24/08/2021 CODE-A

Complete Syllabus
Test-01
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

By Dr.CSTRishabh
– 11 Choubey
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 5. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 2.5 m/s
1. A dimensionless quantity along positive x-axis. How much distance will it
cover in reaching velocity of 7.5 m/s with uniform
(1) Never has a unit (2) Always has a unit acceleration of 0.5 m s–2?
(3) May have a unit (4) Does not exist (1) 20 m (2) 30 m
2. A force of 20 N acts on a particle along a (3) 40 m (4) 50 m
direction making angle 37º with the vertical. Its
component along horizontal direction is 6. A boy standing on road has to hold umbrella at
30º with vertical to keep the rain away. He throws
(1) 16 N (2) 12 N umbrella and starts running at 10 km/hr he finds
(3) 20 N (4) 10 N that rain drops are hitting his head vertically. The
3. The value of (24.36 + 0.0623 + 256.2) with speed of raindrops w.r.t. ground is
proper significant digit is (1) 10 km/h (2) 10 3 km/h
(1) 280.7 (2) 280.6
(3) 15 km/h (4) 20 km/h
(3) 280.622 (4) 281
7. Which of the following systems may be
4. The component of a vector is adequately described by classical physics?
(1) Always less than its magnitude (1) A hydrogen atom
(2) Always greater than its magnitude (2) A neutron changing to proton
(3) Always equal to its magnitude (3) Position of an electron
(4) May be greater than its magnitude (4) Motion of a cricket ball
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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

8. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to 13. The power factor of an ac series circuit having
force exerted by resistance R and inductance L connected in
(1) The engine of the car series with a source having angular frequency ω
is
(2) The road
R ωL
(3) The gravity of earth (1) (2)
ωL R
(4) The driver of car
R R
9. A block of mass 0.2 kg is suspended from the (3) (4)
R 2 + ω2L2 (R + ωL )2
ceiling by a light string. A second block of mass
0.3 kg is suspended from first block through 14. A wheel rotating at 20 rad/s is brought to rest by
another string. The ratio of tension in two strings a constant torque in 4 second. If moment of
is inertia of wheel is 0.2 kg m2. What is angle
rotated by wheel in first 2 seconds?
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 20 rad (2) 25 rad
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 5 : 3
(3) 30 rad (4) 40 rad
10. A particle travels in circle of radius 20 cm at a
speed that uniformly increases. It speed changes 15. A force F acts tangentially at highest point of a
from 5 m/s to 6 m/s in 2 s. The angular solid sphere of mass M and radius R. The sphere
acceleration is is on rough horizontal surface, and there is no
slipping. What is acceleration of centre of mass
(1) 2 rad s–2 (2) 2.5 rad s–2 of sphere?
(3) 5 rad s–2 (4) 1.5 rad s–2
11. A circular frictionless track having radius of
150 m is to be designed for vehicles at an
average speed of 30 m/s. The ideal angle of
bank is (g = 10 m/s2)
3
(1) 37º (2) tan−1  
5 5F 5F
(1) (2)
5  1 2M 7M
(3) tan−1   (4) tan−1  
3 2 5F 10 F
(3) (4)
12. Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are 3M 7 M
placed at three corners of a right angled triangle 16. A solid sphere has mass M uniformly distributed
of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the over its volume and a is radius of sphere. What is
figure. The centre of mass from 1 kg mass is the gravitational potential at the centre of the
sphere?
GM 3 GM
(1) (2) –
a 2 a
–3 GM – GM
(3) (4)
5a 2a
17. A particle of mass 200 g executes SHM. The
restoring force is provided by spring of spring
constant 80 N m–1. What is magnitude of
(1) (1.33 cm, 1.5 cm)
acceleration when mass is 2 cm away from
(2) (2 cm, 1 cm) equilibrium position?
(3) (1.14 cm, 1.5 cm) (1) 4 m s–2 (2) 6 m s–2
(4) (1.7 cm, 0.9 cm) (3) 8 m s–2 (4) 10 m s–2

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18. A simple pendulum clock keeping correct time at 24. Monochromatic light is passed through double slit
the earth surface is taken to high altitude and interference pattern is observed on screen
(1) It will keep correct time 2.5 m away. The separation between slits is
0.5 mm. The first bright fringe is 3.5 mm away
(2) Its length should be increased to keep correct from central fringe. The wavelength of light used is
time
(1) 600 nm
(3) Its length should be decreased to keep
(2) 500 nm
correct time
(3) 650 nm
(4) Its mass should be decreased to keep correct
time (4) 700 nm

19. In a streamline flow (homogeneous fluid) 25. When a drop of oil is spread on water surface, it
displays beautiful colours in daylight because of
(1) The speed of particle remain same
everywhere in flow (1) Dispersion of light

(2) The kinetic energy at different points is same (2) Reflection of light
(3) Polarisation of light
(3) Velocity of all particles arriving at a point are
same (4) Interference of light
(4) The velocity of particles always remain same 26. At what distance from a convex mirror of focal
length 2.5 m should a small object be kept so
20. A steel wire of length 2 m is stretched through
that its image has height of half of original height
2 mm. What is elastic potential energy stored in a
of object
wire of cross-sectional area 4 mm2 in stretched
condition (Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2) (1) 2 m (2) 2.5 m

