Dated :

12-03-2024
M.L. Sy al’
Syal’ s
al’s Helix Institute
S.C.O. 343-345, Top Floor, Sector 34-A, Chandigarh. Ph : 0172-2623155

Home Test Series

Two years regular course for Medical Time : 3 hrs. 20 min.
MM : 720
Test–28
PHYSICS : MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER, THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER, KTG,
THERMODYNAMICS, SHM, WAVES, MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
CHEMISTRY : NOMENCLATURE , GOC, ISOMERISM (EXCEPT OPTICAL ISOMERISM), HYDROCARBON,
PURIFICATION, THERMODYNAMICS, P-BLOCK (XI)
ZOOLOGY : ENDOCRINE SYSTEM, CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION, NON- CHORDATES (I/C COCKROACH),
CHORDATES (I/C FROG) BIOMOLECULES
BOTANY : GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT, MONERA, RESPIRATION, FUNGI, PHOTOSYNTHESIS, PROTISTA

PHYSICS : SECTION-A 4. 0.2 mole of an ideal gas at 127°C expands to double

its volume at constant pressure. Work done in
All questions are compulsory in section A
expansion is
1. A particle starts S.H.M. from the mean position
(1) 60 cal (2) 160 cal
with amplitude A and time period T. At the time (3) 664 cal (4) 320 cal
when its speed is half of the maximum speed, its
5. The distance between the nearest node and
displacement is
antinode in a stationary wave is
A A
(1) (2) 
2 2 (1)  (2)
2
A 3 2A
(3) (4) 
2 3 (3) (4) 2 
4
2. To what temperature should the hydrogen at
6. A cylindrical column of mild steel supports a
327°C be cooled at constant pressure, so that the structure of mass 5000 kg. The radius of column
root mean square velocity of its molecules become
is 30cm. Assumg the load distribution to be uniform,
half of its previous value
the compressional strain of column is
(1) – 123°C (2) 123°C (Ysteel =2×1011 N/m2 )
(3) – 100°C (4) 0°C
(1) 4.8×10–6
3. Increase in length of a wire of weight W, length
(2) 8.8×10–7
L & area of crossection A under its own weight is (3) 7.4×10–7
WL WL (4) 1.4×10–6
(1) (2)
AY 2AY
2WL WL
(3) (4)
AY gAY

1 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
 11. A tube closed at one end and containing air is
e excited. It produces the fundamental note of
7. s cal frequency 512 Hz. If the same tube is open at both
cu lar
Cir the ends the fundamental frequency that can be
0 20 produced is
(1) 1024 Hz (2) 512 Hz
10 (3) 256 Hz (4) 128 Hz
12. A travelling wave is represented by

  x 
y=10 sin  5t  12 
2  
In the above instrument, there are 100 divisions If x and y are in metre and time in seconds, velocity
on the circular scale. Zero error of the instrument of wave is
is (1) 60 m/s in negative x-direction
(1) 0.15 mm (2) –0.15 mm (2) 60 m/s in positive x-direction
(3) 0.05 mm (4) 0.85 mm (3) 2.4 m/s in positive x-direction
8. The atmospheric pressure is measured with a (4) 2.4 m/s in negative x-direction
barometer having a vernier scale whose 20 divisions 13.
coincide with 19 divisions of main scale. Each
division of the main scale is equal to 0.5 mm. The
atmospheric pressure (in cm of Hg) correctly Water Water
reported with due regard to significant figures, is
(a) (b)
(1) 75.0050 (2) 75.005
(3) 75.00 (4) 75.50 From the adjacent figure, correct observation is
9. Water is filled upto a height h in a cylindrical tank (1) The pressure on the bottom of tank (a) is
with an orifice at the bottom. It takes 30 minutes greater than at the bottom of (b)
to empty the tank. The time it will take to empty (2) The pressure on the bottom of the tank (a) is
the tank, when it is filled upto a height of h/4, is smaller than at the bottom of (b)
(1) 10 minutes (2) 5 minutes (3) The pressure depend on the shape of the
(3) 15 minutes (4) 7.5 minutes container
10. A particle executing S.H.M. has a maximum (4) The pressure on the bottom of (a) and (b) is
velocity '  ' and a maximum acceleration ‘  ’. Time the same
period of oscillation shall be 14. Real coefficient of volume expansion of a liquid is
(1) 2  (  / ) 0.00026 per°C and linear coefficient of expansion
of glass is 0.00002 per°C. Then the apparent
(2) 2  ( /  ) volume coefficient of expansion of this liquid in glass
(3) 2  (  /  )1/2 container is
(4) 2  (  /  )1/2 (1) 0.0005 per°C (2) 0.00032 per°C
(3) 0.0002 per°C (4) 0.00028 per°C

2 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
15. If intensity of sound is increased by a factor of 21. When the amplitude of a simple pendulum executing
four, then the pressure amplitude in the sound wave SHM is 10 cm, its time period is 4 seconds. If the
is increased by amplitude is doubled, its periodic time, assuming
(1) 50% (2) 100% that motion is still simple harmonic, is
(3) 300% (4) 200% (1) 8 s (2) 2 s
16. The sap in trees, which consists mainly of water in (3) 16 s (4) 4 s
summer, rises in a system of capillaries of radius 22. Given below are two statements labelled as
2×10 –5 m. The surface tension of sap is Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
7.5×10–2 Nm–1 and the angle of contact is 0°. Assertion A :
The height to which the sap can rise due to capillary
action is U F
(1) 0.75 m (2) 1 m x
(3) 0.65 m (4) 0.8 m x
Assertion A :
17. Quality of a musical note depends on
(1) harmonics present
(2) amplitude of the wave The figures may represent potential energy U &
(3) fundamental frequency restoring force F on a body in SHM with respect to
(4) velocity of sound in the medium displacement x.
18. Beats are produced by two waves Reason R : Force is the gradient of potential energy.
y1 = a sin 2000 t, and y2 = a sin 2008 t. The In the light of the above statements, choose the
number of beats heard per second is most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) zero (2) one below :
(3) four (4) eight (1) A is correct but R is not correct.
19. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If (2) A is not correct but R is correct
masses of all molecules are halved and their speeds (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
are doubled, resulting pressure P will be equal to explanation of A.
(1) 4P0 (2) 2P0 (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(3) P0 (4) 0.5 P0 correct explanation of A.
20. A tennis ball receives a top spin when struck by a 23. Two identical rods of metal are welded end to end
racket and describes a curved trajectory. The top as shown in figure (i), 20 calories of heat flows
spin implies that the rotatory motion of the top through it in 4 minutes. If the rods are welded as
surface of the ball is in the direction of the shown in figure (ii), the same amount of heat will
translatory motion of the ball. Then flow through the rods in
(1) Pressure on the top surface is lower as
compared to bottom surface 0°C 100°C
(2) Pressure on the top surface is higher as 0°C 100°C
(i) (ii)
compared to bottom surface
(3) Pressure on the top surface is equal to that (1) 1 minute (2) 2 minutes
on bottom surface (3) 4 minutes (4) 16 minutes
(4) Any of these is possible

