Revision Notes in Anaesthesia and ICU
Revision Notes in Anaesthesia and ICU
Ahmed Salahuddin
Revision Notes in
Anaesthesia and ICU
Revision Notes in
Anaesthesia and ICU
Ahmed Salahuddin
Saudi German Hospital
Jeddah, KSA
This work is dedicated to
El-Pop
Chapter 1
Neuroanaesthesia
Neuroanaesthesia
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The field of Anaesthesia for neurosurgery, neuroradiology and neuro critical care requires the anaesthesiologist to
concentrate on special areas that are of utmost importance, namely the impact of patient positioning, the anatomy of the
lesion and the site of surgery, blood loss, the intracranial pressure (ICP) variations, the proximity of surgery to specific
brain and brainstem centres, and the impact of the later on haemodymanic and respiratory functions.
The above implies the necessity of getting instant numerical values expressing the rapid variations that may be due to
surgical manipulations, blood loss or fluid and electrolytes imbalance. That's why understanding the concept of
momenttomoment monitoring is crucial. Also the pharmacological effect of anaesthetic drugs, drugs that affect the
volume status and those which affect the cardiac and circulatory functions are all of top importance.
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1. Posterior fossa craniectomy 2. Venous air embolism, site of surgery above the level
of the heart entraining air.
A 34 year old man is scheduled for a posterior fossa 3. Pneumocephalus, particularly after closure of
tumour excision cranium, causing raised ICP.
A. List patient positions that might be employed for this C. The monitoring techniques that can specifically
operation. detect the presence of venous air embolism during
B. What potential intraoperative problems are associated surgery and method used, and the features that would
with posterior fossa craniotomy? indicate the diagnosis.
C. What monitoring techniques can specifically detect 1. Precordial doppler, most sensitive, noninvasive
the presence of venous air embolism during surgery device, change in audio of doppler
and for each method used, give the features that 2. Transoesophogeal echocardiography is the most
would indicate the diagnosis? sensitive invasive device → appearance on echo
3. End tidal CO2 → set tight alarm limits, a sudden
A. Patient positions that might be employed for this decrease in ETCO2
operation 4. End tidal Nitrogen → sudden increase in ETN2
1. Supine 5. Pulmonary artery catheter to measure pulmonary
2. Prone artery pressure → sudden rise in pressure
3. Sitting 6. Right atrial pressure → increase
4. Lateral 7. Oesopgeal stethoscope → mill wheel murmur
5. Park bench 8. ECG → arrythmias, RV strain, ST depression
Reduced compliance
Plateau waves
Fig. 3. ICP monitoring system showing normal, moderately elevated and significantly elevated ICP
.
C. Waveform change with increased ICP 5. Pressure transmitted along optic nerve causing
1. A raised ICP we have stated as being greater than papilloedema
20 mmHg therefore this will be reflected on the 6. Herniation of brain tissue at extremes of ICP
amplitude of the waveform a. Subfalcin or cingulate herniation:
2. The second and third peaks become greater in cingulate gyrus of frontal lobe herniates
amplitude in an elevated ICP across midline, across falx cerebri. May
3. P2 reflects cerebral compliance. If ICP is raised, occlude anterior cerebral artery
cerebral compliance is reduced and the second b. Central herniation: occurs when there is
peak becomes the most prominent downward pressure centrally and can
4. When observed over a period of time, a result in bilateral uncal herniation
pathological ICP trace may show pathological A c. Uncal herniation: temporal lobe
waves (A waves sustained < 20 mins) herniates below tentorium cerebelli. This
5. These are also what is known as plateau waves inturn may compress oculomotor cranial
because of the shape of the waveform seen at very nerve
high ICP values (e.g. 50200 mmHg) indicating d. Cerebellotonsillar herniation: cerebellar
severe raised ICP and patient will often show tonsil herniates through foramen magnum
neurological signs of raised ICP e. Upward cerebellar herniation: if primary
lesion in posterior fossa
f. Transcalvarial herniation: where the
D. The anatomical results of a raised ICP brain squeezes through a fracture or a
surgical site in the skull. Also called
MonroKellie doctrine "external herniation", this type of
The pressurevolume relationship between ICP, volume of herniation may occur during
CSF, blood, and brain tissue, and cerebral perfusion craniectomy, surgery in which a flap of
pressure (CPP). The Monro–Kellie hypothesis states that skull is removed, the protruding brain
region preventing the piece of skull from
the cranial compartment is incompressible and that the being replaced during the operation.
volume inside the cranium is fixed.
A. What challenges does a patient with acromegaly b. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
present to the anaesthetist?
B. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the c. Nasal CPAP can not be applied with
transphenoidal approach to the pituitary gland? nasal packs in postoperative period.
C. Why might the surgeon request a lumbar drain
insertion? 3. Cardiac
D. Describe the possible complications of pituitary a. Corpulmonale
surgery? b. Refractory HTN
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. IHD
e. Biventricular dysfunction heart block
4. Endocrine:
a. 25% are diabetics
b. Secretion of ACTH, TSH also (as well as
GH) or alternatively compression of
tissue and reduced hormone secretion;
hypoadrenalism results in that situation
c. Hormonal and antihypertensive therapy
should be continued preoperatively
5. Other
a. Excess peripheral soft tissue deposition
may make venous cannulation difficult
and increases the risknerve entrapment
syndromes; meticulous attention to
theatre positioning is therefore required
6. Aneurysmal subarachnoid
haemorrhage and anaesthesia
1. Rebleeding
Fig. 11. Cerebral circulation
2. Raised ICP
3. Seizures
A. What are the symptoms and signs of subarachnoid 4. Hydrocephalus
haemorrhage (including extracranial)? 5. Hyponatraemia
B. What are the complications of SAH? 6. Delayed cerebral ischaemia and vasospasm
C. Describe specific measures for cerebral protection 7. Fever
following a SAH? 8. Hyperglycaemia
D. What are the goals of anaesthetic management for 9. Cardiac complications – neurogenic stunned
neurovascular surgery? myocardium syndrome
10. Pulmonary complications
E. What are the methods of minimising hypertension
a. Aspiration pneumonitis,
during induction of anaesthesia?
b. Acute lung injury (ALI)
c. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)
d. Pulmonary oedema
4. Control of arterial BP
a. Aim for a systolic BP < 160 mmHg
b. MAP < 110 mmHg
c. Avoid hypotension by keeping systolic
BP > 100 mmHg)
5. Endovascular treatment
a. In the situation of a new neurological
deficit where medical therapy fails
consider aggressive endovascular
treatment e.g. angioplasty
7. Spinal cord injury physiology and C. The principles of management of the airway in a
patient with an acute cervical spine injury
effects 1. The initial management of the polytrauma patient
A 27 year old man is admitted with a suspected spinal follows the Advanced Trauma Life Support
fracture following a fall into water. There are no other (ATLS) practice of airway and cervical spine
injuries. control, breathing and circulation.
2. (MILS or MILI) Manual inline stabilisation or
A. Describe the respiratory effects at the different levels immobilisation to prevent further spinal cord
of spinal cord injury? trauma during laryngoscopy (download full text
B. Describe the physiology of spinal shock? from Manual inline stabilization
C. What would be the principles of your management of 3. Intubation aids (boigie) and The McCoy is an
the airway in a patient with an acute cervical spine
alternative to the Macintosh for those experienced
injury?
