PART A (BOTANY)

1. What are those structures that appear as ‘beads-on-string’ in the chromosomes when viewed under electron
microscope?
a)Nucleotides b) Nucleosomes c) Base pairs d) Genes
2. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
a)Parallel b) Discontinuous c) Antiparallel d) Semi-conservative
3. Centrosome is not present in
a)Cell of higher plants b) Cell of lower plants
c)Cell of higher animals d) Cell of lower animals
4. Channel proteins are involved in
a)Transport of enzymes b) Water transport
c)Active transport of ions d) Passive transport of ions
5. Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called
a)Centriole b) Centromere c) Chromomere d) Satellite
6. Tubulin protein occurs in
a)Digestive enzymes b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c)Thylakoids d) Microtubules
7. Quantasomes are found in
a)Mitochondria b) Chloroplast
c)Lysosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum
8. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are called
a)Metacentric b)Acrocentric c)Polycentric d)Acentric
9. The non-membranous organelles are
a)Centrioles b) Ribosomes c) Nucleolus d)All of these
10. The cytoskeleton is a proteinaceous network of fibres in the cytoplasm involved in
a)mechanical support b)motility c)maintenance of cell shape d)all of these
11. Axoneme with 9+2 microtubular arrangement occurs in
a)Cilia b)Flagella c)Both a & b d)Centriole
12. A component of cytoskeleton is
a)Microtubule b)Bone c)Chitin d)Cartilage
13. …A… are granular structures first observed under electron microscope as dense particles by …B… (1953).
Here, A and B refer to
a)A-Ribosomes; B-Perner b) A-Lysosomes; B-de Duve
c)A-Peroxisomes; B-Flemming d) A-Ribosomes; B-George Palade
14. Middle lamella is present
a)Inside the secondary wall b) Inside the primary wall
c)Outside the primary wall d) In between secondary and tertiary walls
15. Rough endoplasmic reticulum differs from smooth walled endoplasmic reticulum due to the presence of
a)DNA b) Nucleus c) Ribosomes d) Ergastic substance
16. The second meiotic division leads to
a) Separation of sex chromosomes b) Fresh DNA synthesis
c) Separation of chromatids and centromere d) Separation of homologous chromosomes
17. In meiosis, chromosome number becomes
a) Half of its parent chromosome b) Same as that of parent chromosome
c) One fourth of its parent chromosome d) None of the above
18. Consider the following statements about plant cytokinesis
I. It usually occurs by cell plate method
II. The spindle usually persists during cytokinesis
III. Cell plate grows centrifugally
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
19. I. …A… phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
II. In animal cells, during the …B… phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplicates
in the cytoplasm
III. During the …C… phase, proteins are synthesized for the preparation of mitosis, while cell growth
continues
Identify the blanks (A-C) to complete the given statements (I-III) with reference to NCERT textbook
a)A-G2 , B-S, C-G1 b) A-S, B-G2 , C-G1 c) A-S, B-G1 , C-G2 d) A-G1 , B-S, C-G2
20. Select the matched ones.
I . S-phase - DNA replication
II. Zygotene - Synapsis
III. Diplotene - Crossing over
IV. Meiosis - Both haploid and diploid cells
V 𝐺2 -phase - Quiescent stage
a)I and II only b) III and IV only c) III and V only d) I,III and V only
21. Which type of cell division helps in regeneration of cells?
a)Mitosis b) Amitosis c) Meiosis d) Karyokinesis
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about meiosis?
I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II, but
only a single cycle of DNA replication
IV. Meiosis-I is initiated after the parental chromosome replication which produce identical sister
chromatids at the S-phase
The correct option is
a)I and III b) II only c) II and III d) I, II, III and IV
23. Choose the correct statements regarding cell cycle
I. Interphase is called the resting phase
II. Interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for division
III. The interphase is divided into phases, 𝑖. 𝑒. , G1 , S and G2 -phase
IV. Interphase represents the phase between the two successive M-phases
The option with correct statements is
a)I and IV b) II and III c) I and III d) I, II, III and IV
24. Crossing over occurs during
a)Leptotene b) Diplotene c) Pachytene d) Zygotene
25. During meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or segregated from each other. How many allele(s)
is/are then transmitted to a gamete?
a)Four b) Two c) Six d) One
26. The phragmoplast is organized at the
a) Beginning of anaphase b) End of anaphase c) Beginning of telophase d) End of telophase
27. The morphology of chromosomes can be studied most easily in
a)Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase
28. Identify the correct stage of mitosis by viewing the diagram carefully?
 a)Interphase b) Prophase c) Metaphase d) Anaphase
29. The number of chromosomes becomes half in
a)Anaphase-I b) Anaphase-II c) Telpohase-I d) Telophase-II
30. In which of the following phase of cell cycle, mitotic division got arrested?
a)G2 -phase b) G0 -phase c) S-phase d) M-phase
31. Which kinds of structures of proteins are shown in the figures given below