3 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
24. A sphere at temperature 500K is placed in an 29. Consider a Carnot’s cycle operating between
environment of temperature is 300K. Its cooling T1=500K and T2=300K producing 1 k J of
rate is H. If its temperature is reduced to 400K, mechanical work per cycle. The heat transferred
then cooling rate in same environment will be about to the sink is
(1) 0.4 H (2) 0.1 H (1) 1400 J (2) 900 J
(3) 0.3 H (4) 0.2 H (3) 1500 J (4) 1800 J
25. A U tube of uniform bore of cross-sectional area A
30. A second harmonic has to be generated in a string
has been set up vertically with open ends facing
of length L stretched between two rigid supports.
up. Now M mass of a liquid of density ‘d’ is poured
The point where the string has to be plucked and
into it. The column of liquid in this tube will oscillate
touched are respectively
with a period T such that
L L
M MA (1) and
(1) T=2  (2) T=2  4 2
g gd
L 3L
(2) and
M M 4 4
(3) T=2  (4) T=2 
Agd 2Agd L L
(3) and
26. A spherical raindrop reaching the ground with 2 4
terminal velocity has kinetic energy K. Another L 3L
drop of eight times the volume, also reaching the (4) and
2 4
ground with terminal velocity, will have kinetic
31. The maximum force, in addition to the weight
energy
required to pull a wire of 5 cm long from the surface
(1) 16 K (2) 64 K
of water at temperature 20oC, is 728 dynes. The
(3) 256 K (4) 128 K
surface tension of water is
27. A force of 5×103 N is applied tangentially to the
upper face of a cubical block of steel of side (1) 7.28 N/cm
30 cm. Find the angle of shear. The shear modulus (2) 7.28 dyne/cm
of steel is 8.3×1010 Pa. (3) 72.8 dyne/cm
(1) 5.2×10–7 rad (4) 7.28×102 dyne/cm
(2) 8.1×10–8 rad 32. A person normally weighing 50 kg stands on a
(3) 6.7×10–7 rad massless platform which oscillates up and down
(4) 4.6×10–7 rad harmonically at a frequency of 1s–1 and an
28. The correct relation between degrees of freedom amplitude 2cm. A weighing machine on the platform
(f) and adiabatic expansion (  ) is gives the persons weight against time. The
maximum weight of the person will be
f
2  1
(1) (2) f [Given : g=9.8 m/s2]
 1 2
(1) 530 N (2) 810 N
2 1
(3) f (4) f (3) 690 N (4) 590 N
 1  1

4 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
33. An object of specific gravity  is hung from a PHYSICS : SECTION-B
massless string. The tension in the string is T. The This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions
object is now immersed in water so that it is fully of them.
submerged. The new tension in the string is
36. C
(1) zero (2) 0.5 T

   1    1 b c
(3)  T (4)  T
     
F
34. P
A d a
B

Which curve in figure represents the relation

D
C between celsius and fahrenheit temperatures?
V
(1) a (2) b
Carnot cycle (reversible) of a gas is shown in the (3) c (4) d
diagram. Consider the following statements
I. Area ABCD = Work done on the gas
37. 4 m/s
A
II. Area ABCD = Net heat absorbed
III. Change in the internal energy in cycle = 0 20 m/s A

(1) I only (2) II only 1.

6
A
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
v
35. Statement-I : A beaker containing a liquid is kept
inside a big closed jar. If the air inside the jar is An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal
continuously pumped out, the pressure in the liquid tube as shown. Then the velocity ‘v’ of the fluid is
near the bottom of the liquid will remain constant. (1) 3 m/s (2) 6 m/s
Statement-II : A good lubricant should have high (3) 9 m/s (4) 10 m/s
density. 38. The ratio of Young’s modulus of the material of
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct two wires is 2 : 3. If the same stress is applied on
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are both, then the ratio of elastic energy per unit volume
incorrect will be

(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (1) 3:2 (2) 2:3

incorrect (3) 3:4 (4) 4:3

(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is

correct

5 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
 V
42.
39. B C h
2V0
V0 A
A1 v1 A2

P v2
P0 2P0
An ideal liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The
Work done for the cyclic process ABCA as shown velocities of the liquid in the two sections, which
above is have areas of cross-section A1 and A2, are v1 and
v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the
1 liquid in the two vertical tubes is h. Which
(1) P V
2 0 0 statement is wrong?
(2) –4P0V0 (1) The volume of the liquid flowing through the
tube in unit time is A1v1
(3) 2P0V0
(2) v2–v1= 2gh
1
(4) – P V
2 0 0 (3) v22 – v12 =2gh
40. 6 gm of steam condenses when passed through (4) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the
80 gm of water initially at 10°C. If the temperature same in both sections of the tube
of water rises to 50°C, latent heat of steam is
(1) 445 cal/g 43. P
(2) 483 cal/g A
(3) 521 cal/g
D B
(4) 540 cal/g
41. In stationary sound waves, at the location of C
displacement antinodes, displacement is ........... and V
pressure change is ................. . The PV diagram shows four different possible
(1) minimum ; minimum reversible processes performed on a monatomic
(2) minimum ; maximum ideal gas. Process B is isothermal and process C is
(3) maximum ; maximum adiabatic. For which process(es) does the
(4) maximum ; minimum temperature of the gas decrease?
(1) Process A only
(2) Process C only
(3) Only processes C and D
(4) Only processes A and C