(1) 0.8 J (2) 1.2 J (3) 4 m (4) Infinity

(3) 2.4 J (4) 1.6 J 27. The rays of different colours fail to converge at a
point after going through a converging lens. This
21. A 50 cm long wire has mass of 20 g linearly
defect is called
distributed. This string is under a tension of 16 N.
(1) Spherical aberration
The speed of transverse pulse generated on it is
(2) Chromatic aberration
(1) 2 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) Distortion
(3) 20 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(4) Coma
22. A sound source produce sound of intensity I0 at a
point. When its amplitude become double and 28. A convex lens is made of material having
the frequency becomes one fourth then the refractive index 1.25. Both the surfaces are
intensity of sound at same point will be convex. It if is dipped in a liquid (transparent) of
refractive increase 1.4, it will behaves like
(1) I0 (2) 4 I0
(1) A convergent lens
I I
(3) 0 (4) 0 (2) A sheet
4 16
(3) A divergent lens
23. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
wavelength 450 nm passes through a long slit of (4) A prism
width 0.2 mm. What is angular divergence in 29. A compound microscope has lens with objective
which most of the light is diffracted? of focal length 0.5 cm and eye piece of focal
length 5 and the lenses are separated by 7 cm.
(1) 4.5 × 10–3 rad
What is the magnification of microscope when
(2) 2 × 10–4 rad final image is formed at infinity?
(3) 4 × 10–3 rad (1) 12 (2) 14
(4) 4.5 × 10–4 rad (3) 15 (4) 18

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30. A mass m supported by a massless string wound 35. A storage battery has an emf of 25 V and internal
around a uniform solid cylinder of mass m and resistance is 0.20 Ω. What is its terminal voltage
radius R. If the string does not slip on the when it is being charged by a current of 8 A?
cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall
after release? (1) 23.4 V
(2) 24.5 V
(3) 26.6 V
(4) 25 V
SECTION-B
36. The slide wire meter bridge shown in the figure is
balanced when the uniform slide wire AB is
divided as shown, the value of resistance X is

g 4g
(1) (2)
3 3
2g
(3) (4) g
3
31. Suppose the parallel metal plates shown in figure (1) 6 Ω (2) 4 Ω
at 0.50 cm apart and are connected to 90 V (3) 3 Ω (4) 2 Ω
battery. What is surface charge density of plates?
37. A 500 W heater is used to heat 250 mL of water
from 20°C to 100ºC. What is minimum time in
which this can be done?
(1) 142 s (2) 190 s
(1) 159 nC/m2 (2) 212 nC/m2 (3) 167 s (4) 210 s
(3) 116 nC/m2 (4) 516 nC/m2 38. Figure gives a system of logic gates. It can be
32. An oil drop carries six electronic charge, has found that to produce a high output (I) at Z.
mass of 1.6 × 10–12 g and falls with terminal Which of the following option is correct?
velocity in air. What magnitude of vertical electric
field is required to make drop upward with same
speed as it was for only moving downward.
(1) 16 kN C–1 (2) 32.7 kN C–1
(3) 48.5 kN C–1 (4) 0.68 kN C–1
33. How much charge is stored in capacitor
(1) X = 1; Y = 0 (2) X = 0; Y = 1
consisting of two concentric spheres of radii
30 cm and 31 cm of potential difference is 500 V (3) X = 1; Y = 1 (4) X = 0; Y = 0
(assume K = 1 for air)? 39. A He2+ ion travels at right angles to a magnetic
(1) 516 nC (2) 432 nC field of 0.80 T with a velocity of 105 m/s. What is
(3) 318 nC (4) 192 nC magnitude of force acting on the ion?
34. An ideal gas mixture filled inside a balloon (1) 1.5 × 10–14 N
expands according to the relation PV2/3 = constant.
(2) 2.56 × 10–14 N
The temperature inside the balloon is
(1) Constant (2) Increasing (3) 3.2 × 10–14 N

(3) Decreasing (4) Can't predict (4) 1.28 × 10–14 N

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-11 (Code-A)

40. A parabolic section is located in x-y plane and 43. A conducting rod shown in figure rotates about
carries a current of 12 A. A uniform magnetic point C as pivot with constant frequency of
field B = 0.4 T making an angle of 60º with x-axis 5 rev/s. What is potential difference across its
exits throughout the plane. What is total force on ends 80 cm apart, due to magnetic field of 0.3 T?
wire between origin and point x1 = 0.25 m,
y1 = 1.00 m?