D. What are the complications of hard and semirigid in its use
collars? 4. Rapid sequence induction (RSI) with adequate pre
E. Why and when may suxamethonium be oxygenation
contraindicated in a patient with spinal injury? 5. LMA or intubating laryngeal mask in the failed or
difficult intubation. The forces applied during
A. The respiratory effects at the different levels insertion can cause posterior displacement of the
of spinal cord injury cervical spine but the movement is less than that
1. C3 and above, denervation of diaphragm, seen in direct laryngoscopy
respiratory failure. 6. In the ‘can’t intubate, can’t ventilate’ scenario
2. C3C5 partial diaphragm paralysis, usually need there should be early consideration of:
assisted ventilation
a. The surgical airway or cricothyroi
3. C5C8 complete intercostals paralysis, diaphragm
dotomy.
intact resulting in paradoxical ventilation,
ineffective cough b. These techniques can produce posterior
4. T1T7, variable intercostals muscles involvement displacement of the cervical spine but
resulting in poor chest wall movement and poor this should not prevent the use of this
cough lifesaving procedure
5. Above T7, Neurogenic cardiovascular 7. Nasal intubation has been superseded by oral
complication due to traumatic disruption of intubation for the low success rate and high
sympathetic system incidence of epistaxis and layngospasm
6. T1T4, cardiac sympathetic supply, damage at this 8. Awake fibreoptic intubation : least amount of
level affects chronotropic and inotrpic responses
movement of the cervical spine, in the acute
of heart
trauma setting, blood or vomit in the airway may
B. Physiology of spinal shock make the technique impossible. Further
1. Spinal shock describes the initial phase after disadvantages include a relatively prolonged time
spinal cord trauma and defined as temporary to intubation,
interruption of spinal cord function.
2. All reflexes are lost and the cord below the level D. The complications of hard and semirigid collars
of the lesion becomes isolated from centre.( 1. Total immobilisation is not achieved
2. Increases the chance of difficult laryngoscopy
Flaccid paralysis)If there is an evidence of
3. Can exacerbate cervical spinal injuries
neurological sparing below the level of lesion it
4. Can cause airway obstruction
might recover. 5. Can increase intracranial pressure (ICP)
3. Autonomic and reflex activity gradually returns to 6. Increases risk of aspiration
an injured cord. Loss of descending inhibitory 7. Increases risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
control causes autonomic hyperreflexia and 8. May cause significant decubitus ulcers
spasticity.
a. Ionic
b. Metabolic
c. Inflammatory processes
2. Normoxia
a. Hypoxia associated with worse outcome
b. Cerebral blood flow (CBF) increases
when PaO2 falls below 8 kPa (60 mmHg)
c. Maintain PaO2 >13 kPa (97.5 mmHg)
d. PEEP to maintain oxygenation in the
range of (1215 cmH2O) as exceeding
this will increase ICP affecting the
targeted CPP
3. Normocapnia
a. Aim for PaCO2 4.55.0 kPa
(3337.5 mmHg)
b. CBF increases as PaCO2 increases
c. Hyperventilation reduces PaCO2 causing
vasoconstriction so hypocapnia should be
avoided as it worsens ischaemia
Fig. 19. CT of Subdural haemorrhage
3. Maintenance
a. Avoid N2O and maintain anaesthesia 10. Awareness depth of anaesthesia
using volatile or target control infusion
(TCI) propofol. monitoring
b. Remifentanil is also used.
c. Application of a fixator is highly A. What are some of the causes of anaesthetic
stimulating and requires bolus analgesia awareness?
B. What is bispectral analysis (BIS)?
or anaesthetic.
C. What is the suggested interpretation of BIS values?
D. What other type of depth of anaesthesia monitoring
4. Cerebral oedema
are there?
a. Treatment with diuretics and mild E. What steps would you take if you were informed by
hypocapnia the midwives that a patient who had undergone a GA
the previous day was complaining of awareness
5. Fluids under anaesthetic?
a. Hypotonic fluids are absolutely F. Are you aware of any major studies going on at the
contraindicated moment into awareness?
b. Normal saline or Hartmann’s are the
crystalloids of choice.
A. Some of the causes of anaesthetic awareness 2. Monitoring end tidal inhalational agent
3. Isolated forearm technique, refer to Anaesthesia
Type of surgery, GA caesarean section, cardiac surgery, UK Isolated forearm technique
trauma surgery, rigid bronchoscopy other factors include 4. Forehead galvanometry
5. Oesophageal motility
1. Patient Factors 6. EEG
a. Haemodynamically unstable patient e.g. 7. Auditory evoked potentials
major haemorrhage
b. Difficult airway C. Steps to be taken if you were informed that a
c. Drugs blunting hypertensive and patient who had undergone a GA the previous day was
tachycardic responses e.g. beta blockers, complaining of awareness under anaesthetic
calcium channel blockers
d. Chronic opioid or benzodiazepines use 1. Read patient’s notes, establish details of
anaesthetic and circumstances, find out who the
2. Anaesthetic Factors anaesthetist was
a. Use of neuromuscular blockers 2. Inform the anaesthetist who was involved and the
b. Failure of patient monitoring equipment consultant responsible if the patient was
c. Malfunctioning vaporizer anaesthetised by a trainee
d. Empty vaporizer 3. Arrange a discussion with the patient with a
e. Failure of TIVA pump witness present
f. Unrecognized tissued IV cannula with 4. Sympathetic approach to the patient
TIVA 5. Take a detailed history from the patient
g. Drug errors (e.g. mixing up thiopentone establishing what she remembers
and coamoxiclav) 6. Ask if she felt any pain during surgery
h. Misjudgment of anaesthetic doses 7. Apologize to the patient
required 8. Explanation of awareness and why it sometimes
occurs
B. The bispectral analysis (BIS) 9. Document the discussion in the notes
10. Write to patient’s GP
BIS uses EEG monitoring. 11. Refer to psychologist if patient wants further
The machine uses an algorithm to interpret EEG waves and support
gives a numerical value from 0 to 100.
E. Major studies going on at the moment into
a) Interpretation of BIS values awareness
The target BIS value for general anaesthesia is 40 to 60.
1. NAP5 Report The National Institute of Academic
b) Other type of depth of anaesthesia monitoring Anaesthesia National Audit Projects NAPs
1. Clinical assessment for signs of sympathetic 2. National audit project undertaken by the Royal
activity including College of Anaesthetists and AAGBI
a. Heart rate
b. Blood pressure
c. Sweating
d. Lacrimation
11. ICP monitoring and management of C. Two methods of intracranial pressure (ICP)
measurement in detail
raised ICP 1. Intraventricular: gold standard, a catheter
inserted into the ventricle connected to a column
A. Which patients with severe head injury should have of fluid and a pressure transducer. Wheatstone
intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring? bridge principle is applied for zeroing. Change in
B. List the methods by which the intracranial pressure pressure causing change in the resistance of the
(ICP) can be measured in intensive care?
transducer system, causing change in electrical
C. Describe two of these in greater detail?
current translates to change in intracranial
D. What methods are used to manage or prevent acute
rises in the ICP? pressure. Can be used for therapeutic CSF
E. Describe the mechanism of action of mannitol in drainage. There ìs high risk of infection, it can be
head injury? used for administration of antibiotics and can get
blocked.
