Fiitjee Aits 2023 Megred Yash Patil
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TEST / Live Online CSCP
Yash Patil
FIITJEE Computer Based All India Test Series for JEE Main & JEE Advanced 2023
with Live Online Concept Strengthening Classroom Program (CSCP)
Schedule
Test Dates & Timings
1 PART TEST - I (Main) November 12, 2022 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi November 15, 2022 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
2 PART TEST - I (Advanced) November 20, 2022 (Paper 1- 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2- 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi November 22, 2022 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
3 PART TEST - II (Main) December 3, 2022 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi December 6, 2022 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
4 PART TEST - II (Advanced) December 11, 2022 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi December 13, 2022 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
5 PART TEST - III (Main) December 17, 2022 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi December 20, 2022 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
6 PART TEST - III (Advanced) December 25, 2022 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi December 27, 2022 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
7*, 8* FULL TEST - I (Main) & Full Test -I (Advanced) December 28, 2022 (Tests will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
9 FULL TEST - II (Main) January 7, 2023 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi January 10, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
10 FULL TEST - III (Main) January 11, 2023 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi January 13, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
11 OPEN TEST (Main) January 15, 2023 (9:00 AM to 12:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi January 17, 2023, 12:45 PM onwards
12* FULL TEST V (Main) January 18, 2023 (Tests will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
13 FULL TEST - VI (Main) January 19, 2023 (9:00 AM to 12:00 PM)
14*, 15* CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I, II (Main) January 20, 2023 (Tests will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16 OPEN TEST I (Advanced) February 5, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi February 7, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
17*, 18*, 19* FULL TEST III, IV & V (Advanced) February 8, 2023 (Tests will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
20 FULL TEST - VII (Main) March 22, 2023 (9:00 AM to 12:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi March 24, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
21 FULL TEST - VIII (Main) March 25, 2023 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi March 26, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
22*,23* CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST PAPERS – SET III, IV (Main) March 27, 2023 (Test will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
24 FULL TEST - IX (Main) March 28, 2023 (9:00 AM to 12:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi March 29, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
25 FULL TEST - X (Main) March 31, 2023 (3:00 PM to 6:00 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi April 1, 2023 (12:45 PM to 7:45 PM)
26 FULL TEST - XI (Main) April 2, 2023 (9:00 AM to 12:00 PM)
27 OPEN TEST II (Advanced) April 16, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi April 18, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
28 FULL TEST - VII (Advanced) April 23, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi April 25, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
29*,30*,
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST PAPERS - SET I, II, III & IV (Advanced) April 26, 2023 (Test will be live for 7 days at fiitjee.glorifire.com)
31*,32*
33 FULL TEST - VIII (Advanced) April 30, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi May 2, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
34 FULL TEST - IX (Advanced) May 7, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi May 9, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
35 FULL TEST - X (Advanced) May 14, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi May 16, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
36 FULL TEST - XI (Advanced) May 21, 2023 (Paper 1-9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Paper 2-2:30 PM to 5:30 PM)
Live Online CSCP by FIITJEE Delhi May 23, 2023 (10:30 AM to 5:30 PM)
1. Tests can be taken from CBT Centers located at cities namely Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Amritsar, Bangalore, Bhilai, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Bokaro, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Delhi (Dwarka), Delhi (East),
Delhi (North-West), Delhi (South), Delhi NCR (Faridabad), Delhi NCR (Ghaziabad), Delhi NCR (Gurugram), Delhi NCR (Noida), Dhanbad, Durgapur, Gorakhpur, Gwalior, Hyderabad, Indore, Jaipur, Jamshedpur,
Jodhpur, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Kolkata, Kota, Lucknow, Meerut, Mumbai, Nagpur, Patna, Pune, Raipur, Ranchi, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam.
2. Tests can also be taken from home on one’s own computer.
3. * marked Tests can be taken only at https://fiitjee.glorifire.com. Tests will be live for 7 days from the given date.
4. Link for Live Online CSCP will be sent by WhatsApp to your registered mobile number one/ two days before the session.
Part Test - I
Yash Patil
FIITJEE Computer Based All India Test Series for JEE Main, 2023
Syllabus
Atomic Structure, Chemical Kinetics, Chemical Equilibrium, Balancing of Redox Reaction, Ionic Equilibrium, Chemical Bonding, s-Block and Hydrogen, Boron and
CHEMISTRY Carbon Family, Periodic Properties
Sets, Relations and Functions, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite Integration, Definite Integrals and their Properties,
MATHEMATICS Area, Differential Equations, Volume & Surface
Units and Measurement, Kinematics (Motion in One Dimension), Vectors, Kinematics (Motion in Two and Three Dimensions), Relative motion, Laws of Motion,
PHYSICS
Work, Energy and Power, Center of mass, Conservation of momentum Collisions, Circular motion, Rotational Motion
Part Test -II
CHEMISTRY Organic Chemistry (Including GOC), Practical Organic Chemistry, Biomolecules, Polymers
MATHEMATICS Trigonometric Ratios and Identities, Trigonometric Equations, Heights and distance, Solution of triangle,Straight Lines, Circles, Parabola, Ellipse, Hyperbola
Kinetic theory of gases, Heat and Thermodynamics (second law+reversible and irreversible process, carnot engine+thermal expansion + calorimetry), Transfer of
Heat + convection, Electrostatics, Current Electricity (color code of resistors), Thermal Effects of Current, Magnetic Effects of Current, Pure magnetism (current loop
PHYSICS as magnetic dipole and its moment), bar magnet, magnetic field lines, earth magnetism, para-dia-ferro), Magnets, susceptibility and permeability, hysteresis,
eleectromagnets and permanent magnets, Magnetostatics, Electromagnetics Induction and Alternating Currents (ac generator and transformer, watless current,
quality factor)
Part Test - III
Group V to VIII, Transition Elements & Coordination Compounds, f-Block elements, Ores and Metallurgy, Liquid Solution, Surface Chemistry, Electrochemistry,
CHEMISTRY
Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry, Stoichiometry, Gaseous State, Qualitative Analysis, Solid State, Environmental Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life
Progression and Series, Quadratic Equations and Expressions, Complex Numbers, Binomial Theorem, Matrices, Determinants, Permutation and Combination,
MATHEMATICS
Statistics (Measures of Dispersion) and Probability, Probability Distribution, Binomial Distribution, Vector, Three Dimensional Geometry
Oscillations (forced and damped oscillations), Wave & Sound, Ray Optics (microscope and astronomical telescope), Wave Optics (diffraction (single slit), resolving
TG ~ @bohring_bot
power of microscope and astronomical telescope, polarisation, brewesters law, uses of polaroids and polarised light), Electromagnetic Waves, Dual Nature of Matter
PHYSICS
& Radiation, Atoms, Molecules and Nuclei, Electronic Devices & Communication Systems, Experimental Skills in Physics, Gravitation, Properties of Solids and Fluids +
streamline flow, turbulent flow, reynolds number, Geometrical Optics, Semi Conductor Devices
Note : Full Tests syllabi will be same as that of Part Test - I, II & III combined.
FIITJEE Computer Based All India Test Series for JEE Advanced, 2023
Syllabus
Part Test - I
Atomic Structure, Chemical Kinetics, Chemical Equilibrium, Balancing of Redox Reaction, Ionic Equilibrium, Chemical Bonding, s-Block and Hydrogen, Boron
CHEMISTRY
and Carbon Family
Functions, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite Integration, Definite Integrals and their properties, Area, Differential
MATHEMATICS Equations
PHYSICS Kinematics, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, Conservation of Momentum, Rotation
Part Test - II
CHEMISTRY Organic Chemistry (Including GOC), Practical Organic Chemistry, Biomolecules, Polymers
MATHEMATICS Trigonometric ratios and Identities, Trigonometric equations, Solution of triangles, Straight Lines,Circles, Parabola, Ellipse, Hyperbola
PHYSICS Heat and Thermodynamics, Electrostatics, Current Electricity, Magnetics, Electromagnetic Induction, A.C. Circuit
Part Test - III
Group V to VIII, Transition Elements & Coordination Compounds, Ores and Metallurgy, Liquid Solution, Electrochemistry, Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry,
CHEMISTRY
Stoichiometry, Gaseous State,Qualitative Analysis, Solid State
Progression and Series, Quadratic Equation s and Expressions, Complex Numbers, BinomialTheorem, Matrices, Determinants, Permutation and Combination, Probability,
MATHEMATICS Vector, Three Dimensional Geometry
PHYSICS Gravitation, Fluids, Simple Harmonic Motion, Waves & Sound, Optics, Modern Physics, Error Analysis
Note : Full Tests syllabi will be same as that of Part Test - I, II & III combined.
Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 12-11-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In the diagram, the variation of coefficient of friction of the surface is shown. The external force F
applied on board is equal to 2Mg. Now the board is gently pulled so it starts moving. The
variation of acceleration of board with respect to displacement has been shown. The ratio tan 1:
tan 2: tan 3 is
F a
smooth smooth
A B C D
l l l 3
Coefficient of friction for
A to B = 3, B to C = 2, C to D =
2
1
x
(A) 3 : 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 4 : 1
(C) 3 : 4 : 5 (D) 1 : 2 : 3
2.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
In terms of the basic units of mass M, length L, time T and charge Q, the dimensions of magnetic
permeability of vacuum 0 are
(A) [MLQ2] (B) [ML2T1Q2]
1
(C) [LTQ ] (D) [LT1Q1]
3. A thin massless rod of length 2 has equal point masses m attached at its
ends as shown in the figure. The rod is rotating about an axis passing
m
through its centre and making angle with it. The magnitude of net torque
about O is
(A) 2m 2 2 sin cos (B) 2m 2 2 sin
2 2 2 2 2 2 O
(C) 2m sin (D) 2m cos
4. A rain drop falling vertically under gravity gathers moisture from the atmosphere at a rate given by
dm
kt 2 , where m is the instantaneous mass, t is time and k is a constant. The equation of
dt
dv dm
motion of the rain drop is m v mg
dt dt
If the drop starts falling at t = 0, with zero initall velocity and initial mass m0(m0 = 2 gm, k = 12
gm/s3 and g = 1000 cm/s2), the velocity v of the drop after one second is
(A) 250 cm/s (B) 500 cm/s
(C) 750 cm/s (D) 1000 cm/s
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
2 x2
5. A particle is released at x = 1 in a force field F(x) 2 ˆ x 0. Which one of the following
x,
x 2
statement is FALSE?
(A) F(x) is conservative
(B) The angular momentum of the particle about the origin is constant
(C) The particle moves towards x 2
(D) The particle moves towards the origin
6. A small mass M, is given an initial velocity v0, and it M v0
A X B
slides from A to B via two possible paths; either down
the shallow dip X or over the hump Y, both of which are
the same shape but inverted. Friction is to be ignored.
Along which path does the mass take the shortest time M v0
to slide from A to B? A Y B
(A) Via X (B) Via Y
(C) You cannot say (D) Same time taken
7. The graph below represents the kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, and total energy of
a moving block. Which best describes the motion of the block?
Key
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Energy Kinetic energy
Gravitational potential energy
Total energy
0
Distance moved
(A) Sliding down an incline with constant friction
(B) Falling at a constant velocity
(C) Acceleration on a flat horizontal surface
(D) Falling freely under gravity
8. A ball of mass m is attached to the end of a thread fastened to the top of a O
vertical rod which is fitted to a horizontally revolving round table as shown. If w
the thread forms an angle with the vertical, the angular velocity of table is
g r r
(A) (B)
cos g tan
gtan g tan
(C) (D)
r sin r
9. In the figure shown, pulley and spring are ideal. If k is spring constant of
spring, the potential energy stored in it at equilibrium is (m1 > m2)
2m12 g2 2m22 g2
(A) (B)
k k
2 2 2 2
(m1 m2 ) g 1 (m1 m2 ) g
(C) (D) m1
k 2 k m2
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
A
10. A rod of mass m and length is hinged at one of its end A as shown in the
figure. A force F is applied at a distance ‘x’ from A. The acceleration of centre
of mass ‘a’ varies with ‘x’ as x
(A) a (B) a
x x
(C) a (D) a
x x
11. A smooth rod OP is fixed vertically. A disc of mass m and radius R P
is rolling without slipping on a rough horizontal surface as shown.
Velocity of centre of mass of disc is v0. A rod AB of length L is
connected with disc at A, R/2 distance vertically up from centre of
A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
disc with pin joint (about which it can rotate freely), other end of the 60° v0
rod is attached to a small smooth ring B, which can move freely B R
over rod OP. At an instant rod AB makes an angle 60° with the
O
vertical. The velocity of ring on the vertical rod at this instant is
3 3 3
(A) v0 (B) v 0
2 2
v
(C) v0 (D) 0
2
12. The police is chasing a thief and both move on same straight v(m/s)
road. After passing a particular point, their velocity v vary with
time t as shown in the figure. When will the police catch the thief?
(A) 90 sec (B) 80 sec
(C) 60 sec (D) 120 sec
30 40 t(s)
13. Last mango in the mango tree is located at 30 m horizontal and 40 m vertical from a boy. The
speed and angle with horizontal with which the boy should throw a stone so as to hit the last
mango?
(A) 50 m/s, tan1(2) (B) 30 m/s, tan1(3)
(C) 30 m/s, tan1(2) (D) 20 m/s, tan1(3)
14. A plate bent at right angles along its centre line, is placed onto a horizontal
fixed cylinder of radius R as shown. The minimum co-efficient of friction
between the cylinder and the plate so that plate does not slip off the cylinder
will be (Assume mass of plate and cylinder to be same) R
1
(A) (B) 2 Side view
2
1
(C) 2 1 (D) 1
2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
15. Two sectors made of same material and same radius R but angle 120
and 60 are arranged as shown with centre as origin. Find the location of
centre of mass?
2R( 3 1) R( 3 1)
(A) (B)
3 3 60 60
3R( 3 1) 4R( 3 1)
(C) (D) O
3 3
30 30
16. Two object of the same mass slide down on two different
smooth fixed incline plane of same height but of different
angles. When they reach the bottom then I1 and I2 are the h
impulse of the weight of first and second object. Choose the
2 1
correct option.
I1 sin 1 I1 sin 2
(A) (B)
I2 sin 2 I2 sin 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
I1 tan 1 I1 tan 2
(C) (D)
I2 tan 2 I2 tan 1
17. The instantaneous velocity of a body moving in a straight line v (m/s)
changes with time as shown in the figure. Choose the correct 5
average velocity versus time depicting the same motion? 4
3
2
1
1 2 3 4 t (sec)
(A) vavg (B) vavg
4 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
1 2 3 4 t (sec) 1 2 3 4 t (sec)
(C) vavg (D) vavg
4 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
1 2 3 4 t (sec) 1 2 3 4 t (sec)
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
18. A cylinder of mass M and radius R is resting on two corner
edges A and B as shown in the figure. The normal reaction
at the edges A and B are: (Neglect friction)
60 30
A
(A) NA 2NB (B) NB 2NA
Mg 2 3Mg
(C) NA (D) NB
2 5
19. A square laminar sheet with side a and mass M, has mass per y
x
unit area given by (x) 0 1 . Moment of inertia of the +a/2
a
sheet about y axis is (a, 0)
Ma2 Ma2 x
(A) (B)
2 4 a/2
2
Ma Ma2
(C) (D)
6 12
20.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A spring is compressed between two toy carts of masses m1 and m2. When the toy carts are
released, the spring exerts on each toy cart equal and opposite forces for the same time t. If the
coefficients of friction between the ground and the toy carts are equal, then the displacements
of the toy carts are in the ratio
s m s m
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 1
s2 m1 s2 m 2
2 2
s m s m
(C) 1 2 (D) 1 1
s2 m1 s2 m 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A shell if fired at an angle with horizontal up a plane inclined at an angle . The value of for
6
maximum range is . Fid the value of k.
k
22. Two blocks A and B 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are kept on a turn y
table 1 m away from axis yy as shown in the figure. Consider = 1kg
0.5 between all contact surfaces and pulley to be massless and
frictionless. The angular speed of the turn table for which the blocks 2kg
just begin to slide is 5k . Find k. (Take g = 10 m/s2) y
1m
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
23. Two objects of masses m and 2m are moving at speeds of v and v / 2, respectively. After
undergoing a completely inelastic collision, they move together with a speed of v / 3. The angle
between the initial velocity of the two objects is K. Find the value of k.
24. If there is a positive error of 50% in the measurement of velocity of a body, then the error in the
measurement of kinetic energy is k%. Find the value of k.
25. The motion of a point A on the rim of a wheel rolling uniformly along a horizontal path has the
form
x = 2(5t sin 5t)
y = 2(1 cos 5t)
The distance which it traverses between two successive contacts with the roadbed is k meter.
Find the value of k.
26. Three identical equilateral prisms A, B and C are arranged
A C
as shown in the figure. Mass of each prism is M 3 kg.
F B F
Two horizontal forces of equal magnitude (F) are applied on
A and C as shown in the figure. Find the minimum value of
F in newton so that A and C loose contact with the floor.
(Ignore friction and take g = 10 m/s2)
27. A modern machine gun fires 3600 bullets per minute with 600 km/hr. If each bullet weights 200
TG ~ @bohring_bot
500
gm then the power of the gun is kilowatt. Find the value of m.
m
28. A solid cylinder rolls down an incline plane of angle . The least value of coefficient of friction so
tan
that the cylinder rolls without slipping is . Find the value of k.
k
29. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are placed on a plank. An 10N
external force of 10 N is acting on 2 kg block and the whole system
2kg
including the plank is moving vertically up with a constant acceleration a0
a0 = 2 m/s2. The normal reaction force between the 3 kg block and 3kg
Plank
Plank is N. Find the value of . (g = 10 m/s2)
10
30. A smooth cylindrical glass lies on the ground. A small particle of mass R
m lies on the bottom surface touching circumference as shown in the
figure. The minimum value of v 0 (along the circumference) such that
Kgh
particle just reaches at the top of glass is . Find the value of K. h
3
v0
R/2
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The CORRECT order of electron gain enthalpy of B, Be, N and C is (consider magnitude only)
(A) Be < B < C < N
(B) Be < N < B < C
(C) N < Be < C < B
(D) N < C < B < Be
32. Which of the following properties is INCORRECTLY matched?
(A) F2 Cl2 Br2 I2 Oxidi sin g character
(B) K Mg Al B Metallic character
(C) C Be B Li 1st
Ionisation enthalpy
(D) Li Na K Rb Chemical reactivity
The minimum uncertainty in the velocity of a particle of mass 1.1 10 28 kg will be if its
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33.
uncertainty in position is 3 1010 cm h 6.62 1034 Js .
(A) 1.6 106 ms 1
(B) 2.6 105 ms 1
(C) 3.6 105 ms1
(D) 1.6 105 ms 1
34. The coefficients of BaCrO4, KI, CrCl3 and KCl in the balanced equation of the following reaction
are respectively
BaCrO 4 KI HCl BaCl2 I2 KCl CrCl3 H2 O
BaCrO 4 KI CrCl3 KCl
(A) 2 6 2 6
(B) 6 2 6 6
(C) 2 2 6 6
(D) 6 6 2 2
35. At a given temperature, the rate constant for the decomposition of HI on a metal surface is
0.06 Ms 1
2HI g H2 g I2 g
The time taken for the concentration of HI to fall from 1.50 M to 0.30 M is
(A) 10 s
(B) 20 s
(C) 15 s
(D) 8 s
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
36. The increasing order of bond angles in OF2 ,OCl2 ,ClO2 and H2 O is…….
(A) OF2 H2 O OCl2 ClO2
(B) H2 O F2 O Cl2 O ClO2
(C) OF2 Cl2 O H2 O ClO2
(D) ClO 2 Cl2 O OF2 H2 O
37. Consider the following reactions in equilibrium
N2 3H2 2NH3 K 1
N2 O2
2NO K 2
1
H2
O2 H2 O K 3
2
Then the equilibrium constant for the reaction
5
2NH3 O2 2NO 3H2 O
2
(All the above reactions are in homogeneous equilibrium)
K K
(A) 2 3
K1
K 2K 13
(B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K3
K 2K 33
(C)
K1
K 2 K1
(D)
K3
38. The pH of pure water at 25o C and 35o C are 7 and 6 respectively. The heat of formation of
H aq and OH aq ions in Kcalmol1 is
(A) 84.5
(B) + 84.5
(C) 94.5
(D) + 94.5
1
39. A hypothetical small particle of mass ‘m’ moves in such a way that its potential energy m kr 4 .
2
Where k is a constant and r is its distance from the nucleus (origin). Assuming Bohr’s model r is
directly proportional to
(A) n2
(B) n
(C) n
(D) 3 n
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40. Consider the reaction in equilibrium
2H2 O g Sn
SnO2 s 2H2 g
at 300 K, the equilibrium mixture was found to contain 40% by volume of H2 g . The K P for the
reaction is
(A) 1.15
(B) 10.9
(C) 7.75
(D) 2.25
41. The three reactions are given below
A g B g
C g D g … (I)
A g
C g D g … (II)
A g B g
D g … (III)
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(A) Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium (II)nd to the left
(B) Decrease in volume shifts the (III)rd equilibrium to right
(C) Addition of He at constant volume shifts the (II)nd equilibrium to left
(D) Addition of He at constant pressure shifts the (III)rd equilibrium to left
TG ~ @bohring_bot
42. At high temperature and at a pressure of around 2 atm, nitrogen gas is bubbled over calcium
carbide, the major product obtained is
(A) Calcium cyanide
(B) Calcium cyanamide
(C) Calcium nitride
(D) Calcium
43. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(A) Stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increase in the size of
metal ion.
(B) Sodium hydroxide does not absorb water from atmosphere.
(C) Lithium fluoride is less soluble in water due to its high lattice enthalpy.
(D) Caesium iodide is less soluble in water due to low hydration enthalpy.
44. In solid state, beryllium chloride has
(A) Three centre-four electron bonds.
(B) Three centre-three electron bonds.
(C) Two centre-three electron bonds.
(D) Two centre-two electron bonds.
45. Consider the following silicates
I. Pyro silicates II. Cyclic silicates
III. Double chain silicates IV. Single chain silicates
V. 3D-silicates VI. Sheet silicates
The silicates in which only two corners per tetrahedron are shared
(A) I, II, IV
(B) IV, VI
(C) I, VI
(D) II, IV
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
46. Select the CORRECT sequence of geometry of the given molecules/ions
Borazon, Borazole, B3 O 6 , Al2 Cl6
(A) Non planar, non planar, non planar, planar
(B) Planar, planar, non planar, non planar
(C) Non planar, non planar, non planar, planar
(D) Non planar, planar, planar, non planar
47. Consider the following species
NO2 , NO2 , N O2 ,NO3
Select the INCORRECT statement for the above molecule/ions?
(A) NO2 is paramagnetic
o
(B) NO2 is linear, NO2 is bent having bond angle more than 120
(C) NO3 has bond order 1.33
(D) NO2 has bond angle more than 120o
48. Consider the compounds LiH, NaH, Li2 CO3 and Na2 CO3 . Select the compound (s) which
decomposes on heating around 400 – 500oC.
(A) LiH, Li2 CO3
(B) NaH, Na2 CO3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) LiH, NaH
(D) NaH, Li2 CO3
49. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) NOT correct?
I. Bond length order is H2 H2 H2 .
II. O2 ,NO,N2 have bond order 2.5.
III. Bond order varies from 0 to 4.
IV. In NO3 and BO3 the bond order is same between central atom and side atom.
(A) I, II
(B) II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) I, III
50. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding Diborane (B2H6)
(A) Maximum 6 H-atoms lie in a plane
(B) Maximum 6 atoms lie in a plane
(C) There is hindered rotation between two boron atoms
(D) Terminal H – B – H bond angle is greater than bridge H – B – H bond angle
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. A sample of solid AgCl was treated with 5.00 mL of 1.5 M Na2CO3 solution to give Ag2CO3. The
remaining Cl ion concentration was found to be 0.0026 g L1 . The solubility product of AgCl is
given by x 10 y . Then the value of (x + y) is………(Rounded off to nearest integer).
K SP of Ag2 CO3 8.2 1012
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Yash Patil 12
1
52. A tiny particle moving with a velocity th times the velocity of light. If uncertainty in the position
60
6.62
is 1012 m, then the minimum uncertainty in kinetic energy is x 10 y J, then the value of
3.14
xy is…….
53. Potassium permanganate reacts with sulfur dioxide in acidic medium to produce a product
containing bisulphate ion(s) and same other product(s). The sum total of coefficients of potassium
permanganate and the product containing bisulphate ions in the balanced equation is…….
54. For a reaction which following first order kinetics the half life is 693 s and the values of pre
exponential factor and activation energy are 4 1013 Hz and 98.6 kJ mol1 respectively, then the
temperature in Kelvin when half life is 693 s, is…… (log2 = 0.30)
55. An equilibrium mixture at 300 K contains N2 O 4 and NO2 at 0.28 and 1.1 atm respectively. If the
volume of container get doubled, the equilibrium pressure of NO2 g is x 102 atm , then the
value of x is………
56. Total number of species having used all three P-orbitals for hybridisation of central atom and are
non-polar also is…..
TG ~ @bohring_bot
XeO2 F2 , SnCl2 , IF5 , I3 , XeO 4 , XeF7 , SO2
57. The number of correct order(s) in the following is……..
1. CH4 CCl4 CF4 (Electronegativity of carbon)
2. Mg K S Se (Ionic radius order)
3. LiF NaF KF RbF (Lattice energy order)
4. Li Mg Al3 (Hydration energy order)
5. Cl2 F2 Br2 I2 (Bond energy order)
H O
58. Na2 O2 2
PQ
Ice cold
H2 O Room temperature
PR
M M2
If molar mass of (Q) and (R) are M1 and M2 respectively then the value of 1 is......
2
59. A 1.025 g sample containing a weak acid HA (MW = 82) is dissolved in 60 mL of water and
titrated with 0.25 M NaOH. When half of the acid was neutralized, the pH was found to be 5.0 and
at the equivalence point the pH is 9.0. The mass percent of weak acid HX in the sample is…….%.
60. The pH of the resultant solution of 25 mL of 0.1 M HCl, 50 mL of 0.2 M HNO3 and 25 mL of 0.1 M
NaOH is……
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
x
4 2
61. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying x p 1 f p dp = x + x x [2, ), then value of
0
2
f ' x f x dx is
2
(A) 0 (B) 36
(C) 72 (D) 18
3
1 cos2x cos 4xcos6x cos8x cos10x P
62. Let P = lim 2
, then the value of is
x 0 (tan x) 10
(A) 66 (B) 33
(C) 22 (D) 11
TG ~ @bohring_bot
n
r 1 n r
63. If A = lim sin 2 and B = lim sin , then value of 2A + B is
n n n n n
r 1 r 1
2 2
(A) 1 (B)
1
(C) (D) 1
2 2
1
64. Let f(x) = 2
, x (0, 1), then which of the following is INCORRECT ?
2
sin x x a
(A) f(x) is always increasing in (0, 1) (B) f(x) is always decreasing in (0, 1)
(C) f(x) is increasing if a (2, 3) (D) f(x) is decreasing if a (2, 3)
1 1 1 1
65.
If A 1 x 2023 2022 dx and B 1 x
2022 2023
dx , then find the value of
0 0
A 3 B3 A 4 B 4
3 4 is
B B
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) none of these
x2 x 4 x2 x 3
66. The exhaustive set of domain of the function f(x) = sgn 2 tan 2 , (where [.]
x x3 x x 4
is G.I.F.) is
1
(A) (, 0) (B) ,3
3
1
(C) ,3 (D) (, )
3
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Yash Patil 14
67. If the area bounded between the curves y = tanx, y = sinx, x = 0 and x = is A, the A is equal to
4
1 1 1
(A) ln2 (B) ln2
2 2 2
1
(C) (D) none of these
2
1
2
68. Let f(x) be a function, such that f(x) = x + sinx and I1 f x dx, I2 f 1 x dx and I3 e x dx ,
0 0 0
then which of the following is true ?
(A) I1 > I2 > I3 (B) I3 > I2 > I1
(C) I1 > I3 > I2 (D) I3 > I1 > I2
x x
2
69. If f x ln t dt and g x ln t dt , then area bounded between the curve y = f'(x) and
0 0
y = g'(x) between x = 1 to x = e is
(A) e 3 (B) 3
(C) e (D) 3 e
L2
1 1 x3 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
70. Let L1 lim sec x, L 2 lim sec x , then the value of x 2 1 dx
x x
L1
(A) (B)
2
(C) (D) 0
4
12 x
71. lim 2 is equal to
x 1
n1 n(n 1)x 3(2n 1)x 9
11 3
(A) (B)
60 16
13 9
(C) (D)
64 44
72. Water is being filled at the rate of 100 litre/min in a conical vessel (vertex downwards) with axis
5
vertical. Its semi vertical angle is tan1 . The rate (in square meter per minute) at which the
12
wet curved surface area of the tank is increasing, when the depth of water in tank is 3 meters is
13 13
(A) (B)
75 25
1 3
(C) (D)
5 11
2
73. The area of the region bounded by A = {(x, y) : x 4 y min{2x + 11, 9, 12 6x} is
511 947
(A) (B)
12 12
437 240
(C) (D)
8 7
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
t
x5
Let f t e x dx, then f(1) + f(1) is equal to
2
74. 2
0
x 4 2x 2 2
3e 1 7e 1
(A) (B)
10 4 50 4
7e 1 2e 1
(C) (D)
50 2 5 2
75. lim
x
x 4 kx 3 3x 2 mx 2 x 4 2x 3 nx 2 3x p = 4 then k + n is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 0
2
x 3 sin2022 x 2
76. If I dx is equal to
0 cos2022 x 2 sin2022 x 2
2
(A) (B) 22
2
(C) 2 (D) 0
dy x y 4
77. If the solution curve of the differential equation passes through the point (3, 2) and
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dx xy
(p + 2, 3), p > 0, then
1 1
p
(A) 2 tan1 loge p2 1 (B) tan1 loge p2 1
p
1 1 p2 1
(C) 2 tan1 2
loge p 2p 2 (D) 2 tan1 loge
p
p 1 p
min x 6 ,x 2 4 x 0
78. Let f : [4, 2] R be given as f x
max x, x
2
0x2
If the area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis in A then the value of 3A is equal to
(A) 19 (B) 35
(C) 37 (D) 32
t
log10 x
79. If f t dx , t > 0, then f(e4) + f(e4) is equal to
1
1 x
16
(A) 8 (B)
loge 10
8 e4 1
(C) (D)
loge 10 2loge 10
x3 2x2 3x 9 x 2
80. Let f(x) = , then the set of all values of k for which f(x) has maximum
2
3x log3 k 5 x 2
value at x = 2 is
(A) 4 2, 4 2 (B) 5, 4 2
(C) 4 2, 5 5, 4 2 (D) 5, 2 2
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Yash Patil 16
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
x2 x 2
81. The number of solution of the equation sin1 x 2 0 , [.] is G.I.F.
x x 1
2
2
82. The area bounded between the curves y = sin1(sinx) and y is 'A', then the
4 2
8A
value of 2 (where [.] is G.I.F) is
0 x x2
x
83. Let f(x) be a function defined as f(x) x 0 x 1
2
2
sin x 3 4 x , then the
2
x x 1 0
number of integers in the range of f(x) is (where [.] is G.I.F)
84. The number of points where the function f : R R, f(x) = |x 2| cos|x2 3x| sin|x 2| + (x 1) |x3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8x2 + 7x| is non differentiable is
a 0 1
85. Let m = a b b and det(m) = 37, if a, b, c are positive integers, then least value of trace(m)
0 1 c
is
d2 y
86. If y = y(x) is an implicit function of x such that loge(x + y) = 6xy, then at x = 0 is equal to ____
dx 2
x 3
87.
If the value of lim 3 2cos x cos 2x
x 0
2
x is equal to ea, then a is equal to
88. If the tangent to the curve y = x 3 2x2 + 4x + 4, at the point (a, b) (where a > 0) is also tangent to
the curve y = 3x2 + 2x 1 at (1, 4), then a + b is equal to
12x15 5x18 1
89. If f(x) = dx and 16f(1) 1 = 0 and f(1) = , then |k| =
8 3 k
2x 3
3 7x
e
n
x log x
23
90. Let In = dx where n N, if 24I15 = I14 + BI13, then + is equal to
1
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 12-11-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. A
Sol. If the block has moved by distance x, F 2Mg
smooth
Mg 2Mg 3Mg A
Ma = 2Mg l x l
B
l
C
l
D
x
3 3 3l
g 2g 3g
a 2g l x
3 3 3l
da1 3g nd rd
[for 2 and 3 cells similarly]
dx 3l
tan 1: tan 2 : tan 3 = 3 : 2 : 1
2. A
I
F I d B, B 0 F I2 0
Sol. d
2
Q
2
[MLT ] = 0
T
0 = [MLQ2]
3. A
Sol. L m r ( r ) m r ( r ) 2m r sin 2m 2 sin
dL
Torque = J 2m 2 sin(90 )sin 2m2 cos sin
dt
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Yash Patil 2
4. B
dm kt 3
Sol. kt 2 m 2
dt 3
dv dm dv
m v mg m vkt 2 mg
dt dt dt
dv kt 2 dv 3kt 2
v g 3 v g which is linear differential equation
dt m dt kt 6
v(kt 3 6) g(kt 3 6)dt c , t = 0, v = 0 c = 0
4
g(kt 24t)
v
4(kt 3 6)
3 2
Put 2 gm, k = 12 gm/s and g = 100 cm/s ) and t = 1
1000(12 24)
v 500 cm/sec
4(12 6)
5. C
2 x2
Sol. F(x) 2
x eˆ x , x 0
2
Work done in a cycle is zero so conservative
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r F 0 , so angular momentum is conserved
2 x2
For equilibrium point F = 0 F 2 0 x 2, 2 x > 0 so equilibrium point is 2
x 2
dF 4 2x
To check stable and unstable equilibrium point 0 3 0
dx x 2
dF 4 2x 4
At x 2, 0 3 2 = ve
dx x 2 2 2
So, it is unstable point so particle moves away from point x = 2
So, it is obvious that it will moves towards origin.
6. A
Sol. Speed is never less than v 0 in x whereas in y it is less than v 0 first and then increases t v 0 so, y
take more time.
7. D
Sol. Friction will produce heat energy and so the total energy will not be PE + KE (or all of the PE will
not turn into KE). At a constant velocity there is no gain of KE. On a horizontal surface there is no
change of PE. Falling freely, the PE turns solely into KE.
8. C
Sol. T sin m2R Tcos
T cos mg T
2R
tan Tsin
g
gtan gtan mg
R r sin R= r+lsin
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
9. A
Sol. T = m 1g
kx 2T 2m1g
2T
2m1g
x
k
T
2 2
2m12 g2 T
1 1 4m1 g T
Energy stored = kx2 = k = T
2 2 k2 k m1
m2
m1g T1
10. B
Sol. The rod will rotate about point A with angular acceleration:
Fx 3Fx
I m 2 m 2
3
3 Fx
a or a x
2 2 m
i.e., a-x graph is a straigth line passing through origin.
11. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3v 0 3 3
Sol. v cos60 cos30 , v v0
2 2
12. C
t
v t v t2
Sol. v1 0 , S1 0
40 40 2
30
v0 t v t2 t
v2 3v0 , S 2 0 3v 0 t 30
10 20
S1 = S2
t = 60 sec
13. B
Sol. v min g(y x 2 y 2 ) 30 m/s
v2
tan 3
gx
14. C
Sol. N1 f2 2mg …(i) N1
N2 f1 …(ii) A
f1 B
f1 N1 …(iii)
f2
f2 N2 …(iv)
mg N2
Taking moment about corner B of plate
(mg N2 )R N1R
mg N2 N1 …(v) C
From (i), (ii) & (v), mg
f1 f2 mg …(vi)
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
From (iii), (iv) & (vi), 2 2 1 0 or
2 1
15. A
2R sin
Sol. Centre of mass of arc is
3
m1 = 2m, m2 = m
2m 2R sin 2R sin
3
6
m
3 3 2
6
2R( 3 1)
centre of mass
3m 3
16. A
|pi|sin
Sol. impulse pf pi
pi
pf
pf |pi|cos
TG ~ @bohring_bot mg
mg sin
17. A
Sol. t = 0 to t = 1 sec
v = 4t m/s
s = 2t2 m
s(t = 0) = 0 m, s(t=1) = 2m
s
v average 2 m/s
t
t = 1 to t = 2 sec
v = 2 m/s
s = 2t m
s ( t = 1) = 2m, s(t = 2) = 4m
vaverage = 2 m/s
18. C
Sol. A cylinder of mass M NB
NA
For equilibrium NA cos 60 + NB cos 30 = Mg
30 60
and NA sin60 NB sin30
Mg
On solving NB = 3NA ; NA Mg
2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
19. C
x y
Sol. dM 0 1 dx
a
a
M 0 dx
2
x
d(MOI) = dmx2
Ma2
MOI dMx 2
6
20. C
Sol. Minimum stopping distance = s
Force of friction mg
Work done against the friction W mgs
Initial kinetic energy of the toy cart p2 / 2m
mgs p2 / 2m
2
s1 m2
s2 m1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
SECTION – B
21. 3
Sol. Let the shell hit the plane at p(x, y), the range being AP = R, as
shown in the figure. The equation for the projectile’s motion is
gx 2
y x tan 2 …(i) R P(x, y)
2u cos 2
Now y = R sin …(ii)
A B 2R
x = R cos …(iii)
Using equation (ii) and equation (iii) in equation (i) and simplifying
2u2 cos sin( )
R
gcos2
dR
The maximum range is obtained by setting 0 , holding u, and g constant. This gives
d
cos(2 ) 0 or 2
2
22. 5
Sol. for block A
T mA g mA 2R
For block B
T (mA mB )g mA g mB2R
g(3mA mB )
R(mB mA )
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
23. 120
Sol. As px = 0, py = 0
For x direction,
v cos cos v
2m mv 3m
2 2 2 3
cos cos 1
2mv mv cos 60
2 2 3
60 120
2
24. 125
1
Sol. Kinetic energy E mv 2
2
E v 2 v 2
100 100 (1.5)2 1 100
E v 2
E
100 125%
E
25. 16
v v 2x v 2y
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol.
v x = 10 10 cos 5t, vy = +10 sin 5t
5t
v 20 sin
2
t
5t
0
S 20 sin dt , t = 2
2
So, S = 16 m
26. 30
Sol. A begins to climb B if F cos 60 Mg sin 60
F 3 Mg
F 30 N
27. 3
1
n mv 2 2
2 3600 1 500
Sol. Power = K.E./ time = (0.2)
t 60 2 3
500 3
= 10 watt
3
28. 3
Sol. a = g(sin cos )
Rz R(mgcos R)
Also, a = R, 2gcos
I 1
mR2
2
g (sin r cos ) = 2g cos
tan
3
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
29. 7
Sol. 2a0 = N1 10 2g 10N
2kg
a0
N1 2g
N1 = 34 N N1
3a0 = N2 N1 3g
3kg
N2 = 70 N a0
N2 3g
30. 8
Sol. By the conservation of energy
1 1
mv 20 mgh mv 2 …(i)
2 2
By conservation of angular momentum
mv0R
mvR
2
From equation (i) and equation (ii)
8gh
v0
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
k=8
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. B
Sol. Be B C N
2s2 2s2p1 2s2p2 2s2p3
Be and N have stable configurations, so do not accept electron easily, hence for these elements
the process is Endothermic.
So, correct order is Be < N < B < C
32. D
Sol. On moving down the group the IE1 of Gr(1) elements decreases continuously hence reactivity
increases.
33. D
h
Sol. v x (Using uncertainty principle)
4m
6.62 1034
v
4 3.14 1.1 1028 3 1012
v 1.597 105 1.6 105 ms 1
34.
Sol.
A TG ~ @bohring_bot
The ionic equation is
Acidic
CrO 4 I
HCl
medium
Cr I2
6
1 3 0
2CrO
4 6I 16H 2Cr 3I2 8H2 O
or
2BaCrO4 6KI 16HCl 2CrCl3 3I2 8H2 O 6KCl 2BaCl2
35. A
Sol. 2HI g H2 g I2 g (follows zero order kinetics)
1 d R o
k R
2 dt
Ro R
t
2k
1.50 0.30
t
2 0.06
1.20
t 10 s
0.12
36. A
Sol. O Cl
O O < <
<
Cl 111o Cl O 118o O
F 103o F H 104.5o H
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
H2 O has larger bp – bp repulsion than OF2 and OCl2 has larger steric repulsion between two
large Cl atoms while in ClO2 the bond angle is 118o close to 120o .
37. C
1
Sol.
2NH3
N2 3H2 … (1)
K1
N2 O2
2NO K 2 … (2)
3
3H2
O 2
3H2 O K 3
3
… (3)
2
Adding (1), (2) and (3)
5
2NH3 O 2 2NO 3H2 O K eq
2
K K3
K eq 2 3
K1
38. B
Sol.
H2 O
H aq OH aq
At 25o C, H OH 107 M
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K W1 10 14
At 35o C, H OH 106 M
K W2 1012
K W2 H T2 T1
Now, 2.303 log
K W1 R T1T2
12
10 H 308 298
2.303 log
14
10 2 308 298
H 10
2.303 2
2 308 298
H 84.551 Kcal mol1
Since, 84.551 Kcal mol1 is the enthalpy change for the reaction
39. D
1 1 1
Sol. KE PE mkr 4
2 2 2
1 1
KE mkr 4 mv 2
4 2
mkr 4 .2 1 4
v2 kr … (1)
4.m 2
nh n2 h2
Since, mvr v2 … (2)
2 4 2 m 2 r 2
From (1) and (2)
1 4 n2 h2
kr
2 4 2 m 2 r 2
r 6 n2 r 3 n
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
40. D
P2H O g
2
Sol. KP … (1)
P2H g
2
40
PH2 PT 0.4PT
40 60
60
PH2O PT 0.6PT
40 60
PH O 0.6PT 3
2 1.5
PH2 0.4PT 2
2
From Eq. (1) K P 1.5 2.25
41. C
Sol. (A) ng 0, in P shifts the equilibrium
(B) in volume in (III)rd equilibrium shifts the equilibrium ng 0
(C) At constant volume no effect of addition of He
(D) At constant pressure, addition of He shifts the equilibrium ng 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
42. B
2 atm
Sol. CaC2 N2
high temp.
CaCN2 C
Calcium cyanamide
43. B
Sol. (A) On moving down the group, the size of metal ion increases, so stability of
peroxides/superoxides increases.
i.e. Large cation – Lagre anion interactions increases.
(B) NaOH is hygroscopic in nature.
lattice H hyd H
(C), (D) Fact based on and .
44. A
Sol. In solid state, BeCl2 exists as a polymer.
Cl
Cl
Cl
Be
Be
Be
Cl
Cl Cl
(four electrons are shared between three atoms, so 3c-4e type of bonds are present)
45. D
Sol. I. – 1 corner shared
II. – 2 corners shared
III. – One unit shares 2 corners while one unit shares 3-corners.
IV. – 2 corners shared
V. – 4 corners shared
VI – 3 corners shared
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
46. D
Sol. Borazon Diamond like structure (Non-planar)
Borazole Inorganic benzene (Planar)
O
O O
B3 O6
Planar
B B
O O
O
Cl
Cl
Cl
Al
Al2 Cl6 Al
Cl
Cl Cl
(Non-planar)
47.
Sol.
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
NO2 odd electron species
Paramagnetic
NO2 is linear while NO2 and NO2 are bent.
NO2 lp – bp repulsion
NO2 bond angle is around 134o
4
Bond order of NO3 is 1.33
3
Bond angles, NO2 115o , NO2 180o , NO2 134o
48. D
Sol. LiH Stable
NaH Unstable
Li2 CO3 Unstable
Na2 CO3 Stable
(Around 400 – 500oC)
49. C
Sol. I. Bond length order is H2 H2 H2
II. Isoelectronic species, so identical bond order.
III. Fact.
IV NO3 Re sonance , BO3 no resonance .
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
50. A
Sol.
H
H H
B B
H H
H
Maximum 4 – H atoms lie in a plane.
Maximum 6 – atoms (4H + 2B) lie in a plane.
Bridge (B – H) is stronger than terminal (B – H)
Terminal (H – B – H) bond angle > Bridge (H – B – H) bond angle.
SECTION – B
51. 12
Sol. Ag2 CO3 s 2Ag aq CO3 aq
2
K SP Ag CO3
2 8.2 10 12
Ag
7.5 / 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 82
Ag 10 12
15
6
Ag 2.34 10 M
Now K SP AgCl Ag Cl
0.0026
K SP 2.34 106
35.5
K SP 1.71 10 10
x 1.71, y 10
x y 1.71 10 11.71 12
52. 20
1
Sol. KE mv 2
2
1
d KE d mv 2
2
d KE mv dv … (1)
h
Since, dv dx
4m
h
dv … (2)
4m dx
From (1) and (2)
h
d KE mv.
4m. dx
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
1 3 108 6.62 1034
d KE
60 6.62
4 3.14 1012
3.14
1
d KE 1014 1.25 1016 J
80
x 1.25, y 16
xy 1.25 16 20
53. 7
Sol. The ionic equation involved is
MnO4 aq SO2 g H aq Mn aq HSO 4 aq
The balanced equation is
2MnO4 aq 5SO2 g 2H2 O H aq 2Mn aq 5HSO 4 aq
Sum total of coefficient(s) = 2 + 5 = 7.
54. 310
Sol. k AeEa /RT
Ea
logK log A
2.303RT
0.693 98.6 1000
TG ~ @bohring_bot
13
log log 4 10
693 2.303 8.314 T
or
4 1013 98.6 1000
log 3
10 2.303 8.314 T
T 310.1 K 310K
55. 64
Sol. N2 O 4 g 2NO2 g
0.28 1.1
2
KP
P 1.1
NO2
2
4.32
P 0.28
N2O 4
Now, volume is doubled, so pressure will become half and reaction proceeds in forward direction
N2 O 4 g 2NO2 g
0.28 1.1
P 2P
2 2
2
0.55 2P
KP
0.14 P
2
0.55 2 0.55 2P
4.32
0.14 P
0.3025 2.20P
0.14 P
(Ignoring P2 terms)
P 0.046 atm
PNO2 0.55 2 0.046 0.642
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
64.2 102 atm
x 64.2 64
56. 2
Sol. XeO2 F2 AB 4 L sp3 d Polar
2
SnCl2 AB2 L sp Polar
IF5 AB5 L sp3 d2 Polar
I3 AB2 L2 sp3 Polar
XeO 4 AB4 sp3 Non Polar ()
3 3
XeF7 AB7 sp d Non Polar ()
2
SO2 AB 2L sp Polar
57. 4
Sol. 1. Correct as EN of side atom increases, EN of carbon increases.
2. Correct, Mg 3rd period
K / S 4 th period and isoelectronic
Se 5th period
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3. Correct as moving down the group cationic size increases so lattice energy decreases
1
4. Correct as Hydration energy
Size of cation
5. Incorrect as the bond energy order among halogens is
Cl2 Br2 F2 I2
58. 33
H O
Sol. Na2 O2 2H2 O 2
Ice cold
2NaOH H2 O2
P Q
Room
2Na2 O2 2H2 O
temperature
4NaOH O2
P R
M1 M2 34 32
Hence, 33
2 2
59. 80
Sol. At half neutralization S A
S
pH pK a log
A
pH pK a pK a 5.0
Now, at equivalence point,
1
PH pK W pK a log C
2
1
9 14 5 log C
2
C 0.1 M
Let, V mL of NaOH is used
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
0.25 V
Meq. NaOH 0.1 = Meq. (salt)
60 V
Volume (V) = 40 mL
Meq. of acid = millimoles of acid = 0.25 × 40 = 10
Mass of acid (HX) = 10 103 82 = 0.829
0.82
Mass% 100 80%
1.025
60. 1
Sol. H
total 25 0.1 50 0.2 12.5 milim oles
OH
total 25 0.1 2.5 mi lim oles
12.5 2.5
H
final 25 50 25
10 1
H
final 100 M 10 M
pH log H
final
1
pH log 1.00
10
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. C
Sol. f'(x) + f(x) = 12x 2 + 2
62. B
Sol. Use expansion and collect the coefficient of x 2
P = 330
63. A
x3
Sol. For A x sin x x and for B use limit as a sum
6
1 2
A= ,B=
2
64. D
1
Sol. f'(x) =
2 2
sin2x 2 x a 0 x (0, 1) and a (2, 3)
2
sin x x a
65.
Sol.
C
AB=
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
f x dx
f (1)
f 1 x dx 0 , and also A = B.
0 f (0)
66. D
Sol. Domain is R.
67. D
/4
1 1
Sol. A tan x sin x dx 2 ln2 2
1
0
68. A
2 2
Sol. I1 2, I2 2, I3 1
2 2
69. D
e
ln x ln x dx 3 e
2 2
Sol. f'(x) = (lnx) , g'(x) = (lnx), so area =
1
70. D
Sol. L1 = L2 =
2
71. B
Sol. Tn
n 1 x 3 nx 3 1 1
n 1 x 3 nx 3 nx 3 n 1 x 3
S12 = V1 V2 + V2 V3 + ……. V12 V13 = V1 V13
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
1 1
=
x 3 13x 3
1 1 3
lim
x 1 4 16 16
72. A
5 r 5h
Sol. tan = r
12 h 12
dv
= 0.1 m3/min
dt
1 25h3 h
v = r 2h l
3 432
2
dv 25h dh 25 dh
0.1 33
dt 144 dt 144 dt
16 dh
250 dt
65h2
Now s = rl = r h2 r 2
144
ds 65 dh 65 16 13 2
2h 23 m /min
dt 144 dt 144 250 75
73.
Sol.
A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 4 = 2x + 11
x = 3, 5 A(3, 5)
y = 2x + 11
2x + 11 = 9
x = 1 B(1, 9)
1 B C y=9
C ,9 and D(2, 0)
2
A
D
y = 12 6x
1 1/2 2
2x 11 x 12 6x x
2
Required area 4 dx 9 x 2 4 dx 2
4 dx
3 1 1/2
1 1/2 2
2x x 13 x dx 16 6x x dx
2 2 2
= 15 dx
3 1 1/2
1 3 1/2 2
x3 x x3
= x2 15x 13x 16x 3x 2
3 3
3 1
3 1/2
40 153 81 511
=
3 8 8 12
74. B
2
e t t5 e
Sol. ft 2
f 1
25
t 4
2t 2 2
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
dv 1 ev v 2
Let x2 = v 2x 2
dv
dx 2 v 2 2v 2
1 v 1 2v 2 1 ev
e
2 v 2 2v 2 v 2 2v 2 2 2
2 v 2v 2
2
1 ex
2 x 4 2x 2 2
2 t 2
1 ex et 1 1
f t 4
2 x 2x 2 2
4 t 2t 2 2 2
2
0
e 1
f 1
10 4
e e 1 7e 1
f(1) + f(1) =
10 25 4 50 4
75. B
k 2 x3 3 n x 2 m 3 x 2 p
Sol. lim
x
x 4 kx 3 3x 2 mx 2 x 4 2x 3 nx 2 3x p
TG ~ @bohring_bot
k – 2 has to be 0 else limit wont be finite
k=2
Now dividing Num. & Den by x2
m 3 2 b
3 n
lim x x2
x a 3 b 2 2 c 3 d
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
x x x x x x x x
3n 3n
4 n = 5.
2 2
76. A
2
dt 1 t sin2022 t dt
Sol. Let x 2 t 2x I cos2022 t sin2022 t
dx 2 0
2 2022 2
1 2 t sin t sin2022 t
I cos2022 t sin2022 t 2I
2 0 0 cos2022 t sin2022 t
2
sin2022 t
2I 4 2022
0 cos t sin2022 t
2
cos2022 t
2I 4 2022
0 cos t sin2022 t
2
2
4I 4 dt I .
0
2
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
77. A
dy x 2 y 2
Sol.
dx x 2 y 2
put x 2 = h, y 2 = k
dk h k
put k = vh
dh h k
dv 1 v
v h
dh 1 v
1 v dh 1
1 v 2
dv
h
tan1 v ln 1 v 2 lnh c
2
2
y 2 1 y 2
tan1 ln 1 2
ln x 2 c
x 2 2 x 2
it passes through (3, 2)
1
tan10 = ln1 + ln1 + c c = 0
2
it also passes through (p + 2, 3)
1 1 1
tan1 ln 1 2 lnp
p 2 p
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
2 tan1 ln 1 p2
p
78. B
2 0 1 2
2
Sol. A x 6 x dx xdx x 2 dx
4 2 0 1
8 2 7 35
= 6
3 3 3 3
4 2 1
79. C
e4
Sol. log
f e 4
1 x
x
dx 10
…(1)
1
1 dx 1
Let x =
v dv v 2
1/t 1/t
log10 (1/ v) 1 log10 v
f(t) = 2 dv dv
1 v v(v 1)
1 1 1
v
4 4
1/t e e
log10 v log10 v log10 x
f t v v 1
f e 4
v v 1
dv
x x 1
dx …(2)
1 1 1
Add (1) and (2)
e4
4 1 4 ln x 1
f(e ) + f(e ) = (1 x) 1 x dx
ln10 1
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 20
e4
e4 2
1 ln x 1 ln x
=
ln10 1
x ln10 2
1
1 8
= 16
2ln10 ln10
80. C
Sol. Let g(x) = x3 2x2 + 3x 9
2
g'(x) = 3x 4x + 3 > 0 x R
g(x) is always increasing
g(2) = 8 8 + 6 9 = 3 is maximum value for x 2
If 3x + log3(k2 5) 3 for x > 2
then we have maximum at x = 2
2 3 2
6 + log3(k 5) 3 log (k 5) 3
k2 5 27 k 4 2 k 4 2 0
2
k 4 2,4 2 and k 5 > 0
k , 5 5,
k 4 2, 5 5, 4 2
81. 1 TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 x 2
SECTION – B
Sol. 2 1
x x 1
82. 1
3 2
Sol. A=
8 4
83. 4
Sol. Df = [2, 2] as f x 3 4 x2
Rf = 0,2 3
84. 2
Sol. f(x) = cos(x2 3x) |x 2| sin|x 2| + (x 1) |x| |x 1| |x 7|
f(x) non differentiable at x = 0 and 7 only.
85. 12
Sol. a = 1, b = 6, c = 5
86. 96
Sol. Put x = 0 we get y = 1
ln(x + y) = 6xy
Differentiate w.r.t. x
1 dy xdy
1 6 y
x y dx dx
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Yash Patil 21 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
dy
at x = 0, y = 1 5
dx
dy dy
1 6 x y x y
dx dx
Differentiate w.r.t. x both side
d2 y xd2 y dy dy xdy dy
6 (x y) y 1
dx 2
dx
2
dx dx dx dx
= 6(1(0 + 5 + 5) + 1(6)) = 96
87. 9
x 3
Sol.
x 0
lim 3 2cos x cos 2x
2
x is of the form 1
2 2 cos x cos 2x
lim
x 0 x2 x 3
it is equal to e
2 2cos x cos 2x
Now, lim
x 0 x2
2cos x
sin2x 2 cos 2x sin x
= lim 2 cos 2x
x 0 2x
2cos x sin 2x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 sin x cos 2x
= lim cos 2x
x 0 2x
=2+1=3
2 2 cos x cos 2x
lim
x 0 x2 x 3
e
= e33 e9 a = 9
88. 14
dy dy
Sol. = 3x2 4x + 4 = 3a2 4a + 4
dx dx (a,b)
dy dy
= 6x + 2 =8
dx dx (1,4)
2
3a2 4a + 4 = 8 a = 2,
3
b = 8 8 + 8 + 4 = 12
89. 144
12x15 5x18 12x 9 5x 6
Sol. dx
5 3 3
x 24 7 3x 8 2x 7 3x 8
2x 5
dt
Let 7 + 3x8 + 2x5 = t = 24x9 10x6
dx
1 1 1 t 2 1
= dt c c
2 t3 2 2 2
4 7 3x 8 2x 5
1 1 1
f 1 c c = 0
16 16 4 7 3 2 2
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 22
1 1 1
f(x) = f(1) = 2
5 2 4 6 144
4 7 3x 8 2x
90. 23
n
e
23
Sol. In = x lo g x dx
1 II I
e e n 1
x 24 ln x x24
n
In = (lnx) 24 x 24 dx
n
1 1
e24 nIn1
In 24In = e24 nIn1
24 24
24
Put n = 15 24I15 = e 15I14 …(1)
Put n = 14 24I14 = e24 14I13 …(2)
24I15 24I14 = 14I13 15I14
24I15 = 9I14 + 14I13
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-11-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. Four dancers start their dance by forming a square with side
v
= 9m. After that, they always move anticlockwise towards their
neighbour with variable velocity v k x where k = 0.1 m 1/2sec1 v
and x is the distance of the closest neighbour in meter. Then
choose the correct option(s).
v
(A) All the dancers will meet with each other at t = 60 sec after they start their dance.
(B) Angular velocity of the line joining the adjacent dancers increases with time.
(C) All the dancers will meet with each other at t = 63 sec after they start their dance.
(D) Magnitude of acceleration of each dancer is remains constant with time.
2. A point object of mass m = 2kg is connected to a cylinder of radius R = 1m v0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
via a massless inextensible rope. At time t = 0 the object is moving with an
initial velocity v0 = 5 m/s perpendicular to the rope as shown in the figure.
The rope has initial length L0 = 10 m and having non zero tension. Figure
shows the top view and the motion of the object is taking place on the
horizontal smooth surface and the cylinder is always fixed. The point
object moves such that the rope wraps up around the cylinder. The rope
will break when the tension in the rope exceeds 100 N. Then choose the
correct option(s).
(A) Kinetic energy of the object at the instant when the rope breaks is 25 J.
(B) Angular momentum of the object about the axis of the cylinder at the instant when the rope
breaks is less than 5 kg-m2/sec.
(C) Angular momentum of the object about the axis of the cylinder at the instant when the rope
breaks is equal to 5 kg-m2/sec.
(D) Angular momentum of the object about the axis of the cylinder at the instant when the rope
breaks is greater than to 5 kg-m2/sec.
3. Two discs are mounted on thin, lightweight rods oriented
through their centres and normal to the discs. These axles are
constrained to be vertical at all times, and the discs can pivot
frictionlessly on the rods. The discs have identical thickness
and are made up of the same material, but having different
radii r1 and r2. The discs are given angular velocities 1 and 2,
respectively, and L1 and L2 represents angular momentum of
the discs along their rotational axis respectively. Now they are r1 r2
brought into contact at the edges. After the discs interact via
friction it is found that both discs come exactly to a halt. Which
of the following(s) must hold? Ignore effects associated with
the vertical rods.
(A) 1r14 2r24 (B) 1r13 2r23
L1 r1 L1 1r12
(C) (D)
L 2 r2 L 2 2r22
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
4. A dumbbell is formed by connecting two identical particles A J A
m m
each of mass m with a massless rod. The system is placed on
a horizontal smooth surface and impulse J is applied in two J C C
ways as shown in the figure as situation-(i) and situation-(ii).
Then just after the application of impulse, choose the correct
option(s). m m
B B
Situation-(i) Situation-(ii)
(A) Velocity of centre of mass with respect to ground frame in situation-(i) and situation-(ii) are
same.
(B) Kinetic energy of the dumbbell with respect to centre of mass frame in situation-(i) and
situation-(ii) are same.
(C) Angular momentum of the dumbbell with respect to centre of mass frame in situation-(i) and
situation-(ii) are different.
(D) Velocity of particle A in situation-(ii) is double of velocity of particle A in situation-(i) just after
the application of impulse.
5. Three particles A, B and C are simultaneously thrown from a cliff
and their trajectories are shown in the given figure. Neglect air
resistance and take gravity to be uniform during the motion. If
uyA , uBy and uCy denotes the initial vertical components of velocity
of particles A, B and C respectively and the times tA, tB and tC, they B
take to hit the ground respectively. Then A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
C
(A) uBy uCy uyA (B) uBy uyA uCy
(C) t A t C tB (D) t C t A tB
6. A thin rod has an unknown non-uniform density. It is mounted CM
on an axle passing perpendicular to it, through its centre of
mass as shown and is then rotated about the axle. The axle
divides the rod into two parts, one on each side of it. Which of
the following must be true, no matter how the mass in the rod is
distributed?
(A) The two part must have the same mass.
(B) The magnitudes of the linear momentum of the two parts must be equal.
(C) The magnitudes of the angular momentum of the two parts about the centre of mass must be
equal.
(D) The kinetic energies of two parts must be equal.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. List –I describes for systems and List-II gives possible value of work done in Joules.
List –I List -II
(I) A plank of mass 100 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal (P) +100J
surface at rest along with a man. Now man starts moving on
the plank with relative velocity of 3 m/s with respect to plank.
The work done by man is
50 kg
urel = 3 m/s
100 kg
(II) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a smooth track and imparted (Q) 100J
a velocity of 10 m/s to the left and observed by an observer
moving with 5 m/s as shown in the figure. Work done by the
normal force applied by the track on the block upto the instant
when the block reaches the highest point on the track in the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
frame of observer. Assume that block never loose contact with
the track. (take g = 10 m/s2)
10 m/s w.r.t 5 m/s w.r.t
ground ground
2 kg
(III) A particle of mass 1 kg is projected from an unstable (R) +150J
equilibrium point N towards a stable equilibrium point S with
negligible velocity in a conservative force field having potential
energy function
1 2 2
U J / m 4 x 10 x 30 , where x is in meters.
100
Then work done by conservative force during the displacement
from N to S is
(IV) A solid hemisphere of mass 4 kg and radius 10 m is slowly (S) 150J
turned as shown in the figure. Then work done by external
force in turning is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(T) Zero
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I R, II T, III P, IV P
(B) I S, II T, III Q, IV P
(C) I R, II Q, III P, IV P
(D) I T, II Q, III Q, IV P
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
8. A disc placed on a frictionless horizontal plank is rotating with a
y
constant angualr velocity about its vertical axis. Now the plank is
made to move with a constant acceleration a on a straight path.
Initially the centre of the disc is at the origin of xyz space which is
fixed with the plank and xy plane is on the plank. List-I gives some x
possible a , and List-II gives trajectories of instantaneous centre
of rotation of the disc.
List –I List -II
a 2ˆj m/s , 4kˆ rad/s
(I) 2 (P) y=4
2
(II) a 2ˆj m/s , 4kˆ rad/s (Q) y = 4x2 (x 0)
(III) a 2iˆ m/s2, 4kˆ rad/s (R) y = 4x2 (x 0)
(IV) a 2iˆ m/s2, 4kˆ rad/s (S) x = 4y2 (y 0)
(T) x = 4y2 (y 0)
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I P, II Q, III T, IV S
(B) I Q, II R, III S, IV T
(C) I Q, II S, III T, IV R
(D) I R, II Q, III S, IV T
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9. Figure shows a system of multiple blocks = 0.1 D
placed over each other and connected = 0.4 1kg A
= 0.2 1kg B 3kg
through an inextensible string. All the 1kg = 0.5
C
pulleys are ideal and frictionless. List-I S1 S2
shows the surfaces between which the
friction is asked and List-II gives the value
of friction acting between the surfaces.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
E 2kg
List –I List –II
(I) Between A and B (P) 15 N
(II) Between B and C (Q) 9.4 N
(III) Between C and S1 (R) 7.2 N
(IV) Between D and S2 (S) 6N
(T) 1N
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I T, II R, III S, IV Q
(B) I T, II R, III S, IV P
(C) I T, II S, III R, IV Q
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV P
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
10. A disc of mass m is placed over a horizontal smooth surface (xy plane) z
such that the centre of the disc is at the origin of the xyz space, as y
shown in the figure. Radius of the disc is R = 1m and is rotating with an
angular velocity 0 6kˆ rad/s and having zero velocity of centre of 0
mass. A particle of same mass m hits the disc with a speed v = 8 m/s x
in each case of list-I. List-I gives the trajectory and velocity direction of
the particle before hitting the disc and the coefficient of restitutions (e)
of the collision. List-II gives the angular velocity of the disc just after the
collision (in rad/s)
List –I List -II
(I) x = 0, y = R and v̂ kˆ , e = 0 (P) 3
(II) x 3 ˆ 1ˆ (Q) 5
y , z = 0 and v̂ i j, e = 1
3 2 2
(III) y = R, z = 0 and v̂ ˆi , e = 0 (R) 6
(IV) R (S) 7
y , z = 0 and v̂ ˆi , e = 0
2
(T) 8
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV T
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) I S, II Q, III P, IV R
(C) I P, II R, III S, IV Q
(D) I S, II P, III Q, IV T
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. Two massless rods are attached to F 0.5m 2m
frictionless pivots, with their ends
touching. The distances between
the pivot points and the endpoints
of the rods are shown in the figure.
2m 1m F1
Neglect friction force between the
rods, if a force F = 9N is applied at
the left end of the left rod, what
force F1 (in newton) must be
applied at the right end of the right
rod to keep the system in
equilibrium.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. A small sphere slides with a speed v = 60 m/s on
a frictionless horizontal surface between two
parallel massive walls. One of which is fixed and
the other can be moved. Initial distance between
walls is L. The sphere bounces between the walls
perfectly elastically. Now the right wall is moved
towards the left walls by a distance 0.01 L with
speed 0.0001v. Then what is the final speed of v
the sphere after the said movement of the wall in Movable
m/s. Fixed wall L
wall
13. Figure shows a laptop made of two identical uniform plates,
each of mass m = 1 kg connected by a hinge and placed on a
rough horizontal surface as shown. The hinge is locked when
the screen makes an angle of 120 from the keypad of the
laptop. Assume that the laptop does not slide on the horizontal 120
surface, then what is the minimum force (in newton) that can
be applied on the top of the laptop, in the plane of the page to
cause the bottom of the laptop to lift off the ground? (Take g =
10 m/s2)
14. A block of mass m = 1 kg is dropped vertically onto a fixed ramp from a height of h = 2.5 m with
angle = 37 with horizontal and having coefficient of static friction and kinetic friction = 0.5. The
TG ~ @bohring_bot
block is dropped in such a way that it does not rotate after colliding with the ramp. Through this
problem assume that the time of the collision is negligible. The block slides down the ramp
immediately after impact. What it the speed (in m/s) of the block right after the collision? (Take g
= 10 m/s2)
15. One end of the non stretchable rope is uA
tied to a fixed knob O, while other end
B of the rope is moving horizontally
with a constant velocity uB = 1 m/s. B uB
A
That rope goes through a small ring A,
which can move freely along a
horizontal straight rod as shown in the
figure. Determine velocity uA of the ring
(in m/s), when inclined section of the
rope makes an angle = 30 with the O
rod.
16. Two small bodies with masses m and 2m are attached to a spring of 2m
v0
negligible mass. Initially the compressed spring form a straight vertical
line, when both objects are launched with same velocities v 0 = 1 m/s in k
2h
the horizontal direction as shown in the figure. Initial height of the lower
g
body is h = 1 m from the ground, while distance of heavier body is 2h = m
2m. After t = 0.1 sec from the launch, lower body hits the ground. v0
Determine height H (in m) of the upper body from the ground at that h
moment of time. (assume no air drag and g = 10 m/s2)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
17. A right triangular wooden block of mass M = 4 kg is at rest on a m m
smooth table as shown in the figure. Two smaller wooden cubes M
both of mass m = 2 kg, initially at rest on the two sides of the 37 53
larger block start sliding down. What is the normal force (in
2
newton) applied by the system on the table? (take g = 9.8 m/s )
18. The ‘wall of death’ ride consists of a drum with d
diameter d = 10m which rotates at an angular velocity d
as shown in the figure-(a). Passengers stand
against the inside vertical rough wall and as the ride
speeds up to angular velocity , they are held against
the wall and can not slide down due to friction with
the wall. The rotating drum is now tilted so that its = 37
axis of rotation is = 37 above the horizontal as
Figure-(a) Figure-(b)
shown in the figure-(b). If the coefficient of friction
between the wall and the passenger is = 0.5, then
find the minimum angular velocity 0 (in rad/s) of the
drum so that passengers are held against the wall at
the highest point. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. Which of the following species are polar as well as non-planar?
(A) XeF4
(B) H2 O2
(C) XeF 5
(D) XeF5
20. All bonds are equivalent in
(A) Cr2 O72
(B) HCO3
(C) XeO46
(D) SF6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 6r r 2 r /3ao
21. The radial part R r o 2 e represent for an orbital. (ao is Bohr’s radius of H-
9 a3/2
o a ao
atom)
Choose the correct statement about the orbital
(A) this orbital may have one nodal plane in yz plane
(B) it is 3p orbital
(C) one node will be found at the r 6ao distance from nucleus
(D) this orbital can accommodate maximum 6 electrons
22. Which of the following geometry is most likely form from sp3 d hybridisation ?
(A) Linear
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Bent T-shaped
(D) See-Saw
23. Find the incorrect statement
(A) Iodine exists as I82 ion in Cs2I8
(B) Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 and CrO83 is +6
(C) FeCl2 is more ionic than FeCl3
(D) LiO2 and NaO2 are yellow coloured compound but KO2 is colourless
24. Consider the following options and choose the correct one
(A) In the given equilibrium 2SO2 O2 2SO3
If O2 is added and the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced the equilibrium is shift in
product side.
(B) If we add CrO24 ion in saturated solution of Ag2 CrO 4 it will decreases Ag .
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
(C) Three sparingly soluble salt A 2B, AB and AB3 are given. If all the three having same value of
solubility product (KSP). In the saturated solution the correct order of their solubilities is
AB A 2 B AB3 .
(D) If in option (A) inert gas is added at constant pressure and temperature. Partial pressure of
SO3 will be remain same.
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. If tx represents time required for a fraction x of a reactant to be reacted during a reaction involving
only one reactant. Then match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(I) Zero order reaction (P) t 3/4
3
t1/2
(II) First order reaction (Q) t1/4
2
t1/8
(III) Second order reaction (R) t 7/8 3
t 3/ 4 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(IV) Order of reaction 1 (S) 1 ekt
(T) t100%
2
t 50%
( degree of dissociation, k rate constant)
(A) I→Q, T; II→R, S; III→P; IV→P, R, S
(B) I→Q; II→R, T; III→P; IV→P, R
(C) I→ T; II→P; III→R, S; IV→Q, T
(D) I→R, T; II→Q; III→ P; IV→P, Q
26. List – I contains properties and List – II contains moles or ions
List – I List – II
(I) 2 lone pair on central atom (P) XeF
5
(II) Zero dipole moment (Q) NF3
(III) Planar (R) ICl3
(IV) All adjacent bond angle are equal (S) XeF4
(T) PCl3F2
(A) I→P, R, S; II→S, T; III→P, Q,R, S; IV→P, Q, R, S, T
(B) I→P, R, S; II→P, S, T; III→P, R, S; IV→P, Q,R, S
(C) I→P, R, T; II→R, S, T; III→R, S; IV→S, T
(D) I→P,S, T; II→P, R, S; III→P, Q,R, S, T; IV→P, R, S
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
27. List – I contains compounds with bond parameter and List – II contains bond parameter
decreasing order (x1, x2, x3 are bond length while , , are bond angle)
List – I List – II
(I) OH NH2 (P) x1 x 3 x 2
F
B B B
x1 x2 x3
F F F F F F
(II) (Q)
N
N N
F
Cl F F
H Cl Cl
H H
(III) (R)
O O O
x1 x2 x3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H H F F Cl Cl
(IV) S8 S2 F2 S2 Cl2 (S) x 3 x 2 x1
S S bond length x1 x2 x3
(T)
(A) I→S,T; II→R; III→Q,S; IV→S
(B) I→R, S; II→Q; III→S, T; IV→P
(C) I→R,S; II→R; III→Q, S; IV→P
(D) I→R,S; II→T; III→S,T; IV→S
28. List – I contains elements and compounds in respective properties and List – II contains
decreasing order of properties.
List – I List – II
(I) B Al Ga In (P) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
1 2 3 4 Atomic size
(II) NaOH KOH RbOH CsOH (Q) 4>2>3>1
1 2 3 4 Thermal stability
(III) SiO2 CO2 CaO Cs2 O (R) 1>2>3>4
1 2 3 4 Basic strength
(IV) BeF2 BaF2 CaF2 MgF2 (S) 4>3>1>2
1 2 3 4 Water so lub ility
(T) 2>3>4>1
(A) I→Q; II→S; III→P; IV→T
(B) I→Q; II→P; III→S; IV→T
(C) I→P; II→Q; III→S; IV→R
(D) I→Q; II→P; III→S; IV→R
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Yash Patil 12
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. Fauzosite, a zeolite has formula
Na x AlO2 y SiO2 136 .250H2 O
x
The value of is.....
y
30. Calculate the pH at equilibrium point when a solution of 0.6 M CH3COOH is titrated with a
solution of 0.20 M NaOH (Ka of CH3COOH 10-5 at 25oC (log2 = 0.30, log3 = 0.48)
2
31. In cyanuric triazide C3 N3 N3 3 . The number of sp hybridised centre atoms is/are ‘x’ and
x
number of bond that can lies in same plane is/are ‘y’. Calculate the value of ... ?
y
32. For reaction I ClO3 H2 SO 4 Cl HSO4 I2
If stoichiometric coefficient of HSO
4 is ‘x’ and total number of electron gain in the balance
TG ~ @bohring_bot
xz
reduction half reaction is ‘y’. Calculate the value of ......?
y
(z – Stoichiometric coefficient of I2).
33. 2 mole of NH4HS(s) is taken in close container of volume 2 litre. If 1 mole NH4HS (s) taken part in
reaction to attain the equilibrium state and at equilibrium moles of H2(g) is 0.75.
NH4 HS s NH3 g H2 S g K C1 x
1 3
NH3 g N2 g H2 g K C2 y
2 2
At equilibrium [NH3] = a M
y1
[N2] = b M calculate the value of is...?
x1 a b
34. The mechanism of the reaction
K,Ea,A
X 2Y P is
K1,Ea1,A1
Step 1. X Y
I Fast
K 2 ,Ea2 ,A 2
K 3 ,Ea3 ,A 3
Step 2. I Y P Slow
If the value of K1,K 2 ,K 3 ,E a1 ,Ea2 ,Ea3 , A1, A 2 and A 3 are given below
K1 K2 K3 A1 A2 A3 Ea1 Ea 2 Ea3
10 3
10 4
10 2 105
2 108
2 10 920 40 6 35
1
Rate constant unit and pre-exponential factors for the reaction is in sec and activation energy is
KA
in kJ. Calculate the value of is.....?
Ea
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
35.
0.30 L
0.70 L
0.2 M
0.2 M
MgCl2 solution
NH3 solution
Mix
What mass (in g) of (NH4)2SO4 should be added to the above mixture cause the Mg(OH)2 to re-
dissolve? K SP for Mg OH2 6.0 1012 and K b for NH3 2 105
t1/2 10 min
36. In a elementary chemical reaction A aq 2B aq C aq
Reaction mixture react with another reactant T and n-factor of A, B and C react with T in the ratio
2 : 1 : 2 respectively.
If volume of ‘T’ used at 10 min is 40 ml. Calculated volume of T used at t = 0 is x ml, at t = 20 min,
is y ml at t is z ml.
yz
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Find out the value of is.......?
x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 14
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
3 2x 2 x 3
37. If maximum value of f x 2 2
(where x > 0) is , then may lie in
2x x 2sin 2
(A) , (B) ,
6 6 4 4
(C) , (D) (–, )
3 3
x 1
f t dt e
x
38. If ae2x f t e t dt , then
0 0
1
(A) a (B) f x e x 2e2 x
3 2e
1
(C) a (D) f x e x e x
e
39.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
If a function satisfies (x – y) f(x + y) – (x + y) f(x – y) = 2(x2y – y3) x, y R and f(1) = 2, then
(A) |f(x)| is non differentiable at two points
(C) f(–4) = 12
(B) |f(x)| is continuous everywhere
(D) f(4) = 18
40. The value(s) ‘a’ for which the area of the triangle included between the axes and any tangent to
the curve xay = a is constant is/are
1
(A) (B) –1
2
1
(C) (D) 1
2
x
41. Let f(x) be non-positive continuous function and F(x) = f t dt
0
x 0 and f(x) c F(x) where c >
d g x
0 and let g : [0, ) R be a function such that g x x > 0 and g(0) = 0, then
dx
(A) the total number of roots of the equation f(x) = g(x) is 1
(B) the total number of roots of the equation f(x) = g(x) is 0
2
(C) the number of solution of equation |x + x – 6| = f(x) + g(x) is 1
(D) the number of solution of equation |x2 + x – 6| = f(x) + g(x) is 0
dy
42. If y(sin 2x + y cos x) + sin x sin x 2y sin x 1 2cos x and , 0 is a point on the curve,
dx 2
then which of the following is a point on the curve also
3 3
(A) , 1 (B) , 0
2 2
(C) , 1 (D) none of these
2
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
1
If function f satisfies f
4
x 8x 2 f 2 x dx 16 0 , then the value of
(I) 0 5 (P) 0
2
f (1) is
x
If the point of inflection for the curve y 1 t 4 dt is (, ), then + is
(II) 0
(Q) 1
equal to
x x
Let f be continuous and function g is defined as g x t 2 f u du dt
0 1
(III) f 1 (R) 2
also f(1) = 3, and g(1) + g(1) is equal to n1 (where n1, n2 N),
n2
then n1 – n2 is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 1
ex x2 I1
(IV) Let I1 0 1 x dx and I2 0 e x 2 x 3 dx , then eI2 is
3 (S) 3
(T) 4
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
44. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
2x
Number of points of discontinuity of f x sin x in x [0, ] is/are
(I) (P) 0
(where [.] and {.} represents greatest integer function and fractional part
function)
If the area included between the curve y2 = x3, tangent to it at point (1, 1)
(II) (Q) 1
and x-axis is A, then [A + 1] (where [.] represents greatest integer function)
If the area bounded by f : [1, ) [1, ) given by f(x) = x 2 – 2x + 2 and its
(III) (R) 2
inverse is A, then 3A is equal to
1
In
(IV) Let In x n 1 x 2 dx , then lim is equal to (S) 3
0
n In 2
(T) 4
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (R); (II) (Q); (III) (S); (IV) (T)
(B) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (R); (II) (Q); (III) (Q); (IV) (Q)
(D) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (R)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
45. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
3/4
3 2 1
(I) Let f x x3
2
x x , then the value of
4 f f x dx
1/ 4
is (P) 5
Let f : R R, f(x) = 2x – x2 and g : R R, g(x) = xn, n N. If area
11
(II) 1 (Q)
between f(x) and g(x) in first quadrant is , then n is 2
2
1
If f x and S = f(5) + f(4) + f(3) + ..... + f(–3) + f(–4) + f(–5), 13
(III) 1 ex (R)
2
then the value of S is
1
1 7 1
(IV) If f x 4cos4 x 2cos2x cos 4x x 7 , then f(f(4)) (S)
2 4
(T) 4
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (S); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (T)
(C) (I) (S); (II) (P); (III) (T); (IV) (Q)
(D) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (S)
46.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I
If f : R R be differentiable function such that f(x + 2y) = f(x) + f(2y) + 4xy
List-II
(I) (P) 1
x, y R, then f(1) – f(0) is equal to
3f x 1
If lim f x exist and is finite and non-zero and lim f x 2 3,
(II) x x
f x (Q) 2
then value of lim f x is
x
Let f(x) = 1 + 2 cos x + 3 sin x. If real number a, b, c are such that
(III) b cosc (R) 3
af(x) + bf(x + c) = 1 holds for any x R, then is
a
(IV) Define f : R R, such that f(x + y) = 3y f(x) + 2xf(y) x, y R and f(1) = 1, (S) 4
then f(2) is
(T) 5
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (Q); (II) (P); (III) (T); (IV) (P)
(B) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (Q); (II) (P); (III) (P); (IV) (T)
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
x
47. Function f : R+ R is differentiable and satisfies the condition f(x) – f(y) ln x y , for all x,
y
+ 1
y R . If g denote the derivative of f, then the value of the g
2022
2x
1 2cos r
48. Consider a function f x 3 . Then two number of points where |x f(x)| + ||x – 2|
r 1 3
– 1| is non differentiable on interval (0, 3)
2
49. If the value of definite integral I 3x 2 3x 1 cos x 3 3x 2 4x 2 dx can be expressed in the
0
2 2 1
form of (sin ), where , N, then the value of
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
502
305r S
50. If S , then 10,000 is (where [.] represents greatest integer function)
r 1 503
1
1010
22022 x1010 1 x dx
0
51. The value of I 1
is
1010 1 x 2022 1010
x
0
dx
x y 1
52. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying the functional equation f(xy) = f x f y
xy
x, y > 0 and f(1) = 2, then the value of f e200 is equal to (where [.] represents greatest
integer function)
53. Consider the following area:
A1 = Area of region common to y f(x) and y g(x)
A2 = Area of region common to y f(x) and y g(x)
A = Area of region bounded by y = f(x), y = g(x) and x =
where f(x) = |cos |x||, g(x) = |sin |x|| for x [–, ]. Then the value of 2 1 A 1 A 2 A 3 is
/2
54. If I sin x log
e
sin x dx and A is area of the region bounded by the set
0
1
x, y : 0 y min 3 x, x , then the value of A – I is
x
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-11-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. A uniform rod of mass m and length is released from the
Vertical wall
position shown in the diagram. If all the surfaces are smooth then
find the Normal reaction applied by ground on the rod just after
3 m,
the release. sin .
5
9mg 12mg
(A) (B)
25 25
Horizontal ground
16mg 13mg
(C) (D)
25 25
2. A collar of mass m is to be moved along a long fixed (coefficient of friction)
rough straight vertical rod by applying a force F which is
constant in magnitude and whose direction is
continuously changing such that is increased from 0° F
TG ~ @bohring_bot
to 90° linearly with time. Initially the collar is at rest at
ground and again comes to rest when the force m g
becomes horizontal then
mg mg
(A) F (B) F
2 1 1
3mg 2mg
(C) F (D) F
2 1 1
3. A horizontal stick of mass m has its left end attached to a pivot on pivot
the inclined plane while its right end rests on the top of a cylinder m
of same mass m as shown. The coefficient of friction between the
cylinder and both the stick and plane is . Then the smallest value
of for which the system doesn’t slip anywhere is
m
sin 3 sin
(A) (B)
2 cos 1 cos
sin 3 sin
(C) (D)
1 cos 2 cos
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
4. A block is placed on a fixed rough inclined plane y
1
as shown. A force F is applied on the block
3
in the direction shown. Find the range of so that any rough
value of the force F is not able to slide the block along
the inclined plane. (Assuming that F always lies in x-y
F
plane). (Also Given < 30°).
x
horizontal
(A) [60°, 120°] (B) [30°, 120°]
(C) [30°, 90°] (D) [60°, 90°]
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. A bead of mass m is given a velocity u from
point A along a fixed smooth circular wire of u
radius R which passes inside the bead as x
shown in gravity free space. A force F (constant
in magnitude) always acting on bead towards a P C
x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
fixed point P. If u0 is the minimum value of u so A B
that bead completes the entire circle and if
R
u x
and and N is the normal
u0 R
reaction experienced by bead at point B. Then
choose the correct option(s).
1 F 1 F
(A) If 2, then N ˆi (B) If 2, then N ˆi
8 2 3 3
1 5F 1 5F
(C) If 3 , then N ˆi (D) If 3, then N ˆi
8 2 3 3
6. An ideal smooth massless inextensible string passes A 8 B
through the bead as shown whose ends are fixed at A and
B. Initially the system is in equilibrium, now bead is given
a velocity 2gl in horizontal direction and in the plane of
the string as shown. Let T0 be the tension in the string and 5
5
r0 be the radius of curvature of particle just after the
velocity is given. Then choose the correct option(s). v 2g
m
31 mg 35
(A) T0 (B) r0
30 3
41 mg 25
(C) T0 (D) r0
40 3
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
7. A small particle of mass m is dropped from m
height h from the flat surface of a uniform solid h
P1 P2
hemisphere of mass 5m and radius R which is
held at rest with the help of two frictionless pivots
on diametrically opposite points and the
hemisphere is free to rotate about the axis
passing through the pivots. The particle strikes
on a point on circumference which is equidistant 5m, R
from the pivots and sticks to it. After the collision,
the flat surface of hemisphere just able to reach
in vertical plane. Then choose the correct
option(s)
21R
(A) h
8
(B) h = 3R
7g
(C) Angular velocity of the system just after collision is
12R
8g
(D) Angular velocity of the system just after collision is
12R
8. A particle is thrown from ground with speed u at an angle
TG ~ @bohring_bot
with horizontal as shown. If u0 is the minimum value of u so
that the particle will cross the horizontal cylinder just grazing R
at two points on it and 0 is the corresponding angle of u
projection. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) u02 Rg 2 2 2 (B) tan2 0 [3 2 3]
(C) u02 Rg 2 2 3 (D) tan2 0 [3 2 2]
9. The system of two blocks and a frog (each having mass 5v0
m) is placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown.
Initially the spring is in natural length (0) and all are at 37°
m K
rest. Now the frog jumps with velocity 5 v 0 at an angle of
37 with horizontal w.r.t. the block A and lands directly on A m m B
block B. If R is the horizontal Range of frog in ground 0
frame during the jump. If stiffness of the spring is
2mg2
K , then choose the correct option(s).
288 v 20
12v02 24v 02
(A) R (B) R
g g
12v02 2 6v02 2
(C) 0 1 (D) 0 3
g g
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
10. A uniform rope of linear mass density is coiled on a F v0
smooth horizontal table as shown. One end is pulled up
with constant speed v 0. Then choose the correct option(s)
y
v 02
(A) Force exerted (F) on the end of the rope is yg
2
(B) Force exerted (F) on the end of the rope is yg v 02
v 30
(C) Heat loss per unit time is
2
(D) Heat loss per unit time is v 30
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. An L shaped wedge of mass m having long horizontal base is
placed on smooth horizontal surface as shown. A thin Ring of
v
mass m and Radius R is set in motion on the rough horizontal
TG ~ @bohring_bot
m m
part of the wedge with a linear velocity v and angular velocity
such that v = R. Ring collides with the smooth vertical part of
wedge such that collision is perfectly elastic. After a sufficiently
v
long time, the final velocity of wedge is . Find the value of K.
K
(Assume wedge does not topple due to collision)
12. A projectile is thrown from ground with velocity 8 m/s. When it is moving with 6 m/s, it is at
maximum separation from the point of projection corresponding to the speed 6 m/s. Then this
maximum separation corresponding to speed 6 m/s is k meter. Find the value of k. (Take g = 10
ms–2)
13. A small elastic ball moving horizontally with 40 m/s
collides with the smooth stationary wedge (e = 1) at
point P which is placed on smooth horizontal surface as tan = 3/4
shown. After that it again strikes on the wedge at same P
point P after t0 seconds. Find the value of t0. (Take g =
10 ms–2)
14. Bob of mass m of simple pendulum is given a velocity from the lower most position in horizontal
T
direction in uniform vertical gravitational field (g) such that max 2 during the subsequent
Tmin
motion. Then the tension in the string when it becomes horizontal is K mg. Find the value of K. (T
represents tension in the string)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
15. A bead of mass m is given a velocity along a smooth rigid spiral wire
(mass M = 2m and outer radius R) such that bead slides along the
wire. When bead will reach the center of spiral and sticks to it, at that
moment velocity of bead is v and angular velocity of spiral is .
(Assume that the center of mass of loop lies at its centre and given
that its moment of Inertia about an axis passing through centre and
MR2 R
perpendicular to its plane is I ). Find (Neglect gravity)
2 v
16. In a fixed hemispherical smooth bowl of Radius R, a particle is O
dropped at point B somewhere else other than point A. Collision
with the bowl is perfectly elastic. For second collision to take
place at point A, the maximum value of BOA is radian. Find
K B
the value of K.
17. A particle is released from the top of a fixed
smooth inclined surface as shown from height H smooth
rough
from the ground. The particle will reach upto H
height h from the ground on a rough fixed h
30° 30°
TG ~ @bohring_bot
inclined plane which is directly connected to the
smooth inclined plane. If coefficient of friction for horizontal
1 H
rough inclined plane is the find .
2 3 4h
(Assume that particle does not jump.)
18. A uniform rod of length L is rigidly attached with a
uniform semi-circular ring of same density as of rod
to form a rigid body in a plane. The system is hanged
in vertical plane in equilibrium with the help of hinge
as shown such that rod is in horizontal position. Then
the distance of centre of mass of the system from
L
hinge is . Find the value of .
2
L
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. For the dissociation of PCl5 g the variation of 1 against (D/d) is represented as
(D Vapour density at t = 0, d Vapour density at equilibrium)
(A)
1
D
d
(B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
D
d
(C)
1
D
d
(D)
1
D
d
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
20. For an reaction 2 pentyne 1 pentyne. The temperature dependence of equilibrium constant
8000
is given by nK 8.0 . The value of So at 300 K. is….
