Practise set 22 (b) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy

(c) Oogamy only

Biology (d) Anisogamy and oogamy

9. One of the most important reasons why wild

1. The most important feature of all living systems plants should thrive is that they are good sources of
is to (a) highly nutritive animal feed
(a) utilize oxygen to generate energy (b) unsaturated edible oils
(b) replicate the genetic information (c) genes for resistance to disease and pests
(c) produce gametes (d) very rare and highly sought after fruits of
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities medical importance

2. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans 10. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops
(a) Leishmania donovani into
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense (a) embryo sac
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (b) ovule
(d) Plasmodium vivax (c) endosperm
(d) pollen sac
3. Rickettsiae constitute a group under
(a) bacteria 11. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as
(b) viruses (a) onchosphere
(c) independent group between bacteria and (b) cysticercus
viruses (c) morula
(d) fungi (d) egg.

4. Most of the Lichens consist of 12. What is correct about Taenia?

(a) blue-green algae and basidomycetes (a) Male organs occur in posterior proglottides
(b) blue-green algae and ascomycetes (b) Male organs occur in anterior proglottides
(c) red algae and ascomycetes (c) Female organs occur in anterior proglottides
(d) brown algae and phycomycetes (d) Mature proglottides contain both male and
female organs
5. Which of the following secretes toxins during
storage conditions of crop plants? 13. All chordates possess
(a) Aspergillus (a) exoskeleton
(b) Penicillium (b) limbs
(c) Fusarium (c) skull
(d) Colletotrichum (d) axial skeletal rod of notochord

6. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and 14. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused
Methanobacterium exemplify: to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the
(a) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous following classes, is the body divided into head,
to eukaryotic core histones thorax and abdomen?
(b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones (a) Insecta
resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose (b) Myriapoda
DNA is negatively supercoiled (c) Crustacea
(c) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively (d) Arachnida and Crustacea
supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well
as mitochondria 15. The figure shows four animals (A), (B), (C) and
(d) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and (D). Select the correct answer with respect to a
ribosomes common characteristics of two of these animals. (A)
(B) (C) (D)
7. Satellite RNAs are present in some (a) (A) and (D) respire mainly through body wall
(a) Plant viruses (b) (B) and (C) show radial symmetry
(b) Viroids (c) (A) and (B) have cnidoblasts for selfdefense
(c) Prions (d) (C) and (D) have a true coelom
(d) Bacteriophages
16. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
8. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by (a) having underground perennating structure
(a) Isogamy and anisogamy (b) having asexual reproductive structures
(c) being tree species (d) helically arranged protein molecule
(d) not dying after seasonal production of flowers
17. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end 25. Polysome is formed by
of the young cob of maize are (a) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(a) styles (b) many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(b) ovaries endoplasmic reticulum
(c) hairs (c) a ribosome with several subunits
(d) anthers (d) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
arrangement
18. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis
(a) Terminates in a flower 26. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?
(b) Has unlimited growth (a) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface
(c) Bears a solitary flower (b) It protects the bacterium from desiccation
(d) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end (c) It provides means of locomotion
in flowers (d) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s
immune system
19. Periderm is produced by
(a) Vascular cambium 27. Radioactive thymidine when added to the
(b) Fascicular cambium medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets
(c) Phellogen incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA.
(d) Intrafascicular cambium Which of the following types of chromatin is
expected to become radioactive if cells are exposed
20. The annular and spirally thickened conducting to radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the
elements generally develop in the protoxylem when S-phase?
the root or stem is: (a) Heterochromatin
(a) elongating (b) Euchromatin
(b) widening (c) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(c) differentiating (d) Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but
(d) maturing only the nucleolus

21. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are 28. Carbohydrates, the most abundant
(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, biomolecules on earth, are produced by:
uninucleate and involuntary (a) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
(b) spindle shaped, unbranched, unstriped, (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells
multinucleate and involuntary (c) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, (d) viruses, fungi and bacteria
multinucleate and involuntary
(d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate 29. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to
and voluntary the chromosome at a region called
(a) chromocentre
22. Which one of the following is correct pairing of (b) kinetochore
a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that (c) centriole
moves it? (d) chromomere
(a) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle fibres
(b) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle 30. Guttation is mainly due to
(c) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle (a) root pressure
(d) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated muscle (b) osmosis
(c) transpiration
23. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia (d) imbibition
involved exchanging
(a) cytoplasm 31. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has
(b) nucleus osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm
(c) rhizoid and stalk and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has
(d) gametes osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and
diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will
24. The prokaryotic flagella possess (a) no movement of water
(a) unit membrane enclosed fibre (b) equilibrium between the two
(b) protein membrane enclosed fibre (c) movement of water from cell A to B.
(c) ‘9 + 0’ membrane enclosed structure
(d) movement of water from cell B to A. (d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio

32. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium 40. Where is protein digestion accomplished?
which can also form symbiotic association with the (a) Stomach
water fern Azolla is (b) Ileum
(a) Tolypothrix (c) Rectum
(b) Chlorella (d) Duodenum
(c) Nostoc
(d) Anabaena 41. Nutrients absorbed by the blood capillaries of
intestinal villi first go into
33. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in (a) liver through hepatic portal vein
(a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts (b) hepatic artery
(b) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts (c) aorta
(c) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (d) posterior vena cava
(d) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
42. If for some reason our goblet cells are non
34. Which one of the following is represented by functional, this will adversely affect:
Calvin cycle? (a) production of somatostatin
(a) Reductive carboxylation (b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
(b) Oxidative carboxylation (c) maturation of sperms
(c) Photophosphorylation (d) smooth movement of food down the intes-tine
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation.
43. Which one of the following is a possibility for
35. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of most of us in regard to breathing, by making a
phytochrome is conscious effort?
(a) 680 nm (a) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(b) 720 nm (b) One can breathe out air through eustachian
(c) 620 nm tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
(d) 640 nm (c) One can consiously breathe in and breathe out
by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving
36. the ribs at all.
Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which (d) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully
donates electrons to oxygen is breathing out all air from them
(a) Cyt. b
(b) Cyt. c 44. The correct route through which pulsemaking
(c) Cyt. a1 impulse travels in the heart is
(d) Cyt. a3 (a) AV node→bundle of His→SA node Purkinje
fibres →heart muscles
37. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the (b) AV node→SA node→Purkinje fibres→ bundle of
mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in His→heart muscles
inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and (c) SA node→Purkinje fibre→bundle of His→AV
in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is node→heart muscles
(a) isocitrate dehydrogenase (d) SA node→AV node→bundle of His→Purkinje
(b) malate dehydrogenase fibre→heart muscles
(c) succinate dehydrogenase
(d) lactate dehydrogenase. 45. Which type of white blood cells are concerned
with the release of histamine and the natural
38. In short day plants, flowering is induced by anticoagulant heparin?
(a) photoperiod less than 12 hours (a) Neutrophils
(b) photoperiod below a critical length and (b) Basophils
uninterrupted long night (c) Eosinophils
(c) long night (d) Monocytes
(d) short photoperiod and interrupted long night
46.
39. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by In Ornithine cycle, which one pair of the following
(a) high gibberellin: cytokinin ratio wastes are removed from the blood?
(b) high auxin: cytokinin ratio (a) CO2 and urea
(c) high cytokinin: auxin ratio (b) CO2 and ammonia
(c) Ammonia and urea
(d) Urea and sodium salts (b) orange
(c) guava
47. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in (d) cucumber
(a) human males
(b) human females 56. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) frog's both males and females (a) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures
(d) frog's males but not strong acids
(b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
48. (c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials
Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal (d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures
parts are correctly matched with their respective as well as strong acids and alkalis
inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not
matched. Identify the non-matching pair. Pairs of 57. The signals for parturition originate from
skeletal parts Category (a) placenta only
(a) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton (b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(b) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle cavity (c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(c) Humerus and Ulna Appendicular skeleton (d) fully developed foetus only
(d) Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles
58. One of the legal methods of birth control is:
49. Suspensory ligament is part of (a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of
(a) heart the menstrual cycle
(b) eye (b) by having coitus at the time of day break
(c) tongue (c) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(d) brain (d) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

