1. What is the most common type of chronic lower extremity ulcer?

a. Arterial ulcer
b. Venous ulcer
c. Pressure ulcer
d. Diabetic foot ulcer
e. Traumatic wound

2. Which of the following dressing types is best for achieving mild hemostasis?
a. Alginates
b. Collagens
c. Petroleum gauze
d. Hydrocolloids
e. Foams

3. The chromophore of the Er:YAG laser is

a. collagen
b. elastic fibers
c. water
d. melanin
e. hemoglobin

4. Topical corticosteroids in combination with what other agent has been shown to improve the
degree of subungual hyperkeratosis greater than corticosteroid alone?
a. 5-fluorouracil
b. Calcipotriol
c. Anthralin
d. Tazarotene
e. Topical cyclosporine

5. The infiltrates in pseudolymphoma are more likely to be composed of:

a.CD8+ T cells
b.CD4+ T cells
c.CD30+ T cells
d. Plasma cells
e. Neutrophils

6. Patients with vitiligo have an increased prevalence of:

a. renal failure
b. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
c. seizure disorder
d. peptic ulcer disease
e. pericarditis
7. Which of the following statements about brittle nails is true?
a. A portion of the nail plate is formed by the nailbed
b. Calcium and sulfur content of the normal nail are high and contribute to the hardness of the nail
plate
c. Gluing fractures of the nail plate and applying nail hardeners are not useful therapeutic options for
onychoschizia
d. Onychorrhexis is characterized by lamellar splitting of the free edge and distal nail plate
e. Onychomadesis refers to nails that have thickened and developed a deep curve

8. Which of the following statements about folate supplementation and methotrexate therapy is
FALSE?
a. Folinic acid competes with methotrexate for cellular uptake
b. The anti-inflammatory activity of methotrexate is related to the inhibition of 5-aminoimidazole-4-
carbxamide ribonucleotide (AICAR) and increased adenosine
c. Folinic acid is metabolized to 10-formyl-tetrahydrofolate and relieves methotrexate inhibition of
AICAR transformylase
d. Methotrexate enhances purine synthesis
e. Giving folinic acid within 48 hours of dosing methotrexate may affect efficacy

9. Which of the following viral infections in the first trimester pregnant woman leads to infection
with sequelae in the majority of fetuses?
a. Rubella
b. Hepatitis C
c. HIV
d. Tuberculosis
e. Parvovirus B19

10. All of the following treatments are effective for patch stage mycosis fungoides EXCEPT:
a. PUVA
b. Dead Sea climatotherapy
c. narrowband UVB
d. Corticosteroid
e. ultraviolet A phototherapy

11. CD30 expression occurs in:

a. pyoderma gangrenosum
b. neurofibromas
c. lipomas
d. sarcoidal granulomas
e. anaplastic large cell lymphomas

12. Permethrin is toxic to all of the following EXCEPT:

a. bacteria
b. bees
c. ticks
d. mosquitoes
e. scabies
13. The most common side effect of oral bexarotene is:
a. hypertriglyceridemia
b. alopecia
c. cheilitis
d. myalgias
e. neutropenia

14. For which of the following types of psoriasis is tacrolimus ointment effective?
a. Chronic plaque psoriasis
b. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Facial and intertriginous psoriasis
d. Scalp psoriasis
e. Nail psoriasis

15. Tacrolimus has been reported to be effective in which form of childhood vitiligo?
a. Vitiligo vulgaris
b. Lip-tip vitiligo
c. Facial vitiligo
d. Trichrome vitiligo
e. segmental vitiligo

16. In pregnant women with coccidioidomycosis, the treatment of choice is

a. amphotericin B
b. itraconazole
c. fluconazole
d. ketoconazole
e. potassium iodide

17. Which adverse event is caused by bexarotene?

a. Chest pain
b. Alopecia
c. Myalgias
d. Hypothyroidism
e. Renal failure

18. Antidesmoplakin antibodies are:

a. specific markers for paraneoplastic pemphigus
b. markers for paraneoplastic pemphigus and other blistering diseases
c. specific markers for bullous pemphigoid
d. markers for bullous pemphigoid and porphyria cutanea tarda
e. markers for bullous lupus erythematosis