a) A = 1° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure, D = 4° structure

b) A = 4° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure, D = 1° structure
c) A = 1° structure, B = 4° sstructure, C = 3° structure, D = 2° structure
d) A = 4° structure, B = 3° structure, C = 2° structure, D = 1° structure
32. Lipid are found in acid insoluble fraction during the analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Given the
reason
a) It has very high molecular weight
b) It is polymer
c) It has low molecular weight
d) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble vesicles
33. Choose the element which is negligible in living matter
a)Si b) Mg c) Ca d) S
34. Name the plant pigments present in the following
I. Carrots II. Tomatoes
a)I-Tycopene II-Carotene b) I-Carotene II-Lycopene
c)I-Leucopene II-Carotene d) None of the above
35. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified
along with its related function?

a) A- Triglyceride major -Source of energy

b)B- Uracil -A component of DNA
c)A-Lecithin -A component of cell membrane
d)B-Adenine -A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
36. The charged molecule which is electrically neutral is known as
a)Amino acid b)Zwitterion c)Amide d)Peptide
37. Which statement regarding coenzyme is incorrect?
a) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme
 b) Every coenzyme is a cofactor but every cofactor is not a coenzyme
c) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins
d) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes
38. The rate of the reaction doubles or decreases by half, for every… °C change in either direction
a)10° b) 15° c) 20° d) 27°
39. Enzyme often have additional parts in their structures that are made up of molecules other than
proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called
a)Cofactor b) Coenzyme c) Substrate d) Both (a) and (b)
40. Unsaturated fatty acids have
a)Palmitic acid b)Oleic acid
c)High melting point d)One or more double bonds
41. The sum total composition of acid soluble and acid insoluble fraction pool represents the
a)Molecular b) Dead cells c) Gene library d) Cellular pool
42. The ‘lock’ and ‘key’ model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme molecule
a) May be destroyed and resynthesised several times
b) Interacts with a specific type of substrate molecule
c) Reacts at identical rates under all conditions
d) Forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex
43. Acidic amino acids carry two −COOH and one −NH2 groups per molecule. Keeping this in mind, select the
correct pair of acidic amino acid
a)Lysine and arginine b) Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
c)Glycine and alanine d) Both (a) and (b)
44. After doing the chemical analysis of organic compounds found in living organisms, two fractions were
observed namely
a) Acid soluble pool and acid insoluble pool b) Carbon pool and hydrogen pool
c) Inorganic pool and organic pool d) Aquous pool and non-aquous pool
45. Which one is not an example for hydrolases?
a)Dehydrogenase b) Protease c) Amylase d) Esterase
46. The given diagram shows cotransport method of two molecule. Labelled it correctly and choose the correct
option accordingly