(1) 3 V (2) 0.2 V

(3) 8 V (4) 5.2 V
44. A sample of radioactive material contains
1018 atoms. The half life of the material is 2 days.
(1) –1.36 kˆ N Then initial activity of the sample is
(2) –2.4 kˆ N (1) 2 × 1010 Bq (2) 6 × 109 Bq
(3) 4 × 1012 Bq (4) 8 × 1010 Bq
(3) –1.72 kˆ N
45. The current amplification factor for common
(4) 1.42 kˆ N emitter amplifier is 59. If emitter current is
5 mA . What is value of collector current?
41. Figure shows two long parallel wires separated
by a distance of 18 cm. There is current of 8 A in (1) 1.62 mA (2) 4.58 mA
wire 1 and 12 A in wire 2. At what point on line (3) 4.72 mA (4) 4.92 mA
joining of the wires, the magnetic field is zero?
46. An ideal heat engine working between
temperature TH and TL has efficiency η. If both
the temperature are raised by 50 K each then the
new efficiency of heat engine will be
(1) Equal to η
(2) Less than η
(3) Greater than η

(1) 5.2 cm from wire 1 (4) Can’t predict

(2) 9.4 cm from wire 2 47. 4 moles of an ideal gas expand from initial
volume 2V to final volume 4V at constant
(3) 7.2 cm from wire 1
temperature 27°C. The work done by gas is
(4) 10.3 cm from wire 2 nearly
42. A flux of 900 µWb is produced in the iron core of (1) 7.5 kJ (2) 6.9 kJ
a solenoid. When core is removed a flux (in air)
(3) 8.3 kJ (4) 6.2 kJ
of 0.5 µWb is produced in same solenoid by
same current. What is relative permeability of 48. If the radiations of wavelength 200 nm and 400
iron? nm are incident on a substance of work function
2 eV one by one then the ratio of the stopping
(1) 1200
potentials for the emitted photoelectrons will be
(2) 900 (approx)
(3) 1600 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(4) 1800 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

49. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the 50. Oscillating magnetic field in a plane,
terminals of a resistance R and current through
electromagnetic wave is given by
ammeter will be

By = 4 × 10–6sin[9 × 109t – 30x] tesla. Expression

for oscillating electric field (in N C–1) will be


Ez 600 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(1) =


−600 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(2) Ez =


Ez 1200 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(3) =
(1) 200 V; 5 A (2) 400 V; 5 A 
(3) 400 V; 5 2 A (4) 200 V; 5 2 A −1200 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(4) Ez =

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. In which of the following pairs, both the species
51. A compound on analysis gave the following are paramagnetic and have the same bond
results C = 40%, H = 6.7% and O = 53.3%. order?

The empirical formula of the compound is (1) O22 – , O2– (2) N2 , CN–
(1) C2H4O (2) C2H6O (3) N2+ , O2+ (4) C2, O2
(3) CH2O (4) C3H6O
58. The ratio of most probable speed to root mean
52. If 2.8 g of a metal oxide contains 0.8 g oxygen, square speed of N2 at 298 K is
then the equivalent mass of the metal is
(1) 3: 1 (2) 2: 3
(1) 16 g (2) 20 g
(3) 12 g (4) 8 g (3) 3: 2 (4) 2 :1

53. An electron has a speed of 50 m/s with 59. Amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.2 M
uncertainty of 0.02%. The uncertainty in locating H2SO4 is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.5 M NaOH
its position is solution is
(1) 1.1 × 10–1 m (2) 3.2 × 10–7 m (1) 11.4 kJ (2) 2.85 kJ

(3) 1.2 × 10–5 m (4) 5.8 × 10–3 m (3) 5.71 kJ (4) 28.5 kJ

54. The total number of atomic orbitals in the third 60. Under what conditions, a reaction is spontaneous
energy level of an atom is at all temperatures?

(1) 9 (2) 8 (1) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0

(3) 18 (4) 32 (2) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0

55. The IUPAC official name of an element having (3) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
symbol Unt is (4) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(1) Seaborgium (2) Lawrencium 61. Which one of the following pairs of solution is an
(3) Bohrium (4) Mendelevium acidic buffer?

56. The compound which has the highest lattice (1) H2SO4 + NaOH
energy is (2) CH3COOH + HCOONa
(1) NaF (2) NaCl (3) HCN + NaCN
(3) NaBr (4) NaI (4) NH4OH + NH4Cl

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62. If a solution has 100 times as many hydroxide 70. The correct order of decreasing priority of the
ions as in pure water at 25ºC, then the pH of the functional group is
solution at the same temperature will be (1) – COOR > – COCl > – CONH2
(1) 9 (2) 6.4 (2) – COCl > – COOR > – CONH2
(3) 7 (4) 13.2 (3) – CONH2 > – COCl > – COOR
63. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is (4) – COOR > – CONH2 > – COCl
(1) + 3 (2) + 5 71. Major products obtained when n-hexane is
(3) + 6 (4) + 4 heated in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and
64. In ‘Coal gasification’ process, the products HCl gas are
obtained are
(1)
(1) CH3CH3 + N2 (2) H2CO3 + O2
(3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO + H2
(2)
65. The compound which forms hydrates is
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl
(3)
(3) KCl (4) RbCl
66. In pyrosilicates, the total number of oxygen (4)
atom(s) shared per SiO4–
4 tetrahedron is 72. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH3–CH3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 (4) CH ≡ CH
67. Incorrect statement about buckminsterfullerene is 73. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(1) Shape like soccer ball (1) Ozone (2) Methane
(2) Impure form of carbon (3) Nitrogen (4) Nitrous oxide
(3) All carbons are sp2 hybridized 74. Antiferromagnetic substance among the following
(4) It contains six membered and five membered is
rings (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
68. Most stable carbocation among the following is (3) CrO2 (4) NaCl
75. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the
highest boiling point?
(1) (2) (1) 0.01 m NaCl (2) 0.2 m Urea
(3) 0.02 m Glucose (4) 0.1 m Sucrose
76. The standard electrode potential (E°) values of
A+/A, B+/B, C+/C and D+/D are 2.19 V, 1.87 V,
–2.93 V and –1.7 V respectively. The correct
decreasing order of reducing power of the metal
(3) (4) is
(1) A > B > C > D (2) C > D > B > A
(3) A > B > D > C (4) D > C > A > B
69. Sodium fusion extract on reaction with Fe3+ gives
77. In a zero order reaction, for every 10° rise of
blood red colour indicates the presence of
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
(1) Nitrogen only temperature is increased from 10°C to 60°C, the
(2) Sulphur only rate of the reaction becomes
(3) Nitrogen and sulphur both (1) 32 times (2) 16 times
(4) Nitrogen and chlorine both (3) 64 times (4) 128 times