50. MSH of pars intermedia of middle pituitary is 59. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
responsible for (a) phenylketonuria
(a) darkening of skin in lower vertebrates (b) colour blindness
(b) light colouration of skin in lower vertebrates (c) sickle cell anaemia
(c) noth A and B (d) blood groups
(d) darkening of skin in human beings
60. A child of blood group O can not have parents of
51. Melatonin is produced by blood groups
(a) thymus (a) AB and AB/O
(b) skin (b) A and B
(c) pituitary (c) B and B
(d) pineal gland (d) O and O

52. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of: 61. In hybridisation Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny
(a) tetany of ratio
(b) anaemia (a) 1: 1
(c) angina pectoris (b) 1 :2
(d) gout (c) 2 :1
(d) 1: 2: 1
53. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are
(a) root buds 62. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long
(b) flower buds days and N. tabacum flowers only during short
(c) shoot buds days. If raised in the laboratory under different
(d) axillary buds photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the
same time and can be cross fertilized to produce
54. Meiosis is best observed in dividing self – fertile offspring. What is the best reason for
(a) cells of apical meristem considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be
(b) cells of lateral meristem separate species?
(c) microspores and anther wall (a) They are morphologically distinct
(d) microsporocytes (b) They cannot interbreed in nature
(c) They are reproductively distinct
55. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior (d) They are physiologically distinct
ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in
(a) pomegranate
63. Phenotype of an organism is the result of (b) Archaeopteryx
(a) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition (c) Peripatus
(b) environmental changes and sexual dimorphism (d) King crab
(c) genotype and environment interactions 72. According to Darwin, The organic evolution is
(d) mutations and linkages due to:
(a) Interspecific competition
64. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in (b) Competition within closely related species
which the F1 generation resembles both the (c) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species
parents? (d) Intraspecific competition
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Inheritance of one gene 73. Typhoid fever is caused by
(c) Co-dominance (a) Salmonella
(d) Incomplete dominance (b) Shigella
(c) Escherichia
65. The number of base substitution possible in (d) Giardia
amino acid codons is
(a) 261 74.
(b) 264 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into
(c) 535 human body for sonography?
(d) 549 (a) 15 - 30 MHZ
(b) 1 - 15 MHZ
66. (c) 45 - 70 MHZ
Frequency of an allele in a isolated population may (d) 30 - 45 MHZ.
change due to
(a) genetic Drift 75. Read the following four statements (A-D).
(b) gene flow (A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born
(c) mutation because it is rich in antigens.
(d) natural selection (B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative
bacterium.
67. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was (C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining
postulated by virus-free plants.
(a) Hershey and Chase (D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of
(b) A. Garrod fermented grape juice.
(c) Beadle and Tatum How many of the above statements are wrong?
(d) R. Franklin (a) Two
(b) Three
68. Uridine, present only in RNA is a (c) Four
(a) Pyrimidine (d) One
(b) Nucleoside
(c) Nucleotide 76. The first transgenic crop was
(d) Purine (a) pea
(b) flax
69. The kind of evolution in which two species of (c) tobacco
different geneology come to resemble one another (d) cotton
closely, is termed as
(a) progressive evolution 77. Which one of the following pairs is
(b) convergent evolution mismatched?
(c) parallel evolution (a) Apis indica - honey
(d) retrogressive evolution (b) Kenia lacca - lac
(c) Bombyx mori - silk
70. Sequence of which of the followings is used to (d) Pila globosa - pearl
know the phylogeny?
(a) mRNA 78. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(b) rRNA matched?
(c) tRNA (a) Yeast - ethanol
(d) DNA (b) Streptomycetes - antibiotic
(c) Coliforms - vinegar
71. Which one of the following is not a living fossil? (d) Methanogens - gobar gas.
(a) Sphenodon
79. Which one of the following palindromic base (b) Terra rossa - Most suitable for roses
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the (c) Chernozems - Richest soil in the world
middle by some particular restriction enzyme? (d) Black soil - Rich in calcium carbonate
(a) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3' 87. The largest tiger reserve in India is
3'.............ATGGTA.............5' (a) Nagarhole
(b) 5'.............GATATG.............3' (b) Valmiki
3'.............CTACTA.............5' (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(c) 5'.............GAATTC.............3' (d) Periyar
3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(d) 5'.............CACGTA.............3' 88. Which important green house gas other than
3'.............CTCAGT.............5' methane is being produced from the agricultural
fields?
80. Transgenic plants are the ones: (a) Sulphur dioxide
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell (b) Ammonia
and regenerating a plant from that cell. (c) Nitrous oxide
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial (d) Arsine
medium.
(c) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in 89.
the field. Global agreement in specific control strategies to
(d) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial reduce the release of ozone depleting substances,
medium. was adopted by
(a) The Montreal Protocol
81. Xeric environment is characterised by (b) The Koyoto Protocol
(a) precipitation (c) The Vienna Convention
(b) low atmospheric humidity (d) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(c) extremes of temperature
(d) high rate of vapourisation 90. Which one of the following is not correct as
regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of
82. Niche overlap indicates the size 2.5 micro meters or less?
(a) two different parasites on the same host (a) It can be inhaled into the lungs
(b) sharing of one or more resources between the (b) It can cause respiratory problems
two species
(c) It can directly enter into our circulatory system
(c) mutualism between two species
(d) It can cause inflammation and damage to the
(d) active cooperation between two species
lungs
83. In a biotic community, the most important 91. Identify the types of cell junctions that
factor for survival of an animal is help to stop the leakage of the substances
(a) day length across a tissue and facilitation of
(b) soil moisture communication with neighbouring cells via
(c) green food rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(d) predators (a) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively
84. More than 72% of world’s freshwater is (b) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
contained in: respectively
(a) polar ice (c) Tight junctions and Gap junctions,
(b) glaciers and mountains respectively
(c) antarctica (d) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
(d) greenland respectively.

