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1.2 - Forwards and Futures, Pricing

The document provides an introduction to pricing forwards and futures contracts. It discusses how the forward price (F0) is determined using no-arbitrage arguments. Specifically, F0 equals the expected future spot price discounted at the risk-free rate, or S0(1+r)T. The document also discusses how hedging with the underlying asset eliminates risk for parties entering forward contracts. It provides examples of pricing forwards on gold under different market conditions and identifying arbitrage opportunities that would arise if the forward price differed from the theoretical price.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views

1.2 - Forwards and Futures, Pricing

The document provides an introduction to pricing forwards and futures contracts. It discusses how the forward price (F0) is determined using no-arbitrage arguments. Specifically, F0 equals the expected future spot price discounted at the risk-free rate, or S0(1+r)T. The document also discusses how hedging with the underlying asset eliminates risk for parties entering forward contracts. It provides examples of pricing forwards on gold under different market conditions and identifying arbitrage opportunities that would arise if the forward price differed from the theoretical price.

Uploaded by

cutehiboux
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Introduction to Options and Futures

Options
(& others)
Hedging
Financial with…
markets and
Swaps
corporate
applications
Pricing…
Forwards
and Futures
 Determine the prices of forwards and futures

 Introduce “no arbitrage” arguments

 General formulas for forward prices

 Forwards, futures, and expected spot prices


 Forward contract
The buyer and seller agree today upon the
delivery of a specified quantity and quality of an
asset at a future date for a given price
Today (𝒕 = 𝟎) Future date (𝒕 = 𝑻)
Terms and conditions: On settlement:
. Price (𝐹0 ) . Delivery of the asset
. Quantity & quality . Payment of 𝐹0
. Settlement date (𝑇)
. Location for delivery
 How is 𝐹0 determined?

▪ How much to pay for asset (stock, oil, gold, …) today?

▪ How much to pay for asset (stock, oil, gold, …) in 6m?


 How is 𝐹0 determined?
▪ What would it cost to buy the asset today, hold it until the
future date, and then deliver it?

𝐹0 = 𝐹𝑉 𝑆𝑂
𝑆0 : spot price of the underlying asset (today)
𝐹0 : future price for transaction (set today)
𝐹𝑉: “Compute the future value” (just as PV is a present value)
 Hedging portfolio
Value of a security = cost of hedging its risk

 Replicating portfolio
Value of a security = cost of a portfolio of securities
that generates the same payoff

 Underlying both approaches: No arbitrage


 A $100 bill is lying on the ground. Two
economists pass by. One tells the other:
«Didn’t you see the money there?»
 «I thought I did, but I must have imagined it.
If there really had been $100, someone would
have picked it up already»
 ‘No free lunches’
 Approach #1: Suppose you sell a forward

 What risk do you face, at maturity?


 What payoffs for buyer and seller at 𝑡 = 𝑇?

𝑡=0 𝑡=𝑇

Forward Buyer Seller Buyer Seller


contract … … … …
 Approach #1: Suppose you sell a forward

 What risk do you face, at maturity?

 How would you hedge that risk?


 How can the seller deliver the asset at 𝑡 = 𝑇?

𝑡=0 𝑡=𝑇

Forward Buyer Seller Buyer Seller


contract … … … …

Buyer Seller Buyer Seller


How can the
seller “hedge”? … …
… …
 Approach #1: Suppose you sell a forward

 What risk do you face, at maturity?

 How would you hedge that risk?

 Finance the purchase of the underlying by


borrowing cash
 How do we make our portfolio (short fwd +
hedge)
▪ Risk-free?
▪ A “fair” deal, such that we want to hold it?
 Therefore: 𝐹0 = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇
 Key idea to price assets: Replication
Law of one price (“LOOP”): two assets with
the same future payoff must have the same
price
 Approach #2: Put together a combination of
assets, whose price you know, that replicates
the same payoff as the forward
 Same future payoff ⇒ Same price today
 Borrowing to buy the asset today replicates a
short position in the forward
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Short forward $0 Settle forward 𝐹0 − 𝑆𝑇
Buy asset −𝑆0 Asset value +𝑆𝑇
𝑇
Borrow +𝑆0 Repay loan −𝑆0 1 + 𝑟
Profit = Profit =

No arbitrage: No risk-free profits. How do we make 0


profits at 𝑡 = 0 and 𝑡 = 𝑇? 𝐹0 = …
 Suppose 𝑘 is the expected return on the
underlying, such that:
𝑇
𝐸 𝑆𝑇 = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑘
 Since 𝑆𝑇 is risky, 𝑘 will incorporate a risk
adjustment (just think of the CAPM!)
 Our expression for 𝐹0 is similar to 𝐸 𝑆𝑇 , but
has no risk adjustment
𝐹0 = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇
 Intuitively: 𝐹0 is an expectation of 𝑆𝑇 , in a
market where investors are indifferent to risk
 Thus: “risk-neutral” pricing
 We will see (a lot) more about this when we
discuss option pricing!
 Suppose:
▪ 1-year maturity

▪ Spot price of gold 𝑆0 = $390/oz

▪ 1-year interest rate 𝑟 = 5% per annum

▪ No income; no storage cost

 Plugging in our expression, 𝐹0 = …


 What if the quoted 𝐹0 is $425. What is the arbitrage
opportunity?