6 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
44. Vernier constant is 49. An iceberg floats in water with part of it
(1) the value of one main scale division divided submerged. If density of ice is 0.9 gm/cm3, then
by the total number of divisions on the main the fraction of volume of iceberg submerged is
scale (1) 0.45 (2) 0.1
(2) the value of one vernier scale division divided (3) 0.9 (4) 1
by the total number of divisions on the vernier 50. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible
scale mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released
so that the mass executes S.H.M. of time period
(3) the difference between value of one main
T. If the mass is increased by ‘m’, the time period
scale division and one vernier scale division
becomes 5T/3. Then the ratio of m to M is
(4) also the least count of the main scale
(1) 5:3 (2) 3:5
45. Let volume of a ball decrease by 8% when it is
(3) 25 : 9 (4) 16 : 9
taken at the depth of 6 m in a swimming pool.
Then bulk modulus of material of the ball is CHEMISTRY : SECTION-A
(1) 7.5×105 N/m2 (2) 1.5×106 N/m2 All questions are compulsory in section A
(3) 4.5×105 N/m2 (4) 1×106 N/m2 51. Ozonolysis of 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene followed by
reduction with zinc and water gives
46. In an isothermal process the volume of an ideal
gas is halved. One can say that (1) methanoic acid and 3-methyl-2-butanone
(2) methanal and 3-methyl-2-butanone
(1) Internal energy of the system decreases
(3) methanal and 2-methyl-3-butanone
(2) Work done by the gas is positive (4) methanoic acid and 2-methyl-3-butanone
(3) Internal energy of the system increases 52. When 100 ml 10–1(N) H2SO4 solution is treated
(4) None of these 0.4 gm of NaOH then the energy released will be
47. A liquid of mass ‘m’ and specific heat ‘c’ is heated (1) 5.71 kJ (2) 0.571 kJ
to a temperature 50o. Another liquid of mass (3) 0.285 kJ (4) 2.85 kJ
m/2 and specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature
53. Arrange the following in decreasing order of boiling
10o. If these two liquids are mixed, the resulting
point
temperature of the mixture is
(1) 25o (2) 33o (I) (II)
(3) 30o (4) 27.5o (III)
48. A string of 7 m length has a mass of 0.035 kg. If
(1) I<II<III (2) I>II>III
tension in the string is 60.5 N, then speed of a
wave on the string is (3) II>I>III (4) III>I>II
(1) 77 m/s (2) 102 m/s 54. Which of the following is metalloid ?
(3) 110 m/s (4) 165 m/s (1) C (2) Sn
(3) Ge (4) Both (2) and (3)

7 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
55. Stability order of following free radicals is 60. Which of the following is incorrectly labelled?
Cis
CH2 CH2—CH2—CH3 Ph—CH—CH=CH2 Cis
(1) (2) Trans
I II III Trans

(1) I > II > III (2) I > III > II

(3) III > I > II (4) III > II > I Trans
56. Which of the following form of ethane, has Trans
(3) Trans (4) Cis
maximum torsional strain?
(1) Eclipsed
(2) Staggered 61. Geometrical isomerism can exist in which of the
(3) Skew following compound
(4) all have equal torsional strain (1) CH3–C(CH3)=CH2–CH2–CH3
57. By mistake, an alcohol (boiling point 100°C) was (2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
mixed with a hydrocarbon (boiling point 57°C). A (3) CH3CH=CH2
suitable method to separate two compounds is (4) ClCH2–CH2Cl
(1) simple distillation 62. An elements having highest melting point among
(2) steam distillation group 13 elements is
(3) fractional distillation (1) B (2) Ga
(4) solvent extraction (3) Al (4) In
58. In which compound enol form is minimum? 63. The maximum number of alkynes with molecular
CH 3—C—CH2—C—CH 3 formula C4H6 are
(1) (1) 2 (2) 4
O O
(2) CH3—CH=O (3) 3 (4) 5
64. Which of the following is incorrect for -bonding in
(3) CH 3—C— CH2—CHO
heavier p-block elements?
O
(1) p()–p() bonding is not particularly strong for
(4) CH 3—C— CH2—C—OCH3 the heavier p-block elements
O O (2) The heavier p-block elements can form
d – p or d – d bonds
59. The IUPAC name of CH – OH is (3) As the d-orbitals are of higher energy than
the p-orbitals they contribute less to the overall
CH 3
stability of molecules than does p – p
(1) 1-hydroxyl-1-cyclopropylethane bonding of second row elements
(2) 1-hydroxyethylcyclopropane (4) The heavier p-block elements cannot form any
(3) cyclopropylethanol type of  bonds
(4) 1-cyclopropylethanol

8 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
65. If N and S are present in a compound, on treatment 70. Match the entries in column I with entries in column
of Lassaigne’s filterate with FeCl3 forms II.
(1) [Fe(CNS)]2+ (2) [Fe(CNS)3] p. Isothermal process a. dq =0
(3) [Fe(CNS)3]+4 (4) both (1) and (2) q. Isobaric process b. V  0
66. The correct signs of H and S for r. Isochoric proces c. T  0
2Cl(g)  Cl2(g) are
s. Adiabatic process d. P  0
(1) –, – (2) +, +
(1) p–c, q-d, r-b, s-a (2) p–d, q-c, r-a, s-b
(3) –, + (4) +, –
(3) p–a, q-b, r-d, s-c (4) p–a, q-d, r-c, s-b
67. How many of the following statements are correct?
71. Benzene reacts with excess of chlorine in sunlight
a. addition of hydrogen to alkenes takes place
to form
in presence of catalyst
(1) Chlorobenzene
b. stability of alkenes is inversely related to heat
(2) p-dichlorobenzene
of hydrogenation
(3) Hexchlorobenzene
c. dehydration of alcohol involves free radical
(4) Benzene hexachloride
as intermediate
72. Which of the following has ester functional group
d. dehydrohalogenation of RX yields highly
among the following?
substituted alkene as a major product.
e. addition of HX to alkene takes place according O
to Mark rule (1) CH 3– CH2–CH– C–OCH3
f. no carbocation formation is involved during
C 2H 5
addition of HX to alkene
(1) Two (2) Four OCH3
(3) Three (4) Five (2) CH 3– CH=C–CH3
68. Which of the following is aromatic?
CH3
+ +
(3) CH–CHO
(1) (2)
CH3—CO
(4) O
CH 3—CH2–CO
(3) (4) all
73. OF2(g)  O(g)+2F(g)
69. Statement-I : Alkanes containing more than three Enthalpy change for the above reaction is 368 kJ.
carbons exhibit chain isomerism. Then average bond energy of O–F bond is
Statement-II : All the carbon atoms in alkanes are (1) 184 kJ/mol (2) 368 kJ/mol
sp2 hybridized. (3) 536 kJ/mol (4) 736 kJ/mol
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct 74. The difference between heat of reaction at
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are constant pressure and at constant volume for the
incorrect following reaction at 300 K in kJ is
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
C8H16(l)+12O2(g)  8CO2(g)+8H2O(l)
incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (1) –14.5 (2) –9.97
correct (3) +9.97 (4) +14.5