a) A-Uniport, B-Symport, C-Antiport b) A-Uniport, B-Antiport, C-Symport

c) A-Symport, B-Uniport, C-Antiport d) A-Antiport, B-Uniport, C-Uniport
47. What are the aquaporins in facilitated diffusion process?
a)Membrane proteins b) Carrier proteins c) Channel proteins d) Carrier lipids
48. Which of the following osmotic situations does the figure demonstrate?
 a) Plasmolysis b) Turgid c) Reverse plasmolysis d) Diffused
49. Read the following statement and choose the correct one from the codes given below
I. The apoplastic movement of water takes place exclusively through intercellular spaces and cell wall
without crossing any membrane
II. Symplastic movement occurs from cell to cell through plasmodesmata, 𝑖. 𝑒., adjacent cells are connected
through plasmodesmata
III. Permeability of a membrane depends on its composition and chemical nature of the solute
IV. Solutes present in a cell increases the free energy of the water or water potential
a)I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) II and IV d) I and IV
50. When sugars enter sieve tubes, water flows by osmosis, resulting in
a)Water potential b) Osmotic gradient c) Turgor pressure d) DPD
51. The evaporative loss of water from the exposed part of plant is called
a)Transpiration b) Guttation c) Loss of water d) Water bleeding
52. Which one of the following is not related to guttation?
a)Water is given out in the form of droplets b) Water given out is impure
c)Water is given out during daytime d) Guttation is of universal occurance
53. Whose water potential is less than water potential of root hair during the water absorption by root
hair?
a)Gravitational water b) Soil solution c) Pure water d) Vacuolar sap
54. A thin film of water is held by the soil particles under the influence of internal attractive force. It is
called
a)Hygroscopic water b) Gravitational water
c)Combined water d) Capillary water
55. Study the following statement and choose the correct option(s) from the codes from below
I. Root pressure provides a light push in the overall process of water transport
II. Root pressure causes the flow of water faster through xylem than it can be lost by transportation
III. In symplast pathway, water move exclusively through the cell wall and intercellular spaces
IV. Guttation is a cause of transpiration pull
V. Most plants fulfill their water requirement by transpiration pull
a) I, II and III are correct while IV and V are incorrect
b) IV and V are correct while I, II and III are incorrect
c) I and V are correct
d) II and III are correct while I, IV and IV are incorrect
56. What is required for the transport of substances through a membrane from a region of lower concentration
to higher concentration?
a)Input of energy b) Output of energy c) Facilitated diffusion d) Nothing is required
57. Which of the following statement is correct?
a)DPD=OP-WP b) DPD=OP+WP c) DPD=WP-OP d) DPD=TP+OP
58. Choose the correct combination of labeling of stomatal apparatus of dicot and monocot leaves

a) A-Epidermal cells B-Subsidiary cells C-Chloroplast D-Guard cells E-Stomatal aperature