85. A non-renewable resource is 92. Match List-I with List-II

(a) non-renewable non-conventional energy source
(b) non-renewable conventional energy source List –I List –II
(c) renewable non-conventional energy source (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(d) renewable conventional energy source (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
86. In which one of the following pairs is the (d) Vertebral column
specific characteristic of a soil not correctly (iv) Triangular flat Bone
matched? Choose the correct answer from the options
(a) Laterite - Contains aluminium compound given below
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 97. All of the following are part of an operon
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) except
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (a) an operator
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (b) structural genes
(c) a promoter
93. During muscular contraction which of (d) an enhancer
the following events occur?
(a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens 98. Plants having little or no secondary
(c) 'I' band reduces in width growth are
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the (a) Grasses
ADP and Pi. (b) Deciduous angiosperms
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled (c) Cycads
inwards. (d) Conifers
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 99. Casparian strips occur in
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only (a) Epidermis
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only (b) Pericycle
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only (c) Endodermis
(4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only (d) Cortex

94. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for 100. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot
methionine and phenylalanine. stem are produced by
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons (a) Apical meristems
code for the amino acid lysine. (b) Vascular cambium
In the light of the above statements, choose (c) Axillary meristems
the correct answer from the options given (d) Phellogen
below.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
False

95. Hormones secreted by the placenta to

maintain pregnancy are
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(c) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids
(d) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

96. Match the items given in Column I with

those in Column II and select the correct
option given below :
Column I Column II
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
abc
(1) iii ii i
(2) i iii ii
(3) iii i ii
(4) ii iii i
 (c) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in
the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are in
Chemistry the same direction
1. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one (d) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and
mole of KIin alkaline medium is: bond dipole are in the same direction
(a) one
(b) two 8. If P, V, M, Tand Rare pressure, Volume, molar
(c) five mass, temperature and gas constant respectively,
(d) one fifth then for an ideal gas, the density is given by
(a) RT/PM
2. The electron was shown experimentally to have (b) P/RT
wave properties by (c) M/V
(a) de Broglie (d) PM/RT
(b) Davisson and Germer
(c) N. Bohr 9.
(d) Schrodinger.

3. Which one of the following species does not exist

under normal conditions?
(a) (a)
(b) Be2
(c) B2
(d) Li2 (b)