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

78. Positively charged sol among the following is SECTION-B

(1) Gold sol (2) As2S3 86. Phenol on reaction with chromic acid produces
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Gelatin (1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzaldehyde
79. In the froth floatation method, the froth stabiliser (3) Benzoquinone (4) Resorcinol
used is
87. Correct order of boiling point is
(1) Pine oil (2) Cresol
(1)
(3) Fatty acids (4) Xanthates
(2)
80. Mond's process is used for refining of
(1) Ni (2) Zr (3)

(3) Ti (4) Ge (4)

81. Incorrect statement among the following is 88. The compound which is most reactive towards
(1) Ist IE of O2 is nearly identical with that of Xe nucleophilic substitution reaction is
(2) Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeO3 (1) CH3COCl (2) CH3CONH2
(3) XeOF4 is a colourless volatile liquid (3) (CH3CO)2O (4) CH3COOCH3
(4) Ne is used in fluorescent bulbs for
advertisement display purposes 89.

82. Iodine on reaction with concentrated nitric acid

gives The above reaction is known as
(1) HOI (2) HIO3 (1) Etard Reaction
(3) HIO4 (4) HI3 (2) Clemmensen Reduction
83. The metal which is present in both brass and (3) HVZ Reaction
bronze is
(4) Wolff-Kishner Reduction
(1) Tin (2) Zinc
90. Consider the following reaction
(3) Copper (4) Aluminium
84. Diamagnetic species among the following is

(1) [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3– (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]

3–

(3) [Mn(CN)6 ]3– (4) [FeF6 ]

3– The compound C and D respectively are

85. Consider the following reaction, (1)

(2)

(3)
R is

(4)
(1) (2)

91. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in strongly

acidic medium followed by rearrangement gives
(3) (4) (1) Hydrazobenzene (2) p-aminophenol
(3) Azobenzene (4) Azoxybenzene

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92. Non-essential amino acid among the following is 97. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) Proline (2) Lysine (1) C6H5COOH (2) NC – CH2COOH
(3) Valine (4) Arginine (3) O2N – CH2COOH (4) CF3COOH
93. Monomer of neoprene is 98. The compound which gives isocyanide test is
(1) 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene
(2) Tetrafluoroethene (1)
(3) 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene
(4) 1, 3-butadiene
(2)
94. Ranitidine is a/an
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Antihistamine
(3) CH3 – NHCH3
(3) Analgesic (4) Antacid
(4)
95. When butan-2-one reacts separately with 2, 4-
DNP and I2 in the presence of NaOH, the colour
of the precipitates so formed respectively are 99. In which of the following reactions, N2O is
(1) Orange - Red and White formed?
(2) Orange - Red and Yellow (1) Zn + conc. HNO3 (2) Cu + conc. HNO3
(3) Black and Yellow (3) Zn + dil. HNO3 (4) Cu + dil. HNO3
(4) Yellow, Green and White 100. If the bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, I2 and HI
96. Shape of I is − are x, y and z kJ/mol, then the enthalpy of
3
formation of HI is
(1) Linear
z
(2) Bent (1) x + 2y – 2z (2) x + y −
2
(3) Trigonal planar
x z x y
(4) Pyramidal (3) + −y (4) + −z
2 2 2 2

BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Select the odd one w.r.t Fungi
101. Which of the following is not a defining property (1) Cell wall is composed of chitin
of all living organisms? (2) Some of them are photosynthetic
(3) Nucleus is present
(1) Reproduction
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum is present
(2) Metabolism 104. Diatoms are
(3) Cellular organisation (1) Members of deuteromycetes
(2) Photosynthetic organisms
(4) Consciousness
(3) Included in kingdom Monera
102. Which of the following is a taxonomic category
(4) Organisms without cell wall
related to wheat?
105. Select the mismatched pair
(1) Dicotyledonae (1) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi
(2) Sapindales (2) Phycomycetes - Coenocytic mycelium
(3) Ascomycetes - Includes Ustilago and
(3) Mangifera Puccinia
(4) Poales (4) Basidiomycetes - Sex organs are absent