b) A-Epidermal cells B-Guard cells C-Chloroplast D-Subsidiary cells E-Ctomatal aperature
c) A-Epidermal cells B-Subsidiary cells C-Chloroplast D- Stomatal aperature E- Guard cells
 d) A- Subsidiary cells B- Epidermal cells C-Chloroplast D- Stomatal aperature E- Guard cells
59. In a plant organ, which is covered by periderm and in which the stomata are absent, some gaseous
exchange still takes place through
a)Aerenchyma b) Trichomes c) Pnenumatophores d) Lenticels
60. What per cent of water reaching them is used by leaves in photosynthesis?
a) Less than 1% b) About 5 %
c) About 5 % in warm conditions and about 10 % in clod conditions d) About 50 %
61. As compound to a C3 -plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one
molecule of hexose sugar by C4 -plants?
a)2 b) 6 c) 0 d) 12
62. Proton gradient is broken down due to
a) Movement of electrons across the membrane to stroma
b) Movement of electrons across the membrane to lumen
c) Movement of proton across the membrane to lumen
d) Movement of proton across the membrane to stroma
63. Which of the following is a simplified equation of photosynthesis?
Light energy Light energy
a)CO2 + 2H2 O → C5 H10 O4 + H2 O + O2 ↑ b) CO2 + 2H2 O → (CH2 O)n + O2 ↑
Chlorophyll Chlorophyll
Light energy Light energy
c)CO2 + 2H2 O → C3 H6 O3 + CO2 + O2 ↑ d) CO2 + 2H2 O → (CH2 O)n + H2 O + O2 ↑
Chlorophyll Chlorophyll
64. The membrane of thylakoid is called
a)Cell membrane b) Fret membrane
c)Granum membrane d) Thylakoid membrane
65. The enzyme responsible for primary carboxylation in C3 -plants is
a)Hexokinase b) Succinic dehydrogenase
c)Pyruvate carboxylase d) RuBP carboxylase oxygenase
66. The law of limiting factors was proposed with particular reference to photosynthesis. Identify the scientise,
who proposed this law?
a)Calvin b) Weismann c) Emerson d) Blackman
67. The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during Calvin cycle requires
a) 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of NADPH2
b) 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH2
c) 18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH2
d) 12 molecules each of ATP and NADPH2
68. The enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into the plants leading to the synthesis of sugar in
a)Stroma b) Stroma lamella c) Grana d) Both (a) and (b)
69. In CAM-plants, carbon dioxide acceptor is
a)RuBP b) PEP c) OAA d) PGA
70. PEP carboxylase
I. is involved in atleast some CO2 fixation in both C3 and C4 -plants
II. Catalyses the reaction of fixing CO2 into pyruvic acid in bundle sheath cells
III. is capable of fixing CO2 more efficiently at lower atmospheric CO2 concentration than RuBP carboxylase
Select the correct option
a)I and II b) II and III c) I, II and III d) Only III
71. Which factor is not limiting in normal condition for photosynthesis?
a)Air b) Carbon dioxide c) Water d) Chlorophyll
72. Which stage of the calvin cycle utilizes ATP?
a) Carboxylation b) Reduction c) Regeneration d) Both b and c
73. In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplast is
a)Discoid b) Cup-shaped c) Girdle-shaped d) Reticulate
74. Identify the correct combination of the following

a)III and IV b) I and II c) II and III d) I and IV

75. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces
a)NADPH b) ATP c) ATP + NADPH2 d) ATP + NADPH2 + O2
76. In the electron transport system present in the inner mitochondrial membrane, complexes I and IV are
respectively
a) NADH Dehydrogenase and FADH2
b) NADH2 and NADH Dehydrogenase
c) NADH Dehydrogenase and cytochrome-c oxidase complex
d) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase
77. In respiration incomplete oxidation of glucose is done under
a)Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration
c)Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
78. The cellular respiration first takes place in the
a)Cytoplasm b) Golgi bodies c) ER d) Lysosomes
79. Which of the following scientist has given the scheme of glycolysis?
a)Gustav Embden et. al b) Kreb et. al c) Fritz Lipmann et. al d) None of these
80. Which metabolic pathway is a common pathway to both anaerobic and aerobic metabolism?
a)Glycolysis b) EMP pathway c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
81. In mitochondria, enzyme cytochrome oxidase is present in
a)Outer membrane b) Perimitochondrial space
c)Inner membrane d) Matrix
82. TCA cycle enzymes are present in
a)Cytoplasm b) Inter membrane space of mitochondria
c)Mitochondrial matrix d) Inner membrane of mitochondria
83. Among the following, identify the substrate required for the only oxidative reaction that occurs in the
process of glycolysis.
a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid b) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
c) Fructose-6-phosphate d) Glucose-6-phosphate
84. Aerobic respiration is
a) The process in which complete oxidation of organic substances in the absence of oxygen
b) The process in which complete oxidation of organic substances in the presence of oxygen
c) The process in which incomplete oxidation of organic substances in the absence of oxygen
d) The process in which incomplete oxidation of organic substances in the presence of oxygen
85. What will happen, when glucose is administered orally?
a)Excretion b) Digestion c) Circulation d) Respiration
86. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete
oxidation of one mole of glucose to carbon dioxide and water yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy
available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?
 a)Two b) Thirty c) Fifty seven d) One
87. In photosynthesis, NADPH2 is formed but in respiration it forms during
a)HMP b) ETS c) Krebs’ cycle d) None of these
88. Plants does not need specialised respiratory organ because
a)Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs
b)Plants do not need great demands for gas exchange
c)Both (a) and (b)
d)None of the above
89. Lactic acid is formed in
a)Fermentation b) Glycolysis c) HMP pathways d) None of these
90. In which part of mitochondria does ATP synthesis occur?
a)F1 b) F0
c)Cristae d) Inner membrane of mitochondria