T
(A) 4R
(B) 8R
(C) 8000R
R
(D)
8
x
21. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The
8
change in its potential energy will be?
7
(A) x
8
7
(B) x
4
7
(C) x
4
9x
(D)
4
22.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The time required for 50% completion of a first order reaction at 298 K is equal to that required for
75% completion of a reaction at 308 K. If the pre-exponential factor for the reaction is
3.5 106 sec 1 in the given temperature range. Find the ratio of K 298 to K 308 .
(A) 0.5
(B) 2
3
(C)
4
3
(D)
2
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. In the emission spectrum of H-atom from energy level ‘n’ to ground state in one or more step and
no line belongs to the Breckett series is observed. The wave length of lines belonging to Balmer
series may be (R = Rydberg constant)
36
(A)
5R
16
(B)
3R
R
(C)
3R
35
(D)
3R
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
24. For the reaction started with 1 mol A 2B 4 g is
A 2B 4 g A 2 g 2B2 g
The vapour densities are measured at various time of dissociation and observed value are
(i) at time t = 0 min VD = 50
(ii) at time t = 10 min VD = 25
(iii) at time t = 20 min VD = 20
V.D. A 2B4
If 5 and t100% is 40 min.
V.D. A 2
Choose the correct option(s)
(A) The ratio of atomic mass of ‘A’ and atomic mass of ‘B is 1 : 2
(B) Mole% of B2 at time t = 10 min is 50%
(C) Assuming uniform dissociation the ratio of rate of disappearance of A 2B4 and rate of
appearance of A2 (g) between t = 10 min to t = 20 min is 1 : 1
(D) Mole % of A2 at t = 10 min is 50%
25. A closed rigid container of volume 1 litre, initially contains 4 mole of HI (g) and 4.25 moles of
N2 g at 27o C. When the mixture is heated to 127o C two reversible reactions takes place till
equilibrium is established.
2HI g H2 g I2 g K C1
2N2 g 6H2 g 4NH3 g K C2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
At equilibrium the concentration of I2 and NH3 are 1.0 M and 0.5 M respectively. Choose the
correct option
5
(A) K C1
32
16
(B) K C2
125
1
(C) K C1 K C2
25
(D) Conc. of N2 at equilibrium = 4.0 mol/litre
26. How many of the following compounds has more than one p d bond
(A) SO2
(B) SO3
(C) XeO 4
(D) ClO3
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for CH2 = CH2 and CH2 = SF4 (Methyl sulphur
tetrafloride)?
(A) In ethylene nodal plane lies in molecular plane
(B) In methyl sulphur tetrafloride nodal plane lies in axial plane
(C) In methyl sulphur tetrafloride nodal plane lies in equatorial plane
(D) If the nodal plane lies in equatorial plane its stability will be less than if its lies in axial plane
28. How many of the following compounds has more than two (3C – 2e) bond.
(A) AlCl3 n
(B) B2H6
(C) Al BH4 3
(D) Be BH4 2
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Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. Not considering the electronic spin the degeneracy of the second excited state of H-atom is ‘x’
degeneracy of the second excited state of H is ‘y’. And number of angular node in d 2 2 orbital
x y
x
is ‘z’. Calculate the value of z?
y
2
30. The given reaction how many of them can give sp hybridised boron centre. In case of the
product(s)
(i) Borax
(ii) Borax NH4 Cl
HCl
(iii) Borax
H O
(iv) Borax
2
(v) B 2H6 NH3
THF
(vi) B3 N3 H3 Cl3 LiBH4
(vii) LiH B2 H6
(viii) K 3 AlF6 BF3
31.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(i) If the sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the given species
is/are ‘x’
2
TeBr6 , IF2 , SNF3 and XeF3
(ii) and among the following species the number of diamagnetic spin is/are ‘y’
B 2 , Li2 , C2 , C2 , O22 , O2 , He2 , Be2 , KO2 , K 2 O, N2 O 4 , B 3N3 H6
(Atomic number of Te = 52, Br = 35, Xe = 54, K = 39, I = 127).
xy
Calculate the value of ?
2
32. Equilibrium constant of SO3 g decomposition and formations was calculated by following two
methods
Method (1) Method (2)
2SO3 g 2SO2 g O2 g 2SO2 g O 2 g 2SO3 g
I II
at t = 0, 10 moles of SO3 is added 5 in Initially 2 : 1 molar ratio SO2 and O2 is added
respectively. At the equilibrium total pressure
container. If at equilibrium mixture is titrated with
of mixture 20 atm. Mole % of O2 at equilibrium
0.2 M acidic KMnO4 its volume 4 litre. KC for the
is 25%. KP for the reaction is ‘y’ atm -1.
reaction is ‘x’ (mol/litre)
y
The value of is ?
x
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
33. Consider the following combination of atomic orbitals
Sr. No. Combining orbitals Internuclear axis
i. s px (x)
ii. dxy dxy (x)
iii. dyz pz (z)
iv. py py (y)
v. dyz dyz (x)
vi. ss (z)
vii. dz2 dz2 (z)
viii. dxy dxy (z)
ix. px px (y)
x. s pz (x)
2 2
a b 2d
Calculate the value of (Where a , M.O. b . M.O. d non bonding M.O. )
4
34. In the given compounds bond angle and bond length are defined
F F F F
H y1 y2 y3 y4
1 2 3
x2 C x3 C x4 C C
x1 C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H H H F H F F F
H H
H H F F
H IV V
II III
I
Order of bond parameter is/are given
(I)
(II) y1 y 2 y 3 y 4
(III) 3 2 1
(IV) x1 x 2 x 3 x 4
(V) Dipole moment IV II III I V
If the number of correct order(s) is ‘x’ and incorrect order (s) is ’y’ about molecules I, II, III,
IV and V. Calculate the value of (2x + y) …. Is?
35. The solubility of Mg OH2 in pure water is 5.8 10 4 g/litre at 25oC.
Mg(OH)2(s)
Mg(OH)2(s)
+ Al(OH)3(s)
0.01 M Mg(NO3)2
at 25oC
0.35 M NH4Cl + 0.7 M NH4OH
I II
at 25oC
K b for NH4 OH 1.0 105
K SP Al OH3 1.6 1020
If the Mg2 in container (I) is ‘x M’ and concentration of Mg2 and Al3 . In container II is
yz
‘y M’ and ‘z M’ respectively. Calculate the value of ......? (log2 = 0.30)
25x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
36. Choose the correct and incorrect statement in the following given statements
1. Hydrogen peroxide. In the pure state is non-planar and almost colourless.
2. S 8 s aOH aq. bS2 aq. cS 2 O32 aq dH2 O
The value of a + b is 16.
3. Hydrogen peroxide. In its reaction with KIO4 and NH2 OH respectively is acting reducing
agent and oxidizing agent.
4. MgCl2 .6H2 O on heating give anhydrous MgCl2 .
5. H3 BO3 is mono basic weak Lewis acid.
6. According to MOT B2 and C2 both do not have bond.
7. ‘Be’ cannot be qualitatively confirmed by the flame test.
8. Correct order of density of alkali metals is Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs.
4
9. The silicates in which three oxygen atoms of SiO4 are shared known as sheet silicate.
10. Pb 4 compounds are stronger oxidizing agent than Sn4 compounds.
11. Graphite is better lubricant on the earth than on moon.
12. The hydrolysis of trialkylchlorosilane R3 SiCl yields trialkylchlorosilanol.
If the correct number of statement(s) is/are x and incorrect statement(s) is/are y. Value of
3x y
is….
6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
f x f y tan1 x tan1 y
37. If f(x) is a function such that f x y 0 x, y R and f(0) = 1,
1 y2 1 y2
then the function f(x) is
1 –1
(A) 1 tan1 x 2e tan x (B) –(1 + tan x)
1 1
(C) e1 tan x
(D) 1 tan1 x e tan x
38. A function f(x) is such that the area enclosed by |y| = f(x) between x = 1 and x = a (a > 1) is given
4 2 f x
by g(a) = a + 6a – 16a + 9, then the area formed by the curve k x between the lines
g x 5
x = 2 and x = 3 with the x-axis is
1 101 1 131
(A) ln (B) ln
2 22 2 22
1 141 1 101
(C) ln (D) ln
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 12 2 12
x2
39. The value of e 2x cot x x 2 ln sin x cosec x dx is equal to
2 2
(A) e x 2x ln sin x 1 cosec x c (B) e x 2x ln sin x 1 cosec x c
2 2
(C) e x x 2 ln sin x 1 cosec x c (D) e x x 2 ln sin x 1 cosec x c
40. Let C be a curve f(x, y) = 0 passing through (1, 1) such that it is orthogonal to the family of circles
x2 + y2 – ax = 0, where ‘a’ being parameter, then the shortest distance between the curve C and
the parabola x2 = 2y + 1 is
(A) 2 1 (B) 2 1
(C) 3 1 (D) 3 1
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
41. Let f(x) = (cos2 x)(etan x), x , , then which of the following options is/are true?
2 2
(A) f(x) = 0 has atleast one root in x ,
2 2
(B) y = f(x) has a point of local maxima in x , 0
4
(C) f(x) = 0 has exactly one root in x ,
2 2
x3 6x2 11x 6
(D) lim 1
x x2 3x 2
where ‘’ is the total number of points of maxima and minima of y = f(x)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
42. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x) > 0, f(x) > 0 x (0, 1) and f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1, then which of
the following options is/are true?
1 1 1 1
(A) f f 1 (B) f 1 f 1 1
2 3 2 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) f f (D) f f
3 3 3 2 2 2
43. In a question, a student was given to find the derivative of the product of two functions ‘f’ and ‘g’.
x 1
The student by mistake thought (fg) = fg for his question f x and he got the correct
x3
answer. Given that g(1) = e. Which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) g(x) is discontinuous at one point
(B) lim g x 1
x
x3 8
(C) lim 12 where is the number of points of discontinuity of g(x)
x x 2
(D) g(x) is discontinuous at two points
1 x 2
44. Let f x cos1 2
and g(x) = {f(x)} x R (where {x} denotes fractional part function of x),
1 x
then which of the following options is/are true?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) Total number of points where f(x) is not continuous is 2
(B) Total number of points where g(x) is not continuous is 7
(C) f(1) = f(-1) = 1 and g(x) is not differentiable at x = 0
(D) Total number of points where f(x) is not continuous is 3
3 /4
1 2 cos t
45. Let f(x) be a function defined by f x x cos t 3 sin t 2x
dt where x is any
cos t 2 3
0
real number, then which of the following options is/are true?
(A) f(x) is continuous and differentiable everywhere
(B) f(x) is continuous for all x but non-differentiable at two values of x
3
(C) Minimum value of f(x) is for x R
2
3
(D) Minimum value of f(x) is for x R
4
x2 x 1
46. Let the function f : , , be given by f x sin1 log3 2 , then which of
2 2 x x 1
the following options is/are true for f(x)?
(A) f(x) is injective function
(B) f(x) is surjective function
1
(C) f f x
x
(D) The equation f(x) = x – 1 has two distinct roots
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
2
47. If f(x) is a function satisfying 3f (x) – 4xf(x) + 2 = 0 and the value of integral
6x 2 f x 4x 2 ax bf x
3f x 2x x2 f x 2 dx is equal to 3x 2 f x 4x3 2 c (where a, b, c are constants), then
the value of (a + b) is
16
48. If the area bounded between the curves |x| + y = 4 and x y 2 is sq. units, then the
3
value of is
n mr mn2 2
49. The value of lim lim 2 2 2
is , then the value of is
r 1 k 1 m n k n r
2 2
n m
160
x 2 1 x 2 9
50. Consider f x , x R – {a, b}, where g(x) is a polynomial of degree 4.
g x
f(x) has a removable type of discontinuity at x = a and x = b. The following three informations are
also known
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(i) lim f x (ii) lim f x 4
x x 1
(iii) lim f x a non-zero finite number
x 3
Let L and M denotes the number of points of discontinuity and the number of points of non-
differentiability of y = |f(|x|)| respectively in R (the set of all real numbers), then the value of (L +
M) is
4 3 /8
dx dx 3
51. If , then the value of is
2 sin 4x 8x 16
0 0 7 cos
3
52. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 6 such that f(2) = 85 and attains its local minimum value 4 at
points x = –1, x = 1 and x = 5. The local maximum value of f(x) lies at x = and x = .
x2 9
If lim 2 , then the value of [] is (where [.] represents greatest integer function)
x x 5x 6
1
x2022
1 t 2021 1 1
1
53. If the value of lim 2022 dt , then the number of positive divisors of is
x 0 x t
x 2023
m
54. If the area bounded by the curves x 2 = y, x2 = –y and y2 = 4x – 3 is , where m and n are
n
relatively prime positive integer, then |m – n| is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-11-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. A, B, D
dx
Sol. 0.1 x
dt
0
dx
9
x
0.1 dt = 60 sec
0
0.1 x 0.1
rad/s
x x
0.1 2
a = v = 0.1 x 0.01 m/s
x
2. A, C
Sol. Speed of the object will remain constant because tension
is always perpendicular to the velocity. r
r (/2)
So angular momentum about O = mv0 sin mv 0r
sin
mv 0mv 02 2 O v0
5 kg-m /sec
Tmax
3. B, C
Sol. For the bigger disc C1r14 fdtr1 0
For the smaller disc C2r24 fdtr2 0
L1 r1
So, 1r13 2r23 and
L 2 r2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
4. A, C, D
J
Sol. In both situations vC
m
J
In situation-(ii),
m
5. B, D
Sol. Hmax
B Hmax
A Hmax
C (as shown clearly)
So, uBy uyA uCy
Vertical component of initial velocity of each particle will decide the time taken.
So, t C t A tB
6. B
Sol. For COM position, m1x1 = m2x2
Where m1 and m2 are masses of left and right part of the rod and x 1, x2 are their respective
position of centre of mass.
Simultaneously, m1x1 = m2x2
and I1 I2
1 2 1 2
and I1 I2
2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
7. C
Sol. (I) 0 = 100v + 50(v + 3) (COLM) 3 m/s
v = 1 m/s
1 1
So, work done by man = (100)(1)2 (50)(2)2 150 J v
2 2
(II) W N + W mg = K.E. (WET)
1 1
W N (2)(10)2 (2) (5)2 (15)2
2 2
W N = 100 J
(III) Unstable equilibrium points are x = 10 m, 30 m
Stable equilibrium point is x = 20 m
1
So, Ui = 0, and Uf = (10)4 100 J
100
W conservative force = Ui Uf = 100 J
5R 3R mgR
(IV) W ext = Uf Ui = mg 100 J
8 8 4
8. B
Sol. In case-(I)
at x
1
y at 2
2
1 2 x 2
y a 2
2 a
2 x 2
y
2a
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
9. A
Sol. 3 kg block will be at rest. (so friction between S2 and D = tension in the string connect to block D)
Considering A + B + C in a system
T 6 = 3a, 20 2T = 2a1 and a = 2a1
8 2
So, a m/s
7
So, there will be slipping between blocks A and B.
Now consider (B + C) in a system
T 6 1 = 2a
20 2T = 2a2 and a = 2a2
So, T 7 = 4a2
20 2T = 2a2
2
So, a = 1.2 m/s
10. C
mR2 mR2 mR2 mR2
Sol. Case –I : 0
2 2 4 4
0
3 rad/s
2
Case –II: 0 6 rad/s
mR2 R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Case –III: 0 mv (mR2 )
2 2
8
So, 3 7 rad/s
2
mR2 R 1
Case –IV: 0 mv mR2
2 2 2
8
3 5 rad/s
4
Section – B
11. 4.50 (range 4.40 to 4.60)
Sol. (F) (2) = (N) (1) N = 2F (N is normal between rods)
1
and (N) (F1 )(2)
2
F
So, F1
2
12. 60.60 (range 60.00 to 61.00)
0.01L 100L
Sol. Total time taken =
0.0001v v
100L
Total number of collision with moving wall in the said movement 50
2L
v
v
In each collision with the movable wall speed of the sphere increases by 0.0002 v.
So, final speed of sphere = v + 50 0.0002v = 1.01 v = 60.60 m/s
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
13. 2.50 (range 2.40 to 2.60)
Sol. from torque equilibrium about O F
1
F mg mg
22 2
mg
F N
4 30
mg
O
mg
14. 1.41 (range 1.35 to 1.45)
Sol. Ndt mv cos (v 2gh)
mv sin mv cos 3 1 4 50
So, v f 2gh 2 m/s
m 5 2 5 5
15. 7.46 (range 7.40 to 7.50)
Sol. xB x A x 2A h2 L xB
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dxB dx A xA dx A uA
0 xA
dt dt x 2A h2 dt
uB 1 2 uB
So, uA A B
1 cos 3 2 3
1
2 h
uA = 7.46 m/s
16. 2.43 (range 2.35 to 2.55)
2
1 1
Sol. yCM (10) 0.05 m
2 10
2
So, hCM 1 0.05 1.62 m
3
1.62 3
So, y 2m 2.43 m
2
17. 58.80 (range 57.00 to 59.00)
Sol. Assume the bloc M at rest, we see that both smaller cubes are applying net zero resultant
horizontal force on the larger block.
So, N = Mg + mg (cos2 37 + cos2 53) = Mg + mg
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
18. 2.00 (range 1.95 to 2.05)
Sol. mg cos 53 = 0.5 N
2
mg sin 53 + N = m r
mg(0.6)
So, mg(0.8) m 2r
0.5
8 6
So, g 2r
10 5
So, 10 2 = 2r
20
So, 2.00 rad/s
5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. B, D
Sol. XeF4 sp3 d2 Square planar and nonplanar
H2 O2 sp3 open book structure. Nonplanar and polar
XeF5 Pentagonal planar and non polar
XeF5 Square pyramidal non planar polar
20. C, D
Sol. O O O
O
Cr Cr C
O O
O O
H
O O
All Cr - O bonds are not equivalent All C - O bonds are not equivalent
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
O F
O
F F
Xe
S
O O
O F F
F
All Xe - O bonds are equivalent due to resonance sp3d2 hybridisation
21. A, B, C
Sol. r = 0, R(r) = 0 so its true for p-orbital, Azimuthal quantum number is 1.
6r r 2
R r 0, o 2 0
a ao
One radial node is observed at r 6ao distance.
So, its true for 3p-orbital.
In Px orbital nodal plane is in yz plane and p-orbital accommodate only 2-electron.
22. A, C, D
3 3
Sol. Tetrahedral will be formed by sp -hybridisation. Other three can be formed by distorted sp d
hybridisation. i.e.
XeF2 andI3 are sp d but linear shape.
3
3
BrF3 is sp d but bent T-shaped.
SF4 is sp3d but see-saw shaped.
23. A, C
Sol. In CrO38 Cr has +5 oxidation state.
KO2 is also colorful.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
24. A, B, C
Sol. In option (D) if we add inert gas at constant pressure and temperature. Equilibrium will get
disturbed and more in backward direction.
25. A
Sol. For reaction A Product
Using the given formula we can solve all the options
A o A t
For zero order reaction t
k
1 A o
For first order reaction t n
k A t
1 1 1
For second order reaction t
k A t A o
26. B
Sol. Correct answer is I→P, R, S; II→P, S, T; III→P, R, S; IV→P, Q,R, S
27. C
Sol. Correct order is I→R,S; II→R; III→Q, S; IV→P
TG ~ @bohring_bot
28. D
Sol. Correct answer is I→Q; II→P; III→S; IV→R
Section – B
29. 1.00
Sol. SiO2 is neutral and Na has unit +ve charge AlO2 should have unit – ve charge to balance the
charge of molecule.
x(1) + y(– 1) + 136(0) + 250(0) = 0
x=y
x
1.00
y
30. 9.09
Sol. CH3 COOH NaOH CH3 COONa H2 O
0.60 V 0.20 3V 0.60V
0.60V 3
CH3 COONa 4V
20
M
pH at 25oC for salt of WA + SB is
1
pH 7 pK a log salt
2
1 3
pH 7 5 log
2 20
1
7 5 0.82
2
1
7 4.18
2
7 2.09
= 9.09
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 8
31. 1.50
Sol. N
N sp
N sp2
C sp2
sp2
2
sp N N
sp2
C C
N N
2 N N N
N sp
N sp2 sp2
sp
sp sp2
Maximum 6 bond can lies in same plane and sp2 centre are 9.
x 9, y 6
x 9
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1.50
y 6
32. 1.50
Sol. Balance reaction is
ClO3 6I 6H2 SO 4 3I2 Cl 6HSO4 3H2 O
x = 6, y = 6, z = 3
33. 6.93
Sol. NH4 HS s NH3 g H2 S g
2x xy x
1 3
NH3 g N2 g H2 g
2 2
y 3y
xy
2 2
Given,
3y
2–x=1 0.75
2
1
x=1 y
2
1 1 1
x1 K C1 .
2 4 8
3 1
3 2 1 2
8 8 3 3
y1 K C 2
1 16
4
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1
a NH3 M
4
1
H2 S 2 M
1
b N2 M
8
3
H2 8 M
y1 3 3 8 8
4 3
x1 a b 16 1 3
4 1.732
= 6.928
= 6.93
34. 1.33
K1K 3
Sol. K overall 104 sec 1
K2
A1 A 3
A overall 2 105 sec 1
A2
Ea overall Ea1 E a3 Ea2 15 kJ
Ea
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K.A 2 104 105
15
1.33
35. 18.48
Sol. MgCl2 2NH3 2H2 O Mg OH2 s 2NH4 Cl
Mg OH2 s Mg2 2OH
NH4 2 SO4 is acidic so it will dissolved Mg OH2 solid which is formed in mix. When all
2+
Mg OH2 will re-dissolve the conc. of Mg ions in the final solution will become equal to its initial
conc.
0.70 0.2
NH3 in mix initially 1.0
0.14 M
0.30 0.2
Mg2 in mix initially 0.06 M
1.0
When Mg2 0.06
K SP 6 10 12
OH
105 M
Mg2 0.06
NH4 OH K b NH3
For NH3 K b NH4
NH3 OH
2 10 5 0.14
NH4 0.28 M
105
Mole of NH4 0.28
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
0.28
Mole of NH4 2 SO4 needed 0.14
2
Mass of NH4 2 SO 4 132 0.14
= 18.48 g.
36. 37.50
Sol. A aq 2B aq C aq
t0 a 0 0
a a
t 10 min a a
2 2
3a 3a 3a
t 20 min a
4 2 4
t 0 2a a
Let the normality of ‘T’ is N and initial volume of ‘T’ is used x ml
At t = 0 Meq. of A = Meq. of T
a 2n N x … (1)
At t = 10 min Meq. of (A + B + C) = Meq. of T
a a
2n a n 2n 40 N … (2)
2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
At t = 20 min Meq. of (A + B + C) = Meq. of T
a 3a 3a
2n n 2n N y … (3)
4 2 4
At t = min Meq. of (B + C) = Meq. of T
2a n a 2n N z … (4)
80 140 160
Solving these equilibrium x ml, y ml, z ml
3 3 3
yz
Value of 37.5 .
x
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. B, C, D
3
Sol. f x
2sin2
2x 2 x
2
2x x
Using AM GM
2sin2
2x 2 x 1 1
2x 2 x 2sin2 2 3 2 2 sin f x 3 cosec
2 2f x 3
22
3 1
f x |cosec | = 2 |sin | =
2 2
38. A, B
1
1
f te
t
Sol. Put x = 0 dt
0 a
x
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
f t dt e
x
ae2x ex 22x , differentiating we get, f x e x 2e2 x
0 a
39. A, B, C
Sol. (x – y) f(x + y) – (x + y) f(x – y)= 2y(x – y)(x + y)
f v f u
Let x – y = u, x + y = v uf(v) – v(f(u) = (v – u)uv v u k
v u
f(x) = kx + x2 f(1) = 2 k = 1 f(x) = x2 + x
40. D
dy dy ay
Sol. x a y a , on differentiating axa 1y x a 0
dx dx x
ay1
Tangent at point (x1, y1) is y y1 x x1
x1
2
1 a a 1 1 a
Area = x1 area is constant if a = 1
2 a
41. A, D
Sol. f(x) 0, F(x) = f(x) as f(x) c F(x) F(x) – c F(x) 0
d cx
e cx F x c e cxF x 0 e F x 0
dx
e cx F x is an increasing function
e cx F x e c 0 f 0 F(x) 0 f(x) 0 f(x) = 0
d x
Also, e g x 0 e x g x is a decreasing function
dx
e–xg(x) < e–(0)g(0) g(x) < 0 (as g(0) = 0)
Thus, f(x) = g(x) has one solution x = 0 also, |x 2 + x – 6| = f(x) + g(x) = g(x) no solution
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
42. B, C
Sol. Solution of differential equation is sin2 x y sin x y 2 cos x cos2 x 0
43. D
1 1
2 2
f x 8x f x 16x dx f x 4x
4 2 2 4 2 2 2
Sol. (I) 0 f (x) = 4x
0 0
4x 3
(II) f x f(x) = 0 at x = 0 and f(x) changes sign around it
2 1 x4
x x f 1
(III) g x x 2 f u du f x t 2 dt and g(1) = 1 g 1 6
1 0 3
1 0 t 1
1 dt 1 e 1 3
(IV) I2 t dt I1 (Let –x = t)
3 0 e 2t 3 1 1 t 3e
44. C
Sol. (I) f(x) is discontinuous at x ,
2
1
3x 1 3
(II) A x 3/2 dx
0 2 20
2 2
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(III) Required area = 2 xdx x 2 2x 2 dx
1 1
3
1 1 1
n 1 n2
(IV) In x n 1 x 2 dx = n 1 2
x x 1 x dx = 0 x 1 x 2 1 x 2 dx
0 0 3 0
n 1 n 1 I n 1
= In 2 In n
3 3 In 2 n 2
45. B
3 1
Sol. (I) For f x x3 x 2 x f(x) + f(1 – x) = 1 f(f(x)) + f(1 – f(x)) = 1
2 4
3 /4
I f f x dx
1/ 4
..... (1)
3 /4
I f f 1 x dx
1/ 4
..... (2)
3 /4
1 1
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get 2I f f x f 1 f x 2
1/ 4
I
4
1
1
(II) Area A 2x x 2 x n dx n = 5
0 2
11
(III) f(x) + f(–x) = 1 S
2
1/7
3
(IV) f x x7 and f(f(x)) = x
2
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
46. D
Sol. (I) Put 2y = y f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 2xy partially differentiate with respect to x
f(x + y) = f(x) + 2y put x = 1, y = –1 f(1) – f(0) = 2
3 1
(II) Let lim f x , then 3 =1
x 2
1 1
(III) f(x) + f(x + ) = 2 f x f x 1 also af(x) + bf(x + c) = 1
2 2
1
On comparing a = b = , c =
2
(IV) f(x + y) = 3yf(x) + 2xf(y) ..... (1)
Put x = 1 in equation (1) f(1 + y) = 3yf(1) + 2f(y)
x
y x f(1 + x) = 3 f(1) + 2f(x) ..... (2)
Now, put y = 1 in equation (1)
x
f(1 + x) = 3f(x) + 2 f(1) ..... (3)
From equation (2) and (3), we get f(x) = 3x – 2x
Section – B
47. 2023.00
Sol. f(x) – f(y) ln x – ln y + x – y ..... (1)
x y and y x
f(y) – f(x) ln y – ln x + y – x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
f(x) – f(y) ln x – ln y + x – y ..... (2)
From equation (1) and (2), f(x) – f(y) = (ln x + x) – (ln y + y)
1 1
f(x) = ln x + x g x 1 g 2023
x 2022
48. 5.00
x 2x
Sol. sin 3 = 3 sin – 4 sin3 = sin (1 + 2 cos 2) sin x sin 1 2cos
3 3
x x
2x
sin sin 2 1 2cos 2 and so on multiplying all
3 3 3
x 2x
sin n n 1 2cos r
x n 2x sin x 3 3 sin x
sin x sin n 1 2cos r lim f(x) =
3 r 1 3 x n x r 1 3 x
n
3
Thus |x f(x)| + ||x – 2| – 1| = |sin x| + ||x – 2| – 1| is not differentiable at 5 points in (0, 3)
49. 4.50
2 2
Sol. I 3x 2 6x 4 cos x 3 3x 2 4x 2 dx 3x 3 cos x 3 3x 2 4x 2 dx
0 0
Let I = I1 + I2
2
3
I1 cos t dt = 2 sin 2 (where t = x – 3x2 + 4x – 2)
2
1
I2 3 ucos u3 u du = 0 (where u = x – 1)
1
50. 7.63
Sol. If each of two positive real number x, y is not integer but x + y is an integer,
then [x] + [y] = x + y – 1
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
x y 1
305k 305 503 k
Since, 305 for 1 k 502
503 503
305 305 2 305 502
S ..... = 304.251 = 76304
503 503 503
51. 4044.00
1
1010
Sol. I2 x1010 1 x 2022 dx let x1011 t
0
1 1 1
1
1 t 2 dt = 1 1 1 t 2 dt = 1 t1010 2 t 1010 dt
1010 1010
I2
1011 0 1011 0 1011 0
Put t = 2y
1/2 1 1/2
22021 1010 1010 1010 1010 1010
I2 y 1 y dy and I1 x 1 x dx = 2 x1010 1 x dx
1011 0 0 0
I1
I 22022 4044
I2
52. 199.00
1 1
Sol. f x ln x f e200 200 200
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x e
53. 16.00
/4
A
Sol. A 1 4 cos x sin x dx 4 2 1 also A1 A 2
0 2
54. 4.75
/2
1
Sol. I sin x ln sin2 x dx , put cos x = t
2 0
2 3
1 2 t 2 t 2
1 1
1 1 1 1 1
I ln 1 t dt = t
2
..... dt = .....
20 2 0 2 3 2 3 10 21
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= ..... ..... = loge 2 1
6 20 42 2 3 4 5
15
and A ln 2
4
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-11-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. D
Sol. = I (about ICOR)
2
4 1 m 2 N1 ICOR
mg m
5 2 12 2
COM
6g N2
5
3g
acm
2 5
mg N2 maCM cos mg acm
3mg 4
mg N2
5 5
13mg
N2
25
2. A
Sol. t cons tant
F cos
N = F sin t F
v
mdv
Fcos t N mg
dt
N F sin
0 T
mdv F cos t sin t mg dt
0 0 mg
F T
sin t cos t 0 mgT
f = N
Also T
2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
F sin cos mgT
2 2
F 1 mg
2
mg
F .
2(1 )
3. B
Sol. F.B.D. of rod F1 N1
0 0 (about pivot)
mg f1
N1 …(i) F2 O
2
mg
F.B.D. of cylinder N1
O
C 0 f1
f1R f2R y f2
C
f1 f2 …(ii) mg
(say f)
Also 0 0 x
N2
N1 mg N2 N2 N1 mg
F
3mg
N2
2 TG ~ @bohring_bot
x 0 (on the cylinder)
…(iii)
f 1 cos N2 sin
3mgsin
f
2 1 cos
Also f1 max f2max N1 N2
3mgsin mg
f N1
2 1 cos 2
3 sin
1 cos
4. A
Sol. F.B.D. of block is as shown ( 90°) N
N = F sin + mg cos Fcos
f = F cos – mg sin
for No sliding f N
1 mgsin +f
Fcos mgsin F sin mgcos
3
sin mg cos
cos sin Fsin + mgcos
3 F 3
sin
cos 0 ( no sliding even when F )
3
tan 3 60
For > 90°
N F sin mgcos
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
f mgsin F cos
f N 120
Range [60°, 120°]
5. A, B, D
Sol. Applying WET on bead from A to B W N + W F = K
m u
O F R x R x v 2 u2 R+x
conservative
2
P
4Fx Fx
v 2 u2 u0 2 N+F
x
m m
mv 2 v
Also N F
R R–x
m 4Fx m
N u2 F u2 u20 F
R m R
m m 4Fx
N 2 1 u02 F 2 1 F
R R m
N F 4 2 1 1
N F 1 4 1 2 ˆi
6.
Sol.
A, D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
As PA + PB = 10 = Constant
The bead will move along the elliptical path in vertical
Y
plane.
Such that 2a = 10 and 2ae = 8 a = 5, b = 3 A B
Equation of ellipse is x
x2 y2
1
5 2 3 2 P
3/2
2
r0 1 y
3
at 0, 3 ( y = 0, y = )
y 25
25
r0
3
m 2 3
2T0 cos mg
r0
2g cos
5 T0
T0
31 mg
T0 . v 2g
30
mg
7. A, C
Sol. Angular momentum of system is conserved about the axis passing through the pivots
Li (Just before collision) = L f (Just after collision)
2
mv0R = mR2 5m R2
5
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
v0
3R
Now, applying conservation of mechanical energy after the collision
1 2 3R
mR2 5m R2 2 mgR 5mg
2 5 8
mR2 v2 7mgR
3 02
2 9R 8
21R 7g
Also v 0 2gh h
8 12R
8. A, D
Sol. For u to be minimum, it just grazes the cylinder at two points
as shown.
From COME
mu2 mv 2 v
mgh
2 2
u2 v 2 2gh
2 2 u0
u v 2gR 1 cos h
v
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
2Rsin
sin 2 Rg
Also 2R sin v 2 v2 …(2)
g cos
From (1) and (2)
1
u2 Rg 2 2cos
cos
d 2 1
For u min.
d
u 0 cos
2
= 45
u02 Rg 2 2 2
Also ucos v cos
tan2 0 [3 2 2]
9. A, D
Sol. Just after the jump by the frog. 5v0 (w.r.t. to A)
According to COLM of (A + frog)
(4v 0 – v) m – mv = 0 v = 2v 0 37° K
A B
V
Now consider the motion of blocks in their v0 A C.M. v0
COM frame. m m t=0
At any time t 2K 2K
2k
vBC vB v CM v 0 cos t ,
m
vB v CM v 0 cos t
vB v0 v 0 cos t
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Also the frog is in projectile motion from ground frame 3v0
3v 2v 12v02 6v 0
R 2 0 0 T
g g g g
2v0
R
Also frog land on B
T
Then 0 vB dt R
0
T
0 R v 0 cos t 1 dt
0
v
0 R v 0 T 0 sin T
12v 20 6v 20 m 2K 6v 0
0 v0 sin
g g 2K m g
6v02 2
0 3 .
g
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10. B, C
dm
Sol. F mg v 0 also m = y
dt
dy
F yg v0
dt
= yg v 02
dE
Heat loss per unit time = Fv 0
dt
d 1 y
yg v 20 v 0 y v 20 yg
dt 2 2
v 30
ygv 0 v03 ygv 0
2
v 30
.
2
Section – B
11. 2
Sol. Observing the motion in COM frame. Then system will look like
v/2 v/2
v/2
v/2 v/2
Just before the collision Just after the collision
After the collision, ring starts sliding and then starts pure rolling on wedge as shown.
R = 2v (pure rolling)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Applying COAM of ring in centre of mass frame (after the collision) v
about point P on wedge
2 v 2
mR mR mRv mR v
2
P
v v
mR 3mRv v
2 6
v
Therefore the velocity of wedge is (in centre of mass frame) when pure rolling starts after the
6
first collision. Then they again collides and ring again starts pure rolling on wedge and velocity of
v nd
wedge is (in centre of mass frame) after 2 collision.
18
The process goes on and there will be infinite collisions and finally wedge comes at rest in centre
of mass frame.
v
Velocity of wedge = (in ground frame)
2
12. 5
Sol. v u gt
g
v u
also s v ave t t
2 t
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v u gt …(i)
u
2s v
v u …(ii) s
t
t=0
Squaring and multiplying
v.v u.u 2u.v v.v u.u 2u.v 4g2s2
2
s
100 2u.v 100 2u.v
4g2
s is max. when u.v 0 u v
100
smax 5m
2 10
13. 6
Sol. If it strike again at same point, then the horizontal component of their velocities are same after the
first collision.
v0cos v2
v0 v1
v1
v0sin
Just before collision Just after collision
As e = 1
vsep = vapp
v2cos = v0sin
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
3
v 2 v 0 tan 40 = 30 m/s
4
2v 2
t0 = 6 sec.
g
14. 9
Sol. Tmax T1
v
Tmin = T2
mu2
T1 mg …(1)
l T2 + mg
2
mv l v
T2 mg …(2)
l
From COME (of pendulum + earth system)
1 1 T
mu2 mv 2 mg(2l)
2 2 l
mg
u2 v 2 4gl …(3)
T1
T1
also 2 …(4)
T2 u
from (1), (2) (3) and (4)
mg
TG ~ @bohring_bot
u 11gl , v 7 gl
v 9gl ,
mv 2
T 9mg K=9
l
15. 2
Sol.
V0
2R/3
P
V R/3
C.O.M.
Applying COLM
v
mv0 m 2m v v 0
3
Applying COAM about point P
2R MR2 v R
mv0 2m 0 mR2
3
2 3
2v
R 0
3
R
2
v
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
16. 3
3 /2
2v 0 cos
Sol. T 2 h
v0
gcos
2
t=0
2v t=T
0 4cos2 3
g 2 /2
Also Rsin = V0sin2T /2 Rsin
2v 2
R sin 0 2sin cos 2 1 cos 3 gcos(/2)
g
As v02 2gh
R
h
8 cos 2cos 1
h 0 2cos2 cos 0
cos 2cos 1 0
1
cos
2
K = 3.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
2nd Method:
v0
[90 (/2)]
/2
2 90 180
2
3
90 90–
2
Now > 0
v0
< 60° /2
max radian
3 /2
17. 6
Sol. Applying impulse momentum theorem. N
v0/2
3
Ndt mv 0 2
30° 30°
v0
Ndt m 2 v 30°
30° v0
v
v 0 1 3
2
f = N
v03/2
Just before the impact
Also v 02 2gH and
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
2gH 2
2gh 1 3 4
1 3 l v
1 h
Also a
2 3 30° 30°
2
1 H 1 Just after the impact
h 1 1
2 4 2 a = g/2 [1 + 3 ]
H
6
4h
18. 8
Sol. In equilibrium, the centre of mass of the system must lies on the vertical line passing through
hinge.
XCM = 0 O
L 2R
m1 m2 0
2 x
L2 2R
R
2 R
L = 2R m2
m1 2R m2R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
YCM L
m1 m2 m1
y
L2 R2 4 L
4, 2
L R 22
= 8.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. A
Sol. PCl5 PCl3 g Cl2 g
Dd
, n=2
n 1 d
D
1
d
D
Thus, 1 will linearly increases with increase of .
d
20. A
So Ho
Sol. nK
R R
o
S 8R
21. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2x 2x 2x 16x
Sol. Change in potential energy 2x 2x
8 8 8
14x 7x
8 4
22. A
2.303 100
Sol. K 298 log
t1/2 50
2.303 100
K 308 log
t1/2 25
K 298 log 2 1
0.5
K 308 log 4 2
23. A, B
Sol. Possible transition 3 2 and 4 2
36
3 2
5R
16
4 2
3R
24. A, B, C
Sol. Molecular mass of A 2B4 100
2A 4B
2A 4B 100, 5 given
2A
A 10
A 10,B 20, 1: 2
B 20
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
A 2B4 g A 2 g 2B2 g
1 2
At 10 min. V.D. = 25
Molecular mass = 50
100
50
1 2
1 1
%B2 by mole 100 50%
2 2
1
%A 2 by mole 100 25%
4
At t = 20 min.
100
40
1 2
0.75
d A 2B 4 0.5 0.25 0.25
dt 10 10
d A 2 0.75 0.50 0.25
dt 10 10
Ratio of rate = 1 : 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
25. A, C, D
Sol. 2HI H2 I2
At equilibrium 4 2x x 3y x
2N2 6H2 4NH3
At equilibrium 4.25 2y x 3y 4y
Given x = 1.0 M
4y = 0.5 M
5
Using these value K C1
32
45
K C2 6
5
32
K C2
125
26. B, C, D
Sol. SO2 1 p p
1 p d
SO3 1 p p
2 p d
XeO 4 4 p d
ClO3 2 p d
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
27. A, B, D
Sol.
H
H
C C nodal plane
H
H
Equitorial plane
F F Axial
H F H F
C S C S
H F F
H
F F
Axial plane Equitorial Axial
More stable form due Less stable due to more
TG ~ @bohring_bot
to bent rule. nodal repulsion. Its nodal
plane lies in axial. plane lies in equitorial
28. C, D
Sol. AlCl3 n has (3C – 4e) bond not (3C – 2e)
B2H6 Two (3C – 2e) bond
H
H H
H H B
B Al
H H
H H H
H
H H
H
B B
B Be
H
H H H H
H
6-(3C-2e) bond 4-(3C-2e) bond
Section – B
29. 5
Sol. x = 9, y = 3, z = 2
In one electron system all orbitals of a shell are degenerate (same energy level). In case of many
electron system different orbitals of a shell are non-degenarate. Hence, in second excited state
only three p-orbitals (2p) are degenerate.
H-atom
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
n=1 n=2 n=3
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
H-ion
1s 1s 2s 2p 1s 2s 2p
Ground state 1st excited state 2nd excited state
30. 6
Sol. (i) Borax NaBO2 B 2 O3
(ii) Borax NH4 Cl BN B2 O3 NaCl H2 O
(iii) Borax HCl H3 BO3
(iv) Borax H2 O Na B OH 4 H3 BO3
(v) 3B2 H6 6NH3 2B3 N3 H6 12H2
THF
(vi) B3 N3 H3 Cl3 3LiBH4 B3 N3H6 3LiCl 3BH3
(vii) LiH B 2 H6 2LiBH4
sp3
(viii) K 3 AlF6 BF3 3KBF4 AlF3
TG ~ @bohring_bot sp3
Except (vii) and (viii) all options can give sp2 hybridised Boron centre as one of the product.
31. 6
2
Sol. Lone pair in TeBr6 , IF2 , SNF3 and XeF3 are 1, 2, 0 and 3 respectively. Hence, x = 6.
Diamagnetic species are Li2 , C2 , O22 , K 2 O, N2 O 4 , B3 N3 H6 .
Note: Be2 does not exist so we can’t say it is paramagnetic or diamagnetic species.
Hence, y = 6.
xy
6.
2
32. 4
Sol. In container (I) In container (II)
2SO2 g O2 g 2SO3 g
KMnO4 will oxidized only SO2
2x1 x1 0
Moles of O.A. Moles of R.A.
2x1 2a x1 a 2a
2 5
0.2 4 Moles of SO 2 Total moles nT 3x1 a
2 5 x1 a 1 x1
Given a
Mole of SO2 equilibrium 2 3x1 a 4 3
2
2SO3 g 2SO2 g O2 g 2a
20
10 2x1 2x1 x1 nT 1 1
y KP 2
atm
2x1 = 2 2x1 2a x1 a 20
20 20
x1 1.0 nT nT
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
2 y 80
2 1 Value of 4
x 20
5 5 1
x KC 2
mol /
8 80
5
33. 6
Sol. a = 4 i, iv, vi, vii
b = 2 ii, ix
v and viii forms M.O.
d = 2 iii, x
a2 b2 2d 24
6
4 4
34. 9
Sol. I, II, III and IV are correct due to bent rule and V is incorrect. Correct order in case of V is
II > III > IV > I = V.
x=4
y=1
2x + y = 9
35. 8
3
5.8
Sol. K SP of Mg OH 2 is 10 3 .4 4 1012
TG ~ @bohring_bot
58
2
Mg OH 2 s Mg 2OH
x 0.01 2x
x 0.01 4x 2
4 10 12
4x 2 0.01 4 1012
x 105 mole /
Mg2 in container II 1.0 105
NH4
For basic buffer pOH pK b log
4
NH OH
pOH 5 log5
= 5.70
OH 2 106
4 1012
Mg2
4 1012 1.0 M
1.6 10 20
Al3 2 103 M
8 1018
x 105
y 1.0
z 2 103
yz 200
Value of 8.
25x 25
36. 5
Sol. Statement 4, 11 and 12 are incorrect and other statements are correct.
x = 9, y = 3.
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A
1 tan1 x
Sol. By differentiating, f x 2
f x 0
1 x 1 x2
1
f x 1 tan1 x 2e tan x
38. A
a
f x f x dx g a
3
Sol. ; f(x) = 2x + 6x – 8
1
3
f x 1 101
g x 5 dx 2 ln 22
2
39. D
2
x 2 2x cot x
ex
Sol. e sin x ln sin x dx
2
ex
Let = t ln t dt t ln t 1 c
sin x
40.
Sol.
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 + y2 – ax = 0 x2 + 2xyy – y2 = 0
2xy 2xy
Orthogonal curve : x 2 y2 0 ; y 2
y x y2
y P
By solving, x 2 y 2
c
Passing through (1, 1) so x 2 + y2 = 2y
For shortest distance, Q = (1, 0) Q
D = PQ – r = 2 1
41. A, B, D
Sol. f(x) = f(x)(tan x – 1)(tan3 x – tan2 x + 3 tan x + 1)
g(x) = tan3 x – tan2 x + 3 tan x + 1 = 0 has exactly one root in x , which lies in
2 2
x , 0
4
So, f(x) = 0 at x and k where k , 0
4 4
42. A, C
Sol. f x f 1 x x y
-1
-1 y = f (x)
(x, f (x))
1
(f(x), x)
y = f(x)
(x, f(x))
x
1
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
43. A, B
1
Sol. fg = fg + fg by solving g x e x 2
g(x) is discontinuous at one point at x = 2
44. B, D
Sol. Graph of y = f(x)
2
x
–1 0 1
45. A, D
3/ 4
1 2 cos t
3 sin t
Sol. f x x 2
dt
0 cos t 2 cos t 2
3
2x ; x0
1
2
x 3
f x x 3u du f x x ; 0x3
0 3 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
x2 ; x3
46. B, C
x2 x 1 1 f(x)
Sol. ,3 x R
x2 x 1 3
Maxima at x = –1 and minima at x = 1 2
x
–1 1
2
Section – B
47. 1
Sol.
6x f x 4x 2 2f x dx
2x
dx
fx
dx
1
c
3f x 2x x
f x
2 2
x2 f x 2
x2 f x 2 2
x f x
2
Substitute f x
4x 3f x
48. 2
16 4
4
Sol. 2 8 x 4 x 4 dx
3 0
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
49. 5
n n2 mr
1 1 n n2 r 1
Sol. lim 2 2 m
lim 2 = lim 2 2 2 2
dx
r 1 n r n2 k 2 m r 1 n r 0 n x
n n
k 1
m
1
n n r tan1 x 2
= lim 2 2 tan1 dx
n
r 1 n r n 0 1 x2 32
50. 7
x 2 1 x 2 9 |f(|x|)|
Sol. f x x R – {–3, 1}
x 1 x 3
Graph of y = |f(|x|)|
Discontinuity at x = 1
Non-differentiable at x = 0, 1, 3
–3 –1 1 3
51. 8
4 4 4 /8
dx dx 1 1
Sol. I I 2 2
dx 64 2
dx
0 2 sin 4x 0 2 sin 4x 0 4 sin 4x 0 4 sin 4x
/8 3 /8
2 128 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
I 64 dx ; 3x = t I dt
7 cos8x 3 8t
0 0 7 cos
3
52. 4
Sol. f(x) = k(x + 1)2(x – 1)2(x – 5)2 + 4 f(2) = 81k + 4 = 85 k = 1
f(x) = (x + 1)2(x – 1)2(x – 5)2 + 4 f(x) = 2(x + 1)(x – 1)(x – 5)(3x2 – 10x – 1)
10 x 2 9 19
lim 2
3 x
10 x 5x 6 4
3
53. 4
1
2022 1 x 2022 2021 1 2023 1 x 2023 2021 1
1
x x 1
Sol. lim 2021
x 0 2022 x 2021
= 2021 = 43 47 number of divisors = 2 2 = 4
54. 2
y2 3 1
Sol. Area = 2 y dy
4 3
1
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 03-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A metal vessel of negligible heat capacity contains 0.5 kg of water (of specific heat capacity 4200
Jkg1K1). It is heated from 15C to 85C by 750 W immersion heater in 4 minutes. The average
loss of heat in watts to the surroundings from the vessel during this time is nearly:
(A) 70 (B) 123
(C) 138 (D) 212
2. A well insulated box contains water (specific heat = C and very large
conductivity) of mass m 0 and temperature T0 at time t = 0. If heat is being
dQ
added to it uniformly at a constant rate R and water is leaking from it
dt
dm
at a constant rate , then the temperature of the water at time t
dt
m0
t will be:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
= dm/dt
R m0 R m0
(A) T n T0 (B) T n T0
2C m0 t C m 0 t
R (m0 t) R (m0 t)
(C) T e (D) T e
C 2C
3. A slab X of thickness ‘t’ thermal conductivity ‘k’ and area of cross-section ‘A’ is placed in thermal
contact with another slab Y which is 2n2 times thicker, 4n times conductive and having n times
larger cross-section area. If the outside face of X is maintained at 100C, the outside face of Y at
0C, then the temperature of the junction is represented by the graph (n > 0) :
(A) (B)
t(in degree)
t(in degree)
n n
(C) (D)
t(in degree)
t(in degree)
n n
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
4. Two identical metallic sheets each behaves like a black body are kept parallel to each other with
small separation between them in vacuum. Thermal energy is generated at a constant rate P in
one of the sheets by passing electricity through it. In steady state, temperature of the other sheet
is found to be constant at 300K. Find the value of P in kilo-watt. (given area of plates =
103 17 2 4
A m2 and 108 W/m K )
17 27 3
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
5. A copper sphere is suspended in an evacuated chamber maintained at 300K. The sphere is
maintained at a constant temperature of 500K by heating it electrically. A total of 300W of electric
power is needed to do it. When half of the surface of the copper sphere is completely blackened
600W is needed to maintain the same temperature of the sphere. Calculate the emissivity of
copper.
1 2
(A) e (B) e
3 3
1 1
(C) e (D) e
2 6
6. A generator with an adjustable frequency of L1 R
oscillation is connected to resistance, R = 100 ,
inductances, L1 = 1.7 mH and L2 = 2.3 mH and
TG ~ @bohring_bot
capacitances, C1 = 4 F, C2 = 2.5 F and C3 = 3.5 C1 C2 C3
F. The resonant angular frequency of the circuit is
(A) 0.5 rad/s
L2
(B) 0.5 104 rad/s
(C) 2 rad/s
(D) 2 104 rad/s
7. Power factor of an L-R series circuit is 0.6 and that of a C-R series circuit is 0.5. If the elements
(L, C and R) of the two circuit are joined in series the power factor of this circuit is found to be 1.
The ratio of the resistance is L-R circuit to the resistance in the C-R circuit is
6 5
(A) (B)
5 6
4 3 3
(C) (D)
3 3 4
8. One mole of an ideal gas is kept enclosed under a light and frictionless piston
(area = 104 m2) connected by a compressed spring (spring constant 100
2
N/m). The volume of gas is 0.83 m and its temperature is 100 K. The gas is
heated so that it compresses the spring further by 0.1 m. The work done by
the gas in the process is X joules. Find the value of X. (Take R = 8.3 J-
mol1K1 and there is no atmosphere)
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
5 3
(C) (D)
2 4
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
9. A charged particle of specific charge is released from origin at t = 0 with velocity v v 0 ˆi v 0 ˆj in
magnetic field B0 B0 ˆi . The coordinate of the particle at time t are (specific charge =
B0
q/m)
v 2v 0 v 0 v 0
(A) 0 , , (B) ,0,0
2B B B
0 0 0 2B0
2v v v 2v 0
(C) 0, 0 , 0 (D) 0 ,0,
B0 2B0 B0 B0
10. An electron is released from the origin at a place where a uniform electric field E and uniform
magnetic field B exists along the negative y-axis and negative z-axis respectively. Then which of
the following are INCORRECT.
E eB
(A) At time t the y-component of velocity of the electron becomes v y sin t , where
B m
m
(B) At t the electron will have only x-component of velocity.
eB
2m
(C) At t , the y-component of velocity becomes zero.
3eB
2Em
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) The displacement along y-axis is , when the velocity of electron becomes perpendicular
eB2
to the y-axis.
11. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a uniform magnetic field B
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. If the radius R varies as a
function of time ‘t’, as R = R0 + t, the emf induced in the loop is
(A) 2(R0 t)B clockwise
(B) (R0 t)B clockwise B R
(C) 2(R0 t)B anticlockwise
(D) zero
Y
12. Electric field given by the vector E xiˆ yjˆ present in the XY
plane. A small ring carrying charge +Q, which can freely slide on
(0, L)
smooth non-conducting rod, is projected along the rod from the
point (0, L) such that it can reach the other end of the rod. What
minimum velocity should be given to the ring? (Assume z-axis is
X
the vertical axis) (L, 0)
1/2 1/ 2
QL2 QL2
(A) (B) 2
m m
1/ 2 1/2
QL2 QL2
(C) 4 (D)
m 2m
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
13. Current density in a cylindrical wire of radius R is given as
x R
J0 1 for 0x
R 2
J
J x for
R
xR
0 R 2
The current flowing in the wire is
7 1
(A) J0R2 (B) J0R2
24 6
7 5
(C) J0R2 (D) J0R2
12 12
14. A container encloses 32 g of O2 at 127C and of pressure P0. A small hole is made in the
P
container and the gas leaks out. At a certain state, pressure of gas becomes 0 and its
2
temperature 27C. Mass of the gas that has leaked out till this stage is nearly:
(A) 6.3g (B) 7.4g
(C) 16.3g (D) 10.7g
15. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries I in the negative z-direction. The magnetic vector field
B at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane is
I(yiˆ xj)
ˆ 0I(yiˆ xj)
ˆ
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 0 2 (B)
2(x y 2 ) 2(x 2 y 2 )
I(xiˆ yj)
ˆ 0I(xiˆ yj)
ˆ
(C) 0 2 (D)
2(x y 2 ) 2(x 2 y 2 )
16. A current carrying wire is placed in the grooves of an insulating B
semi-circular disc of radius R, a shown. The current enters at point
A
A and leaves from point B. The magnetic field at point D, has 30
magnitude:
30
0I 0I C
(A) (B) R D
8R 3 4R 3
30I 30I
(C) (D)
4R 2R
17. What is the emf induced in the loop OABCO (radius = a) at
time t placed in uniform magnetic field B as shown when its C
angular acceleration is ? n = number of half revolutions of
the loop in a given time t.
O
B B
A
Ba2t ( 1)n Ba2t
(A) (B)
2 2
( 1)n Ba2t
(C) (D) (1)n Bat
4
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
18. The plate S and T of an uncharged parallel plate capacitor are S T
connected across a battery. The battery is then disconnected and the k
charged plates are now connected in a system as shown in the figure.
The system shown is in equilibrium. All the strings are massless. The
magnitude of charge on one of the capacitor plate is: (consider the area
of plates to be A)
m
4mgA0
(A) 2mgA0 (B)
k
2mgA0
(C) mgA0 (D)
k
19. Power radiated by a black body is P0 and the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is
around 0. On changing the temperature of the black body, it was observed that the power
256P0
radiated becomes . The shift in wavelength corresponding to the maximum energy will be
81
(A) 0 (B) 0
4 2
0
(C) (D) 0
4 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
20. One mole of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder undergoes a thermodynamic process during
A
which pressure relates to volume as P 2
, where A and B are constants. As the volume
B
1
V
of the gas is changed from V = B to V = 2B, its change of temperature can be expressed as:
6AB AB
(A) (B)
5R 2R
3AB 11AB
(C) (D)
5R 10R
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A moving coil galvanometer ‘A’ has 100 turns and resistance 50 . Another moving coil
galvanometer ‘B’ has number of turns 500 and resistance 200 . The other quantities are same
in both cases. They are connected to a battery through a resistance of 50. The ratio of
deflection of B to A is ……….
22. Three concentric thin spherical shells of radii R, 2R and 3R are given 2Q, Q and Q respectively.
The innermost and the outermost shells are earthed. The final charge on the inner most sphere is
Q
n . Find the value of n.
23. A galvanometer having a resistance of 50, gives a full scale deflection for a current of 0.05 A.
Find the length (in meter) of a resistance wire of area of cross-section 2.97 102 cm2 that can be
used to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter which can read a maximum of 5A current.
(specific resistance of the wire = 5 107 -m)
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
24. Three charged capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances 3 C1 C2
+ +
F, 6 F and 6 F respectively and having charge 30 C
each are connected with a resistor of resistance R = 10
through a switch as shown in the figure. The switch S is S
R = 10
closed at t = 0. Find the total heat (in J) dissipated through
the resistor. +
C3
25. Two identical containers A and B with frictionless pistons contain the same ideal gas at the same
temperature and the same volume V. The mass of the gas in A is m A and that in B is m B. The gas
in each cylinder is now allowed to expand isothermally to the same final volume 2V. The change
m 2
in pressure in A and B are found to be P and 1.5P respectively. If A then find the value
mB
of .
9R
26. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity C in the process PT = constant. Find the degree of
2
freedom of the gas molecule. (R = ideal gas constant)
27. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, during a process. If during the given
Q n
process, the ratio = . Find the value of n. (where Q = Heat supplied to the gas during the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
W 2
process, W = work done by the gas during the process)
28. If P-V diagram of a diatomic gas during a process is plotted, it is a straight line (when extended it
passes through the origin). If molar heat capacity of the gas in the process is nR. Find the value
of n. (where R = ideal gas constant)
dB
29. In a region of space, the magnetic field is changing at a constant rate . A given mass ‘m’ of
dt
copper of resistivity and density d drawn into a wire of radius r and formed into a circular loop of
radius R1 which is placed perpendicular to the given magnetic field region. If the current induced
nm dB
in the loop in the terms of given quantities is . Find n.
4d dt
30. A coil of inductance L = 2H and R = 1 is connected to a source of L, R
constant emf, = 3V. A resistance R0 = 2 is connected in parallel
with the coil. The heat generated in the coil after the switch S is
disconnected after a long time is P 106 J. The internal resistance of R0
the source is negligible. Find the value of P.
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Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Molecular formula of P and Q is C2H4 O and C3 H6 O . If P and Q both give (+ve) NaHSO3 test and
only P gives haloform test. Choose the INCORRECT option:
1. NaOH
P Q 2.
Product
(A) Total 4 products will be obtained excluding stereoisomers.
(B) Total 4 products will be obtained including stereoisomers.
(C) Reaction is known as cross-Aldol condensation.
(D) All products obtained will give (+ve) Tollen’t test as well as Fehling test.
32. If Q is benzal chloride, then choose the INCORRECT statement about this commercial method
2 Cl 2 H O
P
h
Q
373 K
R
(A) R will give (–ve) Fehling test.
(B) Total 10 benzenoid structural isomers for Q are possible.
(C) (P) can have molecular formula C7H8.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) Free radical addition involves in conversion of P to Q.
33. The reaction in which two moles of (same or different) alcohol is not obtained as a product is
i LiAlH
4
(A) H3C C OC2H5
ii H O 2
O
i LiAlH
4
(B) H3C C O C CH3
ii H2O
O O
i DIBAL H
(C) H3C C OCH2CH3
ii H2 O
O
Na
(D) H3C C OCH3
C2H5 OH
34. The product obtained on reaction of Malonic acid with P2 O5 / is
(A) CH3 – COOH
O
O
(B)
O
(C) O = C = C = C = O
(D) O = C = C = O
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
35. The product of the following reaction is:
Me Me
NaOH/Br
H CONH2 H CONH2 2
Et CD3
(A) Et CD3
H NH2 and H NH2
Me CH3
(B) Me Me
H2N Et and H2N H
H CD3
(C) Me Me Me Me
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H NH2 , H NH2 , H NH2 and H NH2
Et CD3 Et CD3
(D) Me Me
H NH2 and H NH2
Et CD3
36. The correct order of rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution is
N
N
H
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I > II > III
(B) I < II < III
(C) II > I > III
(D) III > I > II
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
37. Consider the following reaction
NMe2 NMe2
HNO
2
Reaction - I
r
1
ON
CH3 CH3
NMe2 NMe2
HNO2
Reaction - II
r2
CH3 ON CH3
Which of the following is a CORRECT comparison of rate of reaction?
(A) r1 r2
(B) r2 r1
(C) r1 r2
(D) Reactions are not possible
38. The final product of the following reaction is
1. Anhydrous AlCl3
H3C C N HCl
2. H3 O
(A) CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) CN
(C) Cl
(D) O CH3
C
39. The dipole moment of final organic product obtained in the following reaction is:
N2Cl
Boil 2 Br Zn dust
H O
P
H O
Q
R
2 2
(A) R 0
(B) Q 0
(C) R Q
(D) R Q
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
40. The final product ‘T’ in the following reaction sequence is
C CNa
F
i
NaNO HCl CH CH OH H SO Br
ii Fe/HCl
P
2
o Q
3 2
R
2 4
S
2
T
0 5 C HgSO Fe 4
NO 2
(A)
Br C CH2
O
(B)
C CH2 Br
O
(C)
O 2N C C Br
(D) Br
C CH2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
41. The major product ‘S’ obtained in the following reaction is
OH
O
||
i CHCl3 NaOH,
KMnO4
P PhC Cl R
Q
Br2 /Fe
S
ii H3 O H ,
(A) OH
O
Br C C
O O
(B) OH Br
O
C C
O O
(C)
O
C
O
Br COOH
(D)
O
C Br
O
C OH
O
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Yash Patil 12
42. Compare van’t Hoff factor for compounds CH3CH2OH (A) and Ph3COH (B) in cold conc. H2SO4
determined from measurement of freezing point.
(A) iA iB
(B) iB iA
(C) iA iB
(D) iA iB 1
43. 896 mL vapour of a hydrocarbon ‘P’ having carbon 87.80% and hydrogen 12.19% weighs 3.28 g
at STP. Hydrogenation of ‘P’ gives 2-methyl pentane. Also ‘P’ on hydration in the presence of
H2 SO4 / HgSO 4 gives a ketone ‘Q’ having molecular formula C6 H12 O. The ketone ‘Q’ gives a
positive iodoform test. The INCORRECT statement is:
(A) P gives white ppt. with Ammonical AgNO3.
(B) Q gives orange colour with 2,4-DNP.
(C) Q gives crystalline compound with NaHSO3.
(D) P gives red colour of Cu2O with Ammonical Cu2Cl2.
44. Phenol and formaldehyde undergo condensation to give a polymer (P) which on heating with
formaldehyde gives a thermosetting polymer (Q). The polymer (P) is:
(A) Novolac
(B) Bakelite
(C) Glyptal
(D) Polyster
45.
OH TG ~ @bohring_bot
Consider the following reaction
OH
CHO
1. CHCl3 KOH,
2. H3 O
(Major)
The intermediate formed in above reaction is
(A) Singlet dichloro carbene
(B) C Cl3
(C) Chloronium ion
(D) C Cl2
46. The basic strength order of the following in H2O is
MeNH2 , Me2NH , Me3 N
I II III
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > I > III
(C) III > II > I
(D) I > III > II
47. Most acidic compound among the following is
(A) Picric acid
(B) Squaric acid
(C) Carbonic acid
(D) Carbolic acid
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
48. The total number of stereoisomers of following compound ‘X’ is
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 8
49. Asymmetric compound among the following is
COOH
H3C H OH
COOH COOH
H OH
C C C
H COOH
Cl H Cl H3C H
H3C
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) P, Q, R, S
(B) P, Q, S
(C) P, Q, R
(D) Q, S, R
50.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A compound
G
G
C
G
contain
ratio 1 : 1, if G is
G
(A) CHO
(B) CN
(C) COOH
(D) C CH
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. KCN aq. PCC i OH /
CHO P Q ii H
R
How many sp2 hybridised carbons are present in [R]?
x
52. In soda lime decarboxylation, soda lime is made of x mole of NaOH and y moles of CaO, then
y
is….
53. 0.5 g of an organic compound having molecular formula C12 H24 Nx was analysed for nitrogen
using Duma’s method. The nitrogen evolved was collected over water and found to be 110 mL at
300 K and 802 mm Hg pressure. If aqueous tension of H2 O at 300 K is 42 mm Hg, the value of x
is…..
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Yash Patil 14
54.
In the qualitative analysis of sulphide ions S2 , the following reaction is used
S2 Compound X Na4 Fe CN5 NOS
What is magnetic moment (in B. M.) for compound ‘X’?
55. How many alcoholic structural isomers of molecular formula C6H14O are possible which on
oxidation with PCC give aldehyde product?
56. Number of moles of CH3MgBr which will react with one mole of compound ‘Y’:
H2C CHO
Y= HC C CH CH CH CH2 COOCH3
OH
C N
57. An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C5H10O6 on acetylation forms a compound
having molecular weight 334. Number of hydroxyl groups (–OH) in the compound ‘A’ is:
58. Among the following compounds, which are more acidic than benzoic acid
TG ~ @bohring_bot
COOH COOH COOH COOH
CH3
CH3 OCH3 NO 2
COOH COOH COOH
OH
Cl OH
59. Total number of alkenes of molecular formula C6H12 which will show geometrical isomerism
60. Total number of meso structures in CH3 CHOH5 CH3 is
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Three identical circles, each of radius a, are drawn as
shown in figure and tangent to a semi-circle of radius r,
express a in terms of r ?
r r
(A) (B)
4 2
r 2r
(C) (D)
3 3
62. In the figure below is a circle with centre O, and another circle
with centre at the midpoint B of the radius OA and passing N
through O. A small circle is drawn as shown, tangent to both the
larger circles, such that its centre N is directly above B (that is,
BN AB). If the perimeter of the triangle NBA is 8 cm, find the A
B O
value (in cm) of the radius of the small circle
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
(A) (B) 2
3
(C) 1 (D) 2
63. In a ABC
3sinA + 4cosB = 6
and 4sinB + 3cosA = 1
then angle C is equal to
(A) (B)
6 3
2
(C) (D)
4 3
1
64. Let f k(x) = (sinkx + coskx), then f 4(x) f6(x) = , then is
k 24
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 2 (D) 1
a
65. In a triangle ABC, 2 3 and C = 60°, then
b
(A) A = 15° (B) A = 105°
(C) B = 105° (D) B = 30°
66. Let A(, 2), B(, 2) and C(, 2) be the vertices of a triangle ABC. If the circumcentre is origin
and orthocentre is (3, ), then which of the following is NOT CORRECT about ABC
(A) area is 12 (B) perimeter is 10 2 13
5 13
(C) inradius is (D) circum radius is 2 13
2
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Yash Patil 16
67. Let PQ be a chord of length 8 of the circle 4x 2 + 4y2 + 24x 32y 189 = 0. If tangents drawn to
the circle at point P and Q intersect at the point R, then perpendicular distance of R from chord
PQ is
15 32
(A) (B)
2 15
68 36
(C) (D)
15 17
68. Let P1 be a parabola with vertex (1, 8) and focus (3, 1) and P2 is the mirror image of P1 with
respect to the line 3x y + 10 = 0. If the focus of P2 is (, ) and directrix of P2 is 7x + 6y = , then
+ + is equal to
(A) 125 (B) 137
(C) 52 (D) 119
69. If two tangents can be drawn to the different branches of hyperbola x 2 9y2 = 9 from the point
(, ) then (, ) can be
4 1
(A) 2, (B) 1,
9 4
1
(C) 1, (D) (5, 1)
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
70. Let the line y = mx and the ellipse 4x 2 + 9y2 = 1 intersect at point P in the first quadrant. If the
5
normal to the ellipse at P meets the coordinate axes at A(, 0) and B 0, , then area of
8 3
triangle OAB is equal to (where O is origin)
1 25
(A) (B)
16 3 576 3
9 25
(C) (D)
144 3 288 3
71. Consider the circle x2 + y2 = 25 and y2 = 24x. They intersect at P and Q in the first and fourth
quadrant. Tangents at P and Q to the circle intersect the x-axis at R and tangent at P and Q to
the parabola intersect x-axis at S, then radius of circumcircle of PRS is
(A) 20 7 (B) 5 7
(C) 2 7 (D) 7 3
72. Perpendicular tangents are drawn from the point P to an ellipse (whose axes are parallel to
2 2
coordinate axes). The locus of point P is x + y 4x 6y 5 = 0 and if the product of length of
perpendicular from foci upon any one of these tangents is 6, then eccentricity is
1 1
(A) (B)
6 3
1 1
(C) (D)
2 2
73. If the directrix of hyperbola (having positive x intercept) xy = 8 + x is the tangent to the hyperbola
x2 ky2 = 30, then k is equal to
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 6 (D) 15
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
x2 y2
74. Given points P, Q on an ellipse 1 (a > b > 0) satisfying OP OQ, the minimum of
a2 b2
|OP| |OQ| is
2a2b2 2a2b2
(A) (B)
a2 b2 a2 b2
4a2b2 4a2b2
(C) (D)
a2 b2 a2 b2
x y x2 y2
75. The straight line 1 intersect the ellipse 1 at two points A and B, there is a point
4 3 16 9
P on the ellipse such that the area of PAB is equal to 3. Then the number of possible point P
is/are
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3
x2 y2
76. Suppose points F1, F2 are the focii of ellipse 1 , P is a point on the ellipse such that
9 4
PF1 2
, then the area of PF1F2 is equal to
PF2 1
(A) 16 (B) 20
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) 4 (D) 32
x2 y2
77. The curve represented by the equation 1 is
sin 2 sin 3 cos 2 cos 3
(A) an ellipse with the focii on x-axis (B) an ellipse with the focii on y-axis
(C) an hyperbola with focii on x-axis (D) an hyperbola with focii on y-axis
78. If one side of square ABCD is on the line y = 2x 17 and the other two vertices lies on the
parabola y = x2, then the minimum area of the square is
(A) 160 (B) 1200
(C) 80 (D) 60
79. Let a line with the inclination of 60° from positive x-axis be drawn through the focus F of the
parabola y2 = 8(x + 2). If the two intersection points of the line and the parabola are A and B and
the perpendicular bisector of the chord AB intersect the x-axis at the point P, then the length of
segment PF is
16 8
(A) (B)
3 3
16 3
(C) (D) 8 3
3
80. ABC is inscribed in a unit circle. The three bisectors of the angles A, B, C are extended to
A B C
AA1 cos BB1 cos CC1 cos
intersect the circle at A1, B1, C1 respectively, then the value of 2 2 2
sin A sinB sinC
is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
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Yash Patil 18
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
1 xn
81. Let x0 = 2022 and let xn+1 = for n 1, find x2024
1 xn
1 4 9
82. Let x + y + z = 1, x, y, z R+ then determine the least value of .
x y z
83. The value of (1 cot23°) (1 cot22°) is equal to
3 1 3 1
84. The number of values of x in the interval 0, such that 4 2 is
2 sin x cos x
85. If = , then value of cos.cos2.cos3.cos4 …… cos(1011) = 2, then is
2023
86. A horizontal park is in the shape of a rectangle ABCD with AB = 30m. A vertical lamp post BP is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8
created at the point B such that PCB = 30° and PDB = tan1 . If height of the lamp
17 3
post is h, then [h] is equal to (where [.] denotes G.I.F.)
87. If the asymptotes of the hyperbola 9x 2 – 4y2 – 18x – 24y – 63 = 0 are tangents to the circle
13x2 + 13y2 – 26x + k = 0 at point A(1 , 1) and B(2, 2) then |1 + 2 + k| is equal to
88. Let and be real numbers in the interval 0 , , then of sin6 + 3sin2cos2 + cos6 = 1, then
2
is equal to
89. The points (0, 0), (a, 11) and (b, 37) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, then ab is equal to
90. Let P is a point, lies on circle (x + 5)2 + (y 12)2 = 196, then the minimum value of sum of
squares of abscissa and ordinate of point P is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 03-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. Pt = Qsystem + Qlost
750 4 60 = 0.5 4200 70 + Qlost
Q
Plost lost
time
2. B
Sol. (m0 – t) CdT = Rdt
3. A
Sol. At steady state
Let the temperature at the junction be T X Y
100C
kA 4nknA
(T 100) (0 T)
2n2
T is independent of n.
4. A
Sol. P1 2AT14 AT24 1 2
AT14 2AT24
T1 T2
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
5. A
300 2(2R2 )e(5004 3004 )
Sol.
600 2R2 e 500 4 3004 2R2 500 4 3004
6. B
1
Sol. 2
LC
7. D
Sol. cos 1 0.6 cos 2 0.5 cos 3 1
XL XC XL XC
tan 1 tan 2
R1 R2 R1 tan 1 R2 tan 2
8. B
Sol. The force exerted by gas on the piston when spring has compression x is
F P0 A kx
W Fdx
0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9. D
Sol. Pitch (along x-axis) = V0t
Magnetic force is towards negative z-axis
= t =
at this instant y = 0 and z = 2radius
10. C
Sol. u ux ˆi uy ˆj
E Ejˆ
B Bkˆ
F e E u B e Ejˆ ux ˆi uy ˆj Bkˆ
Fx euyB, Fy e E ux B
eB
ax uy
m
e
ay E u xB
m
uy A sin t , a y A cos t
At t = 0, uy = 0 = 0
Fy eE
ay
m m
eE E
A
m B
E
uy sin t
B
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
The velocity is along x-axis implies final velocity along y-axis is zero.
/
dy
uy
dt
dy u dt .
0
y
11. C
d
Sol.
dt
12. D
Sol. At point A, E along the rod = 0 Y
x cos 45° = y sin 45°
x=y (0, L) 45°
If the particle just reaches point A with velocity tending toward
zero, then it will be able to reach the other end. A 45°
45°
Apply work energy theorem X
(L, 0)
13. D
i R /2 R
x x
Sol. di
0 0
R/2
R
J0 12xdx J0 (2x)dx
R
x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dx
14. D
Sol. Apply PV = nRT
P R
nT V
15. A
Sol. Magnetic field is along the tangent
16. B
0I sin60 ( k)
ˆ ˆ
0I sin30 ( k)
Sol. B
4 (2R sin30) 4(2R sin60)
17. B
1 2
Sol. t
2
d Ba 2 / 2
dt
18. A
Sol. mg = kx
q2
and kx
20 A
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
19. C
1
Sol. T0
0
P0 T04
1 256P0 1
P0 and 4
04 81
P0 4
4
256P0 0
81
20. D
Sol. PV = RT
A
and P ;
B2
1
V2
RT A
V B2
1
V2
VA
T
TG ~ @bohring_bot
B2
R 1 2
V
SECTION – B
21. 2
Sol. V = I1R1 and V = I2R2
NIAB = k
k 1
I1
N1AB
k 2
I2
N2 AB
k 1R1 k2R2
V
N1AB N2 AB
22. 4
kq1 kQ k(q2 )
Sol. VA 0
R 2R 3R
k(q1 Q q2 )
VB 0 q1
3R R Q
A
2R
3R
q2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
23. 3
IgG
Sol. S
I Ig A
24. 75
(30)2 1 1 1 (15)2 1 1 (45)2
Sol. H = 75 J
2 3 6 6 2 3 6 2 6
25. 3
nA RT nA RT
Sol. P …(i)
2V V
nBRT nBRT
1.5P …(ii)
2V V
Solve equation (i) and (ii)
26. 5
Sol. PT = constant
PV1/2 = constant
1
x
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
R
C Cv
1 x
9R fR
2R
2 2
f=5
27. 7
Sol. Q = nCPT
7
Q = nRT
2
W = PV = nRT
Q 7
W 2
28. 3
Sol. PV
PV1 = constant
x = 1
R
C Cv
1 x
5R R 6R
3R
2 2 2
29. 1
2R1
Sol. Resistance, R =
r 2
2
m d( r )2R1
d
R (2R1 )2
m
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
2
dB R1
Induced current in the loop, I =
dt R
30. 3
Sol. I 3A
R
1 1
H LI2 2 106 (3)2 9 J
2 2
H 9
H1 = 3 J
3 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. B
Sol. P C2H4 O and Q C3 H6 O must be carbonyl compounds as they both show +ve NaHSO3 test. P
must be ethanal as it gives haloform test.
P CH3 C H, Q CH3 CH2 CHO
||
O
1. NaOH
CH3 CHO CH3 CH2 CHO 2.
CH3 CH CH CHO
+
CH3
|
CH3 CH2 CH C CHO
+
CH3
|
CH3 CH C CHO
+
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3 CH2 CH CH CHO
Total 4 products obtained if we exclude stereoisomerism.
32. D
Sol. Cl
CH3 HC HC O
Cl
2 Cl H O
h
2
373 K
(P) (Q) (R)
Free-radical substitution is involved in conversion of P to Q.
33. C
4 i LiAlH
Sol. H3C C OC2H5
ii H O
2CH3 CH2 OH
2
O
4 i LiAlH
H3C C O C CH3
ii H2O
2CH3 CH2 OH
O O
i DIBAL H
H3C C OCH2CH3
ii H O
H3C C H
2
O O
CH3 CH2 OH
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Na
H3C C OCH3
C H OH
CH3 CH2 OH
2 5
O
CH3 OH
34. C
H OH
Sol. O C C C
P2O5 /
O O C C C O
2H O 2
OH H C3 O 2
Malonic acid
35. D
Sol. This is Hoffmann bromamide reaction which involved intramolecular migration. No cross-over
product is formed. Stereochemistry is retained.
Me Me
NaOH/Br
H CONH2 H CONH2 2
Et CD3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Me Me
H NH2 + H NH2
Et CD3
36. B
Sol. The lone pair on N-atom in pyridine N is localised but – I effect of N-atom deactivates
N
H
benzene ring. On the other hand, the lone pair on N-atom in pyrrole is de-localized
and hence activates the ring towards EAS.
Order of reactivity is : III > II > I.
37. A
Sol. In the first reaction, the lone pair on nitrogen atom takes part in resonance with benzene ring and
hence activates benzene ring towards EAS. But in second reaction, the lone pair on nitrogen
atom does not take part in resonance with benzene ring due to SIR-effect and hence does not
activate benzene ring.
r1 r2 .
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
38. D
Sol.
H3C C N HCl H3C C NH
Cl
Anhydrous AlCl3
H3C C NH
H3C C O
H2 O
NH3
39. C
Sol.
N2Cl OH OH
Br Br Br Br
Boil Br2 Zn dust
H2O
H2 O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(P)
Br Br
(Q) (R)
Q is polar while R is non-polar.
Q R .
40. B
Sol. F C C Ph C C Ph C C Ph
PhCCNa
Fe/HCl NaNO HCl
2
o
0 5 C
NO 2 NO 2 NH2 N2 Cl Q
P
C2 H5 OH
C C Ph
O C CH2
O H2 SO 4
Br2
C CH2 Br HgSO 4
T Fe
R
S
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
41. C
Sol. OH OH OH
CHO COOH
i CHCl3 NaOH, KMnO4
ii H3 O H ,
P Q
O
||
PhC Cl
O
O
O C Ph
O C Ph
COOH
COOH Br2
Fe
R
Br
S
42. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Cold conc.
Sol. CH3 CH2 OH
H2SO 4
CH3 CH2 O H2 HSO 4
Oxonium salt
i 2
Cold conc.
Ph3 C OH
H SO
Ph3 C H3 O 2HSO4
2 4
i 4
43. D
Sol. 2 2H g
H3C CH CH2 C CH H3C CH CH2 CH2 CH3
CH3 CH3
(P) 2-methyl pentane
H2 SO 4 HgSO 4
H3C CH CH2 C CH3
CH3 O
(Q)
The ketone (Q) gives positive Iodoform test and shows 2,4-DNP test. It also forms white
crystalline product with NaHSO3.
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Ammonical +
H3C CH CH2 C CH
AgNO3
H3C CH CH2 C C Ag
CH3 CH3
(White ppt.)
Ammonical Cu2 Cl2
+
H3C CH CH2 C C Cu
CH3
(Red ppt.)
44. A
Sol. Phenol H CHO Novolac P
H CHO
Bakelite Q
45. A
Sol. It’s a Reimer-Teimann reaction. Dichloro carbene (Singlet) is formed as an intermediate in this
reaction.
46. B
Sol. Order of basic strength in aqueous medium is
Me2NH MeNH2 Me3 N
TG ~ @bohring_bot
II I III
47. A
Sol. Picric acid pK a 0.4
Squaric acid pK a1 1.5
Phenol (Carbolic acid) pK a 9.98
Carbonic acid pK a1 6.37
48. A
Sol. There is only geometrical isomerism in the given molecule around C = C. There are two
geometrical isomers possible for the given molecule.
49. C
Sol. Assymetric compounds are P, Q and R as these do not contain POS (Plane of Symmetry).
50. B
Sol. N
C
No. of bonds 8
C
C C No. of bonds 8
N C N
N
1: 1 .
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
SECTION – B
51. 13
Sol.
KCN aq.
CH Ph C CH Ph (P)
O O OH
PCC
Ph C C Ph (Q)
O O
i OH /
ii H
Ph
Ph C C OH
OH O
(R)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
Number of sp hybridised carbons in R = 13.
52. 3
Sol. Soda lime is a mixture of 3 moles of NaOH and 1 mole of CaO.
53. 4
Sol. Pressure = 802 – 42 = 760 mm Hg
= 1 atmosphere
Volume = 110 mL = 0.11 L
PV 1 0.11
n 4.47 10 3 moles
RT 0.0821 300
Weight of N2 n 28
4.47 103 28 0.125 g
Wt. of nitrogen
% of nitrogen 100
Wt. of organic compound
0.125
100 25%
0.5
Molecular formula C12H24 Nx
Molecular weight = 168 + 14x
14x
% of nitrogen 100 25
168 14x
x=4
Molecular formula = C12H24 N4
54. 0
Sol. S 2 Na2 Fe CN5 NO Na 4 Fe CN 5 NOS
' X ' Violet colour
Compound ‘X’ is sodium nitroprusside and its magnetic moment is (0.0 B.M.)
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
55. 8
Sol. Only primary alcohols give aldehydes on oxidation with PCC. 8 structural isomers are possible for
such alcohol.
1. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
2. H3C CH2 CH2 CH CH2 OH
CH3
3. H2C CH2 CH CH2 CH2 OH
CH3
4. H3C CH CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
CH3
5. CH3
H2C CH2 C CH2 OH
CH3
6. H2C CH CH CH2OH
CH3 CH3
7. CH3
H3C C CH2 CH2 OH
CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8. H2C CH2 CH CH2OH
CH2
CH3
56. 6
Sol. With C CH 1 mole G.R. reacts
With OH 1 mole G.R. reacts
With CN 1 mole G.R. reacts
With CHO 1 mole G.R. reacts
With COOCH3 2 mole of G.R. reacts
Thus, total 6 moles of G.R. are consumed
57. 4
Sol. On acetylation, –OH group gets converted into OCOCH3 per –OH group. It means that
molecular weight increases by 42.
Molecular weight of ‘A’ = 166
Molecular weight after acetylation = 334
Increase in molecular weight = 168
168
Number of OH group =4
42
58. 5
Sol. The compounds which are more acidic than benzoic acid are
COOH
COOH COOH COOH COOH
CH3
OH
OCH3 NO 2
Cl
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
59. 4
Sol. 1. CH3 CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3
2. H3C CH CH CH CH3
CH3
3. H2C CH C CH2 CH3
CH3
4. H2C CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3
60. 4
Sol. Number of meso-isomers for a symmetrical molecule having odd number of chiral carbon
n 1
2
2 , where n = number of chiral carbon
5 1
Number of meso isomers 2 2
22 4 .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. C
Sol. From the diagram, AOB = BOC = COD = 60° B C
YOD =
6
a Y
Let X be the centre of right hand circle,
OXsin30° = a X
OX = 2a a
Now 30°
r = OY = 2a + a A O D
r
a=
3
62. A
Sol. Let AB = BO = R and radius of smallest circle is r, OA = 2R, ON = 2R r and BN = R + r
In OBN
BN2 + OB2 = ON2
(R + r)2 + R2 = (2R r)2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2R2 6Rr = 0
R(R 3r) = 0
Considering OBN, perimeter
OB + BN + NO = R + (R + r) + (2R r) = 8
R=2
1 2
r= R
3 3
63. A
Sol. Square and add
24(sinA cosB + cosA sinB) = 12
1
sin(A + B) = sin( C) =
2
1
sinC =
2
5
C= or
6 6
5 3
but if C = , then A < so 3sinA + 4cosB = 4 6
6 6 2
C= only.
6
64. B
1 1
Sol. (sin4x + cos4x) (sin6x + cos6x)
4 6
1
[3(sin4x + cos4x) 2(sin6x + cos6x)]
12
1
[3((sin2x + cos2x)2 2sin2xcos2x) 2{(sin2x + cos2x) (1 3sin2xcos2x)}]
12
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
1 2 2 2 2
{3 6sin xcos x 2(1 3sin xcos x)}
12
1 2
=
12 24
65. B
a
1
b A B C
Sol. tan tan
a 2 2
1
b
1 3 A B C A B 1
tan tan tan
3 3 2 2 2 3
A B
tan 1
2
2
AB= and A + B =
2 3
A = 105°, B = 15°
66. D
Sol. AO2 = OB2 = OC2
2 + 4 = 2 + 4 =
TG ~ @bohring_bot
= (if = then no triangle is formed)
ABC is right angled triangle at A
(, 2) is orthocentre = 3, = 2
vertices are (3, 2), (3, 2) and (3, 2).
67. B
15 / 2 15
Sol. tan =
4 8
4 C(3, 4)
In RSQ tan = 17/2 17/2
RS
S 15/2
15 4 32 P 4 4 Q
RS =
8 RS 15
R
68. D
Sol. Image of vertex of P1 in 3x y + 10 = 0 will be vertex of P2
x 2 1 y 2 3 2 3 8 10
3 1 10
vertex of P2 = (2, 9)
Similarly focus of P2 is (9, 3) = 9 and = 3
7
Slope of directrix =
6
7
Equation of directrix y 15 = (x 5)
6
7x + 6y = 125 = 125.
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
69. C
Sol. Equation of asymptotes x 3y = 0 and x + 3y = 0
If tangents to different branches are drawn then
2 2
( 9 9) < 0 and ( 3) ( + 3) < 0
i.e. < 92 + 9 and 2 < 92.
2
70. B
1 2 1
Sol. a2 = ,b = let P be (x1, y1)
4 9
1x 1y 5
Equation of normal
4x1 9y1 36
5y 5y1 5 1 1
It cuts y-axis at 0 , 1 y1 = x1 =
4 4 8 3 2 3 4
5
Thus =
36
1 5 5 25
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Area of OAB =
2 36 8 3 576 3
71. B
Sol. x2 + 24x = 25 x = 25, 1
P 1,2 6 and Q 1, 2 6
Equation of tangent at P and Q to the circle
x 2 6y 25 and x 2 6y 25
R is (25, 0)
Equation of tangent at P and Q to the parabola
2 6y 12 x 1 and 2 6y 12 x 1
S is (1, 0)
1
Area of PRS = 2 6 26 26 6
2
abc 26 2 7 10 6
R 5 7
4 4 26 6
72. D
2 2 2
Sol. a + b = 18 and b = 6
1
a2 = 12 6 = 12(1 e2) e =
2
73. B
Sol. x(y 1) = 8
Equation of directrix x + (y 1) = 2 2 2
x + y = 5 y = x + 5 touches
x2 y2 30
1 25 = 30 1 k = 6.
30 30 / k k
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
74. A
Sol. P (|OP| cos, |OP| sin)
Q (|OQ| cos , sin
2 2
1 sin2 cos 2
2
OP b2 a2
1 sin2 cos2
2
OQ a2 b2
1 1 1 1
2
2
2
OP OQ a b2
2a2b2
|OP |OQ| reaches
a2 b2
75. B
Sol. Suppose there is a point P(4cos, 3sin) on the ellipse, then distance of P to AB is
3 4 cos 4 3 sin 12
=
5
12
= cos sin 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
5
12 6
5
2 1
5
1 6
But AB = 5 so APB 5 =3
2 5
So exactly two points.
76. C
Sol. PF1 + PF2 = 2a = 6
PF1 2
; PF1 = 4 and PF2 = 2
PF2 1
F 1F 2 = 2 5
2
there PF12 PF22 F1F2
2
16 + 4 = 2 5
So PF1F2 is right angle triangle
1 1
area = PF1 PF2 4 2 4
2 2
77. B
Sol. Since 2 3 , 2 3
2 2 2
cos 2 cos 3
2 2
2 sin 3
sin
again cos 2 0 and cos 3 0
cos 2 cos 3 0
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
given curve will be ellipse
Now sin 2 sin 3 cos 2 cos 3
2 3 2 3
= 2 2 sin sin
2 2 4
2 3
and 0
2 2
2 3 2 3 3
sin 0 and
2 2 2 4
2 3
sin 0
2 4
2 3 2 3
2 2 sin sin 0
2 2 4
ellipse is vertical ellipse.
78. C
Sol. Assume AB is on the line y = 2x 17 and coordinate of other two are on parabola are C(x 1, y1)
and D(x2, y2), then CD is on the line L whose equation is y 2x = b
by solving with curve we get
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 2x b = 0 x1, x2 = 1 b 1
assume length of one side of square is a
a2 = (x1 x2)2 + (y1 y2)2
= 5(x1 x2)2 = 20(b + 1) …(1)
17 b
Now a …(2)
5
b = 3 or 63 a2 = 80 or 1280.