19. All of the followings are septal panniculitis EXCEPT:

A. Erythema nodosum
B. Erythema nodosum migrans
C. Panniculitis of morphea
D. Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency panniculitis
E. Erythema induratum
20. All of the followings are true regarding Bowenoid papulosis EXCEPT:
A. Is a term used when histologic changes of SCC in situ are found within genital warts
B. Usually due to infection with HIV 6 or 11
C. Clinically they appear similar to venereal warts but are more likely to pigmented
D. Dermatologist often prefer to use this term when multiple papules are present
E. The lesions behave like typical condyloma acuminatea.

21. All of the following elements are suspected to increase in patient’s blood who is on cyclosporine
therapy EXCEPT:
A. Uric acid.
B. Creatinin.
C. LDL.
D. Magnesium.
E. Triglyceride.

22. The organic chemical that protects against UVA is:

A. Avobenzone.
B. Cinnamates.
C. Para-aminobenzoic acid.
D. Octyl-dimethyl paba( Padimate- 6).
E. Salicylates.

23. Large vessel vasculitis is:

A. Kawasaki disease.
B. Takayasu's arteritis.
C. Churg-strauss syndrome.
D. Essential cryoglobulinaemia.
E. Wegner's granulomatosis.

24. All of the followings are true about yellow nail syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Yellow thickened nails.
B. Increased longitudinal and transverse curvature.
C. Triangular lunula.
D. Decreased growth rate of nails.
E. Lymphedema mostly in legs.

25. A middle aged gentleman with pemphigus vulgaris is managed with azathioprine. Which of the
following substances is the active metabolite?
A. 6-thioguanine
B. Azathioprine
C. 6-mercaptopurine
D. Thiouric acid
E. 6-thioinosine monophosphate
26. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with which of the following systemic disease?
A.Diabetes mellitus
B.Polycystic kidney
C.Leukemia
D.Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
E.Muscular dystrophy

27. Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with all the following EXCEPT:

A.Diabetes
B.Polychondritis
C.Behcet disease
D.Erythema nodosum
E.Ulcerative colitis

28. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies motor innervation to the zygomaticus major muscle?
A. Temporal
B. Zygomatic
C. Buccal
D. Marginal mandibular
E.Cervical

29. Angiocentric lymphoma is characterized by the presence of which of the following cell-surface
markers?
A. CD38
B. CD138
C. CD56
D. CD68
E.CD40

30. Which tattoo color produces the most photosensitivity reactions?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
E.White

31. The following are true of leprosy:

A. The clinical lesion of tuberculoid leprosy are white patches
B. The greater auricular nerve is thickened in lepromatous leprosy
C. The lepromin test is positive in lepromatous leprosy
D. Type I reaction is an upgrading reaction
E.Erythema nodosum leprosum is treated with steroid

32. Lotion is preferred to the cream in treatment of the followings:

A.Scalp lesions.
B.Palm and sole lesions
C.Nail plate lesions
D.Flexural lesions
E.Dry and scaly lesions
33. Zoonotic Cutaneous leishmaniasis is the wet rural or early ulcerative form primarily caused by:
A. Leishmania chagasi
B. Leishmania braziliensis
C. Leishmania tropica
D. Leishmania Mexicana
E. Leishmania major

34. Which T-cell subset is commonly found in Sezary syndrome?

A. CD4+/CD7+
B. CD8+/CD7-
C. CD4-/CD7+
D. CD4+/CD7-
E. CD8+/CD7+

35. The main cytokine secreted by Th1 CD8+ effector T-cells is:
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IFN-gamma
D. IL-4
E. IL-5

36. Gene rearrangement analysis is useful for determining:

A. lymphocyte clonality in mycosis fungoides
B. lymphocyte activity
C. gene function
D. gene mutation
E. T cell receptor status

37. S100 staining would be negative in?

A. langerhans cells
B. eccrine cells
C. schwann cells
D. adipocytes
E. keratinocytes

38. Each of the following statements is true of oral contraceptives (OCs) EXCEPT:
A. The efficacy of OCs is decreased by concomitant rifampin use.
B. The failure rate of OCs is between 1% and 3%.
C. Tetracyclines are liver enzyme inducers and decrease the efficacy of OCs.
D. Some anticonvulsants interfere with OCs and result in unwanted pregnancies.
E. A second form of birth control should be used if even a small risk of pregnancy is unacceptable to
the patient.