A. Patients with severe head injury who should have
2. Intraparenchymal: Camino transducer uses
intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
fibreoptic cable with displaceable mirror at the
1. Severe head injury with GCS 38 with abnormal catheter tip, placed in the brain tissue. Change in
admission CT (ie haematoma, contusion, oedema, ICP distorts the mirror and reflected light intensity
or compressed basal cisterns) transduced into pressure. No saline filled column
of fluid and manometer in needed.
2. Severe head injury and normal CT but ≥ 2 of:
a. Age > 40 yrs
b. Unilateral or bilateral motor posturing
c. Systolic BP < 90 mm Hg
d. At risk of raised ICP requiring general
analgesia
D. Methods used to manage or prevent acute rises in A. Indications for an awake craniotomy
the ICP
1. Anatomical
1. Physiological a. Space occupying lesions in or adjacent to
a. Head up > 30 degrees, avoid excessive eloquent areas of the cortex.
rotation of head b. Excision of tumours in the sensory and
b. Loose collar/ ET tube neck tie motor speech areas in the dominant
c. Avoid hypoxaemia, hypercarbia, hemisphere and sensorimotor cortex in
hyperthermia, vasodilatory drugs, either hemisphere following cortical
hypotension stimulation mapping.
d. Avoid PEEP
e. Avoid central line in neck. 2. Physiological
a. Stimulation or lesion generation of deep
2. Pharmacological brain nuclei (e.g. the subthalamic
a. Hypertonic saline 30% up to 20 ml nucleus) for intractable movement
b. Mannitol 1g.kg1 disorders such as Parkinson’s disease and
c. Barbiturate coma dystonias.
d. Hypothermic therapy
e. Hyperventilation 3. Pharmacological
f. Steroid a. Epilepsy surgery when intraoperative
g. Insertion of external ventricular drain or electrocorticography (ECoG) is required
ventriculoperitoneal shunt to define the resection margins.
h. Surgical, decompressive craniectomy
B. The anaesthetic goals of management of OPCAB
surgery
E. Mechanism of action of mannitol in head injury
1. Confused patient
1. Immediate: Osmotically active sugar alcohol, 2. Communication difficulties
expands intravascular volume, increase flow, 3. Extreme anxiety
reduces viscosity, increase cardiac output, 4. Low occipital tumour (prone position)
increase cerebral perfusion, increase 5. Significant dural involvement (painful)
microvascular oxygenation. Compensatory 6. Inability to lie still for many hours
regional vasoconstriction where autoregulation is 7. Inexperienced surgeon
intact causing reduction ICP.
2. Delayed: Establish osmotic gradient between C. Local anaesthetic techniques that must be employed
plasma and brain cells. Draws out extracellular
to provide analgesia/anaesthesia
water into vascular compartment provided blood
brain barrier is intact reducing oedema.
1. If a Mayfield head fixator is used, adequate local
anaesthesia should be applied prior to application
of the pins.
12. Anaesthesia for awake craniotomy
2. Brain biopsy/minicraniotomy
A. What are the indications for an awake craniotomy?
a. Infiltration of local anaesthetic into the
B. What are the contraindications for an awake
relevant area of scalp and pericranium,
craniotomy?
C. What local anaesthetic techniques must the and later onto the dura, is all that is
surgeon/anaesthetist employ to provide required.
analgesia/anaesthesia?
D. What is the asleepawakeasleep technique? 3. Formal craniotomy
E. What complications may be encountered in an awake a. The neurosurgeon must perform field
craniotomy? blocks of the scalp, using combinations
of lidocaine and bupivacaine with
epinephrine.
d. The skull can be drilled and opened 2. The introduction of propofol improved the safety
without discomfort to the patient (no profile of the asleep–awake–asleep technique and
sensory innervation) provided more predictable intraoperative wakeup.
e. The dura is innervated by branches from
all three divisions of the trigeminal nerve, 3. A combination of propofol and remifentanil
the recurrent meningeal branch of the infusion is now the technique of choice because it
vagus, and by branches of the upper allows titratable levels of anaesthesia and fast and
cervical roots. It must therefore be reliable wake up.
adequately anaesthetized with a local
anaesthetic nerve block around the nerve 4. Bispectral index monitoring can be used to guide
trunk running with the middle meningeal targetcontrolled infusions.
artery, and also by a field block around
the edges of thte craniotomy.
E. Complications may be encountered in an awake
craniotomy
Techniques
1. Seizures
1. The supraorbital nerve is blocked just above the 2. Nausea and vomiting
supraorbital notch and local anaesthetic is 3. Dysphoric reactions
deposited just superficial to the periosteum. 4. Respiratory depression
5. Airway obstruction
2. The temporal branch of the auriculotemporal 6. Air embolism
7. Pulmonary aspiration
nerve is blocked immediately posterior to the
8. Conversion to general anaesthesia
superficial temporal artery at the level of the
auditory meatus.
3. Rapid entrainment of large volumes of air will E. Management of a suspected venous air embolism
result in apnoea, hypoxia and cardiovascular during a craniotomy
collapse.
1. ABCDE approach
4. Slower rates of entrainment may result in the 2. Discontinue N2O
patient complaining of lightheadedness, breathing 3. Administer 100% O2
difficulties, shortness of breath, chest pain and a 4. Flood surgical field with Saline
sense of impending death. 5. Aspirate air from right atrium via CV catheter
6. Left lateral decubitus position (Durant Maneuver)/
5. A 10% obstruction to the pulmonary circulation Trendelenburg position
can cause a gasp reflex which, in itself, reduces 7. Inotropic agents
right atrial pressure (RAP) further increasing air 8. Cardiopulmonary bypass
entrainment. 9. Thoracotomy
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Chapter 2
Cardiac anaesthesia
Cardiac anaesthesia
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Cardiac surgery is a dangerous and complex field of medicine with significant morbidity and mortality. Quality
anaesthetic care with specific attention to details can greatly enhance patient safety and outcome. Details that are ignored
can lead to disaster.
Anesthetic evaluation is crucial, it must include attention to cardiac history, catheter reports, thallium, echo, and ECG.
Critical information includes left main disease or equivalent, poor distal targets, low ejection fraction, LVEDP, presence
of aneurysm, pulmonary hypertension, valvular lesions and congenital lesions.
Each of these points requires a modification of anaesthetic technique and specific information is required. How is their
angina manifest? You need to be able to understand their verbal reports. If a patient's angina is experienced as shortness of
breath, or nausea, or heart burn, or whatever, you need to be able to link that symptom to possible myocardial ischemia.
Past medical history including history of COPD, TIA, stroke, cerebral vascular disease, renal disease (CRI is an
independent risk factor), hepatic insufficiency will change anesthetic management. The above pictures the necessity of
developing an anaesthetic plan that individually suits each patients.