79. A
Sol. Equation of AB y 3x by solving with parabola y2 = 8(x + 2)
3x2 8x 16 = 0
4
E is mid point of AB then x coordinate of E is , then
3
1 4 8 16
|FE| = , |PF| = 2 |FE| = where F is focus
cos60 3 3 3
80. A
Sol. In ABC
A
A
A/2 A/2
C1
B1
B
B A/2
C
B
C
A1
A1
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 20
A
B = ABC +
2
AA 1
= 2R = 2
A
sin B
2
A B C
AA1 = 2sin B 2cos
2 2 2
A B C A
AA 1 cos 2cos cos
2 2 2
= cos C cos B sinB sinC
2 2
B
similarly BB1 cos sin A sinC
2
C
CC1 cos sin A sinB
2
SECTION – B
81. 2022
Sol. Let xn = tanan
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 tanan
tanan1 tan an
1 tanan 4
tanan1 tan an
4
an 1 an n
4
an+4 = an + k. ; k I
xn+4 = tanan+4 = tanan = xn
xn is periodic for period 4
x2024 = x0 = 2022
82. 36
Sol. Let assume x = cos2cos2, y = cos2sin2, z = sin2
Now x + y + z = 1
P = sec2sec2 + 4sec2cosec2 + 9cosec2
P = (tan2 + 1) (tan2 + 1) + 4(tan2 + 1) (cot2 + 1) + 9(cot2 + 1)
= 14 + 5tan2 + 9cot2 + (tan2 + 4cot2) (1 + tan2)
14 + 5tan2 + 9cot2 + 2tan.2cot(1 + tan2)
= 18 + 9(tan2 + cot2) 18 + 9.2tancot = 36
1 1
Equality hold when cos2 = , cos2 =
2 3
1 1 1
x , y ,z
6 3 2
83. 2
Sol. (1 cot22°) (1 cot23°)
cos 22 cos 23
1 1
sin 22 sin23
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Yash Patil 21 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
sin22 cos 22 sin23 cos 23
sin22 sin23
2 sin 22 45 2 sin 23 45
sin 22 sin 23
2 sin 22 sin 23
=2
sin 22 sin23
84. 2
3 1 3 1
Sol. 4 4 2
sin x cos x
sin cos
12 12 2
sin x cos x
sin cos x cos sin x 2 sin x cos x
12 12
sin x sin2x
12
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x 2x or x 2x
12 12
11
x or x
12 36
85. 1011
Sol. Let P denote the desired product and Q = sin.sin2.sin3 …… sin(1011)
then 21011PQ = sin2.sin4.sin6 ….. sin(2022)
= (sin2.sin4 ….. sin(1010) (sin( 1012)) …. (sin( 2020) (sin( 2022))
21011PQ = sin.sin2.sin3 ….. sin(1011) = Q
21011PQ = Q
1
P = 1011
2
86. 9
Sol. A B P P
x 2 900
h h
30°
D C B C B 2 D
x 900
h
tan30° = x= h 3
x
h 8
tan
2
x 900 17 3
h 8
2 17 3
3h 900
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 22
289 3 h2 = 192h2 + 64 900
675h2 = 64 900
16
h=
3
87. 21
Sol. Asymptotes 3(x – 1) – 2(y + 3) = 0 and 3(x –1) + 2(y + 3) = 0
3x – 2y –9 = 0 and 3x + 2y + 3 = 0
It touches x2 + y2 –2x + k/13 = 0
5 12 31 12
A , and B ,
13 13 13 13
k = – 23
88. 1
Sol. (sin2)3 + (cos2)3 + (1)3 3sin2cos2(1) = 0
2 2 2
sin + cos 1 = 0 or sin cos2 1
not possible
sin2 = 1 cos2
sin2 = sin2
=
89. 315
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot ab
Let M is mid point of AB, M =
OM MA, |OM| = 3 MA
2
,24
ab ab
13 3, 8 3
2 2
a 21 3 and b 5 3
90. 1
Sol. P(x, y) = (14cos 5, 14sin + 12)
minimum value of g() where
g() = (14cos 5)2 + (14sin + 12)2
= 365 + 28(12sin 5cos)
g() 1
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – II
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 11-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. A resistor ‘R’ of resistance 2000 and two similar
capacitor ‘A’ and ‘B’ of capacitance 1 C each are R
connected with an A.C. source of 200 Volt and 500 rad/s.
A B
Now switch is closed at t = 0, then choose the correct
option(s).
‘S’
200 V, 500 rad/s
(A) The phase difference between applied voltage and voltage across the capacitor A is
1
tan1
3
(B) The phase difference between current supplied by source and current in the capacitor ‘B’ is
zero.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
(C) The current in the capacitor ‘A’ is ampere.
5 20
(D) Power dissipated through resistor is 4 watt.
2. A ring of radius R is fixed and kept in a vertical plane. A A
small dipole of dipole moment p is fixed at the centre of
ring. A small bead of mass ‘m’ and charge q is released E
from point A. Bead can slide on the ring. The inner diameter
of bead and thickness of ring are nearly equal. Ring is
insulating and frictionless. Ignore effect of gravity. Now D
p
choose the correct option(s).
‘R’
C
(A) Bead will never reach at point D.
(B) The normal force between bead and ring at ‘E’ is directly proportional to the charge on the
bead.
(C) The motion of bead is periodic.
p(cos )q
(D) Speed of bead at point ‘E’ is given by
20mr 2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
3. There is a fixed long vertical cylinder of good piston
heat insulator with open ends, is separated
from its surroundings by two insulated identical,
frictionless pistons. An insulated separating piston
gas
wall is fixed between pistons. A very small hole wall
is made at the middle of separating wall. An wall
ideal gas is enclosed between the pistons at
gas
temperature of surrounding. Initially the lower Hole
piston
piston is held up against the separating wall,
when lower piston is released, it moves
downward very slowly. Now choose the correct piston
option(s).
(A) During the process the pressure of gas above the separating wall remains constant.
(B) During the process the pressure of gas below the separating wall remains constant.
(C) Initial and final temperature of gas remain same.
(D) Initial and final temperature of gas is different.
4. A resistor R = 500 , an ideal inductor L = 0.9 H + +
and a capacitor C = 2.5 F are connected with two 1 2
alternating source e1 = 100 sin(1000t) and
e2 = 100 3 cos(1000t) . V1, V2, V3, V4 and V5 are R L C
five ideal voltmeters and connected in the circuit as
shown in the figure. Choose the correct option(s).
TG ~ @bohring_bot
V1 V2 V3
V4
V5
9
(A) Phase difference between voltage of V3 and V5 is tan1
2 5
(B) Reading of V4 is 180 volt
(C) Difference between reading of V2 and V1 is 80 volt.
1
(D) Ratio of reading of V4 and V5 is
2
5. A battery B-1 is made by using two cells of
emf E1 and E2 and internal resistance r1 r1 r2
and r2 respectively. Another battery B-2 is
made by using different cells of emf E3 and E1 E2
E4 and internal resistance r3 and r4
respectively. Now they are connected with B-1
points P and Q as shown in the figure. All P Q
cells are rechargeable. Now switch is
closed at t = 0, then choose the correct
option(s). r3 r4
S E3 E4
B-2
(A) The potential difference across both the battery will be equal.
(B) Rate of heat dissipation in both batteries is equal.
(C) One battery will charge the other battery.
(D) Rate of loss in chemical energy of one battery is more than the rate of gain in chemical
energy of the other.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
6. A L-shaped conducting rod OAB is rotating in a constant Y
magnetic field of B0 = 100 Tesla acting along x-axis. The
length of rod OA = 20 cm and AB = 20 cm. If rod is rotating
B
about y-axis with constant angular velocity of 5 rad/second
then at a given instant.
(A) Potential difference across OA is 10 Volt
(B) Potential difference across OA is zero Volt
X
(C) Potential difference across AB is 20 Volt O A
(D) Potential difference across OB is 10 Volt B0
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. A ring of mass m = 10 kg and radius R = 5 cm is kept at rest on a B
smooth horizontal surface in vertical plane as shown in the figure. The i
ring carries a current i = 7 ampere. A constant horizontal magnetic field
B = 100 mT is switched on at t = 0. ‘R’ ‘m’
(I)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
List –I describes the statement regarding ring and List-II gives their respective values.
List –I
The magnetic moment of loop in S.I. units (P) 0.0880
List –II
(II) Torque acting on loop due to magnetic field in S.I. (Q) 0.0044
units at t = 0
(III) Angular acceleration of loop in S.I. units at t = 0 (R) 0.0055
(IV) Kinetic energy of ring when it has rotated through (S) 0.4400
90
(T) 0.0550
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I T, II R, III S, IV R
(B) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(C) I S, II T, III P, IV Q
(D) I T, II S, III P, IV R
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
8. Four resistors 6, 12, 18 and 24, two ideal inductors 1H
and 2H and a battery of 25 V are arranged in the given circuit
with the help of three switches S1, S2 and S3 as shown in the 12
6 1H
figure. (e1 = 0.37).
S2 S1
2H
18 24
S3 25V
List –I describes statement regarding the given circuit and List-II gives their values. (either exactly
or as a close approximation).
List –I List -II
(I) When switch S1 and S3 closed simultaneity and S2 (P) 1.35
remain opened. Then time constant of circuit in
second.
(II) When switch S1 and S3 remain closed for long time (Q) 0.07
and S2 remain opened then current through inductor
TG ~ @bohring_bot
in ampere at one time constant.
(III) When switch S1 and S3 remain closed for long time (R) 0.056
and S2 remain opened then current in 12
resistance at one time constant.
(IV) If S1 and S3 remain closed for long time and then S1 (S) 0.105
is opened, S2 is closed and S3 remain closed then
find current in the branch of inductor immediately
after switching.
(T) 0.167
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I Q, II T, III S, IV R
(B) I Q, II S, III P, IV R
(C) I R, II P, III Q, IV S
(D) I R, II Q, III T, IV S
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
9. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process T
as shown in Temperature-Pressure graph. Temperature and A
4T0
pressure of gas at ‘A’ is 4T0 and P0 respectively and
temperature in process BC is T0. The process AB is given by
2 4
TP = constant and the process CA is given by TP = constant.
T0 B
C
P0 P
List –I describe the name of thermodynamics process involve in the cyclic process and List-II
gives work done by gas in the process, charge in internal energy of the gas in the process and
heat given to the gas in the process.
List –I List –II
(I) In the thermodynamics process A B (P) Work done by gas and
heat given to gas is
negative
(II) In the thermodynamics process B C (Q) Work done by gas is
negative but heat given to
gas is positive
(III) In the thermodynamics process C A (R) Work done by gas is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
positive but heat given to
gas negative
(IV) In the cyclic process (S) Work done by gas and
heat given to gas is
positive
(T) Work done by gas is
positive and change in
internal energy of gas is
negative
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I P, II T, III S, IV Q
(B) I S, II P, III Q, IV R
(C) I P, II S, III S, IV P
(D) I Q, II R, III S, IV T
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
10. Three resistors of resistance 6M, 3M and 3M, 5V
10V
1
one capacitor of capacitance F , two cells of
5 6M 3M 3M
potential difference 5V and 10V and two switches 1
F
are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure. 5
Both switches is closed simultaneously at t = 0.
(e–1 = 0.37) S1 S2
List-I describe the charges and currents in the circuit at a particular time and List-II gives possible
values of charges and current.
List –I List -II
(I) The maximum charge on the capacitor in C (P) 0.63
(II) Charge on capacitor at t = 1 sec in C (Q) 1.54
(III) Current in the branch of capacitor at t = 1 sec in A (R) 2.06
(IV) Current passing through battery of 5V at t = 1 sec in (S) 1.00
A
(T) 0.37
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I P, II T, III R, IV S
(B) I T, II P, III Q, IV R
(C) I P, II R, III T, IV Q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) I S, II P, III T, IV Q
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. Consider a gas kept in a closed container. ‘N’ is the no of dN/dv
molecules present in the container and v is the speed of
5
molecules. Molecular speed distribution graph is shown in the
dN 2
figure with suitable S.I. units of and v. Find vrms of molecules
dv
in S.I. units.
3 v
70
12. A semi-cylindrical shell (A) of diameter 15 cm and length meter is kept in another semi-
22
cylindrical shell (B) of diameter 30 cm and same length such that the axis of both cylinder
coincide with each other. A liquid of resistivity 100 m is filled in the space between them. The
lower surface of smaller cylinder A is maintained at higher potential than the larger cylinder B.
Find the electrical resistance between the surface of cylinder in .
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
13. 12 capacitors are connected with a battery of potential 3C 2C
difference V0 as shown in the figure. Initially switch is open. 3C 3C
Find total heat (in J) generated in the system after the 2C 3C
1
switch is closed. (Given C F , V0 = 17 volt)
340 3C
2C
3C 3C 2C
3C
14. An insulated thin tube is fixed on horizontal surface. The W2
total volume of tube is V0. Inside the tube, W 1 is fixed
adiabatic wall and W 2 is movable adiabatic wall. An ideal f
3
gas of adiabatic coefficient is filled to entire 60
2
volume of tube in both chambers. The initial pressure in W1
both chamber is P0 and number of moles of gas in both 60
chamber are same. A heater is fixed which supplies
heat very slowly such that wall W 2 is moved from i
position i to f, at this position wall W 2 stays in equilibrium Heater
TG ~ @bohring_bot
position even the heater is switched off. Neglect friction W2
and any loss of heat to the surrounding. The total heat
supplied by heater is P0 V0 . Find the value of .
( 5 2.23 )
15. A L-shaped rod is made by using two different rods PO and QO. Q
The length of rods PO and QO is 6.0 cm and 4.0 cm respectively
and their coefficient of linear expansion is 1.2 10 5 /C and
3.0 105 /C respectively. The coefficient of linear expansion of
the rod to be joined between point P and Q is 105 /C. Find
the value of so that no bending takes place anywhere. O
P
16. A uniform magnetic field B = 4 Tesla exist in the horizontal y
direction along x-axis. A conducting wire of mass 600 gm and
length 5 cm is kept along y-axis on a rough horizontal surface.
Conducting wire is carrying a current of magnitude 5 amp along
y-axis. The minimum force required along x-axis to move the
wire is F1. Now the direction of current in the wire is reversed x
then minimum force required along x-axis to move the wire is
F
F2. Find the ratio of 1 .
F2
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
17. A constant horizontal uniform magnetic field B = 5 106 x
Tesla exist in a uniform vertical gravitational field g = 10
m/s2. Both fields are perpendicular to each other. A particle B
of mass m = 50 gm and charge q = 2 C is released in the
space. Find the displacement (in cm) of particle along
y-axis when velocity of particle is along x-axis first time. g
18. Five resistors of resistance 1 , 1, 2, 3 and S1
S2
4, a battery of voltage 10V, an ideal ammeter
and five switches S1, S2, S3, S4 and S5 are
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure.
When S3 and S5 are closed and S1, S2 and S4 1 2
remain opened then current read by ammeter is i1. 1
When S1, S3 and S5 are closed and S2, S4 remain 4 3
opened then current read by ammeter is i2. The
i A
ratio of current 1 is given by 11. Find the value
i2
S3 S4
of .
10V
TG ~ @bohring_bot
S5
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. Choose the INCORRECT statement(s) about the following alkenes is/are
[K] [L]
(A) Alkene [K] is more stable than alkene [L].
(B) Hydrogenation of achiral alkene [K] will give chiral product.
(C) Hydrogenation of achiral alkene [L] will give chiral product.
(D) The two alkenes [K] and [L] are structural isomers.
20. Choose the CORRECT statement (s) regarding Vanilin
OH
Vanilin [P]
H
O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
(A) [P] can be obtained as a major product when 3,4-dihydroxy benzaldehyde is treated with one
equivalent of NaOH and one equivalent of MeBr.
(B) [P] can be obtained as a one of the product when 2-methoxy phenol is treated with
chloroform and aq. KOH.
(C) Position isomer of [P] can be obtained when 3,4-dihydroxy benzaldehyde is treated with one
equivalent of NaOH and one equivalent of MeBr.
(D) [P] can be obtained when 3,4-dihydroxy benzaldehyde is treated with two equivalent of NaOH
and one equivalent of MeBr followed by acidic work up.
21. In the following reaction sequence:
+
N2 Cl
CuCN H O Br
HCN P
3
Q
2
FeBr R 3
Choose the ‘FALSE’ statement(s):
(A) [R] is more acidic than [Q].
(B) [R] is more reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution than [Q].
(C) [Q] is more reactive towards electrophilic substitution than benzene.
(D) [R] on reaction with sodalime form a compound which can undergo phenol formation with aq.
NaOH treatment under the normal condition of pressure and temperature.
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
22. Which of the following compounds are soluble in NaHCO3?
(A) Picric acid
(B) SO 3H
(C) OH
NO 2
(D) COOH
NO 2
23. O
C 1. Conc. H SO /
H3C CH3
2
4
2. KMnO 4 /H /
R
3. NaOH CaO, Aromatic
3 moles of Acetone excess
(B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Out of the given reactions, which can give major product [R]?
(A) HC Re d hot
CH
n hexane
Fe tube
2 3 Cr O Al O
2 3
773 K, 10 20 atm
(C) CHO
Zn Hg
HCl
OHC CHO
(D) O
1. dil. KOH
2. H3O
3. Zn, dust
24. Choose the correct statements regarding the given scheme
H2 /Pd C H2
R P
Lindlar catalyst
Q
C5H12O C5H6O C5H8O
Optically inactive Optically active Optically inactive
(A) [R] can be oxidized with PCC into optically active carbonyl compound.
(B) Oxidised product of [Q] with PCC can show tautomerism.
th
(C) [P] contains triple bond at 4 carbon (as per IUPAC)
(D) [Q] can give white turbidity immediately with Lucas test.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Match each species in List – I with their properties in List-II and choose correct option
List – I List – II
(Products can be distinguished)
(I) (P) Fehling’s test
O3 /Zn
H2O
? ?
(II) (Q) Tollen’s test
O3 /Zn
? ?
Ph H2O
(III) (R) Iodoform test
O3 /Zn
Ph
H2O
? ?
(IV) (S) Schiff’s test
O3 /Zn
? ?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H2O
Ph Ph
(T) Benedict’s test
(A) I→P,Q, R, S; II→P, Q, R; III→R,S; IV→P, Q, S, T
(B) I→P, Q, R, S, T; II→Q, R, S; III→R; IV→P, Q, S, T
(C) I→Q, R, S, T; II→Q, R; III→ S; IV→P, Q, S
(D) I→R, S, T; II→P, R; III→Q,S; IV→ Q, S, T
26. Match each species in List – I with appropriate statement (s) of List – II and choose correct option
List – I List – II
(I) H2SO 4 / (P) At least one of the product shows optical
OH dehydration
isomerism.
(II) H3C (Q) Major product contains even number of
H2SO 4 /
hydrogens (Hydrogens which can
dehydration
involve in hyperconjugation).
Ph
OH
(III) (R) One of the product shows geometrical
OH isomerism.
2 H SO /
4
dehydration
(IV) (S) Reactant can turn acidified dichromate to
green.
2H SO /
4
dehydration
OH
(T) Will not undergo dehydration.
(A) I→Q, R; II→Q, S, T; III→P, S; IV→T
(B) I→Q, R, S; II→Q, R,S; III→P, Q; IV→R,S
(C) I→P, Q,R, S; II→Q, R, S; III→P, R; IV→Q
(D) I→Q,R, S; II→P, Q, R, S; III→P,S; IV→T
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
27. Match each species in List – I with appropriate statement(s) in List – II and choose correct
options:
List – I List – II
(I) OCH3 (P) More than 4 moles of HI will be
OCH consumed.
3
HI
excess
OCH3
(II) OCH3 (Q) Product will react with Na/dry ether.
OCH3
HI
excess
OCH3
(III) OPh (R) Product formed contains 2o halide.
OPh
HI
excess
OPh
(IV) H2C OH (S) CH3I is one of the product.
HI
HC OH
excess
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H2C OH
(T) 2-Iodopropane is a major product.
(A) I→Q, R; II→P, Q, R; III→P,Q,R; IV→Q, S, T
(B) I→P, T; II→Q, R,S; III→P, Q, R, T; IV→P, Q, R
(C) I→P,Q; II→Q,S, T; III→P. Q, R; IV→Q, R, T
(D) I→Q,S; II→P, Q, R, S; III→P, Q,R; IV→P, Q, R, T
28. Match each species in List – I with List – II and choose correct option
List – I List – II
(I) A carbohydrate which yields only glucose (P) Sucrose
on hydrolysis
(II) A carbohydrate which yields glucose and (Q) Lactose
fructose on hydrolysis
(III) A carbohydrate which yields glucose and (R) Amylose
galactose on hydrolysis
(IV) A carbohydrate which can reduce (S) Mannose
Fehling’s solution
(T) Cellulose
(A) I→R, T; II→Q; III→P; IV→Q, S
(B) I→T; II→Q; III→Q; IV→Q
(C) I→R; II→P; III→Q; IV→P
(D) I→R, T; II→P; III→Q; IV→Q, S
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Yash Patil 14
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. O 1. LiAlH4 1. Na Conc. HI
A B (Product containing O)
2. H3O
Cl NO 2
In the above reaction, the ratio of number of atoms of O to C in the molecular formula of B is
30. O CH3 O
i
3 H O
O O
ii BC
O CH3 O
A
0.1 mol of (A) was reacted according to above reaction. ‘C’ is the gas produced which turns lime
x
water milky. The amount of ‘C’ formed in gram is x. The value of is
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
31. ‘A’ is an optically active hydrocarbon with minimum molecular weight (‘A’ does not have any
isotopic atoms like D and C14).
If (a) Number of carbon atoms in A = x.
(b) Degree of unsaturation = y.
xy
Calculate
2
32. Consider the following reaction:
O
i NaOH
Cyclic diketone x
Br CH2 COOEt Zn
ii H2 O
If (x) is finally treated with excess of NaBH4 followed by acid work-up, the number of diols formed
(including stereoisomers) is (y). Then, calculate the value of 10y.
33. How many chloroethenes (including stereoisomers) are possible for molecular formula C2H4 n Brn
(where ‘n’ can be an integer from 1 to 4) which can possess geometrical isomerism.
34. The number of co-polymer(s) in the below list is/are X:
(Nylon-6,6, Buna-N, Dacron, Buna-S, Teflon, PHBV)
The number of carbohydrate (s) which show mutarotation in the below list is/are Y:
D Glucopyranose, D Glucopyranose, Lactose,
D Fructofuranose, D Fructofuranose, Sucrose,
Maltose
Y
The value of ?
X
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
35. Terpinen-4-ol is an active ingredient in tea tree oil has following structure
HO
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about above compound?
1. It can rotate the plane polarized light.
2. It reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to form triol.
3. On reaction with excess of NaBr and dilute H2SO4, it can form a dibromo compound.
(Note: Write your answer in three digits)
i.e. If only statement-1 is correct, then 0.01 is correct answer.
If only statement-2 is correct, then 0.02 is correct answer.
If only statement-3 is correct, then 0.03 is correct answer.
If statement-1 and 2 both are correct, then 0.12 is correct answer.
If statement-1 and 3 both are correct, then 0.13 is correct answer.
If statement-1, 2 and 3 are correct, then 1.23 is correct answer.
36. In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 ml of
nitrogen collected over water at 287 K and 758 mm of Hg pressure. The percentage composition
of nitrogen in the compound is………[Given : aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg] [R =
0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1]
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
2
37. To the parabola x = 4ay, tangent is drawn at any point (x 1, y1) other than the vertex. If tangents
2 2 2
are drawn to the circle x + y = 4a from any point on this tangent such that all the corresponding
chords of contact pass through a fixed point (x 2, y2), then
(A) y1, 2a, y2 are in Geometric Progression
x y
(B) 4, 1 , 1 are in Geometric Progression
x2 y2
x1
(C) , 2a, x 2 are in Geometric Progression
2
(D) x1x2 + y1y2 = 4a2
38. Two ellipse with same centre and same length of major axis are such that the foci of one are on
the other. If their eccentricities are e1 and e2, then
e2 1 e2 1
1 2
(A) the angle between their axes is given by sin1
e e
1 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) quadrilateral formed by joining the foci is a parallelogram
2e2 1
(C) for , e12 2 2
4 e2 2
(D) none of these
3
39. Normal to the circle x 2 + y2 = 9 divides the circle having centre at 3 2, and radius 3 in the
2
areas of ratio 2 3 3 : 10 3 3 . Then the normal can be
(A) 2y x (B) y 2 x
(C) 5y 2 x 0 (D) 2yx 0
40. 3 2 3
If pcos sin , p sin cos and 2 2 2 (a, b N) is independent of , then
b
(a, b) is equal to
(A) (4, 5) (B) (8, 10)
(C) (5, 4) (D) (10, 8)
2 2
41. If one of the lines represented by 4x + pxy + 6y = 0 is perpendicular to one of the lines given by
4x2 + qxy – 6y2 = 0 and the other lines represented by them are coincident, then the value of p –
2q is
(A) –6 (B) –8
(C) 8 (D) 6
x3 x y
3
y
42. The expression cosec 2 tan1 sec 2 tan1 is divisible by
2 y 2 x
(A) x + y (B) x + y2
2
3 3 2 2
(C) x + y (D) x – y
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
x
(I) The number of solutions of x 4 2x 2 sin2 1 0 is (P) 4
2
The number of solutions of 16(x2 + 1) + 2 = |tan x| + 8x,
(II) 3 (Q) 2
x , , x is
2 2 2
The numbers of pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation
(III) (R) 1
sin x + sin y = sin(x + y) and |x| + |y| = 1 is
The number of integral values of x in [0, 6] satisfying
(IV) 1 1 (S) 3
sin x sin2x sin3x 0 is
2 3
(T) 6
The correct option is:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (Q)
(B) (I) (S); (II) (P); (III) (R); (IV) (Q)
(C) (I) (Q); (II) (P); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (R); (II) (T); (III) (P); (IV) (S)
sin1 x cos 1 x sin1 x cos 1 x
44. Let t10 sin1 x 0 , t 2 sin1 x , t 3 cos1 x , t 4 cos1 x match the
following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(I) x (0, cos 1) (P) t1 > t2 > t4 > t3
1
(II) x cos1, (Q) t4 > t3 > t1 > t2
2
1
(III) x , sin1 (R) t4 > t1 > t2 > t3
2
(IV) x (sin 1, 1) (S) t2 > t1 > t4 > t3
(T) t3 > t4 > t1 > t2
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (T); (II) (S); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(B) (I) (Q); (II) (T); (III) (S); (IV) (P)
(C) (I) (R); (II) (Q); (III) (S); (IV) (T)
(D) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 18
45. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
2
The shortest distance between the parabola 2y = 2x – 1 and 2 2
(I) (P)
2x2 = 2y –1 is 3
The triangle formed by the tangent to the parabola y = x 2 at the point
1
(II) whose abscissa is x0 (x0 [1, 2]), the y-axis and the straight line (Q)
y x20 has the greatest area if x 0 is equal to 4
An ellipse is inscribed in a circle and a point within the circle is
chosen at random. If the probability that this point lies outside the 1
(III) 2 (R)
ellipse is , then the eccentricity of the ellipse is 2 2
3
If f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, (a, b, c are rational numbers) and 2 roots
of f(x) = 0 are eccentricities of a parabola and a rectangular 1
(IV) 1 (S)
hyperbola, then equals 2
abc
(T) 2
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(B) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (S); (IV) (T)
46.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) (I) (Q); (II) (S); (III) (R); (IV) (T)
(D) (I) (R); (II) (T); (III) (P); (IV) (Q)
Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
If the angle between lines belonging to the family of lines
(3x + y – 7) + (x + y – 3) = 0 and (x + 3y – 7) + (x + 4y – 3) = 0
(I) which are farthest from origin ( and are real parameters), is (P) 11
a
tan1 where a, b are coprime natural numbers, then b – a is
b
If the roots of the equation px 2 + qx + 10 = 0 are not real and distinct
where p, q R and and are the values of p and q respectively for
(II) (Q) 7
which 5p + q is minimum, then the family of lines
(4x + 5y + 3) + (4x + y – 4) = 0 are concurrent at (a, b). (a – b) is
A circle is inscribed into a rhombus PQRS with one angle 120. The
(III) distance from the centre of the circle to the nearest vertex is equal to (R) 3
1. If A is any point on the circle, then |AP|2 + |AQ|2 + |AR|2 + |AS|2 is
If the area bounded by the circles x 2 + y2 = r2, r = 1, 2 and the rays
(IV) given by 2x2 – 3xy – 2y2 = 0, y > 0 is sq. units. Then the value of (S) 1
4
is
(T) 5
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (P); (II) (R); (III) (S); (IV) (Q)
(B) (I) (Q); (II) (S); (III) (P); (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (R)
(D) (I) (S); (II) (P); (III) (T); (IV) (Q)
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
1 2 1 2 1 2
47. If sin1 sin1 sin1 , then is equal to
2 2 2
48. If b + c = 2023a , where a, b, c are the side lengths of ABC for usual notation, then
cot A
is equal to
cot B cot C
x2 y2
49. For the hyperbola 1, the chord x cos + y sin = subtends a right angle at the
25 45
centre. Then the length of tangent to the circle, concentric with this hyperbola, to which the given
chord is a tangent, from the point P 5, 5 2 is
50. Two circles S and S pass through both the points P(1, –2) and Q(2, 3) such that the line x – 3y +
9 = 0 is a common tangent touching them at A and B respectively. If the possible coordinates of a
a c
point R are (, ) such that PARB is a parallelogram and , (both in lowest forms)
b d
51. TG ~ @bohring_bot
with a, b, c d I, then |abcd| is
For real numbers x and y satisfying x2 + 4y2 – 6x + 4y + 9 = 0. Then the absolute difference
between the maximum and minimum values of (8x – 12y) is
52. There are two families of lines in a plane y = x + i, y = –x + i, where i = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. The
number of squares having diagonal lengths of odd units, formed by these lines is
53. Points P, Q, R lie on the parabola y2 = 4ax. Tangents to the parabola at these points taken in
pairs, intersect at A, B, C. The ratio of the areas of ABC and PQR is
54. The sum of all possible values of (in degrees) such that cos3 3 + cos3 5 = 8 cos3 4 cos3
where is measured in degrees and (100, 200), is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – II
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 11-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. An ideal inductor and a resistor are connected in series with a L R
battery of pontential difference V0 through a switch ‘S’. The
switch is closed at t = 0. The potential energy stored in inductor
S
at time ‘t’ is given by U. The rate of change of potential energy
in inductor with time is best represented by
V0
(A) dU/dt (B) dU/dt
t t
(C) dU/dt (D) dU/dt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
t t
2. A dielectric is completely filled between the space of a parallel plate capacitor.
The separation between plates of capacitor is ‘d’ and dielectric constant is
given by k = k0ex, where ‘k0’ and ‘’ are positive constants and x is distance
x
from one plate of capacitor. If distance between plate (d) increases slowly
then graph between capacitance of capacitor and distance between plate is
given by
d
(A) C (B) C
d d
(C) C (D) C
d d
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
3. A conducting rod of length ‘L’ cross-sectional area ‘A’ and P 0C Q
thermal conductivity ‘k’ is kept in the surrounding at 0C. 100C 0C
The end P is maintained at 100C and Q at 0C. The
graph between temperature (T) of the rod and distance L
(x) from the end ‘P’ is best represented by
(A) T (B) T
100C 100C
x=0 L x x=0 L x
(C) T (D) T
100C 100C
x=0 L x x=0 L x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4. Four point charges 2q, 2q, q and q are kept at (a, a, 0), (a, +a, 0), (a, a, 0) and (a, a, 0)
and fixed at their position. Another point charge q0 is kept at origin and slightly displaced along
positive z-axis. The graph of potential energy of the charge is best represented by
(A) U (B) U
z z
(C) U (D) U
‘L’ z ‘L’ z
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. A capacitor of capacity 5F is charged by a +
battery of 2 volt and then connected with 5
5F
uncharged capacitors and 5 resistors with
the help of a switch ‘S’ as shown in the S
2F 2F
figure. At t = 0, switch is closed. Choose 4 4
the correct option(s).
X Y
3F 5
6F 2 2
6F
27
10 t
(A) Charge on capacitor X at time t is given by 1 e 160
9
27
1 160 t
(B) Current in resistor Y at time t is given by e
4
50
(C) Total energy dissipated in the circuit is J
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9
40
(D) Total energy dissipated in the circuit is J
9
6. A potentiometer wire PQ is made by using two e0
wires of different cross sectional area A and 2A.
The material of wire PS and SQ is same and their G
lengths are 5m each. A source battery of 10V and
rheostat Rh are connected in the circuit as shown in J
P Q
the figure. Choose the correct option(s) regarding S
the balance point.
10V Rh
(A) If a cell of emf e0 = 5V is used then balance point from the end P is at 7.5 m
(B) If a cell of emf e0 = 5V is used then balance point from the end P is at 3.75 m
(C) If a cell of emf e0 = 8V is used then balance point from the end P is at 7 m
(D) If a cell of emf e0 = 8V is used then balance point from the end P is at 8.5 m
7. A cylindrical vertical magnetic field exist in a
q
gravity free space. Magnetic field is
increasing at a rate of 700 T/sec. The radius 100 cm
q O
of cylindrical magnetic field is 50 cm. A point S P
100 cm
charge q = 50 C is moved very slowly by an 50
cm
external agent from two point ‘P’ and ‘S’ then
(A) Work done by external agent is zero if charge particle is moved from point ‘S’ upto infinity
along the line OS.
(B) Work done by external agent is zero if charge particle is moved from point ‘P’ upto infinity
perpendicular to the line OP.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
55
(C) Work done by external agent is mJ if charge particle is moved from point ‘P’ upto infinity
8
perpendicular to the line OP.
(D) Work done by external agent to move a charge particle from any point to infinity is path
independent.
8. Three capacitors of capacity 2 F, 2 F, 1F and two 2F 10V
S
ideal cells of potential difference 10V and 5V are
connected in a circuit through a switch ‘S’. Initially
switch is opened for a long time and then it is closed. 5V
Choose the correct option(s) after switch is closed.
1F 2F
4
(A) Charge passing through 10V cell is C
3
(B) Work done by 5V battery is 10J
(C) Charge on 1F capacitor is 6C
5
(D) Total heat dissipated in the circuit after switching is J
3
9. A non conducting hemispherical shell of radius ‘R’ A
P C
has uniform surface charge density . Point ‘C’ is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
center of hemispherical shell. Point ‘A’ and point ‘P’
lie on the flat surface of the shell. The distance
between C and A is R/2 and between C and P is R.
Choose the correct option(s).
R
(A) The potential at point P is
20
R
(B) The potential at point A is
40
q0 R
(C) Word done by electrostatic force if a charge ‘q0’ is moved from P to A is
40
q0 R
(D) Word done by electrostatic force if a charge ‘q0’ is moved from P to A is
40
10. An ice in the shape of cylinder is kept on a rough t =0
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. An initial
velocity v0 is imparted to cylindrical ice. The initial v0
mass of ice is m0 and coefficient of friction between 1
ice and horizontal surface is ‘’. The initial v
temperature of ice 0C and its latent heat of fusion
is L. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) The velocity of cylindrical ice at time ‘t’ is given by (v0 + gt)
(B) The velocity of cylindrical ice at time ‘t’ is given by (v0 gt)
g gL2
v0t
L 2
(C) The mass of cylindrical ice at time ‘t’ is given by m0 e
g v 0 t gL2
L 2 2
(D) The mass of cylindrical ice at time ‘t’ is given by m0 e
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. Semicircular electric field line is present in a space. The C
magnitude of electric field is constant at each point of electric
field lines. A point charge is constrained to move along the filed E
lines. The particle starts from rest and initially it is at point A.
The magnitude of acceleration of the particle at C is a1 and it is
a2 when reaches at B. The ratio of a1 and a2 is given by
A B
1 k1 k
. Find the value of 2 .
1 k2 k1
12. Two rods L1 and L2 of different materials are used to make a 30 cm 70 cm
single composite rod as shown in the figure. The cross
sectional are of both rods is same. At 25C, the total length of
combined rod is 1m, in which the length of L1 is 30 cm. When L1 L2
temperature of combined rod is increased, at 125C, the total
length of combined rod increased by 1.91 mm. The coefficient
of linear expansion of L1 is 1.7 105 /C and that of the L2 is
k 105 /C. Find the value of k.
13.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A particle of mass m = 227 gm and charge q = 7C is projected in a space where magnetic field
is given by B y 2 ˆi z 2 ˆj x 2kˆ . The initial velocity of projection of particle is v ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ from
(1, 2, 1). Find radius of curvature of particle at t = 0 in kilometer.
14. Three different type of glasses are used to make a large glass slab. The thermal conductivity of
glass slabs are k1, k2 and k3. The width of each glass slab is ‘’ and cross-sectional area is A.
The glass slabs are kept in a pattern as shown in the figure. The upper surface of glass slab is
maintained at temperature T1 and lower surface at T2. It is given that k1 = 1.10 W/mK, k2 = 2.82
W/mK, k3 = 2.08 W/mK, w = 10 cm, A = 1.3 m 2, T1 = 100C, T2 = 0C. Find equivalent thermal
conductivity of large glass slab in W/mK.
k1 k2 k3 k1 k2 k3 Upper surface
k1 k2 k3 Lower surface
15. A conducting spiral of inner radius a = 20 cm and outer radius b =
40 cm is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface. The total
number of turns is equal to 1000 which are wound tightly and
insulated to each other. There exist a vertical magnetic field O a
50
which is changing at a rate of mT/sec. If the resistance of
b
14
conducting spiral is , then find induced current in ampere.
9
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
16. A battery of potential difference 10 V and internal r 10V
resistance ‘r’ is connected to seven resistors as
shown in the figure. If battery delivers maximum
power to the circuit with internal resistance 3
4
r , then find the value of .
13 3 3
18
12 3
3
17. A capacitor (5F), a resistor (6), an inductor (3mH), a cell (6V) 5F
and a switch are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure.
Initially switch is kept at position-1 for a long time. The potential
6 3mH 2
difference (in volt) across the ends of inductor immediately after
the switch is shifted from position-1 to position-2 is S
1
6V
TG ~ @bohring_bot
18. A ring of uniform mass density (m = 100 gm) and radius (R = y
50 cm) is suspended by two strings PS and PT from the
point P on y-axis in vertical plane. The ring is kept parallel to P
horizontal surface on x-z plane. Ring carries a current
7
i 22 amp as shown in the figure. There exist a magnetic
field (B = 1 Tesla) along negative x-axis. The tension in the i
T
string PS is T1 and in the string PT is T2. Find the ratio 1 . S O T x
T2
(It is given that = 60)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. Which of the following is NOT the chain isomer of
H3C CH3
H2C CH3
(A) H3C CH2
H2C CH3
(B) H2C CH3
H3C CH3
(C) H3C CH3
H3C CH3
(D) H2C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H3C
CH2
CH3
20. Analyse the following data of the following hydrolyzed products and choose the correct option:
O R2 O R2
R1 C OH R1 OH
N C H /H2O
OH H2N
NH2 H O NH2 O
[x] [y]
Dipeptide
If the dipeptide is first treated with HNO2 and then hydrolysis is carried out, we got lactic acid and
O
NH
[y]. [y] on heating gives 2,5-diketopiperazine HN
O
(A) R1 H and R2 CH3
(B) R1 CH3 and R2 CH3
(C) R1 CH3 and R2 H
(D) R1 H and R2 H
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
21. Me
S 1
I Me CH Me N
H O
P Major
2
Me Br
Me
S 1
II Me CH Ph N
H O
Q Major
2
Me Br
Identify the INCORRECT intermediate carbocation, which does NOT form during the reaction (I)
and (II)?
(A) Me
Me C CH Ph
Me
(B) Me
Me C CH Ph
Me
(C) Me
Me C CH Me
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Me
(D) Me
Me C CH Me
Me
22. Identify which test are positive (+) or negative (–) for D glucopyranose ?
[Note: Here positive means respond to test and negative means not respond to test)
1. 2, 4-DNP
2. NH2 OH / H
3. Tollen’s test
4. NaHSO3
(A)
1 2 3 4
(B)
1 2 3 4
(C)
1 2 3 4
(D)
1 2 3 4
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Yash Patil 10
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. Which of the following reaction(s) will provide a synthesis of 1,1-diphenylethanol as a major
product?
(A) O
2 1. Et O
C MeMgBr
2.H3O
Ph Ph
(B) O
2 1. Et O
C PhMgBr
2.NH Cl
4
Ph Me
(C) O
2 1. Et O
C Ph CH2 MgBr
2.H3O
Ph H
(D) O
2 1. Et O
C 2PhMgBr
2.H3 O
OEt
24. Which among the given reactions can yield the 2, 4,6-tribromo phenol as a major product?
(A) OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Br excess
2
H O
2
SO 3H
(B) OH
2 Br /CS
2
o
0 C
(C) OH
3 KBrO KBr /H O
2
(D) NO 2
Br Br
1. aq. KOH
2. H , room temperature
Br
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
25. Choose the correct options regarding the given scheme?
H /H2O/ 1. NH ,
Sec-butyl benzoate G F 3
2. NaOH Br
M
2
Liberate CO2 3. NaNO2 dil. HCl
E with NaHCO
3 0 5o C
4. H2O, warm
P
I
Q
J
R
M
([L] is a metamer of [E]) L K
H ,
(A) P SOCl2 Q Mg / dry ether R 1. HCHO 2. H
(B) P KBr H2 SO4 Q AgCN / DMF R H3 O /
(C) P PBr3 Q Mg / dry ether R 1. CO2 2. H
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) P HBr Q NaCN / DMF R H3 O /
26. Choose the INCORRECT statement(s) for the given reaction scheme
1. NaOH NaOH/
P
2. H work up
Q
CO2
R S
C4H4O2 C4H6O3 gives iodoform test C6H10O
Unsaturated
Lactone
(A) [S] is an , unsaturated aldehyde.
(B) Four stereoisomers are possible for [S].
(C) Two structural isomers of [P] can satisfy the above reaction scheme.
O
O
(D) [P] is
27. P2 O5
CONH2
P
i Br2 KOH
Q
ii CHCl3 OH
Which statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
(A) Reduced product of P and Q will be metamers to each other. (Consider LiAlH4 as a reducing
agent)
(B) By dry distillation of hydrolysed product of P with Ca(OH)2 gives benzophenone.
(C) One of the hydrolysis product of Q reacts with NaNO2 + HCl followed by reaction with phenol
in mild basic medium gives orange red dye.
(D) Electrophile involved in the formation of Q is dichlorocarbene.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
28. Choose the correct statement(s)
Ph O Ph
H O dil. NaOH/
3
Mixture of products P
O O C17H14O
(A) In mixture, one of the product shows positive iodoform test.
(B) In mixture, one of the product shows positive Tollen’s test and negative Fehling’s test.
(C) [P] on reaction with hydroxyl amine gives oxime that can have 4 stereoisomers.
(D) Number of double bonds in [P] is 10.
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. Consider the major organic product in each case and calculate the
Sum of number of halogen atoms in [P], [Q] and [R]
H
N 1. CH3 Cl/AlCl3
2. NaOH, H O/
2
3. Br /CH COOH mono bromination
P
2 3
O 4. NaNO2 /dil.HCl 273 K
5. KI
TG ~ @bohring_bot
N 1. Br2 /Fe mono bromination
2. Cl /Fe mono chlorination
2
3. ICl/AlCl mono halogenation
Q
3
O 4. NaOH, H2O/
5. NaNO2 /dil. HCl 273 K
5. H3PO2
Cl 1. HNO H SO
3
2. H /Pd C
2 4
R
2
3. Br2 /H2O
4. NaNO2 /dil. HCl 273 K
5. KI
30. An organic compound reacts with excess of MeMgBr followed by hydrolysis to give two organic
products of which one reacts with NaOI to give yellow precipitate and OTHER DOES NOT. How
many of the following compounds can satisfy these conditions?
O H O H O O O
O O O O O
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
CH3
Ph O H O O O
O O O O
(VI) (VII) (VIII) (IX)
31. Consider all possible isomeric ketones including stereoisomers of MW = 100. All these isomers
are independently reacted with CH3MgBr (Note : Stereoisomers are also reacted separately and
consider no racemisation of alpha carbon of the carbonyl group during the reaction). The total
number of ketones that gives a racemic product is/are
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Br
32. D Glucose 2
P
H O 2
Number of chiral centre in compound P is
33. Number of correct statement(s) is/are
1. Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
2. Green house effect is responsible for global warming.
3. Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from sun to reach the earth.
4. Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
5. Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate.
6. Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.
7. Classical smog is also called reducing smog.
8. Classical smog is also called oxidizing smog.
9. Ozone absorbs infrared radiations.
10. Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiations of the sun.
34. Choose the appropriate reagent sequence from the given reagent pool to complete the synthetic
conversion. Make sure to use strictly four reagents, not more not less.
Note: You can simply mention the numerical values corresponding to the reagent in the boxes P,
Q, R, S respectively and also consider major organic product in each step.
What is the value of [P + R + S – Q].
P
Q
1.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
HBr
R
S
2. H / H2 O
OH
3. Hg OAc 2 / H2 O 4. BH3 .THF
5. EtONa / EtOH / 6. HBr / ROOR / 7. conc. H2 SO4 /
8. NaBH4 9. H2 O2 ,aq. NaOH 10. t BuOK /
35. [A] is a monomer of natural rubber, on reaction with HBr (1 eq)/CCl4 at 298 K, it forms major
product [B].
The number of allylic hydrogen of [A] is x and that of [B] is y, the value of ( y x )?
36.
H / aq. dilute KMnO excess
P
273K
4
Q
HO Major Major
Calculate the number of secondary hydroxyl groups in [Q]
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
37. In a triangle ABC let a, b, c denote the length of the sides BC, AC and AB respectively,
cot A
if 8(b2 + c2) = 65a2, then the value of is equal to
cot B cot C
57 53
(A) (B)
16 8
57 59
(C) (D)
8 16
38. Three circles C1, C2, C3 with radii r1, r2, r3 (r1 < r2 < r3) respectively are given as r1 = 4 and r3 = 9.
They are placed such that C2 lies to the right of C1 and touches it externally, C3 lies to the right of
C2 and touches it externally. There exists two straight lines each of which is a direct common
tangent simultaneously to all three circles, then r2 is equal to
13
(A) (B) 6
2
72
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) (D) 7
13
39. Consider the ellipse E = 9x2 + 25y2 = 225 with foci S and S1 where S lies on positive x-axis. Let
the locus of the image of S with respect to any tangent to the ellipse be the curve C.
If the line ky – 2x + 22 = 0 touches the curve C, then k is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4 2
40. Let A and B be two distinct points on the parabola y2 = 8x such that a circle with AB as diameter
passes through the vertex of the parabola. Tangents at A and B to the parabola intersect at point
C. Another pair of tangents are drawn from point C to the parabola y2 = kx. If angle between
these tangents is 90, then k is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 32 (D) 16
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
n
2k m
2k
41. Let f n cos and g m cos , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
k 1 7 k 1 7
(A) f(3) = g(3) (B) 2f(3) = f(6)
(C) 2g(3) = g(6) (D) f(8) = g(8)
42. Consider a circle whose radius is 2 and centre is origin. Tangents are drawn from a point P(, 2)
which touches the circle at A(a1, a2) and B(b1, b2). Another pair of tangents are drawn from the
point Q(, –2) which touches the circle at A(a1, a2) and C(c1, c2). Then which of the following
is/are CORRECT? (, > 0)
(A) b1 + b2 + c1 + c2 = 0 (B) = 4
(C) If = 4, then 4a2 + 3a1 = 0 (D) If = , then a2 = 0
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
43. Consider a parabola P : x2 = 4ky and a circle C : x 2 + y2 – 2x + 6y + 9 = 0 (where > 0). The
line of shortest distance between them cuts the parabola P at the end point of latus rectum in first
quadrant, then which of the following is/are TRUE?
(A) If k = 1, then = 6 (B) If k = 1, then = –6
17
(C) If k = 2, then = 12 (D) If = 20, then k
3
44. In a PQR, let p, q, r denote the length of the sides opposite to angles P, Q and R respectively,
sq sr
let s be the semiperimeter. If s p and area of the circumcircle of the triangle PQR
4 6
175
is , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
4 66
(A) Area of triangle PQR is 4 66
6
(B) Radius of incircle of triangle PQR is 2
11
P Q R 12
(C) sin sin sin
2 2 2 175
66
(D) Radius of the excircle opposite to vertex P is
5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
45. Define the collections {E1, E2, E3, .....} of ellipse and {R1, R2, R3, .....} of rectangles as follows:
E1 : x2 + 4y2 = 32
R1 : rectangle of largest area with sides parallel to the axes, inscribed in E1
x2 y 2
En : ellipse 2 2 1 of largest area inscribed in Rn – 1, n > 1
an bn
Rn : rectangle of largest area with sides parallel to axes, inscribed in En, n > 1.
Then which of the following options is/are CORRECT?
N
(A) area of R 64
n 1
n for each positive integer N
(B) The ratio of eccentricities of E10 and E12 is 1 : 4
(C) The length of major axis of E6 is 2
5
(D) The length of diagonal of R6 is
2
46. Let the vertex P of PQR move on the curve xy = 4. If the perpendicular bisectors of side PQ and
PR are given by y = 0 and x – y = 0, then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) Locus of centroid of PQR is 9xy = 18y2 + 4
(B) Locus of centroid PQR is 9xy = 18x2 + 4
(C) Locus of orthocentre of PQR is xy = 2y2 + 4
(D) Circumcentre of PQR is origin
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
1 3 1 1
47. f sin3 sin 3 sin3 9 sin3 27 ..... upto 10 terms, then
3 9 27
sin3m
4f k sin , then k + n – m is
3n
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
x2 y 2
48. Consider the ellipse E : 1 . Tangents are drawn at the ends points of a double ordinate
25 9
passing through (c, 0) (where 5 < c < 5). The tangents intersect at G. If (c) = area of EFG, then
5k
for 1 c 3 if minimum value of (c) is k, then is equal to
8
49. In a triangle PQR, P = 54, R = 18. If S is a point on PR such that area of triangle PSQ is
5 1 times the area of triangle RSQ, then ratio of angle PQS : RQS is
2 2
50. A circle with centre (6, 12) and of variable radius cuts the hyperbola x – y = 144 at the points A,
2 2 2
B, C and D. If the locus of the centroid of the ABC is (x – ) – (y – ) = , then | + – | is
equal to
x2 y 2
51. Consider the parabola y2 = 4x and hyperbola 1. Tangents are drawn from a point P to
9 16
x2 y 2
the parabola y2 = 4x, the chord of contact of these tangents touches the hyperbola 1.
9 16
The locus of point P is a conic whose eccentricity is e, then 4e2 is equal to
x2 y 2
52. An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in the ellipse 1 . If the eccentric angles of the
a2 b2
ellipse TG ~ @bohring_bot
vertices of triangle ABC are , , respectively and the circumcentre of triangle ABC lies on the
9x 2 9y 2
7a2 7b2
1 , then the value of
cos cos + cos cos + cos cos + sin sin + sin sin + sin sin is equal to
x2 y2
53. Let the director circle of the hyperbola H : 1 be denoted by C1 and let director circle of
a 2 b2
x 2 y2 1
the ellipse E : be denoted C2. If the circle C2 is also the director circle of C1 and let e1
a2 b2 3
e2
and e2 be the eccentricities of the ellipse E and hyperbola H, then 22 is equal to (a > b)
e1
54. Let a, b, c denote the lengths of the sides opposite to A, B and C in triangle ABC.
p
If 2a2 + 4b2 + 9c2 = 4ab + 6ac, then cosB (where p and k are coprime), then p – k is equal to
k
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – II
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 11-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. A, C, D
1 iR
Sol. xC 2000 …(i)
C R
A B
iC
‘S’
200 V, 500 rad/s
2 2 2 (iC)A
i iC A iR
i
z 1000 2 …(ii)
iR V
2
V (VC )B2 2
(V ) 2VC V cos 45 i
45
z 10 (10)3 …(iii)
200 1 45
i 3
10 10 5 10
V
V
(VC)B
iR icos 45
(iC )A icos 45
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
V sin 45 1
tan …(iv)
(VC )B V cos 45 3
2
1
Power = i2R = 2000 4 W
5 20
2. A, C, D
2kpcos A
Sol. Er
r3 Er
kp sin
E
r3
From conservation of energy at A and E. D
E
1 (kpcos )q p
0 0 mv 2
2 r2 ‘R’
2kp(cos )q p(cos )q
v
mr 2 20mr 2 C
3. A, B, C
Sol. Since piston more very slowly so they are at equilibrium at each instant
mg
Above separately wall P1 P0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A
mg
Below separately wall P2 P0
A
Q = 0
W + U = 0
W = U = nCVT
f f f
P2 V2 P1V1 n R(T2 T1 ) nRT1 nRT2 P1V1 P2 V2
2 2 2
f f
1 2 P2 V2 1 2 P1V1
P1V1 P2 V2 , So, T1 = T2
4. A, C, D
V2
Sol. e e1 e2 200 sin t V5
2
e0 = 200 volt
200 i0
v5 100 2 V1
2
z (500)2 (500)2 500 2
V3
100 2 1
irms
500 2 5
1
V1 500 100 volt
5
1
V2 900 180 volt
5
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1
V3 400 80 volt
5
V4 V2 V3 100 volt
9
tan1
2 5
5. A, C, D
| E E 2 E3 E 4 |
Sol. i 1
r1 r2 r3 r4
6. B, C
Sol.
dV v B .d
So potential difference across OA is zero
1 2 1 2
Potential difference across OB = B0 2OA
2
2
100 5 2 0.2 = 20 Volt.
So potential difference across AB is also 20 Volt.
7. A
Sol. = iA = 0.0550
B 0.0055
TG ~ @bohring_bot
|| = I
= 0.0440
From conservation of energy
Ui + Ki = Uf + Kf
Kf = Uf = 0.4400
8. B
1
Sol. 0.07
6 12 18 24
6 12 18 24
At steady state
25
Req
2
Current through battery = 2 ampere
Current through inductor = 1/6 ampere
At one time constant
1
Current through inductor = 0.63 0.105 ampere
6
From KVL, current through 12 = 1.353 ampere
For part (iv) after switching
1
L iL (L 2L)
6
1
iL 0.056 ampere
18
9. C
Sol. AB
TP2 = constant
PV1/3 constant
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
P1V1 P2 V2 nR(T1 T2 ) 9
WA B = nRT0
x 1 x 1 2
UA B 3nRT0
15
Q A B nRT0
2
CA
TP 4 constant
PV1/5 constant
nR(T1 T2 ) 15
WCA nRT0
x 1 4
UC A nR(TA TC ) 0
QC A 0
BC
U = 0
WB C 0
QBC 0
10. D
Sol. For : A (5/3)A
63 5V
Req 3 5 M
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10V
63
1 6M 3M 3M
5 1 sec
5 1
F
For qmax at steady state 5
5
Current passing through 10 V battery = A
3 B
5
VA 5 6 VB
3
VA VB 5V
qmax 1C i1 (5/3)A
A
At time t = 1sec 5V i 10V
q 1 1 e t 0.63 C
3M
6M 3M
dq 1
i e t 0.31 amp + F
dt
5
From KVL
0.63
(0.37)3 5 i1(6) 0
1/ 5
= 1.54 A
Section – B
11. 1.50
2 2 dN
Sol. 2
vrms
v dN v dv dv
dN dN dv
dv
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
3
2 5
v
0
3 v 5 dv
3
= 1.50
5
0
3 v 5 dv
12. 6.93
dr 30 cm
Sol. dR 15 cm
r
dr r
R n2 6.93
r
dr
13. 2.10
Sol. P& Q and R & S are equipotential R
3C
2(6C)(4C) (6C)(12C) (4C)(12C) 84 3C 3C 2C
C AB C
6C 4C 2(12C) 17 2C 3C
P
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A 3C B
Q
2C
3C 3C 2C
3C
S
1 R, S
Heat generated = (CAB )V02 2.10 J 6C
2 4C
12C B
A
4C 6C
P, Q
14. 20.30
Sol. Let final pressure on both side of W 2 is P
V 5V0
P 0 P0
6 6
P 5 5P0
V 5V
5 5P0 0 P0 0
Work done by gas = 6 6 5P0 V0 ( 5 1)
1 3
R
U nCV T n T 2nRT
1
5V V 5 5P0 5V0 P0 V0
2 P 0 P0 0 2
6 6 6 6
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
P0 V0
= (25 5 1)
3
Q = U + W = 2P0 V9 (5 5 1) 20.3 P0 V0
15. 1.75
Sol. 2 x12 x22 Q
d dx dx
2 2x1 1 2x 2 2 x2
dt dt dt
1 d 2 1 dx1 2 1 dx 2
2 x1 x dt x 2 x dt
dt 1 2 O
2 x1 P
(PQ ) x12 (PO ) x 22 (QO )
PO x12 QO x22
PQ 1.7538 105 /C
x12 x 22
16. 1.40
Sol. In first case
N = mg + iB
F1 = (mg + iB)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
In second case
N = mg iB
F2 (mg iB )
F1
1.40
F2
17. 0.05
dv y x
Sol. mg qBv X m
dt
dv x Fm
qBv y m
dt
Differentiate equation (i) with respect to vx
time
vy
dv d2 v y
0 qB x m 2 y
dt dt mg v
d2 v y q2B2
v y 2 v y
dt 2 m2
Solution of equation
v y (v y )0 sin t
dv y
(v y )0 cos t
dt
dv y g
at t = 0, g , so (v y )0
dt
Now form equation (i)
mg
vx (1 cos t)
qB
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
So, v y 0 , at t = , t
mg 2mg
vx 1 (1)
qB qB
From work energy theorem
1
mgy mv 2x
2
2m2 g
y 2 2 0.05 meter
qB
18. 0.08
Sol. In first case
5 1 2
3 1
15
Req 2 3
5 11
3
2
V0 11
i1 V0
15 / 11 15
In second case
2
23 6
Req
TG ~ @bohring_bot
23 5 3
V 5
i2 0 V0
6/5 6
i1 22
i2 25
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. B, C
Sol. Alkene [K] has 8 Hydrogens.
Alkene [L] has 2 Hydrogens .
H2 /Ni
achiral
H2 /Ni
achiral
This is achiral alkene
20. B, C, D
Sol. CHO CHO CHO
TG ~ @bohring_bot
NaOH MeBr
MeBr 1 eq
OH OH OH
OH O O CH3
Position isomer of [P]
More nucleophilic
CHO CHO CHO
NaOH MeBr
MeBr 1 eq
OH O O Me
OH O O
CHO
H
acidic work up
OMe
OH
[P]
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
21. B, C, D
Sol. CN
P
COOH
Q
COOH
NaOH CaO, aq. NaOH
R No reaction
Br Br
22. A, B, D
Sol. +
OH O Na
NO 2 NO 2
NaHCO3 H2 CO3
pK a 6.3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
pK a 7.2
As H2CO3 is more acidic than o-nitrophenol, so forward reaction is not possible.
23. A, B, D
Sol. CH3 COOH
O
Conc. H2 SO4 / KMnO /H
3 H3C C CH3 4
H3C CH3 HOOC COOH
Mesitylene
NaOH CaO, excess
3Na2 CO3
R
Aromatic
Re d hot
3 HC CH
Fe tube
Cr O Al O
n hexane
2 3 2 3
773 K, 10 20 atm
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
CHO CH3
Zn Hg
HCl
Clemmensen reduction
OHC CHO H3C CH3
O O OH
1. dil. KOH 3 H O Zn, dust
2. H3O
3. Zn, dust
24. C, D
Sol. OH OH
H2
HC C CH CH CH2
Lindlar catalyst
H2C CH CH CH CH2
5 4 3 2 1 [Q]
(Optically
active [P]) PCC
H2/Pd
H2C CH C CH CH2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H3C CH2
OH
CH CH2
PCC
CH3 H3C
O
CH2
O
C CH2 CH3
[R] (Optically inactive)
25. B
Sol. (I)
O
O /Zn
3
H O 2 O
(II)
O /Zn
O
3
Ph
H2O
Ph O
(III) O
O /Zn
3
Ph
H O
2 Ph O
(IV)
O /Zn
3
Ph O
H O 2
O
Ph Ph
Ph
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
26. D
Sol. (I) H /
OH
(Major) (Minor)
(II) H3C H3C H3C
H /
Ph Ph Ph
OH (Minor) (Major)
(III)
OH
H /
(Major) (Minor) (Minor)
(IV)
H /
cannot undergo dehydration as bridge head
C-atom can never be sp2-hybridised.
OH
27. D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. (I) OCH3 CH3
OCH3 OH
3HI
excess
3CH3I
OCH3 OH
(II) OCH3
OCH3 I
HI
3CH3 I
excess
OCH3 more than 4 moles
(III) OPh
OPh I
HI 3Ph OH
excess
OPh more than 4 moles
(IV) H2C OH I
HI
HC OH
excess
CH3 CH CH3
more than 4 moles
H2C OH
28. D
Hydrolysis
Sol. Sucrose D glucose + -D-fructose
Hydrolysis
Lactose D glucose + -D-galactose
Hydrolysis
Amylose D glucose + -D-glucose+.....
Mannose cannot be hydrolysed.
Lactose and mannose can reduce Fehling’s solution due to presence of hemiacetal and aldehyde
group.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
Section – B
29. 0.50
Sol.
(H ) OH +
O Na
O 1. LiAlH
4 Na
2. H3O
H
H
Cl NO 2
O NO 2
I
Conc. HI
HO NO 2
(A) H (B) H
30. 4.40
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. CH3 O O
O
HO C C OH H3C
H3O
O 2CO2 g
A
HO C C OH
O H3C
CH3 O O
B C
0.1 mol A 0.2 mol C
nC 0.2
w C 0.2 44 g 8.8 g x
x
4.40 grams .
2
31. 3.50
Sol. ‘A’ is CH3 CH C CH CH3 , optically active with minimum weight.
x 5, y 2 .
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
32. 40.00
Sol. O
O
i COOEt
Br CH2 COOEt Zn
ii H3 O
OH
x
O O
NaBH4
HO OH
Number of stereoisomers = 4.
33.
Sol.
2.00
n 1,
n 2,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
C2 H3 Br1
C2 H2Br2
No stereoisomer
Two geometrical isomers
n 3, C3 HBr3 No stereoisomer
n 4, C2 Br4 No stereoisomer
34. 1.20
Sol. Co-polymer are Nylon-6,6, Buna-N, Dacron, Buna-S, PHBV. So, X = 5.
Mutarotation is shown by D G, D G, Lactose, D F, D F, Maltose .
So, Y = 6.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
35. 1.23
Sol.
* It is having only one chiral centre
and can rotate plane polarised light
HO
OH
OH
Cold. Alk. dil. KMnO 4
Baeyer ' s reagent
(triol)
HO
Br
NaBr H SO
2 4
excess
Br
36.
Sol. TG ~ @bohring_bot
[18.95 – 18.99]
Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg.
Hence, actual pressure = (758 – 14) = 744 mm of Hg.
744 30 102
Number of moles of N2
760 0.0821 287
3
1.246 10 mol
Mass of N2 1.246 103 28
34.888 103 g
34.888 10 3
% mass 100
0.184
= 18.96%
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. C, D
2 2
Sol. Consider (x1, y1) (2at, at ) Equation of tangent tx = y + at
2 2 2
COC w.r.t (, t – at ) is (x + ty) – (at y + 4a ) = 0
4a 4a
x2, y2 , 2
t t
38. A, B
1 1 1
Sol. Here, cos
e12 e22 e12 e22
39. B, C
3 2 1 2
3 sin 2 3 3 y = mx
Sol. 2 2 = 3
2 3 2
1 2 10 3 3 3
3 3 sin 3
2 2 C 3 2,
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
satisfies this m or 2
3 5
40. C, D
a
Sol. Here,
2 2 is independent of if 4a = 5b
b
41. A, D
1
Sol. Consider 4x2 + pxy + 6y2 = (y – m1x)(y – m2x), then 4x2 + qxy – 6y2 = y x y m2 x
m1
Comparing, p = –10, q = –2 or p = 10, q = 2
42. A, B
Sol. Given expression =
x
y x2 y2
2
43. C
x
Sol. (I) Here, x 2 sin2 1
2
(II) |tan x| = (4x – )2 + 16
1 1
(III)x + y = 0 or x = 0 (x, y) = , , (0, 1), (1, 0)
2 2
sin x 1 cos x 1 cos x 2 3 cos2 x
(IV) The given equation becomes, 0
3
x (0, )
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
44. B
–1 –1
Sol. (I) cos x > 1 > sin x
–1 –1
(II) 1 > cos x > sin x
(III) 1 > sin x > cos–1 x
–1
(IV) sin–1 x > 1 > cos–1 x
45. D
Sol. (I) The given parabolas are symmetric about the line y = x
(II) Area of the given triangle = x 30
a2 ab 2
(III) Probability (required) = 2
= a = 3b
a 3
(IV) Here, roots are 1, 2, 2
46. B
Sol. (I) The two given families pass through A(2, 1) and B(19, –4) respectively
1 4 19 27
mOA , mOB Slope of lines are –2 and tan1
2 19 4 34
1 7
(II) Given family is always concurrent at ,
6 6
7 7 3 27
(III) AP2 AQ2 AR 2 AS2 11
4 4 4 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x 4 3
(IV) Given rays are y and y = –2x () Required area =
2 4 4
Section – B
47. 2.00
Sol. If A + B + C = , then sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C = 4 sin A sin B sin C
48. 1011.00
cot A cos A sinB sinC
Sol.
cot B cot C sin2 A
49. 4.33
15
Sol. By the concept of homogenization,
2
50. 34937.00
Sol. Here, R(, ) lies on PQ and midpoint of PR lies on AB
23 31
,
7 7
51. 20.00
2
1
y
Sol.
2
The given ellipse is x 3 2 1
1
4
1 1
x 3 cos , y sin 8x – 12y [20, 40]
2 2
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
52. 35.00
2 2 2
Sol. Required number of squares = 5 + 3 + 1 = 35
53. 0.50
2
Sol. For P(t1), Q(t2), R(t3). Area of PQR = |a (t1 – t2)(t2 – t3)(t3 – t1)|
a2
And area of ABC = t1 t 3 t 2 t1 t 2 t 3
2
54. 906.00
Sol. Here, cos x = 0, cos 3x = 0, cos 4x = 0, cos 5x = 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – II
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 11-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG
~ @bohring_bot
1. C
Sol.
i i0 1 e t/
di i t/
e
dt
1
U Li2
2
dU 1 di
L 2i ke t (1 e t )
dt 2 dt
dU
at t = 0, 0
dt
du
t , 0
dt
2. A
k 0 A
Sol. dC
dx
1 1 1
CeV
dC
k A dx
0
d
1
k e
0 0
x
0 A
dx
k 0 0 A
Ceq
1 ed
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
3. B
d
Sol. H kA
dx
The heat current decreases from the end P and Q through the rod hence slope of (T-x) graph
also decreases.
4. C
kq0 (2q)
Sol. U
z2 2a2
5. A, B, D
Sol. At time ‘t’ (10 q) (10 + q)
q 8 10 q
i 0 5F
4 3 5
q t i
dq 3
0 2
9
q 0
8dt
+q q
20
27
40 t
4F
(8/3)
q 1 e 160 ,
9
TG ~ @bohring_bot
27
dq 3 t
i e 160
dt 4
(10)2
Ui
25
(40 / 9)2 (50 / 9)2
Uf
24 25
40
U Ui Uf J
9
6. B, C
Sol. Current in the circuit
5 20
i
R 3R
R
2
20
Potential drop across PS = iR = V
3
R 10
Potential drop across SQ = i = V
2 3
20 / 3 4
Potential q radiant for PS = V/m
5 3
10 / 3 2
Potential q radiant for SQ = V/m
5 3
5
Length required for 5V = V= 3.75 m
4/3
20
8
Length required for 8V = 5 3 7m
2/3
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
7. A, C
Sol. When charge particle is moved from ‘S’ to infinity then induced electric field is perpendicular to
the displacement hence work done by external agent is zero.
From P to infinity
Work done = q(change in potential difference)
r 2 dB 55
= q J
4 dt 8
8. A, C, D
Sol. Before switch is closed 2F S
10V
q
10 q0 0 0
2
5V +q0 q0 Before switch
20
q0 C is closed
3 q0 +q0
After switch is closed 2F 10V
From KVL,
q q1 q0 q +
5 0 5V q0 + q q0 q1 After switch
2 1
1F 2F is closed
q q q0 q q0 q q0 + q1
10 0 0
1 2 q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
On solving,
q q1 q1
2 4
q C, q1 C
3 3
1 (20 / 3)2 1 (20 / 3)2 100
Ui J
2 1 2 2 3
1 (6)2 1 (8)2 1 (2)2
Uf 35 J
2 1 2 2 2 2
4 10
WB 5( 2) 10 J
3 3
5
So, heat required = J
3
9. A
kQ R
Sol. Potential at ‘C’ =
R 20
Flat surface of hemispherical shell is on equipotential surface.
10. B, C
Sol. ff mg
a g
v t
v0
dv g dt
0
v v0 gt
v v 0 gt
dm
L ff v mg(v 0 gt)
dt
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 4
m t
dm g
m0
m 0 L
(v 0 gt)dt
m g gt 2
n v0t
m0 L 2
g gt 2
v0t
L 2
m m0 e
Section – B
11. 4
1 R C
Sol. mv 2C qE …(i)
2 2
1 E
mvB2 qE R …(ii)
2
v2 qE
At C, aC C A B
R m
2
v 2qE
At B, aC B
R m
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
qE qE
a1
m m
2 2
qE 2qE
a2
m m
a1 1 2
a2 1 4 2
12. 2
30
Sol. 1 = L11T = (1.7 10 5 ) 100 0.51 mm
100
2 (1.91 0.51) 1.4 mm
So, 2 L2 2 T
2 2 10 5 /C
13. 2
Sol. B 4iˆ ˆj kˆ
v ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ
So, F q(v B) q( 5iˆ 11jˆ 9k)
ˆ
| F | q 227
| v |2
R 2 103 m = 2 km
aC
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
14. 2
1 1 1 1
Sol.
Req R1 R2 R3
k eq A k1A1 k 2 A 2 k 3 A 3
k1 k 2 k 3
k eq 2 W/mK
3
15. 3
d dB dx
Sol. emf x 2 (dN)
dt dt x
b
N dB 2 14 O
b a dt
x dx
a
3
volt
emf
i 3A
R
16. 7
Sol. Req between points x and z
28
Req
13
r
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10V
3
x 3
z
3 3
3
18
3 18
w y
x y w z
12 3 12
z 6
3
17. 6
Sol. Immediately after the switching, current in the branch of inductor will not change and charge on
capacitor will be zero.
18. 3
Sol. T1cos60 + T2 cos60 = mg
T1 + T2 = 2mG …(i) P
Taking torque about ‘O’
(T2 cos60)R | B | (T1 cos60)R …(ii)
T1 T1 T2
On solving 3 T1cos60
T2cos60
T2 i
S O T x
mg
z
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. D
Sol. Option (D) has longest chain of 5C-atom which is same as in the compound given
5 4 1
H3C CH3 H2C CH2
3
2
2 3
H2C CH3 H3C CH3
4 5
1
20. C
Sol. O R2 O R2
R1 C OH R1 C OH
N C HNO2 N C
NH2 H O N2 H O
Hydrolysis
TG ~ @bohring_bot R1
O R2
OH
OH H2N
OH O
Lactic acid [y]
(R1 = CH3)
R2 O
OH NH
H2N
O HN
O
2,5-diketopiperazine(R2 = H)
21. B
Sol.
Me Me Me
S 1
I Me CH Me N
H O
2
Me CH Re arrange
Me Me C CH Me
CH shift
Me Br Me 3 Me
Me Me
II Me CH Ph N
S 1
H O
Me CH Ph (No rearrangement further)
2
Me Br Me
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
22. C
Sol. H2C OH
O
H OH
H gives positive Tollen's test and
OH H
NH2OH/H+ due to presence of
Hemiacetal linkage.
OH H
H OH
D Glucopyranose
23. A, B, D
Sol. O OH
Et2 O
C MeMgBr Ph C Ph
H /H O
Ph Ph 2
Me
O OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 Et O
C PhMgBr
NH Cl
Ph C Ph
4
Ph Me
Me
O OH
Et 2O
C Ph CH2 MgBr Ph CH CH2 Ph
H / H O
Ph H 2
O OH
Et 2O
C 2PhMgBr H3C C Ph
H /H O
H3C OEt 2
Ph
24. A, C
Sol. OH OH
Br Br
Br excess
2
H O
2
SO 3H Br
(Major)
OH OH
Br /CS
2 2
o
0 C
Br
(Major)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
OH OH
Br Br
KBrO KBr
3
H O
2 KBrO 3 KBr H2 O Br2
Br
(Major)
NO 2
Br Br
1. aq. KOH
No reaction
2. H
Br
25. C, D
Sol. [F]
CH3 O
O O CH CH2 CH3
C OH [G]
CH3
H /H2 O/
HO CH CH2 CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
E
OH
1. NH3 ,
2. NaOH Br2
Liberate CO2
with NaHCO3
CH3
P PBr3 or HBr
3. NaNO2 dil. HCl
4. H2 O, warm Br CH CH2 CH3
[I]
Q MF
[M] N/D Q
C Mg / dry ether
Na
CH3 CH3
NC CH CH2 CH3 MgBr CH CH2 CH3
[J]
H3 O / R 1. CO2 , 2. H
O CH3
CH3
HO C CH CH2 CH3
HOOC CH CH2 CH3
K
K
M , H
M , H
O CH3
CH3
O C CH CH2 CH3
O C CH CH2 CH3
O
L is metamer of E
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
26. A, B, D
Sol. O O
[P] can be H2C O and H3C O
(Two structural isomers)
O OH O O O
H2C
1. aq.NaOH
O H2C C CH2 C OH H3C C CH2 C OH
2. H
Q
P
, CO2
H3C C CH3 [R]
O
NaOH
CH3 O
H3C C CH C CH3
[S]
O OH O O O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H3C
1. aq.NaOH
O H3C C CH C OH H3C C CH2 C OH
2. H
Q
P
, CO2
O
H3C C CH3 R
NaOH
CH3 O
H3C C CH C CH3
S
27. B, C, D
Sol. C N H2C NH2
CONH2 P2 O5 Re duction
LiAlH4
P
N C HN CH3
i Br2 KOH
Re duction
ii CHCl3 OH LiAlH4
Q
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
C N COOH
O O
H /H2O Ca OH2
C O
2 Ca C
Hydrolysis
P
Benzophenone
NC +
NH2 N2 Cl
2H /H O NaNO
2
HCl
Q
Mild basic OH
HO N N
Orange red dye
CONH2 NH2 N C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2Br KOH
Hoffman bromamide deg radation
Cl
CHCl3 O H
Carbyla min e reaction
CHCl3 O H C dichlorocarbene
Cl
28. A, B, C
Sol. Ph O Ph OH O
H /H2 O Ph OH
Ph H3C C CH3
O O OH
OH
O
O
Ph C H
Ph C H
O O O O
dil.NaOH
Ph C H Ph C H H3C C CH3
Ph CH CH C CH CH Ph
P
NH2 OH
OH
N
Ph CH CH C CH CH Ph
Number of stereoisomers 4
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B
29. 9
Sol. H
N 1. CH3 Cl/ AlCl3 I
2. NaOH, H O/
2
3. Br /CH COOH mono bromination
2 3
O 4. NaNO 2 /dil.HCl 273 K
5. KI H3C Br
P
H I
N 1. Br2 /Fe mono bromination
2. Cl /Fe mono chlorination
2
3. ICl/AlCl mono halogenation
3
O 4. NaOH, H2O/
5. NaNO2 /dil. HCl 273 K Br Cl
5. H3PO2
Q
Br Cl
Cl 1. HNO3 H2SO 4
2. H2 /Pd C
3. Br2 /H2 O
4. NaNO2 /dil. HCl 273 K I
5. KI
Br
R
30.
Sol.
31.
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
I, III and VI compounds satisfy the conditions
2
Sol. General formula of isomeric ketone of MW = 100 is C6H12O possible structures:
O O
(A) (B)
H3C CH2 CH2 C CH3 H3C CH2 CH2 C CH2 CH3
O
O
H3C CH CH2 C CH3
(C) H3C CH2 CH C CH3
CH3 (D)
CH3
O
CH3 O
H3C CH CH CH2 CH3
(E) H3C C C CH3
CH3 (F)
CH3
Compound B and E will give racemic mixture.
32. 4
Sol. CHO COOH
Br
2
(CHOH)4
H O
(CHOH)4
2
H2C OH H2C OH
D-Glucose Gluconic acid
33. 7
Sol. Statements 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 10 are correct.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
34. 9
Sol. 6.HBr /ROOR/
10. t BuOK /
4. BH .THF
3
9.H2 O2 , aq. NaOH OH
35. 5
Sol. CH3 CH3
HBr 1 eq.
H2C C CH CH2 H3C C CH CH2
1,4 addition at 298 K
[A] [B] Br
[Major]
36. 2
Sol. OH
H / aq. dilute KMnO 4 excess
273K
HO
HO H3C OH
H3C OH
P Q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A
cos A b2 c 2 a2 b c
sin A cos A sinB sinC 2bc 2R 2R 57a2 bc 57
Sol. =
cosB sinC sinB cos C 2
sin A a 2
8 2bc a 2 16
sinB sinC 4R 2
38. B
2 2 C3
Sol. DE AK r1 r2 r2 r1 2 r1r2 C2
C1
Similarly, BL = EF = 2 r2r3
A B C
Let APD = and PD = x, then P K L
AD BE CF
tan D
PD PE PF E
r r2 r3 F
1 = k (say)
x x 2 r1r2 x 2 r1r2 2 r2 r3
r2 r1 r3 r2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r1 kx, r2 kx 2k r1r2 , r3 kx 2k r1r2 2k r2r3 ; r2 r1r3 4 9 6
2 r1r2 2 r2r3
39. C
x2 y2
Sol. 1 S is (4, 0)
25 9
Let image of S in any tangent be P(h, k),
Midpoint of SP will lie on auxiliary circle
( foot of perpendicular from focus on any tangent lies on auxiliary circle)
h4 k 2 2 2 2
, lies on x + y = 25 locus of image is (x+ 4) + y = 100
2 2
0 8 22 2
It touches ky – 2x + 22 = 0 10 k + 4 = 9 k = 5
k2 4
40. C
Sol. AOB = 90 (as AB is diameter) A 2t12 , 4t1
Slope of OA Slope of OB = –1
2 2
1 t1t2 = –4
t1 t 2
Point of intersection of tangent at A and B is O
C(2t1t2, 2(t1 + t2)) = C(–8, 2(t1 + t2))
If perpendicular tangents are drawn from C to
y2 = kx, then C must be on its directrix k = 32
B 2t 22 , 4t 2
41. A, B, C
2 4 6 2 4 8
Sol. f 3 cos cos cos and g 3 cos cos cos
7 7 7 7 7 7
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
6 8
cos cos f(3) = g(3)
7 7
2 4 6 8 10 12
f 6 cos cos cos cos cos cos =
7 7 7 7 7 7
2 4 6
2 cos cos cos 2f 3
7 7 7
( cos = cos(2 – ))
2 4 8 16 32 64
g 6 cos cos cos cos cos cos
7 7 7 7 7 7
64 8 32 4 16 2
cos cos , cos cos , cos cos g(6) = 2g(3)
7 7 7 7 7 7
42. A, B, C, D
4 B P(, 2)
Sol. B(0, 2) and C is (0, –2). Slope of PQ =
4
Equation of PQ y – 2 = x
y( – ) – 2( – ) = 4x – 4 A(a1, a2)
4x – y( – ) – 2( + ) = 0
0 0 2 C Q(, –2)
it touches x2 + y2 = 4 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
16
4 3 a 3
= 4 If = 4 slope of PQ Slope of OA 2
3 4 a1 4
43. A, D
dy dy x dy
Sol. X2 = 4ky 2x 4k 1
dx dx 2k dx 2k, k
Slope of normal at (2k, k) = –1 (2k, k)
Equation of normal y – k = –1(x – 2k) x + y = 3k
If k = 1, equation of normal x + y = 3
Shortest distance lies along the common normal
It passes through (, –3) ; – 3 = 3 = 6 (, –3)
If k = 2, x + y = 6 passes through (, –3) = 9
If = 20 x + y = 3k passes through (20, –3)
17
k
3
44. B, C
s q s r p qr
Sol. sp k say s q + r – p = 2k ; p + r – q = 8k ; p + q – r = 12 k
4 6 2
p = 10k, r = 5k, q = 7k S = 11k s s p s q s r
pqr 175 5k 7k 10k
11k k 4k 6k 2 66 k 2 ; Circumradius = k=1
4 4 66 4 2 66 k 2
P Q R
Area = 2 66 inradius = 4(Circumradius) sin sin sin
2 2 2
6 175 P Q R
2 4 sin sin sin
11 4 66 2 2 2
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
45. A, C, D
Sol. Area of inscribed rectangle x2 y2
= 2a cos 2a sin = 2ab sin 2 1
a2 b2
(Here, a 4 2 ; b 2 2 ) (–a cos , b sin ) A(a cos , b sin )
Maximum value = 2ab when = 45
Area of R1 = 2ab
and sides of r1 are a 2 ; b 2
Let major axis and minor axis of E2
be 2a2, 2b2
(–a cos , b –sin ) B(a cos , b –sin )
a b
2a2 a 2 a2 ; b2
2 2
a b
Area of R2 2 ab and sides are of R2 are a and b
2 2
2ab 2a 2b
Similarly area of Rn n 1 and sides of Rn are n 1
; n 1
2 2 2
2a 2b
Similarly major axis and minor axis of En are n 1
; n 1
2 2
ab ab 2ab
Sum of areas of rectangles R1, R2, R3 ..... is 2ab + ab + ..... 4ab
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 4 1
1
2
Sum of areas is always less than 4 4 2 2 2 64
Eccentricities does not change E10 = E12
46. A, C, D
2 2 2
4t t 2t 4t R ; 2t
Sol. Centroid : ; ; h t ; k 2t t y=x
3 3 3 3
3k 4
t 3h 6k 9hk = 18k2 + 4 2
2 3k P 2t;
Circumcentre is (0, 0) t
2
Orthocentre : 4t ; 2t y=0
t
Locus hk = 2k2 + 4
2
Q 2t;
t
Section – B
47. 2
r 1 r
Sol. Tr
1
r 1
sin3 3r 1
1
r 1
3 sin3r 1 sin3r = 1 sin3r 2 sin3
r 1
1
Vr Vr 1
3 43 4 3 3 4
1 1 1 sin310
S10 V1 V2 V2 V3 ..... V10 V11 = V1 V11 f 3 sin 9
4 4 4 3
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
48. 8
Sol. Let E be (5 cos , 3 sin ) 5 cos E
c
c cos F is (5 cos , –3 sin )
5
x cos y sin H (c, 0) G
Tangent at E : 1
5 3
F
x cos y sin 5
Tangent at F : 1 G is , 0
5 3 cos
1 1 5
Area of EFG = GH EF 5 cos 6 sin
2 2 cos
3 1/2 3/2
c 25 c 2 2c 25 c 2
1 25 c2 3 3/2 3
= c 6 1 25 c 2 c 2
2 c 25 5c 5 c2
Which is always negative (–ve) (c) is always decreasing
If 1 c 3, then minimum value of (c) is at c = 3
3
3 16 3 /2 3 26 64
53 53 5
49. 5
Sol. Area of PSQ = 5 1 area of RSQ P
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 1
PQ QS sin 5 1 QR QS sin 108 54
2 2
S
PQ QR
sin18 sin54
sin sin18 5 1 sin54 sin 108 108 – 18
R
Q
5 1 5 1 sin 108 1 5 1
sin 5 1 sin 108
4 4 sin 5 1 4
5 1
sin 108 cot – cos 108 = cot = 0 = 90
4
50. 8
Sol. Let A be (12 sec 1, 12 tan 1)
B be (12 sec 2, 12 tan 2)
C be (12 sec 3, 12 tan 3) and
D be (12 sec 4, 12 tan 4)
Let centroid of ABC be (h, k) D A
h = 4 sec 1 + 4 sec 2 + 4 sec 3 and
K = 4 tan 1 + 4 tan 2 + 4 tan 3 C B
12sec 1 12sec 2 12sec 3 12sec 4 6 0
4 2
3h 12sec 4 12 4 sec 4 4 h
12 tan 1 12 tan 2 12 tan 3 12 tan 4 12 0
4 2
3k + 12 tan 4 = 24 4 tan 4 = 8 – k (h – 4)2 – (k – 8)2 = 16 = 4, = 8, = 4
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
51. 3
Sol. Equation of chord of contact AB ky = 2(x + h)
2x 2h x2 y 2
y it touches 1
k k 9 16 A
4h2 9 4 2 2
2 16 ; h + 4k = 9
k2 k
x2 y2 P(h, k)
locus is 1
9 9/4 B
9 3
9 1 e2 e
4 2
52. 2
a b
Sol. It is equilateral x1 cos cos cos ; y1 sin sin sin
3 3
9x12 9y12 2 2
2 cos cos cos sin sin sin
a2 b
= 3 + 2(cos cos + cos cos + cos cos + sin sin + sin sin + sin sin )
53. 6
a2 b2
Sol. C1 : x2 + y2 = a2 – b2 C2 : x2 + y2 =
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
a2 b2
Director circle of C1 is x2 + y2 = 2(a2 – b2) 2(a2 – b2) =
3
6a – 6b2 = a2 + b2 5a2 = 7b2
2
2 12
5a2 = 7a2 1 e12 e12 and 5a2 = 7a2 e22 1 e22
7 7
54. 7
a a
Sol. (a – 2b)2 + (a – 3c)2 = 0 a = 2b, a = 3c b , c
2 3
a2 a2
2 2 2 a2
a c b 9 4 31
cosB cosB
2ac a 24
2a
3
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 17-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The wave length of light incident on a metal surface is reduced from 300 nm to 200 nm (both are
less than threshold wavelength). What is the change in the stopping potential for photoelectrons
emitted from the surface (take h = 6.6 1034 J-sec)
(A) 0.0625 V (B) 1.0625 V
(C) 2.0625 V (D) 3.0625 V
2. A uniform semicircular ring having mass m and radius r is hanging at one of P
its end (P) freely as shown in the given figure. The ring is slightly disturbed so
that it oscillates in its own plane. The time period of oscillation of the ring is
r
r r
(A) 2 (B) 2 1/2
1 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
g 1 2 g 1 2
r 2r
(C) 2 1/2
(D) 2 1/ 2
2 4
g 1 2 g 1 2
3. A number of little droplets of a liquid of surface tension T, density , all of same radius r, combine
to form a single drop of radius R. If the total energy released in this process is converted into
kinetic energy of the bigger drop, velocity of the bigger drop is
3T(R r) 6T(R r)
(A) (B)
Rr Rr
T(R r) 2T(R r)
(C) (D)
Rr R
4. In a screw gauge, 5 complete rotations of the screw cause it to move a linear distance of 0.25 cm
and each rotation corresponds to one main scale division. There are 100 circular scale divisions.
The thickness of a wire measured by this screw gauge gives a reading of 4 main scale divisions
and 30 circular scale divisions. Assuming negligible zero error, what is the thickness (in mm) of
the wire?
(A) 2.15 (B) 3.15
(C) 1.25 (D) 2.25
5. The refracting angle of a prism is A and the refractive index of the material of the prism is
A
cot . The angle of minimum deviation is
2
(A) 180 3A (B) 180 + 2A
(C) 90 A (D) 180 2A
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. In a hypothetical system, a particle of mass m and charge 3q is moving around a very heavy
particle having charge q. Assume that Bohr’s model is applicable to this system, then velocity of
mass m in the first orbit is
3q2 3q2
(A) (B)
20h 40h
3q 3q
(C) (D)
20h 40h
2
7. A steel rod of cross sectional area 1 m is A B C D
acted upon by forces shown in figure. The
elongation of the length BC of the rod is (Y = 80 kN 10 kN 20 kN 90 kN
11 2
2.0 10 N/m )
1.5 m 1m 2m
(A) 13 107 m (B) 4.5 107 m
(C) 5 107 m (D) 3.5 107 m
8. A body executes SHM of period 20 seconds. Its velocity is 5 cm/s, 2 seconds after it has passed
22
the mean position. Find the amplitude (in cm) of the bob. (cos 36 = 0.809 and )
7
(A) 15.67 (B) 17.67
(C) 19.67 (D) 21.67
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9. The diode used in the circuit shown in figure has a constant voltage R 0.5 V
drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100
mW. What should be the value of the resistance R, connected in
series with diode for obtaining maximum current?