9 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
75. Least effective p  –p  back bonding is present in 81. Which of the following ion does not exists?
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 (1) SiCl26  (2) SnCl26 
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3
(3) CCl 26  (4) Both (1) & (3)
Ni
76. CH  CH+2H2     X 82. BF3 reacts with water to give HBF4. What is the
523  573K change in hybridisation?
Product (X) and name of the above reaction is (1) sp2 to sp3 (2) sp3 to sp2
(1) butane ; Frankland reaction (3) sp to sp3 (4) sp2 to sp3d
(2) butane ; Sabatier Senderen’s reduction 83. Which of the following is the isomer of methyl
(3) ethane ; Sabatier Senderen’s reduction acetate?
(4) ethane ; Frankland reaction
(1) Ethyl acetate (2) Propanoic acid
77. In sulphur estimation, 0.2 g of an organic compound
(3) Ethyl ethanoate (4) Propanone
gave 0.48 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of
sulphur in the compound is 84. Principle involved in thin layer chromatography is
(1) 11.44 (2) 32.96 (1) Adsorption (2) Partition
(3) 65.9 (4) 5.72 (3) Solubility (4) Volatility
78. At 25° and 1 bar, which one of the following has 85. Which of the following oxidation states are the
non-zero  f H°? most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?
(1) Br2(l) (2) Cgraphite (1) +2, +2 (2) +4, +2
(3) l2(s) (4) O3(g) (3) +2, +4 (4) +4, +4
79. Amongst F, NO2, H and OR, the decreasing order CHEMISTRY : SECTION-B
of inductive effect (–I) is This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions
(1) OR, NO2, F, H (2) NO2, F, OR, H of them.
(3) F, NO2, OR, H (4) H, F, NO2, OR 86. A mixture of two liquids B and A boil at a
80. Given below are two statements labelled as temperature of 473 K and the vapour pressure of
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : B and A are 840 and 24 mm Hg. Ratio of moles of
Assertion A : BCI3 is a strong Lewis acid in A and B in distillate will be
comparison to GaCl3. (1) 70 : 2 (2) 1 : 35
Reason R : B has hi`gher I.E. than Ga. (3) 35 : 1 (4) 60 : 210
In the light of the above statements, choose the C
87. Alcohol + conc. H2SO4 170
  A.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : A will be
(1) A is correct but R is not correct. (1) Ether (2) Alkene
(2) A is not correct but R is correct (3) Aldehyde (4) Acid
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct 88. Which is most stable?
explanation of A. (1) CH3CH=CH–C2H5 (2) (CH3)2C=CHCH3
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the (3) (CH3)2C=CHC2H5 (4) CH3–CH2CH=CH2
correct explanation of A

10 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
89. Which of the following compounds will not release 94. The purpose of boiling sodium extract with
acetylene when treated with sodium acetylide? concentrated nitric acid before testing halogens is
(1) HNO3 (2) H2O (1) to make solution clear
(3) NH3 (4) ROH (2) to destroy CN— and S2— ion
90. Statement-I : Lead decomposes steam to form (3) to make the solution acidic
dioxide and dihydrogen gas. (4) to bring common ion effect
Statement-II : Tin is unaffected by water, probably 95. The element of group 14 with minimum covalent
because of a protective oxide film formation. character in its compounds is
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are (1) C (2) Pb
incorrect
(3) Tl (4) B
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
96. Assertion : All aldehyde and ketones can show
incorrect
tautomerism
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
Reason :  -H atoms in aldehyde and ketone are
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
acidic
correct
91. Which of the following is iso-butyl chloride? (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—Cl reason is the correct explanation of the
Cl assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(2) CH 3–CH–CH 2–CH 3
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) CH3  C H  CH2  Cl assertion
|
CH3 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false
Cl 97. How many of the following statements are
|
CH3  C CH3 incorrect?
(4) | a. First law puts no restriction on the direction
CH3
of heat flow
92. Out of the following series the one containing both b. Spontaneity also tells about the rate of
electrophile and nucleophile is reaction
(1) H2O, Cl+, NH3 (2) H2O, RNH2, OH– c. Spontaneous processes cannot reverse their
(3) BF3, CH4, NO2 (4) AlCl3, BF3, Cl+ direction on their own.
d.  G is zero for a reversible reaction
1 1
93. If X2O (s)  X(s)+ O2(g) : H =90 kJ, then e.  G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
2 4 (1) One (2) Two
enthalpy change during reaction of metal X with (3) Three (4) Four
1 mole O2 to form oxide to maximum extent is 98. Wurtz reaction is best used for making
(1) – 360 kJ (2) – 180 kJ (1) unbranched alkanes
(3) +360 kJ (4) +180 kJ (2) symmetrical alkanes
(3) unsymmetrical alkanes
(4) n-alkanes with odd number of carbon