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

106. Which of the following feature is related to 112. Select the incorrectly matched pair
Pteridophytes? (1) RER – Secretion
(1) The juvenile stage of gametophyte is the (2) Amyloplast – Stores oil and protein
leafy stage (3) SER – Synthesis of steroidal
(2) Companion cells are present in phloem hormones
(3) They are first terrestrial plants to have (4) Polysome – Synthesis of protein
vascular tissues system 113. Process A- NH3 → NO2
(4) They produce cones as well as seeds Process B - NH3 → N2
107. Select the odd one w.r.t sapwood Process A and process B is respectively done by
(1) Responsible for water conduction in dicot (1) Rhizobium and Nitrobacter
trees (2) Pseudomonas and Azotobacter
(2) The peripheral region of secondary xylem (3) Nitrococcus and Pseudomonas
(3) Involved in mineral transport from soil to (4) Rhizobium and Nostoc
other parts of plant 114. Which of the following is correct statement for
(4) Provides mechanical support the reductional division?
108. Valvate type of aestivation is found in the petals (1) It involves two sequential cycles of DNA
of replication

(1) China rose (2) It involves recombination between non-sister

chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(2) Calotropis
(3) Anaphase-I involves the splitting of
(3) Pea centromere holding the sister chromatids
(4) Cassia (4) Diplotene is the first stage of prophase-I
109. Read the statements and select the correct 115. Read the following statements and select the
option. correct option.
Statement-A : Leaves of pea are converted into Statement A: Facilitated diffusion does not
tendrils for climbing. require any energy expenditure.

Statement B: In racemose type of inflorescence Statement B: Active transport cannot be

inhibited by inhibitors.
the main axis terminates in a flower, hence has
limited growth. (1) Both A and B are correct

(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement A is correct

(2) Both A and B are correct (3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
116. Water potential of a solution at room temperature
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
and pressure
110. Which of the following is a characteristic feature (1) Is greater than pure water
of red algae?
(2) Can be increased by adding more solute
(1) Motile stage is absent
(3) Is less than zero
(2) Cell wall has pectose and algin
(4) Decrease when pure water is added
(3) Chlorophyll ‘c’ is present 117. Reappearance of the nuclear envelope during
(4) Always found in fresh water bodies mitosis occurs
111. All of the given cell organelles are single (1) In second phase of mitosis
membrane bound, except (2) In first phase of mitosis
(1) Lysosome (2) Golgi body (3) At the end of metaphase
(3) Ribosome (4) ER (4) In telophase

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-11 (Code-A)

118. Which of the following is not a function of 124. Male gametophyte of flowering plants
potassium? (1) Has outer layer composed of sporopollenin
(1) It is required in pollen germination (2) Is a 8 celled structure
(2) Helps to maintain anion-cation balance in (3) Always enter into the embryo sac via
cells antipodal cells
(3) It is involved in opening and closing of (4) Has four male gametes
stomata
125. Conidia are
(4) Activates many enzymes and maintain the
(1) Asexual spores produced by Penicillium
turgidity of cells
(2) Sexual spores produced by Chlamydomonas
119. Read the statements and select the correct
option. (3) Produced by members of imperfect fungi only

Statement A: OEC is located near the PS-II. (4) Produced only under unfavourable conditions

Statement B: Only PS-II is involved in cyclic 126. All of the following plants are pollinated by water
photophosphorylation. except

(1) Both A and B are correct (1) Vallisneria (2) Zostera

(2) Only statement A is correct (3) Hydrilla (4) Water hyacinth

(3) Only statement B is correct 127. Which of the following is a main effect of auxin in
plants?
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Breaks seed and bud dormancy
120. In C3 plants, first product formed during carbon
(2) Promote senescence in plant
fixation, is
(3) Increase respiration rate in ripening fruits
(1) A two carbon compound
(4) Responsible for apical dominance
(2) Catalysed by PEPCase enzyme
128. ZZ-ZW type sex determination can be seen in
(3) Catalysed by RuBisCO enzyme
(1) Humans (2) All mammals
(4) Has four carbons
(3) Birds (4) Most of the insects
121. Which of the following is not true w.r.t glycolysis?
129. Chromosome complement of a person affected
(1) It occurs mainly in mitochondrial matrix
from the Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(2) NADH2 are formed
(1) 44+XO (2) 44+XXY
(3) Magnesium is necessary for the activation of
(3) 44+XX (4) 44+YY
most of the enzymes in it
130. Which ribosomal subunit act as catalyst in
(4) Two pyruvate are formed from one glucose
prokaryotes?
molecule during glycolysis
(1) 28 S rRNA (2) 23 S rRNA
122. Cytochrome c oxidase of respiratory electron
transport system (3) 18 S rRNA (4) 16 S rRNA