4. The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and

(c)
B respectively are
(a) 8.29, 9.32
(b) 9.32, 9.32 (d) cannot be predicted unless volumes of the
(c) 8.29, 8.29 gases are given.
(d) 9.32, 8.29
10. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
5. Linear combination of two hybridized orbitals isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
belonging to two atoms and each having one litres. The 'Efor this process is (R=2 cal. Mol -1 K-1 )
electron leads to a (a) 163.7 cal
(a) Sigma bond (b) zero
(b) Double bond (c) 1381.1 cal
(c) Co-ordinate covalent bond (d) 9 lit. atm
(d) Pi bond.
11.
6. Among the following which one is not
paramagnetic? [Atomic numbers: Be = 4, Ne = 92,
As = 33, Cl = ]97
(a)
(a) Cl–
(b) Be+
(c) (b)
(d) As+
(c)
7.
The electronegativity difference between Nand Fis
greater than that between Nand Hyet the dipole (d)
moment of NH39.5( D) is larger than that of NF3
2.0(D). This is because
(a) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in 12. The pH value of a 10 M solution of HCl is
the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in (a) less than 0
opposite directions (b) equal to 0
(b) in NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond (c) equal to 1
dipole are in opposite directions
(d) equal to 2 (d) none of these

13. H2S gas when passed through a solution of 19. Geometrical isomers differ in
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of (a) position of functional group
second group of qualitative analysis but not those (b) position of atoms
belonging to the fourth group. It is because (c) spatial arrangement of atoms
(a) presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion (d) length of carbon chain
concentration.
(b) solubility product of group II sulphides is more 20.
than that of group IV sulphides. Hydrogen has an ionisation energy of 1311 kJ mol -1
(c) presence of HCl increases the sulphide ion and for chlorine it is 1256 kJmol-1 . Hydrogen forms
concentration. H+ (aq) ions but chlorine does not form Cl+ (aq) ions
(d) sulphides of group IV cations are unstable in because
HCl.
(a) H+ has lower hydration enthalpy
14.
(b) Cl+ has lower hydration enthalpy

(c) Cl has high electron affinity

(d) Cl has high electronegativity

21. In the free radical chlorination of methane, the

chain initiating step involves the formation of
(a) Chlorine free radical
(b) Hydrogen chloride
(a) 1.8 × 10-3 (c) Methyl radical
(b) 3.6 × 10-3 (d) Chloromethyl radical.
(c) 6.0 × 10-2
(d) 1.3 × 10-5 22. Which of the following chemical system is non
aromatic?
15. Which of the following groups of ions makes the (a)
water hard?
(a) Sodium and bicarbonate
(b) Magnesium and chloride
(c) Potassium and sulphate
(d) Ammonium and chloride. (b)

16. The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the

direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The
thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in (c)
which of the following orders?
(a) CsH> RbH> KH> NaH> LiH
(b) KH> NaH> LiH> CsH> RbH
(c) NaH> LiH> KH> RbH> CsH
(d) LiH> NaH> KH> RbH> CsH (d)
17. The basic structural unit of silicates is:
(a)
(b)
23.
(c) CsBr crystallises in a body centered cubic lattice.
(d) Sio The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the
atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu
18. The first organic compound, synthesized in the and Avogadro number being 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 , the
laboratory, was density of CsBr is
(a) alcohol (a) 0.425 g/cm3
(b) acetic acid (b) 8.25 g/cm3
(c) urea
(c) 4.25 g/cm3 (d) Phosphorus
(d) 42.5 g/cm3
30. Which one of the following substance is used in
24. the laboratory for fast drying of neutral gases?
The vapour pressure at a given temperature of an (a) Phosphorus pentoxide
ideal solution containing 0.2 mol of a nonvolatile (b) Active charcoal
solute and 0.8 mol of solvent is 60 mm of Hg. The (c) Anhydrous calcium chloride
vapour pressure of the pure solvent at the same (d) Na3 PO4
temperature is
(a) 150 mm of Hg 31. Which of the following oxy-acids has the
(b) 60 mm of Hg maximum number of hydrogens directly attached
(c) 75 mm of Hg to phosphorus?
(d) 120 mm of Hg (a) H4 P2O7
(b) H3 PO2
25. Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and (c) H3 PO3
dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25ºC are 200 mm Hg (d) H3 PO4
and 41.5 mm Hg respectively. Vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 32. Photographic films and plates have an essential
40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be: ingredient of
(Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular (a) Silver nitrate
mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u). (b) Silver bromide
(a) 173.9 mm Hg (c) Sodium chloride
(b) 615.0 mm Hg (d) Oleic acid
(c) 347.9 mm Hg
(d) 285.5 mm Hg 33. Which of the following combines with Fe (II)
ions to form a brown complex?
26. (a) NO
(b) N2O
(c) N2O3
(d) N2O5