11 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
99. In Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia from 5g of food 106. Which of the following is matched correctly?
neutralizes 30ml of 0.1N acid. The percentage of (1) Aplysia - Water vascular system, Mollusca
nitrogen in the food is
(2) Limulus - chitinous exoskeleton, Pisces
(1) 0.84 (2) 8.4
(3) 16.8 (4) 1.68 (3) Adamsia - radial symmetry, Porifera
100. 5 Kcal heat is released in the combustion of 2 g of (4) Petromyzon - Ectoparasite, Cyclostomata
CH4. The enthalpy of combustion of CH4 is
107. In which one of the following sets of three items
(1) 10 Kcal/mol (2) 20 Kcal/mol
each belong to the category mentioned against them?
(3) 30 Kcal/mol (4) 40 Kcal/mol
(1) Arginine, heparin, thymine – Amino acids
ZOOLOGY : SECTION-A
(2) Troponin, insulin and gastrin – Hormones
All questions are compulsory in section A
(3) Amylase, catalase & ATPase – Enzymes
101. Which among the following are secondary
(4) Inulin, cystine, ribulose – Sugars
metabolites?
(1) Carotenoids, Sugars, Ricin, Spices 108. Four chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes
(2) Gums, Cellulose, Amino acids,Concanavalin A become distinct and clearly appear as tetrad in
(3) Anthocyanins, Morphine, Abrin, Scents (1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene
(4) Lectins, Glycine, Lemon grass oil, Rubber (3) Prophase (4) Telophase-II
102. The following shows a cell in prophase-I 109. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) In anaphase I, homologous chromosomes
separate while sister chromatids remain
Keeping the diagram in view, which of the following associated at their centromeres
diagram is correct for one of the cell at the end of (2) Beginning of zygotene is recognised by
meiosis? dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Recombination nodules, the site of crossing
(1) (2) over appear during leptotene
(4) Telophase II produces a diad of cells
(3) (4) 110. How many among the following are
103. If a cell has 46 chromosomes at G2 substage, the Cephalochordates?
number of bivalents formed in the zygotene stage Ascidia, Petromyzon, Amphioxus, Salpa, Doliolum,
will be
Lancelet, Branchiostoma
(1) 46 (2) 23
(3) 22 (4) 92 (1) 4 (2) 3
104. Statement- I : Lipids are low molecular weight (3) 2 (4) 1
compounds arranged into structures like cell 111. Which of the following is not significance of mitosis?
membrane and other membranes. (1) Required for growth and regeneration
Statement- II : The acid insoluble pool represents (2) Restores surface area to volume ratio
roughly the cytoplasmic composition. (3) Helps to conserve specific chromosome
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct number of species by causing reduction in
(2) Both statement- I and statement-II are chromosome number
incorrect (4) Restores nucleo cytoplasmic ratio
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect 112. Which of the following statements is false w.r.t.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is Periplaneta?
correct (1) Malpighian body removes excretory products
105. Match the following: from hemolymph
(a) Catalytic activity Inhibitor (i) Ricin (2) The position of heart is dorsal
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(3) Phallic gland is present in male reproductive
(c) Cell wall in fungi (iii) Chitin
system
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Anal cerci is present in both males and
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) females on tenth tergum
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
12 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
113. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are 118. The figure given below shows the conversion of a
the examples of those that can easily pass through substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one
the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a of the four options (1–4) the components of
receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)? reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified
correctly?
(1) Insulin, glucagon
A
(2) Thyroxine, insulin
(3) Somatostatin, oxytocin C
D
(4) Cortisol, testosterone
B
114. Which of the following homeothermic animal has Substrate
features like two pairs of limbs, hair, pinna,
pulmonary respiration, viviparity? Product
(1) Aptenodytes (2) Elephas Progress of Reaction
Options
(3) Testudo (4) Ornithorhynchus
115. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its A B C D
(1) Potential Transition Activation Activation
source and function
energy state energy with energy
Hormone Source Functions enzyme without
(1) Vasopressin Posterior Increase loss of enzyme
Pituitary water through urine (2) Transition Potential Activation Activation
state energy energy energy with
(2) Norepinephrine Adrenal Increases heart beat,
without enzyme
medulla rate of respiration &
enzyme
alertness
(3) Potential Transition Activation Activation
(3) Glucagon Beta-cells Stimulates energy state energy energy with
of islets of glycogenolysis without enzyme
langerhans enzyme
(4) Prolactin Posterior Regulates growth (4) Activation Transition Activation Potential
pituitary of mammary glands energy state energy energy
and milk formation with without
in females enzyme enzyme
116. Read the following statements on lipids and find 119. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
out correct set of statements : in male frogs :
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a (1) Testes  Bidder’s canal  Kidney  Vasa
glycolipid efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more (2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney
C=C bonds  Bidders canal  Urinogenital duct 
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence Cloaca
remains as oil in winter
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder’s canal
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but
 Ureter  Cloaca
soluble in some organic solvents
(4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney 
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol,
Seminal Vesicle  Urinogenital duct 
monoglycerides are formed
Cloaca
Choose the correct answer from the options given
120. Which of the following features are incorrect in
below :
relation to Aschelminthes?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(1) Fertilization internal
(3) (c), (d) and (e) only (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) Development may be direct or indirect
117. What is common to Mollusca & Arthropoda? (3) Alimentary canal complete with well
(1) Triploblastic & eucoelomate condition developed non-muscular pharynx
(2) Jointed appendages & bilateral symmetry (4) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Organ system level of organisation & chitinous 121. Choose the correct option in which all animals have
exoskeleton external fertilisation
(4) Tracheal system & calcareous exoskeleton (1) Spongilla, Euspongia, Fasciola
(2) Pleurobrachia, Asterias, Taenia
(3) Meandrina, Spongilla, Fasciola
(4) Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana, Balanoglossus

