that a gunshot wound is homicidal?
A. no sign of struggle from the victim
B. site of wound entrance has no point of election
C. wounding firearm found in the hands of the victim
D. no disturbance in the crime scene

99. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission
of the crime, without having principally participated therein, takes
part subsequent to the commission, either in profiting by the
effects of the crime or concealing or destroying the body of the
crime?
A. witnesses C. accessories
B. principals D. accomplices

100. Procedure in the Conduct of Regular Police Checkpoint: EXCEPT

A. Unit Commanders should inform Higher Headquarters (HHQs)

Tactical Operations Center (TOC) and coordinate with
adjacent units, such as, MPS, CPS, NSUs, Public Safety
Management Forces and other friendly forces, personally or
through an official representative, before commencing with
the checkpoint to avoid misencounter and any untoward
incident

B. The Team Leader shall brief the PNP personnel, as well as

The civilian components present, including the media and
the local government unit regarding the proper conduct of
the checkpoint operation and their assigned tasks prior
to their deployment;

C. The TL shall initially account for the PNP personnel and

check if they are in the prescribed uniform. PNP personnel
conducting the checkpoint shall display their nameplates
at all times. If wearing a jacket, the flap of the jacket
bearing their names should also be displayed

D. In the case of PNP personnel conducting Internal Security

 Operation (ISO) or foot patrol, where a vehicle and
collapsible signage is not readily available, the
checkpoint shall be manned initially by said personnel

ANSWER KEY: CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION

1. B
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. D
57. D
58. A
59. B
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. A
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. D
72. A
73. A
74. C
75. D
76. B
77. B
78. D
79. B
80. D
81. C
82. B
83. D
84. A
85. C
86. B
87. B
88. C
89. D
90. C
91. B
92. D
93. C
94. C
95. C
96. B
97. C
98. B
99. C
100 B