PART B (ZOOLOGY)
91. Androgens regulates
a)Development of accessory sex organs b) Muscular growth
c)Maturation of accessory sex organs d) All of the above
92. Progesterone hormone is secreted by
a)Corpus albicans b) Corpus callosum
c)Corpus luteum in ovaries d) Corpus uteri
93. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
a) Aldosterone
b) Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone
c) Adrenaline
d) Cortisol
94. Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals, which acts as…….. messengers and are produced in trace amount
a)Intercellular b) Intracellular c) Extracellular d) None of these
95. Insulin receptors are
a)Extrinsic protein b) Intrinsic protein c) G – protein d) Trimeric protein
96. Choose the correct option for A to D
Types of cells (Langerhans) Hormones
α – cells secrete 𝐴
β – cells secrete 𝐵
γ – cells secrete 𝐶
δ – cells secrete 𝐷

a) A-Glucagon, B-Insulin, C-Gastrin, D-Somatostatin

b) A-Insulin, B-Glucagon, C-Gastrin, D-Somatostatin
c) A-Insulin, B-Glucagon, C-Somatostatin, D-Gastrin
d) A-Glucagon, B-Insulin, C-Somatostatin, D-Gastrin
97. ‘GIP’ stimulates the release of
a)Glucagon b) Insulin c) Calcitonin d) Thyrocalcitonin
98. The thyroid gland is composed of …A… lobes which are located on either side of the …B… the lobes are
interconnected with a thin flap of connective tissue called …C…
Select the correct combination for A, B and C
a)A-3, B-trachea, C-isthmus b) A-4, B-trachea, C-isthmus
c)A-2, B-trachea, C-isthmus d) A-1, B-trachea, C-isthmus
99. Some hormone need the secondary messenger, because
a)They need activator b) They can’t cross cells membrane
 c)They can cross cells membrane d) They need a prosthetic group
100. Sex hormones can work without the help of
a)Insulin b) Placenta c) Pituitary d) gonadotropins
101. Estrogen
a)Stimulate the growth of ovarian follicle b) Stimulate the appearance of secondary sex characters
c)Stimulate the growth of mammary gland d) All of the above
102. In human adults females, oxytocin
a) Is secreted by anterior pituitary
b) Stimulates growth of mammary glands
c) Stimulate pituitary to secrete vasopressin
d) Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
103. The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidney is
a)Parathormone b) Calcitonin c) Thyroxine d) Insulin
104. Gastrointestinal hormones are
a)Steroidal in nature b) Proteinaceous in nature
c)Glycoproteinaceous in nature d) Both (a) and (b)
105. Among the given hormones which needs secondary messenger
I. Glucagon
II. Epinephrine
III. Steroid hormone
IV. Idothyronine
a)I and III b) III and IV c) I and II d) IV and I
106. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of mammary lobes reaches to the nipple by Lactiferous duct (L),
Mammary duct (M), mammary Tubule (T) and mammary Ampulla (A) in following order
a)T A M L b) T M A L c) M T A L d) A T M L
107. The diagram shows some of the changes in blood hormone concentration which occur during the menstrual
cycle. Match A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H of graph with the hormones and events given below