13 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
122. Fill the appropriate options in the paragraph given 127. Choose the answers after selecting the matches
below. from below.
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell a. Synaptonemal complex i. Pachytene
division. Such cells do not divide further and exit b. Recombination nodules ii. Diakinesis
___________ phase to enter an inactive stage called
c. Termination of chiasmata iii. After telophase-I
___________ of cell cycle.
(1) G1, G0 (2) G1, G2 d. Interkinesis iv. Zygotene
(3) G3, I phase (4) S and M phase (1) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
123. Identify the correct statements (2) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
a. Left end of a polysaccharide is called non- (3) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
reducing end (4) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
b. Amino acids are substituted methanes 128. Which of the events listed below is observed in
c. Essential fatty acids are so called because Anaphase?
these can be synthesized in human body (1) Untangling of chromosomal material
d. ‘R’ group in amino acid serine is–CH3 (2) Spindle formation is completed
e. Secondary structure of a protein gives (3) Splitting of centromere
positional information in a protein (4) Chromosome come to lie in the equator of
(1) a, b & c (2) c, d & e spindle/cell
(3) a & b (4) b, c & d 129. How many of the following are correct statements?
124. Assertion : During Telophase-I, the chromosomes a. Marine amoeboid protozoans have silica shells
undergo some dispersion but do not reach on their surface
extremely extended state of interphase nucleus. b. None of the flagellated protozoans is parasitic
Reason : The cell has to enter into prophase-II and
c. Plasmodium is a sporozoan
again it needs to become condensed.
d. All amoeboid protozoans are free living, none
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
is parasitic
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) one (2) two
assertion
(3) three (4) all are correct
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
130. Mitotic spindle is formed by
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion (1) Proteinaceous microtubules in cell cytoplasm
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (2) Proteinaceous microtubules in cell nucleus
(4) Assertion is false (3) Nucleic acid molecules in cell nucleus
125. Which of the following is not correctly matched (4) Nucleic acid molecules in cell cytoplasm
with its one character and the category? 131. Insulin inhibits
Column-I Column-II Column-III (1) gluconeogenesis,pigmentation and proteolysis
(2) glycogenolysis, lipolysis and proteolysis
(1) Amphioxus Ventral nerve Cephalo-
cord chordate (3) cardiovascular system, calcium absorption &
lipolysis
(2) Delphinus Viviparous Mammalia
(4) cardiovascular system, pigmentation &
(3) Betta Operculum Osteichthyes lipolysis
(4) Calotes Post anal tail Reptilia 132. Identify the incorrect match
126. Phylum – Chordata (1) Labeo — ctenoid scales
A – Gnathostomata (2) Torpedo — electric organs
B – Pisces (3) Scoliodon — terminal mouth
Class – C (4) Pristis — Ventral mouth
What are A, B & C respectively w.r.t. given animal. 133. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and
endoderm in Obelia.
(2) Radial symmetry is found in Asterias
(1) Subphylum; division; amphibia (3) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal
(2) Superclass; class; osteichthyes
(3) Division; superclass; osteichthyes (4) Taenia is a triploblastic animal
(4) Subdivision; subclass; chondrichthyes
14 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
134. How many statements are not true? 140. Which of the following statement is false?
a. All molecules in the insoluble fraction obtained (1) Glycogen cannot hold I2 because it does not
during chemical analysis of tissue are contain complex helices.
polymeric substances. (2) Enzymes are sensitive to high temperature and
b. Sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose pH changes
or deoxyribose. (3) An active site of an enzyme is a crevice or
c. Peptide bond, glycosidic bond & ester bond pocket into which the substrate fits.
are formed by dehydration synthesis. (4) Class-VI enzymes catalyse removal of groups
d. Functions of many secondary metabolites in from substrates by mechanisms other than
plants are not known but many of these are hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
useful in human welfare 141. Transition state structure of the substate formed
e. In a polypeptide chain, COOH end is during an enzymatic reaction is
considered as starting end and called carboxy- (1) Transient but stable
terminal and N-terminal end is terminal end.
(2) Permanent but unstable
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Temporary and unstable
(3) 3 (4) 2 (4) Obligatory and stable
135. Internal fertilization is present in
142. During anaphase, centromeres of all chromosomes
(1) osteichthyes & reptiles split
(2) chondrichthyes and reptiles
(1) one after the other and two daughter
(3) hemichordata and amphibia
chromosomes develop from each chromosome
(4) amphibia and reptilia
(2) simultaneously and two daughter
ZOOLOGY : SECTION-B chromosomes develop from each chromosome
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions (3) simultaneously and four daughter
of them. chromosomes develop from each chromosome
136. False coelom is present in
(4) one after the other and four daughter
(1) Ascaris, Bombyx, Nereis chromosomes develop from each chromosome
(2) Hirudinaria, Limulus, Laccifer 143. Identify the false statement
(3) Apis, Culex, Pheretima
(1) Pairing of paternal and maternal chromosomes
(4) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria
during zygotene is called synapsis
137. Which of the following are true fishes?
(2) Recombination nodules are the site for crossing
(1) Whale fish, Dog fish, Jelly fish over of genetic material
(2) Hag fish, Dog fish, Devil fish
(3) Terminalisation occurs during diplotene
(3) Dog fish, Saw fish, Angel fish
(4) Dog fish, Star fish, Angel fish (4) Prophase I is the most complicated and longest
stage of meiosis
138. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
144. Assertion : Over 2/3rd of all named species on earth
(1) Cell growth is continuous process in terms of
are arthropods.
cytoplasmic increase
Reason : Main reason for the diversity of
(2) DNA replication occurs only once during one arthropods is presence of chitinous exoskeleton
specific stage of cell cycle which permits them to live in different
(3) DNA synthesis is continuous process environmental conditions.
(4) Cell cycle is genetically controlled event (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
139. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared
assertion
resident of seventh floor of a multistoried building
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which
reason is not the correct explanation of the
hormone initiated this action?
assertion
(1) Adrenaline (2) Glucagon (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Gastrin (4) Thyroxine (4) Assertion is false