 Arbitrage strategy: “Buy low, sell high”


▪ “Buy low”: What is cheap? …

▪ “Sell high”: What is expensive? …

▪ Thus our strategy must go long , and


short .
 If 𝐹0 = $425, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract

𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Settle futures:
Short futures $0 deliver gold at $425 − 𝑆𝑇
𝐹0
Buy gold −$390 Gold value 𝑆𝑇
Borrow +$390 Repay loan −$390 1 + 5%
Profit = Profit =
 If 𝑭𝟎 > 𝑺𝟎 𝟏 + 𝒓 𝑻 , then arbitrage by going long
underlying and short the futures contract

𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Settle futures:
Short futures 0 deliver gold at 𝐹0 − 𝑆𝑇
𝐹0
Buy gold −𝑆0 Gold value 𝑆𝑇
Borrow +𝑆0 Repay loan −𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇

Profit = 0 Profit = 𝐹0 − 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇
 What if the quoted 𝐹0 is $390. What is the arbitrage
opportunity?

 Arbitrage strategy: “Buy low, sell high”


▪ “Buy low”: What is cheap? …

▪ “Sell high”: What is expensive? …

▪ Thus our strategy must go long , and


short .
 If 𝐹0 = $390, then arbitrage by going short underlying
and long the futures contract

𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Settle futures:
Long futures $0 𝑆𝑇 − $390
pay 𝐹0 for gold
Shortsell gold +$390 Gold value −𝑆𝑇
Invest in 1-yr −$390 Get bond +$390
bond payoff × 1 + 5%
Profit = Profit =
 If 𝑭𝟎 < 𝑺𝟎 𝟏 + 𝒓 𝑻 , then arbitrage by going short
underlying and long the futures contract

𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Settle futures:
Long futures 0 𝑆𝑇 − 𝐹0
pay 𝐹0 for gold
Shortsell gold +𝑆0 Gold value −𝑆𝑇
Invest in 1-yr Get bond 𝑇
−𝑆0 +𝑆0 1 + 𝑟
bond payoff
Profit = 0 Profit = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇 − 𝐹0
The spot price of an investment asset that
provides no income is $30; the 3-year forward
price is $40. What is the 3-year risk-free rate of
return?
𝑇
 Start from 𝐹0 = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟

𝐹0 𝑇
𝐹0
= 1+𝑟 ⇒ ln = 𝑇 ln 1 + 𝑟
𝑆0 𝑆0

1 𝐹0
⇒ ln = ln 1 + 𝑟
𝑇 𝑆0
1 𝐹0
⇒ exp ln − 1 = 𝑟 = 10.1%
𝑇 𝑆0
𝑇
 What about 𝑟 = 𝐹0 /𝑆0 − 1?

 Also correct…

 …but it can be impractical (what if 𝑇 = 10?)

 …and manipulating logarithms comes in


handy in our later classes
 Sell something you don’t own
 Broker borrows the assets from another client and sells
them in the market
 Later: the short seller buys assets back, to replace them
in the client’s account
 Short sale proceeds remain with the broker, and
investor must post collateral (“margin”)
 Short seller must pay dividends and other benefits to
the asset owner
 Why sell something short?
 No arbitrage assumption is extremely useful,
but is it always true?

 What do you think we need for no arbitrage?

 What happens if arbitrage is limited?


 2 March 2000: 3Com IPOs
5% of Palm shares to public
 1 March 2000: 3Com trades
at $104.30
 2 March 2000, close:
▪ Palm trades at $95.06
▪ 3Com should trade at $145 3Com shareholders to
▪ 3Com price: $81.81 receive 1.5 Palm shares
for each 3Com share
50%

3Com Palm
Cumulative Excess Return

0%

Mar May Jul Sep Nov

-50%

-100%

-150% Mar – Oct 2000: 7 months


“The market
can stay
irrational
longer than
you can stay
solvent”
J. M. Keynes
 Why does the mispricing
persist?
 Further reading:
Lamont, O. A., and R. H.
Thaler, 2001, Can the market
add and subtract?, NBER
Working paper 8302
 Price of forwards in the simplest case:
𝑇
𝐹0 = 𝑆0 1 + 𝑟