Hormones and Events

I. Oestrogen
II. Ovulation
III. Repair of endometrium
IV. Luteinizing hormone
V. Menstruation
VI. Luteal phase
VII. Progesterone
VIII. Ovarian phase
a)I-H,II-G,III-F, IV-E,V-D,VL-C,VII-B,VIII-A b) I-D,II-E,III-F,IV-G,V-H,VI-A,VII-C,VIII-C
c)I-D,II-G,III-F,IV-C,V-H,VI-B,VII-E,VIII-A d) I-A,II-C,III-E,IV-G,V-H,VI-F,VII-D,VIII-B
108. First foehal movement in human embryonic development seen during
a) First trimester b) Second trimester c) Third trimester d) None of these
109. Name the most important hormone which causes the uterine contraction strongly
a)Oxytocin b) Inhibin c) Protection d) Progesterone
110. Correct sequence of hormone from beginning of menstrual cycle to the end is
a)FSH, progesterone, LH b) Oestrogen, FSH and progesterone
c)FSH, oestrogen, progesterone d) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH
111. Human eggs are
a) Alecithal b) Microlecithal c) macrolecithal d) Megalecithal
112. Capacitation takes place in
a)12 hrs b) 10 hrs c) 8 hrs d) 6 hrs
113. Acrosomal reaction of sperm helps
a) penetration of sperm into ova b) penetration of sperm into ovary
c) penetration of sperm into vagina d) penetration of sperm into uterus
114. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are
a)Found in human ovaries b) A source of hormones
c)Characterized by a yellow colour d) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy
115. A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show
a)Centriole, mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules b)Centriole and mitochondria
c)mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules d)9+2 arrangement of microtubules only
116. Fertilization is
a)Fusion of male and female gametes b) Fission of male and female gametes
c)Formation of gametes d) Formation of embryo
117. Cleavage is
a)Meiosis of zygote into blastomeres b) Mitosis of zygote into blastomeres
c)Reductional division of zygote d) Reductional division of embryo
118. How many phases (stages) are there in menstrual cycle?
a)2 b) 6 c) 4 d) 5
119. Rapid secretion of LH in ovulation causes
a)Repturing of Graafian follicle b) Releasing of ove
c)Ovulation d) All of the above
120. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is
a)Follicular phase b) Ovulatory phase c) Luteal phase d) Menstruation
121. What are the various ways through which the reproductive health can be improved?
I. Education
II. Awareness
III. Encouraging myths
IV. Ban on amniocentesis
a)I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) I, II and IV
122. Which IUD increases the phagocytosis of the sperms within the uterus?
a)Non-medicated IUD b) Copper releasing IUD
c)Hormone releasing IUD d) Both (a) and (c)
123. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for
a) Detecting any genetic abnormality
b) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
c) Artificial insemination
d) Transfer for embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
124. Find out the natural contraception methods from the following
I. Implantation
II. Lactational (amenorrhoea)
III. Condoms
IV. Vasectomy
 V. Tubectomy
VI. Sterilisation
a)I and II b) III and IV c) V and VI d) Only II
125. “Theory of chemical evolution” was proposed by:
a) Haldane b) Oparin c) miller d) both a and b