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1. Aortic stenosis and open aortic valve A. The pathophysiology of worsening aortic stenosis
replacement Causes:
1. Degenerative calcification
A 70year old woman with aortic stenosis presents for a. In degenerative calcific aortic stenosis
an open aortic valve replacement (AVR). there is initially sclerosis due to
mechanical stress causing fibrosis and
A. What is the pathophysiology of worsening aortic
calcification. Risk factors are as for
stenosis?
coronary artery disease.
B. Which specific cardiac investigations may be used
in assessing the severity of this woman's disease?
2. Congenital bicuspid valve (2%)
C. Give values for the peak aortic flow velocity,
a. In congenital bicuspid valve, the
mean pressure gradient and valve area that would
tendency toward turbulent flow through
indicate that this woman has severe aortic
the valve causes trauma resulting in
stenosis.
calcification and fibrosis.
D. What would be your haemodynamic goals for the
perioperative management of this patient
3. Rarely due to rheumatic disease
8. Left atria then becomes then hypertrophied 1. Maintain normal (low) heart rate
2. Maintain sinus rhythm – Atrial filling is
9. Adequate filling and maintenance of CO increasingly important with LV hypertrophy due
dependent on sinus rhythm to decreased compliance and relaxation
3. Avoid tachycardia
10. Disturbance of LV supply/demand occur oxygen 4. Maintain preload careful fluid balance, guided
requirements increase relevant to increased LV by invasive monitoring e.g. transoesophageal
muscle mass and LV systolic pressure i.e. LV echocardiography (TOE)
strock work increase. Supply is reduced due to 5. Maintain highnormal SVR using αagonist to
relatively low aortic pressure and increases maintain coronary perfusion with extreme caution
diastolic pressures if central neuraxial blockade is used e.g. in LSCS
6. Maintenance of contractility
11. Demand and supply mismatch causes angina 7. Maintain K+ concentration within normal range
despite (occasionally) normal coronary arteries
1. ECG
2. ECHO
3. Cardiac catheterisation +/ angiography
pH stat
1. pH is corrected for temperature at 37°C and pH is
kept constant.
2. This allows pCO2 content during cooling that
causes cerebral vessels to vasodilate
3. Cerebral blood flow looses it autoregulation and
Fig. 6. pH changes with temperatures
becomes pressure dependent.
4. This may improve cooling and oxygen delivery to
the brain.
Alpha stat
5. Blood gas analysis performed at 37℃
1. Blood gas levels are uncorrected for temperature
6. Mathematically temperature corrected using a
and alkalosis is permitted during cooling.
nomogram
2. Currently it's the most widely accepted approach
7. CO2 added to oxygen passing the oxygenator
for acidbase management during CPB in adults.
8. Total CO2 stores elevated
3. It's achieved by maintaining normal pH at 7.40
9. Marked respiratory acidosis at 37℃
and pCO2 at 40 mmHg measured at 37℃.
4. Keeping these parameters uncorrected for actual
Advantages:
arterial blood temperature:
1. Previously thought to be beneficial for cerebral
a. Allows the pH to rise and pCO2 to fall
vasodilation and maintenance of cerebral blood
naturally with cooling
flow
b. Relative (respiratory) alkalosis at the
2. Increased cerebral blood flow leads to quick and
patient’s actual body temperature
homogeneous brain cooling during the cooling
c. No CO2 added to the circuit
phase of DHCA
3. Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shiftets to the
right improving peripheral O2 delivery
4. Offers protection in neonatal and infant cardiac
surgery
At 37°C
5. might inhibit cellular metabolism
Normal intracellular pH 6.8
6. Possibly better neurobehavioral development after
alpha ≅ 0.55 which is optimal for intracellular
DHCA in children
enzyme structure and function
7. Particularly beneficial in cyanotic neonates and
infants
Advantages:
8. Shifts more CPB flow toward the cerebral
1. Maintains and preserves cerebral autoregulation
circulation
during moderate hypothermia
9. Improving cerebral cooling and oxygen supply
2. Extends the lower limit of autoregulation to a
mean arterial pressure of 30 mmHg
Disadvantages:
3. Offers better control of cerebral blood flow
1. Slightly greater complexity compared to alphastat
4. Avoidance of “luxurious” perfusion
strategy
5. Reduced cerebral blood flow (CBF)
2. Loss of cerebral autoregulation
6. Decreased risk of microemboli
3. Cerebral blood flow becomes pressure passive
7. Preferable on cellular level while enzymatic
4. “Luxury brain perfusion”: mismatch of CBF and
function is well maintained
CRMO2
8. Possibly preferable in adults
5. Increased risk of cerebral embolization and
9. May result in better neurocognitive outcome
cerebral edema
compared to pHstat (adults)
C. Goals of inotrope and vasopressor use postcardiac 6. Off pump coronary artery bypass
surgery
grafting
1. Increased cardiac output
2. Improved myocardial contractility
A. What are the theoretical advantages of off pump
3. Improved endorgan perfusion
CABG (OPCAB) compared to on pump?
4. Reduced ventricular diameter (in enlarged hearts) B. What are the disadvantages of OPCAB compared
5. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand to on pump cardiac surgery?
6. Decreased PVR leading to increased right heart C. What causes haemodynamic instability during
output OPCAB?
D. Which strategies help to minimise haemodynamic
instability during OPCAB?
D. Mechanism of action of milrinone and similar drugs E. What is ischaemic preconditioning?
F. What are the anaesthetic goals of management of
Milrinone OPCAB surgery?
1. Is a Phosphodiesterase inhibitor it works by
competitive inhibition of phosphodiesterase
isoenzymes (PDE) resulting in increased cAMP A. The theoretical advantages of off pump CABG
and positive inotropy (OPCAB) compared to on pump
2. Improved diastolic relaxation (lusitropy)
3. Also, potent vasodilator causing decreased 1. Reduced risk of CVA
preload, afterload and PVR 2. Less disruption of normal coagulation system and
4. Sensitises myocardium to βagonists reduced requirement for blood products
5. Inhibit platelet aggregation 3. Lower heparin dosage can be used
6. Reduce postischaemic reperfusion injury 4. Earlier extubation
7. Dilate coronary arteries and grafts 5. Reduced length of stay
6. Reduced stress response
7. Isolated LAD grafting does not require a
E. Differences in cardiopulmonary resuscitation in sternotomy, surgery can be performed through a
postcardiac surgery patients small thoracotomy
Intraoperative
1. Careful haemodynamic monitoring including D. The different types of intervention possible for
arterial line. treating aortic stenosis
2. Central venous access provides a route for fluids
and vasoconstrictor therapy. 3 interventional options include:
3. Intraop transoesophageal echo (TOE) may be 1. Surgical aortic valve replacement (AVR)
appropriate to assess LV filling and contractility. 2. Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI)
4. Appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis should be 3. Balloon valvuloplasty of the aortic valve (BAV)
given and strict aseptic precautions adhered to.
5. Potential surgical causes of haemodynamic E. The principles of anaesthesia for transcatheter
instability should be considered and modified aortic valve implantation (TAVI)
wherever possible.