15 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
145. Most dramatic period of cell cycle, involving 154. Methanogens are present in
major reorganisation of virtually all components (1) gut of ruminants
of cell is (2) animal dung
(1) G1 phase (2) G0 phase (3) biogas or biofuel production area
(3) S-Phase (4) M-Phase (4) All
146. A cell has 20 chromosomes and is undergoing
155. Club-fungi is the common name of
mitosis, how many chromosomes will the cell have
(1) Phycomycetes
at S phase and also what will be DNA content of
(2) Ascomycetes
cell in S phase, if initial amount of DNA was 2C? (3) Basidiomycetes
(1) 40, 4C (2) 40, 2C (4) Deuteromycetes
(3) 20, 4C (4) 20, 2C 156. Alcoholic fermentation is carried out by
147. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed
(1) Chlorella
by the polymerisation of : (2) Agaricus
(1) lipoglycans (3) Yeasts
(2) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate (4) Puccinia
(3) D-glucosamine 157. Identify the organism on the basis of following
(4) N-acetyl glucosamine feature
148. Choose the animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton a. saprophytic protists
a. Carcharodon b. Labeo b. under suitable conditions, they form
c. Petromyzon d. Hippocampus plasmodium
(1) a and b (2) b and d c. body moves along decaying twigs and leaves
(3) a and c (4) c and d engulfing organic material
149. Which is not true about cockroach? (1) Slime mould
(1) Hepatic caecae produce digestive enzymes
(2) Euglenoid
(2) It has ten pairs of spiracles
(3) Mouthparts are of biting and sucking type (3) Protozoan
(4) Ommatidium is a visual unit in the compound (4) Diatom
eye 158. Identify incorrect statement w.r.t. oxidative
150. Choose the incorrect option decarboxylation
(1) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor
(1) Also known as link reaction
is removed from the enzyme
(2) Occur in mitochondrial matrix
(2) Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms
(3) Convert pyruvate into acetyl CoA
have an important quality of thermal stability
(3) Difference in average energy content of ‘S’ (4) Occur in presence of phosphofructokinase
from that of transition state is called enzyme
activation energy 159. Assertion: Plants that are adapted to dry tropical
(4) Binding of enzymes induces change in shape regions have C4 pathway.
of substrate making it to fit more tightly Reason: C4 plant shows photorespiration .
around active site (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
BOTANY : SECTION-A reason is the correct explanation of the
All questions are compulsory in section A assertion
151. Growth in pollen tubes is measured by observing (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
increase in reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) length (2) area assertion
(3) cells/hour (4) fresh weight (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
152. One of the following is very simple in structure but (4) Assertion is false
complex in behaviour
(1) Slime mould (2) Amoeba
(3) Bacteria (4) Albugo
153. How many points are there in one turn of TCA cycle
where FAD+ reduced to FADH+H+?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5
16 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
 167. Which is small protein attached to the outer surface
160. C 105 cm 2
of the inner membrane and acts as a mobile carrier
A 10 cm 2
B 55 cm2 for transfer of electrons between complex III and
IV in ETS?
(1) Cytochrome c (2) Cytochrome c1
(3) Cytochrome a-a3 (4) None of these
168. What is required for chemiosmosis ?
5 cm2 50 cm2 a. Proton pump
100 cm2 b. Thylakoid membrane
c. Proton gradient
The leaves A, B & C have increased their area by
d. ATP-synthase
5 cm2 in a given time to produce new leaves shown
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b
by dotted lines. Which is the correct relation
(3) a, b, c and d (4) c, d
between their relative growth rates (RGR)?
169. Mushroom (fruiting body) is technically a
(1) ARGR=BRGR=CRGR (2) ARGR<BRGR<CRGR
(1) basidiocarp
(3) ARGR>BRGR>CRGR (4) none of these
161. Identify the incorrect statement (2) primary mycelium which is aggregated to
(1) Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be form basidiocarp
prevented by the application of Auxin (3) ascocarp
(2) Auxin promote flowering in pineapples (4) cleistothecium
(3) Abscisic acid is plant stress hormone 170. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called
(4) Abscisic acid is highly effective in fruit ripening photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
162. Inner membrane of mitochondria forms a number (1) 100 - 390 (2) 390 - 430
of infoldings called (3) 400 - 700 (4) 760 -100,00
(1) cristae, towards the matrix 171. Statement- I : PS-II is associated with water
splitting complex which itself is located on the inner
(2) cristae, towards the inter membrane space
side of membrane of thylakoid
(3) oxysomes, towards the inter membrane space
Statement- II : Proton and oxygen formed during
(4) oxysomes, towards matrix membrane space splitting of water are released in lumen of thylakoid
163. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. Gibberellin (1) Both statement -I and statement- II are
(1) GA3 was the first gibberellin to be discovered correct
(2) It cause foolish seedling disease in rice (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) It is used to speed up the malting process in incorrect
brewing industry (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) It decreases internodal length in genetically incorrect
tall plants (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement- II is
164. Identify the incorrect match correct
172. Fruiting body is apothecium in
(1) Bacillus – Circular
(1) Peziza, Morchella
(2) Coccus – Spherical (2) Neurospora, Claviceps
(3) Vibrio – Comma shape (3) Penicillium, Asperigillus
(4) Spirillum – Spiral shape (4) Colletotrichum, Agaricus
165. Which statement is correct? 173. Select the correct equation for photosynthesis.
(1) 6CO2+12H2O+light  C 6H 12O 6+6O 2+
(1) All bacteria are autotrophic
6H2O
(2) All bacteria are heterotrophic (2) 6CO 2 +6O 2 +light  C 6 H 12 O 6 +6H 2 O+
(3) All bacteria are photosynthetic 6CO2
(4) Mostly bacteria are heterotrophic but some (3) 6CO 2+12NH 3+light  2H 2H 2 +6H 2O+
are autotrophic C6H12O6
166. When fats are used in respiration, the RQ is (4) 3CO 2 +6H 2 O+light  C 3 H 6 O 3 +6O 2 +
6H2O
(1) 0 (2) 0.7
(3) 0.9 (4) more than 1