(1) Is located in outer membrane of mitochondria 131. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t DNA
replication
(2) Transfer the electron to oxygen from cyt c
(1) RNA primer is important to start the DNA
(3) Is also called complex V
replication
(4) Oxidize FADH2
(2) DNA ligase breaks apart the Okazaki
123. A are the derivatives of adenine and fragments
responsible for cell division. Here 'A' is (3) Helicase cleaves the hydrogen bonds of DNA
(1) ABA (2) GA duplex

(3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin (4) It is a semi-conservative process

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

132. Permease of Lac operon in bacteria 140. Pioneer species in the hydrarch succession is
(1) Is the product of Lac ‘z’ gene (1) Lichens (2) Reed swamp
(2) Catalyze the breakdown of lactose (3) Zooplanktons (4) Phytoplanktons
(3) Is the product of Lac ‘a’ gene 141. How many organisms given below are primary
(4) Is important for uptaking of lactose consumers?
133. Variety of Okra which is resistant to shoot and Phytoplanktons, Wolf, Zooplanktons, Large fish,
fruit borer is Grasshopper
(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa Sawani (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Pusa Komal (4) Pusa Sadabahar (3) Four (4) Five
134. Which of the following is a commercial product 142. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
formed by a fungus named Trichoderma? pair w.r.t extinct animals?
(1) Acetic acid (2) Citric acid
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
(3) Streptokinase (4) Cyclosporin A
(2) Steller’s Sea Cow – Russia
135. Organism which form the symbiotic association
(3) Quagga – India
with plant roots forming the mycorrhiza is
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena (4) Thylacine – Australia

(3) Glomus (4) Pseudomonas 143. Sacred grooves located in Meghalaya are
SECTION-B (1) Khasi and Jaintia Hills
136. Which of the following breaks seed dormancy? (2) Western Ghats
(1) Gibberellic acid (3) Chanda and Baster
(2) Abscisic acid (4) Aravalli Hills
(3) Para ascorbic acid 144. Select the correct statement w.r.t. catalytic
(4) Phenol converters
137. Considering the global biodiversity, maximum (1) It can remove over 99 percent particulate
proportionate number of species amongst the matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
vertebrates is of power plant
(1) Amphibians (2) Fishes (2) Can be used in the vehicles to remove
(3) Mammals (4) Reptiles poisonous gases like CO
138. Which of the following is an example of (3) It has electrode wires that are maintained at
commensalism? several thousand volts, which produce a
(1) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a corona that releases electrons
mango branch (4) Vehicles fitted with these should use leaded
(2) Antibiotic production by fungi petrol
(3) Cuscuta, growing on hedge plants 145. Read the statements and select the correct
option
(4) Balanus and Chathalamus interaction in
intertidal area (i) Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake
139. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. by nutrient enrichment of its water.
decomposition process. (ii) Friends of the Arcata Marsh or FOAM are a
(1) It is largely an anaerobic process group of citizens in California
(2) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade (iii) There are many ‘EcoSan’ toilets in many
fragmented detritus into simpler inorganic areas of Kerala and Sri Lanka
substances (1) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) Warm and moist environment favours
(2) All are correct except (ii)
decomposition
(3) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(4) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich
in lignin (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

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146. Which of the following are components of 148. Non motile gametes are produced by
ribosomes? (1) Cladophora (2) Chlamydomonas
(1) Protein and tRNA (3) Gelidium (4) Volvox
(2) rRNA and proteins 149. Molybdenum is a part of
(3) RNA, DNA and proteins (1) Nitrogenase
(4) DNA and proteins (2) Nitrate reductase
147. Commercial production of blood cholesterol (3) Catalase
lowering agent statins is through (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Monascus purpureus 150. Both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b are main
(2) Streptococcus photosynthetic pigments in
(3) Aspergillus niger (1) Polysiphonia (2) Porphyra
(4) Pseudomonas (3) Gracilaria (4) Chlamydomonas

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Choose the correct option.
151. Menstrual flow results due to the breakdown of (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Perimetrium lining of the uterus (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Myometrium lining of the uterus (3) Statement A is correct, statement B is
(3) Myometrium lining of the cervix incorrect
(4) Endometrium lining of the uterus (4) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is
152. How many spermatozoa and ova are formed correct
from four secondary spermatocytes and three 155. The similarities in the pattern of bones of
secondary oocytes respectively? forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and human
(1) 4 spermatozoa, 4 ova depicts
(2) 8 spermatozoa, 3 ova (1) Convergent evolution
(3) 16 spermatozoa, 12 ova (2) Divergent evolution
(4) 3 spermatozoa, 8 ova (3) Natural selection
153. Complete the analogy with respect to (4) Adaptive convergence
contraception.
156. As per origin and evolution of man, _______ was
Natural method : Periodic abstinence :: Barrier termed as the first human-like being, the hominid.
method : ________
Fill the blank with the correct option.
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) Vasectomy
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Ramapithecus
(3) Diaphragm (4) LNG-20
(3) Homo erectus (4) Homo habilis
154. Read the following given statements w.r.t. MTP
157. Identify the incorrect match
Statement A: As per MTP (Amendment) Act,
2017, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain (1) Ringworms – Epidermophyton
considered grounds within the 1st trimester of (2) Elephantiasis – Wuchereria malayi
pregnancy on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner. (3) Ascariasis – Ascaris