39. The red lanula (Terry's half-moon nail):

A. is an autosomal dominant disorder
B. may be associated with cardiac failure and lupus erythematosus
C. is produced by localized thickening of the ventral nail
D. is frequently associated with hair anomalies
E. a and d are correct
40. Among reported cases of superficial onychomycosis in children, which organism is the most
frequently demonstrated?
A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
B. Candida albicans
C. Fusarium
D. Trichophyton rubrum
E. Aspergillus

41. Hereditary angioedema most commonly:

A. results from dysfunction of C1 esterase inhibitor, despite increased antigenic levels
B. is associated with urticaria
C. first appears by 10 years of age
D. shows characteristic perioral and periorbital swelling
E. is treated prophylactically with synthetic androgens

42. The most common cutaneous manifestation of the antiphospholipid syndrome is:
A. thrombophlebitis
B. livedo reticularis
C. painful skin nodules
D. ulcers
E. purpura and ecchymoses

43. Therapeutic modalities that may be efficacious in the treatment of atopic eczema include each of
the following EXCEPT:
A. phototherapy
B. photopheresis
C. cytokines
D. thymopentin
E. hyposensitization

44. The most frequent cause of PUVA-induced phototoxicity is:

A. therapy on consecutive days
B. the dose of UVA was too high
C. UVB was given in addition to UVA
D. concomitant medication
E. concurrent disease

45. In female pattern hair loss, the terminal to vellus-like hair ratio is:
a. less than 4:1
b. 5:1
c. 7:1
d. 8:1
e.10:1

46. Hydroxyurea is associated with:

a. squamous dysplasia
b. leg ulcers
c. alopecia
d. Hirsutism
e. hyperpigmentation
47. Regardless of the patch test procedure used, one of the five most common causes of positive
patch tests is which of the following?
a. black rubber mix
b. parabens
c. fragrance mix
d. caine mix
e. quaternium 15
48. Which of the following treatments has been shown to be safely used in patients with both
psoriasis and hepatitis C?
a. Etanercept
b. Methotrexate
c. Cyclosporine
d. Interferon alfa
e. Mycophenolate mofetil
49. For untreated HIV infection, the median time of progression to AIDS is approximately:
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
e. 25 years

50. Keratinocyte cell death in TEN is the result of

a. apoptosis
b. thermal injury secondary to high fever
c. infarction
d. bacterial toxins
e. immune complex mediated cellular injury

51. Which chemical modification is linked to increased steroid potency?

a. Fluorination
b. Myristylation
c. Acetylation
d. Carboxylation
e. Hydroxylation
52. Pseudo-CTCL infiltrates are more likely than CTCL to be composed of:

a. CD8+ T cells
b. CD4+ T cells
c. CD30+ T cells
d. Plasma cells
e. B cells
53. What does best describe tinea incognito?

a. Unrecognized tinea
b. Atypical tinea
c. Refractory tinea
d. Extensive tinea
e. Recurrent tinea
54. Which protein of Bartonella causes pits and indentations in erythrocyte membranes, resulting in
hemolysis?

a. Performin
b. Lysine
c. Deformin
d. Indentin
e. Hemolysine

55. T4 endonuclease V is an enzyme that repairs damaged DNA in:

a. bacteria.
b. fungi.
c. viruses.
d. yeast.
e. prions

56. Which of the HPV proteins is involved in carcinogenesis by degrading p53?

a. E2
b. E4
c. E5
d. E6
e. E7

57. Gene signature is:

a. The relative position of genes along the chromosome
b. The expression level of a gene
c. A pattern of genetic markers which infer a biologic state
d. The effect of one gene’s expression level on other genes
e. A measure of a gene’s relative importance in a cell type
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. E
11. E
12. A
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. A
17. D
18. B
19. E
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. E
34. D
35. C
36. A
37. E
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. E
42. B
43. B
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. A