(A) 5 (B) 5.6
(C) 6.7 (D) 20
1.5 V
10. A ray enters a glass slab at an angle from air and the refractive index varies along the slab as
0 kt 2 , where t is the distance measured along the normal. 0 and k are positive constants.
If the glass slab is sufficiently thick, how far along the normal will the ray go before it reflects
back?
sin sin
(A) 0 (B) 0
k k
0 sin 0 sin
(C) (D)
k k
11. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by
Ex = 0
E y 2.5 N/C cos 2 106 rad / s t 10 2 rad / m x
and Ez = 0
Then the wave is
(A) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100 m
6
(B) moving along x direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
6
(C) moving along x direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
(D) moving along y direction with a frequency 2 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
12. In a Fraunhofer diffraction experiment at a single slit using a light of wavelength 400 nm, the first
minimum is formed at an angle 30. The direction of the first secondary maximum is given by:
2 3
(A) sin1 (B) sin1
3 4
1 2
(C) sin1 (D) sin1
4 5
13. A cylindrical vessel filled with water upto a height h weighs w and is resting on a horizontal plane.
The side of wall of the vessel has a plugged circular hole touching the bottom. The coefficient of
friction between the bottom of the vessel and the plane is . The minimum diameter of the hole so
that the vessel just begins to move on the floor after the removal of the plug is:
w w
(A) (B)
hg 2hg
w 2w
(C) (D)
hg hg
2
bt 2 2 abxt)
14. The transverse displacement y(x, t) of a wave on a string is given by y(x, t) = e(ax .
This represents a ……….
a
(A) wave moving along +x-axis with speed
TG ~ @bohring_bot
b
b
(B) wave moving along x-axis with speed
a
(C) standing wave of frequency b
1
(D) standing wave of frequency
b
15. A body is fired with a velocity of magnitude gR v 2gR at an angle of 30 with the radius
v
vector of the earth. If at the highest point, the speed of the body is , the maximum height
4
attained by the body is equal to (R = radius of earth and use the appropriate assumptions)
v2
(A) (B) R
8g
(C) R 2 (D) 2R
2
16. A metal plate of area 0.10 m is connected to a 0.04 kg liquid film
mass via a string that passes over an ideal pulley
(considered massless and frictionless). A liquid with a film Metal plate
of thickness of 0.3 mm is placed between the plate and
the table. When the system is released the plate moves A B
up with constant speed of 0.085 m/s. Find the
approximate value of coefficient of viscosity of the liquid. 0.3 mm
2
(mass of metal plate is 0.02 kg, g = 9.8 m/s ) 30 30
(A) 3.46 103 Pa sec (B) 3.46 104 Pa sec
(C) 6.90 103 Pa sec (D) 6.90 104 Pa sec
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
17. Two rings having masses M and 2M, respectively, having the same 3R
radius are placed coaxially as shown in the figure. If the mass P
distribution on both the rings is non-uniform, then the gravitational
potential at point P is R
GM 1 2 2M
(A) M
R 2 5
GM 1
(B) 1
R 2
(C) zero
(D) cannot be determined from the given information
18. A heavenly body is receding from earth such that the fractional change in is 1, then its velocity
is
3c
(A) c (B)
5
c 2c
(C) (D)
5 5
19. In the given figure m B = 3m, density of liquid is and density of block
B is 2. The system is released from rest so that block B moves up
when in liquid and moves down when out of liquid with the same
TG ~ @bohring_bot
acceleration. Find the mass of block A.
A
7
(A) m (B) 2m
4
9 9 B
(C) m (D) m
7 4
20. Truth table for a system of four NAND gates as shown A
is
B
(A) A B Y (B) A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
(C) A B Y (D) A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 1 0
1 1 0 1 1 1
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
100 (100/3) m/s
21. A source of sound S is travelling at m/s along S
3 A
a road towards a point A. A person standing at 3m
point O on a road perpendicular to AS hears a
sound of frequency f corresponding to the sound
emitted at the instant when the source is 3m away
from A. The distance of O from A is 4m. If the 4m
original frequency is 640 Hz, then find the value of
f in Hz. (velocity of sound is 340 m/s)
22. A metallic sphere of radius 21 cm is kept in the path of a parallel beam of light of large aperture of
1 22
intensity W/m2. The force exerted by beam on the sphere is k 1013 N . Find k. ( and
110 7
light is completely absorbed by sphere)
23.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal length 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, at what distance the lenses must
be separated (in cm)?
24. Cobalt-57 is radioactive, emitting -particles. The half life for this is 270 days. If 100 mg of this is
kept in an open container, then what mass (in mg) of Cobalt-57 will remain after 540 days.
25. A clear sheet of polaroid is placed on the top of similar sheet so that their axes make an angle
3
sin1 with each other. The ratio of intensity of the emergent light to that of unpolarised
5
k
incident light is . Find k.
25
4
26. A narrow parallel beam of light is incident on a transparent sphere of refractive index . If the
n
beam finally gets focused at a point situated at a distance = 2 (radius of sphere) from the centre
of the sphere, then find n.
27. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is in excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a
maximum energy photon of 204 eV. If it makes a transition to the quantum state n, a photon of
energy 40.8 eV is emitted. Calculate the atomic number Z. Ground state energy of hydrogen
atom is 13.6 eV.
28. Image of an object approaching convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 m along its optical axis is
25 50
observed to move from m to m in 30 sec. If the object is moving uniformly, then it’s speed
3 7
is n km/h. Find the value of n.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
29. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of third harmonic of
the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe.
Find the fundamental frequency of the open pipe in Hz.
30. In a double slit arrangement fringes are produced using light of wavelength 4800 Å. One slit is
covered by a thin plate of glass of refractive index 1.4 and the other with another glass plate of
same thickness but of refractive index 1.7. By doing so the central bright shifts to original fifth
bright fringe from centre. Thickness of glass plate is k m. Find the value of k.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The products obtained when I2 reacts with hot and concentrated aqueous NaOH are
(A) IO and IO3
(B) IO2 and IO3
(C) I and IO
(D) I and IO3
32. Which of the following product is not produced during the hydrolysis of XeF4 ?
(A) XeO3
(B) O 2
(C) XeO2 F2
(D) Xe
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33. Four successive members of first row transition element are listed below. Which one of them
o
unexpectedly have highest EM 3
/M2
value?
(A) Mn (Z = 25)
(B) Fe (Z = 26)
(C) V (Z = 23)
(D) Cr (Z = 24)
34. In context of actinoids, which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The actinoids are radioactive elements which make their study more difficult.
(B) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the
series.
(C) The magnetic properties of actinoids can not be explained easily, as they are more complex.
(D) As compare to lanthanoid compounds, actinoid compounds are less basic.
35. Which of the following has a square planar geometry?
2
(A) FeI4
2
(B) PdCl4
2
(C) NiCl4
2
(D) CoI4
36. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) NO2 is a reddish-orange gas and it does not play any role in photochemical smog.
(B) SO2 does not affect the formation of chlorophyll in plants.
(C) CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin which is more stable than
oxyhaemoglobin.
(D) SO2 is more harmful than SO3.
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37. The reaction that is involved in the ozone layer depletion mechanism in the stratosphere is
1 h
(A) NO O2 NO2
2
(B) CH4 O2 CH2 O H2 O
(C) Cl CH4 CH3 HCl
(D) ClO O Cl O2
38. Which of the following chromates is not yellow in colour?
(A) PbCrO4
(B) SrCrO4
(C) Ag2 CrO 4
(D) BaCrO4
39. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol and bithionol.
(B) 2-3% solution of chloroform in alcohol-water is known as tincture of iodine.
(C) Boric acid in concentrated aqueous solution is weak antiseptic for eyes.
(D) 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution of phenol is disinfectant.
40. Which of the following antibiotic is baceteriostatic?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) Penicillin
(B) Tetracyclin
(C) Aminoglycosides
(D) Ofloxacin
41. Multimolecular colloid is present in
(A) Sol of starch
(B) Soap solution
(C) Sol of sulphur
(D) Sol of protein
42. 100 ml of 0.6 M acetic acid is shaken with 4 g activated carbon. The final concentration of the
solution after adsorption is 0.4 M. The amount of acetic acid (in g) adsorbed per gram of carbon
is……..?
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.3
(C) 1.2
(D) 0.9
43. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Average translational kinetic energy of a molecule in a gas at given temperature does not
depend on its molecular mass.
(B) Root mean square speed of a molecule in a gas at a give temperature is halved when its
molar mass is increased four times.
(C) Average translational kinetic energy of a molecule in a gas at a given temperature is doubled
when its molar mass is increased twice.
(D) Root mean square speed of a molecule in a gas is doubled when its temperature is increased
four times.
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44. When 100 ml of 1.0 M HCl was mixed with 100 ml of 1.0 M NaOH in an insulated beaker at
o
constant pressure, a temperature increase of 5.8 C was measured for the beaker and its
constants. If the enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base is 58.0 kJ mol1,
the calorimeter constant in kJ k 1 is………….
(Given: Heat capacity of solution is 4.2 J g1 k 1 and density of solution is 1 g mL1 )
(A) 0.84
(B) 1
(C) 0.42
(D) 0.16
45. Which of the following ores has carbonate anion?
(A) Diaspore
(B) Calamine
(C) Willemite
(D) Argentite
46. Extraction of aluminium from bauxite does not involve which of the following steps:
(A) Crushing followed by concentration of the ore is done by Leaching process.
(B) Extraction of aluminium from concentrated ore is done by Hall Heroult process.
(C) Extraction of aluminium from concentrated ore is done by carbon.
(D) In reduction process CaF2 is mixed with concentrated ore to reduce the melting point of the
mixture and brings conductivity.
47.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The cubic unit cell structure of compound containing cation A and anion B is shown below. The
size of cation is smaller than anion and anion-anions are in contact. The packing efficiency of
compound approximately is
A
B
(A) 73
(B) 55
(C) 85
(D) 25
48. The increase in the molar conductivity of HCl with dilution is due to
(A) Increase in the self ionization of water.
(B) Hydrolysis of HCl with dilution.
(C) Decrease in the self ionization of water.
(D) Decrease in the interionic forces by dilution.
49. The moles of K 2 Cr2 O7 are required to react completely with 2.4 mol of CuS in hot acidic medium
(A) 1.8
(B) 3.2
(C) 1.6
(D) 6.4
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50. The value of n in the molecular formula Ben Al2 Si6 O18 is
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. The reaction of white phosphorous and excess of dry chlorine gas gives a compound Q. The
number of moles of HCl produced by the complete hydrolysis of 1 mole of Q is_________
52. An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.2 mole of an ionic salt in 1.86 kg of water at
o
27 C. The salt is only 80% dissociated in the solution. The freezing point of the solution is
0.52o C . The number of ions present per formula unit of ionic salt is_________(Given molal
depression constant of water (Kf) is 1.86 K kg mol1 and freezing point of water is 0oC).
53. The electrode potential of the following cell is – x at 300 K.
Pt s | H2 g 4 atm / CH3 COOH aq 10 1 M || NaOH aq 10 3 M / H2 g1 atm / Pt s .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The value 1000x is_______
2.303 RT
[Given: at 300 K = 0.06, log2 = 0.3, Ka for acetic acid is 10-5]
F
54. A crystalline solid of a pure substance X has body centred cubic structure with a cell edge of 800
pm. The number of atoms present in 512 g of crystal X is N 1022 if the density of the substance
in the crystal is 8 g cm3 . The value of N is______
55. Reaction of aqueous solution of KI with ozone produced a paramagnetic product Y. The spin only
magnetic moment (in B.M.) of Y in nearest integer is_________
56. 60 ml of x M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of Br ions present in 15 ml of 0.02 M
solution of Co NH3 5 Br Br2 as silver bromide. The value 100x is________
o
57. The enthalpy change H for the following reaction at temperature 25 C is 2573 kJ mol1.
2C2H2 g 5O2 g 4CO2 g 2H2 O g
The average bond enthalpy of C – H bond is x kJ mol1 , if the average bond enthalpy of
C C, O O, C O and O – H bonds are 814, 499, 724 and 640 kJ mol1 respectively at
temperature 25oC. The x is….
58. On heating acidified NaCl with orange solid gives orange-red vapours. On passing these orange
red vapours through NaOH solution turns it into yellow solution. This yellow solution gives yellow
precipitate when the solution of acetic acid and lead acetate is added to this solution. The
oxidation state of the element which has highest oxidation state in yellow precipitate is_______
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59. In the chemical reaction between stoichiometric quantities of KMnO 4 and MnSO 4 in weakly
alkaline solution, the number of moles of MnO2 formed is Y. If 4.2 moles of KMnO 4 are
consumed. The value of 2Y is…….
60. Ammonia is formed by reaction of ammonium chloride and calcium hydroxide. What is the volume
of ammonia gas in litres (L) produced at 600 K and 0.82 atm pressure when 10.7 g of ammonium
chloride and 10 ml of 5.0 M calcium hydroxide are mixed together for the reaction? (Given atomic
mass in g mol1 H, N, Cl are respectively 1, 14 and 35.5 respectively, R = 0.082 atm L
mol1 K 1 )
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. A function f is defined on the complex number by f(z) = (a + ib)z, where a and b are positive
number. This function has the property that the image of each point in the complex plane is
2
equidistant from that point and the origin. If |a + ib| = 8, then b is
255 245
(A) (B)
4 4
235 225
(C) (D)
4 4
62. The smallest prime that is the fifth term of an increasing arithmetic sequence all four preceding
terms also a prime is
(A) 31 (B) 29
(C) 37 (D) not possible
63. The largest two digit prime factor of 200C100 is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 61 (B) 59
(C) 17 (D) 60
64. The sum of all positive integers n for which n2 19n + 99 is a perfect square is
(A) 36 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 38
65. Initially A, B and C had a total of 444 peanuts. C had the most peanuts and A had the least. The
numbers of peanuts that each person had formed a G.P. A eats 5 of his peanuts, B eats 9 of its
peanuts and C eats 25. Now the three numbers of peanuts each has forms an A.P. Find the
number of peanuts A had initially
(A) 108 (B) 106
(C) 300 (D) 144
66. There is a 40% chance of rain on Saturday and a 30% chance of rain on Sunday. However, it is
twice as likely to rain on Sunday if it rains on Saturday than if it does not rain on Saturday. The
probability that it rains at least one day this weekend is
3 3
(A) (B)
10 14
37 33
(C) (D)
70 70
50
1 1 2 3 5 7 9
67. For polynomial P(x) = 1 x x , define Q(x) = P(x).P(x ).P(x ).P(x ).P(x ) = ai x i , then
3 6 i0
50
ai =
i0
275 243
(A) (B)
37 32
243 245
(C) (D)
39 37
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68. Let x, y and z be real numbers satisfying the system
log2(xyz 3 + log5x) = 5
log3(xyz 3 + log5y) = 4
log4(xyz 3 + log5z) = 4
then the value of |log5x| + |log5y| +|log5z| is
(A) 376 (B) 378
(C) 380 (D) 382
ab 1 3 a3b3 1
69. Let a and b be positive integers satisfy , then the maximum possible value of 3
ab 2 a b3
is
31 65
(A) (B)
9 9
65 31
(C) (D)
16 5
70. In three dimensional space f(x, y, z) = xy + xz, then locus of all points which satisfy the equation
f(x, y, z) = 0 is
(A) pair of perpendicular lines
(B) pair of perpendicular planes
(C) pair of a line and a plane which are perpendicular to each other
(D) pair of line and plane which are parallel to each other
71.
(A)
5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Out of all possible 8 digit numbers formed using all the digits 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 4 a number is
randomly selected, probability that the selected number is odd is
(B)
5
7 9
5 5
(C) (D)
11 14
1 1 1
72. If , , are the roots of x3 3x + 1 = 0, then the equation whose roots are , ,
is
(A) x3 3x + 8 = 0 (B) x3 6x + 8 = 0
(C) x3 9x + 8 = 0 (D) x3 12x + 8 = 0
73. Three Arithmetic mean, three Geometric mean and three Harmonic mean are inserted between 1
and 5. The cubic equation whose roots are 3rd A.M, 2nd G.M, and 1st H.M is
1
(A) x 3 21 4 5 x 2 5x 5 5 0
4
1 21
4
(B) x 3 21 4 5 x 2 5
4
5 x 5 5 0
(C) 4x 3 21 4 5 x 15 21 5 x 20 5 0
2
(D) 4x 3 21 4 5 x 15 21 5 x 5 5 0
2
x 1 y 2 z 3 x2 y3 z4
74. If lines and lies in the same plane then for equation
2 x1 x2 3 4 5
2
x1t + (x2 + 2)t + a = 0
(A) 2x1 – x2 = 1 (B) sum of roots of above equation = – 2
(C) 2x1 + x2 = – 4 (D) sum of root is 0
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
75. Let a and b are two perpendicular unit vectors. If c is another unit vector equally inclined at
angle to the vectors a and b , then the set of exhaustive values of is
(A) 0, (B) 0, 4
2
3 3
(C) , (D) 4 , 4
2 4
76. If x + y + z = 1 and 0 x, y, z 1, then the maximum value of expression 27(xy + yz + zx – 2xyz)
is equal to
(A) 7 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 9
6 11 2005
77. Matrix A is given by A = , then the determinant of A 6A2004 is
2 4
2006 2005
(A) 2 (B) ( 11) 2
2005 2004
(C) 2 7 (D) ( 9) 2
a2 b2 c2 c2
78. Let a, b, c be distinct cube roots of unity and = a2 b2 c 2 a2 , then
2 2 2 2
b b c a
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) Re() = 0
(C) Re() + Im() = 0
(B) Im() = 0
(D) Re()Im() = 4
79. An urn contains 4 green balls and 6 blue balls. A second urn contains 16 green balls and N blue
balls. A single ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that both balls are of the
same colour is 0.58, then (N 140) is
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7
80. A and B are two square matrix (all the entries of A and B are real such that A2B = BA and if
(AB)10 = Ak.B10 is true for all square matrices of same order for the value of k, then value of
k 1020 is
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
4 3 2
81. Let f(x) = x + ax + bx + cx + d be a polynomial whose roots are all negative integer,
if a + b + c + d = 2009, then d is
(x 4)2 y 2
82. If x and y are real numbers such that 1 , then the largest possible value of
4 9
x2 y 2
is
4 9
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83. Let p(x) be the polynomial of degree 4 with roots 1, 2, 3, 4 and leading coefficient 1. Let q(x) be
1 1 1 p(x)
the polynomial of degree 4 with roots 1, , and and leading coefficient 1, then lim is
2 3 4 x 1 q(x)
equal to k, then |k| is
84. Kiran is deciding whether to visit Russia or Ukrain for the holidays. She makes her decision by
rolling a regular 6-sided die. If she gets 1 or 2 she goes to Ukrain, if she rolls a 3, 4 or 5 she goes
to Russia. If she rolls a 6 she rolls again, the probability that she goes to Ukrain is p, then 5p is
3
85. There are real numbers a, b, c and d such that 20 is a root of x + ax + b = 0 and 21 is a root of
x3 + cx2 + d = 0. These two polynomials share a complex root m i n , where m, n are positive
n
integers and i 1 , then is
4m
a 2 3 2 5 d
86. If A = 3 1 2 , B = 8 2 7 and B = adj A and |B| =
2 1 b c 3 5
x 1 y 1 z
87. If the plane containing x-axis and the point (1, 1, 1) is parallel to the line , then
2k k 3
the value of |k| is
88.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The number of ways of arranging the letters of the word ALGEBRA in which either vowels or
consonants, but not both appear in alphabelical order is
89. If three successive terms of a G.P. with common ratio r(r > 1) form the sides of a ABC and [r]
denotes G.I.F., then [r] + [r] + 5 is
90. Let a three term strictly increasing arithmetic sequence of integers are one such that the sum of
the squares of the three terms equals the product of the middle term and the square of the
common difference, then the sum of third term of such sequence is p, then (p – 25) is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 17-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. C
hC
Sol. eV1
1
hC
eV2
2
1 1
e(V2 V1 ) hc
2 1
hc 1 2
(V2 V1 )
e 12
6.6 1034 3 108 100
19
2.0625 volt
1.6 10 6 105
2. D
IP P
Sol. Use T 2
mgd O d
2 r
2r 2r/ C
Where d r 2 …(i)
2
2r
I0 mr 2 IC m …(ii)
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Yash Patil 2
and IP IC md2
2
2r
IP IC m r 2 …(iii)
From (ii) and (iii)
IP 2mr 2
2mr 2
T = 2 1/2
4
mgr 1 2
2r
T = 2 1/ 2
4
g 1 2
3. B
Sol. R3 = Nr3
R3
N 3
r
Energy released = T 4 Nr 2 R2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
R3 Rr
4T 3 r 2 R2 4TR2
r r
1 Rr
So, mv 2 4TR 2
2 r
1 4 Rr
R 3 v 2 4TR 2
2 3 r
6T(R r)
v
Rr
4. A
0.25
Sol. Least count = cm 5 104 cm
5 100
Reading = 4 0.05 cm + 30 5 104 cm
= 2.15 mm
5. D
A m
sin
Sol. Since, 2
A
sin
2
A m
sin
A
cot 2
2 A
sin
2
A A m
cos sin
2
2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
A A m
sin sin
2 2 2
m = 2A
6. A
mv 2 3q2 3q2
Sol. mvr …(i)
r 40r 2 4 0 v
nh
and mvr …(ii)
2
using (i) and (ii) and putting n = 1
h 3q2 3q2
v
2 40 v 20h
7. D
Sol. The bar is at equilibrium. The net force from right or left of a section of BC is 70 KN.
F (70 103 ) 1
AY 1 2 1011
= 3.5 107 m
8. C
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
T = 20 sec
at t = 2, v = 5 cm/s
v = A cos t
2
v A (2f )cos t
T
2 2
5 A cos t
20 20
A
cos 36 5
10
9. A
P 100 10 3
Sol. The current through circuit i 0.2 A
V 0.5
Voltage drop across resistance = 1.5 0.5 = 1 V
1
R 5
0.2
10. C
Sol. As t is increasing is decreasing, so refraction is taking place from denser to rarer medium as
light is proceeding in the medium. Using continuous varying refractive index, let the ray reflect
back after travelling t = t0 along the normal, then at this location, angle of refraction is .
2
So, 1 sin 0 kt 02 sin
2
0 sin
t0 =
k
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11. B
Sol. Compare the given equation with standard equation
E y E0 cos(t kx)
6
= 2 10
2 = 2 106
6
= 10 Hz
k = 102
2
or 10 2
or = 200 m
12. B
Sol. For first diffraction minimum
a sin =
a
sin
For first secondary maximum, we use
3
a sin
2
3 1 3 sin
sin
2 a 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 3
sin30
2 4
3
= sin1
4
13. D
Sol. u = velocity of water through the hole= 2gh
R = rate of mass flow = Au [A = area of the hole]
F = reaction force on the wall
= R(u 0) = Au2
For cylinder to just move
d2 2
w Au2
4
2gh
2w
d=
hg
14. B
Sol. General equation of travelling wave is
y = f(ax bt) = f(x vt)
2
bt 2 2 abxt)
y e (ax
ax bt) 2
= e(
b
So, the wave will be travelling along x axis with speed
a
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
15. B
Sol. By conservation of angular momentum of the body about O
(mv sin30)R mv (R h) 30
vR v A
(R h)
2 4
h=R
B
O
R h
v
16. A
Sol. T m2 gsin30 …(i)
T
Av T
T m1gsin30 …(ii)
A
From (i) and (ii) B
(m m1 )g sin30 m1g sin 30
2 3.46 10 3 Pa sec 30 30 m2g sin 30
vA f
17. A
Sol. As all the points on the periphery of either ring are at the same distance from point P, the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
potential at point P due to the whole ring can be calculated as V
GM
R2 x 2
, where x is the
axial distance from the centre of the ring. This expression is independent of the fact whether the
distribution of mass is uniform or non-uniform
GM G2M GM 1 2
So, at P, V
R 2 R 5 R 2 5
18. A
v
Sol.
c
v
1
c
v=c
19. D
Sol. Acceleration when block B is in the liquid
m g (mB g upthrust)
a1 A
m A 3m
3m
m A g 3mg g
2
(m A 3m)
Acceleration when block B is outside of the liquid.
3mg m A g
a2
m A 3m
Given a1 = a2
3
m A g mg 3mg mA g
2
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
9
mA m
4
20. A
Sol. Output of the gates are marked as y, y1 and y2. y1
A
Y
y
B
y2
A NAND gate gives low output when both the A B y y1 y2 Y
inputs are high, otherwise it gives a high output. 0 0 1 1 1 0
Now the truth table. 0 1 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1 1 0
SECTION – B
21. 680
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v
Sol. f f
v v s cos
340
f 640
340 100 cos
3
340
f 640
340 100 3
3 5
f = 680 Hz
22. 42
I
Sol. F (Area)
C
Effective area = R2
I
F ( R 2 )
C
22 1 1
F (21 10 2 )2
7 110 3 108
F 42 10 13 N
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
23. 54
1 1 1 f0 = 40 cm
Sol.
v 200 40 fe = 4 cm
v = 50 cm
d = 50 + 4 = 54 cm
200 cm 50 cm 4 cm
24. 25
Sol. Here T1/2 270 days
After 540 days, it means two half lives have been completed n = 2
n
N 1
N0 2
n
m 1
m0 2
m 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
100 4
m = 25 mg
25. 8
Sol. If I is the intensity of the incident unpolarised light, the intensity transmitted by the first is I/2. This
is the intensity of incident light on the second polaroid. Intensity transmitted by the second
I
polaroid is cos2 , where is the angle between the axes.
2
Here sin = 3/5 therefore cos = 4/5
2
I I 4 8
cos2 I
2 25 25
8
is the required ratio.
25
26. 3
Sol. from first refaction
2 1 2 1
C
v u R A B I I
n 1 n 1
v R
2R
n n 1
v R
nR
AI v
n 1
nd
for 2 refraction
u BI AI 2R
nR
= 2R
n 1
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
(2 n)R
=
(n 1)
and v = R
For second surface
2 1 2 1
v u R
1 n 1 n
v u R
1 n(n 1) n 1
R (2 n)R R
(2 n) n(n 1) = (n 1) (n 2)
n = 4/3
27. 4
Sol. Let ground state energy (in eV) be E,
Then from given condition,
E2n E1 = 204 eV
E1
E1 204 eV
4n2
1
E1 2 1 204 eV …(i)
4n
TG ~ @bohring_bot
and E2n En = 40.8 eV
E1 E1
40.8 eV
4n2 n2
3
E1 2 40.8 eV …(ii)
4n
From (i) and (ii)
1
1 2
4n 5
3
4n2
n=2
Now from equation (ii)
4
E1 n2 (40.8)
3
Or E1 = 217.6 eV
2
and E1 = 13.6 Z
Therefore
E1 217.6
Z2 16
13.6 13.6
Z=4
28. 3
1 1 1
Sol.
v u f
3 1 1
25 u 10
u = 50 m
and for final position of the object
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
7 1 1
50 u 10
u = 25 m
Therefore, the shift in object = 50 25 = 25 m
25
Speed = m/s = 3 km/hr
30
29. 200
v
Sol. Fundamental frequency of open pipe f0
2
v
Third harmonic of the closed pipe f C = 3
4
v v
Given 3 100
4 2
v
Or 200 Hz
2
30. 8
Sol. Shift x = ( 1)t
P
TG ~ @bohring_bot
S1
Shift due to one plate = x1 = (1 1)
Shift due to another plate = x 2 ( 2 1)t d
Net shift x = (x2 x1)
S2
x ( 2 1 )t …(i)
D
and also x = 5 …(ii) screen
Hence 5 ( 2 1 )t
5
t 8 10 6 m
(2 1 )
t = 8 m
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. D
Sol. I2 NaOH NaI NaIO3
hot and conc.
32. C
Sol. 6XeF4 12H2 O 4Xe 2XeO3 24HF 3O2
33. A
Sol. Because half filled electronic configuration is achieved in Mn2 .
34. D
Sol. Actinoid compounds are more basic than lanthanoid compounds.
35. B
2
Sol. PdCl4 has square planar geometry.
36. C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. SO3 is more harmful than SO2. SO2 affects the formation of chlorophyll.
37. D
Sol. ClO O Cl O2 reaction is involved in ozone layer depletion.
38. C
Sol. Ag2 CrO 4 is red in colour.
39. D
Sol. Dilute boric acid solution is weak antiseptic for eyes.
40. B
Sol. Bactericidal – Penicillin, Aminoglycosides and ofloxacin.
Bacteriostatic – Tetracyclin.
41. C
Sol. Multimolecular : Sol of sulphur
Macromolecular : Sol of protein, Sol of starch.
42. B
Sol. Moles of acetic acid adsorbed 0.6 100 0.4 100 10 3
20 103
Mass of acetic acid adsorbed (W) = 20 103 60 g
1.2
Mass of acetic acid adsorbed per gram activated charcoal
4
= 0.3 g.
43. C
3
Sol. KE RT KE T
2
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
3RT
urms urms T
M
1
urms
M
44. D
200 4.2 5.8
Sol. 5.8 C 5.8
1000
1 = C + 0.84
C = 0.16 kJ/K
45. B
Sol. Calamine : ZnCO3 Argentite : Ag2S
Willemite : Zn2SiO4 Diaspore : Al2O3.H2O
46. C
Sol. Extraction of aluminium from concentrated solution is not done by coke.
47. D
4 3 4 3
r r
Sol. PE 3 3 100
2r 3
4
38
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r 3
r
100 1
3
100 0.732 1
6
100 1.4
6
= 72.8
73
48. D
Sol. Due to decrease in the interionic forces.
49. B
Sol. n nf K 2Cr2O7
n nf CuS
n 6 2.4 8
2.4 8
n = 3.2
6
50. D
Sol. n 2 2 3 4 6 18 2 0
n3
SECTION – B
51. 5
Sol. P4 10Cl2 4PCl5
PCl5 4H2 O excess H3 PO4 5HCl
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
52. 3
Sol. Tf iK f ,m
0.2
0.52 i 1.86
1.86
i 2.6
i 1
n 1
i 1 2.6 1 1.6
n 1 2
0.8 0.8
n 1 2
n3
53. 462
Sol. H2 4 atm 2H C1 2e
2H C2 2e H2 1 atm
H2 4 atm 2H C2 2H C1 H2
For acetic acid
Ka 105
102
C 101
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H C1 C 101 102 103
From NaOH H C2 10 11
0.06 C2 4
E log 22
2 C1 1
10 22 4
0.03 log 6
10 1
0.03 log 4 1016
0.03 16 0.6
0.03 15.4
0.462
54. 25
ZM
Sol. d
a3 N
Z M 2 512 2 512 1024
N 3
3
3
d a 8 8
8 8 108
0.25 1024 25 1022
55. 3
Sol. 2KI H2 O O3 2KOH I2 O2
'Y "
Number of unpaired electrons in O2 = 2
n n 2 B.M.
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
2 2 2 B.M.
8 B.M.
= 2.83
3
56. 1
Sol. 60 x 15 0.02 2
x 0.01 M
57. 414
Sol. 2573 2 814 4 HC H 5 499 8 724 4 640
2573 1628 4 HCH 2495 5792 2560
HC H 414
58. 6
Sol. NaCl K 2 Cr2 O7 H2 SO4 CrO2 Cl2 K 2 SO4 H2 O
Orange red vapours
CrO2 Cl2 NaOH Na2 CrO 4 NaCl
Yellow solution
Na2 CrO 4 Pb CH3 COOH2 PbCrO4 CH3 COONa
59. 21
TG ~ @bohring_bot Yellow ppt.
Sol. MnO 4 Mn2 MnO2 H2 O
6
nf MnO 2
5
, nf MnO4 3
nf n MnO
2
nf n KMnO
4
6
n 3 4.2
5
n 2.1 5
n 10.5
2Y 2 10.5 21.
60. 6
Sol. 2NH4 Cl Ca OH2 2NH3 CaCl2 H2 O
10.7
nNH4 Cl 0.2
53.5
M V 5 10
nCaOH 0.05
2 1000 1000
Limiting reagent is Ca OH2
nNH3 0.05 2 = 0.1
PV = nRT
0.82 V 0.1 0.082 600
V=6L
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. A
Sol. z = 1, f(1) = a + ib
1
a + ib must fall on the line Re(z) = a = (By equidistant rule)
2
255
|a + ib| = 8 b2 =
4
62. B
Sol. Conceptual
63. A
200
Sol. If p is a prime such that 100 > p > , then p and 2p but not 3p belong to [1, 2, …, 200].
3
While just p belongs to (1, 2, …, 100), so p does not divide 200C100 but consider 61 the largest
200
prime <
3
613 divides 200! but only 61 divides 100!
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Hence 61 divides 200C100.
64. D
Sol. If n2 19n + 99 = x2
n2 19n + 99 x2 = 0
19 4x 2 35
n=
2
4x2 35 = q2
(2x + 9) (2x 9) = 35 = 7 5
x = 3 or 9
n = 1, 9, 10 or 18
65. A
Sol. We have
2
ar 9 (a 5) = a(r 1) 4 = ar 25 (ar 9)
ar(r 1) 16
We now have ar2 + (2ar) + a = 12
3ar = 432, ar = 144
4
r= = 108.
3
66. C
Sol. Let x be the probability that it rains on Sunday given that it does not rain on Saturday.
3 2 3 3
We then have x 2x x=
5 x 10 14
3 3 33
So probability that it does not rain on either day = 1
14 5 70
33 37
So the probability that rains on at least one of the day is 1 =
70 70
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
67. B
Sol. All the coefficient of odd powered terms is an odd number of odd degree terms multiplied together
and all coefficient of even powered terms has an even number of odd degree terms multiplied
together. Since every odd degree term is negative and every even degree is positive so we sum
243
is just Q(1) = P(1)5 = .
32
68. B
Sol. xyz 3 + log5x = 32 …(i)
xyz 3 + log5y = 81 …(ii)
xyz 3 + log5z = 256 …(iii)
Add (i), (ii) and (iii) we have
xyz = 125
log5x = 90
log4y = 41
log4z = 134
69. D
ab 1 3
Sol.
ab 2
2ab + 2 < 3a + 3b
(2a 3) (2b 3) < 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So (2a 3) and (2b 3) each cannot be even or else a and b will not be integer
(2a 3) (2b 3) = (1, 1), (1, 3), (3, 1)
(a, b) = (2, 2), (2, 3), (3, 2)
a3b3 1 65 31 31
or . So Ans is .
ab 16 5 5
70. B
Sol. x(y + z) = 0
x = 0, y + z = 0 pair of perpendicular plane.
71. D
6!
Sol. Total number = 7 C2
2!2!
5!
Unit digit 3, 6 C2
2!2!
5!
Unit digit 1, 6 C2
2!
5
Probability =
14
72. D
1 1
Sol. 1 = 2
So, equation whose roots are 2, 2, 2 are
3
x x
3 1 0
2 2
3
x 12x + 8 = 0
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
73. B
Sol. A3 = 4
G2 = 5
5
H1 =
4
So equation is (x A3) (x G2) (x H1) = 0
74. B
1 1 1
Sol. Lines are coplanar if 2 x1 x 2 0
3 4 5
2x1 – x2 = 2
x 2 2 2x1
Also sum of roots = 2 .
x1 x1
75. D
Sol. Let c a b a b , then
a c = = cos.
Similarly = cos.
2 2
also, c 2 2 2 a b
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2 2
1 = 22 + 2 a b a b = 22 + 2
2 = 1 – 22 = 1 – 2 cos2 = – cos2.
3
[ = ]
Now 2 0 cos2 0 .
4 4
76. A
Sol. (1 – 2x)(1 – 2y)(1 – 2z) = 1 – 2 x 4 xy – 8xyz
=4 xy – 8xyz – 1
1 1 2x 1 2y 1 2z
xy – 2xyz =
4
1 2x 1 2x 1 2y 1 2z . 1/ 3
3
1
(1 – 2x)(1 – 2y)(1 – 2z)
27
7
xy + yz + zx – 2xyz .
27
1
Equality holds for x = y = z =
3
7
maximum value = .
27
77. B
Sol. |A2005 6A2004| = |A|2004 |A 6I|
0 11 2004 2004 2005
= 22004 = ( 22) 2 = () 2 11 2 = ( 11)(2) .
2 2
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
78. B
0 2b2 2a2
Sol. = a2 b2 c 2 a2 (R1 R1 – R2 – R3 )
2 2 2 2
b b c a
0 b2 a2
= – 2 a2 b2 c 2 a2
b2 b2 c 2 a2
0 b2 a2
= – 2 a2 c2 0 (R1 R2 – R1 and R3 R3 – R1 )
2 2
b 0 c
2 2 2
= 4a b c = 4 [as a, b, c are cube roots of unity].
79. B
Sol. First find the probability both are green, then the probability both are blue and add the two
probability. The sum should be equal to 0.58.
4 16 6 N 29
10 16 N 10 16 N 50
N = 144
80.
Sol.
C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(AB)2 = AB.AB = A3B2
(AB)3 = (AB)2.AB = A3B2.AB = A7.B3
(AB)4 = (AB)3.AB = A7.B3.AB = A15.B4
(AB)10 = A1023.B10
SECTION – B
81. 528
Sol. Let roots are x1, x2, x3, x4
f(x) = (x + x1) (x + x2) (x + x3) (x + x4)
f(1) = (1 + x1) (1 + x2) (1 + x3) (1 + x4) = 1 + a + b + c + d = 2010
Since 2010 = 2.3.5.6.7
So d is the product of 4 roots = (1) (2) (4) (66) = 528
82. 9
Sol. Take
x = 4 + 2cos
y = 3sin
83. 24
1
Sol. Let f(x) = x4q it has same root as 1, 2, 3, 4 as p(x), but has same coefficient as q(x). Just in
x
1
reverse order, it leading coefficient is q(0) = , limit will be 24.
24
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
84. 2
3
Sol. On each roll, the probability that Kiran decides to go to Russia is times the probability she
2
3
decides to go to Ukrain, so the total probability that she goes to Russia is times the totoal
2
probability that she goes to Ukrain. Since the total probability is 1 (they are the only two eventual
2 3
outcomes) Kiran goes to Ukrain with probability and Russia with probability .
5 5
85. 8
Sol. Let z m ni
z m ni
3 3 2
i.e. x + ax + b has roots 20, z, z and x + cx + b has roots 21, z, z
20 + z + z = 0
m = 10
21z 21z + z z = 0
21 z z zz 0
n = 320
86. 121
Sol. A.B = |A|.I
87.
Sol.
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
|A| = 11 |B| = |A|2 = 121
The plane is y z = 0
a1b1 + a2b2 + a3b3 = 0 k = 3
88. 943
7
7 P3
Sol. P4 1 + + 1 2 = 943
2
89. 4
Sol. a, ar, ar2 in G.P. ar2 ar < 1 r2 r < 1 r2 r 1 < 0
5 1
r= , [r] = 1, [r] = 2
2
90. 6
Sol. Let x – d, x, x + d one the sequence
So, it is given that (x – d)2 + x2 + (x + d)2 = xd2 3x2 + 2d2 – xd2 = 0 3x2 – xd2 + 2d2 = 0
d2 d4 24d2 d2 d d2 24
x
6 6
So, d = 5 and d = 7 are the only (+ve) integers value of d in possible, so that d2 24 a positive
integer.
10
At d = 5, x = 5 and x , d = 7, x = 14 so, (5 + 5) + (7 + 14) = 31
3
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – III
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 25-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. A point object is placed at a distance of 0.4 meters from a convex lens
of focal length 0.2 m. The lens is cut into two equal parts each of which
is displaced vertically by 3 mm away from the optic axis as shown in 3mm
figure. Mark the correct statements. O 3mm
(A) Image is formed at a distance of 0.4 meter from the lens
(B) Number of images formed are 2
(C) Separation between images is 12 mm
(D) Separation between images is 6 mm
2. A thin metallic plate of uniform mass density is kept along y
x-axis symmetrically. The length of plate along x-axis is
very large as compared to its width ‘a’ along z-axis. It is
x
given that ‘’ is mass per unit area. Then choose the
correct option(s)
3 a 2G
(A) The gravitational field at 0, ,0 is .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 3 a
a
(B) The gravitational field at 0, ,0 is G. z
2
a 3a
(C) The ratio of gravitational field at 0, ,0 and 0, ,0 is 2.
2 3 2
a a 4
(D) The ratio of gravitational field at 0, ,0 and 0, ,0 is .
2 3 2 3
3. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) If Q value of an exothermic nuclear reaction is +15.76 MeV and the kinetic energy of
products of reaction is 18.24 MeV then kinetic energy of incident particles is 2.48 MeV.
(B) In a nuclear reaction, during -decay from a nucleus at rest, energy released is shared
between alpha particle and daughter nucleus is in the form of kinetic energy and its value
for -particle has more than that of daughter nucleus.
(C) In a decay process of a radioactive element, the activity of the sample at any instant is
directly proportional to the number of undecayed nuclei present in the sample at that
time.
(D) Photo electric effect supports quantum nature of light because there is a minimum
frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
4. In a resonance tube experiment, a closed organ pipe of length 125 cm resonates when tuned with
a tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz. If water is poured in the pipe then (Given v air = 340 m/s)
(A) Minimum length of water column to have the resonance is 50 cm
(B) The distance between two successive nodes is 50 cm
(C) Maximum length of water column to create the resonance in 100 cm
(D) Maximum length of water column to create the resonance in 105 cm
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5. A luminous point object is placed at O, whose image is O
formed at I as shown in figure. Line AB is the optical axis.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
B
I
(A) If a lens is used to obtain the image, then it must be a converging lens and its optical center
will be the intersection point of line AB and OI.
(B) If a lens is used to obtain the image, then it must be a diverging lens and its optical center will
be the intersection point of line AB and OI.
(C) If a mirror is used to obtain the image then the mirror must be concave and object and image
subtend equal angles at the pole of the mirror.
(D) I is a real Image.
6. Point A (0, 0.1 cm) and B (12 cm, 0.5 cm) are object image pair (one of the point acts as object
and the other point as image) x-axis is the principal axis of the mirror. Then this object image pair
is:
(A) Due to a convex mirror of focal length 2.5 cm
(B) Due to a concave mirror having its pole at (2cm, 0)
(C) Real virtual pair
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) Data is insufficient for (A) and (B)
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. List –I describes physical quantities and List-II gives their dimensions.
List –I List -II
(I) Magnetic flux MLT–3A–1
(P)
(II) Electrical conductivity M–1L–3T3A2
(Q)
(III) Electric field
–1 –2 4
M L TA
2
(R)
(IV) Capacitance ML2T–2A–1
(S)
(T) M2L2T–2A–1
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I R, II T, III P, IV P
(B) I S, II T, III P, IV P
(C) I R, II Q, III Q, IV P
(D) I S, II Q, III P, IV R
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8. List –I shows the object and optical device, List-II shows nature of the image formed for paraxial
approximation. Match the List-I with nature of image in List-II.
List –I List -II
(I) (P) Erect image
Object
30 cm
f = 20 cm
(II) (Q) Inverted image
Object
30 cm
f = 40 cm
(III) R = 10 cm (R) Magnified image
air( = 1) Object
= 1.5
20 cm
(IV) (S) Diminished image
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Object
40 cm
f = 40 cm
(T) Real image
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I Q,R,T II P,S III P,R IV Q,R,T
(B) I P,S II Q,R,T III P,S IV P,R
(C) I P,S II P,R III Q,R,T IV P,S
(D) I Q,R,T II P,R III P,R IV P,S
9. A plane mirror is tied to the free end of an ideal spring. The other end Mirror
of the spring is attached to a wall. The spring with mirror is held V
vertically to the floor, can slide along it smoothly. When the spring is
Wall
at its natural length, the mirror is found to be moving at a speed of V 2V
with respect to ground frame. An object is moving towards the mirror
with speed 2V with respect to ground frame. Then, Match the
following :
List –I List –II
(I) Speed of image with respect to ground frame when (P) V
spring is at natural length
(II) Speed of image with respect to mirror when spring is (Q) O
at natural length
(III) Speed of image with respect to object when spring is (R) 2V
at natural length
(IV) Speed of image with respect to ground frame when (S) 3V
spring is at maximum compressed state
(T) 4V
Which one of the following options is correct ?
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(A) I Q, II R, III P, IV S
(B) I T, II R, III S, IV P
(C) I Q, II P, III R, IV R
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV P
10. Consider the position of different nuclei on the
binding energy per nucleon graph as shown : C
8.7
BE/Nucleon(MeV)
8.4 D
8.1 B
8.0 E
7.0 A
20 30 60 120 180
A(No. of nucleon)
List –I (Reactions) List –II [Q-values(MeV)]
(I) 2B C (P) Zero
(II) 2B + C D (Q) 102
(III) EC+D (R) Non-zero
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(IV) 3A C (S) 36
(T) 90
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I P,S II P III R,T IV Q,R
(B) I R,S II P III P,T IV Q,R
(C) I S,T II P,R III R,T IV Q,R
(D) I R,S II P III R,T IV Q,R
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. A cylindrical tank of cross-sectional area A filled with water upto certain
height is placed on a rough horizontal surface having coefficient of
friction 0.5 . Water comes out of the tank through a small tube of
cross-sectional area ‘a’ inclined at an angle 37 with the wall of the
tank as shown in the figure. Assuming Bernoulli’s theorem to be
applicable here, find the minimum ratio of a/A so, that the frictional
force between tank and horizontal surface is limiting. Neglect the mass 37
of the tank.
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12. A bulb Q is filled with air. A tube is connected to air
the bulb filled with mercury and water. A column of
B D
air is trapped between mercury and water as
shown in the figure. The heights of mercury and
h2 = 20cm
water are shown in the figure. Find the pressure h1=
inside the bulb Q(in mega N/m 2) assuming one Q 10cm
end of tube opens to open atmosphere. Assume A
density of air to be small. (Take g = 10 m/s2 and C
5 2
atmospheric pressure 10 N/m )
Water
Mercury
13. Water stands upto depth D, behind the vertical face of dam of width
W. Given that it exerts a resultant horizontal force = 3000 kN and W
torque about O tending to overturn is 10000 kN-m. Find the width
3 2
(in m). (Taking density of water = 1000 kg/m , g = 10 m/s )
D
14. A solid cylindrical piece of wood of length L = 0.5 m, cross-sectional area A = 1 10-2 m2 and
density = 600 kg/m3 is floating with its axis vertical in a liquid of density 0 = 1200 kg/m3. The
wood is pressed down slowly into the liquid from its equilibrium position. Find the work done (in J)
by the force pressing it until it is just immersed completely.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
15. The resistance of a metal is given by R = V/I, where V is potential difference and I is the current.
In a circuit the potential difference across resistance is V = (120.4)V and current in resistance
I = (20.2)A. What is the maximum percentage error in measurement of resistance?
16. In a screw gauge, the graduation in the circular scale consists of 100 equal divisions and
10 complete rotation of the cap is equivalent to 5 mm on the main scale. While measuring
diameter of a wire with screw gauge, a particular observation gives initial circular cap reading as
57 and after completing 3 complete rotation the final circular cap reading as 63. It is observed that
while proceeding from initial reading to final reading the cap reading increases. Calculate the
diameter of the wire (in mm) from the above data.
17. In the measurement of the focal length of a convex lens using the u-v method the following values
were obtained:
u 35 cm 40 cm 50 cm 60 cm
v 46.2 cm 40.5 cm 33 cm 30.5 cm
Find the value of focal length by taking the average of the measurements. If the errors in u and v
are 0.4 cm respectively, estimate the error in the measurement of focal length in a typical
measurement (in cm).
18. An artificial satellite of mass m orbiting the earth in a
circular orbit of radius twice the earth’s radius R. It is to be 4RE
taken in another circular orbit of radius 4R. The transfer is
accomplished through an elliptical orbit as shown in the 2RE
figure. The energy needed to complete the job is calculated
to be equal to
1 GMm E
, where M is the mass of the earth.
k R
Find the value of k.
Transfer
Orbit
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Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. 500 ml aqueous solution is made by dissolving a certain amount of Na2 CO3 and NaOH mixture.
100 ml of this solution require 40 ml, 0.1 M HCl solution for the colour change when
phenolphthalein is used as indicator, while 60 ml 0.1 N HCl require for the colour change when
methyl orange is used as indicator in a separate titration. The correct option(s) is/are
(A) Weight % of NaOH in the mixture is 27.4.
(B) Weight of NaOH in the mixture is 0.08 gm.
(C) Weight of Na2 CO3 in the mixture is 1.06 gm.
(D) Total weight of mixture is 0.292 gm.
20. The possible product(s) obtained by the hydrolysis (partial or complete) of XeF6 is/are
(A) XeO3
(B) XeOF4
(C) XeO3 F2
(D) XeO2 F2
21.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The INCORRECT statement(s) among the following is/are
(A) Multilayer adsorption of any gas on a solid surface is physisorption.
(B) The plot of log(x/m) vs. log(P) in the Freundlich adsorption isotherm is straight line with
negative slope.
(C) High pressure and high temperature is favourable condition for physisorption.
(D) The magnitude for heat of adsorption of chemisorption is lower than physisorption.
22. Which of the following is correct?
(A) van Arkel method is used for the purification of Ti.
(B) Poling is used for purification of Cu.
(C) Mond’s process is used for the purification of Au.
(D) Cupellation is used for the purification of Ag.
23. A gaseous mixture of 1 : 2 molar ratio of CH4 and He diffuses two times slower than a gas ‘X’
under identical condition. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the gas ‘X”?
(A) The gas “X’ is O2.
(B) The gas ‘X’ diffuse 2 times faster than He gas under identical condition.
(C) The gas ‘X’ is lightest known molecule.
(D) The gas ‘X’ diffuses 4 times slower than H2 gas under identical condition.
24. A compound has two isomeric liquid ‘A’ and ‘B’ with pure vapour pressure PAo 100 torr and
PBo 80 torr at 298 K. The binary solution of liquid A and B is in equilibrium with its vapour. The
molar ratio of A and B in its liquid form is found to be 1 : 2 at room temperature. Which of the
following options are correct?
(A) Mass ratio of A and B in vapour phase is 5 : 8.
(B) Mole ratio of A and B in vapour phase is 1 : 2.
(C) Mole ratio of A and B in vapour phase is 5 : 8.
260
(D) Total vapour pressure of the solution is torr .
3
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Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. List-I contains processes List-II contains metal or their compound used as catalyst
List – I List – II
(I) Ziglar-Natta catalyst (P) V2 O5
(II) Ostwald process (Q) TiCl4
(III) Contact process (R) Fe
(IV) Haber-Bosch process (S) Pt
(T) Al C2H5 3
(A) I→Q; II→P; III→T; IV→R
(B) I→T; II→Q; III→R; IV→S
(C) I→Q,T; II→R; III→P; IV→S
(D) I→Q,T; II→S; III→P; IV→R
26. Match the List-I with List-II
List – I List – II
(I) The process is mainly applicable for (P) Froth floatation
sulphide ore
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(II) The process is mainly applicable for (Q) Calcination
carbonates
(III) Physical method of separation (R) Roasting
(IV) Chemical method of separation (S) Leaching
(T) Concentration of the ore
(A) I→S; II→P; III→P,S; IV→Q
(B) I→P, R; II→Q; III→P; IV→S
(C) I→Q,R; II→P; III→T; IV→P
(D) I→R; II→T; III→Q; IV→S, R
27. Match the correct graph, if the process is taken place at constant temperature for the fixed
amount of ideal gas
List – I List – II
(I) 1 (P)
P vs. 2
V
(II) 1 (Q)
P vs.
V
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(III) 1 (R)
2
vs. V
P
(IV) PV vs. V (S)
(T)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) I→R; II→S; III→Q; IV→P
(B) I→S; II→T; III→R; IV→P
(C) I→S; II→Q; III→P; IV→R
(D) I→S; II→P; III→R; IV→R
28. List-I contains metal complexes and List-II contains their properties
List – I List – II
(I) Cr H2 O
3 (P) Central atom is sp3 d2 hybridisation
6
(II) Co CN
3 (Q) Central atom is d2 sp3 hybridized
6
(III) 4 (R) t 2g orbital contains 6 electron
CuF 6
(IV) 3 (S)
Unsymmetrical eg orbitation electronic
MnF6 configuration
(T) 3-unpaired electron present
[Given atomic number of Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Mn = 25]
(A) I→Q,T; II→Q, R; III→Q,R; IV→P, S
(B) I→P,T; II→Q, R; III→R, S; IV→P,S
(C) I→Q,S, T; II→Q,R; III→P, R, S; IV→P, T
(D) I→Q,T; II→Q, R; III→P,S; IV→P, S
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Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. The EMF of the cell at 298 K
Ag | AgBr s ,KBr 1 M || AgNO3 0.1 M / Ag s is 0.591 V. If in aq. solution AgNO3 dissociate
80% and KBr dissociate 75%, the solubility of AgBr found to be x 1012 mol/litre. The value of x
is
5
30. One mole of an ideal gas Cp,m R at 500 K follows path A B (Reversible isothermal) and
2
then B C (Reversible adiabatic) as shown in graph. What will be the volume of gas (in litre) at
point C?
[Given R 0.082, 23 /5 1.52 ]
4 atm B
2 atm TG ~ @bohring_bot C A
31. AgX crystallizes in rock salt like structure in which X occupy FCC lattice site. The density of
40
AgX crystal found to be g / cm3 and the edge length of the unit cell is 600 pm. What will be
6.022
the mass of 1 mole unit cell if all the atoms along one body diagonal of each unit cell have been
removed. [Given : Atomic weight of = 108 g/mol, NA = 6.022 × 1023]
32. An excess amount of CaCO3 is treated with 600 ml, 0.1 N HCl solution. The obtained CaCl2 is
used for the preparation of plaster of paris. The maximum amount of plaster of paris (in gram)
that could be obtained is? [At. wt. of Ca = 40, S = 32, O = 16, C = 12, H = 1]
33. An aqueous solution of 0.2 M CH3COOH is placed between parallel electrodes separated 1 cm
2
apart with cross sectional area 1 cm . The resistance of solution is found to be 50 . What will be
the osmotic pressure of same acetic acid solution at 300 K in atm?
o 1
[Given M CH3 COO 50 S cm2 mol1 , M o
H 350 S cm2 mol1 , R lit atm K 1 mol1
12
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34. The % packing efficiency of two dimensional square close packed unit cell shown below is
3.14
35. All four identical beakers containing H2 O (shown below) is heated separately to reach
temperature 90oC, for this purpose w, x, y, and z Joule energy is required. If the magnitude of
x
thermal energy required is w < x < y < z then what is the value of . (Assuming there is no loss
y
of H2 O during heating)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
200 g 100 g 150 g 300 g
40oC 20oC 50oC 30oC
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36. 45 gram of anhydrous oxalic acid is present in 500 ml solution. If 50 ml of this solution is shaken
with 0.2 gram of wood charcoal, the concentration of oxalic acid become 0.6 molar. The amount
of (in gm) oxalic acid adsorbed per gram of charcoal is [M.Wt. of C = 12, O = 16, H = 1).
[Assuming volume of solution remains same after adsorption]
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Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. Starting at (–3, –3) a bug moves in the co-ordinate plane via a sequence of steps, each of length
one, each step is left, right, up or down all four being equally likely, if Pn is the probability that
object reaches (–1, –1) first time in ‘n’ steps, then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
3 3
(A) P4 (B) P5 P6
128 128
3 3
(C) P4 P6 (D) P4 P5
64 64
38. Let a and b be two vectors such that a 4 , b 3 & a b 6 3 and let P1 and P2 be two
2
vectors such that P1 a bˆ bˆ a aˆ bˆ aˆ , P2 a a bˆ bˆ P1 and vector P3 is parallel to vector
a b such that P3 6 , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) P1 P2 1 3 (B) P3 P1 P2 18 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) P1 P2 4 3 (D) P3 P1 P2 6 3
1000 1000
Cr m
39. If
r 0
2019
Cr
n
(where m and n are relatively prime positive integers) and
m 2m n 1 m
N ..... (where [.] represents greatest integer function), then which of
n n n
the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) m + n = 100 (B) N is divisible by 3
(C) N is divisible by 5 (D) m – n = 50
40. If all the complex number z = x + iy, x, y R, i 1 , such that points of complex coordinates z,
z2, z3, z4 in this given order, are the vertices of a cyclic quadrilateral (z 0 + i0, 1 + i0), then
2 2 4
(A) arg z 0, (B) arg z ,
3 3 3
1 z z2 4
(C) is purely real (D) arg z , 2
z 3
41. Let M1, M2 be two matrices of order 3 3, all the elements of both the matrices are real numbers
2 2
and M1 M2 O (where O is null matrix), then which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT?
(A) det(M1) + det(M2) = 0
(B) There exist a non-null matrix M of order 3 3, such (MM1 + MM2) is invertible matrix
(C) There exist infinitely many ordered pair of (a, b), a, b R, such that det((aM1) + (bM2)) = 0
(D) There exist infinitely many matrix M of order 3 3 such that M(M1 + M2) is non-invertible
matrix
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42. Let z1, z2, z3 be three complex numbers of unit modulus such that z1 + z2 + z3 0 and
z12 z 22 z23 0 , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) z13 z32 z 33 1 (B) z12021 z2021
2 z32021 2
(C) z12 , z22 , z32 are collinear (D) z12023 z2023
2 z 2023
3 0
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. For any finite set S, let n(S) denote the number of elements in S, suppose A and B are two subset
of {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} that satisfy n(A)·n(B) = n(A B)·n(A B) and P(E) is the probability of
occurrence of event E, then (where n(A) is number of elements in the set A)
List-I List-II
32
(I) P(n(A) > n(B)) (P)
211
211
(II) P(n(A) n(B)) (Q)
454
32
(III) P n A n B (R)
n A n B 454
TG ~ @bohring_bot
243
(IV) P(n(A) = n(B)) (S)
454
32
(T)
243
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (P); (II) (S); (III) (T); (IV) (Q)
(B) (I) (Q); (II) (S); (III) (T); (IV) (R)
(C) (I) (T); (II) (R); (III) (P); (IV) (Q)
(D) (I) (Q); (II) (T); (III) (P); (IV) (R)
a b c
44. Consider the matrices M c a b such that det(M) = 1, a, b, c R, then
b c a
List-I List-II
a {–1, 0, 1}, b {–2, –1,
(I) There is only one matrix M (P) 0},
c {1, 2, 3}
a {–1, 0, 1}, b {–2, 0, 1},
(II) There are two distinct matrices M (Q)
c {–2, –1, 0}
There are more than 2, but finitely many
(III) (R) a, b, c {0, 1, 2}
matrices M
a, b, c all are negative
(IV) There are infinitely many matrices M (S)
integers
(T) a, b, c Q
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (P); (II) (T); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (S); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (T)
(C) (I) (P); (II) (R); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (T)
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45. If z1, z2, ..., z8 are the roots of the equation (z2 – 4z + 4)4 = (9)4, such that arg z1 < arg z2 < ... <
arg z8. (where arg z [0, 2)). Let zk is a complex number satisfying the equation |zk – z4| = |z8 –
zk|, and let
L = |(zk – z2)(zk – z3)(zk – z4)(zk – z5)|, then
List-I List-II
4
(I) zk = 3 + i (P) L=3
3 2 3 8 4
3 2 3
8
(II) zk = 5 + 3i (Q) L=
3 2 3
1 8
(III) zk = 2 + i0 (R) L= 3 28
5
3 2 8
3 2
4
(IV) Zk = 0 + i0 (S) L=
3 2
(T) L = 24
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (R)
(B) (I) (S); (II) (Q); (III) (P); (IV) (T)
(C) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(D) (I) (S); (II) (Q); (III) (P); (IV) (R)
46. A square of 5 5 unit2 area is shown is the diagram, contain 25 square of 1 1 unit2 area. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
person can move on this grid (on the sides of small squares) either right or up, then
Q
I
A T
up S
P right
List-I List-II
Number of such paths from point P to point Q
(I) which do not touch the boundary of squares (P) 73
(1 1 unit2 area) contain alphabets A, I, T and S
Number of such paths from point P to point Q
(II) which do not crosses the diagonal PQ at any (Q) 84
moment
How many rectangles can be formed by joining
(III) small (1 1 unit2 area) so that none of rectangles (R) 218
contain alphabets A, I, T and S
Number of such paths from P to Q, which always
(IV) pass through the boundaries of the square which (S) 144
contain either (A and I) or (T and S)
(T) 4
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (T); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
(B) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
(C) (I) (T); (II) (Q); (III) (P); (IV) (R)
(D) (I) (Q); (II) (R); (III) (P); (IV) (T)
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
47. Each unit square of a 3 by 3 unit grid is to be cloured either green or blue for each square, either
colour is equally likely. If the probability of obtaining a grid that does not have any 2 by 2 green
p
square is , where p, q N and p, q are coprime, then the value of |p – q|
q
48. A person can take one step or two steps or three steps at a time. If “P” is the number of distinct
ways he can cover 8 steps, then value of P is
3 2
49. Consider a polynomial f(x) = a1x + a2x + a3x + a4 such that a1, a2, a3, a4 {0, 1, 2, ..... , 8, 9},
how many such polynomial of degree three or less than three such that a1 – a2 + a3 – a4 + 9 = 0
a c
50. If A , a, b, c, d R such that det(A) + Tr(A) = 2, then minimum value of
b d
det(A2 + det(A)A + Tr(A)·I2) is (where Tr(A) is trace of A and I2 is identity matrix of order 2 2)
51. Let f(x) be a least degree unique polynomial with rational coefficients such that, when f(x) divided
by (x2 + x + 1), the remainder is x + 2 and when f(x) divided by (x 2 + 1), the remainder is 2x + 1,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
then find the sum of squares of coefficients of the polynomial f(x) is
52. In a tetrahedron OPQR, p, q, r are position vector of vertices P, Q and R respectively and O is
origin. If OP = QR = , OQ = PR = , OR = PQ = and G1 and G2 are centroid of PQR and
2 2
POR respectively such that OG1 QG2, then the value of is
2
53. If x2 + px + q = 0 has two distinct real roots and (x 2 + 2x – 1)2 + p(x2 + 2x – 1) + q = 0 has four
distinct real roots , , , such that < < < and , , , form an arithmetic sequence, then
maximum values of (p – q) is
2
i i
54. If m e 6 and n e 3
, where i 1 two complex numbers, then number of ordered pair of (p,
q p
q), p, q integers and 1 p, q 100 which satisfy the equation n i m , is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 25-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. The refracting angle of a prism is 60º. What should be the minimum value of the refractive index
of the material from which the prism is to be made so that light cannot emerge from the second
refracting surface.
3
(A) (B) 2
2
2
(C) 1.5 (D)
3
2. The de-Broglie wavelength of Helium atom of mass ‘m’ having energy corresponding to the mean
thermal energy at a temperature of ‘T’ Kelvin (kB is Boltzmann constant) is
h h
(A) (B)
6mk B T 3mkB T
h h
(C) (D) .
2mkB T mk B T
3.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
If K radiation of copper Cu(Z=29) has a wavelength of 1.52 Å, the wavelength of the
corresponding radiation of molybdenum Mo(Z 42) is
(A) 0.71 Å (B) 1.71 Å
(C) 0.50 Å (D) 1.5 Å.
4. The atomic ratio between the uranium isotopes 238 U and 234 U in a mineral is 1.8 10 4 . The
activity of both the isotopes at the given moment is same. The half life of 238 U is
T1 (238 U) 4.5 109 yr , the half life of 234 U is
2
(A) 4.05 1013 yr (B) 2.5 105 yr
(C) 2.00 1013 yr (D) 8.1 1013 yr .
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. The figure shown a ray of light incident at an angle i = /3. For different values of 1 and 2 angle
of refraction is difference. The plot drawn shows the variation of |r – i| versus 1 k , (r = angle
2
of refraction).
2
1 |r–i|
2 1
i
k
k1 k2
2
(A) The value of k1 is (B) The value of 1 = /6
3
(C) The value of 2 = /3 (D) The value of k2 is 1
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
6. Two plane mirrors at an angle such that a ray incident on a mirror undergoes a total deviation of
240º after two reflections.
(A) The angle between the mirrors is 60º.
(B) The number of images formed by this system will be 5, if an object is placed symmetrically
between the mirrors.
(C) The number of images will be 5 if an object is kept un-symmetrically between the mirrors.
(D) A ray will retrace its path after 2 successive reflections, if the angle of incidence with one
mirror is 60º.
7. It is desired to construct a toy by attaching a solid cone of height H on the top of
H
solid hemisphere as shown in the figure. The radius of the hemisphere and the
base of cone is R. The whole system is kept on a rough horizontal surface. If the
toy is slightly disturbed from the given equilibrium position it oscillates simple O
R
harmonically. Then mark the correct statements. (Given that both the cone and
hemisphere are made of same material)
(A) H 3 R
(B) H > 3R
(C) 3 R < H < 2R
(D) centre of mass of the combined system must not be above O.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8. A bottle is kept on the ground as shown in the figure. The bottle can
be modelled as having two cylindrical zones. The lower zone of the
bottle has a cross-sectional radius of R 2 and is filled with honey of 2H
density 2. The upper zone of the bottle is filled with the water of
density and has a cross-sectional radius R. The height of the lower
zone is H while that of the upper zone is 2H. If now the honey and the Honey H
water parts are mixed together to form a homogeneous solution
(Assume that total volume does not change)
(A) The pressure inside the bottle at the base will remain unaltered.
(B) The normal reaction on the bottle from the ground will remain unaltered.
(C) The pressure inside the bottle at the base will increase by an amount (1/2)gH
(D) The pressure inside the bottle at the base will decrease by an amount (1/4) gH
7
9. A particle is suspended by two ideal strings as shown in the figure.
Now mass m is given a small displacement perpendicular to the
5
plane of triangle formed. Choose the correct statement(s). 3 2
3 3
(A) The period of oscillation of the system is 2 . M
g
3
(B) The period of oscillation of the system is 2 .
g
(C) The period of oscillation of the system is independent of M.
(D) If the distance between the suspension points was kept constant and the lengths of the
strings were quadrupled then the period of the system will double.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
10. Two spherical bodies, each of mass M, are kept with their centres at a distance 2L apart. A
particle of mass m is projected from the mid-point of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to
the line. The gravitational constant is G. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(A) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies
GM
is 4
L
(B) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies
GM
is 2
L
(C) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies
2GM
is
L
(D) The total mechanical energy of the mass m remains constant.
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. A man is looking down a 9 m deep tank filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index 3. The
line of sight of the man makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. What is the apparent depth of
the tank (in meter) as seen by the man?
12.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A tuning fork of known frequency is held at the open end of a long tube, which is
dipped into water as shown in the figure. The tuning fork of frequency 165 Hz
resonates in first and second harmonic when air columns have lengths 1 = 50
0.5 cm and 2 = 150 0.1 cm. Find the maximum possible error in
measurement of speed of sound(in m/s) in air.
13. A standing wave exists in a string of length 150cm and is fixed at both ends. The displacement
amplitude of a point at a distance of 10cm from one of the ends is 5 3 mm. The distance
between the two nearest points, within the same loop and having displacement amplitude equal
to 5 3 mm, is 10cm. Find the mode of vibration of the string i.e. the harmonic produced.
14. A uniform inextensible string of length L= 6m and linear density is suspended vertically and a
transverse pulse is produced at the lower end. At the same time a point object is released from
rest from the top of the string and falls freely. How far (in meter) from the top does the object
passes the pulse?
15. A person standing between two parallel hills, fires a gun. He hears the first echo after 1.5sec and
the second after 2.5 sec. The speed of sound is 332 m/s. When will he hear the third echo?
16. A point source of power 50 watts is producing sound waves. The velocity of sound is 330m/s,
-2
density of air is 1.0 kgm3. Then find the pressure amplitude (in Nm ) at a distance r = 330m
from the point source.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
17. The shape of an ancient water clock jar is such that the water y
level descends at a constant rate at all times. The water level
falls by m/s and the shape of the jar is given by y xn . Find
the value of n if the radius r of the drain hole can be assumed to
be very small.
Drain hole
r x
-2 -2
18. During Searle’s experiment, the zero of a vernier scale lies between 3.20 × 10 m and 3.25 × 10
m of the main scale divisions. The 20th division of the vernier scale exactly coincides with one of
the main scale divisions. When an additional load of 2 kg is applied to the wire, the zero of the
vernier scale still lies between 3.20 × 10-2 m and 3.25 × 10-2 m of the main scale but now the 45th
division of the vernier scale coincides with one of the main scale divisions. The length of the thin
-7 2.
metallic wire is 2 m and its cross-sectional area is 8.0 × 10 m .The least count of the vernier
-5
scale is 1.0 × 10 m. Find the maximum percentage error in the Young modulus of the wire.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. The colourless inter halogen compound among the following is
(A) IF3
(B) IBr
(C) ICl
(D) IF7
20. What will be the value of entropy of mixing for 44 gm CO2 gas, 28 g N2 gas and 2 mole of Ar gas
at 400 K. Considering ideal behaviour of gases.
1
(A) 6Rn
2
3
(B) n2
200
(C) 6Rn2
(D) 2400Rn2
21.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
If the concentration (C) of a strong electrolyte is diluted 16 times. The magnitude of change in
molar conductivity will be? (b is Debye, Huckel Onsagar constant)
4
(A) b C
3
b
(B) C
4
(C) 0
3
(D) b C
4
2
22. Which of the following is correct electronic configuration of 64 Gd ion?
8 o 2
(A) Xe 4f 5d 6s
(B) Xe 4f 7 5do 6s1
(C) Xe 4f 5 5d1 6s2
(D) Xe 4f 7 5d1 6s0
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. The correct option(s) is/are
(A) In 1 equivalent of H2SO4, 2 equivalent of H-atom is present.
1
(B) Volume strength of N H2 O2 solution is 1.12.
5
(C) 14 gm of ethene required, 48 gm of oxygen gas for complete combustion.
(D) Number of moles of oxygen atom in 276 gm of N2O4 is 6.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
24. Which of the following solution(s) is/are isotonic with 0.2 M NaCl 1 solution at identical
temperature. ( = degree of dissociation)
(A) 0.2 M MgCl2 0.5 solution.
(B) 18 g of glucose present in 250 ml solution.
(C) 0.5 mole of Al NO3 3 0.4 present in 4 litre solution.
(D) 1 mole AlCl3 0.2 present in 4 litre solution.
2
25. The C – O bond length in BH3 .CO, Mn CO 6 , V CO 6 and Ti CO 6 are w, x, y and z
o
A respectively. The correct option is/are
(A) x > w
(B) y < z
(C) z < x
(D) y > w
26. For 1 mole of an ideal gas
dP dV
.
dT V dT P
R 1
(A) (B)
T T
TG ~ @bohring_bot
R2 R2
(C) (D)
PV P2
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about PH3?
(A) It is a toxic gas.
(B) It can be prepared by hydrolysis of white phosphorous with NaOH solution.
(C) It is more basic than NH3.
(D) The P – H bond in PH3 is stronger than N – H bond in NH3.
28. The correct statement(s) is/are
(A) NH4 and Mg2 cations (basic radical) belongs to zero group.
(B) Chloride of Hg(I) and Hg(II) do not respond to chromyl chloride test.
(C) In the brown ring test of NO2 , the FeSO4 solution must be freshly prepared.
(D) Hg2 ion on reaction with excess KI produce yellow coloured HgI2 precipitate.
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. How many of the following cations (basic radicals) do not belong to group-V.
Ni2 , Mg2 , Sr 2 , Zn2 , K , Fe 3 , Ca 2 , Mn2 , Pb2
30. The number of white coloured compounds among the following
Ag2 CO3 , Ag2 SO3 , AgNO2 , Ag2 S, AgI, Ag2 CrO4 , PbS, ZnS, FeS, Fe OH3 , BaCO3 .
31. In crystal structure of Fe3O4 metal ions occupy void (Tetrahedral and octahedral) space. While
O2 ion present at FCC lattice. What will be total number of unpaired electron present in metal
ion occupying tetrahedral voids per unit cell.
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Yash Patil 8
32. How many of the following ores contains CO23 ion.
Cerrusite, Azurite, Calamine, Zincite, Siderite, Magnetite, Magnesite, Dolomite, Bauxite.
33. How many of the following species are coloured due to charge transfer
2 3 2
Co H2 O
6
, Fe 4 Fe CN 6 , V2 O5 , Ti H2 O 6 , K 2 Cr2 O7 , MnO4 , Mn H2 O 6
3
34. Total number of correct statements among the following is
1. Pressure and density are intensive properties.
2. Every isolated system is closed system and vice-versa.
3. Entropy change for adiabatic reversible process is zero.
4. A reaction is non-spontaneous at any temperature when enthalpy change is positive and
entropy change is negative.
5. For cyclic process internal energy change is zero.
6. For isobaric process, volume (for fixed amount of an ideal gas) get doubled when
temperature increases from 100o C to 200o C.
7. The dissolution of NaCl in H2O is endothermic though it is spontaneous process.
8. Heat of combustion of ethane is – 341.1 kcal/mole and heat of combustion of ethyne is
– 310 kcal/mole means ethane is a better fuel.
35. Total number of geometrical isomers for complex
2
Fe en F Cl Br I is (en = 1, 2-ethylenediamine).
36.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
How many of the following Antibiotics has inhibitory effect on microbes
Peniciline, Ertythromycin, Ofloxacin, Tetracyclin, Amonoglucosides, Chloramphenical.
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
37. A real number a is chosen randomly and uniformly from the interval [–20, 18] the probability that
the roots of the polynomial x 4 + 2ax3 + (2a – 2)x2 + (–4a + 3)x – 2 are all real is
17 13
(A) (B)
19 19
21 18
(C) (D)
19 19
38. Find the number of permutations x 1, x2, x3, x4, x5 of numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 such that the sum of five
products x1x2x3 + x2x3x4 + x3x4x5 + x4x5x1 + x5x1x2 is divisible by 3
(A) 16 (B) 80
(C) 32 (D) 48
39. In the complex plane, let A be the set of solutions to z3 – 8 = 0 and let B be the set of solution to
z3 – 8z2 – 8z + 64 = 0, then the maximum distance between a point of A and a point of B is
(A) 21 (B) 3 21
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) 4 21 (D) 2 21
40. Let f(x) = {x}[x] ; g(x) = ax 2 the sum of all real solutions of equation satisfying f(x) = g(x) is 420.
(Where a is (+ve) rational number), then a is equal to
(Where [.] and {.} represents greatest integer function and fractional part function respectively)
28 29
(A) (B)
900 900
31 37
(C) (D)
900 900
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
2 2
41. Let P(x) = ax + bx + c where a, b, c are real numbers and a 0, the polynomial P(x + 4x – 7)
2
has x = 1 as a root and at least one repeated roots, then the roots of polynomial P(x + 4x – 7)
can be
(A) x = 1 (B) x = –5
(C) x = –2 (D) x = 2
n
1
42. If bn n , n 1, then bn can be written as
r 0 Cr
1 n 1 r 1 1 n 1 r 1
(A) bn 1 (B) bn
n r 0 n 1 Cr n r 0 n 1 Cr
n1 n 1
(C) bn bn 1 1 (D) bn bn 1 1
2n 2n
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
43. Equation of two lines passes through point A and B whose position vectors are a and b is
r a and r b . The position vector of R and S will be, where RS is the shortest
distance between the given lines is
a b a b
(A) a 2
(B) a 2
a b a b
(C) b 2
(D) b 2
44. A and B are two events defined as follows:
A : It rains today with probability P(A) = 40%. B : It rains tomorrow with probability P(B) = 50%
A B
Also, probability P (It rains today and tomorrow) = 30%. Also, E1 : P ,
A B
A B or B A
E 2 : P
, then which of the following is/are TRUE?
A B
A B
(A) A and B are independent (B) P P
B A
A B
(C) E1 and E2 are equiprobable (D) P P
A B A B
45.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Let An be an n n matrix in which diagonal elements are 1, 2, 3, 4, ..... n
(i.e., a11 = 1, a22 = 2, a33 = 3, ..... ann = n) and all other elements are equal to n
(A) An is singular for all n (B) An is non-singular for all n
(C) det An = (–1)n·n! (D) det An = (–1)n + 1·n!
C12 C22
46. If Cr n Cr , then sum of the series S C20 ..... upto (n + 1) terms, which of the
2 3
following options is/are TRUE?
1 1
(A) 2n 1Cn1 (B) 2n 2 Cn 1
n 1 2 n 1
1 2n 1!
(C) 2n 1Cn (D)
n 1 n 1! 2
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
47. Let x1 < x2 < x3 be the three real roots of the equation 2014 x 3 4029x 2 2 0 , then x2(x1 + x3)
is
48. There exists a unique strictly increasing sequence of non-negative integers a1 < a2 < ..... < ak
2289 1
such that 17 2a1 2a2 ..... 2ak , then (k – 130) is
2 1
49. 10 chairs are arranged in a circle. Then the number of subset of this set of chairs that contain at
least three adjacent chairs is N, then (N – 580) is
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
n
50. Let an and bn are real number such that 2 i an bni for all integers n 0 where i 1 , if
anbn
n 0 7
n
is k, then 16k is equal to
51. Let the sequence is 4, 7, 1, 8, 9, 7, 6, ..... for n > 2 the nth term of the sequence is the units digit
of the sum of the two previous terms. Let Sn denote the sum of the first n terms of this sequence.
The smallest value of n for which Sn > 10,000 is p, then (p – 1990) is
z 1
52. Let and z be complex numbers such that || = 1 and |z| = 10. Let arg . Let is the
z m
2
maximum possible value of tan , then (m – 95) is
53. The number of rational number r, 0 r 1, such that when r is written as a fraction in lowest terms
the numerator and denominator have a sum of 1000 is N, then (N – 197) is
54. Let An and Bn be square matrices of order 3, which are defined as A n aij and Bn bij
2i j 3i j
where aij 2n and bij 2n i and j, 1 i, j 3, if lim Tr 3A1 32 A 2 33 A 3 ..... 3n A n
3 2 n
m
and m lim Tr 3B1 22 B 2 23 B3 ..... 2n Bn , then the value of , where Tr (A) represent
n 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
trace of matrix A
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – III
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 25-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. A, B, C
Sol. Rays passing through optical centres passes unreflected. Two images are formed at I1 and I2
For a convex lens,
1 1 1
v u f
u = 0.4m f = 0.2m
1 1 1 1 1 1
=
v u f v 0.4 0.2
1 1 1
v 0.2 0.4
1 1
v 0.4
(A) v = 0.4 meter.
(B) Number of images formed = 2
0.4
(C) Separation between images is 2 3 3 = 12 mm
0.4
2. A, B, C, D
2G 2Gdz y
Sol. Gravitational field due to a long wire, dE = =
r r dE
a
P
2 d r
2Gdz d dz
EP dE.cos = r r
2Gd 2
a
d z2
2 z dz z
a
EP 4G tan1
2d
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
3. A, B, C, D
Sol. Q = K
and use basic concept
4. A, B, C
Sol. = 1m
x
/4 = x
So, x = 25 cm
Max = 125 25 max
Max = 100 cm
y = 3/4 = 75 cm
MIN = 125 75 = 50 cm
y
/2 = distance between nodes = 50 cm
min
5. A, C, D
Sol. (A) O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A
(C) O
i
A B i
I
(D) Image is inverted It should be real
6. A, B, C
Sol. Due to a convex mirror of focal length 2.5 cm and due to a concave mirror having its pole at (2cm,
0) real virtual pair
7. D
Sol. Use basic formulae for the given physical quantities to derive the dimensions.
8. D
Sol. F 20 cm
u 30 cm
uF ( 30)(20) 600
v 60 cm
uF 30 20 10
v 60
m 2
u 30
Real, inverted and magnified
F 40 cm
u 30 cm
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
( 30)( 40)
v 120 cm
30 40
v 120
m 4
u
30
virtual, erect and magnified
u2 u1 u2 u 1
(R)
v u R
1 3 / 2 1 3 / 2
v 20 10
1 3 1
v 40 20
1 1 3 23 1
v 40
v 20 40 40 40
ui v 3 / 2 40
m 3
ur u 1 20
Virtual, erect, magnified
TG ~ @bohring_bot
uF ( 40)( 40) 1600
(S)v 20
uF 40 40 80
v 20 1
m
u 40 2
Virtual, erect, diminished.
9. C
Sol. Use momentum conservation during collision. In case of a plane mirror image and object will be
equidistant from the mirror
10. D
Sol. Q B E Pr oduct B E Re ac tan t Q
Section – B
11. 0.24
N
Sol. Thrust of the ejected water on the tank T au2 where u is the speed T
of the ejected water from tank
2gh f
u= 2
1 a A
Now for the tank to slide, Tsin mg T cos
mg
mg
T
sin cos
Ahg 2 a A
au2 2
sin cos 1 a A sin cos
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
2x a
2
m where x = and m =
1 x A sin cos
1 m2 1
x for 37 and 0.5
m
1 0.25 1
m = 0.5 and x
0.5
Hence xmin = 0.236
12. 0.12
air
Sol. PC PD 2gh2 P0 2 gh2
PA PB 1gh1 B D
and PB PC (neglecting the density of air as
h2 = 20cm
compared to water or mercury) h1=
PA P0 2 gh2 1gh1 Q 10cm
= 105 10 13.8 0.1 1 0.2 103 A
C
5 4 5 2
= 10 10 1.38 0.2 =1.16 10 N / m
Water
Mercury
13. 6.00
Sol. Area of element = wdy
TG ~ @bohring_bot
y
dF = wgydy a
wgD2 P0+gh P0
Net force = . . .(1)
2 s
d = wgydy(D y)
wgD3
= . . .(2)
6
Putting the value of F and in equation (1) and (2)
D = 10 m and W = 6 m
14. 3.75
Sol. Let V be the total volume of the piece of wood and V be its volume inside the liquid. Since the
wood piece is in equilibrium
Weight of the wood piece = buoyant force
Vg = V 0 g
AL g = AL 0 g
Now if the wood piece is pressed by distance x below the fluid.
Buoyant force = A(L+x) 0g
Net force = A(L+x)0g – AL g
= AL0g + Ax 0g – A L g
= A x 0 g in the vertically upward direction (Since A L 0g = AL g)
Therefore the pressing force = Ax 0g in the vertically downward direction.
The work done by the pressing force for a small displacement dx
dW = Fdx = Ax 0 g dx
Total work done by the pressing force
L/2
W = dW = A 0 g
0
x dx
2 2
A 0 g L 10 1200 10 (0.5)2
= = = 3.75 J
8 8
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
15. 13.33
Sol. R = V/I = 12/2 = 6
R V I
Error, 100 100
R V I
0.4 0.2
100
12 2
= 13.33%
Resistance = (613.33%)
16. 1.53
Sol. Pitch of the Screw gauge = 5/10 mm = 0.5 mm
Pitch 0.5
Least count = 0.005mm
100 100
Pitch scale reading = PitchN = 0.53 = 1.5 mm
Difference of the cap reading = F~I = 6
Circular scale reading = Difference L.C = 0.03 mm
Diameter = P.S.R. + C.S.R. = (1.5+0.03)mm = 1.53 mm
17. 0.20
Sol. The focal length of the lens is given by
1 1 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
f |v| |u|
substituting the values, we get,
f = 19.9 cm, 20.1 cm, 19.9 cm, 20.2
The average focal length 20.0 cm
The error in a typical measurement:
f u v
f 2 u2 v 2
f 0.4 0.4
2
20 0.01
f 40 (40.5)2
f = 0.01 20 = 0.2 cm
18. 8.00
GM
Sol. Initial orbital speed v1 …(i)
2R 4RE
GM
Final orbital speed v 2 …(ii) 2RE
4R
vp
For elliptical orbit va
From COAM E a
v1 2R v 2 4R c
v Transfer
v 2 …(iii)
2 Orbit
1 GMm 1 GMm
From COE mv12 = mv22
2 2R 2 4R
2GM
v1
3R
1 2GM GM 1 GM 1 2GM GMm
So, energy required = m m
2 3R 2R 2 4R 4 3R 8R
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. A, C
Sol. Suppose meq. of NaOH and Na2CO3 in the mixture are x and y respectively.
When phenolphthalein is used as indicator
y
x 40 0.1 4 … (i)
2
When methyl orange is used as indicator
x y 60 0.1 6 … (ii)
Solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
x 2 meq. and y 4 meq.
Weight of NaOH in the mixture 2 103 40 5 0.4 g .
Weight of Na2 CO3 in mixture 4 103 53 5 1.06 g
0.4
Weight % of NaOH in the mixture 100 27.4%
0.4 1.06
20. A, B, D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. 3H2 O
XeO3 6HF
2H2 O
XeF6 XeO2 F2 4HF
H2 O
XeOF4 2HF
21. B, C, D
Sol. Physisorption is multilayer
log (x/m) vs. log (P) log (x/m)
Slope is +ve.
log (P)
Physisorption favour at low temperature and high pressure.
Hphysisorption Hchemisorption
22. A, B, D
Sol. Mond’s process is used for the purification of Ni.
23. B, C
1 16 2 4
Sol. Mmix 8
1 2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
rx Mmix
rmix Mx
8
2 Mx 2
Mx
Gas is H2 gas.
rH2 4
2 rx 2 rHe
rHe 2
(B) and (C) are correct statement.
24. A, C, D
Sol. From given data
1 2
XA XB
3 3
Where, XA and XB are mole fraction of A and B in liquid phase.
If the YA and YB are mole fraction of And B in vapour phase.
1
100
YA PAo X A / Ptotal PAo X A 3 5
o o
YB PB XB / Ptotal PB XB 2 8
80
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
YA nA W A / MA WA
A and B are isomer
YB nB WB / MB WB
5
Mass ratio of A and B .
8
1 2
PTotal PAo X A PBo XB 100 80
3 3
260
torr
3
25. D
Sol. Ziglar Natta TiCl4 Al C2 H5 3
Ostwald process Pt
Contact process V2 O5
Haber process Fe
26. B
Sol. Conceptual
27. B
Sol. Application of Boyle’s Law.
28. D
3
Sol. Cr H2 O
6
d2 sp3 Cr 3 d3 t 32g eog
3
Co CN
6
d2 sp3 Co3 d6 t 62g eog
CuF6 4 sp3 d2 Cu2 d9 t 62g e3g
MnF6 3 sp3 d2 Mn3 d4 t 32g e1g
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Section – B
29. 8.00
K SP K SP
Sol. Ag
Anode 1 0.75 M
Br
Ag
Cathode 0.1 0.8 0.08 M
Ag
Cathode
Ecell 0.0591log
Ag
Anode
0.08
0.591 0.0591log
K SP / 0.75
0.75 0.08
10 log
K SP
0.75 0.08
10 10
K SP
0.08 0.75
K SP 6 1012
1010
K SP 6 1012
Solubility mol / lit.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Br 0.75
x 10 12 8 1012
x 8
30. 15.58
RT 0.082 500
Sol. VA 20.5 lit
PA 2
A B is isothermal path
P V 21.5 2
VB A A 10.25 litre
PB 4
B C is adiabatic path
PB VC 5
CP R
PC VB 2
5
4 VC 3 3
CV R
2 VB 2
5 V 5
log 2 log C
3 VB 3
V
log C log 23/5
VB
VC
23/5 1.52
VB
VC 1.52 10.25
= 15.58 litre
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
31. 729.00
40 3
NA a3 6.022
6.022 1023 6 108
Sol. MAgX
4 4
216 g / mole
MX 216 108 108 g / mole
If all atoms along one body diagonal have been removed, the formula of unit cell
Ag4 1 X 1 Ag3 X15
4
4 4
15
Mass of 1 mole of these unit cell 108 3 108 = 729.00
4
32. 4.35
Sol. Number of equivalent of HCl used = Number equivalent of CaCl2 obtained = Number of
600 0.1
equivalent of plaster of paris can form 0.06
1000
1 Mol.wt. 145
Equivalent weight of plaster of paris CaSO 4 . H2 O
2 2 2
1 145
Maximum weight of CaSO4 . H2 O that can be obtained 0.06 4.35 g .
2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33. 6.25
1 1 1 1
Sol. S cm 1
R A 50 1 50
1
1000
m 50 100 S cm2 mol1
0.2
100 100 1
m
om o o
H
50 350
CH3 COO
4
Van’t Hoff factor i 1 1.25
i.C.R.T.
1
1.25 0.2 300 6.25 atm .