Statement B: The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017 (4) Amoebic dysentery – Plasmodium vivax
was enacted by government of India with the 158. Cell-mediated immune response is mediated by
intention of increasing the incidence of illegal
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) T-lymphocytes
abortion and consequent maternal mortality and
morbidity. (3) Monocytes (4) Macrophages

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

159. Effects of consuming hashish, ganja etc. can be 164. Correctly match Column-I with Column-II.
seen on
Column-I Column-II
(1) Gastrointestinal tract only
a. ADA deficiency (i) Milk contains alpha-
(2) CNS only
lactalbumin
(3) Cardiovascular system of the body
b. Rosie, (ii) Gene therapy
(4) Transportation of dopamine
transgenic cow
160. A patient visits a neurologist complaining of
severe headache, numbness, weakness, c. Validity of GM (iii) Single stranded
confusion and seizures. The neurologist research RNA or DNA
suggests the patient to get his M.R.I done. Upon
d. Probe (iv) GEAC
comprehending M.R.I results, the neurologist
diagnosed the patient with a tumor. This form of Choose the most appropriate option.
tumor spreads to other parts, causing more (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
damage in the body.
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Which of the following statement holds true for
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
such tumor?
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) It is a form of benign tumor; no angiogenesis
165. Read the following given statements:
(2) It is a form of malignant tumor; no
angiogenesis Statement A: Plasmid is closed, circular extra-
chromosomal DNA.
(3) It is a form of malignant tumor; shows new
blood vessel formation Statement B: Plasmids are possessed only by
eukaryotic cells.
(4) It is a form of benign tumor; shows new blood
vessel formation Choose the correct option.

161 Which of the following given statement is (1) Both statements A and B are correct
incorrect w.r.t. inbreeding in animals? (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Inbreeding increases heterozygosity (3) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is
(2) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pureline correct
in any animal (4) Statement A is correct, statement B is
(3) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes incorrect
that are eliminated by selection 166. Orange coloured bands of DNA in a ethidium
bromide stained gel can be seen, when the gel is
(4) Inbreeding helps in the accumulation of
exposed to
superior genes and elimination of less
desirable genes (1) X-rays (2) UV light
162. Select the odd one w.r.t. the categorization of (3) β-rays (4) Radio waves
fish on the basis of habitat 167. Acromegaly is a resultant of
(1) Catla (2) Rohu (1) Hyposecretion of growth hormone in children
(3) Hilsa (4) Common carp (2) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in children
163. Proinsulin → Active human insulin (3) Hyposecretion of growth hormone in adults
↓
(A) (4) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults
Identify ‘A’ in the above drawn step of formation 168. Select the incorrect match
of human insulin (active form) from proinsulin: (1) Iodothyronines – Thyroid
(1) Removal of A-polypeptide chain hormones
(2) Removal of B-polypeptide chain (2) Amino-acid derivative – Epinephrine
(3) Removal of C-polypeptide chain (3) Protein hormone – GnRH
(4) Removal of D-polypeptide chain (4) Steroid – Insulin

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-11 (Code-A)

169. Catecholamines in a normal person induces 175. A fall in GFR activates

(1) Alertness (1) Macula densa cells to release renin
(2) Pupillary constriction (2) JG cells to release rennin
(3) Reduction in heart beat (3) JG cells to release renin
(4) Reduction in rate of respiration (4) Macula densa cells to release rennin
170. Vestibular apparatus of inner ear is composed of 176. Identify the analogy
(1) 3 semi-circular canals only Antennal glands : Prawns :: ______ : Planaria
(2) Otolith only Choose the correct option.
(3) 3 semi-circular canals and otolith (1) Nephridia
(4) Saccule and utricle only (2) Flame cells
171. Identify the incorrect statement (3) Green glands
(1) Space between cornea and lens is called (4) Malpighian tubules
aqueous chamber 177. Match column-I correctly with column-II.
(2) Space between lens and retina is called
Column-I Column-II
vitreous chamber
(3) Vitreous humor is a thin watery fluid a. Angina pectoris (i) BP is 160/100 mmHg

(4) Aqueous humor is a thin watery fluid b. Cardiac arrest (ii) BP is 70/50 mm Hg
172. _______ is the point where visual acuity is the c. Hypotension (iii) Heart stops beating
greatest.
d. Hypertension (iv) Acute chest pain
Fill the blank with the correct option.
(1) Blind spot Choose the correct option.