126. Female condoms are called
a)Femidom b) Female condom
c)Contraceptive condom d) None of these
127. Carcinogens are
a) Physical b) Biological c) Chemical d) All of these
128. Study of population trends is:
a)Kalography b) Psychobiology c) Biography d) Demograghy
129. Find out sexually transmitted diseases among the given below
I. AIDS II. Syphilis
III. Gonorrhea IV. Malaria
V. Hepatitis-B VI. TB
a)I, II, V and VI b) VI, I, II and III c) I, II, III and V d) I, II, III, IV, V and VI
130. What is the difference in oral contraceptives and hormonal implants?
a)They differ in their sites of implantation b) They differ in their duration of action
c)Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
131. ICSI stands for
a)Inter Cytoplasmic Semen Injection b) Intra Cytoplasmic Semen Injection
c)Inter Cytoplasmic Semen Injection d) In Cytoplasmic Semen Injection
132. CDRI is situated in
a)Delhi b) Kanpur c) Lucknow d) Tamil Nadu
133. Find out the right aspects of lactationalamenorrhoea
I. Ovulation do not occur during the lactational period
II. Chances of the failure of contraception are almost nil uptosix months following parturition
III. Side effects are almost nil
IV. It is a natural method of contraception
V. It increases phagocytosis of sperms
a)II, III, IV and V b) All except V c) II, III, IV and V d) All of these
134. ‘Population explosion’ being witnessed is mainly due to:
a)Better job facilities b) Increase in agricultural production
c)Better health care d) None of these
135. Mutotional theory was
a) Darwin b) Hugo de vries c) Weisman d) None
136. Birbal Sahni was
a)Palaeobotanist b) Zoologist c) Ornithologist d) Palaeozoologist
137. England in 1850s, 𝑖. 𝑒., before industrialization set in, it was observed that there were more white-winged
moths on trees than dark-winged or melanised moths.
However, in the collection carried out from the same area, but after industrialization, 𝑖. 𝑒., in 1920, there were
more dark-winged moths in the same area, 𝑖. 𝑒., the proportion was reversed
Predict the possible reason for such change
a)Natural selection b) Artificial selection c) Conditional selection d) Divergent selection
138. In a given population, the …A… of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to remain …B… and even
remain the same through generations. Hardy-Weinberg principle stated it using …C… equation
Choose the correct option for A, B and C to complete the given NCERT statement
a)A-frequency, B-unstable, C-algebraic b) A-frequency, B-stable, C-algebraic
c)A-frequency, B-stable, C-simple d) A-frequency, B-stable, C-complex
139. Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?
a)Fossils b) Morphology c) Embryo d) Vestigial organs
140. Which set includes only analogous organs?
a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat
b) Hindlegs of horse, grasshopper and bat
c) Wings of butterfly and wingspead of bat and birds
d) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honey bee
141. Study of fossils is called
a)Organic evolution b) Herpetology c) Cytology d) Palaeontology
142. Hugo de Vries’s experimental organism was
a)Fruitfly b) China rose plant c) Four O’clock plant d) Evening primrose
143. Dinsouers extinct on
a) 65 mya b) 75 mya c) 100 mya d) 350 mya