12
34. 78.50
Sol. a 6r
r
a
1 1
Effective number of atom in one unit cell 4 8 4 9
4 2
9 r 2
%P.E. 100
a2
9 3.14 r 2
100
6r 2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
9 314r 2 314
2
36r 4
= 78.5%
35. 0.70
Sol. Amount of thermal energy required w CS T
Amount of thermal energy in beaker A 200 CS 90 40 10000 CS
Amount of thermal energy in beaker B 100 CS 90 20 7000 CS
Amount of thermal energy in beaker C 150 CS 90 50 6000 CS
Amount of thermal energy in beaker D 300 CS 90 30 18000 CS
w 6000 CS , x 7000 CS , y 10000 CS , z 18000 CS
x 7000 CS
0.7
y 10000 CS
36. 9.00
45
Sol. Weight of oxalic acid in 50 ml solution before adsorption 50 4.5 gm
500
50
Weight of oxalic acid in 50 ml solution after adsorption 0.6 90 2.7 gm
1000
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Weight of oxalic acid adsorbed by 0.2 gm of charcoal = 4.5 – 2.7 = 1.8 g
1
Weight adsorbed per gram 1.8 9 gm .
0.2
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A, B, C
4
C 2 60 12 96
Sol. P4 42 , P5 = 0, P6 6
4 46 4
38. A, D
Sol. P1 3 , P2 1 and P1 P2 0 P3 P1 P2 P3 P1 P2
39. C, D
m 101 m 1 n 1
Sol. , N
n 51 2
40. A, C, D
z3 z2 z z4 2 3 4
Sol. R z z zz 1 0 for given order z, z , z , z
z z2 z3 z 4
2 4
arg z 0, , 2
3 3
41.
Sol.
A, C, D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
det(M1) = det(M2) = 0 det(aM1 + bM2) = 0 a, b R
42. A, B
Sol. z1, z2, z3 are the roots of the equation z3 2z 2 2 2 z 3 0
43. B
Sol. n(A) > n(B) Total number of cases 211
n(A) = n(B) Total number of 32 cases
44. D
Sol. (a + b + c) ((a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2) = 2
If a, b, c Z (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1) are solutions
1
If t a = c, 2a + b = 2 , a – b = t infinite possibility
t
45. D
Sol. |((z – 2)8 – 38| = |(z – z1) (z – z2)(z – z3) ..... (z – z8)|
46. C
Sol. (I) There are 4 distinct path
1
(II) There are 10 C5 distinct path
3
(III) Count rectangle of all possible dimension = 73
(IV) There are 218 distinct path
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
Section – B
47. 95.00
Sol. Let i be the event that i is the upper left corner of required square
95 417
P i 2 3 4 P 1c 2c 3c c4
512 512
48. 81.00
Sol. Suppose there are Tn ways to cover n steps
Tn = Tn – 1 + Tn – 2 + Tn – 3, T1 = 1, T2 = 2
49. 220.00
Sol. Let p = 9 – a, q = 9 – a3 p + a2 + q + a4 = 9 12C3 = 220
50. 4.00
Sol. |A2 + |A|A + Tr(A)·I2| = 4(2(|A| – 1)2 + 1)
51. 23.00
Sol. P(x) = x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 3
52. 3.00
p q r p r 2 2 2
Sol. q 0 p q 3 r
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 3
53. 2.78
1 2
Sol. Let = u, = u + v, = u + 2v, = u + 3v p q u 1 u2 2u 9
9
54. 834.00
Sol. Let im = n 9 34 cases
im5 = n2 8 33 cases
im9 = n3 8 33 cases
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
PART TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 25-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. B
Sol. If A 2C then light does not emerge.
A = 60º
C should be less than 30º
1
sin30
2
minimum value of is 2.
2. B
h
Sol.
mv
1 3
mv 2 kB T
2 2
3kB T
v rms v 2
m
h h
mv rms 3mk B T
3. A
Sol. From Moseley’s law,
1
(Z 1)2
K
M0 (ZCu 1)2 (28)2
Cu (ZM0 1)2 (41)2
(28)2
M0 Cu 0.71 Å.
(41)2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
4. B
Sol. N238 238 N234 234
N238 N234
T1 ( U) T1 ( 234U)
238
2 2
N
T1 ( 234U ) 234 T1 ( 238 U )
2 N238 2
1
4.5 109 y = 2.5 105 yr
1.8 104
5. B, C, D
Sol. For the critical ray at the interface,
2 sin i = 1 sin 90º
1 (90º i) .
2 3 6
6. A, B, C, D
Sol. (A) M1
Parallel
30º 60º to M2
Deviation
(B) TG ~ @bohring_bot
60º
I2
I1
M2
M1
0
M2
I3
I5
I4
(C) same as (b) – 5 images.
(D) M1
60º 30º
M2
7. A, D
Sol. For equilibrium, the system must be in a local minima of potential energy. This is possible only if
the centre of mass of the system lies below O i.e. the centre of the hemisphere. In the critical
case, the centre of mass of the system can coincide with O.
Now taking O as the origin, say H is the maximum principle height of the cone then:
3R 2 3 H 1 2
8 3 R 4 3 R H = 0
R2 H2
0 or H 3R
4 12
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8. B, C
Sol. Initial pressure at the bottom = g 2H + 2 g H = 4 gH.
Final density of the homogenous mixture:
A 2H 2 2A H 3
A 2H 2A H 2
3 9
Final pressure g 3H gH.
2 2
9. B, C
2
y = (5)2 x 2 = (3 2)2 (7 x)2
7
Sol. x 7x
3
x = 4 y = 3 T 2 y
g 5 32
10. B, D
1 2GMm
Sol. mv 2 0
2 L
GM
v2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
L
Gravitational field is conservative, in which total mechanical energy (KE + PE) remains
conserved. Hence, the kinetic energy imparted to the mass m is gradually reduced and gets
converted into its potential energy, so that at every point of its fl ight the total mechanical energy
remains constant.
Section – B
11. 1
3 3
H cosi 9 1
Sol. Happ 1m
cosr 3 3
12. 2
Sol. Let be is wavelength of sound in air
3
1 = and 2 =
4 4
= 2(2 1)
v = f = 165 2(150 50) 102 = 330 m/s
dv d 2 d1
v 2 1
0.5 0.1
dv = 330 = 1.98 m/s
150 50
v = (330 2) m/s, it is speed of sound in air.
13. 5
Sol. Let equation of the wave be
y = A sinkx cost
5 3 = A sin(k10) . . . (1)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
and 5 3 = A sin(k20) . . . (2)
From (1) and (2), and the given conditions,
20k = 10k k=
30
5 3 = A sin 10 using equation (1)
30
A = 10mm
2
k= ,
30
= 60cm.
L=n
2
2L 2 150
n= = =5
60
th th
As the number of loops is 5, the string vibrates in the 4 overtone 5 harmonic.
14. 4
Sol. Tension in the string at a height y from the lower end
= Weight of the lower part (having y length) = yg
T
Wave speed at this point V=
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Y
yg
V yg
dy
yg
dt
On integration we get,
gt 2
y=
4
1 2
Distance travelled by the body in time t =gt
2
When the pulse & the body are at same level
gt 2 1 2
gt L
4 2
4L
t=
3g
Therefore, distance from the top
1 2L
= gt 2
2 3
15. 4
2x 2y person
Sol. t1 = & t2 =
v v
v 332 x y
x + y = (t1 t 2 ) = [1.5 2.5] = 664 m.
2 2
third echo will be heard after
t3 = t1 + t2 = 1.5 + 2.5 = 4 sec.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
16. 5
P02 Power
Sol. I
2V 4r 2
Put the values to get the answer.
17. 4
dy
Sol. (r 2 ) 2gy x 2
dt
2 2
(r ) 2gy x
yx 4
18. 4
FL
Sol. Y
A
Here measurement is for only,
Y
So,
Y
From observation, 1 = MS + 20(LC), and 2 = MS + 45(LC)
Change in length = 2 1 = 25 LC, and the maximum permissible error in measurement of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
elongation in one LC.
Y 1 LC
100% 100% 4%
Y 25 (LC)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. D
Sol. IF3 Yellow powder
IBr Black solid
ICl Re d solid
IF7 Colourless gas
20. C
Sol. Smix ntotalR xi nxi
nCO2 1 nN2 1 nAr 2
1 1 1
CO2 N2
Ar
4 4 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
Smix 4R n n n
4 4 4 4 2 2
1 1 1 1
4R n n
2 4 2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 1
4R n
2 2
1
6Rn 6Rn2
2
21. D
o
Sol. m m b C … (i)
C
When it is diluted C
16
o C
m m b … (ii)
16
b C
m m b C
4
3b C
4
22. D
Sol. 64 Gd Xe 4f 7 5d1 6s2
2
64 Gd Xe 4f 7 5d1 6s0
23. B, C
Sol. 1 equivalent of H2 SO4 1 equivalent of H atom
1
VH2O2 5.6 Normality 5.6 1.12
5
C2H4 3O2 2CO2 2H2 O
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
14 3
Moles of O2 required 3
28 2
3
Weight of O2 32 48 g
2
276
Moles of ‘O’ atom in 276 gm of N2O4 4 12 mole .
92
24. A, B, D
Sol. For isotonic solution, osmotic pressure should be same.
i.CRT
i.C for 0.2 M NaCl 1
1 x y 1 C
1 1 1 1 1 0.2 0.4
i.C for 0.2 M MgCl2 0.5
1 1 2 1 0.5 0.2
= 0.4
18 / 180
i.C for 18 g glu cos e in 250 ml so lution 1 0.4
250 / 1000
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0.5
i.C for 0.5 mole of Al NO3 3 in 4 litre 0.4 1 1 3 1 0.4 = 0.275
4
1
i.C for 1 mole of AlCl3 0.2 in 4 litre so lution 1 1 3 1 0.2 0.4
4
A, B and D are isotonic solution with 0.2 M NaCl 1 .
25. A, B, D
Sol. Strength of M – C back bonding electronic density of metal
M – C bond order
C – O bond length
M – C back bonding order
2
Ti CO V CO Mn CO BH3 .CO
6 6 6
Bond length order z > y > x > w.
26. A, C
dP d RT R
Sol.
dT V dT V V V
dV d RT R
dT P dT P P P
dP dV R R R2 R2 R
dT V dT P V P PV RT T
27. A, B
Sol. PH3 – Toxic
P4 3NaOH 3H2 O PH3 3NaH2PO 2
NH3 is more basic than PH3
N – H bond energy (389 kJ/mol) > P – H bond energy (318 kJ/mol)
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
28. B, C
Sol. Mg2 belongs to Group-VI.
Hg2 KI K 2 HgI4
Option (A) and (D) are wrong.
Section – B
29. 7
Sol. Group – V cations are Ca 2 ,Sr 2 , Ba2 .
30. 5
Sol. White Ag2 CO3 , Ag2 SO3 , AgNO2 , ZnS, BaCO3
Black Ag2 S, FeS, PbS
Yellow AgI
Re ddish brown Fe OH3
31. 5
Sol. Fe3O4 is an example of inverse spinel, in which one Fe+3 ion present at tetrahedral void and one
Fe+3 as well as one Fe+2 ion present at octahedral voids per unit cell.
1 Fe3 ion is present at tetrahedral voids.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Fe 3 d5 e2 t 32
Total 5 unpaired electrons.
32. 6
Sol. Cerrusite PbCO3
Azurite Cu OH2 .2CuCO3
Calamine ZnCO3
Zincite ZnO
Siderite FeCO3
Magnetite Fe3 O 4
Magnesite MgCO3
Dolomite MgCO3 , CaCO3
Bauxite Al2 O3 .2H2 O
33. 4
Sol. Fe 4 Fe CN6 , K 2 Cr2 O7 ,MnO 4 , V2 O5 are coloured due to charge transfer.
3
34. 5
Sol. 1. Pressure and density are intensive property as it does not depends on amount.
2. Every close system is not isolated system.
3. S 0 for adiabatic reversible process.
4. G should be – ve for a spontaneous processs.
5. For cyclic process U 0 .
V2 T2 573
6. .
V1 T1 473
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
341.1 310
7. Calorific value of C2H6 11.37 kcal / g . Calorific value of C2H2 11.92 kcal / g .
30 26
Ethyne is a better fuel.
1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 are correct statement.
35. 6
Sol. 2
F
Br
Fe en
I
Cl
2
F
Cl
Fe en
I
Br
2
F
Cl
Br
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Fe en
I
2
Cl
I
Fe en
F
Br
2
Cl
Br
Fe en
F
I
2
Br
F
Fe en
Cl
I
36. 3
Sol. Ertythromycin, Tetracyclin and Chloramphenical has inhibitory effect on microbes.
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. D
Sol. By rational root theorem turn the given polynomial
into a degree = 2 polynomial with rational root –20 18
x = 1, –1, 2, –2 are all possible root
So, x = –2, x = 1. Polynomial is equal to 0
So, polynomial becomes (x – 1)(x + 2)(x2 + (2a – 1)x + 1)
So, we only need to focus on the quadratic
2 36 18
(2a – 1) – 4 0 n(S) = 38 ; n(E) = 36 Probability =
38 19
38. B
Sol. Let x3 = 3, then x1x2x3 + x2x3x4 + x3x4x5 + x4x5x1 + x5x1x2 = 3(x1x2 + x2x4 + x4x5) + x5x1(x2 + x4)
So, the sum is divisible by 3 if x2 + x4 is divisible by 3, the possible sums of (x2 + x4) can be
(1, 2), (2, 1), (1, 5), (5, 1), (2, 4), (4, 2), (4, 5) or (5, 4) are we have 2 ways to designate x 1 and x5
for a total of 8 2 = 16
So, desired = 16 5 = 80
39. D
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
z3 – 8 = 0 (z – 2)(z2 + 2z + 4) = 0 z = 2 and z2 + 2z + 4 = 0 z 1 3 i
and z3 – 8z2 – 8z + 64 = 0 (z2 – 8)(z – 8) = 0 z 2 2, 2 2, 8
Maximum distance is from 8 and 1 3 i i.e. 2 21
40. B
Sol. [x]{x} = ax2
Case-I: [x]·{x} < 0 where x < 0 while ax 2 0 x R and x = 0 is one solution but that does not
affect the sum of the solution
Thus we need to look at (+ve) solutions for n x < n + 1
[x] = n, {x} = x – n equation is nx – n2 = ax2
n n2 4an2 1 1 4a
ax2 – nx + n2 = 0 x n
2a 2a
n
For (+ve) roots we consider x = 1 1 4a
2a
Since, sum of all solutions is 420
n 1 1 4a
1 1 4a = 420 n 420
2a 2a
1 1 4a n n 1 1 1 4a
420 406 420
2a 2 2a
n n1
(Considering n is 28 i.e. 406 at n = 28 which is nearer to 420)
2
29
a=
900
41. A, B, C
Sol. Let Q(x) = P(x2 + 4x – 7) Q(1) = P(–2) = 0 P(x) = a(x + 2)(x – )
Now, Q(x) = P(x2 + 4x – 7) = a(x2 + 4x – 5)(x2 + 4x – 7 – )
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Q(x) = a(x – 1)(x + 5)(x2 + 4x – (7 + ))
As Q(x) has at least one repeated root, this must be x = 1 or x = –5
2 2
Q(x) = a((x – 1)(x + 5)) or x + 4x – (7 + ) = 0 has double roots if D = 0, = –11
2
Q(x) = a(x – 1)(x + 5)(x + 2)
42. A, C
n
1 n 1
1 1 n 1 n r !r! n 1
n r n 1 r !r!
Sol. bn n
r 0 Cr
n n
r 0 Cr Cn
= r 0 n!
1 =
r 0 n
n 1!
1
1 n 1 n r
n 1 1 ..... (1)
n r 0 Cr
1 n 1 n n 1 r
n1 1
n r 0 Cn 1r
1 n1 r 1
1 ..... (2)
n r 0 n1 Cr
1 n1 n r r 1
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get 2bn n 1 2
n r 0 Cr
n 1 n 1 1 n1
1 bn 1 1
2n r 0 n 1 Cr 2n
43. B, D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Let position vector R is a and position A a
vector of S is b
r a
Vector RS a b taking dot product R
of RS with and we will get or and then
the position vector R and S
S
B b
r b
44. B, D
Sol. P(A) = 0.4, P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A B) = 0.6 A B
P(B) = 0.5, P(A B) = 0.3
P A B 0.3 1
P E1
P A B 0.6 2 0.1 0.3 0.2
P A B P A B 0.1 0.2 1
P E2
PA B 0.6 2
0.4
A
P A B 0.3 3 B 0.3 3
P ; P
B P B 0.5 5 A 0.4 4
A P A 0.4 2 P B 0.5 5
P ;
A B P A B 0.6 3 P A B 0.6 6
45. B, D
n+1
Sol. An is non-singular for all n and det An = (–1) ·n!
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Yash Patil
AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
46. A, B, C, D
1 1 n! 1 n 1! 1
Sol. For r 0, C22 Cr = Cr n 1 Cr 1 n C r
r 1 r 1 r! n r ! n 1 r 1! n r ! n 1
1 n 2n 1!
Thus, S S1 where S1 n 1 Cr 1 n Cr =
n 1 r 0 n! n 1!
1
2n 1 !
2n 1 ! 1
S 2n 2 Cn1
n 1 n! n 1! n 1 ! 2 2n 2
Section – B
47. 2
y y3 4029y2 3 2
Sol. Let x i.e. is 2 0 y – 4029y + 4028 = 0
2014 2014 2014
(y – 1)(y2 – 4028y – 4028) = 0 it is observed as y = 1, is middle root
1 4028
Therefore, x2(x1 + x3) = 2
2014 2014
48. 7
x17 1
Sol. Let 217 = x given equation is x16 x15 x14 ..... x1 x0
x 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Now, consider (x16 – x15) = x15(x – 1) = x15(217 – 1)
Since, 217 – 1 = 216 + 215 + ..... + 1 Total 17 terms
So, there are 8 such pair like x 14 – x13 and so on
So, total is 17 8 + 1 = 137, 1 is for x0
49. 1
Sol. As a subset with less than 3 chairs cannot contain 3 adjacent chair, these are only 10 sets of 3
chairs so that they are all 3 adjacent there are 10 subsets of 4 chairs where all r adjacent and 10
5 = 50, where there are only 3
If there are 5 chairs, 10 have all 5 adjacent 10 4 = 40 have 4 adjacent and 10 5 C2 100 have
3 adjacent with 6 chairs in the subset
10 have all 6 adjacent, 10 3 = 30 have 5 adjacent, 10 4 C2 60 have 4 adjacent
10 3
15 have 2 groups of 3 adjacent chairs and 10 5 C2 3 70 have 1 group of 3
2
adjacent chairs. All possible subsets with more than 6 chairs have at least 1 group of 3 adjacent.
So adding all it is total = 581
50. 7
Sol. First Solution:
2 in an bn i square the given equality 3 4in an bni 2 an2 bn2 2anbni
n
1 n
anbn 1 lm 3 4i 1 1 7
So, anbn lm 3 4i lm
2 n 0 7
n
2 7n
2 3 4i 16
1
7
Second Solution:
2 1 1
2i 5 i 5 cos isin tan1
2 5 2
n
ab
cosn sinn 5n
2 i 5 cos isinn n n n =
n
n 0 7 n 0 7n
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
n n n
1 5 1 5 i2n 1 5 i2 n
= sin 2n = lm e = lm e is a Geometric Progression
2 7 2 7 2 n0 7
1 1 1 1 1 7 7 1 7 7
lm lm lm i =
2 5 2 5 2 8 8 2 8 16
1 e 2 i 1 cos 2 isin2
7 7
51. 9
Sol. The given sequence 4, 7, 1, 8, 9, 7, 6, 3, 9, 2, 1, 3, 4, 7, 1 .....
So, after 12th terms the separation of numbers starts and the sum of 12th terms is
4 + 7 + ..... + 1 + 3 = 60
10,000
Since, Sn > 10,000 166 and 166 12 = 1992
60
So, S1992 = 60 166 = 9960 9960 + 4 + 7 + 1 + 8 + 9 + 7 = 9996 + 6 = 10,000
S1999 > 10,000
52. 4
Sol. Let = cos + i sin ; z = 10(cos + i sin )
z 1 1
cos isin 1 . Let x = –
z 10 10
sin x 1 99
tan , maximum occurs at cos x , sin x
cos x 10 10 10
TG ~ @bohring_bot
tan2
1
99
53. 3
1 499
Sol. Set of these rational numbers in from to
999 501
There are 499 numbers between 501 and 999 249 numbers are divisible by 2
99 numbers are divisible by 5 49 numbers are divisible by 10
So, by inclusion/exclusion 499 – 249 – 99 + 49 = 200
54. 7
3 32 33 1
Sol. lim 18 2 4 6 ..... 18 9
n 3 4 3 1
3 1
3
2 22 1 9 12
m lim 12 2 4 ..... 12 12 A n 7
n 2 2 1 3
2 1
2
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Co-ordinates of the centre of mass of a sector of uniform circular y
disc of radius R and of mass m and subtends an angle 0 at it’s
centre as shown in figure are
0 x
O
0 0
2R sin 2 2R 1 cos 2 2R sin 0 2R 1 cos 0
(A) , ,0 (B) , ,0
3 0 3 0 3 0 3 0
2 2
4R sin 0 4R cos 0 4R sin 0 2R 1 cos 0
(C) , ,0 (D) , ,0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 0 3 0 3 0 3 0
2. Two blocks A & B of mass ‘m’ & 2m respectively are joined to m k 2m
the ends of an under formed massless spring of spring F 2F
A B
constant ‘k’. They can move on a horizontal smooth surface.
Initially A & B has velocities ‘u’ towards left and ‘2u’ towards
right respectively. Constant forces of magnitudes F and 2 F
are always acting on A and B respectively in the directions
shown. The maximum extension in the spring during the
motion is
4F 16F2 54mu2k 4F 16F2 54mu2k
(A) x max (B) x max
3k 3k
4F 16F2 54mu2k 4F 16F2 54mu2k
(C) x max (D) x max
3k 3k
3. All spheres are identical of radius R and initially uncharged, S1 is closed at t = 0, leaving all other
switches open. After sufficiently long time S1 opened and S2 is closed. The process is done till
Sn–1 is opened and Sn is closed. Net loss of energy of system after t = 0 if process is done for
infinite number of spheres, is
S1 S2 S S4
3
20
(A) 0RV 2 (B) 20RV 2
6
8
(C) 0RV 2 (D) Zero
3
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
4. As shown in figure a conducting rod AB is attached to
wooden disc of radius R and disc is in pure rolling with linear
velocity v, find net emf developed across rod of length r as a
function of time. Initial position of rod is shown in figure.
Magnetic field is B and is directed into the plane.
v
(A) 2 BvR 1 sin t (B) zero
R
BvR v BvR v
(C) 1 2 cos t (D) 1 2 sin t
2 R 2 R
5. A horizontal conducting rod is kept in vertical plane is supported by two non-conducting springs
as shown. A uniform magnetic field is directed outward rod initially at rest in equilibrium position
and t=0 it is given velocity v0 in downward direction. Which of the following graphs represent
potential difference across to ends of the rod.
K K B0
A
M
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
L
v0
(A) VA-VB (B) VA-VB
(C) VA-VB (D) V A-VB
6. A non uniform cylinder of mass m, length ℓ and radius r is having its centre of mass at a distance
ℓ/4 from the centre and lying on the axis of the cylinder. The cylinder is kept in a liquid of uniform
density . The moment of inertia of the rod about the centre of mass is I. The angular acceleration
of point A relative to point B just after the rod is released from the position shown in figure is
g 2r 2 g 2r 2
(A) (B)
l 4I
g 2r 2 3g2r 2
(C) (D)
2I 4I
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AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
7. A solid cone of uniform density and height 2R and the base
A
radius R has a conical portion scooped out from its base with
the same base radius but height R as shown in the figure. The
C
solid cone is floating in a liquid of density r with vertex A 2R
touching the fluids surface. If atmospheric pressure is P0, the R
force acting on the surface BCD due to liquid is B D
R3g 2P0 R3 g 3P
(A) 2 (B) 5 0
3 Rg 3 Rg
R3g 3P R3g 3P
(C) 1 0 (D) 4 0
3 Rg 3 Rg
8. A particle is projected from the surface of the earth (of radius Re
GMe
and mass Me) with speed equal to , at certain angle from
Re
local horizontal as shown in the figure such that the angle Re
subtended by arc between launching & landing site at earth’s
centre is = 90. Calculate the maximum separation of the particle from the centre of the earth.
Consider earth to be uniformly dense and air resistance to be absent.
TG
~ @bohring_bot
(A) Re2 (B) Re(2+1)
(C) Re
2 1 (D) Re
2 1
2 2 1
9. A satellite is moved from one circular orbit around the earth, to another of lesser radius. Which of
the following statement is true?
(A) The kinetic energy of satellite increases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite-earth
system increases;
(B) The kinetic energy of satellite increases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite-earth
system decreases;
(C) The kinetic energy of satellite decreases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite-
earth system decreases;
(D) The kinetic energy of satellite decreases and the gravitational potential energy of satellite-
earth system increases.
10. The diagram shows an equilateral cyclic process on a PV
diagram. The ratio of maximum pressure to minimum pressure
is 2. The maximum temperature in the process is T1. The work
done by the two moles of ideal gas in the cyclic process is
equal to
R2 T12 R2 T12
(A) (B)
3V12 V12
3R2 T12 3 R2 T12
(C) (D)
V12 2 V12
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
11. The surface temp of a small planet having a circular orbit round the sun with time period T
assuming sun and the planet to be black bodies. Take radius of sun = R mass of sun = M,
surface temp of the sun Q0 is :
R Rr
(A) 0 (B) 0
2r 2
R–r R
(C) 0 (D) 0
2 r
12. In a sample of rock, the ratio of 206Pb to 238U nuclei is found to be 0.5. The age of the rock is.
(Assume that all the Pb nuclides in the rock was produced due to the decay of Uranium nuclides
238 9
and T1/ 2 ( U) 4.5 10 year).
(A) 2.25 × 109 year (B) 4.5 × 109 ln 3 year
ln 32 3
(C) 4.5 × 109 year (D) 2.25 × 109 ln year
ln 2 2
13. A body of mass m0 is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. The mass of the body is decreasing
exponentially with disintegration constant . Assuming that the mass is ejected backwards with
relative velocity u. initially the body was at rest. The velocity of it after time t :
(A) u t (B) u e–t
t
(C) u e (D) none of these
14.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A point object is moving with a velocity, v 0 2i 3j 4k
; in front of a moving plane mirror
whose normal is along x-axis. The mirror is moving with a velocity i 4j 3k
. The velocity vector
of the image is given by
(A) 15j 3k
(B) 3j 4k
(C) j 2k
(D) 2i 3j 2k
15. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of wavelength in the same phase are placed parallel to
each other at a small separation of 2. The light is collected on screen which is placed at a
distance D (>> ) from the slit S1 as shown in figure.
P
x
S1 S2
O
2
D
Screen
(A) The finite distance x such that the intensity at P is equal to the intensity at O is 3D
3
(B) The finite distance x such that the intensity at P is equal to the intensity at O is D
2
(C) There is no point on the screen at which the intensity at P is equal to intensity at O
(D) The finite distance x such that the intensity at P is equal to the intensity at O is 2D
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16. Time period of small oscillations of a uniform hemispherical shell of radius R and mass m is
2 5R 2 5R
(A) 2 (B) 2
3g g
5R 5R
(C) 2 (D) 2
2g 3g
17. A siren is placed at a railway platform is emitting sound of frequency 10 KHz. A passenger sitting
in a moving train A records frequency of 11 kHz, while the train approaches the siren. During his
return journey in a different train B he records a frequency of 12 KHz while approaching the same
siren. Ratio of velocity of train B to that of train A is
242
(A) 2 (B)
252
6 11
(C) (D)
5 6
18.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The pressure of an ideal gas varies according to the law P = P0 – AV2 where P0 and A are
positive constants. The highest temperature that can be attained by the gas is
P P0 2P0 P0
(A) 0 (B)
nR 3A nR 3A
2P0 P0 2P0 P0
(C) (D)
3nR 3A 3nR A
19. An aircraft is flying horizontally with a constant velocity = 200
m/s, at a height = 1 km above the ground. At the moment shown,
a bomb is released from the aircraft and the cannon-gun below
fires a shell with initial speed = 200 m/s, at some angle . For
1 km
what value of ‘’ will the projectile shell destroy the bomb in mid
air?
(A) = 15° (B) = 30°
(C) = 45° (D) = 60° 3 km
20. ‘Q’ charge is uniformly distributed over the surface of a right circular cone
of semi-vertical angle and height h. The cone is uniformly rotated about
its axis at angular velocity . Magnetic moment associated with the cone is
found to be h
Qh2 tan2
(A) (B) Qh2 tan2
2
Qh2 tan2 Qh tan R
(C) (D)
4 2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A thin sheet of metal of uniform thickness is cut into the shape y
bounded by the line x = a and y = ± kx 2, as shown.
na y=kx2
If the x-coordinate of the centre of mass is then find n.
12 x
a
y= – kx2
22. In figure there is four way key at the middle. If key is thrown from situation BD to AC, then charge
q
flowing through point is q0. Value of 0 is ………
12
3V
A B
O
4 F
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4 F
D C
6V
23. A fixed container of height ‘H’ with large cross-sectional area ‘A’ is completely filled with water.
Two small orifices of cross-sectional area ‘a’ are made, one at the bottom and the other on the
vertical side of the container at a distance H/2 from the top of the container. The time taken by the
XA H
water level to reach a height of H/2 from the bottom of the container is
3
2 1 g
. Find the
value of X.
24. A wire forming a loop is dipped into soap solution and taken out, so that a film of soap solution is
formed. A loop of 6.28 cm long thread is gently put on the film is pricked with a needle inside the
-4
loop. The thread loop takes the shape of a circle. Find the tension in the thread in (10 N).
Surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N/m.
25. A solid copper sphere (density and specific heat C) of radius r at an initial temperature 200 K is
suspended inside a chamber whose walls are almost at 0 k. the time required for the temperature
x rc
of sphere to drop to 100 K is found to be 10 6 sec . The value of x is.
72
26. A ball is projected horizontally from an incline so as to strike a cart v 0 = 10 m/s
Sliding on a
sliding on the incline. Neglect height of cart and point of projection of frictionless
ball above incline. At the instance the ball is thrown, the speed of cart incline
6m
is ‘v’ (in m/s). Find ‘v’ so that the ball strikes the cart.
o
= 37
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27. If the frequency of k x – ray emitted from the element with atomic number 31 is f, if the frequency
25
of k X- ray emitted from the element with atomic number 51 is given by f then x will be ?
x
28. In the given figure, a ray is incident on the plane mirror
as shown. The reflected ray strike the screen at Q. the normal 3m
Plane
mirror now starts, rotating about axis passing through P mirror
o
and perpendicular to plane of paper with angular speed 60
/180 rad/second. If the speed of point at which
k
reflected ray strike the screen is m/second at time
15 incident ray
t = 15 second, find the value of k. Q
screen
29. A horizontally oriented copper rod of lengthl is rotated about a vertical axis passing through its
1 X
middle. Frequency at which the rod ruptures when rotated at . Breaking or breaking
2 l 2
force of copper takes as and density of copper . Find X .
A TG ~ @bohring_bot
F F +
d
x
dx
30. In the figure, find the velocity of m 1 in ms–1 when m2 falls by 9m.
Given m1 = m =0.1 m1
m2 = 2m
(take g = 10 ms–2)
m2
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The conductivity measurement of a coordination compound of Cobalt (III) shows that it
dissociates into 3 ions in solution. The compound is
(A) Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (B) Pentaamminesulphatocobalt(III) chloride
(C) Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) sulphate (D) Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
32. Which is the major product obtained by hydrolysis of compound formed by reaction between
formaldehyde and ethyl magnesium bromide?
(A) Ethan-1-ol (B) Propan-2-ol
(C) Propan-1-ol (D) 2-Methyl-propan-2-ol
33. The total number of isomeric linear dipeptide which can be synthesized from racemic alanine is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
34. The charge carried by 1 millimole of Mn+ ions is 193 coulombs. The value of n is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
35. The molecule/molecules that has/have delocalised lone pair(s) of electrons is/are
O
OCH3
(I) H3C CH 2
O
N
C
(II) H3C CH 2
OCH 3
(III)
(IV) CH3CH = CHCH2CH3
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV
(C) I and III (D) only III
36. Which one of the following electronic arrangements is absurd?
(A) n = 3, = 1, m = –1 (B) n = 3, = 0, m = 0
(C) n = 2, = 0, m = –1 (D) n = 2, = 1, m = 0
37. In order to oxidise a mixture one mole of each of FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in
acidic medium , the number of moles of KMnO4 required is -
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 1.5
38. Which one of the following is likely to give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution ?
(A) (CH3)3CCl (B) CHCl3
(C) CH2 = CH – Cl (D) CCl4
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39. 1 g of non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100g of two different solvents A and B
whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling
points, is :
(A) 5 : 1 (B) 10 : 1
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 0.2
40. Among the following, the INCORRECT statement about colloids is :
(A) They can scatter light.
(B) They are large molecules and have high molar mass.
(C) The range of diameters of colloidal particles is between 1 and 1000 nm.
(D) The osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of higher order than the true solution for same
weight of solute per litre solution.
41. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the centre of the edge of body centred
cubic unit cell is :
(Edge length is represented by 'a') :-
(A) 0.134 a (B) 0.027 a
(C) 0.067 a (D) 0.047 a
42. The major product of the following reaction is:
O
OEt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
i Ni H
ii DIB AL H
2
CN
(A) H (B)
N
O
CHO
(C) (D)
NH OH
NH2
43. Three complexes, [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (I),
[Co(NH3)5H2O]3+ (II) and [Co(NH3)6]3+ (III)
absorb light in the visible region. The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by them is:
(A) (III) > (I) > (II) (B) (I) > (II) > (III)
(C) (II) > (I) > (III) (D) (III) > (II) > (I)
44. The major product of the following reaction is :
HO
1 HCl
2 AlCl3 Anhyd.
(A) Cl (B) HO
CH3
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
(C) (D)
HO
Cl
45. The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical smog is :
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Acrolein
(C) Ozone (D) Nitrogen oxides
46. NaH is an example of :
(A) Electron-rich hydride (B) Molecular hydride
(C) Saline hydride (D) Metallic hydride
47. For the reaction of H2 with I2, the rate constant is 2.5 × 10–4dm3 mol–1 s–1 at 327°C and 1.0 dm3
mol–1 s–1 at 527°C. The activation energy for the reaction, in kJ mol–1 is:
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
(A) 72 (B) 166
(C) 150 (D) 59
TG ~ @bohring_bot
48. Which of the following order is incorrect :
(A) Ionic character – MCl > MCl2 > MCl3
(B) Polarizability – F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
(C) Polarising power– Na+ < K+ < Mg+2 < Al+3
(D) Polarising power – Li+ < Be+2 < B+3
(i) Li (CH3 ) 2 CHCH 2Br
49. (CH3)2CHBr A B
(ii) CuI
'B' is -
(A) (CH3)2CHCH2CH3
(B) (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2
(C) (CH3)2CHCH2CH(CH3)2
(D) (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH(CH3)2
50. Calculate the potential of an indicator electrode versus the standard hydrogen electrode, which
originally contained 0.1 M MnO 4 and 1.72 M H+ and which was treated with Fe2+ necessary to
reduce 90% of KMnO4 to Mn2+
E0 1.51V
MnO4 /Mn 2
(A) 1.4 V (B) 1.5 V
(C) 1.6 V (D) 1.3 V
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. An adiabatic container fitted with a movable adiabatic piston (operating at 1 atm) is filled with 2
litre of 2M H2O2(aq) solution at 300 K. If H2O2 dissociates following first order decay with a half
life of 10min then value of [Magnitude of change in internal energy (in cal) ÷ 100] in first 20 min
will be
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52. Number of compounds which are planar ?
– –
XeF2, ClF3, H2O, [XeF5] , I3 , BCl3, XeF4, SF4, PCl5, SF6, IF7.
53. In how many reactions the 1st reaction is faster than 2nd reaction?
CF3CH 2O CH3CH 2O
(P) CH3 CH 2 Br
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(Q) (Alkene) C 2 H 5 O (Alkene)
(CH3 )3 CBr/ (CH3 ) 2 CHCH 2Br/
(R) (1) (2)
aqueous acetone
Br Br
(1) (2)
(S) HI OH lucas reagent
54. The number of stereoisomers of the product obtained in the following reaction is :
Ph
Ph CH CH O
| H2N – NH Et H
Me
( ) Me
(+)
55. Na2SO3, NaCl, Na2C2O4, Na2HPO4, Na2CrO4, NaNO2, CH3COONa are separately treated with
TG ~ @bohring_bot
AgNO3 solution. In how many cases white ppt. is/are obtained?
56. A sample consisting of choclate-brown powder of PbO2 is allowed to react with excess of KI and
iodine liberated is reacted with N2H4 in another container. The volume of gas liberated from this
second container at STP was measured out to be 1.12 litre. Find out volume of decimolar NaOH
(in litre) required to dissolve PbO2 completely. (Assume all reactions are 100% complete)
A
57. The ionization energy of the Be3+ ion with the electron in its ground state is 2.10×10 kJ/mol. Find
the value of A.
58. By how many times the absolute temperature of a gas when Urms of a gas in a container of fixed
volume is increased from 5 × 104 cm/sec to 10 × 104 cm/sec
59. A sample of HI(g) is placed in flask at a pressure of 0.2 atm. At equilibrium, the partial pressure
of HI(g) is 0.04 atm. What is KP for the given equilibrium ? 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
60. In 100 ml sample of hard water, 100 ml of (N/50) Na2CO3 was added and the mixture was boiled
and filtered. The filtrate was neutralized with 60 ml of (N/50) HCl. Calculate the permanent
hardness of water (in ppm).
(sp. gr. of hard water = 1).
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. A triangle is formed by the lines whose combined equation is given by
x y 4 xy 2x y 2 0 The equation of its circumcircle is
(A) x 2 y 2 5 x 3y 8 0 (B) x 2 y 2 3x 5y 8 0
(C) x 2 y 2 3x 5y 8 0 (D) None of these
62. Two circles, each of radius 5, have a common tangent at (1,1) whose equation is 3x + 4y – 7 = 0.
Then their centres are
(A) (4, -5), (-2, 3) (B) (4, -3), (-2, 5)
(C) (4, 5), (-2, -3) (D) None of these
63. If p and q be the longest distance and the shortest distance respectively of the point (-7, 2) from
any point (, ) on the curve whose equation is x 2 y 2 10 x 14y 51 0, then G.M. of p and
q is equal to
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 2 11 (B) 5 5
(C) 13 (D) None of these
64. Through the point (13, 31) a straight line is drawn to meet the axes of X and Y at Q and S
respectively. If the rectangle OQRS is completed, the co-ordinates of R satisfy the equation.
13 31 31 13
(A) 1 (B) 1
x y x y
13 31 31 13
(C) 1 (D) 1.
x y x y
65. The normal chord of parabola, which sub-stends right angle at vertex is inclined at an angle to
the axis of parabola. Find the value of ?
1
(A) tan1 (B) tan1 7
2
(C) (D) tan1 2
3
66. A ray of light travelling along the line y = k from the positive direction of x-axis strikes a concave
2
mirror, whose intersection with xy plane is parabola y = 4ax. Find the equation of line along
which the reflected ray will travel. Assume ‘a’ and ‘k’ are positive.
(A) k 2 4a2 y 4ak x a (B) k 2 4a2 y 4ak x a
(C) x a (D) x 2a
67. TP and TQ are tangents drawn to a parabola from the point T and P1, P2 and P3 are the lengths
of perpendicular from P, T and Q respectively on any tangent to the curve. Then
(A) P1, P2, P3 are in A.P (B) P1, P2, P3 are in G.P
1 1 a
(C) P1, P2, P3 are in H.P (D) (4a is latus rectum)
P1 P2 P2
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Yash Patil 14
x2 y 2
68. Any point P on the ellipse 1 is joined to its centre O. The locus of mid-point of OP is
a2 b2
x2 y 2 1 x2 y 2 1
(A) (B) 2 2
a2 b2 2 a b 4
x2 y2 a 2
b 2
(C) 2 2 2 (D) 2 2 1
a b x y
69. If the normal at any point P on an ellipse of eccentricity ‘e’ meets the major axis and minor axis at
T and G respectively, then PT : PG is equal to
(A) e (B) 1 : e
2 2
(C) (1 – e ) : 1 (D) (1 – e ) : e
C
70. For a certain value of c, lim x 5 7 x 4 2 x is finite & non zero. The value of c and the
x
value of the limit is
(A) 1/5, 7/5 (B) 0, 1
(C) 1, 7/5 (D) none of these
x 2 x 2 5 e3 x dx e3 x Ax 3 Bx 2 Cx D then the statement which is incorrect is
3
71. If
(A) C + 3D = 5 (B) A + B + 2/3 = 0
(C) 3C + 2B = 0 (D) A + B + C = 0
72. Let I1 = TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
0
2
e x sin( x )dx; I2 =
2
0
2
e x dx ; I3 =
2
e
0
x2
(1 x ) dx
and consider the statements
I I1 < I2 II I2 < I3 III I1 = I3
Which of the following is(are) true?
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Neither I nor II nor III (D) Both I and II
73. If the function f(x) = 2 tan x + (2a + 1)ln |sec x| + (a –2)x is increasing in 0, then range of ‘a’
2
equal to
(A) (–, 0] (B) [0, 1]
(C) [0, 3] (D) [0, )
7 5 x2 3
74. The maximum value of sec-1 is:
2 x 2
2
5 5
(A) (B)
6 12
7 2
(C) (D)
12 3
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
75. Suppose p, q, r 0 and system of equations
p a x by cz 0
ax q b y cz 0
ax by r c z 0
a b c
has a non-trivial solution, then value of is
p q r
(A) -1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2
2 2
76. If the system of equations ax + hy + g = 0, hx + by + f = 0 and ax + 2hxy + by + 2gx + 2fy + c + t
= 0 has a unique solution, then
(A) t = 1 (B) t = 0
2 2 2
abc 2fgh af bg ch 1
(C) t 2
(D) t 2
h ab h ab
77. Let p and q be the position vectors of P and Q respectively, with respect to O and
p p, q q. The points R and S divide PQ internally and externally in the ratio 2 : 3
respectively. If OR and OS are perpendicular, then
(A) 9p2 = 4q2 (B) 4p2 = 9q2
(C) 9p = 4q (D) 4p = 9q
78.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Then is equal to
If d (a b) (b c) (c a) and [a,b,c] 1
(A) d.( a b c ) (B) a b c
(C) 1 (D) none of these
16 x2
79. Area of the region bounded by the curve y and y = sec-1 [– sin2 x] (where [.] denotes
4
the greatest integer function) is
1 3/ 2 3/2
(A) 4 (B) 8 4
3
8 3/ 2 8
(C) 4 (D) 4 1/ 2
3 3
80. A contest consists of predicting the results (win, draw or defeat) of 10 football matches. The
probability that one entry contains at least 5 correct answers is
12585 12385
(A) (B)
310 310
9385
(C) (D) none of these
310
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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
81. If sinx + cosx + tanx + cot x + secx + cosecx = 7 and sin2x = a – b 7 , where a, b are rational ,
ab
then is
10
82. If tanx – tan2x = 1, then the value of tan4x – 2tan3x – tan2x + 2tanx + 1 is
x2 y2 4
83. The hyperbola 1 passes through (4, 2) and length of latus rectum is , the angle
a2 b2 3
6
between asymptotes is then is
84. Co-ordinates of points common to hyperbola 25x2 – 9y2 = 225 and 25x + 12y = 45 is (x1, y1) then
3 x1 y1 is
85. For x satisfying log1/ (6x+1 – 36x) – 2, x ( , a] [logb c, ) then a + b + c is
86.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
S.D of a data is 6. When each observation is increased by 1, then the S.D of new data is
1
ln( x 1)
2
87. Let u = dx and v = ln(sin2x ) dx then 4u + v =
0 x2 1 0
88. Let f(x) = Max. (cos x, x, 2x –1) where x 0. Then number of points of non-differentiability of f(x),
is equal to
a
89. If a1 is the value of a for which function f(x) = x 2 has a local minimum at x = 2 and a2 is the
x
a a
value of a for which f(x) has a point of inflection at x = 1, then 1 2 is equal to
3
90. If n positive integers are taken at random and multiplied together, then the probability that the last
an bn
digit of the product is 2, 4, 6 or 8 is then a + b + c is equal to
Cn
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. B
0
sin
2 2
Sol. Centre of mass will be on angle bisector and distance is R
3 0
2
0
2 sin 2 0
x-coordinate = R cos
3 0 2
2
0
2 sin 2 0
y-coordinate = R sin
3 0 2
2
2. B
F F/3 2F/3
Sol. In frame of centre of mass a cm
3m m k 2m
F 2F
Work energy theorem in centre of mass frame A B
4F 4F 1 1 2 1
x1 x 2 k(x1 x 2 )2 m 2u 2m u2
3 3 2 2 2
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
3. B
Q2 1 1
Sol. H1
2 C 2C
Q2 1 1
H2
2 2C 3C
...............................
...............................
Q2
1 1
Hn
nC n 1 C
2
Q 2 C2 V 2 CV 2
H H1 H2 ......
2C 2C 2
2
2 0RV
4. D
Sol. Add linear and Angular
BL2 BvR
EMF
2 2
BvR sin t B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
5. A
Sol. Velocity will be sinusoidal function of time.
6. B
Sol. Torque about CM; Fb
CM
Fb I
4
r 22g mg
4I
7. B
Sol. Upthrust on the complete solid cone B (2R)R 2g
3
2R 2g
FBase FC surface
3
2 2
F1 FCsurface 0 g(2R) R2 R g .......(1)
3
For remaining cone
F2 = B.Fʹ +F1
4
= R 2 2R R 3R g P0 R 2 R 3 g
3 3 3
3 3P
F1 = R g 5 0
3 Rg
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
8. C
Sol. Let length of semi major axis is a and eccentricity is e.
2
GMm 1 GMe GMem
m a = Re
Re
2 Re 2a
As the separation between ends of semi minor axis and focus is equal to length of semi major
axis we can say that launching and landing sites are ends of semi minor axis.
Re cos45 = ae e = 1/2
Then maximum separation will be a + ae = Re
2 1
2
9. B
Sol. In the circular motion around the Earth, the centripetal force on the satellite is a gravitational
2
force. Therefore, v = GM /R, where M is the mass of the Earth, R is the radius of the orbit of
satellite and G is the universal gravitational constant. Therefore, the kinetic energy increases with
the decrease in the radius of the orbit. The gravitational potential energy is negative and
decreases with the decrease in radius.
10. A
Sol. In equilateral DABC given that PA = 2 PC = P1
P /2
tan 600 = 1
v1 v
v1 v
TG ~ @bohring_bot
p1
2 3
1 P P2
Work done = area of triangle = 2x v1 v x 1 1
2 2 4 3
By ideal gas equation
p1v1 nRT1
nRT1
p1
V1
w
nRT1 2
n2R2 T12
4 3v12 4 3v12
N = 2 moles
R3 T12
W ork done =
3v12
11. A
Sol. For circular orbit,
GMm
2
mw 2r (r = radius of planet’s orbit)
r
2 3/2
2 GM 2 GMT
w = 3
= Þ r 2
r T 4
2 4
Energy radiated by the sun per second = s(4pR )q0
RP2
Energy received by the planet persecond = s(4pR2)q44
4 r 2
In thermal equilibrium
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
RP2
. 4R2 04
4r 2 2
. 4pRP
4
¯
Energy received
Energy radiated
by planet
by planet
R
0
2R
12. C
238
Sol. Let No be initial number of active nuclides of U
N Pb 1 No Noe t
1 t 1
Given e 1
N U 2 N o e t 2 2
3
ln
T ln(1.5) 2
t 1/ 2 4.5 109 year
ln 2 ln 2
13. A
Sol. m = m0 e–t
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Thrust force on the body is
dm dv
F ur m
dt dt
14. B
Sol. Along common normal I/o = 2i
I I o 0 along C.N.
o g g
Hence (B) is correct
15. A
Sol. S1P – S2P = 2 cos = , cos = ½ tan = x/D x = D tan60o
x=D 3
16. A
R
Sol. r
2
Using parallel axis theorem
I x I cm mr 2 twice
17. A
V VA
Sol. 11 10
V
V VB
12 10
V
Solve for ratio
VB
VA
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
18. C
Sol. PV = nRT
2
P = P0 – AV
(P0 – AV2)V = nRT
dT
P – 3 AV = nR dV
0
2
dT
Tmax 0
For dV
P0 2
V
3A P P A P0
0 3A
2P0 P0
Tmax
3nR 3A
PV = nRT
PV 2P0 P0
T
nR 3nR 3A
19. D
Sol. vb 200 i
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v s 200 cos i 200 sin
v bs 200 200 cos i 200 sin j
1
200 sin
3
200 200 cos
20. C
2
Sol.
d dq r
2
SECTION – B
21. 9
a
dm x 0 2kx dx x 3
2
9
Sol. x cm a a
dm 2 4 12
ka3
3
22. 6
Sol. Q0 C 1 2 2
Q0 72F
Q0 72
6 C
12 12
23. 2
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
24. 3
Sol. For a small arc subtending angle dθ at the centre the inward force due to tension in thread is
balanced by outward force due to surface tension
d
2T sin SRd
2
Td SRd
T = SR
25. 7
dQ dT
Sol. mc
dt dt
E AT 4
dT
mc
dt
A T 4 04 AT 4
dT A
dt
T4 mc
100 t
4 A
200
T dT
mc
dt
0
3 100
T A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
t
3 200
mc
100
mc 1
t
3A T 3 200
4 3
3 r c
1 1
3 4r 2 1003 2003
7 rc
10 6 sec.
72
26. 4
2 v 0 sin 37o 3
Sol. T sec
g cos 37o 2
2 2
3 1 3 3 1 3
V0 cos 37o × g sin 37o 6 V g sin 37o
2 2 2 2 2 2
V=4
27. 9
Sol. f a(Z 1)
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
28. 2
Sol. When incident ray is fixed the angular velocity of reflected
ray becomes twice in the same sense as that of reflected normal 3m
Plane
ray. After t = 15 sec, the mirror rotates 15° then reflected mirror 30o
ray rotates 30° in the same sense. 60o
o
3 60o 30
In ABC, cos 60
r
incident ray
r = 6m Q
Where = rad / sec .r 6m
screen
180
30o
Then, there are two components of velocity of spot on the
screen.
(a) radial component which increase the length of r i.e., 90o C
dr 60o V
Vs sin 60 2r s
dt
(b) perpendicular component
1 2
Vs cos 60 Vs 2 6 Vs m / s
2 180 15
29. 8
Sol. The stresses are zero at the free end and maximum at the axis. Therefore, the rod will ruptures at
the middle.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Let us consider the element of rod at a distance x from the axis, the mass of element
dm Adx
Applying Newton’s second law,
F F dF Adx 2 x
Where is the rotation speed.
x2
F dF A 2 C
2
Rupture of rod will occur when f
2l 2
8
8 1 8
2
n
l 2 l 2
30. 4
Sol. Applying work energy theorem
Kf – Ki = w m1
1 1
m 2v 2 m1(4v)2
2 2
m2g y m1g(4y)
v = 4 m/s.
T
m2 v
mg
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. D
Sol. Pentaammine chloride cobalt (III) chloride
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 [Co(NH3)5Cl–]+2 + 2Cl–
Gives 3 ions in aqueous solution.
32. C
Sol. O
I C H MgBr
2 2 5 C2H5–CH–OH
C
H H
33. D
Sol.
34. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Charge on 1 milimole Mn+ ions = 193 cb
n 96500
1000
193 1000
n 2
96500
35. D
Sol. In OCH 3 the lone pair of oxygen
get delocalised on the bond located on the next carbon.
36. C
Sol. Quantum number set n = 2, = 0, m = –1 it is not possible (not valid).
37. B
Sol. neq. KMnO4
= neq.[FeC2O4 + Fe2(C2O4)3 + FeSO4]
or n × 5 = 1 × 3 + 1 × 6 + 1 × 1
n = 2
38. A
Sol.
Reason : Due to most stable carbocation formation tert-butyl chloride given the ppt immediately.
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
39. C
Sol. Tb = Kb × m
Tb (A) K b (A)
as mA = mB
Tb (B) K b (B)
Tb (A) 1
Tb (B) 5
40. D
Sol. Colligative properties of colloidal solution are smaller than true solution.
41. C
Sol. a = 2 (R + r)
a
= (R + r) ...(1)
2
R r
TG ~ @bohring_bot
a 3 = 4R ...(2)
Using (1) & (2)
a a 3 2 3
r ; a r
2 4 4
r = 0.067 a
42. B
Sol. O
O
H2/Ni C – OEt
OEt
CN CH2NH2
DIBAL-H
O
C–H
N –H2O
CH2NH2
43. B
Sol. A complex having strong field ligand has tendency to absorb light of highest energy. Among the
three complexes [Co(NH3)6]+3 will absorb radiation of highest energy and least wavelength.
[Co(NH3)5H2O]3+ has field weaker than the above compound and therefore absorb radiation of
lesser energy and more wavelength.
[CoCl(NH3)5]2+ has the weakest field and therefore will absorb light of least energy and highest
wavelength.
Strength of ligand NH3 > H2O > Cl.
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
44. B
Sol. Reagent based
45. D
Sol. Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons (unburnt fuel) are primary pollutant that leads to
photochemical smog.
46. C
Sol. NaH is an example of ionic hydride which is also known as saline hydride.
47. B
Sol. H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g)
Apply Arrhenius equation
K2 Ea 1 1
log
K1 2.303R 600 800
1 Ea 200
log 4
2.5 10 2.303 8.31 600 800
Ea 166 kJ/mol
48. C
Sol. Polarisation power + ve charge
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 / Size of ion
49. C
(i) Li
Sol. (CH3)2CHBr
[(CH3 )2 CH]2 CuLi
(ii) CuI
(CH3 )2 CHCH 2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2–CH(CH3)2
50. B
Sol. MnO4– + Fe2+ + 8H+ Mn2+ + Fe3+
0.1M 1.72M
0.01 M 1.0M 0.09 M
0 0
E
RP (MnO 2 E RP (H /H )
4 /Mn ) 2
Permangnate electrode behave as cathode
E°cell = 1.51 V
Using Nernsts equation : (n = 5)
0.059 [MnO 4 ] [H ]8
E0 1.51 log
MnO4 /Mn 2 5 [Mn 2 ]
= 1.51 – 0.011 = 1.499 1.5V
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
51. 9
Sol. Initial moles of H2O2 = 2 × 2 = 4
Moles of H2O2 left after 20 min.
1
=4× = 1 (2 half lives)
22
Moles of H2O2 decomposed 20 min.
=4–1=3
1
H2O2 H2O + O
2 2
Moles of O2 formed during 20 min. = 3/2
3
RT
Volume change = 2
P
q = 0; U = W
W = –Pext (V2 – V1) = – Pext V
3
=– × 2 × 300 = – 900 Cal.
2
52.
Sol.
7
(i) TG ~ @bohring_bot
Planar molecules :
XeF2, ClF3, H2O, [XeF5]–, I3–, BCl3, XeF4.
(ii) SF4 – See- Saw shape
PCl5 – Trigonal bipyramidal
SF6 – Square bipyramidal
IF7 – Pentagonal bipyramidal
53. 3
CF CH O
3 2 3 2 CH CH O
Sol. (P) CH3 CH 2 Br
(1) (2)
In reaction 2nd Nucleophile is stronger.
(1)
(Q) (Alkene) C 2 H 5O
(CH3 )3 CBr/
(2)
(Alkene)
(CH3 )2 CHCH 2 Br/
In reaction 1st 3º alkyl halide
1>2
(R) In reaction 1st stable carbocation is formed
CH2
(Cyclopropyl methyl C+)
1>2
(S) In reaction 1st reagent in HI.
HI is more ionised, gives sufficient concentration of H+ ion and I+ is a good Nucleophile also.
>2
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
54. 4
Sol. The product is
Ph
Ph – CH – CH = N – NH Et
Me Me
I = (+, +) (E)
II = (+, +) (Z)
III = (–, +) (E)
IV = (–, +) (Z)
55. 5
AgNO
3 Ag SO white ppt.
Sol. Na2SO3 2 3
AgNO
3 AgCl white ppt.
NaCl
AgNO
3 Ag C O white ppt.
Na2C2O4 2 2 4
AgNO
3 Ag PO yellow ppt.
Na2HPO4 3 4
AgNO
3 Ag CrO red ppt.
Na2CrO4 2 4
AgNO
3 AgNO white ppt.
NaNO2 2
AgNO
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 CH COOAg white ppt.
CH3COONa 3
56. 2
Sol. PbO 2 4KI
PbI 2 I 2 2K 2O
N 2 H 4 2I 2 N 2 4HI
1.12
moles of N2 liberated 5 102 mole
22.4
sol mole of I2 reacted =5×10–2 × 2 = 10–1 mole
PbO2 2H 2O
Pb(OH) 4
Pb(OH) 4 2NaOH
Na 2 [Pb(OH)6 ]
Na2PbO2 mole of NaOH required = 10–1× 2
1
V 103 2 101
10
2
V 3 2000 mili litre = 2 litre
10
57. 4
Sol. The Be3+ ion has one electron in the 1s orbital (n = 1) in its ground state. Since beryllium has four
protons in its nucleus (Z = 4), the energy of the electron in the 1s orbital of Be3+ can be
calculated.
2
Z
E 2 (1310) kJ / mole
n
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
42
2 (1310) kJ / mole
1
= 2.10 × 104 kJ/mol
58. 4
3RT1
Sol. Urms at temp T1 =
M
3RT2
Urms at temp T2 =
M
U rms at temp.T2 T2
U rms at temp.T1 T1
10 104 T2 T2 4
or or
5 104 T1 T1 1
Temperature is to be increased 4 times.
59. 4
Sol. We can write, 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Initial pressure : 0.2 atm 0
Equilibrium partial pressure :
0.04 atm
0
(0.2 0.04) (0.2 0.04)
2 2
= 0.08 = 0.08
[H 2 ] [I 2 ] 0.08 0.08
Then, Kp = = 4.0
[HI]2 (0.04) 2
60. 400
Sol. Equivalents of Na2CO3 used
1
= (100 – 60) × 10–3 ×
50
Equivalent of Na2CO3 used = equivalent of Ca2+ or Mg2+ present in 100 ml of hard water
= equivalent of Ca2+ or Mg2+
present in 100 ml of hard water.
3 40 103 10 1 50
The amount of CaCO3 in 10 g of hard water = = 400 × 10–3 g
50
The amount of CaCO3 in 106 g of hard water
= 400 g.
Permanent hardness of water = 400 ppm.
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. B
Sol. x y 4 xy 2x y 2 0
x y 4 x 1 y 2 0
sides of the triangle are x y 4 0,x 1, y 2
triangle is right angled at (1, 2).
Hypotenuse is x + y = 4, whose ends are (1, 3), (2, 2).
21 2 3 3 5
circumcentre is , i.e. , .
2 2 2 2
1 2 2 1
circumradius 1 2 3 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
2 2
3 5 1
circumcircle is x y
2 2 2
9 25 1
x 2 y 2 3x 5y 0
4 4 2
x 2 y 2 3x 5y 8 0
62. C
Sol. Clearly (c) is the right choice.
length of the from (4, 5) upon 3x + 4y – 7 = 0 is
12 20 7 25
5
9 16 5
Also for (-2, -3).
63. A
Sol. The centre C of the circle is (5, 7)
and radius = 52 72 51 5 5
2 2
PC = 5 7 7 2 13
PA = 13 - 55
and PB = 13 + 55
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
p 13 5 5
q 13 5 5
G.M. of p,q pq 169 125 44 2 11.
64. A
Sol. Equation of any line through the given pt. (13, 31) is y – 31 = m (x – 13).
31
It meets the x – axis at Q 13 , 0 and y – axis at S (0, 31 – 13m)
m
31
the co – ordinates of R are (h, k), where h 13 , k 31 3m
m
(h – 13)(k – 31) = 31 13
13 31
hk 31h 13k 1
h k
13 31
Hence R satisfies 1.
x y
65. D
2 2 P(t1)
Sol. t 2 t1 slope of OP M
TG ~ @bohring_bot
t1 t1
2
slope of OQ N 0
t2
2 2
1 P(t2)
t1 t 2
So, t1 = 2
66. A
k2
Sol. The line y = k intersects parabola y2 = 4ax at point P , k
4a
k P
Slope of normal at P is m =
2a y=k
Slope of incident ray is O.
At slope of reflected ray is m, Normal
k a
m1
k 2a m 4ak
1
2a k k 2 4a2
1 m1
2a 2
y = 4ax
Equation of reflected ray is (k2 – 4a2)y = 4ak(x – a).
67. B
Sol. P(t1 ) Q(t2) T(at1t2, a(t1 + t2)
Let equation of tangent be x = 0
Hence
P1 at12 P2 at1t 2 P3 at 22
P1P3 P22 .
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
68. B
Sol. 2h
2
P(acos, b sin )
2h a cos cos 2
a
2 T(h, k)
2 2k
2k b sin sin
b
4h2 4k 2
2 1 O(0, 0)
a2 b
x2 y 2 1
a2 b2 4
69. C
Sol. A normal at P(a cos , b sin ) is
2 2
a x sec – by cosec = a – b
a2 b2 a2 b2
T cos , 0 G 0, sin
a a
2
b
PT 2 2 a2 sin2 b2 cos2
a
a2
PG2 2 a 2 sin2 b2 cos2
b
TG ~ @bohring_bot
b2
PT : PG 2 1 e2
a
70. A
c c
7 2 7 2
Sol. Lim x 5c 1 5 x Lim x x 5c 1 1 5 1
x x x x x x
This will be of the form × 0 only if
5c – 1 = 0 c = 1/ 5 substituting c = 1/5 , l becomes
1/5 7 2
Hence l lim x 1 x 1 where X 5
x x x
x 7 2 1 7
lim x 1 .... 1 lim x 5 .
x 5 x x x 5 5
1 7
Hence c and l
5 5
71. C
1 2 13
Sol. [Hint: A , B 1, C ; D ]
3 3 9
72. D
Sol. [Sol. since 0 < sin x < 1 and 1 + x > 1 in (0, /2)
hence I3 > I2 > I1
A and B are correct (D)]
73. D
Sol. Let f(x) = 2 tan x + (2a + 1) ln |sec x| + (a – 2)x
f’(x) = 2 sec2x + (2a + 1) tan x + (a – 2) = 2 tan2 x + (2a + 1) tan x + a
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
For f(x) to be increasing, f’(x) 0 x 0,
2
2 tan2 x 2a 1 tan x a 0x 0,
2
(1 2 tan x )(tan x a ) 0x 0,
2
Hence a 0. Ans
74. D
7 5 x2 3
Sol. Find maximum of
2 x 2
2
75. A
Sol. Since given system of equation has a non – trivial solution.
p a b c
a q b c 0
a b r c
p q 0
Operate R1 – R2 and R2 – R3, we get 0 q r 0
a b r c
p
q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
b r c
r
c b a
a
q
q
0
r
0 p qr qc br a qr 0
a b c
1 0 1.
r q p p q r
76. C
2
Sol. Clearly ab h 0 [ first two equations are solvable for x, y]
Third equation can be written as
x (ax + hy + g) + y (hx + by + f) + gx + fy + c + t = 0
Since any solution of first two must be sol. of the third equation.
given system of equations can be written as
ax + hy + g = 0
hx + by + f = 0
gx + fy + c + t = 0
Since the above system of equations are consistent
a h g a h g a h 0
h b f 0 h b f h b 0 0
g f c t g f c g f t
abc 2 fgh af 2
bg 2 ch 2 t ab h
2
0
2 2 2
abc 2 fgh af bg ch
t
(h 2 ab )
77. A
2q 3 p 2q 3 p
Sol. OR
23 5
2q 3 p 2q 3 p
OS
23 1
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AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
Since OR OS OR .OS 0
2q 3 p 2q 3 p
. 0
5 1
2 2
4q 9 p
0 4 q 2 9 p 2 0 9 p2 4q 2
5
78. A
Sol. Now d . (a b c ) d .a d .b d .c
( b c .a ) ( c a .b ) ( a b .c )
[ ( a , b, c ) 1]
Hence v d . ( a b c )
79. C
Sol. 0 sin2 x 1 sin2 x 0 or 1
But sec-1 (0) is not defined
y = sec-1 [-sin2x] = sec-1 (-1) =
16 x 2
Solving with y = , 16 x2 4
4
x 2 4
2 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16 x 2 8 3/2
Required area = dx 4
2 4
4 3
80. A
10
Sol. The total no. of ways of predicting the result is 3 . The no. of ways in which exactly K results are
correct is 10 C K . 210 K
the no. of favourable ways is
10
C5 . 25 10 C6 . 24 10 C 7 . 23 10 C 8 . 22 10 C 9 . 2 10 C10 12585.
12585
Hence reqd . prob.
310
SECTION – B
81. 3
Sol. sinx + cosx + tanx + cotx + secx + cosecx = 7
1 sin x cos x
(sinx + cosx) + 7
sin x cos x sin x. cos x
2 2
(sinx + cosx) 1 7
sin 2x sin 2x
4 4 4 28
(1 + sin2x) 1 2
= 49 + 2
(squaring both sides)
sin 2 x sin 2x sin 2x sin 2 x
sin32x – 44 sin22x + 36 sin2x = 0
sin2x = 22 – 8 7 .
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-FT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
82. 4
4 3 2
Sol. tan x – 2 tan x – tan x + 2tanx + 1
4 2 3 2
tan x + tan x – 2tan x + 2tan x – 2tan x + 1
2 2 2
= (tan – tanx) + 2(tan x – tan x) + 1= 4.
83. 2
2ab 2b2
Sol. Use angle between asymptotes as tan1 2 2
& Latusrectum =
b a a
84. 5
Sol. It is point of contact of tangent
85. 11
Sol. x ( , 0] [log6 5, )
86. 6
Sol. S.D (and variance) of a data is not changed when each observation is increased (or decreased)
by the same constant.
87. 0
1
ln x 1
Sol. [u dx put x tan
x2 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
/4 /4 /4
1 tan 2
ln 1 tan d ln 1 1 tan d ln 1 tan d 4 ln 2 u
0 0 0
u ln2 4u ln2 ....(1)
8 2
/2 /2
1
Again v ln sin2 x dx put 2 x t ; v ln sin t dt ln sin t dx
0
2 0 0
v ln2 ...(2)
2
1 2 4u v 0 (C )]
88. 2
Sol. Using Graph number of points of non differentiability = 2 Ans.
89. 5
a
Sol. f’(x) = 2x –
x2
a
f '(2) 4 0 a 16 a1 16
4
2a
Also, f " x 2 3
x
f " 1 2 2a 0 a 1 a2 1
a a 15
Hence 1 2 5 Ans.
3 3
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Yash Patil 20
90. 11
Sol. The last digit of the product will be 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9 iff each of the n positive integer ends in
8 4
any of these digits. Now the probability of an integer ending in 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9 is
10 5
n
4
The prob. that the last digit of the product of n integers is 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9 = .
5
Next, the last digit of the product will be 1, 3, 7 or 9 iff each of the n + ve integers ends in 1, 3, 7
4 2
or 9 is
10 5
n
2
The prob. for the product of n + ve integer to end in 1, 3, 7 or 9 is
5
n n
4 2 4n 2n
Hence the prob. of the reqd. event =
5 5 5n
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-
II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE
of these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. A large insulating thick sheet of thickness 2d is charged with a uniform volume charge density ρ .
A particle of mass m, carrying a charge q having a sign opposite to that of the sheet, is released
from the surface of the sheet. The sheet does not offer any mechanical resistance to the motion
of the particle. Find the oscillation frequency v of the particle inside the sheet:
1 q 1 2q
(A) v= (B) v=
2 m 0 2 m 0
1 q 1 q
(C) v= (D) =
4 m 0 2 m 0
2. A charged particles with velocity v xiˆ yjˆ moves in a magnetic field B yiˆ xjˆ . The
magnitude of magnetic force acting on the particle is F. Which one of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
if
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
x y
(A) No force will act on particle if (B) F x y x y
(C) The force will act along z-axis if x y (D) The force will act along y-axis if x y
3. In a photoelectric effect experiment. If f is the frequency of radiations incident on the metal
surface and I is the intensity of incident radiations, then which of the following is/are correct.
(A) If ‘f’ is increased keeping ‘I’ and work function constant, stopping potential and maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectron increases.
(B) If distance between cathode and anode is increased, stopping potential remains same.
(C) If ‘I’ is increased keeping ‘f’ and work function constant, saturation current increases and
stopping potential remains same.
(D) If the work function is decreased keeping ‘f’ and ‘I’ constant then stopping potential will
increase and maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons also increases.
0.6
4. y x, t 2
is equation of moving pulse, where x and y are in meter t is in second,
2 x 5t 5
then:
(A) Pulse is moving in +x direction (B) It is a symmetric pulse
(C) Its maximum displacement is 0.8m (D) In 1 second it will travel a distance of 2.5 m
5. The speed v of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance x from a fixed
2 2
point on the line, is given by v 144 9 x . Select the correct option:
(A) Displacement of the particle distance moved by it
(B) The magnitude of acceleration at a distance 3 units from the fixed point is 27 units
π
(C) The motion is simple harmonic with T= units
3
(D) The maximum displacement from the fixed point is 4 units
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
6. A point charge q is placed within the cavity of an electrically
neutral conducting shell whose outer surface has spherical shape x
figure. Then: O P
q
r
(A) The potential V at point P lying outside the shell at a distance r from the centre O of the outer
surface depends upon the value of x.
(B) Potential at P does not depend upon the value of x.
(C) A total charge q will be induced on the outer surface of the shell which will be distributed
uniformly on the outer surface.
(D) A total charge -q will be induced on the inner surface of the shell, which will be distributed
non-uniformly on the inner surface.
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. In the figure shown a conducting spherical shell of inner radius
x and outer radius y is concentric with a larger conducting
x
spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The inner O y
TG ~ @bohring_bot
shell has a total charge +3Q and the outer shell has a total a
charge +5Q. Let r be the distance of any point from the b
common centre O. Match List –I and List–II.
List-I List-II
(I) Electric field strength is zero (P) On outer surface of the larger spherical
shell
(II) Electric field strength is non-zero (Q) On inner surface of the larger spherical
shell
(III) Magnitude of charge is 3Q (R) On outer surface of the smaller
spherical shell
(IV) Charge is + 8Q (S) For a < r < b
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I P, II Q, R, III Q,R, IV R,S
(B) I S, II P,Q, III P,S, IV R,Q
(C) I S, II P,Q,R, III Q, R, IV P
(D) I Q, II P, III Q,S, IV P,Q,R
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
8. A square platform of side length 8 m is situated in x-z plane Y
such that it is at 16 m from the x-axis and 8 m from the z-axis
g
as shown in figure. A particle is projected with velocity
v (v 2 iˆ 25 jˆ ) m/s relative to wind from origin and at the
X
same instant the platform starts with acceleration (0,0) 16m
a ( 2iˆ 2.5 ˆj ) m/s 2 . Wind is blowing with velocity v 1kˆ . Z 8m 8m
2
(g = 10 m/s )
List-I List-II
(I) Possible values of v2 (in m/s) so that particle hits the platform (P) 4
is/are
(II) Possible value of v1 (in m/s) so that particle hits the platform (Q) 6
is/are
(III) Possible time of flight (in second) of the particle is/are (R) 8
(IV) Possible value of displacement/s (in m) of the particle in y- (S) 20
direction when v2 has its minimum possible value is/are (till
particle hit the platform)
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I Q, R, II P,Q, III P, IV S
(B) I Q, II Q, III P, IV S
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) I S, II P,Q, III Q, R, IV P,S
(D) I Q, R, II P, III Q,S, IV P,Q,R
9. Match the statements in List–I with the results in List–II.
List-I List-II
(I) A thin uniform spherical shell of surface area S has an (P) is independent of S
initial temperature more than its surrounding
atmosphere. Then magnitude of rate of change of its
temperature with time
(II) A soap bubble initially in equilibrium is given a charge (Q) depends on S
Q, which distributes uniformly over its surface. The
centre of the bubble is always fixed. For the duration
the bubble having surface area S expands, the
magnitude of electric potential at a fixed point always
lying outside the bubble.
(III) A container with open top and filled with ideal liquid is (R) remains constant
placed at rest on a smooth horizontal table. A small
hole of area S is drilled at the bottom of a side wall of
container. The magnitude of force exerted by escaping
liquid on the container.
(IV) An infinitely long straight current carrying wire lies along (S) decreases with time
the axis of a closed cylindrical surface of total surface
area S in space. As the magnitude of current in the wire
is continuously increased, the magnitude of the
magnetic flux through the surface of this cylinder.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I S, II P,Q, III R,S, IV P, R
(B) I P,S, II P,R, III Q,S, IV P,R
(C) I S,R, II R, III Q,S, IV R,S
(D) I S, II P,R, III P,Q, IV Q,R
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
10. Related to photoelectric effect, in List-I, some physical quantities change while in List-II effects of
these changes are given. Match the entries of List-I with the entries of List-II.
List-I List-II
(I) Intensity of incident light changes (P) K max of emitted
photoelectrons changes
(II) Frequency of incident light changes (Q) Stopping potential changes
(III) Target material changes (R) Saturation current changes
(IV) Potential difference between the emitter and (S) Time delay in emission of
collector changes photoelectrons changes
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I R, II P, III Q,S, IV S
(B) I S, II Q,S, III P,Q, IV S
(C) I R, II P,Q, III P,Q, IV S
(D) I S, II P,Q, III Q,S, IV R
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
value to TWO decimal places.
11. 75.0cm from
If resistance R1 in resistance box is 300 , then the balanced length is found to be
end A. The diameter of unknown wire is 1 mm and length of the unknown wire is 31.4 cm . Find
the specific resistance of the unknown wire μΩ-m
12. A slab of glass of thickness 6cm and index 1.5 is placed somewhere in between a concave mirror
and a point object, perpendicular to the mirror’s optical axis. The radius of curvature of the mirror
is 40 cm. If the reflected final image coincides with the object, then find the distance of the object
from the mirror (in cm).
13. A terrorist places a bomb at a horizontal distance of 6m from the foot of building of height 8m.
When the bomb explodes its fragments fly in all directions with a velocity upto 30 m/s. Find how
long (in seconds) a man on the top of the building will be in danger. (g=10 ms-2)
14. A string is attached 10a horizontal cylinder of radius r = 4cm around which it passes several
times. The free end hangs vertically and supports a particle. The vertical portion is equal to
l0 28cm . The particle is given' a horizontal velocity u perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
and in such a sense as to wind up the string around the cylinder. What is the value of u (in
m/sec) so that the string does not slacken in the subsequent motion?
15. A hemispherical tank of diameter 4m is filled with water. A
very 'small hole is punched at 1m above the bottom as
shown in figure. Find x (in m) (distance at which water
strikes the surface).
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
16.
A cylindrical rod of length 64 cm and cross-section radius r 2 / cm is placed at a distance
50 r from a infrared point source S of power 1.25 kW as shown in the figure. The lateral surface
of the rod is perfectly insulated from the surroundings. The cross-section A absorbs 80% of the
incident energy, has temperature TA in steady state. The surface B is radiating energy into
space and the wavelength emitted by it with maximum energy density is 100, 000 Å . Find the
T
value of TA (temperature of end A in Kelvin) if conductivity varies with temp as K= . Assume
TA
that the rate of flow of heat through the rod is steady.
(Wein’s constant 0.003 K )
A B
50r
17. A concealed circuit (a black box) consisting of resistors has
four terminals. If a voltage is applied between clamps 1 and
2 when clamps 3 and 4 are open, the power liberated is 1 R1 R2 3
P1 40 W and when clamps 3 and 4 are closed, the R3
power liberated is P2 80 W . If the same source is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 4
connected to the clamps 3 and 4, the power liberated in the
circuit when clamps 1 and 2 are open is P3 20 W .
Determine the power P4 (in Watt) consumed in the circuit
when the clamps 1 and 2 are connected and the same
voltage is applied between the clamps 3 and 4.
18. An elevator carrying a charge of 0.2 C, is moving down with a velocity of
q
4 103 m / s . The elevator is 10 m from the bottom and 3 m horizontally
from P as shown. What magnetic field (in μT ) does it produces at point v 10m
P
3m P
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(A) Fe3+ and Mn2+ have equal paramagnetic character
(B) Cu2Cl2 and CuCl2 are coloured.
(C) Mn O 4 is purple in colour because of unpair d electrons
2+ 3+
(D) The magnetic moment of Fe and Co both are equal to 2 6 B. M.
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The total spectral lines obtained from a single line during Zeeman effect is (2l + 1).
(B) In the Lyman series as the energy liberated during transition increases then the distance
between the spectral lines goes on decreasing.
(C) The highest probability of finding an electron in 1s orbital is in the vicinity of the
circumference.
(D) The highest probability of finding an electron in 1s orbital is exactly at the middle between
nucleus and circumference.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
21. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) Ammonium salts are more soluble than sodium salts
(B) SnCl2 is more ionic than SnCl4
(C) Calcium fluoride is more ionic than calcium chloride
(D) The formal charge on S atom in SO2 is four
22. Which of the following statements are true for a gas -
(A) The mean free path is inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas at constant
temperature
(B) The mean free path is proportional to temperature at constant pressure
(C) The collision frequency among the molecules of gas is proportional to temperature
(D) The velocity possessed by the largest fraction of molecules at a given temperature is known
as root mean square velocity
23. Which of the following statements is/are false -
(A) Endothermic reactions are never spontaneous, at any temperature
(B) Exothermic reactions are always spontaneous at any temperature
(C) Exothermic reactions in which the entropy change for the system is negative are spontaneous at
any temperature
(D) Reactions in which the entropy change for the system is negative are never spontaneous at
any temperature
24. An aqueous solution contains either Hg22+ or Hg2+ the given solution gives green ppt with KI
solution but no precipitate with H2S. About the given aqueous solution which of following is
correct -
2+
(A) It contains Hg2
2+
(B) It contains Hg
(C) With NH3 solution it gives black precipitate
(D) None of these
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) O < Te < Se < S (P) Acidic character of oxides
(II) Be+ < C+ < B+ < N+ < F+ < O+ < Li+ (Q) Electron Affinity
(III) Fe2+ < Fe3+ < Fe6+ (R) Atomic radius
(IV) N < P < As < Sb (S) Ionisation energy
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I P, II R, III S, IV R
(B) I Q, II S, III P,Q,S, IV R,Q
(C) I S, II P, III Q,R, IV P,S
(D) I Q, II P, III Q,S, IV P,Q,R
26.
(I)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Match the following:
XeOF4
List-I
(P)
List-II
no lone pairs of electron
(II) XeO4 (Q) one lone pair of electrons.
(III) XeF4 (R) more than one lone pairs of electrons
(IV) IF5 (S) non planar
(A) I Q,S, II P, S, III R, IV Q,S
(B) I Q, II S, III P,Q,S, IV R,Q
(C) I S, II P, III Q,R, IV P,S
(D) I Q, II P, III Q,S, IV P,Q,R
27. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) CoCl3 NH 3 3 (P) show facial form
(II) 3 (Q) cis form is optically active
Cr Ox 3
(III) CrCl2 Ox 2 (R) Transform is optically inactive
(IV) RhCl3 Py 3 (S) show meridian form
(A) I Q,S, II P, S, III R, IV Q,S
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(B) I Q, II S, III P,Q,S, IV R,Q
(C) I S, II P, III Q,R,S, IV P,S
(D) I P,S, II Q, III Q,R, IV P,S
28. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) Paramagnetic (P) N 2 O3
(II) Dark blue liquid in liquid or solid state (Q) NO 2
(III) Unstable gas due to auto (R) NO
decomposition.
(IV) Brown gas (S) N 2 O5
(A) I Q,S, II P, S, III R, IV Q,S
(B) I Q, II S, III P,Q,S, IV P,S
(C) I Q,R, II P, III P,S, IV Q
(D) I P,S, II Q, III Q,R, IV P,S
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. A mixture of CH4 and C2H2 occupied a certain volume at a total pressure equal to 63 torr. The
same gas mixture was burnt to CO2 and H2O ( ). The CO2 (g) alone was collected in the same
volume and at the same temperature, the pressure was found to be 69 torr. What was the mole
fraction of CH4 in the original gas mixture?
30. N2 gas is assumed to behave ideally. A given volume of N2 originally at 373 K and 0.1013 MPa
pressure is adiabatically compressed due to which its temperature rises to 673 K. What is final
pressure (in MPa) of gas?
31. A saturated solution of iodine in water is 1.25 × 10–3 (M). In any saturated solution of I2
concentration of I2 is 1.25 × 10–3 (M). In 1 L of 0.1 (M) solution I–, it is seen 51.25 × 10–3 mole of I2
can be maximum dissolved. In the aqueous solution of I–(aq), I2 (ag) undergoes complex
KC
formation, I2 (aq) + I– I3– (aq).
What is the value of KC?
1
32. The reaction, N2O5 (g) 2 NO2 (g) +
O2 (g), is started with initial pressure of
2
N2O5 (g) equal to 600 torr. What fraction of N2O5 (g) decomposed when total pressure of the
system is 960 torr ?
33. At 298 K, the conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl in water is 2.6 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1. Given, m
(Ag+) = 63 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 & m (Cl–) = 67 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
10
The solubility product of AgCl is x 10 , then value of ' x ' is ____.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
[2 2 ]
34. For a certain reaction of order n, the time for half change, t1/2, is given by t1/2 = × C10/ 2 where k is the
k
rate constant and C0 is the initial concentration what is n ____.
35. The density of solid argon (Ar = 40 g/mol) is 1.68 g/mL at 40 K. If the argon atom is assumed to
be a sphere of radius = 1.50 × 10–8 cm, what % of solid Ar is apparently empty space?
36. Two liquids X and Y form are ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing
1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mole of Y is further
added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. What is the sum
of vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. Let Aand B are commutative square matrices of order three such that A is symmetric and B is
T 1
skew symmetric, if C A B A B A B (where X T and x denotes transpose and
determinant value of x respectively), then
(A) A B C 0 (B) A B C 0
T
(C) B 0 (D) 2 A C C
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1
38. If lim ...... and S lim .... 3
, then
n 12 22 n2 6 n 13 23 3 3 3 3 3
2 3 3 4 n n 1
S 2 is equal to
(A) A non-integral number (B) An rational number
(C) A transcendental number (D) An integer
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x
39. f x is a differentiable function such that f x x e t f x t dt , then
2
0
3
x x3
(A) f x x (B) f x x2
3 3
2
f x x dx 0
2
(C) f ' x x 2 2 x (D)
2
40. Mr. A randomly picks 3 distinct numbers from the set 1, 2, 3,....., 9 and arranges them in
descending order to form a three digit number. Mr. B randomly picks 3 distinct numbers from the
set 1, 2, 3,...., 8 and also arranges them in descending order to form 3 digit numbers.
1
(A) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is always greater then Mr. B’s 3 digit number is
3
1
(B) Probability that Mr. A and Mr. B has the same 3 digit numbers is
84
37
(C) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is greater then Mr.B’s 3 digit number is
56
1
(D) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is greater then Mr.B’s 3 digit number is
3
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 12
2 2
41. Let H:
x 1
y 2 1 be the hyperbola with centre at C. Now if from any point ‘Q’ on the
9 4
asymptotes a straight line be drawn perpendicular to the transverse axis to meet the hyperbola at
P and P’. Again a tangent is drawn to the hyperbola at P which meet the asymptotes at L and G,
then
(A) PQ.QP ' 4 (B) PQ.QP ' 9
(C) area of CLG 6 (D) area of CLG 8
2
sin sin x 2
sin x 2
sin tan x
42. If I1 dx; I 2 dx; I 3 dx , then which of the following is true
0 sin x 0 x 0 tan x
(A) I1 I 3 (B) I 2 I 3
(C) I1 I 2 (D) I1 I 2
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
15 3b x b 2 4b 5 sgn x 1 , x 0
2
43. Let f x k x x , 0 x
a 2 cos x 1 tan x 3
, x
ln 1 2 x x
2 2
2
Where y , y and sgn y denote greatest integer function, fractional part function and
signum function of y respectively.
List-I List-II
(I) -π (P) 0
If f is continuous in ,0 , then the value of b is
2
(II) If f is continuous at x , then value of a k is (Q) 1
(III) -π (R) 5
If f is continuous in , , then value of b k is
2
(IV) 3 (S) 6
If f has exactly four points of discontinuity in , ,
2 2
then a b k is equal to
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I R, II Q, III R, IV S
(B) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(C) I S, II P, III Q, R, IV P
(D) I Q, II P, III Q,S, IV P
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
44. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) The number of solution(s) of the equation (P) 4
1
sin 1 2
sgn x 2 1 , is (are)
1 x
(II) x2 (Q) 1
is a, b ,
1
If the range of the function f x cos 2
1 x
then a b is equal to
(III) If and are the roots of the 2 x2 3x 2 0 , then (R) 2
12 2 1 2
1 1
tan sin tan cos is
17 1 2 1 2
(IV) (S) 3
If f x sin cos 1
sin cos x sin cos sin x ,
1 1 1
4
3x
then the value of f 16 is equal to
x 1
Which one of the following options is correct?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) I P, II R, III S, IV R
(B) I R, II Q, III S, IV P
(C) I S, II P, III R, IV P
(D) I Q, II P, III Q, IV R
py
45. Consider a system of linear equation 3 x y z 0, x z 2 and 2 x y 2 z q
4
where p, q I and p, q 1, 10 , then identify the correct statement(s).
List-I List-II
(I) Number of ordered pairs p, q for which system of (P) 1
equation has unique solution is
(II) Number of ordered pairs p, q for which system of (Q) 9
equation has no solution is
(III) Number of ordered pairs p, q for which system of (R) 91
equation has infinite solution is
(IV) Number of ordered pairs p, q for which system of (S) 90
equation has atleast one solution is
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I P, II R, III S, IV R
(B) I Q, II S, III P, IV R
(C) I S, II Q, III P, IV R
(D) I Q, II P, III S, IV P
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 14
46. March the following:
List-I List-II
(I) cos x sin x 1 x (P) f 0 3
If dx ln h x g x c ,
e x sin x x
where c is arbitrary constant and f x hx g x ,
then
(II) If f x is a quadratic polynomial such that f 0 1 and (Q) f 0 2
f x
x x 1 dx is a rational function, then
2 3
(III)
cos x 1 4 cos 2 x
(R) f x is neither even
1 1
If sin x 4sin x cos2 xdx 2 ln h x 2 ln f x c , nor odd function
then
(IV) x4 1 B (S) f 0 0
If x 2
dx A ln x
1 x2
c , where c is
x 2
1
arbitrary constant and f x Ax2 2Bx , then
Which one of the following options is correct?
(B) TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) I P, R, II Q, III R, IV S
I Q, II S, III P,Q, IV R,S
(C) I S, II Q, R,S III P, IV P,S
(D) I Q, R, II P, Q, III S, IV Q, R,S
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
47. A triangle is so placed that the midpoints of its sides one placed on the co-ordinate axes, if a, b
x y z
and c are the sides of the triangle, then the equation of the triangle is 1 where
x1 y1 z1
a2 b2 c 2 k x12 y12 z12 , then the value of k is______
48. Let f be real function defined on R (the set of real numbers) such that
2
f’ x 100 x 1 x 2 ( x 3) 3.......( x 100)100 , for all x R . If g is a function defined on
x x
R such that e f ( t ) dt g ( x t ) dt 2 x 3 , If some of the all the values of x for which g(x) has a
a 0
local extremum be then find
3
100 50
49. If lim 100
5A ; find the value of A.
x 1 1 x 1 x 50
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
50. If S1 ,S2 ,S3 denote the sums of first twenty terms of three non constant sequence in A.P., whose
2S3S1 S1S2 S2S3
first terms are unity and common differences are in H.P. Then is equal
S1 2S2 S3
to___
51. If P is a point 2, 4 on the parabola y 2 8 x and PQ is a focal chord, the coordinate of the
mirror image of Q with respect to tangent at P are given by , then is_____
52. If sum of the roots of the equation
2 sin x sec 2 x 1 3 tan x 2 3
4
p
9 18sin x.cos x in 0, 2 is where p, q N , then find the least value of p q
q
2 3
53. Let S be infinite sum of the series 2 3cos x 4 cos x 5 cos x ................., where x
a
satisfies the equation 5cos x 4 5cos x 2 6 . If the least value of S is equal to
b
where a and b are co-prime numbers, then the value of a b is:
54. TG ~ @bohring_bot
If the coefficient of x8 in the expansion of 2 9 x 3 6 x 4 x 5
10
is 5.2 p.3q where p, q N ,
then find the value of p q
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. In a process on a system, the initial pressure and volume are equal to the final pressure and
volume:
(A) The initial temperature must be equal to the final temperature
(B) The net heat given to the system in the process must be zero
(C) The net work done by the system in the process must be zero
(D) None of these
2. Block placed on wedge of mass M is released. All surface are smooth, m
then which of following is/are correct:
(A) C.M. of mass will remain at rest
(B) Acceleration of centre of mass is in downward direction M
(C) Normal force exerted by floor on wedge will be equal to wedge of weight at some point of its
motion.