(2) Fovea centralis (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(3) Pupil (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) Iris 178. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. structure of

blood vessels
173. Identify the incorrect match
(1) Tunica intima is the middle layer of smooth
(1) Knee joint – Hinge joint muscle and elastic fibres
(2) Between – Ball and socket joint (2) Tunica externa is the outermost layer of
humerus and fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres
pectoral girdle (3) Tunica media is the innermost layer of
squamous endothelium
(3) Saddle joint – Between the carpals
(4) Tunica externa is the outermost layer of
(4) Pivot joint – Between atlas and squamous endothelium
axis
179. Which of the following conditions are not
174. In the patients suffering with gouty arthritis, high favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
level of which compound is found in the joints? oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) Amino acid crystals (1) Low pO2 and high pCO2
(2) Uric acid crystals (2) High pCO2 and high H+ concentration
(3) Protein crystals (3) High temperature and acidosis
(4) Nucleic acid crystals (4) High pO2 and alkalosis

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

180. Select the incorrect match SECTION-B

(1) FRC = ERV + RV 186. Complete the analogy
(2) IC = TV – IRV Haemoglobin : Quaternary structure :: Myoglobin
(3) TLC = VC + RV : ________
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV
(1) Primary structure
181. Select the incorrect statement
(2) Secondary structure
(1) Physiologic calorific value of carbohydrates is
4.0 kcal/g (3) Tertiary structure
(2) Physiologic calorific value of proteins is
(4) Quaternary structure
4.0 kcal/g
(3) Gross calorific value of lipids is 9 kcal/g 187. Which of the following falls under the category of

(4) Gross calorific value of carbohydrates is 4.1 secondary metabolite?

kcal/g (1) Serine
182. Which of the following juice in the body is devoid
(2) 2-deoxyribose
of all enzymes?
(1) Succus entericus (3) Curcumin
(2) Bile juice (4) Thymidylic acid
(3) Pancreatic juice
188. Which of the following graph correctly shows the
(4) Intestinal juice
effect of pH on enzyme’s activity for most
183. Mucus neck cells and peptic cells, respectively in enzymes?
stomach secrete
(1) Mucus and vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin B12 and mucus
(1)
(3) Mucus and pepsinogen
(4) Pepsinogen and mucus
184. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. enzymes and
their role in digestive system

Enzyme Function
(2)
(1) Trypsinogen – Upon activation, it helps in the
digestion of proteins

(2) Pancreatic – It helps in the digestion of fats

lipase

(3) Pancreatic – About 70% of starch is

amylase hydrolyzed under its action
(3)
(4) Nucleases – Present in succus entericus,
aids in digestion of nucleic
acids

185. Which of the following are homopolysaccharides?

(1) Starch, peptidoglycan
(2) Inulin, insulin (4)

(3) Cellulose, inulin

(4) Peptidoglycan, collagen

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-11 (Code-A)

189. How many of the given organisms exhibit radial (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
symmetry? (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(a) Pleurobrachia (b) Adamsia (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(c) Aurelia (d) Ctenoplana (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(e) Aedes (f) Taenia
193. ______ are transparent, membranous and are
Choose the correct option used in flight.
(1) Two (2) Three Fill the blank with the correct option.
(3) Four (4) Six (1) Tegmina (2) Elytra
190. Observe the following figure and label A and B (3) Hindwings (4) Forewings
respectively
194. Female Periplaneta americana produces how
many oothecae?
(1) 14-16
(2) 10-20
(3) 9-10

Choose the correct option. (4) 10-12

195. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
A B
americana
(1) Notochord Post-anal part
(1) The brain is represented by sub-oesophageal
(2) Nerve cord Gill slits ganglia which supplies nerves to antennae
and compound eyes
(3) Gill slits Nerve cord
(2) Excretion is performed by malpighian
(4) Post-anal part Nerve cord
tubules, fat body, nephrocytes and uricose
191. Complete the analogy glands.
Fusiform: Smooth muscle fibres :: Intercalated (3) Blood vascular system is open type where
discs : _____ blood vessels are poorly developed and open
(1) Skeletal muscle tissue into space
(2) Voluntary muscle tissue (4) The hind gut is broader than midgut and is
(3) Non-striated muscle tissue differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum
(4) Cardiac muscle tissue 196. Thymosin is a hormone which is released by
192. Match column-I correctly with column-II. (1) Thymus gland
Column-I Column-II (2) Thyroid gland
a. Bone (i) Stores fat (3) Parathyroid gland

b. Adipose tissue (ii) Site of haemopoiesis (4) Pineal gland

c. Ligament (iii) Act as a support 197. Complete the analogy w.r.t. Islets of Langerhans
framework for of pancreas.
epithelium Insulin : β-cells : : Somatostatin : ______
d. Areolar tissue (iv) Connects bone to bone (1) F-cells (2) PP-cells
Choose the correct option. (3) δ-cells (4) α-cells

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CST-11 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

198. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 200. Match column-I correctly with column-II.
characteristic features of Spongilla. Column-I Column-II
(1) Cellular level of organization a. Scoliodon (i) Notochord is persistent
throughout life
(2) Coelom is absent
b. Clarias (ii) Gills slits are separate and
(3) Digestive system is absent without operculum
(4) Segmentation is present (iii) Air bladder is present
which regulates buoyancy
199. A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a A
(iv) Skin is tough, containing
over the B in Pila. minute placoid scales.
(v) Skin is covered with
Fill the blanks A and B with a suitable option. ctenoid scales
A B Select the correct option.
(1) Head Muscular foot a b
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) (iii), (v)
(2) Muscular foot Visceral hump
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) Mantle Visceral hump
(3) (i), (ii), (v) (iii), (iv)
(4) Mantle Head (4) (iii), (iv) (i), (ii), (v)

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Edition: 2020-21