144. Origin of life occurred in

a)Precambrian b) Coenozoic c) Palaeozoic d) Mesozoic
145. Recent race of human in evolution is
a) Homo habits b) Homo erectus c) Homo sapien d) Homo neander thelensis
146. Theory of natural selection was given by
a)Lamarck b) Darwin c) Alfred Wallace d) JBS Haldane
147. Big bang theory explains
a) Universe origin b) Earth origin c) Solar system origin d) Life origin
148. What do homologous organs indicates?
a)Different ancestry b) Common ancestry
c)Independent development d) Dependent development
149. Proteins found in the blood of man and ape are similar. This is an example of
a)Cellular homology b) Molecular homology c) Cellular analogy d) Molecular analogy
150. According to the Neo-Darwinian theory, which of the following is responsible for the origin of new species?
a)Mutations b) Useful variations
c)Mutation together with natural selection d) Hybridization
151. Cannabis sativa is the source of
a)Opium b) LSD c) Marijuana d) cocaine
152. Which of the following is a pair of bacterial diseases?
a)Typhoid and Pneumonia b) Malaria and AIDS
c)Ringworm and AIDS d) Cold and Malaria
153. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?
a)Malaria b) Amoebiasis c) Sleeping sickness d) All of these
154. Antibody is connected with
a)Skeletal system b) Circulatory system c) Immune system d) Respiratory system
155. Auto immune disorder is
a) Tetany b) Gout c) Anaemia d) none
156. Interferons protect healthy cells in human from
a)Viral infection b) Bacterial infection c) Fungal infection d) Protozoan infection
157. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals
cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are
a)Interferons b) Hormones c) Histamines d) acetylamine
158. Colostrum provides the infant with
a)Autoimmunity b) Passive immunity c) Active immunity d) Innate immunity
159. Which class of antibodies is abundant in body secretion
a)IgM b) IgA c) IgG d) IgE
160. Which of the following cells are related with inflammatory reactions and immediate hypersensitivity?
a)Mast cells b) Plasma cells c) Both (a) and (b) d) All of these
161. ELISA is used to detect
a)HIV infection b) Rhinovirus infection
c)Food poison d) Typhoid
162. Which of the following health disorder includes symptoms of fever, chills, cough, headache, gray or bluish
lips and finger’s nails?
a)Filariasis b) Typhoid c) Pneumonia d) Malaria
163. What is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced?
a)Bone marrow b) Tonsils c) Liver d) Spleen
164. The tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal syndrome on abrupt
discontinuation of regular dose of drugs/alcohol is called
a)Depression b) Dependence c) Abnormalty d) All of these
165. Regarding common cold consider the following statements
I. Rhinovirus is responsible for common cold which infects the nasal epithelium and respiratory passage but
not the lungs
II. The symptoms of common cold included nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, gruffiness, cough,
headache and tiredness
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a)Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of these
166. Animal husbandry deals with
I. breeding of livestock buffaloes, cows, sheep, camels, etc., that are useful to humans
II. rearing, catching, selling, etc., of fish, molluscs and crustaceans
III. breeding of fowls for human use
Which of the statement give above are correct?
a)I and II b) I and III c) II and II d) I, II and III
167. Rate of mutations is induced by means of certain agents called
a)Mutagens b) Carcinogen c) Oncogenes d) None of these
168. Mule is a
a) Cross breed b) Out cross c) Inbreed d) Interspecific breed
169. Consider the following statements
I. Breeding of animal is very important for animal husbandry
II. Both the male and female animals selected for breeding should be of superior quality
III. The word ‘husbandry’ means the management of domestic affair
IV. In our country, poultry mainly means chickens, domesticated for egg
V. Cows and buffaloes generally give more milk than goats and sheep
VI. The yellow colour of buffalo milk is due to carotene
Which of the statement given above are true and which are false?
I II III IV V VI
a)F F T T F F b) T T F F T F c) T T T F T F d) F T F T T F
170. Emasculation is removal of:
a)Stigma from flower of male parent b) Calyx from flower of male parent
c)Calyx from flower of female parent d) Stamens from flowers of female parent
171. Lac is:
a)Excretion of lac insect b) Dead body of lac insect
c)Body secretion of lac insect d) None of the above
172. The most common egg-type variety used for commercial production through out the world is
a)Leghorn b) Plymoth rock c) Cornish d) New Hampshire
173. In livestock breeding experiments which of the following stage is transferred to surrogate mothers
a)Unfertilized eggs b) 2 celled embryo
c)Fertilised egg d) 8 to 32 celled embryo
174. Apiculture yields
a) hac b) Silk c) Honey d) All of these
175. Marine fish among these
a) Rohu b) Salmon c) Caltla d) Haheo
176. MOET helps in
a) Reducing cattle population b) Increasing cattle population
c) Decreasing Birds population d) Increasing Honey bee population
177. Blue revolution related with
a) Grains b) Milk c) Fish d) Hac
178. A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to as
a)Breed b) Race c) Variety d) Species
179. A good germplasm collection is essential for
a) A successful breeding programme
b) Hybridization
c) Selection of plant
d) Emasculation
180. The milch breeds of cattle are?
a)Mallikar, Nageri and Malvi b) Gir, Sahiwal and Deoni
c)Kankrej, Haryana and Ongole d) Tharparkar and Kangayam