17 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
174. Protists have been divided into three major groups 180. In which of the following plants, there is difference
on the basis of in shape of leaves produced in air and those
(1) modes of locomotion
produced in water
(2) modes of nutrition
(3) modes of reproduction (1) buttercup (Ranunculus)
(4) all of the above (2) Eucalyptus
175. Select incorrect w.r.t. mycoplasma (3) larkspur
(1) usually non-motile (4) coriander
(2) facultative aerobe
(3) reproduce by binary fission 181. Curve showing rate of photosynthesis at different
(4) smallest living organisms wavelength of light is
176. Observe the following diagram and select out of (1) absorption spectrum
A, B, C and D which compound stands for 3- (2) photosynthesis spectrum
phosphoglycerate? (3) action spectrum
(4) light spectrum
Atmosphere 182. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
C4 plants?
CO2+H2O
A (1) They can tolerate high temperature and
excess salt
ADP Stage 1
(2) They are more efficient in picking up CO2
(3) C3 and C4 cycles are separated by space
Stage 3 (4) Agranal chloroplasts are found in mesophyll
B cell
183. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. cyanobacteria
ATP
Stage 2 ATP (1) They are gram negative, heterotrophic
+ prokaryotes
NADPH
C (2) Cell structure is typically prokaryotic
ADP
+ +
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water
D Pi+NADP bodies
(4) They may be associated in symbiotic
(1) A (2) B relationship with plants
(3) C (4) D 184. Dinoflagellates
177. The height of sugarcanes has been increased by a. are mostly marine and photosynthetic
the application of
b. appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red
(1) IAA (2) 2, 4 D
depending on the main pigments
(3) zeatin (4) gibberrellins
178. In fermentation, how much energy of glucose is c. has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface
released and trapped as high energy bond of ATP? of cell wall
(1) 14% (2) >7% (1) a, b & c (2) both a & b
(3) <7% (4) 18% (3) a only (4) both b & c
179. First crucial event in aerobic respiration
185. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans
(1) involves passing on of the electrons to
in making curd from milk and in production of
molecular O2
antibiotics are the ones categorised as
(2) the complete oxidation of pyruvate by the
(1) Chemosyhthetic autotrophs
stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms,
leaving three molecules of CO2 (2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(3) involves synthesis of ADP (3) Cyanobacteria
(4) result in release of 2CO2 molecule for each (4) Archaebacteria
pyruvate

18 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
 BOTANY : SECTION-B 191. In lichens, phycobionts belong to
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions (1) Cyanophyta only
of them. (2) Cyanophyta and chlorophyta
186. Select the incorrect one w.r.t. diatoms (3) Cyanophyta and bacillariophyta
(1) Silica wall (4) Phaeophyta and rhodophyta
(2) Biflagellated cell 192. Pick the false statement
(3) Production of auxospore (1) Differentiation in plants is open
(4) Soap box symmetry (2) Growth in plants is open
(3) Kinetin is naturally occuring cytokinin in plants
187. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
(4) Gibberellins promote bolting
RuBisCO?
193. Given below are two statements labelled as
(1) It is the most abundant enzyme in the world
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
(2) It has greater affinity for O2 than CO2
Assertion A : During ETS the metabolic water is
(3) Binding of CO 2 and O 2 to RuBisCO is
produced in the perimitochondrial space
competitive
(intermembrane space).
(4) In C3 plants, some O2 does bind to RuBisCO
188. The main difference in two photo systems of Reason R : Complex IV refers to cytochrome a and
photosynthesis is a3 having two copper centres.
(1) photosystem I emits electron to be transfered In the light of the above statements, choose the
to photosystem II most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) photosystem I generates NADPH and below :
photosystem II produces oxygen (1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) photosystem I produces a oxygen and (2) A is not correct but R is correct
photosystem II NADPH (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(4) photosystem I produces ATP while explanation of A.
photosystem II does not produce ATP (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
189. Choose the correct statement correct explanation of A
(1) PGRs are intracellular external factor for 194. Fill in the blanks in the table given below and identify
growth from options given
(2) Ethephon accelerates formation of more
flowers and fruits in cotton, cherry and walnut A B Dolipore
called thinning
Phycomycete Albugo C
(3) Ethylene promotes rapid internode/ petiole
elongation in deep water rice plants Deutromycetes Alternaria D

(4) Abscissin II, Dormin and Inhibitor B are E Saccharomyces Ascus

chemically different forms
190. “The NADP reductase enzyme is located on (1) D-imperfect fungi, E-deuteromycete,
________ side of membrane. Along with electrons A-basidiomycete, B-Phytopthora,
that come from the acceptor of electrons of ______, C-coenocytic
protons are necessary for _____ of NADP+ to (2) D-coenocytic, E-ascomycete,
NADPH+ H+.” A-basidiomycete. B-Puccinia, C-conidia
Which of the following is correct fill-up of the above (3) D-coenocytic, E-basidiomycete,
paragraph in sequence? A-deuteromycete, B-Ustilago, C-conidia
(1) lumen, PS-II, oxidation (4) D-imperfect fungi, E-ascomycete,
(2) stroma, PS-I, reduction A-basidiomycete, B–Agaricus, C-coenocytic

(3) lumen, PS-I, oxidation 195. A growing embryo show

(4) stroma, PS-II, reduction (1) only arithematic growth

(2) only geometric growth
(3) both arithematic as well as geometric growth
(4) only exponential growth

19 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023
196. Match the column-I with Column-II 199. Which of the following is not true for
Column-I Column-II phycomycetes?
(1) Found in aquatic habitats
a. Dinoflagellates i. Pellicle
(2) Obligate parasite on plants
b. Euglenoids ii. Silicified frustule
(3) Septate mycelium
c. Chrysophytes iii. Plasmodium
(4) Endogenous spores
d. Slime mould iv. Mostly biflagellated
200. How many of the following statement/s is/are true
(1) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i w.r.t. ETC?
(2) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii a. Cytochrome and other carriers are arranged
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii in series in order of decreasing redox potential
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii b. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives
197. The total number of ATP produced during oxidation rise to 3 molecules of ATP
of molecule of acetyl Co-A by oxidative c. Ubiquinone is the only mobile electron carrier
phosphorylation is d. Ubiquinone also receive reducing equivalents
(1) 15 (2) 12 via FADH2 i.e. complex-II
(3) 11 (4) 14 (1) two (2) one
198. Diagrams given below represent what kind of (3) four (4) three
growth respectively?

(1) Arithmetic, arithmetic

(2) Geometric, geometric
(3) Geometric, arithmetic
(4) Arithmetic, geometric

20 28PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-6(1-14)/Helix-2023