(D) Normal force exerted by floor on wedge is always less than combined weight of block and
wedge.
3.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A spaceship (which has negligible mass) is in an elliptical orbit about a
planet. The minimum distance between the spaceship and the planet is R.
At the point of maximum distance, spaceship is travelling at a speed v0 , . It
then fires his thrusters so that it enters a circular orbit of radius 2R. What is R 2R
its new speed:
3
(A) v 0 (B) v 0 5
2
3
(C) v 0 (D) v 0 2
5
4. A nucleus is kept at rest. It breaks into two parts which fly off with velocity in the ratio 27:8 . Then
the ratio of radii of the parts is
(A) 27 : 8 (B) 8 : 27
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. An alternating voltage E 6sin 20t 8cos 20t is applied L 0.2 H
to series resonant circuit as shown. The correct
statements is:
(A) The capacitance is 12.5mF R 5 C
(B) The resonant current in the circuit is 2A
(C) Power dissipated in the circuit is 10 watt
(D) Power dissipated in the circuit is 20 watt
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
6. Two non-conducting solid spheres of radii R and 2R, having uniform volume charge densities 1
and 2 respectively are touching each other. The net electric field at a distance 2R from the
centre of the smaller sphere, along the line joining the centres of the spheres, is zero then the
ρ1
ratio can be:
ρ2
32
(A) -4 (B) -
25
32
(C) + (D) 4
25
7. If one of the slits of a standard Young’s double-slit experiment is covered by a thin parallel sided
glass slab so that it transmits only one-half the light intensity of the other, then:
(A) The fringe pattern will get shifted toward the covered slit
(B) The fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit
(C) The bright fringes will become less bright and the dark ones will become more bright.
(D) The fringe width will reaming unchanged.
8. According to Bohr’s theory of the hydrogen atom, for the electron in the nth allowed orbit:
(A) The linear momentum is proportional to 1/n
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) The radius is proportional to n
(C) The kinetic energy is proportional to 1/n 2
(D) The angular momentum is proportional to n
9. A fish F, in the pond is at a depth of 0.8 m from the water B
surface and is moving vertically upward with velocity 2 ms .
1 3ms 1
At the same instant, a bird B is at a height of 6 m from the 6m
1
water surface and is moving downward with velocity 3 ms .
Air
At this instant, both are on the same vertical line as shown 2 ms 1
0.8 m Water
in figure. Which of the following statements are correct? μ=4/3
F
(A) Height of B, observed by F (from itself), is equal to 5.30 m
(B) Depth of F, observed by B (from itself), is equal to 6.60 m
1
(C) Velocity of B, observed by F (relative to itself), is equal to 5.50 ms
1
(D) Velocity of F, observed by B (relative to itself), is equal to 4.50 ms
10. n moles of an ideal monatomic gas undergo a process in which the temperature changes with
2
volume as T=KV . If the temperature of the gas changes from T0 to 4T0 then:
(A) Work done by the gas is 3nRT0 (B) Heat supplied to the gas is 6nRT0
3 3
(C) Work done by the gas is nRT0 (D) Heat supplied to the gas is nRT0
2 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. Sound of frequency 1000Hz from a stationary source is reflected from an object approaching
the source at 30 m / s , back to stationary observer located at the source. The speed of sound in
air is 330 m / s . The frequency of the sound heard by the observe is K 400 Hz . Determine
'K '
12. At an instant, the ratio of the amounts of radioactive substances is 2 :1 . If their half lives be 12
& 16 hours respectively, then after 2 days the ratio of amounts of substances left over will be
1: x find x :
13. A soap bubble is being blown on a tube of radius 1 cm. The
1
surface tension of the soap solution is 0.05 Nm and the bubble
makes 60° with the tube as shown in the figure. The excess of 60 60
pressure over the atmosphere pressure in the tube is 2 Pa.
Find the value of ____.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
14. A uniform rod AB of mass M is placed in contact with a second rod C
BC of mass m M / 2 on a horizontal smooth table at right angles I
to each other as shown in figure. Impulse I is imparted to A kinetic
nI2 B
energy generated in BC is . Find the value of 'n' ___ .
3m A B
15. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a prism which has refracting angle of
30°. The ray emerging out of the prism makes an angle of 30° with the incident ray. If the
refractive index of the material of the prism is = a , find the value of a ____.
16. Two circular rings of identical radii and resistance of 36 each are placed A
in such a way that they cross each other’s centre C1 and C2 as shown in
figure. Conducting joints are made at intersection point A and B of the rings. C1
An ideal cell of emf 20 V is connected across A and B. Find the power C2
delivered by the cell (in 102 W ) ____.
B
17. A cubical block of mass M vibrates horizontally with amplitude of 4.0 cm and a frequency of 2.0
Hz. A small block of mass m is placed on the bigger block. In order that the smaller block does
not slide on the bigger block, the minimum value of the coefficient of static friction between the
two blocks is 0.16x . Find the value of x . (Take π 2 =10 and g=10 m/s 2 )
18. Consider the two loops with common centre and on the same plane as
shown in the figure. The large circular loop has radius R = 10 cm and the
small square loop has side a 1cm . There is a current circulating in the
2
large loop given by i t i0 t / with i0 100 A, 2 102 sec .
Emf (in micro volts) induced in the small loop is ____.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. OH
O H major product is -
CH3
CH3
(A) O CH3 (B) CH3
O
CH3
CH3
(C) CH3 (D) CH3
CH3 OH CH3
HO
20.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH I KOH
3
A
D
B then B will be-
excess
NH2
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
21. If on a strand of DNA the base sequence is ATTGACGCAT then the sequence transcription on
RNA would be -
(A) UAACUGCGUA (B) AUUCUGCGUA
(C) UAACTGCGUA (D) TAACTGCGTA
22. The structure of a crystalline lattice AB is rock salt type where B atoms are occupying all the CCP
positions but A atoms are occupying all the octahedral voids -
(A) If atoms lying on one tetrad axis of symmetry are removed then molecular formula of the
compound become AB
(B) If atoms lying on one triad axis of symmetry are removed then molecular formula of the
compound become A4B5
(C) If atoms lying on one diad axis of symmetry are removed then molecular formula of the
compound become A5B8
(D) All of the above molecular formula are correct corresponding to the defects mentioned
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Yash Patil 6
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. Identify the correct statement (s) regarding the oxidation of N 2 H 5 by Cr2 O 72– in acid medium.
(A) 10 ml 0.2 M dicromate is required for the complete oxidation of 12 ml 0.25 M N 2 H 5
(B) 10 ml 0.2 M dicromate is required for the complete oxidation of 10 ml 0.6 N N 2 H 5
(C) Number of moles of N2 liberated per mole of dichromate is 1.5
(D) One mole of N 2 H 5 is 3 equivalents
24. Which is resolvable ?
(A) Me Me
C C
(B) Me
C
OHC
CH = CH2
(C) O
Me – P – Ph
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH = CH2
(D) Ethylmethylphenyl amine at pH=2
25. Which of the following is/are reducing sugars -
(A) CH2OH H OH (B) CH2OH CH2OH
HO O OH H O H H O H
H O OH H H H
OH H H OH H O OH H
H HH O H OH OH
H OH CH2OH H OH H OH
(C) CH2OH (D) CH2OH H OH
H O H H O H
H H OH H H
OH H OH H O H
OH H OH
OH O
H OH O
H OH CH2OH
HOH2C O
CH2OH
H H OH
OH H
26. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) B2H6 reacts with excess NH3 at low temperature to produce an ionic compound
(B) B2H6 reacts with excess of NH3 at higher temperature to form boron nitride solid
(C) Boron nitride has polymeric layer structure
(D) In borazine there are –ve and +ve charges on B and N respectively
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
27. The correct products have been reported in reactions –
( g )(–10C )
(A) CH2 = CH – CHO HCl
CH2 – CH2 – CHO
Cl
(B) CH2 = CH – COOH H2 O
/ H 2SO 4
CH2 – CH2 – COOH
OH
H
(C) CH3 – C = CH – C – CH3 CH OH / H 2SO 4
3
O
CH3
CH3 – CH – CH – C – CH3
OCH3 O
(D) CH3 – CH = CH – OCH3 CH
OH / H
3
CH3 – CH2 – CH – OCH3
OCH3
HNO3 Cl 2 Sn HCl HNO 2
OH
28. C6H6 [Y] [Z]
[X] [P]
H2SO4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Fe NaOH H 3 PO 2
The current statement(s) are/is -
NH2
(A) Y = (B) Z = H2N NH2
Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
(C) P = (D) X =
NO2
Cl Cl
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. H
HgSO4
NC gives –‘A’.
H2SO4, H2S
C H
CH
The degree of unsaturation of compound 'A' is?
30. What is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS in a solution that is 0.01 M
ZnCl2 and saturated with 0.10 M H 2S ?
[Given Ksp = 10–21, K a1 × K a 2 = 10–20]
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
31. In a Cu-voltameter , mass deposited in 30s is m gm. If the time-current graph is shown in the
following figure
200 mA
current
100 mA
10 s 20 s 30 s
time
m
The electrochemical equivalent of Cu is . Then find the value of ' x ' is ___.
x
32. For a certain reaction the variation of rate constant with temperature is given by the equation
(n 3) t
n kt = nk0 + (t 0ºC)
10
The value of temperature coefficient of the reaction is ____.
33. A compound MX2 has observed and normal molar masses 65.6 and 164 respectively. The
apparent degree of ionization of MX 2 is15x% . Then find the value of 'x' is ____.
34.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
What is the highest oxidation state of nickel in the given complexes of
(i) Ni CO 4
Ni metal?
(ii) K 2 NiF6
(iii) Ni NH 3 6 BF4 2
(iv) K 4 Ni CN 6
35.
Benitoite is represented as BaTi Si3 O n , the value of n is ……..
36. In order to prepare a buffer of pH= 8.26, the amount of (NH4)2 SO4 required to be mixed with one
litre of 0.1(M) NH3 (aq) is 0.25x mole . The value of 'x' is ____.
(Given:- pK b of NH 4 OH = 4.74 )
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
2
37. Maximum value of function f x sin 1
sin x sin1 sin x is:
(A) 2 (B) 2
4 4
(C) (D) None of these
4
2 2
38. For a parabola x 4xy 4y 32x 4y 16 0 , focus is:
(A) 2,1 (B) 2,1
(C) 2, 1 (D) 2, 1
39. Given three non – zero, non – coplanar vectors, and a,b and c and r1 pa qb c and
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r2 a pb qc if the vectors r1 2r2 and 2r1 r2 are collinear then (p, q) is
(A) (0, 0)
(C) (–1, 1)
(B) (1, –1)
(D) (1, 1)
2
40. Solution of differential equation f ' x f ''' x 3 f '' x , y f x is:
2 2
(A) x k1 y k 2 y k3 (B) y k1 x k2 k3
(C) x sin y (D) None of these
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
px n r 2 e x r 1
lim , x 0
n n r 1 r r 1
41. Let f x q, x0
lim r r e 1 , x 0
n 2 x
n
r 1 r r 1
Is differentiable in :
. is G.I.F.and . is F.P.of x Then:
(A) p=1 (B) q=1
(C) p+q+ =3 (D) if g is inverse of F then g ' 1/ 2 2
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 10
4 3 2
42. Consider f x 4 x 24 x 31x 6 x 8 be a polynomial function and , , , are the
roots. . So:
1 1
(A)
36 (B)
18
2 2
x 5 x 1 2 x 1
1
x 5 x 1 2 x 1
1
(C) dx 2ln 2 (D) dx ln 2
2
x 2 4 x 1 2
x 2 4 x 1
2
43. Consider the equation z 3 i z m 2i 0 m R . If the equation has exactly one real
and one-non-real complex root, then which of the following hold(s) good:
(A) Modulus of the non-real complex root is 2
(B) The value of m is 3
(C) Additive inverse of non-real root is 1 i
(D) Product of real root and imaginary part of non-real complex root is 2
m2 n p
44. m 1
n 1 n.3 m.3
m n
(Where p & q are coprime) then:
q
(A) p q 41 (B) p q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) p is perfect square (D) q is perfect square
2
3 x x
45. Let p x 4sin x sin x 2 sin cos , then which of the following is/are correct?
2 2
(A) Range of p x is 1,3
(B) Range of p x is 0,4
(C) Number of solution of p x =1in 0,π is 2
(D) Number of solution of p x =1in 0,2π is 4
46. Let m, n be real numbers satisfying the relation:
2 2
1 2sin 7
log 2 m 2 n 2 1 log 3 log n log 2m 2 n
2 2
2 cos 4
7
Identify which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) m n 2
(B) m n 4
(C) Area of the figure enclosed by x y mn is 8 square units.
(D) Area of the figure enclosed by x y mn is 16 square units.
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
2 10
47. A and B are two square matrices such that A B BA and if AB Ak B10 then the value of
k 1020 is….
48. The graph of the derivative f of a continous function f is shown with f(0) = 0
3
0 3
1 5 7 9
1
2
3
If f x has local minima at x x1 and x x2 ; f has inflection point at x k ; number of critical
points of y f x is w then x1 x2 k w is…..
49. TG ~ @bohring_bot
Number of values of x 0, where f x 4 sin x 7 is non derivable is
( . is G. I. F)
2 2
50. If the equation on reflection of
x 4
y 3 1about the line x y 2 0 is
16 9
2 2 k1 k 2
16x 9y k1x 36y k 2 0 then is
22
8
8 cos 30 2 cot cot 30
51. If 0 30 , then find the value of log 2
3
2 3
5 5 5
5 5 5
5 5 5 ....
52. Find the value of log 5
3
6 2 5 215 18 3 215 18 3 215 18 3 ....
53. Three circles C1, C2, C3 with radii r1, r2, r3 (r1 < r2 < r3) respectively are given as r1 = 2, and r3 = 8
they are placed such that C2 lies to the right of C1 and touches it externally, C3 lies to the right of
C2 and touches it externally. There exist two straight lines each of which is a direct common
tangent simultaneously to all the three circles then r2 is equal to __.
th n
54. If K term is the greatest term in the square an , n N , then k is____
70 n2
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. AD
2. ABC
3. ABCD
hc
Sol. E
hc
E (in eV)
(in nm)
4. AD
5. BCD
6. BCD
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. C
Section – B
11. 250.00
12. 42.00
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
13. 2.96
Sol. Let b be the velocity and the angle of projection for a fragment reaching the man. According
to the questions the greatest value of u can be 20 m/s. If t be the time taken by this fragment to
reach the man, then considering the horizontal and vertical motions of the fragment
1 2
8 gt u sin t
2
g 2t 4 4 u 2 g 8 t 2 4 100 0
The period in which the man will be in danger on account of this fragment
2 2 1/ 2
t1 t2 t 2
1 t22 2t1t2
g
u 8 g 10 g
14. 3.21
Sol. Using WET
1 2 1 2
mv mu
2 2
mg l0 l0 r ............ (i)
At highest point v l0 R g
Substituting in equation (i)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v 5 gl0 4r g 3.21m / sec
15. 2.81
Sol. Velocity of watre coming out from hole
v 2 gh 2 g1
1
y u yt a yt 2
2
1
1 2 gt sin 30 10t 2
2
t
1 2 g 5t 2
2
2
2.24 2.24 20
t 0.28sec.
10
x1 vx t 2 g cos 30 0.28 1.08m
x x1 x2 1.08 1.73 2.81m
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
16. 500.00
Sol. Intensity of the source at the cross-section A
P 1.25 103
l 2
2
4 50r 4 50r
Power absorbed by the end A
0.003
TB 300 K
100000 1010
j B T
0.1TA .dx
0 4 104 T TdT
A
TA 500 K
17. 40.00
Sol. When (1) and (2) are connected and (3) and (4) are open
v2
P1 ..... i
TG ~ @bohring_bot
R1 R2
When (3) and (4) are closed and (1) and (2) are connected
v2
P2 ..... ii
RR
R2 2 3
R2 R3
When (3) and (4) are connected and (1) and (2) are open
v2
P3 ...... iii
R2 R3
When (3) and (4) are connected and (1) and (2) are closed
v2
P4 ...... iv
RR
R 1 3
R1 R3
From (i) to (iv)
P1 P2
P4 40W
P3 P4
18. 21.00
Sol. Accroding to Biot-Savert law,
0 qv sin
B=
4 r 2
107 0.2 4 103 3
B= 21T
109 109
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. AD
3+ 2+
Sol. Both Fe & Mn have 5 unpair electrons
+
Cu2Cl2 is colourless because Cu has no unpair electrons
20. ABC
Sol. (A) The total lines obtained due to the splitting of a spectral line in the presence of magnetic effect
is (2l + 1) as the presence of orbitals which have specific orientation in the presence of external
field take up certain new orientation. The number of orbitals are equal to (2l + 1) and for each
orbital one splitting takes place.
(B) As we move away from the nucleus the difference in the energy levels become lesser and
lesser hence.
1 1
For 1st line of Lyman E = E1 –
2 2
n1 n n
3 8
E1 = E1 – 1st line; E2 = E1 –2nd line
4
9
15 24
E3 = E1 –34rd line ; E4 = E1 – 4th line;
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16 25
35
E5 = E1 – 5th line;
36
8 3 5
E2 – E1 = E1 – = E1
9 4 36
15 8
E3 – E2 = E1 – =
16 9
135 – 128 7
E1 = E1
144 144
24 15
E4 – E3 = E1 –
25 16
16 24 – 15 25 9
= E1 = E1 400
25 16
We find that (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)
Hence the distance also become lesser and lesser.
(C) The distance from the nucleus for maximum probability of finding electrons is 0.53 Å. This is
not on the circumference of the orbital but is in the vicinity of the circumference.
21. ABC
+
Sol. Because of the H–bonding NH 4 is more extensively solvated than Na , hence NH 4 salts is
+
more soluble than Na salts.
The polarising power of Sn4+ is greater than Sn2+ , hence SnCl4 is more covalent
The polarisibility of Cl– is greater than F– because of greater size.
Formal charge
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
no. of valence no.of no. of
1
= electrons of the nonbonded bonded
atom electrons 2 electrons
1
In SO2 , formal charge of S = 6 – 2 – × 4 = 2
2
22. AB
23. ABCD
24. AC
2+ –
Sol. Hg2 + 2I Hg2I2(green ppt) ;
2+
Hg2 + H2S no ppt
25. B
26. A
Sol.
O
F F
(I) XeOF4 :
Xe
TG ~ @bohring_bot
F F
••
one p of electrons ; sp3d2 hybridisation ; square pyramidal
(I) (Q,S)
(II) XeO4 : tetrahedral and no p of electrons
O
Xe
O O
O
(II) (P, S)
••
F F
(III) XeF4 :
Xe
F F
••
sp3d2 hybridisation ; planar ; two ps of electrons
(III) R
F
F F
(IV) IF5 :
I
F F
••
sp d hybridisation ; one p. of electrons
3 2
(IV) (Q,S)
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
27. D
28. C
Section – B
29. 0.90
Sol. Let no. of moles of CH4 present = n1 mol.
Let no. of moles of C2H2 present = n2 mol.
CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
n1 n1
5
C2H2 + O2 CO2 + H2O
2
n2 2n2
Total no. of moles at initial = n1 + n2
Total no. of moles at final = n1 + 2n2
At constant V & T,
P1 No. of moles at initial
=
P2 No. of moles at final
63 n n2 21 n n2
= 1 = 1
69 n1 2n 2 23 n 1 2n 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
n2 2 n n 2 21
= 1
n1 19 n1 19
n1 19
n 1 n 2 21
30. 0.39
Sol. u = Q + W = 0 + –P ext.dV – Pext (V2 – V1 )
RT RT
CV (T2 – T1) = – Pext. 2 – 1 ;
P2 P1
Here Pext = P2
5 373R
R (673–373) = – 673R + P2
2 0.1013
P2 = 0.3865 M Pa
31. 800.00
KC
Sol. I2 + I
– I3–
–3
51.25 × 10 0.1
At 1.25 × 10–3(M) 50 × 10–3(M) 50 × 10–3(M)
Equilibrium
50 10 –3 1000
KC = –3 –3
= = 800
50 10 1.25 10 1.25
32. 0.40
1
Sol. N2O5 (g) 2 NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2
Initially : 600 torr — —
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
p
At equilibrium: (600 – p) torr 2p torr torr
2
3p
Total press is 600 torr
2
3p
600 + = 960
2
3p
or = 360
2
or p = 240 torr
240
fraction of N2O5 (g) decomposed = = 0.4
600
33. 4.00
103 10 3 2.6 10 –6
Sol. s= =
m (AgCl) (63 67)
= 2 × 10–5 (M)
Ksp = (2 × 10–5)2 = 4 × 10–10.
34. 0.50
TG ~ @bohring_bot
35. 64.36
Sol. Vol. of all atoms in 1.68 gm
1.68 4
argon = N A (1.5 10 –8 )3 = 0.3564
40 3
vol. of solid argon = 1 cm3
% empty space = (1 – 0.3564) × 100 = 64.36
36. 1000.00
Sol. Initially Pm = PºX.XX + PºY.XY
1 3
550 = PºX + PºY
1 3 1 3
or P°X + 3P°Y = 2200 ...(i)
When 1 mole of Y is further added to it
Pm = PºX.XX + PºY.XY
1 4
560 = PºX + PºY
1 4 1 4
P°X + 4P°Y = 2800 ...(ii)
By eqs. (i) and (ii)
PºX = 400 mm and P°Y = 600 mm.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. ACD
Sol. A B A B A B A B
1
Now C AT BT A B A B
1
A B A B A B
1
A B A B A B
A B
T
T T
Now C A B A B
C CT 2 A
38. BD
3 3
1 1 1 1 1 3 1
Sol. Let tr
r r 1 r r 1 r
r 1 r r 1 r r 1
3 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
1 1 r 1 r
3 3
r r 13 r r 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
tr 3 6
3
r r 13
r r 1 r r 1
2 2
n 1 2 2 1
t r 1 3
3
n 1 6
1 6 1
r 1
6 n 1
lim tr 10 2
x
39. BCD
x
Sol. f x x 2 e t f x t dt
0
x
x 2 e x t . f x x t dt
0
x
x 2 e x . et . f t dt
0
x
e x . f x x 2 .e x et . f t dt
0
Differentiate with respect to x , we get f ' x x 2 2 x
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
x3
f x x 2 x, also f 0 0
3
c0
x3
f x x2
3
40. ABC
8
C3 .8 C3 8 C3
Sol. When 9 is not included
2
8
1 C3 .8 C3 8 C3 37
and required probability is
3 2.9 C3 .8 C3 56
41. AB
2
Sol. By property: PQ P ' Q b and area of CLG ab
42. ABC
sin x
Sol. 0 x is decreasing and sin x x tan x
2 x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
sin sin x sin x sin tan x
sin x x tan x
I1 I 2 I 3
43. A
44. B
Sol. (I) clearly, number of solutions is 2.
1 x2 1
(II) f x cos 2
cos 1 1 2
1 x 1 x
1
t 1 t 0, 1
1 x2
cos 1 t 0, a, b a b 1
2
(III) 12 tan tan tan tan 12
2 1 2 1 2 2
12 2
2
9
12 2.1 3
4
(IV) sin cos 1
x sin sin 1 x cos sin 1 x t
2
f x sin cos 1 t sin 1 t sin 1
2
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 10
4
3x
f 16 1 1 1 1 4
x 1
45. C
Sol. (a) 3x y z 0 ..... 1
py
x z 0 ...... 2
4
2 x y 2 z q .... 3
Eqn. (2) × (2) – eqn. (3)
p
1 y 4 q
2
For unique solution, p 2, q N number of ordered pairs p , q in 1, 10 are 90.
p 2 and q 4 exactly one ordered pair
For infinite solution,
For no solution, p 2 and q 4 number of ordered pairs p , q in 1, 10 are 9
46. D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Section – B
47. 8.00
Sol. Let the intercept of plane on the axes be
x1 , 0, 0 , 0, y1 , 0 , 0, 0, z1
x y z
So, equation is 1
x1 y1 z1
1
EF BC and EF BC 4 y12 z12 a 2
2
2 2
Similarly 4 x1 y1 c and 4 z1 x1 b 2
2 2
2
a 2 b 2 c 2 8 x12 y12 z12
k 8
48. 833.33
x x
Sol. f (t )
e dt g ( x t )dt 2 x 3
a 0
x x
f (t )
e dt g (t )dt 2 x 3 (Using King Property)
a 0
Differential both sides, we get
e f ( x ) g ( x) 2
g ( x) e f ( x ) 2
g '( x ) e f ( x ) . f '( x)
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
e f ( x ) is always greater than zero.
Sign of g’(x) is same as sign of f '( x) .
Sign of g’(x)
-1 -2 ........... 96 97 98 99 100
Clearly, local extreme (maximum or minimum) will occur at
x=99,97,95,….,3,1
50
Sum of all the values=1+3+5+…+99= [2 1 (50 1) 2] 2500
2
49. 5.00
100 y100 50. y 50
Sol. lim 50
y 1 y100 1 y 1
100 50
lim100 50 100
y 1
1 y 1 y 50
50
L=50-L L= 25
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
50. 20.00
20
Sol. Si 2 19di
2
2 S3 S1 S1 S3 200 2 19d1 2 19d 3 100 2 19d 2 4 19 d1 d 3
S1 S3 2S 2 10 4 19 d1 d3 4 38d 2
8 76 d1 d3 722d1d3 8 38 d1 d 3 2d 2 361d 2 d1 d3
10
19 d1 d 3 2d 2
38 d1 d 3 2d 2 361 2d1d3 d 2 d1 d3
10
19 d1 d3 2d 2
20
51. 10.00
52. 25.00
Sol. sin x cos x tan 2 x 1
3 tan x 3 3 3 sin x cos x
Case – 1: sin x cos x 0
sin x cos x tan 2 x 1
3 tan x 3 0
tan x 1, 1, 3
3 7
x , , ,
4 4 3 4
Case- 2 : sin x cos x 0
tan x 1
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
37π
Sum=
12
53. 151.00
Sol. S 2 3cos x 4cos 2 x ..................
S .cos x 2 cos x 3cos 2 x ..............
S 1 cos x 2 cos x cos 2 x...............
1
1
1 cos x
1 1
S
1 cos x 1 cos x 2
5cos x 4 5cos x 2 6
4 2
cos x ,
5 5
For the least value of S, cos x 4 / 5
a b 151
TG ~ @bohring_bot
54. 14.00
2 10
Sol. 2 x3 3 x
2r
10
Cr .210 r .x 3r 3 x
Ck .32 r k .x k
2r
3r k 8 k 2, r 2
Coefficient of x8 10 C2 .28.4 C2 .32 5.29.35
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. A
2. C
Sol. No horizontal force is on block C therefore is will have vertical path from ground frame when all
surface are smooth.
3. A
Sol. By conservation of energy
GMm 1 GMm 1
mv '2 mv0 2 ......(i)
R 2 2R 2
By conservation of angular momentum
mv0 2 R mv ' R
v ' 2v0 (ii)
GM
v0 (using (i) & (ii )
3R
For circular orbit
mv ''2 GMm GM
2
v ''
2R 2R 2R
3
v '' v0
2
4. C
v1 27
Sol.
v2 8
m1 8
So, (from conservation of momentum)
m2 27
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
r A1/3
1/3
r1 8 2
r2 27 3
5. AC
Sol. E 10sin 20t 20
1 1 1
20 C
0.2 C 400 0.2 80
6 3
cos
5
12.5 Amf
6. BD
7. ACD
8. ACD
9. BD
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10. BC
Section – B
11. 3
12. 1
13. 5
14. 5
15. 3
16. 1
17. 4
18. 2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. C
20. C
21. A
Sol. Thynine base of DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA
22. D
23. AC
Sol. 3N 2 H 5 + 2Cr2 O 27 – + 13H+ 3N2 + 4Cr3+ + 14 H2O
24. BCD
25. ABD
Sol. Sucrose with anomeric–OH groups in glycosidic linkage & thus non-Reducing
26. ABCD
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. low
B2H6 + 2NH3 Temp.
B2H6, 2NH3
(ionic solid) excess
NH3
On further heating
B B B
(BN)x N N N N
Boron nitride (BN)x
+ – B B B B
[H3N BH2 NH3] [BH4] N N
N
Ionic solid
27. ABD
28. CD
Section – B
29. 5
30. 1
Sol. Ksp = [Zn2+] [S2–]
10 –21
[S2–] = = 10–19
0.01
[H ]2 [S2 – ]
for K a1 . K a2 =
[H 2S]
–20 [ H ]2 10 –19 +
10 = [H ] = 0.1 or pH = 1
0.1
31. 3
Sol. Total current passed in 30 sec.
1 1
= × 100 × 10 + 100 × 10 + 100 × 10 +
2 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
× 100 × 10
= 3 × 100 × 10 mA × s
–3
= 3000 × 10 amp s = 3 C
EQ W E m
W= or = =Z=
F Q F 3
32. 3
t 0
kt
Sol. = µ 10
k0
t
loge kt – loge k0 = log (µ)
10
n(µ)
n kt = n k0 + t
10
µ=3
33. 5
Theo. Mw.
Sol. i =
exp . Mw
164
= = 2.5
65.6
a=
=
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 i
n 1
2.5 1
= 0.75
3 1
a = 75 %
34. 4
35. 9
36. 2
[ NH 4]
Sol. pOH = pKb + log
[ NH 3 ]
[ NH 4]
5.74 = 4.74 + log
0.1
[ NH 4]
or log =1
0.1
[ NH 4]
or = 10
0.1
or [ NH 4] = 1 (M)
NH SO
4 2 4 required = 0.5 mole
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A
2
Sol. sin 1
sin x 1/ 2 1/ 4
38. D
2
Sol. x 2y 4 12 2x y
39. D
40. A
3 f '' x f ''' x
Sol.
f ' x f '' x
3ln f ' x ln f '' x k
d 2x
c
dy 2
41. ABCD TG ~ @bohring_bot
px , x 0
Sol. f x q, x 0
e x , x 0
42. AC
Sol. f x 2 x 1 2 x 1 x 2 x 4
1
2
1
2
2
4
43. CD
Sol. If is real root then 2, m 2, non-real root = 1 i
44. ABC
m.n n m
Sol. 2S n n m
n
m 1 n 1 m.3 n.3 3 3
45. AC
46. AC
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Section – B
47. 3
48. 1
Sol. x1 4, x2 8, k 3, w 4
49. 7
50. 6
51. 2
52. 2
53. 4
54. 8
x 70 x 2
Sol. Let f x ; f ' x 2
70 x 2 70 x2
So f x increase in 0, 70 and f x decrease in 70,
a8
But 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So, greater term may be a8 or a9
a9
k 8
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 07-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at
some distance from the plane of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits, the
change in fringe width is 3 × 10–5 cm. If the distance between the slits is 10–3 m, calculate the
wavelength of the light used.
(A) 4500 Å (B) 3000 Å
(C) 9000 Å (D) 6000 Å
2. A mass 2m rests on a horizontal table. It is attached to a light
inextensible string which passes over a smooth pulley and carries a mass
m at the other end. If the mass m is raised vertically through a distance h
m
and is then dropped, then the speed with which the mass 2m begins to
h
rise is:
m
2gh
(A) 2gh (B) 2m
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
gh
(C) (D) gh
2
3. A particle starts moving with initial velocity from the origin of co-ordinates at time t = 0 and moves
in the xy plane with a constant acceleration in the y-direction. Its equation of motion is
y x 2 . Its velocity component in the x-direction is:
(A) / (B) 2 /
(C) / 2 (D) / 2
4. By what percent the energy of a satellite has to be increased to shift if from an orbit of radius r to
3
r?
2
(A) 66.7% (B) 33.3%
(C) 15% (D) 20.3%
5. A point object O is placed at a distance of 0.3 m from a convex
lens (focal length 0.2 m) cut into two halves each to which is
displacement by 0.005 m thus making separation between them
of 2 0.005 as shown in fig. Find the position of the image. Find
the distance between the images.
(A) 0.003 m (B) 0.002 m
(C) 0.004 m (D) 0.001 m
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. The relation between U, p and V for an ideal gas in an adiabatic process is given by relation
U a bpV . Find the value of adiabatic exponent of this gas:
b+1 b+1
(A) (B)
b a
a+1 a
(C) (D)
b a+b
7. A metal disc of radius a rotates with a constant angular velocity about is axis. The potential
difference between the centre and the rim of the disc is ( m mass of electron, e charge on
electron):
mω2 a 2 1 mω 2 a 2
(A) (B)
e 2 e
eω2 a 2 eω2 a 2
(C) (D)
2m m
8. Six wires each of resistance r form a tetrahedron. The equivalent 4
resistance between corners 1-2 and 1-3 are respectively:
r r
(A) , (B) r, r
2 2
r
(C) , r
2 TG ~ @bohring_bot (D) r,
r
2
1
2
3
9. The ionization potential of Li++ ion is 122.4 V. Find the value of its first excitation potential.
(A) 91.8v (B) 45.9 V
(C) 122.4V (D) 28.4 V
10. Uniform rod AB is hinged at the end A in a horizontal position as
shown in the figure. The other end of the rod is connected to a
block through a massless string as shown. The pulley is smooth
and massless. Masses of the block and the rod are same and
are equal to ' m ' . Acceleration due to gravity is g. The tension in
the thread and angular acceleration of the rod just after release of
block from this position are: m, l
3mg g 5mg 3 g A m
(A) , (B) , B
8 8l 8 8l
mg 5 g 7mg 7 g
(C) , (D) ,
8 8l 8 8l
18
11. A radioactive sample has 6.0 10 active nuclei at a certain instant. How many of these nuclei
will still be in the same active state after two half-lives?
(A) 3 1018 (B) 1.5 1018
18 18
(C) 0.75 10 (D) 6 10
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AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
12. A particle performs SHM of amplitude A along a straight line. When it is at a distance 3/2 A
2 2
from mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amount 1/ 2 m A due to an
impulsive force. Then its new amplitude becomes:
5 3
(A) A (B) A
2 2
(C) 2A (D) 5A
13. Find the constant b in Moseley’s equation = a (Z – b) from the following data.
Element Z Wavelength of KaX-ray
Mo 42 71 pm
Co 27 178.5 pm
(A) 1.43 (B) 1.11
(C) 1 (D) 1.37
14. A 70 cm long sonometer wire is in unison with a tuning fork. If the length of the wire is decreased
by 1.0 cm, it produces 4 beats per sec. with the same tuning fork. Find the frequency of the tuning
fork -
(A) 276 sec1 (B) 272 sec1
1 1
(C) 269 sec (D) 280 sec
15.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Mr. Sanjay wants to calculate the current and power dissipated in an LCR series circuit. He connected
100W resistance to an AC source of 200 V and angular frequency 300 radian/sec. When he removed
only the capacitance, the current was found to be lagging behind the voltage by 60°. While on
removing the inductance he found, the current leading the voltage by 60°. Find the value of current
and the power dissipated obtained by him
(A) 200 Watt (B) 100 Watt
(C) 400 Watt (D) 300 Watt
16. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is 105 cm. Where the two bridges
should be placed so that the fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the ratio of
1:3:15.
(A) 75 cm, 25 cm, (B) 25 cm, 75 cm,
(C) 75 cm, 100 cm, (D) None of these
17. In an LR circuit as shown in fig. when the switch is closed how much L R
time will it take the current to grow a value (where < 1)
R
1 1 e
(A) (L/R) In (B) (L/R) In S
1
1
(C) (2L/R) In (D) None of these
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
18. One plate of a capacitor is connected to a spring as shown in figure.
Area of both the plates is A. In steady state, separation between the
plates is 0.8d (spring was unstretched and the distance between
the plates was d when the capacitor was uncharged). The force
constant of the spring is approximately:
4 0 AE 2 2 0 AE E
(A) (B)
d3 d2
6 0 E 2 AE 3
(C) (D) 0 3
Ad 3 2d
19. In the figure, a block slides along a track from one level to a
higher level, by moving through an intermediate valley. The
track is frictionless until the block reaches the higher level.
There a frictional force stops the block in a distance d. The
block’s initial speed v0 in 6 m/s , the height difference h is
1.1m and the coefficient of kinetic fraction is 0.6 . The
value of d is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 1.17m (B) 1.71m
(C) 3.41m (D) 2.81m
TG ~ @bohring_bot
20. The combination of the gates shown in the figure
produces:
(A) NOR gate
(B) OR gate
(C) AND gate
(D) XOR gate
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A point charge is placed outside a spherical shell as shown in the figure.
Find the electric potential (in kilo volt) on the surface of shell R
(Take: q=1μcand R=50cm ) q
2R
22. What is the current in the circuit shown below?
a
23. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related as P= 3
, where 'a' and 'b' are
V
1+
b
constants. The translational kinetic energy due to the thermal motion of the gas sample at volume
V=b , (given that ab=12 kJ ) is n kJ . Find n .
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AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
24. A small spherical ball of density same as that of liquid is released
from rest in a vessel filled completely with a liquid and accelerating
with acceleration 5iˆ 5 ˆj m / s as shown in the figure. Find the y
initial acceleration of ball just after the release with respect to x
vessel.
25. A ball is projected from the point O with velocity 20 m/s at an
angle of 60° with horizontal as shown in figure. At highest point
20m/s A
of its trajectory it strikes a smooth plane of inclination 30° at
point A. The collision is perfectly inelastic. The maximum height
from the ground attained by the ball is 75 meter . Find the value 60º 30º
k O
2
of k ? (g = 10 m/s )
26. The potential energy of a particle is determined by the expression U= x y 2 2
, where is a
positive constant. The particle begins to move from a point with the co-ordinates 3, 3 only
under the action of potential fields force. When it reaches the point 1, 1 its kinetic energy is
4Kα . Find the value of K .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
27. An ambulance blowing a siren of frequency 700Hz is travelling slowly towards vertical reflecting
wall with a speed of 2 m/s. The speed of sound is 350 m/s. How many beast are heard per sec to
the driver of the ambulance?
28. In YDSE, when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 of thickness t is placed in the path of one of
the interfering beams of wavelength , intensity at the position where central maximum occurred
previously remain unchanged. If the minimum thickness of the glass plate is k . Find the value
of k ….
29. If the ionization potential of hydrogen atom is13.6eV , the energy required to remove from the
third orbit of hydrogen atom is k/2eV . Find the value of k …..
30. Four identical metal plates are arranged as shown. Plates 1
and 4 are connected by a connecting wire. A battery of emf V
volts is connected between plates 2 and 3. The electric field
2V
between plates 3 and 4 is . Find the value of K ______.
Kd
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following molecule has highest bond angle?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O
(C) Cl2O (D) CH4
32. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following
– –
(A) Li (B) Be
– –
(C) B (D) C
33. When sulphur is dissolved in oleum, a deep blue solution containing polyatomic sulphur cation is
obtained. The formula of the cation present is
2 2
(A) S 4 (B) S8
2 2
(C) S19 (D) S16
34. – – +
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O O O: O
+
H – C – OH H – C = OH H – C+ – OH H – C– – OH
I II III IV
Increasing order of stability is
(A) I < III < II < IV (B) IV < III < II < I
(C) III < IV < II < I (D) II < IV < III < I
35. There is formation of precipitate almost instantly when alcoholic AgNO3 reacts with
CH3
—CH2Cl CH3—C—Cl
CH3 Cl
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II
(C) II and III (D) I and III
36. In the detection of nitrogen, blue/green colour is due to formation of Prussian blue. It is:
III II
(A) Fe 4 Fe CN 6 (B) NaFe
II
Fe
CN 6 III
(C) Na 4 FeCN 6 (D) Na 3 FeCN 6
37. An alkane with the formula C6H14 can be prepared by the hydrogenation of only two alkenes
C6 H 12 . IUPAC name of the alkane is:
(A) 2, 2-dimethylbutane (B) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(C) 2-methyl-pentane (D) n-hexane
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AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
38. CH3CH=CHCH3 + CHCl3 + t – BuOK A. A is:
(A) C H 3 C H – C H C H 3 (B) C H 3 C H – C H C H 3
CH2 C
Cl Cl
(C) C H 3 C H – C H C H 3 (D) C H 3 C H – C H C H 3
O BuO Cl O
39. Glucose is added to 1 litre water to such an extent that Tf / Kf becomes equal to 1/1000, the wt.
of glucose added is
(A) 180 g (B) 18 g
(C) 1.8 g (D) 0.18 g
40. Which of the following is most basic?
(A) .. (B) CH 3 CH 3
H –N –C H 3 ..
N
CH 3 CH 3
(C) CH 3 CH 3 (D) NH 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
..
N
O
C CH 3
CH3 CH3
CH3
41. Cellulose on hydrolysis with dil. H2SO4 gives -
(A) α D glucose (B) D glucose
(C) D fructose (D) none of these
42. Which of the following is the example of condensation polymer
(A) Polystyrene (B) Terylene
(C) Polyethene (D) Polypropene
43. Tin reacts with-
(A) Hot conc. HCl (B) Conc. HNO3
(C) HgCl2 on heating (D) All of these
44. If the starting material is 1-methyl-1, 2-epoxy-cyclopentane, of absolute configuration, decide
which one compound correctly represent the product of its reaction with sodium methoxide in
methanol.
(A) (B)
OCH 3 CH 3 O CH 3
HO CH 3 HO
(C) (D) all of these
CH 3
CH 3 O HO
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
45. Pick out the incorrect statement for XeF6–
(A) XeF6 is hydrolysed partially to form XeOF4
(B) It reacts with SiO2 to from XeF4
(C) On complete hydrolysis, it forms XeO3
(D) It acts as F– acceptor when treated with alkali metal fluoride, but cannot act as F– donor to
form complexes.
46. An inorganic compound gives a white ppt. with a solution of AgNO3 , a white ppt. with dil.
H 2SO 4 and impart green colour to flame. The probable compound is
(A) CuCl2 (B) BaCl2
(C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) PbCl2
47. When CH2 = CH–COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be
(A) CH3–CH2–COOH (B) CH2 = CH–CH2OH
(C) CH3–CH2–CH2OH (D) CH3–CH2–CHO
7
48. In the electronic configuration of nitrogen has 1s , it would have energy lower than that of the
normal ground state configuration 1s22s22p3 because the electrons would be closer to the
nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed because it violates
(A) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (B) Hund’s rule
(C) Pauli’s exclusion principle (D) Bohr postulates of stationary orbits
TG ~ @bohring_bot
49. A mixture of calcium ethanoate and calcium methanoate is heated strongly. The expected product
is
(A) acetaldehyde (B) Ethyl methyl ketone
(C) diethyl ketone (D) Propyl ketone
50. Among the following complexes which one will show co-ordination isomerism?
(A) [Cr(NH3)6] [CoCl6] (B) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl2
(C) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (D) [Cr(en)2Cl2]+
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. A large irregularlyshaped closed tank is first evacuated and then connected to a 55 litre cylinder
containing compressed nitrogen gas. The gas pressure in the cylinder, originally at 21.4 atm, falls
to 1.5 atm after it is connected to the evacuated tank. Volume of the tank in litres is x×10 , then
the value of 'x' is_____.
23
52. Number of neutrons in 18 mL of water (density of water = 1 gm/mL) is x×10 . The value of 'x'
23
is _____. (where, NA = 6×10 )
53. A solution containing H+ and D+ ions is in equilibrium with a mixture of H2 and D2 gases at 25ºC. If
[D ] 2
partial pressure of both the gases are 1.0 atm, then log is x×10 . The value of ' x ' is
[H ]
(approximate value to nearest integer) _____. [Eº(D+/D2) = –0.003V]
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AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
54. The solubility product of AgI at 25ºC is 1.0 × 10
–16 2 –2
mol L . The solubility of AgI in 10 x N solution
12
of KI at 25ºC is approximately (in mol L–1) is 110 mol/L . Find the value of ' x ' .
55. 0.7 g of Na2CO3. x H2O is dissolved in 100 ml, 20 ml of which required 19.8 ml of 0.1 N HCl. The
value of x is ____.
56. k for a zero order reaction is 2 × 10-2 mol 1-1s-1. If the concentration of the reactant after 25 s is
0.5 M, the initial concentration must have been
57. The temperature of 5 ml of a strong acid increases by 5K when 5 ml of a strong base is added to
it. If 10 ml of each is mixed, temperature should increase by ........K
3
58. The coagulation of 10 cm of gold sol is completely prevented by addition of 0.025g of starch to it.
The gold number of starch is_____ (when 1ml 10% NaCl solution is added in the gold solution)
59. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated to
600K the resultant pressure is 2.4 atm at equilibrium. Find out % decomposition of N 2 O5 (g)
60. In cubic ZnS lattice, if the radii of Zn2+ and S2– ions are 0.83 Å and 1.74 Å, the lattice parameter
(edge length, a) of cubic ZnS is (in nearest integer)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 1
61. A function f : R R is defined as f x 3 x 1 . Then f x is
x 1 1
(A) (B) x 1
3 3
1 x 1
(C) f does not exist (D)
3
sin x
62. lim 3 is equal to:
x 2 cos x 1
3
2 1
(A) (B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 3
1
(C) 3 (D)
2
Then f x decreases in the interval?
x
63. Let f x e x 1 x 2 dx .
(A) 2, (B) 2, 1
(C) 1, 2 (D) , 1 2,
x2 1
64. If I x 3
2x4 2x2 1
is equal to:
2 x4 2 x 2 1 2 x4 2 x 2 1
(A) C (B) C
x2 x
2 x4 2 x 2 1
(C) C (D) None of these
2x2
2 2
65. The area enclosed between the curves y ax and x ay a 0 is1 sq.unit , then the value of
a is:
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
1
(C) 1 (D)
3
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Yash Patil 12
dy 2
66. The solution of the differential equation 4 x y 1 is:
dx
(A) 4 x y 1 2 tan 2 x y C (B) 4 x y 1 2 tan x 2 y C
(C) 4 x y 1 2 tan 2 y C (D) 4 x y 1 2 tan 2 x C
x2 2x c
67. For x R , the expression 2 can take all real values if c :
x 4 x 3c
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1,1
(C) 0,1 (D) 1, 0
68. The third term of a G.P. is 2. Then the product of the first five terms is:
3 4
(A) 2 (B) 2
5
(C) 2 (D) None of these
69. If the system of linear equations
x 2ay az 0
x 3by bz 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x 4cy cz 0
Has a non-zero solution, then a, b, c :
(A) are in A.P. (B) are in G.P.
(C) are in H.P. (D) satisfy a 2b 3c 0
70. The number of points of intersection of the curves represented by
z 5i
arg z 2 7i cot 1 2 and arg
z 2i 2
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) None of these
3 2
71. If all the roots of z az bz c 0 are of unit modulus, then:
(A) a 3 (B) b 3
(C) c 1 (D) All of these
M
72. If M be a square matrix of order 3 such that M 2, then adj equals to:
2
1 1
(A) (B)
2 4
1 1
(C) (D)
8 16
73. How many ways are there to arrange the letters of the word ‘’GARDEN’’ with the vowels in
alphabetical order?
(A) 120 (B) 480
(C) 360 (D) 240
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
2n
2 n r
74.
If 1 x x ar x r , then ar n C1 ar 1 n C2 ar 2 n C3 ar 3 ....... 1 n Cr ao is
r 0
equal to: (r is not multiple of 3)
n
(A) 0 (B) C r
(C) ar (D) 1
2010
75. If 1 x C0 C1 x C2 x 2 ..... C2010 x 2010 than the sum of series
C2 C5 C8 ....... C2009 equal to:
1 2010 1 2010
(A) 2 1 (B) 2 1
2 3
1 2009 1 2009
(C) 2 1 (D) 2 1
2 3
76. The boy comes from a family of two children. What is the probability that the other child is his
sister?
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 1
(C) (D)
3 4
77. If A be any event in sample space then the maximum value of 3 P A 4 P A is:
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) Cannot be determined
78. Least positive integral value of ' a ' for which log 1
x
a 2
3a 3 0; x 0 :
x
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2 2 2
79. The minimum value of x y z if ax by cz p , is:
2
p p2
(A) (B)
abc a 2 b2 c 2
a 2 b2 c 2
(C) (D) 0
p2
80. The scalar triple product a b c b c a c a b is equal to:
(A) 0 (B) a b c
(C) 2 a b c (D) 4 a b c
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Yash Patil 14
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
1
81. Find the number of integers in the domain of f x .
ln cos 1 x
2
3yd 2 y dy
82. If x cos and y sin , then at is:
dx 2 dx 2
83. For a positive integer n, let I n 2 x cos nx dx .
Find the value of I1 +I 2 +I 3 +I 4 where
. denotes greatest integer function.
84. Find the number of positive integral values of k for which kx 2 k 3 x 1 0 for atleast one
positive x .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8r
85. The value of 4r
r 1
4
1
is equal to:
n
86. The sum of all digits of n for which r 2 r
2 2n 10 is:
r 1
87. For a unique value of & , the system of equations given by
x y z 6
x 2 y 3 z 14
2x 5 y z
Has infinitely many solutions, then is equal to:
4
2 10
88. A and B are two square matrices. Such that A B BA and if AB Ak .B10 . Find the value
of k 1020 .
6
5 20
89. The remainder when C2 k 1 is divided by 11, is:
k 1
90.
If log16 log 4 3 log 3 5 x 12 ; find x .
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 07-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. D
Sol. The fringe–width is given by
D D'
= and ’=
2d 2d
Where is the wavelength of light used, D is the distance of the screen from the two slits and 2 d
is the separation between two slits.
Now – ’ = (D D' )
2d
( ' ) 2d
=
D D'
(3 10 5 )(10 3 )
=
5 10 2
–6
= 0.6 × 10 m = 6000 Å
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. A
Sol. The image formation is shown in fig.
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Yash Patil 2
The rays through optical centres O1 and O2 pass undeflected. The image of O are formed at I1
and I 2 due to upper and lower lenses respectively.
The number of images formed = two
1 1 1
For a convex lens, – =
v u f
Here u = – 0.3 m and f = 0.2 m
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + =– + =
v u f 0 .3 0.2 0.6
u = 0.6 m
Let d be the distance between the two images I1 and I 2 . From OO1O2 and II1I2, we have
d uv
=
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O1O 2 u
d 0.3 0.6
or =
0.0005 0.0005 0 .3
Solving we get d = 0.003 m
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
Sol. According to given data, ionization energy of Li++ ion is 122.4 eV
Excitation energy of this ion
1 1
= 122.4 2 – 2
1 2
1
= 122.4 1 –
4
3
= 122.4 × eV
4
Eex = 91.8 eV
Hence, the value of the first excitation potential
= 91.8 V
10. B
11. B
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Sol. In one half-life the number of active nuclei reduces to half the original number. Thus, in two half-
1 1
lives the number is reduced to of the original number. The number of remaining active
2 2
1 1
nuclei is, therefore, 6.0 × 1018 × × = 1.5 × 1018
2
2
12. C
13. D
Sol. Moseley’s equation is
= a (Z – b).
c
Thus = a(Z1 – b) …(i)
1
c
and = a (Z2 – b) …(ii)
2
Using equations (i) and (ii), we get
1 1
c = a (Z1 – Z2)
2
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
c 1 1
a=
( Z1 Z 2 ) 2
1
Putting given values
a = 5.06 × 107 Hz
Dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get
2 Z b
= 1
1 Z2 b
178.5 42 b
=
71 27 b
b = 1.37
14. A
Sol. Let the frequency of the fork be n. In the first case, the length of the wire is 70 cm (0.70 m).
Therefore,
1 T
n= ...(1)
2 0.70 m
On decreasing the length of the wire, its frequency will increase. Hence in the second case when
the length is 69 cm = 0.69 m, then
1 T
n+4= ...(2)
2 0.69 m
dividing equation (1) by (2), we get
n 0.69
n 4 0.70
n × 0.70 = (n + 4) × 0.69
4 0.69
n = = 276 sec–1
0.01
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Yash Patil 4
15. A
L 1 / C
Sol. tan 60º = , tan 60º = .
R R
1
L = .
C
impedance of the circuit,
1
2
1 2
Z = R 2 L = R.
C
Current in the circuit,
V V 200
i0 = 0 = 0 = = 2 ampere.
Z R 100
1
Average power, P = V0 i0 cos .
2
L 1 / C
But tan = = 0, cos = 1.
R
1
P = × 200 × 2 × 1 = 200
2
16. C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. From the law of length of stretched string, we have n1 1 = n2 2 = n3 3
Here n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 3 : 15
n 3 n
1 1 = and 1 3 = 15/1
2 n2 1 3 n1
2 1 and 3 1
3 15
The total length of the wire is 105 cm.
Therefore 1 + 2 + 3 = 105
21 1
or 1 + 1 + 1 = 105 or = 105
3 15 15
105 15
1= = 75 cm.
21
75
2 = 1 = = 25 cm
3 3
75
3 = 1 = = 5 cm
15 15
Hence the bridge should be placed at 75 cm and (75 + 25) = 100 cm from one end.
17. B
Sol. We know that
i= (1– e t/ )
R
i= (given)
R
n = (1 – e–t / )
R R
or e–t/ = 1–
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
1
or t= In
1
18. A
19. A
20. C
SECTION – B
21. 9
Sol. Field inside the shell is zero, so potential is uniform
kq
V= =9 kilo volts
2R
22. 0
23. 9
24. 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
25. 4
26. 4
27. 8
28. 2
Sol. t 1 t 1.5 1 t = 2
29. 3
Sol. Energy required removing the electron from the third orbit
13.6
2
eV 1.5 eV = 1.5 1.6 10–19J = 3 eV
3
30. 6
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AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. C
Sol. Due to back bonding between lone pair of oxygen atom and vacant d-orbital of Cl atom,
3 2
hybridization of oxygen atom changes from sp to sp , so the bond angle increases.
O+
–
Cl Cl
32. B
Sol. Be atom has it’s configuration 1s2.2s2 so, B– has it’s configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 and therefore it will
be most destabilized.
33. B
34. B
Sol. Stability order is I > II > III > IV, because I is neutral, while in II all atoms with complete octet
system while III is more stable than IV because in case of IV oxygen is positive with incomplete
octet system.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
35. B
Sol. In (III) carbocation cannot be formed because of the bridge head.
36. A
37. B
Sol. CH3–CH–CH–CH3 It can be prepared by the hydrogenation of only two alkenes.
CH3 CH3
H2C=C–CH–CH3 and H3C–C=C–CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
38. B
Sol. CHCl3 + t–BuO–k+ t–BuOH + CCl 3
CCl3 :CCl2 + Cl–
CH3–CH=CH–CH3 + :CCl2 CH3–CH–CH–CH3
C
Cl Cl
39. D
Sol. Tf = kf × Molality
Tf number of moles of glucose 1 weight of glucose (in g)
molality
kf mass of water (in kg) 1000 180 1
weight of glucose (in g) = 0.18 g
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
40. B
CH3
Sol. Steric hinderence of two –CH3 groups makes –N group out of plane of benzene ring. So,
CH3
lone pair on nitrogen atom is not involved in resonance, therefore, this amine is most basic.
41. B
42. B
43. D
44. B
Sol. –
Na+ OCH3
H3C– CH3OH CH3O CH3
O OH
45. D
46. B
47. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
48. C
49. A
Sol. (CH3–COO)2Ca + (H–COO)2Ca
2CH3–CHO + 2CaCO3
50. A
SECTION – B
51. 73
Sol. Let the volume of the tank be V litres.
As the number of moles of N2 before and after connecting it to the tank will be same,
21.4 55 1.5 (55 V ) PV
RT
=
RT n RT
(moles of N2 before connection) (moles of N2 after connection)
V = 726 litres.
52. 48
Sol. 18mL water 18g water = 1 mole water
= NA water molecules
One water molecule contains 8 neutrons
total number of neutrons in the given sample = 8NA.
53. 5
1 1
Sol. At equilibrium, Ecell = 0, Cell reaction is D2(g) + H+ D+ + H2(g)
2 2
[D ]
E ocell = 0.0591 log 0.003
[H ]
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AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
[D ] Eocell 0.003
log
0.05
[H ] 0.0591 0.0591
54. 4
+ + –
Sol. ksp of AgI = [Ag ] [4g ] × [I ]
–16 + –4
1.0 × 10 = [Ag ] × 10
+ –12
[Ag ] = 1.0 × 10
So, solubility of AgI = [Ag+] = 1 × 10–12 mol/L
55. 2
weight (in g ) 0. 7
Sol. Total number of equivalents of Na2CO3.xH2O =
Equivalent weight 53 9x
(n factor of Na2CO3.xH2O = 2)
Total number of equivalents of HCl required for complete neutralization
0.1 19.8
5
1000
0. 7 0.1 19.8 5
so,
53 9x 1000
x=2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
56. 1
Sol. For a zero order reaction,
C0 – Ct = Kt
C0 = Ct + Kt = 0.5 + 2 × 10–2 × 25 = 1.0 M
57. 5
58. 25
59. 20
Sol. N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
at 300k, 1mole 0 mole P = 1 atm
at 600k, 1–0.2 = 0.8 moles 0.4 moles P=?
total number of moles at 600k = 1.2 moles
P nT
P1 n1T1
were n is number of moles and T is the temperature in ‘K’.
P2 n 2 T2
1 1 300
P2 = 2.4 atm
P2 1.2 600
60. 6
2– 2+
Sol. In ZnS lattice, S ions are present as FCC with Zn ions occupying alternate tetrahedral voids.
3a
rZn 2 rS2
4
4
a= (0.83 + 1.74) = 5.94 A° 6
3
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. C
Sol. Function is many one so inverse does not exist.
62. B
Sol. Let x / 3 t, x / 3 t 0
sin t
lim
t 0 2 cos t / 3 1
63. C
Sol. f x is decreasing, so f ' x 0
64. C
1 1
Sol. x 3 x 5 dx, let t 2 2 1
2 1 x2 x4
2 2 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x x
65. D
66. D
67. C
x 2 +2x+c
Sol. y= , apply nature of roots
x 2 +4x+3c
68. C
Sol.
2 3 4
Let terms a, ar, ar , ar , ar given that ar 2 2 , product of five terms
5
a. ar. ar 2 . ar 3 . ar 4 ar 2 25
69. C
70. A
71. D
72. D
73. C
74. A
75. B
2
Sol. Put x 1, x & x
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AITS-FT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
76. A
77. C
78. C
1
Sol. x 2
x
a 2 3a 3 1
a 2 3a 3 0
79. B
80. D
Sol. a b c a. b c
SECTION – B
81. 2
Sol. ln cos 1 x 0
1 x 1
82.
83.
3
4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
84. 0
Sol. k 0, & D 0
85. 2
2. 2 r 2 2 r 1 2 r 2 1 2 r
Sol. 2r
r 1
2
2r 1 . 2 r 2 1 2 r
86. 9
87. 7
Sol. 0 , also x y z 0 and atleast one co-factor of 0
88. 3
89. 4
90. 5
Sol. log b a x a b x
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 11-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed 0 about a diameter.
If its temperature is now increased by 1000C. What will be its new angular speed
(Given brass 2.0 105 per 0C )
(A) 1.1 0 (B) 1.01 0
(C) 0.996 0 (D) 0.824 0
2. When a positively charged conductor is connected to earth,
(A) electrons flow from the earth to the conductor
(B) protons flow from the conductor to the earth
(C) electrons flow from the conductor to the earth
(D) any of (A) or (C) may happen
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3. In LCR circuit shown in figure, then choose incorrect option
(A) Current will lead the voltage XC 20 R = 10 XL 10
(B) rms value of current is 20 A
1
(C) Power factor of the circuit is
2
(D) Voltage drop across resistance = voltage drop across
inductor ~
4. The mass of a body is measured as 10.1 kg. The possible percentage error in the
measurement is
(A) 1% (B) 0.1%
(C) 10% (D) 0.01%
5. Referring to the shown circuit, the current will be minimum R
in c
(A) a
a R b
(B) b 2R
(C) c
(D) same in all the branches
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. A soap bubble is blown slowly at the end of a tube by a pump supplying air at a constant
rate. Which one of the following graphs represents the correct variation of the excess of
pressure inside the bubble with time?
(A) p (B) p
t t
(C) p (D) p
t t
7. There is a 900 bend in a pipe line in which water is flowing at speed v. The cross
sectional area of pipe is A. The force exerted by pipe walls on water at bend is
(A) 3 A v 2 (B) 2 Av 2
(C) Av2 (D) 5 Av
8. A uniform solid hemisphere of radius r is joined to uniform solid right circular cone of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
base of radius r. Both have same density. The centre of mass of the composite solid lies
on the common face. The height (h) of the cone is
(A) 2r (B) 3 r
(C) 3r (D) r 6
9. System shown in figure is released from rest pulley and spring is
massless and friction is absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block
when 2 kg block leaves the contact with ground is (K = 40 N/m & g = 10
m/s2)
(A) 2 m / s (B) 2 2 m / s
(C) 2 m/s (D) 4 2 m / s
5kg 2kg
10. One half mole of a monoatomic ideal gas absorbs 1200 J of heat energy while
performing 2196 J of work. The temperature of the gas increases by
(A) 1600C (B) 800C
0
(C) 40 C (D) –1600C
11. In the LR circuit as shown in figure, the switch is closed at L R
t = 0. Mark the incorrect statement of the following:
(A)The current increases with time
(B)The current increases with a decreasing rate
(C)The voltage drop across the inductor increases E S
(D)The voltage drop across the resistor increases
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
12. A charged particle of unit mass and unit charge moves with velocity of v 8iˆ 6 ˆj m/s
in a magnetic field of B 2kˆT . Choose the correct alternative
(A) The path of the particle may be x 2 y 2 4 x 21 0
(B) The path of the particle may be x 2 y 2 4x 5 0
(C) The path of the particle may be x 2 y 2 2x 8 0
(D) The path of the particle may be x 2 y 2 2x 15 0
13. A source of sound is moving towards a stationary observer with a speed of 50 m/s. The
observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. The speed of sound is 350
m/s. The apparent frequency measured by the observer when the source is moving
away after crossing the observer is
(A) 750 Hz (B) 850 Hz
(C) 1150 Hz (D) 1250 Hz
14. The magnetic field at the centre O of the l
arc in figure is (r is the radius of circular l l
arc)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
90 0 90
0
45 r
0l 0 l
(A)
4 r
2 (B)
2r 4
1
2 1
0 l 0 l
(C) 2 r (D) 2
4 r 4 r 4
15. A thin, uniform rod of mass M and length L is at rest on a smooth B, m, L
horizontal surface. A particle of same mass M collides with the
rod at one end perpendicular to its length with velocity Vo and
C
sticks to it. C is the middle point of the rod and D is a point at a
distance of L/4 from end A. The time taken by the rod to turn D
L/4
through 90o after collision is m
A
Vo
L L
(A) (B)
Vo Vo
3 L 5L
(C) (D)
5Vo 12Vo
16. A string of length 1m and linear mass density 0.01 kg m–1 is stretched to a tension of 100
N. When both ends of the string are fixed, the three lowest frequencies for standing
wave are f 1, f2 and f3. When only one end of the string is fixed, the three lowest
frequencies for standing wave are n1, n2 and n3. Then
(A) n3 = 5n1 = f3 = 125 Hz (B) f3 = 5f1 = n2 = 125 Hz
f f
(C) f3 = n2 = 3f1 = 150 Hz (D) n2 = 1 2 = 75 Hz
2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
17. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of the lift. When the lift is at rest, its
time period is T. With what acceleration should lift be acceleration upwards in order to
reduce its time period to T/2?
(A) 9g (B) g
(C) 2g (D) 3g
18. A tunnel is dug along diameter inside the surface of earth and a particle is projected from
the centre of tunnel. The minimum velocity of particle such that it escape out from the
earth’s gravitation field is (Radius of earth = Re)
3
(A) 2gRe (B) gRe
2
5
(C) 3gR e (D) gRe
2
19. In the figure, AB is a uniform wire of length 100 cm 1.5 V
+ -
whose resistance is 5 . If galvanometer reads zero,
10
then AC =
(A) 10cm (B) 20cm C
A B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) 40cm (D) 80cm
0.2
1.8
+ -
2V
20. In the shown figure two identical beads slide v0 v0
along a smooth horizontal rod as shown in
figure. The relation between v and v0 in the
shown position will be
(A) v v 0 cot
l l
(B) v v 0 sin
(C) v v 0 tan
(D) v v 0 cos
v
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number Z = 11 is . Find the atomic number
for an atom that emits K radiation with wavelength 4.
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
22. A metal rod of mass 10gm and length 25 cm is X x x x x
suspended on two springs as shown in figure. The
X x x x Kx
springs are extended by 4 cm. When a 20 ampere K B
current passes through the rod it rises by 1 cm. X x x x x
The magnetic field is x × 10–2 T (g = 10 m/s2). Find
X x x x x
the value of 10x.
X x I x M x x
23. In a certain hypothetical radioactive decay process, species A decays into species B and
species B decays into species C according to the reactions
A 2B + particles + energy
B 3C + particles + energy
The decay constant for species A is 1 1sec 1 and that for species B is 2 100 sec 1 .
Initially 104 moles of species of A were present while there was none of B and C. It was
found that species B reaches its maximum number at a time t 0 = 2 ln(10)sec. If
maximum number of moles of B is N, then 10 N is:
24. In YDSE experiment if the screen is shifted by a distance of 0.5 m away from the slit,
3rd maxima is shifted by 3 10-4 m. The slit width is 2 10–3m. If the wavelength (in nm)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
used in the experiment is ‘k’, find the value of ‘k’.
25. On the diagram, two blocks of equal mass are connected by an
ideal string. The values of m = 1 kg and k2 = 100 N/m are given.
Initially, both springs are relaxed. Then the left block is slowly
pulled down a distance 0.1 m and released. The maximum
possible value of k1 (in N/m) for which both blocks will have same
magnitude of acceleration just after releasing, is k. Both spring
have natural length of 2m. Then find the value of k..
26. In YDSE distance between the slits plane and screen is 1m and distance between two
slits is 5 mm. If slabs of thickness 2mm and 1.5mm having refractive index 1.5 and 1.4
are placed in front of two slits, find the shift (in mm) of central maxima
27. Suppose potential energy between electron and proton at separation r is given by U = k
ln r, where k is constant. For such hypothetical hydrogen atom, find the ratio of energy
difference between energy levels (n = 1 and n = 2) and (n = 2 and n = 4) is
28. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is placed in air at a
height of 45 cm above the water surface as shown. The axis
of the mirror is vertical and the reflecting surface faces the
water surface. A point object is placed on the axis of concave
mirror at a distance 35 cm above the water surface. Find the
position of image formed after two successive processes- first
reflection from the concave mirror and then first refraction water
from the water (reflective Index of water 4/3). The distance of
image from water surface (in cm) is
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
29. A point mass of 1 kg collides elastically with a stationary point mass of 5 kg. After their
collision, the 1 kg mass reverses its direction and moves with a speed of 2 ms-1. Find the
kinetic energy (in mJ) of a particle of mass 6 kg moving with same velocity as that of
centre of mass of the above two particles of mass 1 kg and 5 kg.
30. Two identical capacitor connected as shown and having Q0
initial charge Q0. Separation between plates of capacitor is v +–
d0. Suddenly the left plate of upper capacitor and right plate +–
+–
of lower capacitor start moving with speed v towards left
Qv
while other plate of capacitor remains fixed. (given 0 =1 +–
2d +–
+–
amp). Find the value of current (in amp) in the circuit.
Q0 v
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Molar heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant volume is given by Cv = 2 10–2 J (in
Joule). If 3.5 mole of this ideal gas are heated at constant volume from 300 K to 400 K
the change in internal energy will be
(A) 7 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6
32. The compound X – CH2COOH will be the strongest acid if X is:
(A) CH3 (B) NO2
(C) F (D) OH
17001800o C
33. BCl3 H2 C Pr oduct s
The product(s) of above reaction is/are
(A) CCl4 + B2H6 (B) B4C + HCl
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) B + Cl2 + CH4 (D) B2H6 + CHCl3
34. Atomic radii of Ti, Zr and Hf vary
(A) Ti > Zr > Hf (B) Ti < Zr < Hf
(C) Ti < Hf < Zr (D) Ti < Zr = Hf
35. Which of the following hydrocarbon can form one monochloro product with Cl2/light?
CH3 CH3
(A) CH - CH3 (B) CH3 - C - CH 3
H3C CH3
CH3
(C) CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3 (D) CH3CH2CH3
CH3
36. Dehydration of alcohols produces
(A) alkanes (B) alkenes
(C) alkynes (D) aldehydes
37. The shape of [Co(NH3)6]3+ is:
(A) Tetrahedral (B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Octahedral (D) Square planar
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
38. AgNO3 solution will not give white precipitate with:
(A) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(C) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (D) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
39. Which of the following compound exhibits tautomerism?
(A) chloroethane (B) ethanol
(C) ethoxyethane (D) nitroethane
40. Which of the following two reagents form silicates when react with silica (SiO2)?
(A) NaCl and Na2S (B) NaOH and Na2CO3
(C) Na2SO4 and NaNO3 (D) NaBr and NaHSO4
41. In which combinations, all the ligands are ambient in nature?
(A) NO ,SCN and CN (B) EDTA, SCN
2
(C) H2O, (D) All of these
N
OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
42. CH3
CH3CH CH CH CH CHCH3
How many stereoisomer(s) is/are possible for the above compound?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
43. Which of the following reaction produces maximum heat?
(A) (B)
Ni Ni
H2 H2
(C) (D)
Ni Ni
H2 H2
44. Which of the following substance can decrease the ionization of CH3COOH in water?
CH3COOH l
CH3COO aq H aq
(A) NaOH (B) NH4Cl
(C) K2CO3 (D) NaCl
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
45. CH3
CH2 CH C CH2CH2Br
C 2H5
Which of the following substance converts the above optically active compound to
optically inactive compound?
(A) HBr (B) Br2/CCl4
(C) HBr/R2O2 (D) Br2/H2O
46. Which substance is used for refining of Nickel in Mond’s process?
(A) I2 (B) CO
(C) CO2 (D) MnO
47. Air H2 O
Ca P Q R S
CO2
T
White ppt.
S CO2 U H2O
Which of the following is ‘U’?
(A) CH3COONH4 (B) NH2CONH2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) NH2COONH4 (D) NH2COOH
48. Which of the following orbital has the maximum number of radial nodes?
(A) 4s (B) 4p
(C) 4d (D) 4f
49. In which case bond length of C – O bond is maximum
(A) Carboxylate ion (B) Phenoxide ion
(C) p-nitro phenoxide ion (D) 2, 4 di-nitro phenoxide ion
50. Which of the following overlap forms the strongest sigma bond?
(A) 2s – 2s (B) 2px – 2px
(C) 3py – 3py (D) 2px – 3px
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
o
51. The energy of an electron of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV when it is 0.53 A away from the
nucleus. When the hydrogen atom is supplied with 12.75 eV energy the electron moves
x o
to a higher orbit. If the distance of that orbit from the nucleus in is expressed as A.
100
What is the value of x?
52. 56.7 g anhydrous oxalic acid (H2C2O4) completely decolourises 200 mL of acidified
20 x
KMnO4 solution. If the molarity of the KMnO4 solution is expressed as M. What
100
is the value of x?
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
53. A large number of structural isomers are possible with formula C4H11N
If x = Number of primary amines,
y = Number of secondary amines and
z = number of tertiary amines, then
What is (x + y + z)
54. The temperature of a sample of diatomic ideal gas is increased by 4.5 times of its initial
value. At this temperature the molecules are completely dissociated into atoms. How
many times will the gas velocity increase from initial value due to the change?
55. 10
1
–1
10
P in atm 10–2
10–3
10–4
Time
The plot of partial pressure of the product and reactant is given above. What is the
value of Go in L atm unit at temperature ‘T’?
[Assume 2.303 RT = 4 L atm mol–1]
56. TG ~ @bohring_bot
AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and B–. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous
solution of AB2 is _____oC.(Round off to the nearest integer). [Given: Molal elevation
constant of water Kb= 0.5 K kg mol–1 boiling point of pure water = 100oC]
57. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and
2 moles of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is ideal, the vapour pressures of
mixture is ____kPa.(Round off to the nearest integer)
58. A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length 27/AA. If the same
element under the same conditions crystallizes in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the
unit cell in \AA will be ______(Round off to the nearest integer)
[Assume each lattice point as a single atom]
[Assume 3 1.73, 2 1.41 ]
59. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-
Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is __________\A.
(Round off to the nearest integer)
[Use: 3 = 1.73, h = 6.63 10–34 Js, Me = 9.1 10–31 kg, c = 3.0 108 ms–1, leV = 1.6
10–19J]
60. A certain orbital as n = 4 and m = -3. The number of radial nodes in this orbital is
_________(Round off to the nearest integer)
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. The area bounded by the x – axis, part of the curve y 1 x 2 and the ordinates x = 1
3 p
and x = 2 is divided into equal parts by the ordinate at x a such that a , then
8
the value of p is
(A) 70 (B) 71
(C) 72 (D) 73
1 1 y4 2
62. Lt
y y4
1
(A) 4 2 (B)
4 2
63.
(C)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 (D) 0
If the parabola y ax 2 bx c has vertex at (4, 2) and 1, 3 , and the maximum
value of product abc is , then is
24
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
64. Let P be a point on the line segment joining A 5 cos ,5 sin and B 5 cos , 5 sin
such that 3PA 2PB then the locus of P is if
3
(A) x 2 y2 13 (B) x y2 19
2
(C) x 2 y 2 1 (D) x 2 y 2 25
65. Let z1,z 2 and z3 are three complex numbers such that z1 z 2 z3 1 and
then the number of possible integral values of z1 z2 z3 is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 4
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
66. Let P be any point on the line x y 3 0 and A be a fixed point (3, 4). If the family of
lines given by the equations
3 sec 5 coesc x 7 sec 3 cos ec y 11 sec cos ec 0 are concurrent at
a point B for all permissible value of , then maximum value of PA PB is
(A) 3 (B) 2 10
(C) 2 34 (D) 5
67. Let P x be a quadratic polynomial such that P 1 1, if
p x dx 1
2x 3 2 3x 2 2 5 n f x C where C is constant of integration and f x is a
4
rational function such that lim f x , then value of f 1 is
x 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2
68. Let f be a function defined by f( x) (x r ) , r 1 x r 1
1, r 1 x r 2
45
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Where r = 3k, k I. Find the value of 0 f(x)dx
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
a
69. If f x is an even function which is also periodic with the period T and f x dx 3 and
0
3T/2 a 5T
f x dx 18, then f x dx is equal to
T/2 a
(A) 31 (B) 43
(C) 51 (D) 71
70. Let f x 2 tan 1 x and g x be a differentiable function satisfying
x 2y g x 2g y
g x, y R and g ' 0 1 and g 0 2 . The number of integers
3 3
‘x’ satisfying f 2 g x 5f g x 4 0 where x 10, 20 is greater than or equal to
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
71. Area bounded by the straight lines x 2 y y3 x 2 5y2 8y 4 0 is equal to (in sq.
units)
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
72.
If 2xy y 2 y dx 2xy x x 2 dy and y 1 1, then the value of 12 y 1 is
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 15 (D) 17
73. The point (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line L : x y 4 by 2 3 units. If the new
point Q lies in the third quadrant, then the equation of the line passing through Q and
perpendicular to L is
(A) x y 2 6 (B) x y 3 3 6
(C) x y 3 2 6 (D) 2x 3y 1 6
74. A circle C touches the line x 2y at the point (2, 1) and intersects the circle
C1 : x 2 y 2 2y 5 0 at two points P and Q such that PQ is a diameter of C1 . Then
the length of diameter of C is:
(A) 7 5 (B) 15
(C) 285 (D) 4 15
75. Three circles of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) touch each other externally. If they have x – axis
as a common tangent, then
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 1 1
(A) a, b, c are in A.P. (B)
b a c
1 1 1
(C) (D) a, b, c are in A.P.
a b c
76. If pair of variable straight lines x 2 4y 2 xy 0 ( is real parameter) cuts the ellipse
x 2 4y 2 4 at two points A and B, then the locus of point of intersection of tangents at A
and B of ellipse
(A) x 2 4y 2 0 (B) 4x 2 y 2 0
(C) x 2 xy 4y 2 (D) x 2 xy 4y2 0
77. If arg
z 10 6i then the perimeter of locus of z is:
z 4 2i 4
(A) 13 (B) 3 13
4
(C) 3 13 (D) 3 26
4 2
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
3
78. The sum of all values of 0, satisfy sin2 2 cos4 2 is
2 4
(A) (B)
2
3 5
(C) (D)
8 4
1 1 1
79. The value of 2
2
2
..... ..….to is?
3 1 4 2 5 3
31 13
(A) (B)
13 36
31 1
(C) (D)
36 36
80. Let x sin1o , then the value of the expression
1 1 1 1
o o
o o
o o
... is equal to
cos 0 cos1 cos1 cos 2 cos 2 cos 3 cos 44 cos 45o
o
1
(A) x (B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x
2 x
(C) (D)
x 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
m 60
81. If 40
C0 41
C1 42
C2 ... 60
C20
n
C20 , m and n are coprime, then maximum
value of ‘ m n ’is equal to
A B
1 1 k
82. Let P A B and P B , where P , then ‘k’ is equal to
4 3 A B 22
83. The line which contains all points (x, y, z) which are of the form
x, y,z 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 intersects the plane 2x 3y z 13 at the point P and
intersects the yz – plane at Q. If the distance between P and Q is a b , where a,b N
ab
and a 3, then equals
3
84. Let S be the set (2, 3, 5, 7, 11). Suppose A and B are two matrices of order 2 each with
distinct elements belonging to set S. The probability that the matrix AB has at least one
odd entry is
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AITS-FT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
3
85. If cos1 p cos1 1 p cos1 1 q then q =
4
100 100
86. Let Ci2 C2j CiC j a. 2nCn 2b , where a, b, n are even natural numbers and
i 0 j 0
Cr , represent the coefficient of xr in the expansion of 1 x 100 then a + b + n = Cr
represent
1
87. If maximum value of quadratic equation y ax 2 bx c is at x 2, then
2
2c 8a 5 is
88. The sum of possible value(s) of p for which at least one root of equation
x 4 8x3 22x 2 24x p 0 is of multiplicity 2, is
89. The sum of the following infinite series
2 1 3 2 2 5 2 7 17 12 2
1 ..... is
2 2 8 16 2 64
90. TG ~ @bohring_bot n
If 2 tan2 x 5 sec x 1 0 has 7 different roots in 0,
2
, n N , then greatest value of n
is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 11-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. Variation of moment of inertia with temperature
I = Io (1 + 2 T)
C.O.A.M:
Ii i = If f
2. D
Sol. Upon earthing, final potential of conductor becomes zero. Final charge may or may not
be zero.
3. B
Xc XL
Sol. tan =
XR
and cos = power factor.
4. A
m 0.1
Sol. m = 0.1 kg ;
m 10
m
Error = 100 = 1%.
m
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
5. A
3V 3V 6V
Sol. a , b ; c .
15R 5R 15R
6. C
Sol. At first the pressure will increase rapidly and then it will become constant.
7. B
dp
Sol. F
dt
2V dm
dt
2 V d(volume)
dt
2 V (AV)
8. B
3 2 h 1
Sol. r r 3 r 2h
8 3 4 3 3/8 r
h 3r
h/4 r
9.
Sol.
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Kx = 2 × g = 20, x=
1
2
m
1 2 1 2
5 gx – Kx 5V
2 2
V = 2 2 m/s
10. D
Sol. q = u + w
nR
U = –996 J = T
1
5
for mono-atomic gas.
3
11. C
tR
E
Sol. i 1 e L
R
12. A
mv 1 10
Sol. r 5m And motion of particle will be in x – y plane.
qB 1 2
13. A
350
Sol. 1000 f …(i)
350 50
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
350
f1 f …(ii)
350 50
f1 = 750 Hz
14. B
0I I
Sol. B 2 0
sin 90 0 sin 450 0
4 r cos 45 4 r 2
15. D
Sol. By COAM about point D ( ie about new centre of mass) B
L ML2 ML2 ML2
MVo
4 12 16 16 C
Vo
6v o D
2
or, w =
5L A
( / 2) 5L
Now, t =
w w 12v o
16. D
Sol. f
TG ~ @bohring_bot
m T
2
; n
2m 1 T
4
17. D
Sol. T 2 2
geff ga
18. C
3 GMm
Sol. Potential energy of particle at the centre of earth is U
2 Re
3GM
So, Ve 3gRe
Re
19. C
0.2
Sol. VAC 2 …(i)
1.8 0.2
5
Also, VAC = (1.5) …(ii)
15 100
20. A
Sol. Vo cos = Vsin
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
SECTION – B
21. 6
v v
Sol. f1 a(11 1) and f2 a(Z 1)
1 2
2 10 10
By dividing,
1 Z 1 1 Z 1
Z = 6.
22. 15
Sol. Initially the rod will be in equilibrium if
2To Mg with To = kxo …(i)
when the current I is passed through the rod, it will experience a force
F = BIL vertically up,
In equilibriums
2T + BIL = Mg with T = kx …(ii)
from (i) & (ii)
T Mg BIL x BIL
i.e. 1
To Mg xo Mg
or, B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Mg x o x
I L x0
Putting the values we get B 1.5 102 T .
23. 20
dNA dNB
Sol. 1NA , 2λ1NA 2NB ,
dt dt
dNB
NB = maximum 0
dt
21NA 2NBmax
21
NBmax NA
2
2
NBmax 1 N0 e 1t = 2.
2
24. 400
Sol. Here 3rd maxima is shifted by 3 10-4 m. It indicates fringe width increases by 1 10-4 m.
D 0.5 D
Hence 1 10 4
d d
0.5 2 10 3 1 10 4
or 1 104 m or 4 10 7 m = 400 nm
d 0.5
25. 300
Sol. Let T be the tension in the ideal string and ‘a’ be the acceleration of the blocks at the
instant of release. For the block on the left, the upward acceleration may be found from
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
T + k1x – mg = ma
For the block on the right, the downward acceleration may be found from
k2x + mg – T = ma
Adding the equations gives the acceleration of the blocks as
a = (k1 + k2)x/(2m)
However, subtracting the equations gives
T = mg – (k1 – k2)x/2
for maximum value of k1T will be zero.
k k2
mg 1 x ; k1 = 300.
2
26. 80
Sol. D 1m, d 5 10 3 m
D
shift = t1(1 1) t 2 ( 2 1)
d
1 0.4
3
2(1.5 1) 1.5(1.4 1) 103 0.08m
5 10 5
27. 1
dU k k mv 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. F= , ..... (i)
dr r r r
1
En mv 2 k lnr ..... (ii)
2
nh
mvr = ..... (iii)
2
k n2h2
Solving these En 1 ln 2
2 4 mk
E2 E1
required ratio = 1.
E 4 E2
28. 100
Sol. For the reflection at the concave mirror, I
u = – 10 cm; v = ?; f = – 15 cm
From the mirror formula, we have I
uf ( 10) ( 15) 150 P
v= = + 30 cm
uf 10 15 5
The positive sign indicates that the image is formed 45 cm
O
on the other side of the concave mirror, 35 cm
A
Now, the image formed by the concave mirror serves as a virtual object for refraction at
water surface which takes placed from air to water. So,
Apparent height
=
Real height
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
4
AI'' = Apparent height = × real height = 75 = 100 cm.
3
29. 750
v 2 v1
Sol. e
u1 u2
v 2 2
1
u1
u1 v 2 2
u1 1 2 5 u1 2
u1 2 5u1 10
12
u1 3m / s
4
v2 1 m / s
2
1 3 3
Kinetic energy of the centre of mass = 1 5 J
2 1 5 4
30. 2
Sol.
q1 q2
C1 C2 TG ~ @bohring_bot
A
; q1 q2 2Q0
A
C1 0 ; C2 0
d0 vt d0 vt
q1 d0 vt
q2 d0 vt
d vt
q2 0 q2 2Q0
d0 vt
2d0
q2 2Q0
d0 vt
2Q0
q2 d0 vt
2d0
dq Qv
I 2 0 = 2 amp
dt d0
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. A
Sol. Using
U = nCV T
T = 100 n = 3.5
CV = 2 10–2
U = 7
32. B
Sol. NO2 is the strongest electron withdrawing group among the given groups or atoms.
33. B
Sol. 4BCl3 6 H2 C B 4C 12HCl
The reaction takes place in the preparation of bullet proof fabric B4C.
34. D
Sol. This is due to lanthanoid contraction on 6th period.
35.
Sol.
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
It is most symmetrical.
36. B
Conc.H2 SO 4
Sol. RCH2CH2OH
R CH CH2 H2O
37. C
Sol. Octahedral complex with C.N number 6.
38. A
Sol. No free Cl– in the ionisation sphere.
39. D
Sol. O O
CH2 - N = 0 CH2 = N - OH
40. B
Sol. SiO 2 2NaOH
Na 2SiO3 H2O
SiO2 Na2CO3
Na2SiO3 CO2
41. A
Sol. Having two possible donating site but donate from one only.
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
42. C
Sol. Due to double bond, the geometrical isomers are:
CH3
CH3CH CH CH CH CH CH3
Cis Cis
Trans Trans
Cis Trans
Trans Cis Identical
When the double bonds are Cis and trans, the molecule becomes optically active.
For trans Cis(two optical isomers are possible)
Total no. of stereoisomers are:
Geometrical (2) + Optical (2) = 4
43. B
Sol. It is least substituted alkene. Hence it is unstable.
44. B
Sol. NH4 Cl
NH4Cl
NH4 H2O NH4OH H
H+ shift the ionization reaction toward backward direction due to common ion effect.
45.
Sol.
C TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3 CH3
HBr
CH2 CH C CH2CH2Br BrCH2 CH2 C CH2CH2Br
R2O 2
C2H5 C2H5
Optically inactive
46. B
Sol. Ni impure 4 CO
Ni CO 4 Ni pure 4CO
47. B
Sol. P = CaO, Q = Ca3N2, R = Ca(OH)2, S = NH3, T = CaCO3, U = NH2CONH2
48. A
Sol. No. of radial nodes = (n – l – 1)
For 4s orbital, it is 3
For 4p orbital, it is 2
For 4d orbital, it is 1
For 4f orbital, it is 0
49. B
Sol. More double bond character, smaller bond length
50. B
Sol. Small size atomic orbitals undergo better overlap than larger atomic orbitals.
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
51. 848
Sol. En – E1 = 12.75
E
or 21 E1 12.75 [ E1 = -13.6 eV(given)]
n
n=4
n2 16 o
rn a0 0.53 8.48 A
Z 1
x
= 8.48, x = 848
100
52. 106
Sol. Meq of KMnO4 = Meq of H2C2O4
W
(V) (M)(n) = 1000
E
56.7
Or, (200)(M)(5)= 1000
90
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
M = 1.26
20 x
1.26 x 106
100
53. 7
Sol. x = 3, y = 3, z = 1
Primary amines are
NH2 NH2
NH2
Secondary amines are
NH NH
NH
Tertiary amine is
54. 3
3RT
Sol. Ci
M
3 R 4.5 T 3RT
Cf 3 3 Ci
M M
2
You can take any velocity.
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
55. 8
10 3
Sol. KP 1
10 2
10
Go = -2.303 RTlogKP
= -2.303 RTlog10–2 = (-4)(2 log10) = 8
56. 106
Sol. AB2 A 2 2B
t=0 a 0 0
t = t a - a a 2 a
nT = a - a + a + 2 a
= a(1 + 2a)
So, i = 1 + 2
Now Tb = i m Kb
Tb =(1 + 2) m Kb
= 0.1, m = 10, Kb = 0.5
Tb = 1.2 10 0.5 = 6
So boiling point = 106
57. 19
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
According to Roult's law: P T = X A P A ∘ + X B P B ∘ P T = 1 3 × 21 + 2 3 × 18 = 7 + 12
P T = 19 kPa.
58. 33
Sol. For BCC 3a 4r
3
so, r 27
4
for FCC a 2 2r
3
2 2 27
4
3
27 33
2
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
59. 9
Sol.
60. 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. n = 4 and m = -3
Hence, value must be 3. Now number of radial nodes = n - - 1
=4–3–1=0
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. D
a 2
1 1
Sol. x x
x1 x0
1 3
2a
a 2
4a 2 3a 4 0
3 73
a
8
62. B
1 1 y4 2
Sol. lim
y 0 y4
1 1 y4 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
lim
y 0
y 4 1 1 4y 4 2
lim
1 y 1 1 y 1
4 4
y 0
y4 1 1 y 2 1 y 1
4 4
1 y4 1
lim
y 0 4
y 1 1 y4 2 1 y 4 1
1 1
lim
y 0 4
1 1 y 2 1 y 1
4 4 2
63. C
b D
Sol. As given 4 and 2
2a 4a
Hence, E abc 16 a 2 8a3
dE
0 for a 1, 3
da
Emax 16 12 8.13 144
144
6
24
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
64. B
PA 2
Sol.