(a) 1.653 V 34. Which of the following exhibit only + 3

(b) 1.212 V oxidation
(c) 0.111 V state?
(d) 0.330 V (a) U
(b) Th
27. The rate of reaction depends upon the (c) Ac
(a) volume (d) Pa
(b) force
(c) pressure 35.
(d) conc. of reactants CuSO4 when reacts with KCNforms CuCN, which is
insoluble in water. It is soluble in excess of KCNdue
28. Which one of the following statements for the to formation of the following complex
order of a reaction is incorrect? (a) K2 [Cu(CN)4]
(a) Order can be determined only experimentally. (b) K3 [Cu(CN)4]
(b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric (c) CuCN2
coefficient of the reactants. (d) Cu[KCu(CN)4]
(c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the
concentration terms of reactants to express the rate 36. Low spin complex of d6 -cation in an octahedral
of reaction. field will have the following energy:
(d) Order of reaction is always whole number. (a)

29.
Which of the following elements is present as the
(b)
impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
(a) Manganese
(b) Carbon
(c) Silicon (c)
 Which is formed, when acetonitrile is hydrolysed
partially with cold concentrated HCl?
(a) acetic acid
(d) (b) acetamide
(c) methyl cyanide
(d) acetic anhydrides

42. On hydrolysis of a “compound”, two compounds

37. are obtained. One of which on treatment with
Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a
C6H14Owhich give positive iodo form test is product which does not respond to iodoform test.
(a) two The second one reduces Tollen’s reagent and
(b) three Fehling’s solution. The “compound” is
(c) four (a) CH3 CH2 CH2 CON(CH3) 2
(d) five (b) CH3 CH2 CH2 NC
(c) CH3 CH2 CH2 CN
38. Which one of the following compounds has the (d) CH3 CH2 CH2 ON = O
most acidic nature?
(a) 43. Glycolysis is
(a) conversion of glucose to haem
(b) oxidation of glucose to glutamate
(c) conversion of pyruvate to citrate
(b) (d) oxidation of glucose to pyruvate

44. Nylon 66 is a polyamide obtained by the

reaction of
(a) COOH(CH2)4 COOH+ NH2C6H4NH2 –
(b) COOH(CH2)4 COOH+ NH2 (CH2)6 NH2
(c)
(c) COOH(CH2)6 COOH+ NH2 (CH2)4 NH2
(d) COOHC6H4 COOH– + NH2 (CH2)6 NH2

45. Chloroamphenicol is an:

(a) antifertility drug
(d) (b) antihistaminic
(c) antiseptic and disinfectant
(d) antibiotic-broad spectrum

46.
The correct increasing order of basic
strength for the following compounds is :
39.
Acetone reacts with iodine (I2) to form iodoform in
the presence of
(a) CaCO3
(b) NaOH
(c) KOH
(d) MgCO3

40. (a) III < I < II

Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in (b) III < II < I
presence of sodium ethoxide yields (c) II < I < III
(a) acetoacetic ester (d) II < III < I
(b) methyl acetoacetate
(c) ethyl propionate 47.
(d) ethyl butyrate A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g
oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4 . The
41. evolved gaseous mixture is passed through
KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining 50.Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion
product at STP will be is :
(a) 1.4 (a) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor
(b) 3.0 atoms
(c) 4.4 (b) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two
(d) 2.8 "N" donor atoms
(c) Unidentate ligand
48. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate (d) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor
transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) atoms
as the cofactor. M is :
(a) Be
(b) Mg
(c) Ca
(d) Sr

49. Identify compound X in the following

sequence of reactions

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Physics (b)
1. Of the following quantities, which one has
dimension different from the remaining three?
(c)
(a) Energy per unit volume
(b) Force per unit area
(c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume (d)
(d) Angular momentum.