6. Avoid systemic hypotension TAVI may be performed under:
a. Hypotension leads to myocardial GA in transapical approach.
ischemia and a downward spiral of Local anaesthesia with sedation may be possible
reduced contractility causing further falls in tansvascular approach.
in BP and coronary perfusion.
b. Aim to maintain BP at normal Preoperative visit:
preanaesthetic values 1. Quantify patient’s perioperative risk, optimise
c. Use neuroaxial techniques with caution it coexisting morbidity and provide informed
may require drugs to maintain systemic consent.
vascular tone e.g. noradrenaline, 2. Give information on invasive monitoring, ECHO
phenylephrine, metaraminol. and postoperative care on ICU.
7. Maintain a sinus rhythm as: 3. Careful premedication to reduce anxietyinduced
a. Atrial contraction is important for LV sympathetic response.
filling. 4. Monitoring, vascular access and haemodynamic
b. AF and nodal rhythms are poorly principles:
tolerated. a. When general anaesthesia is used
8. Avoid tachycardia with a rate of 6080 bpm as: tracheal intubation is routine, single
a. Tachycardia reduces diastolic filling time lumen ETT for transapical TAVI.
therefore reduced time for coronary b. Basic standard monitoring plus an arterial
perfusion. line before induction.
b. Increases O2 demand. c. Large bore peripheral cannula, central
9. Avoid bradycardia with a rate of 6080 bpm as: venous catheter, urometer and
a. Bradycardia results in a reduced cardiac temperature monitor is routine.
output as the stiff ventricle cannot d. Use of pulmonary artery catheter is less
increase stroke volume to compensate. common.
b. Increase in ventricular filling due to
longer diastole also increases ventricular Haemodynamic goals include:
wall tension further reducing coronary 1. Maintaining myocardial O2 delivery via adequate
perfusion. systemic pressure and diastolic time
10. Maintain high/normal preload to enable adequate 2. Maintenance of contractility
filling of LV. 3. Optimise preload for a noncompliant left
ventricle
Postoperative 4. Sinus rhythm with an ideal rate 6080 beats/min.
1. Maintain appropriate IV fluids and arterial BP. 5. Opioid based technique may be favoured for
2. Minimise additional demands on the heart induction/maintenance of anaesthesia to minimise
incurred with inadequate analgesia. vasodilation and negative inotropy.
3. Regional anaesthetic techniques have a potential 6. Haemodynamic support with alphaagonists and
role but require close monitoring because of fluids and inotropic support may be required in a
potential toxicity resulting in hypotension. poorly functioning LV.
4. Vasoconstrictor infusion may be required to offset 7. Defibrillation pads are essential.
any deleterious haemodynamic consequence of 8. If TAVI is performed under GA, TOE should be
central neuraxial block. used.
5. Avoid NSAIDS that can trigger the risk of 9. If TAVI is performed without GA, TTE should be
postoperative renal dysfunction. used.
Aspirin
1. Irreversible COX 1 inhibitor so reducing conve
rsion of arachidonic acid to Thromboxane A2,
which promotes platelet aggregation
2. Favours production of prostaglandins which
inhibit platelet aggregation
3. Effects platelet for their entire life span therefore
takes 710 days for affected platelet to be
destroyed and its effects to diminish
11. Cardiopulmonary bypass 10. Separate circuit for cardioplegia suction solution
to enters back into circuit
A. List the components of the cardiopulmonary
bypass (CPB) circuit? B. assessing adequacy of perfusion on CPB
B. How may perfusion on CPB be assessed as
adequate? Difficult to assess but aim to match blood flow with the
C. What methods of myocardial protection are organs oxygen demand.
employed during cardiopulmonary bypass?
D. Describe the process of weaning from 1. Factors related to:
cardiopulmonary bypass? a. CPB machine blood flow per minute or
E. What factors may indicate failure to wean from prime viscosity
bypass? b. Patient factors vascular resistance, total
body weight or temperature
2. MAP is aimed to be at 65 mmHg not less.
3. Arterial blood gases can assess lactate and acid
base balance these are reliable measures of
aerobic respiration (oxygenation), tissue perfusion
and CO2 elimination.
4. Venous oxygen saturation reflects the peripheral
O2 usage.
5. Neurological physiologic monitoring used to
estimate the degree of brain perfusion and CBF
tools are:
a. EEG.
b. Evoked potential.
c. Cerebral oximetry by near infrared
spectroscopy.
d. Transcranial doppler.
Fig. 9. Cardiopulmonary bypass machine
C. Methods of myocardial protection employed during
A. The components of the cardiopulmonary bypass
cardiopulmonary bypass
(CPB) circuit
1. Monitoring ECG to assess if any electrical activity
A circuit to direct blood from right atrium, uperior vena
when on bypass can be either through:
cava or inferior vena cava to oxygenate it, remove CO2 and
a. Endocardial transvenous approach
return it to aorta.
b. Epicardial surgical approach
1. Heparin or phosphorylcholine coated tubing and
components.
2. Venous line: large bore to drain under gravity.
3. Reservoir: venous from venous line, surgical
suction.
4. Cardiotomy: low volume cannula placed in left
ventricle to prevent accumulation of blood.
5. Filter remove gas and particulate emboli,
leukocyte depleters
6. Oxygenator:
a. Membrane large surface area of fine Fig. 10. ECG monitoring during CPB
capillary tubes allows gas flow. The FiO2
deterimines PaO2.
2. Cardioplegia solution: once the cross clamp is
b. Bubble not used as often due direct
applied, anterograde and/or retrograde injections
contact of blood with air surfaces which
of cardioplegic solution can be given respectively
damage blood constituents.
into the aortic root or directly into the coronary
7. Heat exchanger: allows manipulation of
ostia. St Thomas or harfield solution with K+
temperature
2080 mmol.l1, Mg2+, Ca2+, Cl and procaine.
8. Pump: roller or centrifugal
3. Cooling with ice or icy slush to heart directly.
9. Arterial line: into aorta
13. Paediatric congenital heart disease 4. Excessive pulmonary blood flow results in pulmonary
oedema and poor systemic perfusion.
A. Describe the normal (or series) circulation 5. Conversely insufficient pulmonary blood flow
physiology, contrast this with the parallel and causes profound cyanosis.
single ventricle or Fontan circulation 6. Children with large unrepaired AVSD’s or VSD’s
pathophysiology of congenital heart disease? lesions can exhibit a balanced circulation
B. How may congenital heart disease in children be physiology.
physiologically classified?
C. How may children with heart disease undergoing Single ventricle circulation:
noncardiac surgery be stratified according to 1. Some forms of CHD are not amenable to full
risk? correction to a series circulation.
D. Describe the basic principles of management of a
3 month old with a large VSD presenting for
2. Children with these conditions will have palliation
emergency surgery for scrotal swelling?
by creating a single ventricle circulation.
E. Describe the basic principles of management of a
6 year old with a repaired TOF presenting for
dental extraction? 3. This occurs as a staged process.
F. Describe the basic principles of management of a a. The first stage at 35 months is known as
12 year old with Fontan circulation presenting for a Glenn Shunt and involves the superior
emergency ORIF of fracture? vena cava being connected directly to the
right pulmonary artery.
b. The second stage connects the inferior
A. The normal (or series) circulation physiology, vena cava to the right pulmonary artery,
contrasting with the parallel and single ventricle or this separates the systemic and
Fontan circulation pathophysiology of congenital heart pulmonary circulation and returns arterial
disease oxygenation to normal. This stage occurs
at around age 35 years.