PB 3
2 3
A B
P hk
10 cos 15 cos
h 2cos 3 cos
5
k 2 sin 3 sin
h2 k 2 13 12 cos
x 2 y 2 13 12 cos
65. B
Sol. On solving, we have z13 z32 z33 z1z 2 z3 0
2
z1 z2 z3 z1 z2 z3 3z1z2 3z2 z3 3z3 z1 4z1z 2z3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 1 1 1
z1 z2 z3 z1z2 z3 3 z1 z2 z3 4
z1 z2 z3
3
z1 z2 z3 3 z1 z 2 z3 z1 z 2 z3 4
x 3 3x 2 4 x 1, 2
66. B
Sol. 3 sec 5 cos ec x 7 sec 3 cos ec y 11 sec cos ec 0
sec 3x 7y 11 cos ec 5x 3y 11 0
Hence point B is (1, –2)
Now proceed.
67. B
p x A B C D
Sol. 2 2
2
2x 3 3x 2 2x 3 2x 3 3x 2 3x 2 2
f x is rational function
B = D = 0 and P x 2x 3 3x 2
P 1 1 1
dx 2 3 dx
2x 3 3x 2 2x 3 3x 2 5
1 2x 3 1 4x 6
n C n C'
5 3x 2 5 3x 2
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
4 4x 6
lim f x f x
x 3 3x 2
f 1 2
68. C
y
Sol.
x2 1 x 1
for r 0
1 1 x 2 x
2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5
(x 3) 2 x 4
f(x) for r 3
1 4x5
2
(x 6) 5 x 7
1 for r 6
7 x 8
From the graph of f(x), it is clear that f(x) is periodic with period 3.
45 3 2
1 2 2 2
Now f(x)dx 15 f(x)dx 15 f(x)dx 15 x dx 1·dx 15 1 25 5
0 0 1 1 1 3
69. C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3T/2 2T T
Sol. f x dx 18 f x dx 18 f x dx 9
T/2 0 0
a 5T a a 5T
f x dx f x dx f x dx
a a a
a T
2 f x dx 5 f x dx 2 3 5 9 51
0 0
70. D
x 2y 2f y f x
Sol. g 1 f (y)
3 3
2
g x is linear
f (x)
g(x) = mx + c
g' x m 1
g x c 2 2 1
gx x 2
x y
f g x 2 tan1 x 2 2y x
z
f 2 g x 5f g x 4 0 3
f g x 1 g x 4 0
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
71. A
Sol. x 2 y x 2 y 3 y2 4y 2 4y 4y 4 0
x 2 y 1 y 2 y 1 4y y 1 4 y 1 0
y 1 x 2 y 2 4y 4 0
2
y 1 or x 2 y 2
y 1, x y 2 or x 2 y
1
Shaded area 2 1 1 sq. units.
2
72. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. d x 2 y d xy d xy 2
x 2 y xy xy 2 c
at x = 1, y = 1 c = – 1
x 2 y xy xy 2 1 y y y 2 1
y 2 2y 1 0 y 1
12 y 1 12
73. C
Sol. xy4
To find equation of R
Slope of L = 0 is 1
Slope of QR = –1
Let QR is y = mx + c P (2, 1) L=0
y x c
(4, 0)
x y c 0 distance of QR from
(2, 1) is 2 3
2 1 c
2 3 Q x=y=4
2
2 6 3c R
c 3 2 6c 3 2 6
Line can be x y 3 2 6
xy 32 6
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
74. A
Sol. x 22 y 12 x 2y 0
C : x 2 y 2 x 4 y 2 2 5 0
C1 : x 2 y 2 2y 5 0
S1 S2 0
(Equation of PQ)
4 x 2 4 y 10 0
Press through (0, –1)
7
C : x 2 y 2 11x 12y 5 0
245
4
Diameter 7 5
75. C
Sol. Length of common tangent
r1 r2 2 r1 r2 2
r2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r1
a b 2 a b 2 a c 2 a c 2
b c 2 b c 2
ab ac bc
1 1 1 b
c b a
76. A
xb
Sol. Equation of AB is ky 1
4
A
Centroid equation of as OB = 4
2
xb xy
x 2 4y 2 4 0 ………..(i)
4 1
x 2 4y 2 xy 0 ………..(ii)
h2 4 k 2 4 br
B
16 4 2h
2
1
h 4 4 k 1
Locus is x 2 4y 2 0
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
77. D
Sol. 2r 10 4 2 6 2 2
36 16 2 13
r 26
3 3
Perimeter 2r 26
4 2
78. A
3
Sol. sin2 2 cos4 2 , 0,
4 2
3
1 cos2 2 cos4 2
4
4 2
4 cos 2 4 cos 2 1 0
2
2 cos2 2 1 0
1
cos2 2 cos2
2 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 n , n I
n
4
2 8
,
8 2 8
79. B
1 1
Sol. Sn n2 n 2 ; n 2n 1
n 3
1 1 1
3 n 1 n 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
...
3 2 5 3 6 4 7 5 8 6 9
1 1 1 1 13
3 2 3 4 36
80. B
1 sin 1 0 sin 2 1 sin 45 44
Sol. ...
sin1 cos 0 cos1 cos 2 cos 2 cos 44 cos 45
1
=
sin1
tan1 tan 0 tan 2 tan 2 tan 3 tan 2 ... tan 45 tan 44
1
= . 1 0
sin 1
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
1
=
sin1
1
= .
x
SECTION – B
81. 101
41
Sol. C0 41C1 42C2 ......... 60C20
42
C1 42C2 ......... 60C20
61 60 m
. C20 . 60C20
41 n
82. 6
A B P A B
Sol. Let P P
A B P A B
A B A B
P A B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
p
1 P B PA B
1
4
1 1
1
3 4
3
k 6
11
83. 6
x2 y3 z4
Sol. Here equation of line is say ……(i)
1 2 3
Hence any point on the line (i) will be p 2, 3, 3 4
Given line (i) intersect the given plane
2x 3y z 13 at the point P
2
P 4,1, 2
also equation (i) intersects the YZ – plane at Q i.e. x 0
20 2
Q 0, 7, 10
84. 1
2 2
Sol. Total ways in which A and B can be chosen 5
C4 4! 5!
Required probability = 1 – P (A and B does not contain 2)
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
4!2 1 24
1 1 0.96
5!2 25 25
85. 0
3
Sol. Given, cos1 p cos1 1 p cos1 1 q
4
2
1
2 3
cos1 p cos1 1
p cos
1
q
4
3
cos1 p sin1 p cos1 1 q
4
3
cos1 1 q
2 4
1
q
2
86. 502
100 100
Sol. Ci2 C2j CiC j
TG ~ @bohring_bot
i 0 j 0
100
101 Ci2 200C100 C i 2100
i 0
a 2nCn 2b
a 202 n 100, b 200
87. 6
Sol. y ax 2 bx c
y is max. at x = 2
b
2 b 4a
2a
D
max value
4a
b 2
4ac 1
4a 2
2
4ac b 2a
4ac 16a 2 2a
2c 8a 1
2c 8a 5 6
88. 17
Sol. Let be a double root of f x 0
f ' x 4 x 1 x 2 x 3
If x 1 is double root, then f 1 0 p 9
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AITS-FT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 20
If x = 2 is double root, then f 2 0 p 8
If x = 3 is double root, then f 3 0 p 9
Sum of all possible values of p = 17
89. 2
2 1
Sol. The given series is in the form 1 a a2 a3 ........ to where a
2 2
1
Sn
1 a
1
2 1
1
2 2
2 2
2 2 2 1
2 2
2 1
90.
2 2
15
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 1
Sol. 2 sec 2 x 5 sec x 3 0
2 sec x 1 sec x 3 0
sec x 3
1
cos x
3
1
3
2 4 6
15
2
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 15-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A block of mass m is attached to one end of a light string which is
wrapped on a disc of mass 2m and radius R which if free to rotate
about the horizontal axis passing through its centre of mass. The
total length of the slack portion of the string is . The block is m
released from rest as shown. The velocity of the block just after the
string becomes taut is (no slipping between disc and string)
g
(A) g (B)
2
2g 3g
(C) (D)
3 2
2. A potential of 2 V is applied across the faces of a pure germanium plate of area 4 × 10–4 m2 and
of thickness 2 × 10–3 m. Concentration of carriers in germanium at room temperature is 1.0 × 106
m–3, Mobility of electrons and holes are 0.7 m2V–1s–1 and 0.3 m2V–1s–1 respectively. The current
TG ~ @bohring_bot
produced in germanium plate at room temperature, is
(A) 1.40 × 10–10 A
–10
(C) 9.6 × 10 A
(B) 1.40 × 10–9 A
(D) 6.4 × 10–14 A
3. The wavelength of the waves associated with a proton and a photon are the same. Therefore, the
two have equal.
(A) mass (B) velocity
(C) momentum (D) kinetic energy
4. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a thermodynamic process, in which its molar heat
capacity varies directly proportional to temperature as C = T, where is a positive constant. Work
done by the gas when it is heated from initial temperature T0 to a final temperature 3T0 will be
3T
(A) 4T02 (B) T0 R 0
2
T
(C) 4T0 5R T0 (D) 3T0 5R 0
2
5. When a sample of atoms is irradiated by neutrons, radioactive atoms are produced at a constant
rate R, which decay with decay constant . The number of radioactive atoms accumulated after
an irradiation time t is given by
R
(A) N t Rtet (B) N t et
R
(C) N t
1 et (D) N t Rt 1 et
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. In the DC voltage regulator circuit shown, the zener RL=5 k
breakdown voltage VZ = 5 V. If the unregulated input
varies between 11 V to 15 V, maximum zener current (in
mA) is VZ=5 V
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
RS=2.5 k
+ –
Unregulated input
x 9
7. Radius of 32 Ge (germanium) nucleus is measured to be twice the radius of 4 Be nucleus. Number
of neutrons in Ge are
(A) 38 (B) 40
(C) 42 (D) 44
8. A SONAR system fixed in a submarine operates at a frequency 40 kHz. An enemy submarine
moves towards the SONAR with a speed of 360 km/h. The frequency of sound is reflected by
submarine is (Speed of sound in water = 1400 m/s)
300 600
(A) kHz (B) kHz
7 13
560
(C) kHz (D) 40 kHz
13
9.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A point source S of light is placed at a depth d
below the surface of water in a large and deep
lake. Maximum fraction of light that escapes in
d
space above directly from water (refractive index
= ) surface is given by
1 2 1 2 1
(A) (B)
2
1 2 1 1 2 1
(C) (D)
2 2 2 2
10. In a sphere of radius R, the volume charge density varies as r (r is distance from centre).
Variation of electric field E with r (For all values of r : r R and r > R) is best represented by
(A) (B)
E E
R r R r
(C) (D)
E E
R r R r
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11. Binding energy per nucleon of Helium and deuterium nuclei are 7 MeV and 1.1 MeV, respectively.
When two deuterium nuclei undergo fusion to form helium nucleus, energy released in the process is
–13
(A) 23.6 J (B) 37.76 × 10 MeV
–13
(C) 23.6 eV (D) 37.76 × 10 J
12. Current I flows through a long thin walled metallic cylinder of radius R with a thin longitudinal slit
of width d0(d0 << R) running parallel to the axis of the cylinder. The magnetic induction B
produced at any point on the axis of the cylinder is approximately
0I
(A) B = zero (B) B
2R2
Id Id
(C) B 02 02 (D) B 0 02
4 R 2R
13. The reading of the ammeter, used in the electrical network shown B
below, is 20 mA, a long time after the key K is closed. The reading 2R
of the same ammeter, immediately after the key was closed was R mA
L
(A) zero (B) 16 mA
70 A C
(C) 25 mA (D) mA K
3
3R
2R
D
14.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Consider the diffraction pattern due to a single slit. The first maximum for a certain
V
monochromatic light coincides with the first minimum for red light of wavelength 660 nm. The
wavelength of the monochromatic light is
(A) 660 nm (B) 550 nm
(C) 440 nm (D) 330 nm
15. The energy of the characteristic X-ray photon in Coolidge tube comes from
(A) the kinetic energy of striking electron.
(B) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target.
(C) the kinetic energy of the ions of the target.
(D) the electronic transition of the target atom.
16. A system of capacitors C1 8F,C2 2 F,C3 4 F and 8F 2F
C4 6F connected across a battery of emf E = 30 V is shown A
in figure. The charge that will flow, through the switch S, when it
is closed is
S
(A) 60 C A to B
(B) 48 C A to B B
(C) 24 C B to A 4F 6F
(D) 36 C B to A
30V
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17. Four barometer A, B, C and D are shown in the figure. A is moving up with constant velocity, B is
accelerated up, C is accelerated down and D is at rest. Atmospheric pressure is represented by
76 cm of mercury column.
(i) HA 76 cm, (ii) HB 76 cm, (iii) HC 76 cm, (iv) HD 76 cm
Mark the correct answer.
HA HB HC HD
v a a
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
18. A total charge Q is uniformly distributed over a non-conducting ring of radius r. There is a
dB
time varying magnetic field perpendicular to its plane and changing at the uniform rate of .
dt
The magnitude of torque experienced by the ring is
dB dB
(A) Qr 2 (B) Qr 3
dt dt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 2 dB 1 3 dB
(C) Qr (D) Qr
2 dt 2 dt
19. A circular loop of radius r is placed inside another circular loop of radius R (R >> r). The loops are
coplanar and concentric. The mutual inductance (M) of the system is proportional to
r r 2
(A) 0 (B) 0
R R
2
R r 2
(C) 0 (D) 0 2
r R
20. A sphere and cube have equal surface area are made of the same material. The two are heated
to the same temperature and kept in identical surrounding. The ratio of their initial rates of cooling
is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) :1
2
(C) :1 (D) :1
3 6
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Yash Patil 6
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. In a young’s double slit experiment distance between the slits is d = 1 mm, Wavelength of light
used is 600 nm and distance of screen from the plane of slits is D = 1 m. The minimum distance
k
between two points is mm on the screen, where intensity is maximum. Find the value of k.
10
(Assume both sources of equal power).
22. A block of mass m is projected from a point A with velocity
20 m/s on the rough surface having coefficient of friction
to hit the wall B with velocity 10 m/s. With what velocity Wall A
20 m/s
same mass m should be projected to hit the wall B with m
same velocity 10 m/s if the surface is moving now upward
with an acceleration of a = 4g as shwon in the figure. a
23. A sound source of constant frequency resonates with an open end organ pipe of length 30 cm
and a close end organ pipe of length 23 cm (both of same diameter). Both pipes are sounding
their first overtone. If velocity of sound is 340 ms–1, then find the end correction in cm.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
24. In an electromagnetic wave the amplitude of magnetic field is 3 108 T. If the frequency of wave
is 1012 Hz, then find the amplitude of associated electric field in S.I. unit.
25. A concave mirror when placed in air has a focal length f =
20 cm. The mirror is now placed horizontally and filled with
4
a thin layer of water having refractive index . The object
3
is placed at principal axis at a distance d from the mirror
such that a real, inverted image coincides with the object.
Find the value of d in cm.
26. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitances C1 = 10F, C2 = 40F A
and C3 = 20F are connected as shown in figure to one another at O
and to points A, B and D at potentials VA = 100 V, VB = 50 V and VD = 10F
200 V respectively. Calculate charge in 40 F capacitor in C.
40F O
20F
B D
27. The rate of flow of a certain liquid of viscosity through a horizontal capillary of length and
radius r is Q when the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet is equal to the
atmospheric pressure. The rate of flow of the same liquid through another capillary of length 2
and radius 2r when the pressure difference between inlet and outlet is 3 times the atmospheric
pressure is kQ. Find the value of k.
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28. A ball is projected from horizontal ground. It attains a maximum height H on its projectile path and
there after strikes a stationary smooth vertical wall and falls on ground vertically below the point
of maximum height. Assume the collision with wall to be perfectly elastic, the height of the point
3H
on the wall where the ball strikes is . Find the value of k.
k
29. A solid cylinder of mass m = 10 kg is rolling without slipping on a
rough horizontal surface, under the action of a horizontal force F
= 48 N such that the line of action of F passes through centre C
of the cylinder. Coefficient of friction between cylinder and F C
surface is = 0.4. Calculate the frictional force (in newton) acting
on the cylinder.
= 0.4
30. Two small solid balls of masses m and 8 m made up of same material and same density are tied
at the two ends of a thin weightless thread. They are dropped from a balloon in air. The tension T
of thread during fall, after the motion of balls has reached the steady state is T = k mg. Find the
value of k.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A 4 m long tube closed at one end is lowered vertically into water A = Area
until the closed end is flushed with water surface (See figure). 4m
Calculate the water level height in the tube, h. [Barometric
pressure = 1 atm = 10 m of hydrostatic water head; hm
T 25o C, dH2O 1 g / mL. Neglect water vapour pressure]
(A) 1.71 m (B) 3.06 m
(C) 1.53 m (D) 0.855 m
32. The oxidation state of sulphur in the dithionous and dithionic acids, respectively are:
(A) +4, +6
(B) +4, +5
(C) +3, +5
(D) +3, +6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33. In a hypothetical solid, x atoms form CCP lattice. ‘Y’ atoms occupy
all tetrahedral voids and ‘Z’ atoms occupy all octahedral voids. If a
unit cell of crystal is cut by a plane shown in the figure, then the
cross section of the plane looks like:
(A)
X Z X
Y
Z Z
Z
Y
X Z X
(B)
X X X
Z Z Z
X X X
(C)
X X X
Y Y
Z Z Z
Y Y
X X X
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(D)
X Z X
Y Y
Z Z Z
Y Y
X Z X
34. The major product formed in the following reaction is:
HBr
o
0 C
HC OH
(A)
HC Br
(B) Br
HC
(C)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
HC Br
(D)
Br
HC
35. In the synthesis of polydimethyl siloxane, the chain forming, branching and terminating agent
respectively, are
(A) Me2 SiCl2 , Me3 SiCl and MeSiCl3
(B) Me2 SiCl2 , MeSiCl3 and Me3 SiCl
(C) MeSiCl3 , Me2 SiCl2 and Me3 SiCl
(D) Me2 SiCl2 , MeSiCl3 and Me4 Si
36. Choose the correct statement(s) among the following
(I) LiF is more soluble than LiClO4 in water.
(II) The standard reduction potential Eo of Li is more negative than that of Na.
(III) The heat of hydration of Li g is greater than that of Na g .
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) III only
37. The two main pollutants which are released when fossil fuels are burnt are
(A) O3 and hydrocarbon
(B) NO2 and O3
(C) NO and NO2
(D) NO2 and hydrocarbon
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Yash Patil 10
38. The role of BF3 as an industrial polymerization catalyst is to generate
(A) Carbanion
(B) Carbocation
(C) Organic radical
(D) Carbon radical
39. The correct structure of ribonucleoside uridine is:
(A) O
NH
HO N O
O
OH
(B) O
NH
HO N O
O
(C)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
OH OH
NH
HO O N O
O
OH
(D)
NH
HO O N O
O
OH OH
40. The number of degenerate spatial orbitals of a hydrogen like atom with principal quantum number
n = 5 is
(A) 25
(B) 5
(C) 50
(D) 10
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41. Consider the entropy changes in a system undergoing transformation, as depicted in the diagram
below
S S
20o C
1
40o C
2
60o C
S
The correct statement among the following is
(A) S1 S2 and S S1 S2
(B) S1 S2 and S S1 S2
(C) S1 S2 and S S1 S2
(D) S1 S2 and S S1 S2
42. For the following complexes, the increasing order of magnetic moment (spin only value) is
3 3 3 3
(a) TiF6 (b) CrF6 (c) MnF6 (d) CoF6
(A) d < a < b < c
(B) c < a < d < b
(C) b a < d < c
(D) a < b < c d
43. The stability of lyophobic colloids is a consequence of the
(A) Electric double layer at the surface of the particle
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) van der Waal forces between the particles
(C) Small size of particles
(D) Shape of particles
44. H
O
MnO2
OH
Acetone
The major product is ?
OH
(A) H
O
CHO
CHO
(B) H
O
OH
CHO
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Yash Patil 12
(C) H
O
CHO
OH
(D) H
O
CHO
CHO
45. The rate constant of a second order reaction A B is k 2 . If the initial concentration of the
reactant is x o and the concentration of the product at time t is a, then a linear function of t with
the slope k 2 xo is :
a
(A) n
xo a
TG ~ @bohring_bot
a
(B)
x x a
o o
a
(C)
xo a
a
(D) n
x x a
o o
46. Correct sequence of reagent (i) to (iii) required for the conversion of A to B is:
N NH N
O
H2N COOH
(i) Thionyl chloride
(ii) 4-chloropyridine
(iii) Piperidine
(A) i, ii and iii
(B) i, iii and ii
(C) ii, i and iii
(D) iii, i and ii
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47. The major product formed in the following reaction is
CH Cl
2 2
MeLi
Major product
N
H
(A)
N
(B)
N
Cl
(C) Cl
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D)
Cl
48. Predict the major product in the given reaction:
1. NH OH
2
2. AcCl
Major product P
(A)
CN
(B)
CN
(C) N OAc
CH3
(D)
CN
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49. Among the structures given below, the one that corresponds to the most stable conformation of
compound (X) be:
O
Me OH
O
(X)
(A) O
Me O OH
(B) HO
O
Me O
(C) Me
O
OH
O
(D) Me
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
OH
50. Allred – Rochow electronegativity of an element is:
I. Directly proportional to the effective nuclear charge.
II. Directly proportional to the covalent radius.
III. Inversely proportional to the square of the covalent radius.
IV. Directly proportional to the square of the effective nuclear charge.
The correct answer is:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) I and IV
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. The degree of unsaturation in the product formed by heating mellitic acid C6 COOH6 is:
52. XH2 (ion exchange resin) can replace Ca 2 ions in hard water as XH2 Ca 2 XCa 2H . If
1 L hard water after passing through XH2 has a pH = 4 then hardness in parts per million of
Ca 2 is
53. The theoretical efficiency of a hypothetical cell is about 84% which involves the following reaction
A s B 2 aq A 2 aq B s H 285 kJ
then, the standard EMF of the cell is:
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54. An amount of 0.1 millimole of CdSO4 is present in 10 mL acid solution of 0.08 M HCl. Now, H2S
is passed to precipitate all the Cd+2 ions. What would be the pH of solution after filtering off
precipitate, boiling off H2S and making the solution 100 mL by adding water?
55. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of KCN containing 0.2 mole/kg water was 0.8o C . On
addition of 0.1 mole of Hg CN2 in the solution containing 1 Kg of water, the freezing point of the
solution was 0.6o C . Assuming that the complex is formed according to the following equation:
Hg CN mCN Hg CN
m
2 m 2 2
and Hg CN is the limiting reagent, the value of 4 m is:
56. For the following molecules; if x is the total number of p-orbitals used in hybridisation of each
central atom, then what is the value of
x ?
6
2 2
XeO2 F2 , B2 H6 , NiCl4 , PtCl4 , N SiH3 3 , H3 BO3
57. The number of optically active stereoisomer possible for X are:
X : CH3 CH OH CH OH CH OH CH3
58. The number of bridging carbonyls in Mn2 CO 10 are:
59.
60.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The total number of black coloured sulphides in the following are:
PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag2S, NiS, CoS, SnS2, CdS
The sum of reaction numbers for which the major product is/are correctly mentioned is:
1.
CH2 CH3
H
H3C
H3C CH3 CH3
2.
H2 /Ni
CH2 CH2 CH3 No reaction
3. O
C
COOH O
C
COOH
O
4. 2CH3 CH2 COOH 2CH3 CH3
5. CH3
CH3 O
H
Na/liq. NH O
CH OH
3
3
Zn/H O
C O
3 2
H2C CHO H O
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Yash Patil 16
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Let A = {x : x2 x + 20,000 ; x N}
B = {x = 3k + 2 ; k N}
C = {x = 4k ; k N}
The sum of the elements of the set A (B C) is
(A) 2443 (B) 2447
(C) 2450 (D) 2453
62. The number of integral values of a for which the equation x 4 (a + 2)x3 + 2ax2 + 4(a 2)x 16= 0
has at least two positive roots; a [10, 10] is/are
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 16
60
63. Let (1 + x + x2)30 = ar xr . If a21 = a20 + a19, (, , N) then the value of + + can be
r 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 62 (B) 72
(C) 82 (D) 74
1 2 1
x 2 x4 x2 1 4
64. e
2 x
x2
2
dx f x c , then f is
(A) e5 (B) 2e5
(C) 4e5 (D) 2e5
65. If 1(50)49 + 2(51)1(50)48 + 3(51)2(50)47 + ….. (50) (51)49 = k(50)49 then the number of factor of k of
the form 4m + 1, (m W) is/are
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
2 2 2 3
66. If the pair of perpendicular lines 4x + by + 2cos xy + 12x + 2sin y + c = 0, ,2
2
intersect on x-axis then the area of triangle formed by the given pair of lines and y = 2 is
65
(A) 65 (B)
2
65
(C) (D) 2 65
4
67. Consider two circles
C1 : (x 1)2 + (y 4)2 16 = 0 and C2 : (x 13)2 + (y 9)2 81 = 0
If a circle of radius r touches x-axis and C1 and C2 externally, then r is equal to
(A) 1.44 (B) 1.48
(C) 1.52 (D) 1.6
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68. A line y = m(x 4) meets x-axis at P and the parabola x2 = 32y at Q(x1, y1). The tangent to the
parabola at Q(x1, y1) meets x-axis at R(x2, 0) 0 < x2 < 6. If the area of triangle PQR assumes a
local maximum, then the value of m is
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
1 3
(C) (D)
2 4
69. Consider three curves
H : (x + a)y = ; < 0, a > 0
C : x2 + y2 – 21y + 109 = 0
P : y2 = bx; b > 0
Let the line 2x – y + 8 = 0 touches the curve H, C and P at L, M & N respectively such that LM =
MN = 45 , then the value of 8 + b + a is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) – 1 (D) 2
x2 y2
70. A line L = 2x – y + 5 = 0 is a tangent to the hyperbola H 1 such that foot of
a2 b2
32 5 2 3 5
perpendicular from the foci of hyperbola on line L is , . If the hyperbola
5 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 y 2
intersects an ellipse E 1 orthogonally, then eccentricity of the ellipse is
25 2
1 3
(A) (B)
5 5
1 2
(C) (D)
5 3
dy y cos x 2 tan2 x tan x 2
71. Let y = y(x) be a solution curve of the differential equation .
dx sin x cos x sin x cos x
7
If y 23/4 , then y 2 is
4 12
(A) 7 6 4 2 (B) 7 2 4 6
(C) 3 6 7 2 (D) 28 2 16 6
72. Let P(z), R(z4) and Q(z2) be three points in Argand plane such that PR + RQ = PQ; (z 0, 1) then
z lies on
1
(A) a circle centred at ,0 (B) a line segment having length 2 3
2
1
(C) a line having slope (D) a line parallel to y-axis
2
a 5 7
a b c
73. Let 3 b 7 0, a 3,b 5,c 7 and
a 3
b 5
c 7
, if a 2 3
3 5 c
2 2
then the point (b , c ) may lie on the line
(A) 5y 21x = 0 (B) 5y 24x = 0
(C) 5y 63x = 0 (D) 21y 5x = 0
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Yash Patil 18
4
74. In ABC, A = tan17, C = tan1 . Let D be an interior point on side AC such that area of ABD
3
is twice that of area of BCD. If ABD = , then the value of tan2 is
12 5
(A) (B)
5 12
36 77
(C) (D)
77 36
75. There are two townships A and B in a city containing 40% and 60% of the population
respectively. 15% of the total population suffer from heart disease.
P(person suffering from heart disease who lives in A) = 6 P(person suffering from heart disease
who lives in B) where P(E) denotes the probability of a event E.
A person randomly diagnosed turns out to be free from heart disease, then the probability that he
lives in B township is
28 38
(A) (B)
85 85
57 47
(C) (D)
85 85
76. Consider the following frequency distribution
Class : 0 10 10 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Frequency : 3 a b 11 8 4
277 335
If the mean is and median is , then the value of 4a + b is
9 11
(A) 40 (B) 38
(C) 50 (D) 48
77. Consider the following statements
P : Sachin is a topper
Q : Sachin is sincere
R : Sachin is not demotivated
The negation of the statement.
If Sachin is a sincere and he is not demotivated, then he is a topper
(A) P (Q R) (B) (~ P) (Q R)
(C) P ((~ Q) (~ R)) (D) P (Q R)
8
78. The upper four-fifth portion of a vertical tower subtends an angle tan1 at a point A in the
21
horizontal plane through its foot and at a distance 50m from the foot. If the angle subtended by
the lower one fifth of tower at point A is , then the height of the tower can be
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 13 (D) 75
79. Let N be the number of four digits even numbers such that if 3 is one of the digit, then 5 is the
succeeding digit. If N can be resolved as P1P2P3 (P1, P2, P3 are primes and , , are natural
numbers then P1 + P2 + P3 is
(A) 11 (B) 31
(C) 29 (D) 9
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
80. Let S1 = {z c : |z 2| |ReZ + 2|}
S2 = {z c : z(1 + i) + z (1 i) 12 0}
S3 = {z c : ReZ 0, ImZ 0}
and S = S1 S2 S3, then the maximum value of |z 20i|2 ; z S
(A) 436 (B) 446
(C) 456 (D) 384
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
81. If the sum of values of in (–3, 3) satisfying
15
k
sec m 1 18 sec m 18 4 2 3 cos ec 18 is 10
m 1
then the value of k is _______
2 sin A sin3 A cosB m
82. If ; 0 < A, B < /2, then the value of cosB , m & n are co-prime
2 cos A cos A sinB
3 n
where m + n is _______
83. Let
5
6 TG ~ @bohring_bot
cos 1
13
3
3 2
1
sin1
3
2 3 1
3 2
5 13
tan1
6
3
a
5
and cos1 cos cot 1 sincos1 = b
40 12 32 13
a tan x
then cosec dx is ([.] represents greatest integer function)
3
b
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 0 ; a, b R . If for some n N, A = 72 1 0 then number of
+ n
84. Let A = a
3600 72 1
a a b 1
triangles formed by joining the vertices of n sided polygon having no side common with the
polygon are
85. Consider the curves
C1 : y 2 x 0 3
2 ; 0x
C2 : y x 0 2
3
C3 : y = f(x) ; f(x) < 0
x 0,
2
From any point P on C2, lines are drawn parallel to the coordinate axes so as to intersect C1 at Q
and C3 at R. If area of region OPRO is twice of the area of region OPQO; (O being origin) then
1
the value of 32f is
2
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 20
86. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying (f(x) 1) (f(y) 1) = f(x + y) 1 x, y R ; f(0) 1, f'(0)
sin f x 5 2 2x
= ln4. If lim = ln8, then the value of a b is
x 1 x 3 7x 2 ax b
6a ln2 2 tan1 b x ; 1 x 0
3
ln 4
87. Let f(x) = ; x 0
3
cx
2 3 1
; 0 x 1
x
b2 9
If f(x) is differentiable at x = 0, then the value of is
a
88. Let f : R R, g : R R and h : R R be differentiable function such that f(x) = x 5 + 2x3 + 3x + 3
g(f(x) = x and h(g(g(x))) = x x R, then h'(0) is
89. If L1 is the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z 6 = 0, 2x + 3y + z 5 = 0 and line L2 is
(x 14) y 6 z 2
. If P is the plane containing lines L1 and L2 which intersects the
3 0 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
coordinate axes at A, B, C respectively, then volume of tetrahedron OABC (O is origin) is V. The
value of 90V is
90. ˆ yˆ and zˆ be unit vectors such that xˆ yˆ zˆ p, xˆ yˆ zˆ qˆ and xˆ yˆ zˆ r . If
Let x,
p 7, q yˆ 5 and p is perpendicular to x̂ , then the number of positive integral solutions(s) of
4
the equation x1x2x3 = xˆ yˆ yˆ zˆ zˆ xˆ is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 15-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics
TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. B
Sol. Applying conservation of angular momentum of system about centre of
mass of disc
2mR2
mvR mv R
2
v R
mvR mv R mv R
v 2g g
v
2 2 2 M
2. D
Sol. I = neA (e + h) E
2
1.0 106 1.6 1019 4 104 1.0 = 6.4 × 10–14 A
3
2 10
3. C
Sol. Basic concepts
4. C
dW
Sol. C CV
ndT
3T0 3T0
5R
dW TdT
T0 T0
2
dT for one mole
W (4T0 5R)T0
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
5. C
dN
Sol. R N
dt
N t
dN N
So R N dt ln R N 0 t
0 0
R N
So ln t
R
N R
So 1
R
e t N
1 et
6. C
Sol. Zener current will be maximum, when V = 15V
15 (i 2.5k) = 5
i = 4 mA
iz = 3 mA
7. B
1/3
RGe X
Sol.
RBe 9
X = 72
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Number of neutron = 72 32 = 40
8. B
Sol. frequency received by submarine
1400 100 15
n1 40 103 40 103
1400 14
Frequency reflected by submarine
1400 15 3 600
n2
1400 100 n1 13 40 10 Hz = 13 kHz
9. C
2(1 cos C )
Sol. f
4
2 1 1 1
f 1 1 2 1 1 2
4 2
10. D
Sol. For (r R)
r
E 4r 2 cx4x 2 dx / 0
0
So E r2
and For (r R)
1
E
r2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
11. D
2 2 4
Sol. 1 H 1 H 2 He
BEH 1.1 MeV
BEHe 7 MeV
Qvalue = Binding energy of product Binding energy of reactants
= ( 4 7 4 1.1) MeV = 23.6 MeV
= 23.6 1.6 1019 106 = 37.76 1023
12. C
0 dI 0Id0 Id
Sol. B 0 0
2R (2R)(2R) 42R2
13. D
Sol. After long time,
2V
IA 20 mA …(i)
7R
Immediately after the key is closed,
V 70
I mA
3R 3
14. C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
ax
Sol. For 1st secondary minima 1
D x
a
ax 3 2
For 1st secondary maxima
D 2 D
3
1 2
2
= 440 Å
15. D
Sol. Basic Concepts
16. A
Sol. When S is open When S is closed
48C 48C 96C 36C
A A
B B
72C 72C 48C 108C
30V 30V
So charge flown = 60 C
From A to B
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
17. B
Sol. Basic concept
18. C
d
Sol. E2r (Br 2 )
dt
r dB
E
2 dt
Qr 2 dB
QEr
2 dt
19. B
0i i
Sol. B
2R
0ir 2
Br 2
2R
2
0 r R
Mutual inductance, M
i 2R
20.
Sol.
D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Rate of cooling
4
dT A(T Ts )
4
r
dt mC
rsphere m a3
cube
rcube msphere 4
r 3
3
given, 4r 2 6a2
3/2
4
3 r3
rsphere 6
rcube 4r 3 6
SECTION – B
21. 6
D
Sol. Separation between two maxima
d
22. 40
Sol. v 02 4v 02 2 g d 2gd 3v 02
v 02 v 2 2 5g d v 2 v 20 15V02
So v 4v0
23. 1
2v 3v
Sol.
2 0 1.2d 4 c e
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
So 4 23 e 3 30 2e
So e = 1 cm
24. 9
Sol. E0 = CB0
= 3 108 3 10 8 = 9 V/m
25. 30
1 1 1
Sol. 2 ,
fe f fm
1 4 1 1
Where 1
f 3 40 120
1 1 1 1
So 2 cm
fe 120 20 15
So R = 30 cm
26. 2000
Sol. 100 v 10 200 v 20 50 v 40 0
So v = 100 volt
Q = 40 50 = 2000 C
27.
Sol.
24
dt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dV pr 4
8
P0r 4
Q
8
3P0 (2r)4 3P0r 4
Now, Q 24Q
8 2
28. 4
x R 1
Sol. y x tan 1 H tan 1
R 2 2
R tan
H
4
3R 3R H
y tan 1
4 4R
3R 3R 4H 3H
tan
16 16 R 4
29. 16
Sol. a = R
F f S = ma …(i)
mR2 a
fSR F
2
ma
fS ..(ii)
2 fs
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
3ma
F
2
2F ma F
a fS
3m 2 3
30. 2
Sol. In steady state, v = constant F
9 mg = 3F
F = 3 mg … (i) m r v
T + mg = F T
T = F – mg = 3mg – mg = 2mg
T = 2mg T
8m 2r v
2F
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. B
Sol. P1 V1 P2 V2
10m 4 A 10 h m h A
h 3.06 m
32. C
Sol. Dithionous acid H2 S2 O4 S 3
Dithionic acid H2 S2 O6 S 5
33. C
X
Sol.
X
X
Y
Y Z
Z
Z Y
Y X
34.
Sol.
D TG ~ @bohring_bot
Br
HC
H
H2O HC
HC OH
Br
35. B
Sol. Me
Cl Si Cl Chain formation
Me
Me Me
HO Si O Si O Chain
Me Me
36. C
Sol. LiClO4 is more soluble than LiF.
37. D
Sol. Factual
38. B
Sol. BF3 is electron deficient and is used to generate electrophile in F.C. reactions. Therefore, acts as
catalyst in industrial processes.
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
39. B
Sol. Uridine is glycosylated pyrimidine-containing uracil attached to ribose ring.
Ribose sugar Uracil base Nucleoside
40. A
Sol. Degenerate orbitals n2
2
5 25
41. D
Sol. S State function S S1 S 2
q
S since q = same; smaller temperature, higher entropy.
T
42. D
Sol. Ti3 3d1 t12g
Cr 3 3d3 t 32g
Mn3 3d4 t 32g eg1
Co 3 3d6 t 42g eg2
43. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Factual
44. B
Sol. MnO2 oxidises unhindered primary allylic and benzylic alcohols to aldehyde.
45. C
1 1
Sol. k2 t
xo a xo
Rearranging
a
xo k 2 t
xo a
a
vs. t gives x o k 2 as slope.
xo a
46. C
Sol. Cl
O
N Cl S Cl
N NH C OH
(ii) (i)
O
H2N COOH
N
H
N NH C N
N NH C Cl
(iii)
O (- HCl) O
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
47. A
Sol. H Cl Cl
Me Li
C
CH
C
4
Cl LiCl H
H
Cl
Cl C H
C
H Cl
NH
HCl
NH
N N
H
48. D
Sol.
2 NH OH
H O
2
O
N OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot H3C C Cl
O
(- HCl)
CN
AcO CN AcO
AcOH O
Product
H N O C CH3
49. B
H O
O
Sol. Me O Hydrogen bonding and as 1-3 dihedral interaction between methyl and
H
hydrogen.
50. B
0.744 0.359Zeff
Sol. xA Alfred Rochow scale
rA2
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
SECTION – B
51. 13
Sol. O
COOH O C O
HOOC COOH C O
C
3H2O
O DOU 13
C
HOOC COOH C O
COOH O C O
O
52. 2
Sol. H 104
104
Ca2 M
2
Weight of Ca 2 20 104 g in 1 L
20 104 106
Weight of Ca 2 ion in 106 mL H2 O =2
103
Hardness = 2 ppm.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
53. 1
Go
Sol. Theoretical efficiency
Ho
Go
0.84
285
Go 0.84 285 kJ nFEocell
Eocell 1.24 V
54. 2
Sol. Cd2 H2 S Cd s 2H
Initial 0.1 10 3 moles 0.08 10 103 moles
final 0.8 103 0.2 103
10 3 moles
10 3
H 1000 0.01 M 102 M
final 100
pH = 2.0
55. 8
Sol. For KCN: Tf i.K f .m 0.8 K f .0.2 2
Kf 2 … (i)
Hg CN mCN Hg CN
m
2 m 2
Initial 0.1 0.2
Final 0.2 0.1 m 0.1
Final effective molality = (0.2 – 0.1 m) + 0.1 + 0.2
= 0.5 – 0.1 m
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
New: Tf K f .m
0.6 2 0.5 0.1 m
m=2
4m = 8
56. 3
Sol. XeO2 F2 sp3 d x3
3
B 2 H6 sp x6
2
NiCl4 sp3 x3
2
PtCl4 dsp2 x2
N SiH3 3 sp2 x2
H3 BO3 sp2 x2
x 3 6 3 2 2 2 18
x 3
6
57. 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. CH3 CH3
H OH HO H
H OH HO H
HO H H OH
CH3 CH3
58. 0
Sol. CO CO
CO
CO
CO Mn Mn
OC CO
CO CO CO
59. 6
Sol. Black coloured : PbS, CuS, HgS, Ag2S, NiS and CoS.
60. 6
Sol. 1 and 5 have correct products.
2. CH2 CH2 CH3 H2 /Ni
H3C (CH2)4 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
3. COOH
COOH
CO2
COOH
4. O
2CH3 CH2 COOH H3C CH2 O C CH2 CH3
O
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. B
Sol. A = {1, 2, 3, …… , 141}
A (B C) = {5, 11, 14, 17, 23, 26, 29, …… 134, 137}
Sum of elements = (5 + 11 + 17 + ……. 137) + (14 + 26 + 38 + ….. 134)
62. C
2
Sol. x ax + 4 = 0 must have atleast one positive root
> 0
both roots must be positive
a4
63. B
60
Sol. 30(1 + x + x2)30 (1 + 2x) = rar xr 1 (1 + x + x2)
r 0
Equating coefficient of x20 on both sides we have,
30(a20 + 2a19) = 21a21 + 20a20 + 19a19
21a21 = 10a20 + 41a19
TG ~ @bohring_bot
64. C
Sol. Use xg x g x dx xg x C1
65. C
Sol. k = 2500 = 22.54
number of factor = 5
66. B
Sol. b = 4, c = 9
2sin2 = 3cos
2cos2 + 3cos 2 = 0
1 3
cos = sin2 =
2 4
3
4x2 4y2 + xy + 12x + y + 9 = 0
2
67. A
r1r2
Sol. r=
r1 r2 2 r1r2
68. B
1 2 2 3
Sol. A= (4 8t)8t = 16(t 2t )
2
dA 2 1
= 16(2t 6t ) = 0 t = 0,
dt 3
d2 A 1
= 16(2 12t) < 0 at t = A is maximum Q 2
dt 2 3 16t,8t
16 8 2
Q , lies on the line m =
3 9 3 R P(4,0)
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
69. A
Sol. M is (1, 10)
N is (4, 16)
L is (–2, 4)
Equation of tangent to (x + a)y = is
y 2x 2 a t ; 2t 2
t
2a – 4t = +8 a – 2t = 4
2
and (a – 2)4 = = – 2t
2
(t + 2) = 0
t=2
=–8&a=0
70. B
Sol. 4a2 – b2 = 25
Equation of auxiliary circle is x2 + y2 = 8
a2 = 8, b2 = 7
Also a2 + b2 = A2 – 2
2 = 25 – 15 = 10
10 3
eccentricity of ellipse e 1 .
25 5
71. D
Sol.
ye x/2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
IF = e x/2 sin x cos x
solution is yex/2 sin x cos x e x/2 tan x 2 sec 2 x dx
sin x cos x 2e x/2 tan x c
y 23/4 c = 0
4
2 tan x
y
sin x cos x
72. D
z4 z
Sol. Arg 2 0
z z
z(z 1)(z2 z 1)
Arg 0 ; z 0, 1
z(z 1)
z2 + z + 1 is positive real number (x + iy)2 + x + iy + 1 > 0
x2 y2 + x + 1 > 0 and y(1 + 2x) = 0
(i) y = 0, x2 + x + 1 > 0 x R
1 2 3 3 3
(ii) x = , y < y , .
2 4
2 2
73. C
a b c
Sol. 2
a 3 b 5 c 7
b c
If a 2 3 , then 0
b 5 c 7
2 5
Possible value of b ,c= 2 7.
3
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
74. D
1 4 A
sin tan1 BD sin
2 3
Sol. 2 tan17
1
2
1
4
sin tan 7 BD sin
D
4
sin 4
5 11 tan1
2 cot = 3
7 cos sin 7
B C
5 2 2
75. C
2 3
Sol. P(A) = , P(B) =
5 5
3
P(D) =
20
2 3 3 1
6 x x x
5 5 20 20
3 19
B P B D
P C
C
5 20
57
TG ~ @bohring_bot
C 85
D P(D ) 85
100
76. A
n
xi fi 15a 25b 980 277
i 1
Sol. n
…(1)
26 a b 9
fi
i 1
26 a b
a b 3
2 335
Also 30 10
11 11
a + b = 19 …(2)
From (1) and (2) a = 7, b = 12.
77. B
78. A
h C
Sol. tan( + ) =
50
8 h 4h/5
h 21 250 2000 21h
50 8 h 5250 8h D
1
21 250
h = 25 h/5
A 50 B
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
79. B
Sol. 3 5 …… = 9 5 = 45
__ 3 5 ____ = 8 5 = 40
……………. = 8 9 9 5 = 3240
N = 3325
80. A
Sol. PB = 324 64 388 P(20i)
B(18,12)
PA = 36 400 436
OP = 20
O A(6,0)
81. 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot SECTION – B
15
sin m m 1
18 18
Sol.
m 1
cos m cos m 1
18 18
15
tan m tan m 1
m 1 18 18
5
tan tan 4 2 3
6
5
cos 2 1
6
5
n ; n I.
12
82. 59
Sol. Squaring and adding
1 + sin6A + cos6A + 2(cos4A – sin4A) = 1/4
2 + 1 – 3sin2A cos2A + 2cos2A = 1/4
2 – 3/4 sin22A + 2 cos2A = 1/4
3 cos2 2A + 8 cos2A + 4 = 0
cos 2A = – 2/3
5
sin A
6
5 5 5 5
cosB 2 .
6 6 6 54
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
83. 13
5
Sol. a ,b
12 3
5 /12
tan x
dx
/3 3
tan1 2 3 5 /12
= 1 2dx cot 1 2 3 co sec 1 13 .
/3 1
tan 2 3
84. 546
0 0 0 0 0 0
2 3
Sol. Let A = I + B where B = a 0 0 , B = 0 0 0 , B = 0 (Null)
ab 0 0
a a b 0
n n n 2
A = I + C1B + C2B
1 0 0
n
A = n a 1 0
n(n 1)
na a ab n b 1
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
n a n b 72 a = b and 72a + 36 72 a 3600
a = 4 a = 16 and n = 18.
85. 20
Sol. Let P(t, t2), Q(t4, t2)
t t2
y2=x
x
2
f x dx 2 y y 2 dy
0 0
t2 f(t) = 2(t t4)2t
f(t) = 4t5 3t2 y=x2
1 4 3 20 Q
f . P(t,t2)
2 32 4 32
O
R
86. 20
x
Sol. f(x) = 1 + 4
sin(4 4) 2 2x
x
lim 3 ln8
x 1 x 7x 2 ax b
0
For form a + b = 6
0
Also lim
cos(4 x
4) 4 x ln 4 2x ln2
ln8
2
x 1 3x 14x a
6ln2
3ln 2
a 11
a 11 = 2 a = 13, b = 7
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
87. 81
Sol. For continuity at x = 0
cx
2 3 1 c ln 4
lim c=2
x 0 cx 3 3
3
For differentiability at x = 0
cx
2 3 1 ln 4
6a ln2
2
1 x 3
lim 2
lim
x 0
b x 3 x 0 x
1
3
cx
2
6a ln 2 3(2 3 1) x ln 4
lim
b 2 x 0 3x 2
3 1
9
cx c
2
3 2 3 ln2 ln 4
ln 2 3 2(ln2)2
= 2 lim
9 x 0 6x 9
2 2
6a ln 2 9 2 ln2 b2 9
TG ~ @bohring_bot
= = 81
3 b2 9 9 a
88. 1386
Sol. h(g(g(x))) = x
h'(g(g(x)).g'(g(x).g'(x) = 1 ; g(x) = f1(x)
h'(0) g(g(x)) = 0 g(x) = f(0) = 3 x = f(3) = 309
1
Also g'(f(x)) =
f(x)
1 1
g'(3) =
f 0 3
1 1
g'(309) =
f 3 462
1
h'(0) =
g 3 g 309
89. 10648
Sol. L1 is parallel to vector 2iˆ ˆj kˆ and it passes through point (13, 7, 0).
Equation of plane P is x + 5y 3z + 22 = 0
22 0 0
1 22 (22)3
V= 0 0 .
6 5 90
22
0 0
3
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AITS-OT-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
90. 225
Sol. Let xˆ yˆ a , yˆ zˆ b , xˆ zˆ c
xˆ yˆ zˆ p a b c = 2 …(1)
Also cyˆ azˆ q …(2)
and cyˆ bxˆ r …(3)
q yˆ 5 c ab = 5 …(4)
and c a = 1 …(5)
Hence a = 1, b = 3, c = 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 18-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In the given figure, the angle of inclination of the inclined plane is V0
30°. A particle is projected horizontally from a height H above the
foot of the inclined plane. Find the horizontal velocity V0 so that the
particle will retrace the path after hitting the inclined plane. Collision
is perfectly elastic. H
2gH 2gH
(A) v 0 (B) v 0
5 7
30
gH gH
(C) v 0 (D) v0
5 7
2. A signal of frequency 25 KHz and peak voltage 20 V is used to modulate a carrier wave of
frequency 1.5 MHz and peak voltage 50 V. Choose the correct statement.
(A) Modulation index is 0.4, side frequency bands are 1475 KHz and 1525 KHz
(B) Modulation index is 0.4, side frequency bands are 2950 KHz and 3150 KHz
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) Modulation index is 2.5, side frequency bands are 1475 KHz and 1575 KHz
(D) Modulation index is 2.5, side frequency bands are 2950 KHz and 3150 KHz
20 m
3. A ball of mass m falls vertically from a height h = m and
3
collides with a block of equal mass m moving down an inclined
plane with a velocity v as shown in the figure. The coefficient m
= 0.2
of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is 0.2, v
while the coefficient of restitution (e) between the ball and the 30
block is 0.5. Three is no friction acting between the ball and
the block. The velocity of the block decreases by
(A) 5 m/s (B) 0
(C) 1 m/s (D) 3 m/s
4. Air column in an open organ pipe of length = 30 cm resonates with a sonic source emitting
wave of frequency f = 1100HZ. If maximum pressure variation in the pipe over the atmospheric
pressure due to standing wave is 0.1 P0, where P0 is the atmospheric pressure. Find the
difference of the maximum and minimum pressure in the tube at a distance 5 cm from the open
end. Take speed of sound in air equal to 330 m/s and ignore the end correction.
3 3
(A) P0 (B) P0
20 10
(C) 3P0 (D) 2P0
2
5. At time t = 0, a horizontal disc starts rotating with angular acceleration 1 rad/sec about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing though its center. A small block is lying on this disc at a
distance 0.5 m from center, coefficient of friction between surface of block and disc is 0.255. The
block will start slipping on the disc at time t, is approximately equal to
(A) 2 3 s (B) 2 2 s
(C) 6 s (D) 5s
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the
centre of the shell. Calculate electrostatic potential at a point P a distance R/2 from the centre of
the shell.
2Q 2q Q q
(A) (B)
20R 4oR 20R 4oR
q Q 2 2Q
(C) (D)
20 R 20R
7. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to
10A the value of the required shunt is –
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.9
(C) 0.09 (D) 0.30
8. An ideal gas is taken through a cycle A B C A as V (m3)
shown in figure. If the heat supplied in the cycle is 5J, then
work done on the gas in the process C A is in joules is 2 C B
(A) –5J (B) –10J
(C) –15J (D) –20J
1 A
P(N/m2)
10
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9. A space vehicle approaching a planet has a speed v, when it is very far from the planet. At that
moment tangent of its trajectory would miss the centre of the planet by distance R. If the planet
has mass M and radius r, what is the value of R in order that the resulting orbit of the space
vehicle will just miss the surface of the planet ?
1/2
r 2GM 2GM
(A) R v 2 (B) R vr 1
v r r
r 2 2GM 2GMv
(C) R v (D) R
v r r
10. In the given circuit, the capacitor of capacitance C is charged R
by closing key K at t = 0. Find the time required to charge the
capacitor up to maximum charge for the given circuit, if it were C
to be charged with the constant initial charging rate at t = 0 in
the given circuit. 2R
(A) RC/3 (B) 2RC/3 R
(C) 2RC/3 (D) 5RC/3
E K
11. In the circuit shown in figure E is a battery of emf = 100V
100 V. Resistance R1 = 100, R2 = 200, R3 = 200. The
voltmeter resistance is 200. What reading will the
voltmeter show in steady state ? R1 A
v
(A) 50/3 V (B) 400/7 V R2
(C) 100/3 V (D) 50 V R3
C=100F
R2
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
12. A ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index is incident at an angle on a composite
transparent plate consisting of 50 plates of refractive indices 1.01, 1.02, 1.03.....1.50. The
ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of refractive index 1.6 at angle x. Then
50
1.01 5
(A) sin x sin (B) sin x sin
1.5 8
50
8 1.5
(C) sin x sin (D) sin x sin
5 1.01
13. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron H
2
1 and helium nucleus 4
2 He is 1.1 MeV and 7
MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the energy
released is–
(A) 23.6 MeV (B) 26.9 MeV
(C) 13.9 MeV (D) 19.2 MeV
R R L
14. An inductor of inductance L = and a resistor of resistance R
2
is connected to a battery of emf V as shown in the figure. The
potential difference across the resistance at a time, t = ln2
after the switch S is closed is ( is constant) S
V
V
(B) 3V
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A)
4 4
V 2V
(C) (D)
2 3
15. A resistance R draws P power when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power drawn
will be
2
R R
(A) P (B) P
Z Z
R
(C) P (D) P
Z
16. At STP 44.8 liter of helium gas is confined in a cylindrical vessel by a movable piston. The gas is
thermally insulated from surrounding, however, heat is supplied to the gas very slowly by an
electric heater consequently piston moves slowly. In this process find the heat supplied to the gas
by the heater to increase its temperature by 20C. Ignore any dissipative force on the piston. (R is
universal gas constant)
(A) 200 R (B) 100 R
(C) 60 R (D) 140 R
1
17. Wavelength of K X-ray of an element A is 1 and wavelength of K X-ray element B is 2. is
2
1
equal to and Z1 and Z2 are the atomic numbers of element A and B respectively. Then relation
4
between Z1 and Z2 are given by
(A) 2 Z 2 Z1 1 (B) Z 2 2 Z1 1
Z2 Z1
(C) 4 (D) 4
Z1 Z2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
18. A radioactive element undergoes two different types of radioactive disintegration, one with
disintegration constant 1 and the other with 2 .The half-life of the element is
0.693 0.693
(A) (B)
1 2 (1 2 ) / 2
1 2 0.693 1 2
(C) 0.693 (D) .
1 2 2 1 2
19. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of the
colliding photon is 10.2 eV. Almost instantaneously, another photon collides with same hydrogen
atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector ?
(A) two photons of energy 10.2 eV
(B) two photons of energy 1.4 eV
(C) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(D) one electron having kinetic energy nearly 11.6 eV
20. A uniform string of mass m = 200 g and lengths l = 5m is stretched along x-axis. One end at x = 0
is attached to a harmonic oscillator and the other end is fixed to a rigid support. Tension in the
string is T = 1600 N. At the time t = 0, the oscillator starts producing transverse harmonic waves
in the string. The y-coordinate of a particle in the string near the source varies with time as y = 0.5
cm sin (100 t), where t is the time in second. Find the y-co-ordinate of the mid point on the string
at the instant when first disturbance emitted by the source reaches the fixed end.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 1
(A) cm (B) cm
2 2 2 2
1 1
(C) cm (D) cm
2 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. An electric lamp designed for operation on 110V AC is connected to a 220 V AC supply, through
a choke coil of inductance 2H, for proper operation. The angular frequency of the AC is
100 10 rad/s. If a capacitor is to be used in place of the choke coil, its capacitance must be (in
F)
22. A cylindrical block of mass m = 200 gm is suspended from a fixed support by a light spring of
stiffness k = 90 N/m. The block is slightly pulled down from its equilibrium and then the pulling
force is removed. Consequently, the block performs oscillatory motion. If damping constant of air
is 40 g/s, the time (in sec) after which displacement amplitude reduces to the half of the initial
value is nearly
23. An object is projected with a speed 10 m/s at an angle of 30º with the horizontal. The object
breaks down into n equal fragments during its motion. One fragment is found to strike the ground
at a distance of 3 m from the point of projection in the same azimuthal plane, in which the
object is projected. If the centre of mass of the remaining fragments strikes the ground at distance
of 7 3 m from the point of projection, then the value of n is
24. A beam of light converges at a point P. A converging lens of focal length 25 cm is placed in the
path of the beam before converging it at P at a distance of 20 cm from the point P. Now locate the
point where beam will converge. Find the distance from the position of the lens.
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
25. All atoms in a sample of helium gas are in the first excited state. Photons emitted from these
atoms due to de-excitation are incident on the surface of a metal having work function = 2.8 eV.
Find the stopping potential of the photoelectrons ejected from metal surface. The ionization
energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
60 60
26. The half life of the radioactive nuclei 26 Co is 5.3 year. The activity of a sample containing 26 Co
60
nuclei is observed to be 8.0 mCi. Find the amount of 26 Co in the sample in microgram. (Given:
1Ci = 3.7 1010 dPS)
27. When forward biasing across a p-n junction diode is increased from 0.65 V to 0.70 V, the diode
current increases by 5mA. Find the dynamic resistance of the diode.
28. Circuit diagram of a common emitter amplifier is IC
shown in the figure. The audio signal voltage across
the collector resistance RC 2.0 k is 2V. The RB IB RC = 2.0 k
current amplification factor of the transistor is 100.
Find the value of RB (in k) in the series with v B VBE VC
supply of 2V. given that DC base current is 10 times VB
the signal current and VBE = 0.6 V.
29. A 200 m long antenna is fixed on a 500 m tall tower. This antenna can transmit waves of
wavelength nearly equal to?
30.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A parallel beam of monochromatic light passes through a narrow slit of width d = 0.2 mm. The
angular width of the central maximum is found to be 4 103 rad. Find the wavelength of the light
in Å.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Substance which tends to decompose at their sublimation temperature can preferably purified by
sublimation under the following pressure condition
(A) increased pressure
(B) reduced pressure
(C) pressure has no effect on the sublimation temperature of a substance
(D) at atmospheric pressure
32. Liquid A and liquid B form ideal solution. The ratio of the pure vapour pressure of A and B,
respectively at 298 K is 1 : 4. Also, the ratio of their masses in liquid phase is 2 : 1. What will be
the ratio of their masses in vapour phase?
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 8
(C) 8 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
33. In which of the following conditions, the electrical conductivity decreases?
(A) ZnO is heated in Zn vapour
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) NaCl is heated in Na vapour
(C) Silicon is doped with arsenic
(D) Heating metallic conductor
34. Which of the following order is INCORRECT?
(A) Li Be B C (magnitude of effective nuclear charge)
(B) Li Na K Rb (ionic radius in aqueous medium)
(C) N3 Ne Mg2 Al3 (ionic radius)
(D) B Al Ga In (first ionization energy)
35. Which of the following orders of given character in the following oxides is CORRECT?
(A) V2 O3 V2 O4 V2 O5 basic character
(B) CrO Cr2 O3 CrO3 acidic character
(C) CO2 SO3 Cl2 O7 acidic character
(D) MgO CaO BaO basic character
36. Which of the following statement about hydrogen peroxide is INCORRECT?
(A) The gas phase bond angles in H2 O2 is less than that in crystalline phase.
(B) H2 O2 can be prepared by adding ice-cold dilute H2 SO 4 20% on Na2 O2 .
(C) The gas phase O – H bond length is greater than that of in crystalline phase.
(D) The dihedral angle in H2 O2 in its gas phase is larger than that of bond angle.
37. Electrons in a group of degenerate orbitals can have five Z-components of angular momentum.
Which sub-shell does this group of orbitals belong to:
(A) s (B) p
(C) d (D) s + d
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
38. Two containers containing N2 and O2 gases respectively, are present in the same compartment
of a train which is moving with 120 km/hr. The volume of first container is twice the size of second
one. Find the ratio of the mean square speeds of N2 gas and O2 gas, respectively
8 7
(A) (B)
7 8
1 2
(C) (D)
2 1
39. He gas and N2 gas both initially at the same temperature and pressure are compressed
V
adiabatically and reversibly from a volume of V to (Assuming ideal behaviour of both the
3
gases). Which gas will be at higher temperature?
(A) He
(B) N2
(C) Both remain at same temperature
(D) None of these
40. Which of the following highlighted bond most likely break through homolytic bond cleavage?
H H H
2 3 4 1
Cl C C C F
H H H
(A) 1
(C) 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot (B) 2
(D) 4
41. Re agent
Product
With which reagent, the major product will not be syn addition product?
(A) 1 OsO 4 , 2 Na2 SO3 , H2 O
(B) 1 KMnO4 ,H2 O / OH cold
(C) 1 HBr, C6 H5 COO 2
(D) 1 B2 H6 / THF, 2 H2 O2 / NaOH
42. CH2Cl
3 CH OH
A
Major product
NO 2
OCH3 H2C OCH3
CH2
(A) (B)
NO 2
NO 2
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
H2C OCH3 OCH3
(C) (D)
O NO 2
CH3
43. Which of the following is CORRECT?
(A) In case of association, value of van’t Hoff factor is more than unity while for dissociation it is
less than unity.
(B) Solid CO2 directly sublimes upon heating at atmospheric pressure but it will first liquefy if this
heating is done at sufficiently higher pressure.
(C) Even at high pressure solid CO2 always sublimes upon heating.
(D) When placed in saline water (concentration < 0.9% m/V) blood cells (internal concentration =
0.9% m/V) shrink.
44. In which of the following reactions, the catalyst has been incorrectly marked?
Fe s
(A) N2 g 3H2 g 2NH3 g Haber ' s process
Pt s
(B) 4NH3 g 5O 2 g 4NO g 6H2 O g Ostwald' s process
2 MnO s
(C) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
NaOH
(D) CH3 COOCH3 aq H2 O CH3 COOH aq CH3 OH aq
45. A sparingly soluble salt A m Bn shows following relation in its saturated aqueous solution. Find the
possible formula unit of this compound
6
(aq)/(10 M)]
-6
4
n+
log[A
1 2 3
log[Bm- (aq)/(10-6 M)]
(A) AB (B) AB2
(C) A 2 B (D) A 3 B
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
46.
H .Pt, HCl
2
o P
25 C, 3 atm
N
Pyridine [Q]
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Q and P both are aromatic
(B)
P is
N
H
(C) P is acyclic amine compound
(D) Q is more basic than P
47. Arrange the following coordination compounds in increasing order of wavelength of light that they
absorbed
3 3 3
CrCl6 3 , Cr H2 O
6
, Cr NH3 ,
6
Cr CN
6
I II III IV
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > II > III > I
(C) I > III > II > IV (D) IV > III > II > I
48.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Order of octahedral ionic radii of M2 for the first row transition elements
(A) Ca < V < Mn > Zn
(C) V < Mn < Ni > Zn
(B) V < Mn > Ni < Zn
(D) Fe < Co < Ni > Zn
49. The product or intermediate which can not be synthesized from the given reaction
18 O +
O H , H (aq)
H3C
C P
H3C CH3
(A) 18 O CH3 (B) O CH3
H3C C OH H3C C CH3
CH3 OCH3
(C) O CH3 (D) None of these
18
H3C C OH
CH3
50. Compound A upon strong heating produces a salt B and a colourless gas C. The gas C is also
produced by heating hydrogen peroxide. Aqueous solution of salt B produces white precipitate
when aqueous AgNO3 solution is mixed into it. When gas D is passed through hot and
concentrated solution of potassium hydroxide, then compound A is formed. In presence of
moisture, gas D acts as an oxidizing agent.
Correct option is:
(A) A KNO3
(B) A KClO3
(C) D O 2
(D) B NaI
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. Find the total number of bonds in which there is involvement of hybridized orbitals in the following
molecules/ions.
CH4 , ClF3 , C2 H4 , C2H2 , NO2
52. 20 mL of ‘10 volume’ hydrogen peroxide solution upon heating releases that much amount of
oxygen at STP which is just sufficient to completely burn ‘x mg’ of ethene. Find the value of x (to
the nearest integer).
53. The total loss in mass (in g) when mixture of 1 mole Li2 CO3 and 2 moles Na2 CO3 .10H2 O is
heated.
54. H H
Na
Cl C C Cl
Ether
Product s
T H Product should not have more than 4 carbons
From all the possible products, how many of them will be chiral?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
55. During rusting of iron, iron converted to ferricoxide it has been found that 3.2 kg of iron rust has
been formed. How many mole(s) of electrons does iron has given up to form this much rust?
(Atomic mass : Fe = 56 u, O = 16 u)
56. 2 Moles of radioactive substance X undergo radioactive decay as shown below at 298 K
temperature in a closed container of volume V lit. Half life period of X is 16 hrs. After 32 hr, 75%
of X has been disintegrated and the pressure developed inside the container is 18.32 atm. Find
the value of V to the nearest integer. R 0.082 atm lit mol1 K 1
A
Z X s Z 4 Y s 42 He g
57. Find the number of electrons (which are in conjugation) because of which the following
compound is aromatic?
58. The sum of the total number of lone pair electrons in the Lewis structure of I3 ion.
59. The CFCs which are generally called by the trade name Freons, lead to ozone layer depletion.
Freon-12 has a percentage abundance of 4 104 % in troposphere. Find its partial pressure at
sea level (in microbar). [Answer should be reported to nearest integer]
60. Acid catalysed hydrolysis of 0.2 mole of sucrose yields D(+) glucose and D (–) fructose. If the
percentage dissociation of sucrose and the percentage yield of this reaction are 60% and 80%,
respectively. Find the mass of fructose (in gram) that has been produced. [Answer should be
reported to nearest integer]
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Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. For a data set having 100 observations, mean, median, mode are 50, 60, 70 respectively. If the
largest 50 observations are increased by 10, then sum of new mean, median, mode equals
(A) 180 (B) 190
(C) 200 (D) 210
62. Maximum number of compound propositions out of
p q r, p ~ q r, pq~r
~ p q s, ~ p ~ q s, ~ p ~ q ~ s
q r s, q ~ r s, ~q~r~s
that can be made simultaneously false by an assignment of the truth values to p, q, r and s, is
equal to
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
cos x cos2 x cos 4 x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
63. Let f(x) = cos 3x cos2 3x cos 4 3x , then f x dx equals
2 4 0
cos 5x cos 5x cos 5x
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) none of these
a
64. Let R be a relation defined on first twenty natural numbers such that R = {(a, b) : is a prime
b
number}. Consider the following statements :
(I) R is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(II) Range of R1 has 20 elements
(III) Domain of R1 has 10 elements
which of the statements are true ?
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III
(C) II (D) III
65. Value of sin32° sin88° sin152° equals
sin 6
(A) sin6° (B)
4
cos6
(C) cos6° (D)
4
1 2 1
66. Let , be roots of the equation x2 3x 7 0 and 2 +
, + be the roots of the
2 2 2 2
equation x + px + q = 0, then for the equation x + p q x (11q + p) = 0, roots are
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) one positive and other negative (D) none of these
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
2023 2023 2023 2023
67. Let A =
i 0
min
j0
2023
Ci , 2023
Cj , B = max 2023 Ci , 2023C j , then A + B equal
i 0 j0
2023 2023
(A) 2024.2 (B) 2023.2
(C) 2024(22023 1) (D) 2023(22023 1)
68. Let HL and HR be two branches of a hyperbola having A, B as endpoints of latus-rectum on HL. If
C be any point on HR such that ACB is never obtuse, then maximum possible eccentricity of
hyperbola is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 3
x2 y2
69. If chord of contact of pair of tangents from points P and Q on 1 to the ellipse
9 16
x2 y2 2 2
1 is normal to the curve 2x + 2y 4x 4y + 1 = 0, then sum of eccentric angles of P
3 4
and Q is
(A) (B)
2
(C) 2 (D) none of these
70. A rectangular hyperbola and ellipse have coincident end points of latus-rectum, then eccentricity
TG ~ @bohring_bot
of ellipse equals
1 1
(A) (B)
2 2 2
1
(C) (D) none of these
2
sin x sin2x sin3x......sinnx xn
71. If lim exists and is non-zero, then 'n' equals
x 0 x tan 1 x 1 2x 1 3x ..... 1 2023x
(A) 2022 (B) 2023
(C) 2024 (D) no such value of n exists
72. Let Ak = [aij] be square matrix of order 3 such that aij = (i j)k for all i, j = 1, 2, 3. Then determinant
value of |A1 + A3 + A5 + ….. + A2023| equals
4046 6069
(A) 3 (B) 3
6069 4046
(C) 3 3 (D) none of these
73. Which of the following functions is differentiable at x = 0 ?
(A) tan x cos x (B) sin x tan x
(C) cos x sin x (D) all of these
74. Water is being filled at rate of cm3/s in right circular conical vessel (vertex upwards) of height
5cm and diameter 8cm. When the height of water level is 3cm, the rate (in cm 2/s) at which the
wet conical surface area of the vessel increases is
2 41
(A) (B)
3 12
41
(C) (D) none of these
18
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AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
7 3 2 3 2
75. Let f(x) = x (x + 2x x 2) + (x x) (x + 3) + 2(x 1), then which of the following is NOT true?
(A) y = f(x) has 7 critical points
(B) there are exactly 2 points in (1, 1) where f'(x) = 0
(C) y = f(x) does not have an extrema at x I
(D) y = f(x) has exactly 2 stationary point in (2, 1)
1
2022
x x 1
6 3
76. Value of dx is
0
32022 2022 ! 32022 2022 !
(A) (B)
10.13.16.....6073 7.10.13.....6073
2022
3 2022 !
(C) (D) none of these
4.7.10.....6073
77. If area bounded by an ellipse with its auxiliary circle equals area bounded by its auxiliary circle
and director circle, then eccentricity of ellipse equals
(A) 2 sin18 (B) 2cos18
(C) 2 sin36 (D) 2cos36
78. Ajay has to take medicine having 100 mg paracetamol at a gap of every 12 hours. The amount of
paracetamol (salt) in Ajay's bloodstream decreases at a rate that is proportional at any time to the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
amount of salt in bloodstream at that time. If the amount of salt in bloodstream is halved in every
5 hours, then amount of salt in Ajay's bloodstream 15 hours after taking the medicine first time is
(in mg)
3
1 1 3
(A) 100 (B) 100 1
2 2
1 3 1 12/5 1 3 1 3/5
(C) 100 (D) 100
2 2 2 2
x 1 y 2 z 3
79. Equation of plane passing through the line at minimum possible distance
2 3 4
from the point (1, 3, 1) is
(A) 7x 2y 2z + 3 = 0 (B) x + 3y + 10 = 0
(C) 3x + y z = 2 (D) none of these
80.
a b b c c a b equal (where a,b,c are non-coplanar vectors)
2 2 2
(A) a b c b (B) a b c b c
2
(C) a b c b a c b (D) none of these
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
81. Let z1, z2, z3 be represented by A, B, C on Argand plane such that z1 = 3 + 3i, z2 =
9 6 2 6 2 3 i and ABC is right angled at C. If minimum and maximum possible value of
Argument of z3 is a, b respectively (Argument of z3 (, ], then b a is where k equals
k
4sin x16sin y 1 cos2 x
82. Number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying , 31 31cos y 10 ; x, y
1 16 sin x
1 256 sin y
4
[0, 2] is
83. Two families each having 4 members are to be seated around a circular table having alternate
red and blue chairs. If probability that members of same family are seated together is p, then 35p
equals
84. Number of 5-digit natural numbers such that the product of their digits equals number of ways to
create a necklace out of 6 beads from 10 distinct beads is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
85. Remainder when (2022)2023 is divided by 11 is
86. Let {a1, a2, ….. , an} be a sequence such that a1 = 0, a2 = 1, a3 = 2 and an+3 = an+2 + an an+1 n
a
1, then value of 15 nn equals
n 1 2
87. Let A(0, 0), B(x 1, y1) and C(x2, y2) form a triangle having circumcentre at (31/4, 31/4). If area of
ABC lies in (a, b], then 2(a + b) equals
88. If difference of distances of A(1, 1) and B(3, 13) from any point R on x + 2y 1 = 0 is minimum,
then absolute value of five times sum of abscissa and ordinate of R equals
89. Sum of all solutions of the equation sin1[x] = cos1{x} is (where [.] represents greatest integer
function and { } represents fractional part function)
90. Number of skew symmetric matrices of order 3 with integer entries such that their squares equals
identity matrix is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 18-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. A
Sol. x-axis along the inclined plane
y-axis perpendicular to the inclined plane.
3 g
v 0x v 0 cos30 v 0 , a x gsin30
2 2
v 3
v 0y v 0 sin30 0 , a y gcos 30 g
2 2
3
x0 0 , y 0 Hsin30 H
2
When particle reaches the inclined plane, y = 0
H 3 v0 1g 3 2
0 t t …(i)
2 2 2 2
If particle hits the inclined plane at 90. It will retrace the path for this v x = 0
v 3 g
0 0 t
2 2
v 3
t 0 …(ii)
g
2
H 3 v0 v0 3 1 g 3 v0 3
0
2 2 g 2 2 g2
2gH
v0
5
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
2. A
A m 20
Sol. Modulation index = 0.4
A C 50
Side frequency band is fC fm and fC fm
3. D
Sol. For the ball along perpendicular to the inclined plane
Ndt mv (e 1)
0 …(i) (v 0 = 10 m/s)
For the block along the surface of the inclined plane
Ndt m(v f v i ) …(ii)
mv 0 (e 1) mv
v 0.2 v 0 1.5 3 m/s
4. B
Sol. f n
2
330
1100 n
2 30x102
This shows that air column vibrates in 2nd harmonic. This implies that wavelength = = 30 cm.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
P 0.1P0 sinkx cos wt.
x is measured from open end.
At x =5 cm, i.e., at x
6
2
P 0.1P0 sin cos wt
6
3
Pmax Pmin 2 0.1P0
2
3 104 N / m2
5. D
Sol. fT mr
fR m 2r m 2 t 2r
Since fT2 fR2 mg
m r 1 2 t 4 mg
1/4
0.255 10 2
2
1/4 1
1 g 1 0.5
t 1 = 5 s
r
6. B
kQ kQ Q Q
Sol. V
R R 20R 4 0R
2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
7. C
Sol. 1A 0.081 = 9AR
R = 0.09
8. A
Sol. Q AB WAB UAB
10 10CV
10 nCV 10
nR R
2P 20
QBC WBC UBC 0 C CV
R
10 2PC
QCA WCA UCA WCA CV
R
Q Q AB QBC QCA 5J
10CV 2PC 20 10 2PC
10 CV WCA CV 5 J
R R R
WCA 5J
9. A
Sol. mvR = mvr …(i)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 GMm 1
and mv 2 mv 2
2 r 2
2GM
v 2 v 2
r
2 2
v R 2GM
2
v2
r r
1/2
r 2 2GM
R v
v r
10. D
2EC
Sol. qmax =
3
In the beginning current through the cell
3E
I0
5R
dq 2 2E
Therefore, I0
dt 3 5R
2E 2EC
Since, t
5R 3
5RC
t
3
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
11. B
Sol. In the steady state current in the branch having capacitor is = 100V
zero. The effective circuit is shown in the figure.
Current through the cell
3 R1 A
I A v
7 R2
R3
2 2
Therefore current through the voltmeter is I I A
3 7
400
Therefore, voltmeter reading is = I R V V
7
12. B
Sol. From snell’s law
sin = 16 sin x
5
sin x sin
8
13. A
Sol. Q = AHeBEHe (per nucleon) 2AH(BEH per nuclear)
= 28 MeV 4.4 MeV = 23.6 MeV
14. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
tR
Sol. VR V 1 e L , at t = n2
3V
VR
4
15. A
2
vrms
Sol. Initially, P vrms PR
R
2 2
2 vrms PR R
Finally, P IrmsR R R P
z2 z 2
z
16. B
Sol. The gas expands isobarically, therefore, Q = nCpT
At STP. 1 mole of a gas occupies the volume 22.4 liter. This implies that in the vessel 2 mole
helium is present
5R
Q 2 20J 100R .
2
17. A
2 (z1 1)2
Sol. 4
1 (z2 1)2
2z2 z1 1
18. A
Sol. The effective decay constant
= 1 + 2
Therefore effective half life
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
n2 0.693
T1/2
1 2
19. D
Sol. Collective energy of both photons is 11.6 eV more than the ionization energy of a hydrogen atom.
20. B
x
Sol. y x, t 0.5cm sin 100 t
v
T 1600
Here, 200m / s
40 103
5
and t s
200
5
x m
2
5 5 5 5
y x ,t s 0.5cm sin 100
2 200 200 400
0.5
cm
2
21. 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot SECTION – B
Sol. Let the resistance be R,
110
Therefore, Irms A
R
220 110
With L, Irms
2
R L 2 2 R
4
R2 105 2
3
220 110
With C, Irms
2 R
1
R2
C
C = 5F
22. 7
bt
Sol. A A 0 e 2m
Where, A0 = initial amplitude
b = damping constant
M = mass of the block
bt
A0
A 0 e 2m
2
n2
t
b / 2m
0.693
2 200 g = 7 s
40 g / s
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
23. 3
u2 sin 2
Sol. Rcm 5 3 m
g
Let M be the mass of each fragment
M 3 (n 1)M 7 3
5 3
nM
n=3
24. 11
Sol. The point P acts like a virtual object for the lens.
1 1 1
Since,
f v u
1 1 1
25 v 20
1 1 1 9
v 25 20 100
v = 11.11 cm 11 cm
25. 38
Sol. Energy of the incident photon
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
E E0 z2 40.8 eV
4
E
Stopping potential, v 0 38 V
e
26. 7
n2
Sol. Since, 4.14 109 s
T1/2
dN
Activity, N
dt
dN
dt 8 3.7 107
N
9
7.133 1010
4.14 10
7.133 106
Therefore mass, M 23
60 7.12 106 g 7g
6.023 10
27. 10
V 0.05V
Sol. Since, 10
I 5 103 A
28. 14
2.0
Sol. The output AC voltage is 2.0 V. Therefore AC collector current, IC 103 A
2000
IC
Since, amplification factor, 100
IB
IC
IB 10 5 A
100
DC base current is 10 10 5 A 104 A
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
From the circuit, VB IBRB VBE
VB VBE 2 0.6
RB 14 k
IB(DC) 104
29. 800
Sol. Length of the antenna,
4
= 4 = 800 m
30. 4000
Sol. Let be the angular diffraction.
n
Sin =
d
n
For small , sin = =
d
For 1st minima, n = 1
for first minima =
d
2
Since, angular width of the central maximum is 2 4 103 rad
d
TG ~ @bohring_bot
= d 2 103 m = 4 107 m = 4000 Å
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. B
Sol. Decreasing pressure usually decreases the sublimation temperature of the substance and thus
preventing it from decomposition.
32. A
YA X po
Sol. A Ao
YB XB pB
YA m A MB
; MA molar mass of A
YB mB MA
MB molar mass of B
mA
ratio of their masses in vapour phase.
mB
X A m A MB
Similarly,
XB mB MA
m A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(Ratio of their masses in liquid phase)
mB
33. D
Sol. Defect usually increases the conductivity, while heating metallic conductor decreases its
conductivity due to increase in the vibration of metal ions which consequently increases the
resistance.
34. B
Sol. In aqueous medium,
Size of ion is in the order of
Li Na K Rb
35. B
Sol. In a particular group, lower member have high basic character of their oxide. For same element
with different oxides (having different oxidation states), the oxides having high oxidation state of
element have high acidic characer.
36. C
Sol. (Structure of H2 O2 , NCERT)
37. C
Sol. Z-components of angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbital is governed by magnetic
quantum number. For, d sub-shell, there are 5 Z-components possible.
38. A
1
3RT 2
Sol. Root mean square speed of any gas
M
3RT
Mean square speed
M
Both the gases are in same compartment, the temperature is same for both the gases.
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
3RT 32 32 8
Required ratio
28 3RT 28 7
39. A
Sol. T1V11 T2 V2 1 (for adiabatical change)
1
T2 V1 1
3
T1 V2
As is more for monoatomic gas He. Hence, temperature will also be more for it.
40. C
3
Sol. C C bond has lowest electronegativity difference. For homolytic bond cleavage a bond should
have low electronegative difference.
41. C
Sol. With HBr along with peroxide, the product can both have syn as well as anti addition.
42. B
Sol. CH2Cl H2C OCH3
3CH OH
Nucleophilic substitution at benzylic carbon.
NO 2 TG ~ @bohring_bot NO 2
43. B
Sol. Value of van’t Hoff factor is more than unity during dissociation. Solid CO2 first liquefies upon
heating at high pressure. Blood cells present in hypotonic solution will swell.
44. D
NaOH
Sol. CH3 COOCH3 aq H2 O CH3 COO aq CH3 OH aq
45. B
Sol. AB 2 s A 2 aq 2B aq
2
K SP A 2 aq B aq
2
i.e. A 2 aq B aq Constant C
C K SP
log A 2 2 log B logC
log A 2 log C 2 log B
y C mx m 2
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
46. B
Sol.
Re agents
N N
Pyridine H
Piperidine
47. A
Cl H2O NH3 CN
Sol.
Strong ligands
Stronger the ligand, greater will be the splitting and hence the compound will absorbs light of high
frequency (or low wavelength).
48. B
Sol. Octahedral ionic radii of these elements in M2 state is related with its stabilization due to CFSE.
49. A
Sol. 18 18O+ H
O +
+ H (aq)
C H3C C
H3C CH3 CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot H3C OH
H 18 + H 18O H
O
H3C C CH3 H3C C CH3
+ H+(aq)
O CH3 O CH3
- H2O18
O CH3
H3C CH3 H3C OH +
C H3C C CH3 + H (aq)
+
O CH3 O CH3
50. B
Sol. KClO3
KCl O2 g
A B C
KCl aq AgNO3 AgCl
B
KOH Cl2 g KCl KClO3 H2 O
D
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
51. 17
Sol. Hybridisation is involved in sigma bond. Hybridisation and number of corresponding bonds,
respectively are given as
CH4 sp3 4
ClF sp d 3
3
3
C H sp 5
2 4
2
C2H2 sp 3
NO2 sp 2
52. 83
200
Sol. 20 mL of ‘10 volume’ H2 O2 solution produces 200 ml of O 2 at STP (or mole of O2 )
22400
C2H4 3O2 2CO2 2H2 O
200 1 200
mole of O2 will burn 28 g of C2H4
22400 3 22400
Required answer = 83 mg.
53.
Sol.
404
Li2 CO3 s
1 mole
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Li2 O s CO2
Na2 CO3 .10H2 O s Na2 CO3 s 10H2 O
2 moles
Required answer = 44 + 180 × 2
= 44 + 360
= 404 g.
54. 10
Sol. H H H H H H
Cl C C C C Cl C C
(2) T H
T H H T (0)
H H H H
Cl C C C C Cl
(4)
H T H T
H H H H
C C C C
T H T H
H C C H H C C H
H T T H
(0) (2)
(trans)
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AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
H H H H
Cl C C C C Cl
(2)
H T T H
55. 120
Sol. 4Fe s 3O2 g 2Fe2 O3 s
40 moles 20 moles
So, 40 moles of Fe will give up 120 moles of electrons to form 20 moles of Fe2 O3 .
56. 4
A
Sol. Z X s Z 4 Y s 42 He g
2 moles (75% disintegration) 3 moles of He(g)
3 0.082 298
V 4 Lit.
18.32
57. 6
Sol. Because of the electrons in benzene ring which are in conjugation, the compound is aromatic.
58. 18
Sol. I
TG ~ @bohring_bot
I
59. 4
Sol. At sea level
Atmospheric pressure = 1.013 bar
Partial pressure 4 106 1.013 bar
4.032 106 bar
60. 17
Sol. 3 H O
C12 H22 O11 H2 O C6 H12 O6 C6 H12 O6
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
0.2 mole
60 80
Required mass of glucose 0.2 180
100 100
= 17.28 g
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. C
Sol. 55 + 65 + 80 = 200
62. D
Sol. p T, q F, r F, s T
63. D
1
Sol. f x f x dx 0
20
64. D
Sol. R is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive. Domain and range of R has 19 and 10
elements respectively.
65. D
1 cos6
Sol. sin32° sin88° sin28° = sin84
4 4
66.
Sol.
C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
p = ( + )2 2 +
9
11
7
1 1
q = 22 + + + 10
7
67. A
Sol. A + B = 2024(2023C0 + 2023C1 + …… + 2023
C2023) = 2024.22023
68. C
b2 2
Sol. a ae e 1 1 + e
a
e (1, 2]
69. A
Sol. cos + sin = 1 = 0,
2
70. B
b 2 B2 1
Sol. ae = AE, eE = 1 e =
a A 2
71. D
Sol. Limit equals 0 for n 1 and does not exist for n < 1
72. D
Sol. A1 + A3 + ….. + A2023 is skew symmetric matrix of order 3 so its determinant equals 0.
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73. B
Sol. Check RHD and LHD at x = 0
74. B
dv dr ds dr
Sol. = r2 cot , 2r cosec
dt dt dt dt
ds 41
dt 12
75. D
7
Sol. f(x) = (x + 2) (x + 1) (x 1) (x + x + 1)
There are 3 stationary points in (2, 1)
76. B
1
n
x x 1
6 3
Sol. Let In = dx
0
1 1
x7 3 n 3n 9 3 n 1
=
7
x 1
7 0
x x 1 dx
0
3n 3n
= In In1 In = In1
7 3n 7
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3(n 1)
In1 = In2
3n 4
…
…
…
3.2 3
I2 = I1 where I1 =
13 70
77. A
b 5 1
Sol. (a2 ab) = (a2 + b2 a2)
a 2
2 5 2
e= = 2 sin18
4
78. D
Sol. Let amount of salt in bloodstream a time t = x
dx
= kx x = cekt
dt
ln2
where c = 100 and k =
5
ln 2
t
x = 100e 5 (for first 12 hours)
12
ln 2
At t = 12+ hrs, initial amount is 100 1 e 5
12 3 ln 2
ln 2
At t = 15 hrs, x = 100 1 e 5 e 5
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-V-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
79. A
Sol. Plane contains (1, 2, 3) and (1, 3, 1) and parallel to 2iˆ 3 ˆj 4kˆ
80. D
Sol.
ab
b c c a b a b c b c a b
= a b c b a c b c a b 0
SECTION – B
81. 4
Sol. b ,a
2 4
82. 3
Sol. (4sinx + 4sinx) (16siny + 16siny) = 4
sinx = siny = 0 (by A.M - G.M)
10 1
3|cosx| + 3cosy = 3cosy = cosy = 1
3 3
y = , x = 0, , 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
83. 2
2
Sol. p=
35
84. 60
Sol. x1x2x3x4x5 = 9 8 7 5 5
5!
total numbers = 60
2
85. 3
Sol. Using Binomial expansion remainder comes out to be 3.
86. 9
1 2 1 1 S 1
Sol. S S S
4 8 2 4 8 4
3
S= 15S = 9
5
87. 9
3 3 9
Sol. Maximum area of ABC = 2 3
4 2
9
ABC 0 ,
2
88. 18
y7 1
Sol. R lies on the line and on the line x + 2y 1 = 0
x 1 3
41 23
R is ,
5 5
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Yash Patil 16
89. 1
Sol. If [x] = 0 0 = cos1x x = 1 (not possible)
If [x] = 1 = cos1{x} {x} = 0 x = 1
2
If [x] = 1 = cos1{x} not possible
2
90. 0
0 a b a 2 b 2 bc ac
Sol. Let A = a 0 c A2 = bc
2
a c 2
ab I a, b , c I
b c 0
ac ab b2 c 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – VI
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 19-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. An ice block at 0°C is dropped from height 'h' above the ground. What should be the value of ‘h'
so that it melts completely by the time it reaches the bottom assuming the loss of whole
2
gravitational potential energy is used as heat by the ice? [Given: Lf = 80 cal/gm and g = 10 m/s ]
(A) 33.6 m (B) 33.6 km
(C) 8 m (D) 8 km
2. A Solid floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed in a liquid and with 3/4 of its volume immersed in
another liquid. What fraction of its volume will be immersed if it floats in a homogenous mixture
formed of equal volumes of the liquids?