2.
If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by 7. A100 N force acts horizontally on a block of 10 kg
Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be: placed on a horizontal rough surface of coefficient
(a) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1 of friction μ= 0.5. If the acceleration due to gravity
(b) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2 (g) is taken as 10 ms-2 , the acceleration of the block
(c) Force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2 (in ms-2 ) is
(d) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2 (a) 2.5
(b) 10
3. Astone is thrown vertically upwards with kinetic (c) 5
energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point is (d) 7.5
(a) 2 K
(b) √K/2 8.
(c) K Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are moving with
(d) zero equal K.E. The ratio of their linear momenta is
(a) 4: 1
4. (b) 1: 1
The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain (c) 1: 2
is 16 km. If g = 10 ms–2, then muzzle velocity of a (d) 1: 4
shell must be
(a) 160 ms-1 9.
(b) 200√0 ms-1 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water
(c) 400 ms-1 passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity
(d) 800 ms-1 of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the
pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine?
5. (a) 400 W
Achild is swinging a swing. Minimum and maximum (b) 200 W
heights of swing from earth’s surface are 2.75 m (c) 100 W
and 2m respectively. The maximum velocity of this (d) 800 W
swing is
(a) 5 m/s 10. A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping.
(b) 10m/s Then the fraction of its total energy associated with
(c) 15 m/s rotation is
(d) 20m/s (a) 2/5
6. (b) 2/7
(c) 3/5
(d) 3/7

11.
Consider a system of two particles having masses
m1 and m2 . If the particle of mass m1 is pushed
towards the centre of mass of particles through a
distance d, by what distance would the particle of
mass m2 move so as to keep the centre of mass of
particles at the original position?
(a)

(a)
(b)
 whose ends are maintained at the same
temperature will conduct most heat?
(a) r = r0; l = l0
(c) (b) r = 2r0; l = l0
(c) r = r0; l = 2l0
(d) r = 2r0; l = 2l0

(d)d 16. An ideal carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%

receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency is 50%, then
12. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc the intake temperature for the same exhaust
is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc temperature is
and passing thrugh : (a) 600 K
(b) 700 K
(c) 800 K
(d) 900 K

17.
One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state
A to final state B via two processes: It first
undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to
3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at
(a) B
constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram
(b) C
representing the two processes is:
(c) D
(a)
(d) A

13.
With what velocity should a particle be projected
so that its height becomes equal to radius of earth?
(a)

(b)
(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

14. The following four wires are made of the same

material. Which of these will have the largest
extension when the same tension is applied?
(a) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(b) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(c) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
(d) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(d)
15.
Which of the following circular rods (given radius
r and length l), each made of the same material and
 (d) 102 ms-1

21.

18. 3. A mass m is suspended from a two coupled

(a)
springs, connected in series. The force constant for
springs are k1 and k2. The time period of the
suspended mass will be
(a) (b)

(c)
(b)

(d)

(c)

22.
A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats
(d) per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The
beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per sec when
the tension in the piano string is slightly increased.
The frequency of the piano string before increasing
the tension was
(a) 510 Hz
19. A particle of mass m oscillates with simple (b) 514 Hz
harmonic motion between points x1 and x2, the (c) 516 Hz
equilibrium position being O. Its potential energy is (d) 508 Hz
plotted. It will be as given below in the graph.
(a) 23.
A charge Q μC is placed at the centre of a cube, the
flux coming out from any surface will be
(a)
(b)

(b)
(c)

(c)
(d)

(d)
20. A 5.5 metre long string has a mass of0.035 kg. If
the tension in the string is 77N, the speed of a wave
on the string is
(a) 110 ms-1
(b) 165 ms-1 24.
(c) 77 ms-1
In a parallel plate capacitor, the distance between (b) 0.01
the plates is d and potential difference across the (c) 1
plates is V. Energy stored per unit volume between (d) 0.05
the plates of capacitor is
(a) 29. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right
angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10 -4
Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the
electron is
(b) (a) 12 cm
(b) 16 cm
(c) 11 cm
(d) 18 cm
(c)
30. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a
magnetic field requires √3 of work to turn it
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the
needle in this position will be:
(d) (a)

(b) 3J
(c)
25.