Normal (series) circulation:
1. Consists of a pulmonary and systemic circulation 4. A single ventricle pumps blood to the systemic
working together in series. circulation and the pulmonary circulation relies on
2. Blood flows from the right atrium to right blood flowing passively to the lungs and down a
ventricle, to the lungs where it is oxygenated and pressure gradient from the pulmonary artery to the
reaches the systemic circulation via the left atrium left atrium. The pressure gradient in the sole
and left ventricle. determinant for pulmonary blood flow.
3. Some CHD conditions e.g. ASD behaves as the
normal series circulation but with mixing of
deoxygenated and oxygenated blood through one
or more ‘holes’. B. Physiologically classification of paediatric congenital
4. The direction of blood flow through the lesion heart disease
depends on the pressure gradient across it.
Accordingly the degree of shunt depends on the Congenital heart disease can be classified in a number of
size of the defect and the relative pressure ways.
gradients.
Firstly, as cyanotic and noncyanotic.
Balanced (parallel) circulation:
1. Instead of the circulation being in series they are Cyanotic heart disease include conditions with:
in parallel. 1. Obstruction to pulmonary flow e.g;
2. Some CHD conditions involving large a. Tretralogy of Fallot.
intra/extracardiac communications meaning that b. Pulmonary atresia.
blood flow to the systemic and pulmonary
circulation varies depending on the relative 2. Mixing in a common chamber e.g;
resistance in each circuit. a. truncus ateriosus.
3. Therefore blood flow to the lungs or the body
depends on the balance between pulmonary 3. Separation of the pulmonary and systemic
vascular resistance and systemic vascular circulations e.g;
resistence. a. Transposition of the great arteries.
Fig. 15. Truncus ateriosus Fig. 16. Transposition of the great arteries
Fig. 17. Coarctation of the aorta Fig. 18. Congenital aortic valve stenosis
Fig. 19. Ventricular septal defect Fig. 20. Atrial septal defect
Fig. 21. Patent ducts ateriosus Fig. 22. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
3. If the operation is an emergency then: 3. Induction should be either a slow gas induction or
a. If hospital in question is used to dealing slow IV induction.
with children under the age of 2 then they
can proceed with the operation. 4. Spontaneous ventilation may be more beneficial
b. If needed liaise with a specialist hospital as this aids pulmonary blood flow but hypoxia,
for advice should commence. hypercarbia and basal collapse must be avoided,
c. If however, the hospital does not preform which will all increase pulmonary vascular
paediatric surgery routinely, the child resistence and reduce blood flow.
should be transferred to a specialist
hospital. 5. If using positive pressure ventilation, then high
pressure, high PEEP and long inspiratory times
4. Induction of anaesthesia should be a slow cautious should be avoided as these too compromise PBF.
gas or intravenous induction.
6. Slight head up position aids venous return and
5. Beware of the possibility of poor cardiac reserve. pulmonary blood flow, as does raising the legs.
6. Avoid high inspired oxygen concentrations in
14. Cardiomyopathies and ventricular 4. High filling pressures required and high normal
assist devices SVR with maintenance of normal contractility and
sinus rhythm.
A. What are the distinguishing pathological features
between the different cardiomyopathies? How do B. The indications and contraindications for
these affect anaesthetic management aims? ventricular assist device (VAD) insertion
B. What are the indications and contraindications for
ventricular assist device (VAD) insertion? 1. Acute heart failure as a bridge to recovery i.e.
C. What are the principles of anaesthesia for VAD cardiogenic shock post MI or cardiotomy
insertion? 2. Chronic heart failure as a bridge to transplant i.e.
D. What postoperative complications may be secondary to IHD, HTN or other cardiomyopathy
encountered? 3. Destination (permanent) therapy when recovery is
unlikely and transplant is contraindicated. Not a
routine practice in the UK.
A. The distinguishing pathological features between the
different cardiomyopathies and how do these affect
anaesthetic management aims
C. The principles of anaesthesia for VAD insertion
There are three types of cardiomyopathy
Dilated: 1. Preoperative: Multicomorbidities are usual;
1. An enlarged poorly contractile ventricle with cerebrovascular disease; COPD; renal impairment;
impaired systolic function although diastolic hepatic congestion; diabetes; anticoagulated;
dysfunction results in raised LVEDP in extreme potential PVC / CVC sepsis. Premed can cause
cases. hypoventilation with disturbed PVR.
2. Ensure medical therapy optimised and possible 2. Perioperative: Meticulous asepsis for new
need for cardiac resynchronisation addressed vascular catheters; IABP may be needed; attention
electively. to potential disturbance of PVR with hypoxia or
3. Aim for normal heart rate, rhythm, adequate hypercarbia during induction using RSI. Minimal
preload and avoid negative inotropy or increases monitoring plus CVC, IABP, 5lead ECG,+/ PAC
in afterload. and TOE. CPB may not be required.
4. Potassium and magnesium should be corrected. 3. Postoperative: VAD in fixed mode for 24hours to
avoid excess emptying and collapse; managed on
Hypertrophic: CSICU; TOE left insitu to monitor.
1. Pressure overloaded left ventricle with normal or
reduced chamber size.
2. CPP is reduced secondary to increased LVEDP
and the hypertrophied ventricle has a greater D. Postoperative complications that may be
oxygen demand resulting in high risk for encountered
ischaemia.
3. Adequate volume loading also important with 1. Bleeding
increased LVEDP. 2. PFO: unmasked by left atrial decompression on
4. Significant interventricular septal hypertrophy VAD activation with consequent right to left shunt
dynamic LVOT obstruction can occur. This can and hypoxia
cause complete LVOT obstruction if associated 3. Right heart failure: from increased PVR or
with systolic anterior motion of the anterior leaflet inadequate preload
of the mitral valve. 4. Hypotension: haemorrhage, aortic dissection;
5. Aim for sinus rhythm (very important), high tamponade; septic; adrenal insufficiency and low
normal afterload and avoid inotropy and VAD flows
chronotropy. 5. Arrhythmias: although VADs protect from lethal
arrhythmia they will affect native function and
Restrictive: reduce output
1. Characterised by reduced ventricular compliance 6. CNS: from thromboembolic or haemorrhagic
2. (Idiopathic then amyloidosis, haemachromatosis phenomena
and sarcoidosis). 7. Infection: strict measures taken to avoid device /
3. Anaesthesia can precipitate cardiac arrest due to line infection
reduced myocardial contractility, venous return
(esp. if IPPV), and reduced SVR.
15. Coagulation issues in cardiac 1. Heparin 45 mg.kg1 (500 IU.kg1) is a negatively
charged molecule that potentiates the action of
surgery antithrombin III.
2. Arterial blood sample for ACT after 3–5 min
3. Ensure ACT above 3–4 times of baseline ACT (>
A. Describe the normal process of haemostasis?
480 s) before initiating CPB
B. Describe the agents which may be employed for
4. 5000 IU unfractionated heparin in CPB prime
anticoagulation and reversal of anticoagulation for
solution.
cardiopulmonary bypass?