 Next: Let’s adapt it to a number of realistic


cases
 Suppose:
▪ 1-year maturity, spot price of gold 𝑆0 = $390/oz, 1-
year interest rate 𝑟 = 5% per annum, no income

▪ Present value of storage cost: 𝐶 = $10

𝑇
 Arbitrage pricing: 𝐹0 = 𝑆0 + 𝐶 1 + 𝑟
 In our example:
 If 𝐹0 = $425, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract

𝒕=𝟎 𝒕=𝑻
Settle futures:
Short futures $0 deliver gold at 𝐹0 − 𝑆𝑇
𝐹0
Buy gold −𝑆0 Gold value 𝑆𝑇
Borrow +𝑆0 Repay loan −𝑆0 1 + 𝑟 𝑇
Storage? $0 Pay storage −𝐶 1 + 𝑟 𝑇
Profit = Profit =
 Quoted interest rates usually annualized, with
an implicit compounding convention
 5% compounded semi-annually: a 2.5%
payment every 6 months
 $1 invested at (annualized) 𝑟 with a
compounding frequency 𝑛 yields, after 1 year:
𝑟 𝑛
$ 1+
𝑛

 With continuous compounding: $𝑒 𝑟


Number of Value of 5%
Compounding periods per $1 value after
frequency one year interest, at
year (𝒏)
different
Annually 1 1 + 5.0000% compounding
Semi-annually 2 1 + 5.0625% frequencies
Quarterly 4 1 + 5.0945%
Monthly 12 1 + 5.1162%
Weekly 52 1 + 5.1246%
Daily 365 1 + 5.1267%
Hourly 4,380 1 + 5.1271%
Per minute 262,800 1 + 5.1271%
Continuously ∞ 1 + 5.1271%
Number of Example: 𝑆0 =
Compounding periods per Loan payback $390, 𝑟 = 5%,
frequency
year (𝒏)
𝑇 = 1 year.
Annually 1 How much to
Semi-annually 2 pay back at
Quarterly 4 different
Monthly 12 compounding
Weekly 52 frequencies?
Daily 365
Hourly 4,380
Per minute 262,800
Continuously ∞
You receive €1,100 in one year, in return for a
€1,000 upfront investment. What is your
percentage return with…
(a) Annual compounding?
(b) Semiannual compounding?
(c) Continuous compounding?
Annual compounding:
1,100
− 1 = 10%
1,000
Semiannual compounding:
𝑟 2
1,000 × 1 + = 1,100
2
Continuous compounding:
1,000𝑒 𝑟 = 1,100
 No income, no storage costs:
𝐹0 = 𝑆0 𝑒 𝑟𝑇
 Income = negative storage cost. For
example?

 Known income, with present value 𝐼:


𝐹0 = 𝑆0 − 𝐼 𝑒 𝑟𝑇
 Suppose:
▪ 1-year maturity

▪ Stock with 𝑆0 = $100, paying $5.2 dividend in 6m

▪ Interest rates: 𝑟6𝑚 = 8.16%, 𝑟12𝑚 = 10%

 (Dividend) income = negative storage cost


𝐹0 = 𝑆0 − 𝐼 𝑒 𝑟𝑇
where 𝐼 = PV of future dividends
 What if the quoted 𝐹0 is $115. What is the arbitrage
opportunity?

 Arbitrage strategy: “Buy low, sell high”


▪ “Buy low”: What is cheap? …

▪ “Sell high”: What is expensive? …

▪ Thus, our strategy must go long , and


short .
 If 𝐹0 = $115, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕 = 𝟔𝒎 𝒕=𝑻
Short 𝐹 $0
Buy 𝑆 −$100
Borrow
$5.2𝑒 −0.5×8.16%
PV(dividend)
Borrow PV(𝐹0∗ ) $105𝑒 −10%
Profit = $0
 If 𝐹0 = $115, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕 = 𝟔𝒎 𝒕=𝑻
Short 𝐹 $0
Buy 𝑆 −$100
Borrow
+$5
PV(dividend)
Borrow PV(𝐹0∗ ) +$95
Profit = $0
 If 𝐹0 = $115, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕 = 𝟔𝒎 𝒕=𝑻
Short 𝐹 $0 $0
Buy 𝑆 −$100 +$5.2
Borrow
+$5 −$5.2
PV(dividend)
Borrow PV(𝐹0∗ ) +$95 $0
Profit = $0 $0
 If 𝐹0 = $115, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕 = 𝟔𝒎 𝒕=𝑻
Short 𝐹 $0 $0 $115 − 𝑆𝑇
Buy 𝑆 −$100 +$5.2 𝑆𝑇
Borrow
+$5 −$5.2 $0
PV(dividend)
Borrow PV(𝐹0∗ ) +$95 $0 −$105
Profit = $0 $0 $10
 If 𝐹0 = $115, then arbitrage by going long underlying
and short the futures contract
𝒕=𝟎 𝒕 = 𝟔𝒎 𝒕=𝑻
Short 𝐹 $0 $0 $115 − 𝑆𝑇
Buy 𝑆 −$100 +$5.2 𝑆𝑇
Borrow
+$5 −$5.2 $0
PV(dividend)
Borrow PV(𝐹0∗ ) +$95 $0 −$105
Profit = $0 $0 $𝟏𝟎
 Stock index
▪ Tracks the return on a hypothetical portfolio of
stocks
▪ Various kinds of weights, prop. to prices, market
cap, trading volume, …
▪ Ex. S&P500, Euro Stoxx 50, MSCI World