(d)

31. Eddy currents are produced when

(a) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field
(b) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
(a) maximum at B (c) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
(b) maximum at C (d) through a circular coil, current is passed
(c) same at all the three points A, Band C
(d) maximum at A
32.
26. A 5°C rise in temperature is observed in a
conductor by passing a current. When the current is
doubled the rise in temperature will be
approximately
(a) 10°C (a) 10 mA
(b) 16°C (b) 100 mA
(c) 20°C (c) 200 mA
(d) 12°C (d) 20 mA

27. When a wire of uniform cross–section a, length l 33.

and resistance R is bent into a complete circle,
resistance between any two of diametrically
opposite points will be
(a) R/4
(b) 4R
(c) R/8
(d) R/2 (a) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz
and wave length 100 m.
28. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be (b) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz
converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. and wave length 200 m.
The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be : (c) moving along – x direction with frequency 10 6
(a) 0.001 Hz and wave length 200 m.
(d) moving along y direction with frequency 2S× 39. The Bohr model of atoms
106 Hz and wave length 200 m. (a) predicts the same emission spectra for all types
of atoms
34. A plano-convex lens is made of material of (b) assumes that the angular momentum of
refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the electrons is quantised
curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens (c) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
is (d) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
(a) 50 cm
(b) 100 cm 40. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13Al27 and
(c) 200 cm 52Te
125
is approximately
(d) 400 cm (a) 6: 10
(b) 13: 52
35. (c) 40: 177
For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to (d) 14: 73
be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be
made of a material whose refractive index: 41.
(a) lies between root2 and 1
(b) lies between 2 and root2
(c) is less than 1
(d) is greater than 2
(a) 19: 81
36. The energy of a photon of wavelength λ is (b) 10: 11
(a) (c) 15: 16
(d) 81: 19
(b)
42. Two radioactive substance A and B have decay
constants 5 and  respectively. At t= 0 they have
the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of
nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)2 after a time
(c) interval.
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1/2
(d)
(d) 1/4

43.
Radio waves of constant amplitude can be
generated with
37. (a) FET
Which one of the following statements is not true (b) filter
for cathode rays? (c) rectifier
(a) Cathode rays produce heat when incident on (d) oscillator
metals
(b) Cathode rays travel in a straight line 44.
(c) Cathode rays do not deflect in electric field
(d) Cathode rays produce fluorescence when they
fall on certain meterials

38.
Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron
on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the
ground state irradiates a photosensitive material.
The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V.
The threshold frequency of the materials is: (a) OR gate
(a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) XOR gate
(b) 5 × 1015 Hz (c) AND gate
(c) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (d) NAND gate
(d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz
45. Zener diode is used for The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100
(a) amplification hours. The fraction of original activity that
(b) rectification will remain after 150 hours would be
(c) stabilisation 2
(d) producing oscillations in an oscillator (a)
3 √2
1
46. Suppose the charge of a proton and an (b)
2
electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the
1
other is (e + ∆ e). If the net of electrostatic (c)
force and gravitational force between two 2 √2
hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d 2
(d)
(much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, 3
then ∆ e is of the order of
[Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10-27
kg]
(a) 10-23 C
(b) 10-37 C
(c) 10-47 C
(d) 10-20 C

47. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R'

each, are connected in series to a battery of
emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The
current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are
connected in parallel to the same battery.
Then the current drawn from battery
becomes 10 I. The value of 'n' is
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 20

48. The displacement of a particle executing

simple harmonic motion is given by
y = A0 + Asinω t + Bcosω t
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given
by :
(a) A0 + √ A 2 + B2
(b) √ A 2 + B2

(c)
√
(d) A + B
2
A +¿ ¿
0

49. The phase difference between

displacement and acceleration of a particle
in a simple harmonic motion is :

(a) rad
(b) zero
(c) rad

)
(d
50.
Biology

1. b 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a
6. a 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. a
11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. d
16. d 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. a
26. d 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. a
31. c 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. a
36. d 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. b
46. b 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. a
51. d 52. a 53. d 54. d 55. a
56. d 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. a
61. a 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. d
66. a 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. b
71. b 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. a
76. c 77. d 78. c 79. c 80. a
81. b 82. b 83. c 84. a 85. b
86. d 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. c
91.c 93.(1) 93.(2) 94.(d) 95.a
96.(4) 97.d 98.a 99.c 100.b

Chemistry :
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a
6. a 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b
16. d 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. a 22. a 23. d 24.c 25. a
26. b 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. b
36. b 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. a
41. b 42. b 43.c 44. b 45. d
46.d 47.d 48.b 49.a 50.b

Physics :

1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a
6. b 7. c 8. c 9. d 10.b
b 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. b
16. a 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. a
21. d 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. a
26. c 27. a 28. a 29.c c 30. b
31. a 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b
36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. a 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. c
46.b 47.a 48.b 49.c 50.b