C. Describe the monitoring of anticoagulation 5. Monitor ACT at least every 30 min during CPB
throughout the procedure? 6. In cases of HIT, alternative anticoagulants can be
D. What is thromboelastography, draw a normal TEG used e.g. bivalirudin , Low molecular weight
trace? heparin (LMWH), Danaparoid, Lepirudin.
7. Reversal of heparinisation is by protamine 1mg
A. The normal process of haemostasis per 100 units of heparin administered.
The mechanism by which bleeding ceases following C. The monitoring of anticoagulation throughout the
vascular disruption has 3 key components: procedure
1. Primary haemostasis; vascular endothelium
disruption leading to vasoconstriction, platelet 1. Activated clotting time (ACT) is monitored every
adhesion as exposed to collagen and vWF bind to 30 min, it must be maintained > 480 sec.
GPIa and GPIb platelet receptors respectively. 2. APTT and PT are lab. tests only useful in the
2. Secondary haemostasis; ctivation of the perioperative period.
coagulation cascade to produce thrombin and then 3. Thromboelastography (TEG) measure whole
fibrin from fibrinogen. blood viscoelastic changes, a quick test taking
3. Fibrin strengthening and stabilization of the about 10 min.
platelet plug.
D. Thromboelastography
1. Thromboelastography (TEG) measures whole
blood viscoelastic changes associated with fibrin
polymerization.
2. Information about coagulation factor activity and
platelet function within 10–20 min.
3. A pin, attached to a torsion wire, is suspended into
a blood sample contained in an oscillating cuvette.
4. Clot forms gradually in the blood sample creating
increasing displacement of the pin.
5. This is translated into a graphical representation
6. Graph represents sheer elasticity vs time.
Fig. 26. The clotting pathways 7. The magnitude of the output represents the
strength of the fibrinplatelet bonds and gives a
B. The agents which may be employed for wide TEG
anticoagulation and reversal of anticoagulation for
cardiopulmonary bypass
52
Cardiac anaesthesia
16. Pacemakers and implantable 8. HOCM with sustained VT/VF in the absence of
reversible causes or with a family history of
defibrillators sudden cardiac death (SCD)
A. What are the indications for permanent pacing? C. Key information should be obtained about the
B. What are the indications of placement of a patient or device prior to anaesthesia and surgery
permanent defibrillator?
C. What key information should be obtained about 1. Ask for the patient's registration card for the
the patient/device prior to anaesthesia and device.
surgery? 2. Device manufacturer, model number, serial
D. What preoperative precautions should be taken number.
with regard to a patient with a pacemaker/ICD? 3. Anatomical position.
E. Describe the considerations in a patient with a 4. Indication
pacemaker that has not been switched off due to 5. Date of insertion.
emergent surgery?
6. Details of recent checkup and battery condition.
7. Mode of action.
8. Rate modulator function (should be deactivated
A. The indications for permanent pacing
prior to anaesthesia).
1. Acquired 3rd degree heart block. 9. Any dizziness, syncope or heart failure
2. Symptomatic acquired 2nd degree heart block. 10. Any recent deterioration in underlying medical
3. Chronic bifascicular and trifascicular block may condition
be the indications if 3rd degree block or 2nd 11. ECG – rhythm, pacemaker activity, electrical
degree (type II) occurs. capture.
4. PostMI infranodal AV block and associated BBB 12. CXR – position of box leads electrode and cardiac
or persistent and symptomatic 2nd or 3rd degree failure.
block 13. Electrolytes – abnormalities affect capturing
5. Sinus node dysfunction with symptomatic
bradycardia and frequent sinus pauses or
D. Preoperative precautions should be taken with
symptomatic chronotropic pauses
regard to a patient with a pacemaker or ICD
6. Sustained VT
7. Hypertensive carotid sinus syndrome
1. Careful preop visit and review of notes.
8. Hypertrophic or dilated cardiomyopathy with
2. Rate modulator function (should be deactivated
sinus node dysfunction or AV block
prior to anaesthesia).
9. After cardiac transplantation, if symptomatic
3. Organise an interrogation or checkup of the
bradyarrhythmias
device in the elective scenario
10. Chronic AF with associated bradycardia
4. Reprogramming of the device as is appropriate for
the patient and the type of surgery (e.g. devices
B. The indications of placement of a permanent
with minute ventilation sensors for rate
defibrillator
modulation)
5. Antitachycardia therapy should be disabled
1. VF or sudden cardiac death (SCD) survivors.
6. If there is high risk of ElectroMagnetic
2. VT causing syncope not related to acute MI or
Interference (EMI) then precautions include the
other correctable causes.
use of magnets if appropriate.
3. Minimally symptomatic VT with LVEF of < 35%.
7. For ICD patients they should be connected to an
4. Patients with previous MI with LVEF < 35%,
external defrillator and continuously monitored.
asymptomatic spontaneous nonsustained VT with
8. Decide the method of diathermy and arrange for a
sustained VT/VF
telemetric programmer to be present if extensive
5. Long QT syndrome with recurrent syncope or
closeproximity electrocautery is required.
family history of SCD.
9. Arrange postoperative reprogramming/checkup.
6. Brugada syndrome presenting with VT/VF or
10. Arrange postoperative care level e.g. may require
syncope with inducible VT
high dependency unit (HDU) care.
7. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia with
documented sustained VT/VF or those with a
family history of SCD.
E. The considerations in a patient with a pacemaker A. The basic physics of ultrasound and the doppler
that has not been switched off due to emergent surgery principle
1. Careful standard monitoring +/ invasive blood 1. Ultrasound is defined as sound with a frequency
pressure monitoring and careful placement of any greater than 20 kHz.
central venous access (avoid vessels with leads) 2. Echocardiography machines typically emit
2. Diathermy – use bipolar if possible and if not ultrasound at a frequency of 210 MHz. The speed
position as far away from device as possible, at of ultrasound is determined solely by the medium
lowest amplitude and use in short bursts through which the wave travels.
3. Patient positioning, shivering, alteration in heart 3. The speed of sound in the heart is approximately
size and positive pressure ventilation may all 1540 m.s1.
cause lead displacement which can result in loss 4. Ultra sound waves produce by using piezoelectric
of capture or increase in the pacing threshold effect in quartz crystals.
4. Shivering and fasciculation can confuse rate 5. Doppler: frequency of sound wave reflected from
modulators a moving object is different form the emitted
5. Peripheral nerve stimulators may interfere with frequency.
function
6. Defibrillation may cause damage B. The indications for transoesophageal
7. Have facilities for CPR, emergency defibrillation echocardiography
and temporary pacing available
8. Consider using a clinical magnet Specific indications for TOE:
9. Check function as soon after surgery as possible 1. Prolonged Imaging( Peri operative imaging)
2. Interest in posterior structures: LA,
3. High resolution required: Dx of Endocarditid
especially in Obese or Emphysematous pt
17. Ultrasound and transoesophageal
American college of cardiology 2011
echocardiography 1. Dx of Endocarditis
2. To evaluate suspected aortic pathology e.g.
A. Describe the basic physics of ultrasound. What is dissection
the Doppler principle? 3. To evaluate cardiac source of thrombus
B. What are the indications for transoesophageal 4. To evaluate for cardiac pathology when
echocardiography? transthoracic echo (TTE) is non diagnostic.