 Futures on stock indexes: typically settled in


cash
 With stock indexes, it makes more sense to
assume a known income yield 𝑞 than a given
$ income.

 Why do you think that is?

 Modify our forward price expression as:


𝑟−𝑞 𝑇
𝐹0 = 𝑆0 𝑒
 Forward on foreign currencies
Foreign currency = same as a security
providing a yield equal to the foreign interest
rate 𝑟𝑓
𝑟−𝑟𝑓 𝑇
𝐹0 = 𝑆0 𝑒

 Does this look familiar?


The risk-free interest rate is 9% per annum, and
the dividend yield on a stock index varies
throughout the year: In February, May, August,
and November, dividends are paid at a rate of 5%
per annum. In other months, dividends are paid at
a rate of 2% per annum. Suppose that the value of
the index on July 31 is 1,300. What is the futures
price for a contract deliverable on December 31 of
the same year?
 Time to maturity = ?

 Average dividend yield over the contract’s life?


1
3 × 2% + 2 × 5% = 3.2%
5
 Plug into the futures price:
5
9%−3.2% ×
𝐹0 = 1,300𝑒 12 = 1,331.80
The 2-month interest rates in Switzerland and
the United States are, respectively, 1% and 2%.
The spot price of the Swiss franc is $1.0500. The
futures price for a contract deliverable in two
months is also $1.0500. Are there any arbitrage
opportunities? If yes, please describe your
arbitrage strategy. If not, why not?
 How do we know if there are arbitrage
opportunities?

 Theoretical price:
2
2%−1% ×
𝐹0 = 1.0500𝑒 12 = 1.0518
 The futures contract is undervalued! To make an
arbitrage, we should…
 Futures price = Expected price in the future?

Futures Spot

Spot Futures

Time Time

Futures price should converge to spot price near


maturity (…otherwise?)
 Expectations hypothesis
𝐹0
𝐹0 = 𝐸 𝑆𝑇
 Can this be true in
general? 𝑆𝑇 is risky! Expectations
hyp.

Time
 Backwardation
𝐹0
𝐹0 < 𝐸 𝑆𝑇
 If speculators are long,
they require higher Expectations
hyp.
return
Backwardation

Time
 Contango
𝐹0
𝐹0 > 𝐸 𝑆𝑇
 If hedgers are long, they Contango

willing to pay a higher Expectations


hyp.
futures price to kill risk
Backwardation

Time
 Modern approach: Risk & return
 Suppose you are a speculator, and expect 𝑆𝑇
to be greater than 𝐹0 at time 𝑇
 What happens to 𝐹0 today?
 Consider the following strategy:

1. Enter a long futures position

2. Invest 𝐹0 𝑒 −𝑟𝑇 at risk-free rate 𝑟

 Ideally: At 𝑇 you obtain 𝐹0 and use it to pay


for the futures, obtaining 𝑆𝑇
 Cash flows:
▪ 𝑡 = 0:
−𝐹0 𝑒 −𝑟𝑇 + 0

▪ 𝑡 = 𝑇:
𝑆𝑇 − 𝐹0 + 𝐹0 = 𝑆𝑇
Long futures Risk-free
investment
 Value of the investment?
−𝐹0 𝑒 −𝑟𝑇 + 𝐸 𝑆𝑇 𝑒 −𝑘𝑇
where 𝑘 = risk-adjusted discount rate.
 No arbitrage: −𝐹0 𝑒 −𝑟𝑇 + 𝐸 𝑆𝑇 𝑒 −𝑘𝑇 = 0, or
𝑟−𝑘 𝑇
𝐹0 = 𝐸 𝑆𝑇 𝑒
 Thus: depends on 𝑘 ≷ 𝑟.
 CAPM
𝑘 = 𝑟 + 𝛽 𝐸 𝑟𝑀 − 𝑟

 When is 𝑘 > 𝑟?

 What kind of assets have 𝑘 < 𝑟?

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