C. What are the contraindications for TOE relative 5. To facilitate clinical decision making e.g.
and absolute?
cardioversion, ablation of pt with AF, atrial flutter
D. What are the complications of TOE?
6. To assist with non coronary percutaneus cardiac
E. What haemodynamic variables can be measured
interventions e.g. percutaneous valve placement
or derived from TOE?
of closure devices, valvuloplasty.
7. In ICU to assess pt with:
a. Severe hypotension
b. Blunt chest trauma
c. Unexplained hypoxia
d. Uncertain volume status
8. To assess complications following MI i.e. valves
defects, ventricular septal defect, free wall rupture
with tamponade.
Relative:
1. Altered mental status
2. Oesophageal stricture or malignancy
3. Cervical spine arthritis with reduced movement
4. Severe thrombocytopaenia
Fig. 29. Transoesophageal echo 5. Surgical interposion of oesophagus
Derived:
1. Using flow signals of pulmonary artery, aortic and 1. Circulatory assist device, consists of double lumen
mitral and tricuspid valves and body surface area 89.5 French catheter with 2550 ml balloon
(BSA): attached at distal end and console with a pump to
a. Can calculate stroke volume (SV). drive balloon.
b. Can calculate stroke volume index (SVI). 2. Outer lumen used for gas delivery to balloon and
inner lumen for monitoring systemic arterial
pressure.
3. Helium often used because of low density and
18. Postoperative cardiac output failure easy absorption in case of balloon rupture.
4. Inserted via femoral artery using Seldinger
and the intraaortic balloon pump technique into descending aorta.
5. Tip 23 cm distal to origin left subclavian artery.
A. What are the causes of low cardiac output post 6. Console detects trigger for balloon deflation.
cardiac surgery? Commonly ECG waveform and systemic arterial
B. What is the mechanism of action pressure waveform.
C. What are the physiological effects of the 7. Counter pulsation Inflates with helium during
intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)? diastole (middle of T wave/dicrotic notch) and
D. What are the indications and contraindications for
deflates during systole (peak of R wave/just
the use of an IABP?
before upstroke on arterial pressure waveform)
E. What complications may be suffered as the result
8. Diastolic augmentation (see below)
of use of the IABP?
19. Adult congenital heart disease 13. Ventricular septal defect with associated anomaly, e.g.
aortic regurgitation, absent valve, subaortic
(ACHD) stenosis, mitral valve disease, right ventricular
outflow tract obstruction, straddling
A. How may grownup congenital heart disease atrioventricular valve
(CHD) be classified?
B. What are the specific considerations in Severe complexity ACHD
anaesthetising adult patients with CHD?
C. What are the factors increasing and decreasing 1. Conduits valved or nonvalved
pulmonary vascular resistance? 2. All types of cyanotic heart disease
D. What factors make patients with CHD more prone 3. Doubleoutlet ventricle
to haemorrhage? 4. Eisenmenger syndrome
E. Which groups of patients should receive antibiotic 5. Fontan procedure or TCPC
prophylaxis against infective endocarditis? 6. Mitral, tricuspid, or pulmonary atresia
7. Pulmonary hypertension
A. Classification of the grownup congenital heart 8. Any singleventricle circulation
disease (CHD) 9. Transposition of the great vessels
10. Truncus arteriosus
Simple ACHD 11. Very rare complex anomalies, e.g. crisscross
heart, isomerism, ventricular inversion, heterotaxy
1. Unrepaired lesion syndromes
a. Isolated aortic valve disease (13/1000
live births)
b. Isolated mitral valve disease (excluding B. The specific considerations in anaesthetising adult
mitral cleft or parachute valve) patients with CHD
c. Isolated patent foramen ovale, small
atrioseptal defect, or ventricular septal Factors to consider before undertaking anaesthesia in a
defect patient with ACHD:
d. Mild pulmonary stenosis
1. A clear understanding of the anatomical
2. Repaired lesion configuration of the heart and great vessels and its
a. Previously ligated or occluded ductus associated pathophysiology is essential
arteriosus 2. A clear understanding of any associated
b. Repaired sinus venosus or secundum noncardiac disease and the often fragile
atrioseptal defect without residual defect emotional state of these patients when they
c. Repaired ventricular septal defect discover they need to undergo anaesthesia and
without residual defect surgery
3. The risk of associated cardiac arrhythmias,
Moderate complexity ACHD including the management of pacemakers and
implanted defibrillators
1. Aorta to left ventricular fistula 4. The possible negative inotropic, vasodilatory
2. Partial or total anomalous pulmonary venous effects of anaesthesia, or both, particularly in the
drainage presence of heart failure
3. Atrioventricular canal defects partial or complete 5. The impact of the chosen ventilatory strategy on
4. Coarctation of the aorta the distribution of blood flow
5. Ebstein’s anomaly 6. Awareness of possible residual defects in patients
6. Significant infundibular right ventricular outflow who have undergone previous repair (paradoxical
tract obstruction embolism, air embolism, pulmonary hypertension,
7. Ostium primum or sinus venosus atrioseptal defect Eisenmenger’s syndrome)
8. Unrepaired ductus arteriosus 7. The need for antibiotic and thromboprophylaxis
9. Moderatetosevere pulmonary stenosis or 8. The risk of bleeding
regurgitation 9. In older patients, additional comorbid disease
10. Sinus of valsalva fistula or aneurysm should be considered, e.g. coronary artery disease,
11. Subvalvular or supravalvular aortic stenosis heart failure, diabetes mellitus, renal impairment
12. Tetralogy of Fallot
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
A widely prevalent comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes, obesity, myocardial ischemia, thyroid, kidney and
liver disease are having special relevance to an anaesthetic plan. Sound knowledge of physiology is necessary for
understanding the pathophysiology of a diseases process, this together with knowledge of the effects of drugs and their
mechanisms of action will form an efficient guide to a safer management and events prediction specially in the intra, and
postoperative courses. It's also important to determine when to consult a speciality and what to request from the laboratory
or Xray department.
In a study conducted by Eyelade O, et al. in AprJun 2016, 165 adult patients aged between 18 and 84 years were studied.
Hypertension was the most common comorbidity in this cohort of patients. The number of patients submitted to major
surgery affected by one or more comorbidities is progressively increasing. Outcome is the final output measured as
postoperative morbidity, mortality and quality of life.
Strategies to improve outcome can be divided in some fundamental steps including preoperative evaluation and
optimization, no discontinuation of preoperative drug treatments specially in cardiac patient; choice of adequate
monitoring techniques, checking of patient metabolic state and oxidative balance; choice of the best anesthesia;
postoperative care, particularly due to identify the best management of the critical patient between the different levels of
assistance. In conclusion, a patient with comorbidities scheduled for major surgery needs a full anesthetistintensivist
involvement, which broadens the role of the anaesthetist in the perioperative medicine. Outcome is the result of many
interventions during patient course, including economic costs and the importance of an appropriate treatment.
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