6 8
(A) (B)
11 11
11 12
(C) (D)
16 17
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3. One mole of ideal gas undergoes an expansion from state A to V
state B as shown in the V-T diagram. The pressure of gas:
(A) remains constant during the process. 3V0 B
8
(B) increases from A to B, times 2V0 A
3
(C) is same at A and B, but increases in between
3
(D) decreases from A to B, times
8 T0 4T0 T
4. To increase the resonant frequency in series L-C-R circuit,
(A) source frequency should be increased
(B) another resistance should be added in series with the first resistance
(C) another capacitor should be added in series with the first capacitor
(D) the source frequency should be decreased
5. Time taken by light to travel in two different materials A and B of refractive indices A and B of
same thickness is t1 and t2, respectively. If t2 t1 = 5 x 1010 s and the ratio of A to B is 1:2.
Then, the thickness of material in metre is (Given, VA and VB are velocities of light in A and B
materials, respectively.)
(A) (5 10 10 v A ) m (B) (5 10 10 ) m
(C) (1.5 1010 ) m (D) (5 1010 vB ) m
6. Current flowing between points A and C is 3
B C
(A) zero (B) 4A
(C) 8A (D) 12A
2 6
A D
24 V
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
7. If frequency of incident light in a photoelectric cell is doubled, then stopping potential increases by
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) more than 100%
(D) any amount depending on work function of metal
8. A charged particle enters in a region of a uniform magnetic field making 45 with direction of field.
P
If P and R represent pitch and radius of helical path followed by particle, then equals to
R
(A) (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 2 1
9. A sphere of diameter d is removed from a uniform non- P Cavity
conducting sphere of charge density p and radius R thereby + + +
creating a cavity as shown. An electron (of charge - e and + + + + + + +
mass m) is released at top point P of this cavity. Time after + + + + + + + +
which the electron strikes the surface of the cavity is (Take, d = + + + + + + + + +
R and gravity is absent) + + + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + + + +
120 m 1 e + + + + + + + +
(A) (B)
e 2 30m + + + + + + +
+ + +
20m 0m
(C) (D) Charge density
TG ~ @bohring_bot
e 2e
10. The figure here shows a fixed rectangular conducting frame
B
ABCD of side and 2 in a region of transverse uniform A G
magnetic field B0. Two straight conducting sliders EF and GH E F
are moving with respective speeds v and 3v as shown in T
v
figure. Initially, EF and GH are located very near to sides AB
and AD respectively. Intersection contact of the sliders is 3v
represented by T. Emf induced in the loop ETHD when it is a
C
square, is
D
H
(A) 2B0v (B) 1.5B0v 2
(C) B0v (D) 0.5 B0v
11. A particle experiences a force F Ar 2rˆ , where r̂ is the unit vector along position vector r . The
dimensional formula of A is:
(A) [MLT2] (B) [ML2T2]
2 1
(C) [ML T ] (D) [ML1T2]
2
12. Acceleration (a)-time (t) graph for a particle starting from a(m/s )
rest at t = 0 is as given aside. The particle has maximum
speed at:
(A) 1s (B) 2 s
1 2
(C) 3 s (D) 4 s
O 3 4 t(sec)
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13. Two blocks A and B with mass 4 kg and 6 kg respectively are 1.5 m/s2
connected by a stretched spring of negligible mass as shown
in figure. When the two blocks are released simultaneously A B
2
the initial acceleration of B is 1.5 m/s westward. The
acceleration of A is
(A) 1 m/s2 westward
2
(B) 2.25 m/s eastward
2
(C) 1 m/s eastward
(D) 2.75 m/s2 westward
14. With what minimum acceleration, mass M must be moved on m
frictionless surface so that m remains stick to it as shown? The
M
coefficient of friction between M and m is .
g
(A) g (B)
mg mg
(C) (D)
Mm M
15. In a circular motion of a particle, the tangential acceleration of the particle is given by at = 9 m/s2.
The radius of the circle is 4 m. The particle was initially at rest. Time after which total acceleration
of the particle makes an angle of 45° with the radial acceleration is
1 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) sec (B) sec
3 3
4
(C) 1 sec (D) sec
3
16. A skier plans to ski a smooth fixed hemisphere of
radius R. He starts from rest from a curved smooth R/4
surface of height (R/4). The angle at which he leaves
the hemisphere is:
2
(A) cos 1
3
R
1
5
(B) cos
3 O
5
1
(C) cos
6
5
(D) cos1
2 3
17. Sachin (55 kg) and Kapil (65 kg) are sitting at the two ends of a boat at rest in still water. The boat
weighs 100 kg and is 3.0 m long. Sachin walks down to Kapil and shakes hand. The boat gets
displaced by:
(A) zero m (B) 0.75 m
(C) 3.0 m (D) 2.3 mm
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
18. A mass 2m rotating freely in a horizontal circle of radius
1m on a frictionless smooth table supports a stationary
mass m, attached to the other end of the string passing O 2m
through smooth hole O in table, hanging vertically. Find
the angular velocity of rotation. (Given g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 5 rad/s
(B) 2 5 rad/s m
(C) 10 rad/s
5
(D) rad/s
2
19. A bowling ball of mass m, which can be treated as a uniform rigid sphere, is rolling without
slipping on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction between the ball and the surface
is S, the coefficient of kinetic friction is K, and the acceleration due to gravity is g. What is the
force of friction acting on the ball?
(A) zero (B) S mg
2
(C) k mg (D) Smg
5
20. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at the rim and is set for small oscillations in vertical
plane (in its plane). If simple pendulum has to have the same period as that of the disc, the length
TG ~ @bohring_bot
of the simple pendulum should be :
5 2
(A) R (B) R
4
3
3 3
(C) R (D) R
4 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
1
21. A point charge of coulomb is placed in front of an infinite imaginary plane. Electric flux
4
through the plane is 4.5 10b N-m2/C. Find b.
22. The speed of image of the object moving Focal length = f
on axis of the mirror as shown is
7 4 cm/s vimage
cm/s. Find the value of k.
k Principal axis
30
Luminous
object
f
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Yash Patil 6
23. Consider the arrangement shown in the x
figure. A uniform wire (linear mass density A
0.2 g/m) vibrating in its fundamental mode B
is in resonance with air column in a
resonance tube vibrating in 1st overtone.
54
The value of m is kg. Find the value of
k
k. (Given that speed of sound in air is 400
m/s and g =10 m/s2) Massless
x/2 air pulley
water
2m
24. Consider the shown section at a perpendicular distance + + +
R + + + + + +
from centre of the shown uniform solid sphere. Electric + + + + + + + +
2
+ + + + + + + + +
flux through the section is
Q
. Find the value of k. + + + + +R/2 + + + +
TG ~ @bohring_bot
k 20 + + + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + +
+ + + + + +
+ + +
Uniform solid sphere
(Total charge = Q, Radius = R)
25. Average life time of a hydrogen atom excited to n = 2 state is 108 s. The number of revolutions
made by the electron on the average before it jumps to ground state is close to 8 10x. Find x.
(Take radius of first Bohr’s orbit r0 = 0.53 Å and speed of electron in first Bohr’s orbit 2.2 106
m/s)
26. If percentage errors in measurement of length of pendulum and time period of pendulum in an
experiment to measure g are 1% and 2% respectively, then find maximum possible percentage
error in measurement of g.
27. A vibration magnetometer has two identical bar magnets placed over each other such that they
are mutually perpendicular and bisect each other. Time period of combination is 4 32 s. Now if
one of the magnet is removed, find time period of the remaining magnet in second.
28. 20 divisions on a vernier scale coincides with 19 divisions of main scale. If least count of the
instrument is 0.05 mm, find the length of one Main Scale Division (MSD) in mm.
29. Two identical thin equiconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1.5 are in contact
with each other. The space between the lenses is filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.25. Find
the focal length of the combination in cm.
30. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell gives a balancing point at 75 cm length of wire. This cell is
now replaced by another cell of unknown emf. If the ratio of the emf's of two cells, is 3: 2, the
difference in the balancing length of the potentiometer wire in above two cases will be x cm. Find
x.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The correct order of decreasing acidity for following compound is
O O
O2 NCH2 COOH, CCl3 COOH, F3 C 3 COH, OH
1 2 3 4
(A) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 (B) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(C) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (D) 3 > 1 > 4 > 2
32. The major product obtained in the following reaction, is
2 1. LiNH 2 equiv. /liq. NH
3
H C C CH2OH
2. C2H5Br 1 equiv.
3. H3 O
(A) CH3CH2 C C CH2OH
(B) H C C CH2OCH2CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) CH3CH2 C C CH2NH2
(D) H C C CH2NH CH2CH3
33. The reaction of P2 O5 with HNO3 and HClO 4 , respectively, gives
(A) NO2 and ClO2
(B) N2 O5 and Cl2 O6
(C) N2 O3 and Cl2 O7
(D) N2 O5 and Cl2 O7
34. The major product formed in the following reaction, is
O
N(C2H5)2
1. CH3I
2. NaHCO /MeOH, Warm3
(A) O
H3C
N(C2H5)2
(B) OCH3
N(C2H5)2
(C) O
CH2
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Yash Patil 8
(D) O
C2H5
N
CH3
35. Select the correct statement(s) about drugs:
(A) Chlordiazepoxide is suitable for relieving tension.
(B) Barbiturates are sleep producing agents.
(C) Cimetidine prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptors present in stomach wall.
(D) All of the above are correct statements.
36. The correct electronic configuration and spin only magnetic moment Gd3 at. no. 64 are
(A) Xe 4f 7 and 7.9 BM
(B) Xe 4f 7 and 8.9 BM
(C) Xe 4f 6 5d1 and 7.9 BM
(D) Rn 5f 7 and 7.9 BM
37. Among the following octahedral complexes, the one that has the highest enthalpy of hydration is
2
(A) Ca H2 O 6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
(B) Mn H2 O 6
2
(C) V H2 O 6
2
(D) Cr H2 O 6
38. The Lewis acidity of BF3 is less than BCl3 even though fluorine is more electronegative than
chlorine. It is due to
(A) stronger 2p(B)-2p(F) bonding
(B) stronger 2p(B)-2p(F) bonding
(C) stronger 2p(B)-3p(Cl) bonding
(D) stronger 2p(B)-3p(Cl) bonding
39. Consider the following phase diagram of CO2 (not to scale). At equilibrium, the INCORRECT
statement is:
Solid Critical point
72.9
Liquid
Pressure (atm)
67.0
5.11
Gas
1.0
194.7 216.8 298.15 304.2
Temperature (K)
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
(A) At 200 K, on increasing the pressure from 1 to 50 atm, CO 2 gas condenses to liquid.
(B) It is not possible to obtain liquid CO 2 from gaseous CO 2 below 5.11 atm.
(C) Both liquid and gas phase CO 2 coexist at 29.15 K and 67 atm.
(D) With increasing pressure, the melting point of solid CO 2 increases.
40. Among the following species, the one that has pentagonal shape is:
(Given: atomic numbers of O, F, S, I and Xe are 8, 9, 16, 53 and 54, respectively)
(A) XeOF4 (B) IF5
(C) SF5 (D) XeF5
41. Which of the following is a viable particulate
(A) Smoke (B) Algae
(C) Mists (D) Dust
42. The number of unit cells in 117 g of NaCl is approximately
(A) 6 1020 (B) 3 1023
(C) 6 1023 (D) 0.5 1024
43. The product obtained in the following solvolysis reaction is
OTs OAc
O NaOAc /AcOH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O CH3 OAc
enantiomerically
pure compound
(A) a racemic mixture of trans 1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane
(B) enantiomerically pure trans 1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane
(C) racemic cis 1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane
(D) a mixture of cis and trans 1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane
44. A 0.1 M solution of Cu NH3 4 is stirred with an excess of potassium cyanide sufficient to
3
convert all the ammonium complex to the corresponding cuprocyanide complex Cu CN4
and in addition to provide the solution with an excess of CN equal to 0.2 M. Calculate the
maximum pH of the solution when the final solution is treated with hydrogen sulphide to maintain
H2 S 0.1 M and the precipitation of cuprous sulphide is prevented. The instability constant for
3
Cu CN
4
is 6.4 1015 , K a, overall of H2 S 1.6 10 21, K sp of Cu2 S 2.56 1027.
(A) 4.0 (B) 10.0
(C) 10.8 (D) 3.2
45. The compound which don’t liberate coloured gas with conc. H2 SO 4 is
(A) KCl K 2 Cr2 O7 (B) KCl
(C) KNO2 (D) KBr
46. Suppose the mass of electron is decreased by 25%. How will it affect the Rydberg constant?
(A) It remains unchanged.
(B) It becomes one-fourth.
(C) It reduces to 75% of its original value.
(D) It is doubled.
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168
47. At moderate pressure, the compressibility factor for a gas is given as Z 1 0.35 P .P,
T
where P is in bar and T is in Kelvin. What is the Boyle’s temperature of the gas?
(A) 168 K (B) 480 K
(C) 58.8 K (D) 575 K
x
48. Graph between log and log P is a straight line at an angle 45o with intercept on y-axis,
m
0.3010. The amount (in g) of the gas absorbed per g of the adsorbent when pressure is 0.2 atm is
(assume that the adsorption obey Freundlich isotherm)
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.8 (D) 0.2
49. The correct set of reagents for the following conversion is
OMe OMe
Br
CN
(A) i NaNH2 / liq. NH3 ; ii NaNO2 / dil. HCl; iii CuCN,heat
(B) i HNO3 / H2 SO4 ; ii ZnHCl; iii NaNO2 / dil. HCl; iv CuCN, heat
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) i Mg / ether, H2 O ; ii EtO 2 CO; iii NH4 OH; iv PCl5
(D) i Mg / ether, H2 O ; ii HNO3 / H2 SO4 ; iii NaNO2 / dil. HCl; iv CuCN, heat
50. Phenol on reacting with Hinsberg’s reagent gives:
(A) Sulphone
(B) Sulphanilic
(C) Sulphonic ester
(D) Sulphonal
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. Number of carbonyl groups present in the final product of the following reaction sequence
is…………….
O O
O
1. O3 , H2 O2
O
2. H3 O ,
O O
O
52. The rate constant of a first order reaction, X Y, is 1.6 10 3 s1 at 300 K. Given that the
-1
activation energy of the reaction is 28 kJ mol and assuming Arrhenius behaviour for the
temperature dependence, the total time required to obtain 90% of Y at 350 K is ____________s.
(Use R = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1)
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
53. The Latimer diagram of oxygen is given below. The value of 100x is________V.
0.70 V 1.76 V
O2 H2 O2 H2 O
xV
54. On heating a sample of 25 g hydrated compound (molecular weight = 250 g/mol) in
thermogravimetric analysis, 16 g of dehydrated compound remains. The number of water
molecules lost per molecule of hydrated compound is________.
55. The entropy change for the melting of ‘x’ moles of ice (heat of fusion is 80 cal g-1) at 273 K and 1
atm pressure is 28.80 cal K-1. The value of ‘50x’ is__________
(Molecular weight of water = 8 g/mol)
56. At 10oC, the osmotic pressure of urea solution is 500 mm. The solution diluted and the
temperature is raised to 100oC, when the osmotic pressure is found to be 94 mm. The extent of
dilution (ratio of final to initial volume of solution) is
57. Among the following ores
Bauxite, Kaolinite, Malachite, Sphalerite, Calamine, Siderite, Magnetite, the number of principal
ores of copper and zinc are______
TG ~ @bohring_bot
58. The number of nitrogen atoms present in the adenine is_____
59. In the given reaction
Cl
i HNO /H SO
3 2
o
4
P
ii NaOH, 150 C
iii CH3 I
iv Conc. H2 SO4
The number of bonds present in compound (P) is____________
60. How many different secondary halide names can be assigned to compounds with molecular
formula C5 H11Cl (excluding stereoisomers)?
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
61. If P is any point on ellipse with foci S1 and S2 and eccentricity is such that PS1S2 = ,
2
PS2S1 = , S1PS2 = , then cot , cot , cot are in
2 2 2
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(C) H.P. (D) not A.P., G.P. and H.P.
2 2
62. For each positive integer n, consider the point P with abscissa n on the curve y x = 1. If dn
represents the shortest distance from the point P to the line y = x, then lim n dn is
n
1 1
(A) (B)
2 2 2
1
(C) (D) 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
63. Latus-rectum of the conic satisfying the differential equation xdy + ydx = 0 and passing through
the point (2, 8) is
(A) 4 2 (B) 8
(C) 8 2 (D) 16
64. Let a and b be real numbers and let f(x) = asinx + b 3 x 4 , x R. If f(log10(log310)) = 5, then
f(log10(log103)) is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
65. Suppose f is an even periodic function with period 2, and that f(x) = x for all x in the interval [0, 1].
The value of f(3.14) is
(A) 3.14 (B) 0.86
(C) 1.57 (D) 1.3
2 2 2
x x 1 e dx A f x C where C is constant of integration and f(1) =
2 x
66. 1 , then 2A
e
+ f(0) is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
6
yi
6 i 1
ex
67. If sin 1
xi cos1 yi 9 , then
x ln 1 x 2 2x
dx is equal to
i 1 6 1 e
xi
i 1
6
(A) 0 (B) e + e6
37
(C) ln (D) e6 e6
12
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
1
68. Area bounded by y 2
and x-axis is
x 2x 2
(A) 2 sq. units (B) sq. units
2
(C) 2 sq. units (D) sq. units
n tan x
sin x 4 x 2
x 1
69. Let f(x) = n
, then lim f x is
1 x 2 x4 x 1
22
(A) (B)
7
(C) 1 (D)
x 2 kx 1
70. If f x , the interval(s) of all possible values of k for which f is continuous for every
x2 k
x R, is
(A) (, 2] (B) [2, 0)
(C) R (2, 2) (D) (2, 2)
71. Number of complex numbers satisfying the relation z z z z 2 and |z + i| + |z i| = 2 is
(A) 1
(C) 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 1
(B) 2
(D) 4
n n
72. If A = and det(A I) = 1 , n N, then the value of is
1 1
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
1 2 2
73. The matrix A = 2 1 1 be a zero divisor of the polynomial f(x) = x 2 4x 5, then the trace of
2 2 1
3
matrix A , is
(A) 213 (B) 123
(C) 203 (D) 201
74. The relation R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)} on the set A = {1, 2, 3} is
(A) reflexive but not symmetric (B) reflexive but not transitive
(C) symmetric and transitive (D) neither symmetric nor transitive
75. A tower subtends angles d, 2, 3 respectively at points A, B and C all lying on a horizontal line
AB
through the foot of the tower, then is equal to
BC
sin 3
(A) (B) 1 + 2cos(2)
sin 2
sin 2
(C) 2cos(2) (D)
sin
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
76. The sum of squares of deviations for 10 observations taken from mean 50 is 250. The coefficient
of variation is
(A) 10% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) none of these
77. If p and q be two statements, then (~ p q) (~ p ~q) is a
(A) tautology (B) contradiction
(C) neither tautology nor contradiction (D) either tautology or contradiction
4x 2 3x 2 dy
78. Let y tan1 2
tan1 where x 0, . If , then the value of is
1 5x 3 2x 3 dx 1 25x 2
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
79. I=
e / 2
sin ln sin ln x cos ln x
dx , then cos1(I + 1) is
/ 6 x sin ln x
e
(A) (B)
2 3
(C) ln2 (D) 2ln2
y
80. The largest value of , where (x, y) is real number pair satisfying (x 3)2 + (y 3)2 = 6, is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x
(A) 2 3 (B) 2 3
(C) 32 2 (D) 6 2 3
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
89
1
81. If f() = x
and s = f , then [s] is (where [.] denotes G.I.F)
1 cot 1
82. Let v1 and v 2 are two vectors such that v1 = 2(sin + cos) ˆi ˆj and v 2 (sin )iˆ (cos )jˆ where
and satisfy the reaction 2(sin + cos) sin = 3 cos, then the value of 3tan2 + 4tan2 is
83. The line which contains all points (x, y, z) which are of the form (x, y, z) = (2, 2, 5) + (1, 3, 2)
intersects the plane 2x 3y + 4z = 163 at P and intersects the YZ plane at Q. If the distance PQ
is a b , where a, b N and a > 3 then (a + b) is
84. If A and B are two events with P(A) = 0.5 and P(A B) = 0.8. If P(B) = p and A and B are
q
mutually exclusive and P(B) = q, if A and B are independent then is
p
2 3
85. If x > 0 and y > 0 and x y = 6. If m be the least value of 3x + 4y, then m is
86. If the point P(h, k) lies on the line 2x + 3y = 5 such that |PA PB| is maximum where A(2, 3) and
B(1, 2), then 3h + 2k is
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
87. If x, y, z be positive numbers such that x + y + z = 10. If maximum value of x 2y3z5 is N, then
number of odd divisors is
88. The remainder, when 1523 + 2323 is divided by 19 is m, then m is
89. Let x, y be real variables satisfying x 2 + y2 + 8x 10y + 40 = 0. Let a = max{(x + 2)2 + (y 3)2}
and b = min{(x + 2)2 + (y 3)2}, then ab is
90. If cos1x + cos1y + cos1z = 3, then (x + y z)2022 is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – VI
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 19-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics TG ~ @bohring_bot PART – A
SECTION – A
1. B
Sol. Applying energy conservation:
mgh = mLf
L 80 cal / gm
h f
g 10 m / s 2
80 42 1000 J / kg 336 103 N s2
33.6 km
10 m / s2 10
kg
2. D
2
Sol. v1g vg
3
3
v 2 g v g
4
v1 v2 2vm
1 2
m
2
2
v 1 g v g
2
v 3g 4g
v g
2 2 3
12
v v
17
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Yash Patil 2
3. B
T T
Sol. As P nR so PA nR 0
V 2V0
4T0
and PB nR
3V0
PB 8
PA 3
4. C
Sol. Resonant frequency of an L-C-R circuit is given by
1
r
LC
So, resonance frequency does not depend on resistance of circuit and frequency of supply.
To increase resonance frequency, we have to reduce inductance or capacitance of circuit. As
capacitance reduces when capacitors are connected in series
1 1 1
(i.e. ), another capacitor in series to increase resonant frequency.
Cseries C1 C2
5. A
Sol. As, refractive index,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
speed of light in air
speed of light in medium
So, speed of light in a medium
c
v
Hence, for medium A and B,
c c
vA and vB
A B
Time taken by light to cross some
dis tance
thickness x is speed
time
x x
t1 and t 2
(c / A ) (c / B )
B x A x
Hence, t 2 t1
c c
x
t 2 t1 ( B A )
c
1
Now, given, A
B 2
B 2 A
and t 2 t1 5 1010 s
substituting these values, we get
x
5 1010 2 A A
c
c
x 5 1010
A
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
c
But vA
A
x (5 1010 v A )m
6. D
Sol. Assume potential at point D is equal to zero. As we know 0V R2 = 3 i2
B C
potential of all points on a plane wire are equal, so potential at 24 V
B will also be equal to 0 V. Also potential difference across R1 = 2
i3
cell is 24 V, so potential at A will be 24 V. Similarly, potential R3 = 6
i1
at C is also 24V.
24 V
Using Ohm's law for branch AB, A D
V VB 24 0 24 V 0V
i1 A 12 A Assume
R1 2 potential
For branch CB,
V VB 24 0
i2 C 8A
R2 3
For branch CD,
V VD 24 0
i3 C 4A
R3 6
By KCL for junction C,
i i2 i3 8 4 12 A
7.
Sol.
C TG ~ @bohring_bot
As per Einstein’s photoelectric equation
hf
vS …(i)
e e
If f is doubled, new stopping potential,
2hf
VS
e e
hf
= 2 2VS [from equation (i)]
e e e e
Which is more than double or an increase of more than 100%
8. B
Sol. When a charged particle enters a region of a uniform
magnetic field, such that the angle it makes with the u
vT =
direction of B 90°, then it follows a helical path as 2
shown below
Radius of helix,
mv mu A
R …(i) O
qB 2qB
u
v|| =
2
pitch
Where, v = Component of velocity perpendicular to field.
Also, pitch, P = Displacement along field in one revolution (OA)
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
u 2m
= v|| T (ii)
2 qB
P
Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), 2
R
9. A
a P Cavity
Sol. Field inside spherical cavity in a sphere =
30 + + +
Where a = distance between centres of sphere and cavity. + + + + + + +
Direction of field is along line joining centres as shown in + + + + + + + +
figure. + + + + + + E+ + +
R + + + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + + + +
2 R
So, field inside cavity will be E = (as shown) + + + +Q+ + + +
30 60
+ + + + + + +
Under influence of field, electron will accelerate down with + + +
acceleration,
eE Re Charge density
a …(i)
m 60m
As electrons move from P to Q, striking the cavity at Q, its displacement will be equal to
PQ = R= s …(ii)
1 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So, by using, s ut at , we get
2
1 Re 2
R 0 t [using equation (i) and (ii)]
2 60 m
120 m
t
e
10. B
Sol. At time t, distances moved by sliders GH and EF will
G B
be 3vt and vt respectively as shown. A
Therefore, area of loop ETHD will be vt
E F
A = 3vt( vt) =3 vt -3v2t2
v
dA
3v 6v 2 t …(i) vt 3v
dt
At the instant, the loop is square, its two sides will be C
equal. Therefore, D H
3vt
3vt vt t
4v
…(ii)
By Faraday's law, emf induced in the loop
d d(B0 A) dA
B0
dt dt dt
B0 (3v 6v 2 t) using equation (i)
B0 3v 6v 2 using equation (ii)
4v
3B0 v
= 1.5 B0 v
2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
11. D
Sol. [F] [Ar 2r]
ˆ [Ar 2 ]
[F] MLT 2
[A] 2 2
= [ML1T2]
[r ] L
12. B
Sol. Between t = 0 and t = 2, acceleration has same sign which increases speed. At t = 2 sec.
Direction of acceleration is reversed and speed starts decreasing.
13. B
Sol. T = MB aB but T is also equal to MAaA
MBaB = MAaA
6 1.5 = 4 aA
2
aA = 2.25 m/s
14. B
Sol. f = mg and N = mA f
So, N = mg
a
mA = mg (For Amin, f is max)
g m
A=
N
15. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot mg
Sol. At 45, at = ar = 9
v2 v2
9
r 4
v = 6 m/s
Now, 6 = 0 + 9t
2
t = sec
3
16. C
Sol. Conserving energy between points A and B, A
R 1
mg R(1 cos ) mv 2
4 2 R/4 N
Also at point B, N = 0
B
mv 2
So, mgcos
R
1 1 mg
(1 cos ) cos
4 2
5 3 O
cos
4 2
5
cos
6
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Yash Patil 6
17. B
Sol. Kapil and the boat can be considered as one body of mass mb = (65 + 100) = 165 kg. Note that
the centre of mass of the system remains unchanged since no external force acts on the system.
Let mS be the mass of Sachin and xb and xS be the displacements of the combined body of
mass mb and Sachin respectively with reference to the centre of mass. Then use the equation
mS xS mb xb 0 , to get the answer.
18. A
Sol. T (2m)2 mg
g
5 rad/s
2
19. A
Sol. If friction acts backwards then will increase and vcm will decrease hence violating pure rolling
condition and if friction acts in forward direction the will decrease and v cm will increase again
violating pure rolling condition hence no friction acts.
20. D
3
MR2
2
Sol. 2 2
MgR g
21. 9
TG ~ @bohring_bot SECTION – B
Sol. To find through infinite plane-1, let us construct an infinite plane-2 at
same distance from q on other side. If electric flux through plane-1 is ,
then flux through plane-2 will be also .
By Gauss’s Law
q
total 2 q
0
q 1 9 109
4.5 109
20 80 2
b=9
22. 2
Sol. Magnification of the object
f f 1
m
f u f (f ) 2
As velocity component of image along axis is given by
vi m2 v0
2
1 3
vi 4 cos30 cm/s
2
2
Also velocity component of image perpendicular to axis is given by
1
vi mv 0 4 sin30 1 cm/s
2
Therefore, net velocity of image is
3 7
v i2 vi2
v net 1 cm/s
4 2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
23. 5
Sol. Consider FBD of blocks. x
For mass m, using F = ma, we get A B
T mg = ma …(i)
Similarly for mass 2m, we get
2mg T = 2ma ...(ii)
From Equation (i) and (ii), T
4mg
T= …(iii)
3 Massless
From FBD of pulley, pulley
8mg T
T = 2T = T
3 T
Therefore, frequency of vibration of wire in a T
fundamental mode, a
1 T 1 8mg
f1 mg
2 2x 3
Also, frequency of vibration of air in 1st 2mg
overtone (3rd harmonic)
3v 3v 3v
f2
4 4x 2x
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
As, resonance implies frequencies are equal
1 8mg 3v
i.e., f1 f2 [using Eq. (v) and (vi)]
2x 3 2x
27v 2 27(0.2 103 )(400)2 54
m kg
8g 8 10 5
24. 8
Sol. Lets construct a cone as shown. By field Electric field
picture, through lateral surface is zero.
q
sec tion cone inside + + +
0
+ + + + + +
2 + + + + + + + +
1 R R
+ + +R/2
+ + + + + +
3 2 2
+ + + + + + + + +
0 + + + + + + + + +
O
+ + + + + + + + +
Q 1 R3 + + + + + + + +
+ + + + + + +
4 R3 3 2 2 + + + + + +
3 Q
= + + +
0 8 20
25. 6
Sol. Frequency of revolution of electron,
Z
v0 2
f
v
n v0z
2r n2 2r0n3
2r0
z
Number of revolutions in time t will be
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Yash Patil 8
v 0 z2 t
N ft
2r0n3
As we know, Bohr's radius
r0 = 0.53 Å = 0.53 1010 m
v0 = Bohr's speed = 2.2 106 m/s
Putting these values in Eq. (ii), we get
2.2 106 12 108
N 10 3
8 106
2 3.14 0.53 10 2
Comparing with given value, we get x = 6
26. 5
Sol. Time period of a pendulum is given by
T 2
g
4 2
g
T2
g T
100 100 2 100 1 2 2 5%
g max T
27. 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. For two perpendicular magnets of magnetic moment M0 and moment of inertial each, equivalent
magnetic moment,
M 2M0 …(i)
N 2 M0
M0
S N
M0
S
and total moment of inertia
I = 2I0 ...(ii)
Also, time period of oscillation of magnet in magnetic field is given by
I
T 2 ... (iii)
MB
Time period of the system, using
Equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
2I0 2I0
T 2 2 ...(iv)
2M0B M0B
Also, using Equation (iii) time period of single magnet,
I
T 2 0 …(v)
M0B
Dividing Equation (v) by Equation (iv), we get
T 1 T 321/4
1/4 T 1/4 1/4 161/4 2s
T 2 2 2
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
28. 1
Sol. LC = 1 MSD 1 VSD
19 MSD
LC = 1 MSD MSD =
20 20
MSD = 20 LC = 20 0.05 = 1 mm
29. 10
Sol. Given, focal length of two thin biconvex lens, f 1 = f2 = f = 15 cm
Using lens Maker's formula for first lens, 1 = 1.2
1 1 1
(g 1)
f1 R1 R2
1 1 1 1 1 g = 1.5
(1.5 1)
15 R R 15 R f1 f2
R = 15 cm
Focal length of combination is given as
1 1 1 1
…(i)
f eq f1 f2 f3
Where, f1 = f 2 = f = 15 cm f3
1 1 1 2 1
and (1 1) (1.25 1) 30
f3 R R R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
f 3 = 30 cm
Hence, from Equation (i), we get
1 1 1 1 3 1
feq 15 15 30 30 10
f eq = 10 cm
30. 25
Sol. Comparison of emfs of two cells using the experiment of potentiometer is given as
e1 I1
e2 I2
Where, I1 and I2 are their corresponding balancing length.
3 75
(since, I1 = 75 cm given)
2 I2
I2 = 50 cm
difference in balancing length
= I1 I2 = 75 50 = 25 cm
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Yash Patil 10
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. C
Sol. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohol. Electronic effects also influence acidity.
32. A
Sol.
LiNH2 2LiNH
H C C CH2OH H C C CH2 O C C C CH2 O
C2H5 Br
H3 O C C CH2 O
CH3CH2 C C CH2 CH2OH CH3CH2
33. D
Sol. P2 O5 2HNO3 N2 O5 2HPO3
P2 O5 2HClO 4 Cl2 O7 2HPO3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
34. C
Sol. O O
+
N(C2H5)2
CH3 I N CH3
Et Et
NaHCO3 MeOH
O O
+
N CH3
Et Et
35. D
Sol. Fact
36. A
Sol. Gd Xe 4f 7 5d1 6s2
Gd3 Xe 4f 7
n n 2 7 7 2 7.9 BM
37. C
Sol. Highest the CFSE of compound, highest is the enthalpy of hydration.
38. B
Sol. Smaller the size of orbital extent of back bonding is more.
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
39. A
Sol. On increasing pressure CO2 gas condeses to liquid.
40. D
Sol. XeF5 is sp3 d3 hybridized.
41. B
Sol. Viable particualte are minute living organisms that are dispersed in the atmosphere.
42. B
Sol. Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g
117
Moles of NaCl 2
58.5
In a unit cell = 4 NaCl
1
Total number unit cell Number of NaCl
4
1
2 6.02 1023
4
= 3 1023
43. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol.
(a)
OAc
OTs O OAc OAc
O NaOAc / AcOH
a
CH3
O CH3 O OAc OAc
(b)
(b)
OAc
44. B
Sol. From the question,
Cu CN3 0.1 M and CN 0.2 M
4
3
K instab . Cu CN 4 6.4 1015 0.1
Cu
4 4
CN
0.2
4 10 13 M
K SP Cu2 S 2.56 1027
Now, S2 2
2
Cu
4 10
13
1.6 102 M
K a H2 S 1.6 1021 0.1
H 1010 M
S 2 1.6 10 2
and pH = 10.0.
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Yash Patil 12
45. B
Sol. Cl H2 SO 4 HCl Colourless HSO 4
46. C
22 me4
Sol. R
40 2 h3 c
Rm
m 3m 3
Here, m becomes m , then R becomes R.
4 4 4
47. B
dz 168
Sol. At Boyle’s temperature, 0T 480 K .
dp 0.35
48. A
1
x x 1
Sol. K.P n log logK .logP
m m n
From question, logK 0.3010 log 2 K 2
1
And tan 45o 1 n 1
n
49.
A
x
m TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 P 2 0.2 0.4
Sol. OMe OMe OMe
H
Br
NaNH /liq. NH
NH2
2 3
NH2
H NH2
Benzyne
intermediate
OMe
OMe OMe
H CuCN,
NaNO /dil. HCl
2
CN
NH2 N2Cl
50. C
Sol. Benzene sulphonyl chloride Ph SO2 Cl is known as Hinsberg reagent.
O
O
O S Ph
O H Cl S Ph
O
O
Sulphonic ester
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
51. 4
Sol. O O O O O O O
O O
O3 , H2 O2 HO H O
O O 3
HO
O O O O O O
O O O
52. 289
K Ea 1 1
Sol. log 2
K1 2.303R T1 T2
T1 300 K K 1 1.6 103 , T2 350 K
2.303 100
t 90% log
K2 10
= 289 s.
53. 123
Sol. 2H O2 2e H2 O2 G1o
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2e 2H H2 O2 2H2 O G2o
4H O2 4e 2H2 O G3o
G1o Go2 Go3
2 0.70 2 1.76 4 x
Eo3 1.23
100x = 100 × 1.23 = 123
54. 5
Sol. A.xH2 O A xH2 O
25 16
250 M
25 16
250 M
M = 160
x = 5.
55. 273
Hfusion 80 18 x
Sol. Sfusion
T 273
x = 5.46 mole
50x = 273
56. 7
V1 C /T 500 / 283
Sol. 1 1 1 7
V2 C2 2 / T2 94 / 373
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
57. 3
Sol. Malachite, Sphalerite and Calamine are the principal ores of copper and zinc.
58. 5
Sol. NH2
N C
C N Adenine
HC
C CH
N N
H
59. 6
Sol. Cl Cl OH OCH3
i HNO
3 2 4 /H SO ii NaOH, 150o C iii CH
3 I
NO 2 NO 2 NO 2
iii Conc. H2SO 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
OCH3
SO 3H
NO 2
60. 3
Sol. C C C C C ,C C C C C, C C C C
Cl Cl C Cl
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. A
2ae SP SP 2a
Sol. 1 2
sin sin sin sin sin
sin y
e=
sin sin
P
1
1
1 e 2 1
tan tan
1 e 2 2 1 1 3
2 x
S2 S1
Also cot cot cot
2 2 2
2ae
= cot cot cot 3cot
2 2 2 2
cot cot 2cot
2 2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
62. A
n n2 1
Sol. dn
2
n 1
lim n dn
n
2 n n 1 2
2 2
63. C
dy dx
Sol. 0 xy = c
y x
c = 16
xy = 16
L.R. = 8 2
64. C
Sol. f(x) + f(x) = 8
65. B
Sol. f(3.14) = 4 3.14 = 0.86
y
y=1
y=x 2x 4x
x2
x
1 0 1 2 3 4
66. B
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
Sol. (x2 + 1) ex = y (x + 1)2 exdx = dy
67. A
6
Sol. xi = 1 xi 6
i 1
6
yi = 1 y i 6
i 1
68. D
dx y
Sol. Req. area = 2 2
= sq. units
1 x 1 1 1
x
x=1
69. A
Sol. lim f x
x 1
70.
Sol.
B
x2 k 0
k<0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x2 + x + 1 0
71. B
Sol. Number of solutions 2
72. A
2n1 2n1
Sol. An =
n 1
2 2n1
det(An I) = (2n1 1)2 (2n1)2 = 1 2n
73. B
3
Sol. Trace (A ) = 123
74. A
Sol. Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
75. B
Sol. E
2 3
A B C D
76. A
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
2
Sol. xi x 250
250
2 25
10
6 5
Co-efficient of variation is = 100 100 10%
x 50
77. C
78. C
Sol. y = (tan1(5x) tan1(x)) + (tan1x + tan1(2/3))
dy 5
dx 1 25x 2
79. C
0
Sol. I= sin tdt cos ln2 1
ln 2
80. C
Sol. y = mx
3m 3
6
m2 1
m = 32 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot SECTION – B
81. 44
(sin )x
Sol. f() =
(sin )x (cos ) x
89
89
f 2
1
82. 35
9
Sol. v1 v 2 3 cos2 = 1
5 sin2
=
4
= 0
v1 and v 2 are collinear
2(sin cos ) 1
sin cos
tan = 2 2
3tan2 + 4tan2 = 3 + 4(8) = 35
83. 23
Sol. ( + 2, (3 + 2), 2 + 5) lies on 2x 3y + 4z = 16 = 7
P = (9, 23, 19)
For Q : x = 0
+2=0
Q = (0, 4, 1)
PQ = 9 14
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AITS-FT-VI-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
84. 2
Sol. P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) P(A B)
3
0.8 = 0.5 + p 0 p = 0.3 =
10
P(A B) = P(A).P(B)
0.8 = 0.5 + 9 0.59
3
0.3 = 0.5q q =
5
q
2
p
85. 10
3x 3x 4y 4y 4y
Sol. 3x + 4y =
2 2 3 3 3
AM GM
3x 4y
2
5
86. 4
Sol. |PA PB| AB
|PA PB| to be maximum, P must be the intersection of line joining A and B and 2x + 3y = 5
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
h=
5
7
k=
5
6 14
3h + 2k = = 4.
5
87. 24
x y z 1
2 3 5 2 3 5
Sol. 2 3 5 x y z 10
2 3 5
10 2 3 5
2 3 5 2 3 5
x y z 2 .3 .5
N = 22.33.55
Number of odd divisors = (3 + 1) (5 + 1) = 24
88. 0
Sol. 1523 + 2323
= (19 4)23 + (19 + 4)23
= 2[(19)23 + 23C2(19)21(4)2 + ….. + 23
C22.19(4)22]
89. 49
Sol. (x + 4)2 + (y 5)2 = 1
(4 + cos, 5 + sin)
(x + 2)2 + (y 3)2
= (cos 2)2 + (sin + 2)2
= 9 + 4(sin cos)
a = 94 2
b = 94 2
90. 1
Sol. x = y = z = 1
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 20-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Liquid of density is filled in the container of negligible mass
having area A. Area of hole ‘a’ is very small (a << A). Co-efficient
a
of friction between container and surface is equal to . As
A
liquid is coming out of vessel, instantaneous acceleration of the
container.
A 3g
(A) g (B)
a 2
ag
(C) (D) zero
A
2. A plank having mass M is placed on smooth horizontal surface.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
m F
Block of mass m is placed on it coefficient of friction between block
and plank is 0 kx , where k is constant and x is relative
displacement between block and plank. A force F is applied on block M
where F = at, where a = 10; t is in second. Find t0 when relative
motion will occur between block and plank smooth
2 2
0M 0M
(A) 0 M (B) 0 m
m m
m2 m2
(C) 0 m 0 (D) 0 M 0
M M
3. Velocity of water flow in downward direction relative to cylindrical tank is
Ve acceleration at any time t will be
(v e gt) v e
(A) (B)
(2M t) (2M t)
gt M
(C) (D) None of these M
(2M t)
Ve μ kg/sec
4. A transverse wave travelling along negative y-axis its snap shot is given at A
any instant of time t. Points which is having velocity in negative x-direction. B
(A) A,E,F (B) C,D,H D
(C) B,G,H (D) A,H C
F
E
G
H
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
5. Equivalent thermal conductivity of figure given below will K2 A rea 2A
be? Given that length of each cylinder is l and area of K1 K3
cylinder having thermal conductivity K1 & K 3 is A while
middle cylinder is having K2. A rea A
l l l
5 1
(A) (B)
1 1 1 1 1 1
2
K1 2K 2 K 3 K1 2K 2 K 3
2
(C) (D) None of these
1 1 1
5
K1 2K 2 K 3
6. As shown in figure , Instantaneous current in branch having Box-1
R1 3 X L 4
capacitor C will be :(given tan1 (4/3) = 53°)
(A) 20 2 sin t 3 / 4
X C 10
(B) 40 2 sin t / 4
(C) 60 2 sin t / 4
v=200 2sin ωt+π/4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) None of above
7. A thermodynamic process obeys the following relation 2dQ dU 2dW where dQ, dU, dW has
usual meaning. Then heat capacity for the process is:
[Given di-atomic gas; R = gas constant]
5R 7R
(A) (B)
2 2
3R
(C) (D) infinite
5
8. A infinite length current carrying wire is placed in x, y plane parallel to y Region II Region I
axis as shown in figure. (All charges are projected in region I) y
I
x
z
(A) A positively charged particle projected along y axis will get deflected along z axis
(B) A positively charged particle projected along x axis will get deflected along y axis
(C) A negatively charged particle is projected along x axis will get deflected along +y axis
(D) A negatively charge particle is projected along x axis will get deflected along +z axis
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 4
9. An insulated cylinder contains nitrogen gas which is sealed m
on the top by a heavy metal piston of mass m. Piston is free
to move with negligible friction. Initial height of the piston is
0.3 m at temperature 27°C when it is given some heat with
the help of an electrical circuit piston slowly rises to height 0.5 K
h=0.3m
m above the bottom of the cylinder. During expansion of the
gas, net heat absorbed by the nitrogen gas:
E
(A) Equal to work done by nitrogen gas on the piston
(B) Greater to work done by nitrogen gas on the piston
(C) Less to work done by nitrogen gas on the piston
(D) Will be always twice of the work done by the gas on the piston
10. A wedge of mass m, lying on a rough horizontal plane, is acted upon by a
horizontal force F1 and another force F2, inclined at an angle to the
vertical. The block is in equilibrium, then minimum coefficient of friction F2
between it and the surface is
F1
(A) F2sinθ / mg+F2cosθ (B) Fcosθ+F
1 2 / mg-F2sinθ
(C) F1 +F2sinθ / mg+F2 cosθ (D) Fsinθ-F
1 2 / mg-F2 cosθ
TG ~ @bohring_bot
11. A charge particle is projected in a region of magnetic field and electric field. If mass of charged
particle is m and its speed changes from V0 to 2V0 [WE = work done by electric field; W B = work
done by magnetic field]. Which statement is incorrect?
1 2 3
(A) WB mv0 (B) WB WE mv 02
2 2
3 2 3 2
(C) WE mv 0 (D) WE WB mv 0
2 2
12. De-Broglie wavelength of the particle increases by 75% then kinetic energy of particle becomes
16 9
(A) times (B) times
49 16
16 4
(C) times (D) times
25 9
13. Two vertical walls are separated by a distance of 2 metres. Wall ‘A’ is 2m
smooth while wall B is rough with a coefficient of friction = 0.5. A
uniform rod is propped between them. The length of the longest rod P
that can be probed between the walls is equal to :
(A) 2 metres (B) 2 2 metres Q
17
(C) 5 metres (D) metres
2 Wall-A Wall-B
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
14. A bar magnet is pulled along axis of a coil with uniform velocity with South Pole entering into the
coil. The sketch of Joule’s heat with time is represented by:
(A) (B)
H H
(C) (D) H
H
t
t
15. A parent radioactive nucleus A (decay constant a) converts into a radio-active nucleus B of
decay constant b, initially, number of atoms of B is zero. At any time Na, Nb are number of atoms
of nuclei A and B respectively then maximum value of Nb.
a Na b Na
(A) (B)
b a
( a b )N a b
(C) (D) Na
TG ~ @bohring_bot
b ( a b )
16. Fundamental note of a closed pipe of length l is f 0 at 0°C. First overtone of the same pipe at
273°C is (assume there is no effect of temperature on the dimension of the pipe).
(A) 3f0 (B) f0
(C) 3 2 f 0 (D) 3/ 2 f 0
17. A satellite is revolving round the earth at a height (R/2) from surface of earth in circular orbit. The
change in speed required for the satellite to escape to infinity for the satellite to escape to infinity
is: [Take R as radius of earth; and M as mass of earth]
2GM GM
(A)
3R
(B)
3R
2 2
GM 4GM
(C)
3R
2 1 (D)
3R
18. In the arrangement shown in the figure, uniform magnetic C
field B is upward to the plane of paper. Connecter AB is
smooth and conducting, having mass m and length l. Spring constant K A
Initially spring has extension X0. Spring is non-conducting
(neglect induction in spring). Connector is released at B
t = 0. Maximum charge on the capacitor is:
KC KC
(A) X 0 (B) X 0
B 2l 2 C m
1 2 2
1
m Bl C
KC 4KC
(C) (D)
B 2l 2C B 2l 2 C
2 1
m 2m
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
19. Mirror is moving towards the particle with speed 2 cm/sec. Speed of A V0 =2cm/sec
and B are 10 2 and 5 cm/sec respectively in the direction shown in
figure. Magnitude of velocity of image of the particle B with respect to
image of A. B
(A) 325 cm / sec (B) 15cm / sec 45°
(C) 13cm / sec (D) 269 cm / sec
A
20. Loop ABCD and long straight wire are in the same plane. Side CD = 2AB. C
Distance between long straight wire and AB is equal to distance BD. Net B D
force on the loop is:
(A) Towards the long straight wire I I
(B) Away from the long straight wire A D
(C) Parallel to the long straight wire
(D) Net force on the loop will be zero
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is placed on smooth ground. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Left Right
particle of mass m is projected with velocity v 0 and angle from lowest
point A inside the sphere as shown in diagram. If particle strikes the
sphere at a point which is on horizontal level of centre and at that
moment particle is at highest point. The collision between particle and
kRg v0
sphere is elastic. The value of v0 is . Find the value of 'k'
θ
sinθ A
22. Initial velocity of the block u 45iˆ while
external force on it is F 25 (iˆ) . It coefficient u=45 m/sec
of static and kinetic friction are 0.3 and 0.2 Fext =25N m=10 kg
respectively then distance traveled by the block
in 12 second is 25x m , then find the value of 'x'
(g = 10 m/s2) :
23. Calculate the time (in hrs) in which a layer of ice of thickness 10 cm will increase by 5 cm on the
surface of a pond when temperature of the surrounding is 10°C. Coefficient of thermal
Cal 3
conductivity of ice K 0.005 o and density 0.9gram / cm . (L = 80 cal/g)
cm sec C
24. All three spheres are identical having radius Q
10 cm. There is no slipping at any point of V1 =30 cm/sec
contact. Plank P and Q are moving in V2 =10 cm/sec A
opposite direction with speed 10 and 30 P
cm/sec. Find the height of instantaneous
B C
axis of rotation of sphere A from the ground
(in cm) :
Ground
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
25. A river of width d is flowing with a velocity u. A person starts from point Y
A. He always try to keep himself along y axis. Speed of man w.r.t. to
river at any position is given by v k y (k +ve constant). Time u
d
y
x d B
C
taken by man to cross the river is , then find the value of A
F1 F2
D
I
___.
A
x
4k
(Assume that at t = 0, y = 0)
26. If the reading of the ideal ammeter connected in the 10 V 4V 8V 6V
13
given circuit is n ampere, find the value of n.
20 10 8 4 2 A
Assume that the cells have negligible internal
resistance.
27. A semi-cylinder is cut out of a block and the block is kept on the m
horizontal surface. A small body of mass m is released at the top of
the cylinder shaped hole. (Friction is negligible.)
If the block is able to move on the horizontal surface without friction, M
then the force exerted on the block by the small body at the lowest
point is 7mg/2. Find the ratio of M/m?
28. At what speed (in m/s) must a pebble be thrown from a height of h = 3.6m, and at an angle of 30o,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
measured from the horizontal, if it is to hit the ground at an angle of 45o. (Air drag can be
neglected.) (Take g = 10 m/s2)
29. A sphere is just immersed in a liquid. Find the ratio of
H
hydrostatic force acting on the lower half and the upper half of
the sphere. (Neglect atmospheric pressure) t
30. A ray of light is incident parallel to BC at a height h = 3.0 cm from A
BC. Find the height (in cm) above BC at which the emergent ray
leaves the surface AC. It is given that 2 and length BC =
20 cm. Take tan 15 = 0.25. h 45 45
B C
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. In the following statement, which combination of true (T) and false (F) options in correct?
(A) Ionic mobility is highest for I in water as compared to other halides.
(B) IF5 is square pyramidal and IF7 is pentagonal bipyramidal in shape
(C) Reactivity order is F2 Cl2 Br2 I 2
(D) Oxidising power order is F2 Cl2 Br2 I 2
(A) TFTF (B) TTFT
(C) TTTT (D) TTFF
32. According to VSEPR model, the shape of XeOF5 is
(A) Octahedral (B) Triagonal bipyramidal
(C) Square pyramidal (D) Pentagonal monopyramidal
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33. Identify the statement(s) which is not correct with respect to surface phenomenon.
(A) If on adding electrolyte in an emulsion, the conductivity increases then it will be oil in water
type emulsion.
(B) Tyndall effect is observed when refractive indices of dispersed phase and dispersion medium
differ largely.
(C) Macromolecular colloids are generally lyophobic in nature
(D) Gases which can react with adsorbents are generally chemisorbed
34. Xenon fluorides are very good oxidising and fluorinating agents. They also act as F donors and
acceptors. When XeF4 donates its fluoride to SbF5 , then the states of hybridisation of central
atom of cationic part and anionic part of product are:
3 3 2 3 2 3
(A) sp d , sp d (B) sp d , sp d
3 2 3 2 2 3
(C) sp d , sp d (D) dsp , sp
35. Correct order of bond angle is
(A) CH 3 CF3
(B) CH 3 CH 3
(C) CH 4 CF4 (D) CH 4 CH 3
36. The end product of the reaction is:
O
2
Cl leq NaBH 4
A
OH
B
CH3
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
(A) (B) H3C
O
O
(C) CH3 (D) None of these
37. O
(i) AlCl
Zn H g
O
(ii) H +
3
A
HCl
B
conc.H 2SO 4
O
TG ~ @bohring_bot O
Structure of (A) and (B) respectively are:
O
OH OH
(A)
O O
(B)
O
O O
OH
(C)
O
O
OH OH
(D)
O O
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
38. An aqueous solution of a metal ion (A) on reaction with KI gives a black brownish ppt (B) and this
aqueous suspension on treatment with excess KI gives orange yellowish solution. Then A is
(A) pb
2
(B) Bi 3
2 2
(C) Hg 2 (D) Hg
39. Which of the following compounds consist of a P – P linkage?
(A) Hypo phosphoric acid (B) Pyrophosphorous acid
(C) Dipolyphosphoric acid (D) Metaphosphoric acid
40. Which of the following elements of lanthanide series have highest tendency to show 2 oxidation
state?
(A) Eu (B) Gd
(C) Tb (D) None of these
1
41. The specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver bromide is K Scm . The limiting ionic
conductivity of Ag and Br ions are x and y respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in g / L
is (molar mass of AgBr 188 )
K 1000 K
(A) (B) 188
x y x y
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K 1000 188 x y 1000
(C) (D)
x y k 188
42. C6H5
H3C H alcoholic KoH
E2
A
Br H
C6H5
A is
(A) H3C C6H5 (B) H3C C6H5
C C
C C
H C6H5 H5C6 H
(C) H CH3 (D) None of these
C
C
H5C6 C6H5
43. O-CH3
Conc. HI
excess
Products,Products of reaction are
O-CH3
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
(A) CH3 (B) OH
2CH 3 I 2CH 3OH
CH3 OH
(C) OH (D) OH
2CH 3 I 2CH 3 I
OH I
44. The activation energies of two reactions are E1 & E2 with E1 E2 . If temperature of reacting
1 1
system is increased from T1 (rate constant are k1 and k 2 ) to T2 (rate constant are k1 and k 2 )
predict which of the following alternative is correct.
k11 k21 k11 k21
(A) (B)
k1 k2 k1 k2
(C) TG ~ @bohring_bot
k11 k 21
k1 k 2
1
(D) k1 k 2
1
2
45. The wavelength of the first Lyman lines of hydrogen, He and Li ions and 1 , 2 & 3 . The
ration of these wavelengths is
(A) 1: 4 : 9 (B) 9 : 4 :1
(C) 36 : 9 : 4 (D) 6 : 3 : 2
46. Which of the following monomers has greatest ability to undergo cationic polymerisation?
(A) CH CH2 (B) CH CH 2
OCH 3
(C) CH CH 2 (D) CH CH 2
NH 2 NO 2
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47. Two system PCl5 g PCl3 g Cl2 g and COCl g CO g Cl2 g are
simultaneously in equilibrium in a vessel at constant volume. If some CO is introduced in the
vessel, then at new equilibrium, the modes of
(A) PCl5 increase (B) PCl5 remain unchanged
(C) PCl5 decrease (D) Cl2 increase
48. The curve in the figure shows the variation of pH during the course of
E
titration of weak acid HA with a strong base NaOH. At which point in
the titration curve is the concentration of acid equal to that of its D
pH
conjugate base.
A C
(A) Point D (B) Point E
(C) Point C (D) Point B B
ml of NaOH added
49. The minimum mass of NaBr which should be added in 200 ml of 0.0004 M AgNO3 solution just
to start precipitation of AgBr.K sp of AgBr 4 1013 . (Br = 80)
9 10
(A) 1.0 10 g (B) 2 10 g
8 7
(C) 2.06 10 g (D) 1.03 10 g
50.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
In which of the following cases is the value of x maximum?
(A) CaSO4 xH 2 O
(B) BaSO4 xH 2 O
(C) MgSO4 xH 2O
(D) All have same values of x as all metal ions belong to same group
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. The number of incorrect statements of the following statements is:
(i) H is the smallest size cation in the periodic table
(ii) Van der Waals radius of chlorine is more than covalent radius
(iii) Ionic mobility of hydrated Li is greater than that of hydrated Na
(iv) He atom has the highest ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table
52. How many dichloride cyclopentanes (including stereoisomers) are obtained when cyclopentane
reacts with excess chlorine at high temperature?
53. The number of alpha hydrogen’s present in major product obtained when following substrate is
subjected to E 2 reaction will be:
CH3
Br
CH3
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
54. The number of paramagnetic complexes from given compounds:
2
(i) Ni CN 4
2
(ii) NiCl4
2
(iii) CoCl4
2
(iv) CoF6
55. A certain amount of reducing agent reduces x mole of KMnO4 & y mole of K 2Cr2 O7 in different
experiments in acidic medium. If the change in oxidation state of reducing agent is same in both
experiments then x y is__ .
56. Number of electrons having m1 0 for sodium atom is ____.
57. The number of non polar molecules from the given molecules?
(i) XeF4
(ii) BF3
(iii) C2 F4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(iv) PCl2 F3
58. The number of following compounds which loses CO 2 on heating to 100°C
(A) OH (B) OH
O O
O
(C) OH (D) OH
O O
OH
O OH
59. How many molecules of RMgX are consumed in the below reaction
O
O
Cl RMgX
H 3O
CHO
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
60. Amongst the following, total no of aromatic compounds are
+ +
+
+
O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 2 2 2
61. If a b c 3 4 1, a b c 3 4 1 and a 2 b c 3 2 4 1
2
(where , , R and distinct) these sum of root of the equation 3ax 9bx 7 c 0 .
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
62. If k denotes the sum of the imaginary parts of the roots of the equation
z 2 8 1 i z 63 16i 0 then k is
(A) 6 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 8
49
k 99
63. The sum 1
k 0
C2 k equals
TG ~ @bohring_bot
98 98
(A) 2 (B) 2
49 49
(C) 2 (D) 2
64.
For differential equation x y y dx x y x dy 0
4 2
2 4
3 1
(A) x 3
xy
y3
c (B) x3 y 3
xy
c
3 3 3 3 3 1
(C) x y c (D) x y c
xy xy
333 x 2
65. Sum of roots of the equation 2 2111 x 1 2222 x 2 1 is.
111 2
(A) (B)
2 111
(C) 2 (D) 111
1
e tan x 2 1 x2
66.
1
1 x 2 sec 1 x cos 1
2
1 x
dx is x 0
2
(A) e tan
1
x
tan 1 x c (B) e
tan 1
x
tan x
1
c
2
2 tan 1 x
2
(C) e
tan 1 x
sec 1
1 x2 c (D) e cos ec 1
1 x2 c
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Yash Patil 16
2
67. If x 2 y 4 24 x 12 y then length of latus rectum is
5 5
(A) (B)
12 12
12
(C) (D) None of these
5
x2 y2
68. IF P a sec , b tan , Q a sec , b tan are the ends of a focal chord of 1 then
a2 b2
tan tan can be
2 2
e 1 e 1
(A) (B)
e 1 e 1
1 e
(C) (D) None of thee
1 e
1 cos x 1 cos x
69. Consider the function f x x x, 2 then f x is
1 cos x 1 cos x
(A) cot
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x
4 2
x
x
(B) tan
4 2
(C) cot (D) None of these
4 2
70. In , the equation log sin cos 2 2 has
2 2
(A) No solution (B) One solution
(C) 2 solutions (D) None of these
min f t : 0 t x x 0,
71. Let f x cos x, g x then
sin x 1 x
(A) g x is discontinuous at x (B) g x is continuous for x 0,
(C) g x is differentiable at x (D) g x differentiable for x 0
72. If f x and g x are two functions such that f x x x and g x x x R and
h x f g x these incorrect statement is( . is G.I.F and
. is F Part of x )
(A) f x and g x are identical function (B) f x g x has no solution
(C) f x h x 0 has no solution (D) f x h x is periodic function
73. Let f x be a polynomial f : R R such that f 2 x f ' 2 x f '' x these f x is
(A) One – One onto (B) One – One into
(C) Many One – Onto (D) Many – One into
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
74. Consider three planes 2 x py 6 z 8, x 2 y qz 5 and x y 3 z 4 then 3 planes
intersect at a point if
(A) p 2, q 3 (B) p 2, q 3
(C) p 2, q 3 (D) None of these
2 2 2
75. If a , b , c are in AP then cot A, cot B and cot C in
(A) GP (B) AP
(C) HP (D) None of these
76. R is relation over the set of integers and it is given by x, y R x y 1 . Then R is
(A) Reflective and transitive (B) Reflective and symmetric
(C) Symmetric and transitive (D) An equivalence relation
a b c
77.
T
If A c a b and a, b, c are roots of the equation x 3 x 2 4 0 then A A is
b c a
(A) I (B) I A
2
(C) A (D) A I
78. If a b c and the system of equations ax by cz 0, bx cy az 0, cx ay bz 0 has a
(C) Positive
TG ~ @bohring_bot
non-trivial solution these both the roots of equation at 2 bt c 0 are
(A) Cereal (B) Negative
(D) None of these
79. If A and B are non-zero square metrics of order 3 there incorrect statement is
1
(A) adj AB adjA.adjB (B) AB B 1 . A 1
T
(C) AB B T AT (D) AB 0 A 0 and B 0
80. The only statement among the following that is tautology is
(A) A A B (B) A A B
(C) A A B B (D) B A A B
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
2
1 sin 2 x a
81. 1 sin 2 x dx b (a & b are coprime) these a b ab is ____.
0
2
82. 7 clay balls (shown as ). If N be the number of different ways these can
be shot (lone at a time). If no ball can be shot unit the ball (s) below it,
have been shot, then N is _____.
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Yash Patil 18
83. A regular pyramid on a square base has an edge 150m long and the length of the side of its base
is 200m. Then height of pyramid is _____
84. 20 teachers of a school either teach maths or physics 12 of them teach maths while 4 teach both
the subjects then the no. of teachers teaching only physics is _____
a1 a2 a3
1/9
85. If ar cos 2 r sin 2 r then a4 a5 a6 is ____.
a7 a8 a9
86. 1 2 3 4 5 ....... 224 1112 ,is ( [.] is G.I.F)
2x
87. 2 tan 1 x sin 1 x 1 is equal to kπ then find k is ____.
1 x2
3 2
1 x 1 x 1
88. tan
1 1 x 2
tan dx is equal to kπ then find k is ____.
x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
89. Number of integral values of k for which the equation 4cos 1 x k has exactly two solutions,
is _____.
90. If
a xiˆ yjˆ 4 zkˆ, b yiˆ xjˆ 3 y kˆ, c zjˆ 2 zjˆ 1 xkˆ
c
b
are sides of triangle then the value of is is (where x, y, z are
not all zero).
a
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 20-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. At any time
Fthrust Ffriction ma
av 2 mg ma
a
a 2gh Ah g Ah a
A
a
2agh agh Aha ; g a
A
2. C
Sol. Let at time t0 relative motion will occur
0mg
M
0 mg Ma ….. (1)
M 10t0
0mg
10 t 0 0 mg ma ….. (2)
From (1) and (2) ;
0 m2
t 0 0 m
M
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Yash Patil 2
3. A
dv
Sol. Mg T M ….. (1)
dt
dV
T v e (M 0 t)g M 0 t ….. (2)
dt
From (1) and (2), we get
dv
Mg Ve (M t)g (2M t) ….. (3)
dt
dv
ve gt 2M t ….. (4)
dt
dv (v e gt)
dt (2M t)
dv (v e gt)
dt (2M t)
So, correct answer is (A)
4. A
5. A
Sol.
l
l
TG ~ @bohring_bot
l
l
l
l
K1A 2K 2A K 3A KA 2K A KA
5 1 1 1
2K K1 2K 2 K 3
5
K eq
1 1 1
2
K1 2K 2 K 3
6. A
Sol. Voltage across capacitor will lag current by 90° ;
200 2
iC sin t
10 4 2
3
i 20 2 sin t
4
Correct answer is (A)
7. D
Sol. 2dQ = dU + 2dW
dQ = dU + dW
dQ = dW
dU = 0
Process is isothermal.
8. B
Sol. F=qv×B
= q v0i × B (k) = qv0 B j
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
9. B
10. C
Sol. f = N ; (F1 + F2 sin ) = (mg + F2 cos )
F2 sin F2 cos
F1
N
Mg
F1 F2 sin
mg F2 cos
11. C
Sol. WB 0
WE KE ; WB WE KE
12. A
2
Sol. K.E. = p / 2m and p h/
13. D
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Drawing F.B.D. of rod PQ
Fx = 0
Fy = 0 N = mg ….. (1)
about centre of mass = 0
l l
N sin 2 N cos tan
2 2 2
Hence sec
2 4 / 2
l/2 2 4
Thus, l 2 4
1 2
17
l 0.25 4 metres
2
14. B
d
Sol. e
dt
e
i where R is resistance
R
H i 2Rt
The emf will induce from zero to some maximum value and then from maximum to zero.
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15. A
Sol. Nb reaches maximum when activity of A will be equal to activity of B.
a Na
i.e., a N a b N b N b
b
16. C
c c c 273
Sol. f0 and
4(l e) c0 273
c0
f 0 1
4(l e) 273
If temperature is same, first overtone will be 3f 0
at 273°C first overtone is 3 2 f0 .
17. B
GM 2GM
Sol. V0
3R / 2 3R
In order to escape to infinity let (V V0) is the speed change required. Thus,
GMm 1
m(v) 2 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(3R / 2) 2
4GM
Thus, v
3R
Thus speed change required = v v0
4GM 2GM GM
V
3R
3R
; V
3R
2 2
18. B
Sol. At any time
Kx IlB ma ….. (1)
q
Bvl
C
I BlCa ….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
kx a(B2l 2 C m)
K
a 2 2 x ….. (3)
B l Cm
Since motion of connector will be opposite to the displacement from equilibrium. Therefore
equation (3) represents S.H.M.
K
2 2
B l Cm
Vmax X 0
q max BlCVmax
q max BlCX 0
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
KC
X0
m
1 2 2
Bl C
19. A
Sol. Velocity of image of particle B
v B 5(iˆ) 4(iˆ) iˆ
velocity of image of particle A
v A 10(iˆ) 4(iˆ) 10ˆj
14(iˆ) 10 j
Relative velocity of image
VBA VB VA iˆ 14(iˆ) 10jˆ 15iˆ +10 ˆj
| VBA | 325 cm / sec
20. B
Sol. Magnitude of force on AB (F1) and magnitude of force on CD (F2) will be equal in magnitude and
opposite in direction.
C
B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
D
I
F1 F2
A
D
Hence F1 F2 0 resultant of F3 F4 will be away from the long straight wire.
SECTION – B
21. 2
Sol. Conservation of energy
1 2 1
mv 0 mgR mv 2 , v v 0 cos
2 2
1 2 v 0 cos 2
2
v 0 gR
2 2
2 2
v 0 1 cos gR
2gR
v0
sin
22. 9
Fext k mg
Sol. Net retardation a 4.5
m
If body stop at time t, then
V u at
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Yash Patil 6
0 45 4.5t t 10sec
When block stops, Fext will try to bring the block back ward while frictional force will oppose its
motion, since block is stationary therefore at this moment, frictional force will be static. Whose
maximum value will be s mg 30N . Since static frictional force is self adjusting therefore it will
be 25 N and block will not move after t = 10 sec.
u2
S= =225 m
2a
23. 25
Sol. Time taken by the layer of ice to increase its thickness by x x2 x1
L 2 .9 80
t ( x2 x12 ) = (15) 2 (10)2
2K 2 .005 10
4
t 9 10 sec ; t = 25 Hours
24. 25
Sol. Let x be the distance of axis of rotation from the top of sphere A (downward). Since angular
velocity of the top and bottom point of sphere A will be same, therefore,
30 10
x (2R x )
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v1 =30
x
A
v 2 =10
30 10
x 20 x
x = 15
Distance from ground
= 2R + (2R x)
= 20 + 5 = 25 cm
25. 8
dy d dy 2 d
Sol. t = 1/ 2
= .
Vy 0 Ky k
26. 3
8V 10 V 4V 8V 6V
8 2 2 6 O
Sol. I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
10 8 4 2
10 I1 8 I2 4 I3 2 I4 A
32 10 20 120 78 I
Amp
40 40 O O O
O
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
27. 4
Sol. Momentum conservation along x m
y
0 = mv2 Mv1 R m v2
Work energy theorem x
1 1 M v1 M
mgR = mv 22 Mv12
2 2
from (i) and (ii)
m2 2
2mgR = mv 22 v2
M
2gRM m 2gRM
v 2 and v 1
Mm M Mm
Making FBD of particle with respect wedge at lowest point
7mg m(v 1 v 2 )2 N = (7mg/2)
mg
2 R (v 2 v1 ) 2
M
Substituting the values, we get : 4 R
m
mg
28. 12
Sol. v0cos 30 = v cos 45
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
v v0
2
Now using conservation of energy
1
m v 2 v02 mgh
2
3v02 v2
v02 2 gh 0 2 gh
2 2
v 4 gh 4 10 3.6 12 m / s
29. 5
2 R3 2 5R3
Sol. F1 R3 R3 g g , F2 R3 R3 g g
3 3 3 3
F2/F1 = 5
30. 1
Sol. sin 45 = sin r r = 30 A
From BQR and CSR
BQ BR
45 45
SC RC Q S
P i T
RC h 45i i i 45
h 3 C
BR B M R
i = 45+ r = 75
QM
So, tan15 , so MR = 12 cm
MR
So, BR = 15 cm and RC = 5 cm
So, h = 1cm
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. D
Sol. Fluorine is most reactive amongst halides and has highest oxidising power
32. D
Sol.
F F
Xe F
F F
O
3 3
Hybridisation sp d
Shape – pentagonal monopyramidal
33. C
Sol. Macromolecular colloids like starch, gelatin are generally lyophilic.
34. A
Sol.
XeF3 SbF6
sp 3d
TG ~ @bohring_bot
sp 3d 2
35. A
Sol. In CF3 , % p-character because of which bond angle decreases
36. C
Sol. O O OH
Cl Cl
NaBH 4
Cl2 leq
OH
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
37. A
Sol. O
O
OH
OH
( i ) AlCl3
O
Zn H g
( ii ) H O
HCl
A O
H
O B
Conc. H 2 SO4
38. B
Sol.
Bi 3
KI excess
BiI 3 KI
BiI 4
( A) (B)
Black ppt yellow brown solution
39. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. O O
P P H 4 P2 O 6
OH
HO OH OH
40. A
Sol. Because of stability of half filled f-subshell configuration.
41. C
Sol. AgBr x y
K 1000
AgBr
M
M – molarity of AgBr solution
K 1000
8 (solubility in g/L) = 188
x y
42. A
Sol. C6H5
H5C6 CH3
C6H5 C
Br
HBr
C
H3C H C6H5 H
H
43. C
Sol. OH group of phenol cannot be replaced by iodine as it does not undergo nucleophilic
substitution reaction under normal conditions.
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
44. B
Sol. Greater the activation energy of a reaction, greater is the temperature dependence of rate
constant of reaction.
45. C
1 1
Sol. RZ 2 1 for lyman line
4
46. C
Sol. Methoxy group stabilises the cationic intermediate by M effect
47. C
Sol. Cl2 is present simultaneously in two equilibria. Decrease in its concentration shift both equilibria
forward.
48. D
Sol. Point B represents exactly half neutralisation of acid. At this point concentration acid left and its
conjugate base are equal.
49. C
4 10 13
Sol. Br 10 9 M
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4 10 4
10 9
Mass of NaBr added of 200 ml 103 200
1000
2.06 10 8 g
50. C
Sol. Greater the charge density, greater is hydration.
SECTION – B
51. 1
52. 7
Sol.
Cl Cl Cl Cl
H Cl Cl
H H
H Cl H H Cl H
H H H
Cl Cl H Cl
Cl Cl H Cl
trans Cis
Cis trans
enantioners Optically enantioners
Optically
inactive inactive
Total isomers = 7
53. 10
54. 3
2
Sol. Ni CN 4
2
is dsp hybridised and diamagnetic
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
55. 1
Sol. Equivalents of KMnO4 5 x
Equivalents of K 2Cr2 O7 6 y
Equivalents of oxidising agent must be same 5x 6 y
x y 65 1
56. 7
Sol. Na 1s 2 2s2 2 p6 3s1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
ml 0 0 1 0 1 0
57. 3
Sol. In PCl 2 F3 , net dipole moment does not cancel out.
58. 1
Sol. O
C
Group stabilise the carbanion character on carbon
59.
Sol.
4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 molecules of RMgX are consumed by acid chloride group as it undergoes addition elimination
first and then addition. The other aldehydic & ketonic group consume one RMgX molecule each.
60. 4
Sol. Structure containing a ring of 4n 2 e s is aromatic
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AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. D
Sol. a 3, b 4, c 1
62. D
63. C
Sol. Put x i and equate the real part
64. C
d xy
Sol. x2 dx y 2 dy 2
xy
65. B
log 2 y 3 2
Sol. Let x these y 16 y 8 y 4 0
111
TG ~ @bohring_bot
66. C
1 x2
Sol. sec 1 1 x 2 tan 1 x , cos 1 2 tan 1 x
1 x2
67. C
2
x 2y 4 12 2 x y
Sol. (if is parabola)
5 5 5
68. C
1 e
Sol. tan tan if focus is ae,
2 2 1 e
69. D
x
Sol. f x tan
4 2
70. B
71. B
72. D
73. C
74. B
75. B
Sol. b 2 c 2 a 2 , c 2 a 2 b 2 , a 2 b 2 c 2 are in AP.
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-CRT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
76. B
77. A
78. D
Sol, Both the roots opposite in sign
79. A
Sol. adj AB adjB . adjA
80. C
SECTION – B
81. 7
2
2
1 tan x 2 1
Sol. 0 1 tan x 4 sec x dx 3
82. 105
7
Sol. 105
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4 2
83. 50
2
Sol. OM 50 5 2
100 50m
84. 8
85. 0
Sol. 0
86. 1023
Sol. 3 5 7 ....upto 32nd terms=1023
87. 1
2
x 1
Sol. sin 1 2
2 tan 1
1 x
1
x
88. 2
3 2
1 x 1 x 1
Sol. tan
1 1 x 2
tan dx 2
x
89. 6
90. 0
Sol. a b c
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 20-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The test consists of total 90 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.
Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
Section – A : Attempt all questions.
Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. What is the distance of centre of mass of the combined system as shown in
m
figure from ‘O’. System consists of a uniform sector of mass 2m and radius R,
fixed with a uniform arc of mass m and radius R along the edge of the sector.
(System is making an angle 600 at their common centre)
2m
5R 4R
(A) (B) R
3 3 600
7R
(C) (D) none of these
3 0
2. In the figure shown, all the three bodies 1, 2, 3 can
move. If acceleration of body 1 w.r.t 2 is a r 6 m / s 2 ar
and acceleration of 3 w.r.t ground is a 4 m / s 2 , then
1 2
magnitude of acceleration wedge 2 w.r.t. ground is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) 2 m/s2 θ
(B) 0.8 m/s2
(C) 0.4 m/s2 3
a
(D) 1 m/s2
3. A rod of mass m, length L is kept in a vertical plane such that upper y
end is fixed. A force F is applied at bottom as shown. The hinge
reaction in the given position will be : L
(A) F ˆi mg ˆj
(B) mg ˆj x
F 9F ˆ F
(C) ˆi mg ˆj (D) i mg( ˆj)
2 7
4. From a circle of radius a, an isosceles right angled triangle with the hypotenuse as the diameter
of the circle is removed. The distance of the centre of mass of the remaining part from the centre
of the circle is
( 1) a
(A) 3(– 1)a (B)
6
a a
(C) (D)
3( 1) 3( 1)
5. A particle moves from rest at A on the surface of a smooth circular cylinder A
of radius r as shown. At B it leaves the cylinder. The equation relating
and is B
(A) 3 sin 2 cos
r
(B) 2 sin 3 cos
(C) 3 sin 2 cos
(D) 2 sin 3 cos
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
6. 2n identical cubical blocks are kept in a straight line on a horizontal smooth surface. The distance
between the consecutive blocks is same. The blocks 1, 3, 5, …, (2n – 1) are given velocity v to
the right whereas blocks 2, 4, 6, …, 2n are given velocity to the left. All collisions between blocks
are perfect elastic. The total number of collisions that will take place is
1 2 3 4 5 2n–1 2n
(A) n (B) n + 1
n( n 1)
(C) (D) n( n 1)
2
7. The given figure represents an arrangement of potentiometer for
the calculation of internal resistance (r) of the unknown battery (E).
The balance length is 70.0 cm with the key opened and 60.0 cm
with the key closed. R is 132.40. The internal resistance (r) of the
unknown cell will be
(A) 22.1 (B) 113.5
(C) 154.5 (D) 10
8. In the circuit shown in figure, V must be
(A) 50 V (B) 80 V
(C) 100 V (D) 1290 V
TG ~ @bohring_bot
9. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with resistance of 2950
in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to
reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the above series resistance should be
(A) 4450 (B) 5050
(C) 5550 (D) 6050
10. Two identical coaxial rings each of radius R are separated by a distance of 3 R. They are
uniformly charged with charges +Q and –Q respectively. The minimum kinetic energy with which
a charged particle (charge +q) should be projected from the centre of the negatively charged ring
along the axis of the rings such that it reaches the centre of the positively charged ring is
Qq 3Qq
(A) (B)
40R 20R
Qq 3Qq
(C) (D)
20R 40R
11. Figure shows a closed dotted surface which intersects a
conducting uncharged sphere. If a positive charge is placed at
the point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed
surface
(A) will remain zero
(B) will become positive
(C) will become negative
(D) data insufficient
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Yash Patil 4
12. A gas is found to be obeyed the law p2V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T0
and V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, then the final temperature becomes
(A) 3T0 (B) 2T0
T0 T0
(C) (D)
3 2
13. An ideal monoatomic gas is carried around the cycle ABCDA as
shown in the figure. The efficiency of the gas cycle is
4 2
(A) (B)
21 21
4 2
(C) (D)
31 31
14. A magnetic field vector B B0 ˆj exists in the region a < x < 2a
and vector B B0 ˆj, in the region 2a < x < 3a, where B0 is a
positive constant. A positive point charge moving with a
velocity vector v v0 ˆi, where v 0 is a positive constant, enters
the magnetic field at x = a. The trajectory of the charge in this
TG ~ @bohring_bot
region can be like
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other. Loop A
carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop B
(A) remains stationary (B) is attracted by the loop A.
(C) is repelled by the loop A. (D) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
16. When an AC source of emf e = e0sin(100t) is connected across a
circuit, the phase difference between the emf e and the current i
in the circuit is observed to be /4, as shown in the diagram. If
the circuit consists possibly R-C or R-L or L-C in series, find the
relationship between the two elements.
(A) R = 1 k, C = 10 F
(B) R = 1 k, C = 1 F
(C) R = 1 k, L = 10 H
(D) R = 1 k, L = 1 H
17. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed
about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists B
parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between two ends of
the rod is
2 1 2
(A) Bl (B) Bl
2
1
(C) Bl2 (D) zero
8
18. The energy that should be added to an electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelengths from
10–10m to 0.5 × 10–10 m, will be
(A) four times the initial energy (B) thrice the initial energy
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) equal to the initial energy (D) twice the initial energy
19. The wavelength of a certain line in the x-ray spectrum for tungsten (Z = 74) is 200 Å. What would
be the wavelength of the same line for platinum (Z = 78)? The screening constant a is unity.
(A) 179.76 Å (B) 189.76 Å
(C) 289.76 Å (D) 379.76 Å
20. Two radioactive substances X and Y initially contain equal number of nuclei. X has a half life of 1
hour and Y has half life of 2 hours. After two hours the ratio of the activity of X to the activity of Y
will be
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. 4
What is the current flowing in the circuit? D1 D2
12V 3 2
22. Find minimum value of mass suspended M for which 1 kg block 1 kg
start toppling. Assume 1 kg block does not slip over smooth 2 kg 2 kg
block. Length of 1 kg block is 4 cm and height is 8 cm. (ground is
smooth).
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
23. A body of mass ‘m’ is slowly hauled up a hill by an external
force which is always acting along the surface as shown. F
The coefficient of friction between the body and the surface
m
is 0.5 . If work done by friction and gravity on the body h
are W fr and Wg respectively during the process. Find
W fr
the ratio
Wg
l 4h
24. A spring mass system arrangement in vertical plane is as shown. Initially
springs are in natural length and blocks A & B are resting on the ground.
Determine the minimum mass (in kg) of block C so that block A leaves
contact with the ground after releasing block C. (Take m = 10 kg) 3K
m0
K C
A m 3m B
25. Inclined surface of a smooth wedge of mass 6 kg makes an angle of 60°
with horizontal as shown. A ball hits the wedge horizontally and elastically
with a velocity of 40 m/s and moves vertically with respect to ground after
the collision. Find the mass (in kg) of the ball if the wedge can also move
on the smooth floor.
26.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The peak power consumed by a resistive coil when connected to an AC source is 80 W. Find the
energy consumed by the coil is 100 seconds which is many times larger than the time period of
the source. (in kJ)
27. In YDSE experiment if the screen is shifted by a distance of 0.5 m away from the slit, 3rd maxima
is shifted by 3 10-4 m. If the slit width is 2 10-4m, find the wavelength used in the experiment
(in nm).
28. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is increased from 10 kV to 20 kV the wavelength
interval between the K line and the short wave cut off of the continuous X-ray spectrum
increases by a factor 3. Find the atomic number of element of which the tube anti-cathode is
made. (Rydberg’s constant = 107 m–1)
29. A bus is moving towards a huge wall with a velocity of 5 m/s. the driver sounds a horn of
frequency 200 Hz. What is the frequency of beats heards by a passenger of the bus, if the speed
of sound in air is 330 m/s.
30. A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential difference of 5
V. Now, the charging battery is disconnected and the capacitor is
connected in parallel to a resistor of 5 and another unknown resistor
of resistance R as shown in figure. If the total heat proudced in 5
resistance is 10 J, then the unkonwn resistance R is equal to 10/n.
Find the value of n.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the variation of photoelectric current i, with the
intensity, I, of incident radiation?
(A) (B)
i i
l l
(C) (D)
i i
TG ~ @bohring_bot
l l
32. Which is the correct order of dipole moments of the compounds
NO2 Cl CH3
(I) (II) (III)
OH Cl CH3
(A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III
(C) III > I > II (D) III > II > I
33. The compressibility factor of helium as a real gas is
a
(A) unity (B) 1
RTV
Pb RTV
(C) 1 (D)
RT 1 a
34. 20 ml of a solution containing Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 requires 10 ml of 0.1 N H2SO4 for
neutralization using phenolphthalein as an indicator. Methyl orange is then added when a further
10 ml of 0.2 N H2SO4 is required. Molar concentration of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 in the solution
respectively are
(A) 0.05 M and 0.05 M (B) 0.1 M and 0.05 M
(C) 0.05 M and 0.10 M (D) 0.1 Mj and 0.1 M
35. Time required for 99.9% completion of a first order reaction is nearly
(A) 10 times that required for 25% of the reaction
(B) 10 times that required for 50% of the reaction
(C) 20 times that required for 50% of the reaction
(D) 100 times that required for 90% of the reaction
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 8
36. A 1.0 M with respect to each of metal halides AX3, BX2, CX3 and DX2 is electrolysed using
platinum electrodes. If E ºA 3 A 1.50 V,EBº 2 B 0.34,E Cº 3 C 0.74V EDº 2 D 2.37V, the correct
sequence in which the various metals are deposited at the cathode, is:
(A) A, B, C, D (B) D, C, B, A
(C) A, B, C (D) C, B, A
O2N a b NO2
37. 2, 4, 6– Trinitroiodobenzene has three C–N bonds labelled as a, b and c. The
c
NO2
correct bond length of three bonds is
(A) a = b = c (B) a > b > c
(C) a = b > c (D) a = b < c
38. Which of the following ion is formed in the following reaction?
H
OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
(A) (B) +
+
OH2
OH
(C) +
(D) All the three
CH2
OH
39. O O OH COOH
OH
The above reaction is an example of
(A) Baeyer – Villiger rearrangement (B) Benzilic acid rearrangement
(C) Cannizzaro reaction (D) Pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement
40. Oxide which can not be a reducing agent is
(A) NO2 (B) CO2
(C) ClO2 (D) SO2
41. The number of S – S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
42. The number of geometrical isomers for octahedral [Co(NH3)2Cl4]–,square planar AuCl2Br2– and
2+
[Co(No2) (NH3)5] are
(A) 2, 2, 2 (B) 2, 2, no isomerism
(C) 3, 2, 2 (D) 2, 3, no isomerism
43. For the correct assignment of electronic configuration of a complex, the valence bond theory
often requires the measurement of
(A) molar conductance (B) optical activity
(C) magnetic moment (D) dipole moment
44. Which of the following pairs can be distinguished by Fehling’s solution?
(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glucose and sucrose
(C) Methanal and ethanal (D) Hydroxypropanone and benzaldehyde
45. Me H Me
Me
H
Hydrogenation of the above compound in the presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives
(A) an optically active compound (B) an optically inactive compound
(C) a racemic mixture (D) a diastereomeric mixture
46.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
i H O
ii Heat Pr oduct P is
CH3 N(CH3)2
(A) (B)
N
CH3 CH3
(C) (D)
47. Which of the following is least stable?
O O
O
I II III
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) All are equally stable
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 10
48. A mixture of CH4, N2 and O2 is enclosed in a container of 1 litre capacity at 0ºC. Total pressure of
gaseous mixture is 2660 mm Hg. If the ratio of partial pressure of the gases is 1 : 4 : 2
respectively, the number of moles of oxygen present in the vessel is:
1
(A) (B) 1.0
22.4
(C) 0.1 (D) None of these
49. CH3 CH3
H H H H
H 3C CH3 H3 C H
H CH3
(I) (II)
(A) Conformational isomers (B) Stereoisomers
(C) Constitutional isomers (D) Identical
50. In zone refining method the molten zone
(A) moves to either side
(B) contains the purified metal only
(C) contains more impurity than the original metal
(D) consists of impurities only
TG ~ @bohring_bot SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. Consider the reaction: AB2 g AB g B g . If the initial pressure of AB2 is 500 torr and
equilibrium pressure is 600 torr, equilibrium constant Kp in terms of torr is
52. Reductive ozonolysis of a terpenoid of following structure gives how many
different products
53. For H2SO4, Kal = infinite and Ka2 = 1.2 10–2. The molarity of H2SO4 solution of pH 2.0 is ‘xM’.
The value of ‘1000000x’ is
54. In how many of the following compound ‘d’ orbital (which contains no nodal plane) is used in
hybridisation of central atom/ions?
3
Fe CO 5 , MnO4 Co C2 O4 3
2
NiCl2 PPh3 PtCl42 Ni CN 4
4
Ni CN4
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
H3C
55. The number of monohalogenated alkanes formed by the reaction of CH CH3 with Cl2 in
H3C
presence of light is
56. Iron forms a series of compounds of the type Fex(CO)y. In air, they are oxidised to Fe2O3 and CO2
gas. After heating a 0.142 g sample in air, you isolate the CO2 in a 1.50 L flask at 25ºC. The
y
pressure of the gas is 44.9 mm Hg. What will be the value of in the simplest empirical.
x
57. The edge length of the unit of LiCl (NaCl like structure) is 520 pm. Assuming that the lithium ion is
small enough that the chloride ions are in contact, the ionic radius of chloride ion (in pm) is
1
0.7
2
58. A certain metal ‘M’ forms an insoluble oxalate complex M4O3(C2O4)3. 12H2O. If 3.2 g of the
complex is formed from 1 g of oxalic acid, what is the atomic mass of M?
59. For the reaction R – X + OH– R – OH + X– the rate of reaction is given as, rate = 4.7 10–5
[R–X][OH–] + 0.24 10–5 [RX] what percentage of R – X react by SN2 mechanism when [OH–] =
0.001 molar.
60.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Find the sum of optically active isomers of both [Pt(gly)2Cl2] and [Co(en)2Cl2].
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
x 2 y 1 z 3
61. The angle between the line and the plane 3x + 6y – 2z + 5 = 0 is
2 1 2
–1 4 –1 4
(A) cos (B) sin
21 21
–1 6 –1 4
(C) sin (D) sin
21 21
x2
1
62. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = cos 1 t 2 dt at x =
is
x
(2)1/ 4
(A) 0 (B) /2
1/ 4 1/ 4
8
1 8
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) (D)
3 4 6 4
63. Area bounded by f(x) = max.{sinx, cosx}; 0 x /2, x = /2 and the coordinate axes is equal to
(A) 2 sq. units (B) 2 sq. units
1
(C) sq. units (D) None of these
2
64. The co-efficient of x7 in the expansion of (1 – x4) (1 +x)9 is
(A) 27 (B) –24
(C) 48 (D) –48
65. The chords of contact of the pair of tangents drawn from each point on the line
2x + y = 4 to the circle x 2 + y2 =1 pass through fixed point
1 1
(A) (2 , 4) (B) ,
2 4
1 1
(C) , (D) ( -2, -4)
2 4
66. The equation of the line through the intersection of the lines 2x + 3y + 4 = 0 and
2 2
6x – 3y + 12 = 0 and normal to the circle x + y – 4x – 12 = 0, is
(A) x = y (B) x = 0
(C) y = 0 (D) None of these
dy y sin 2 x
67. The solution of the differential equation x is given by
dx 2 2y
2 2 2 2
(A) xy = cos x+ c (B) xy = sin x+ c
(C) yx2= cos2x+c (D) None of these
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
a x
ax
2
a x
a x
2
1
68. If a, b, c > 0 and x, y, z R, then the determinant b y
b y 2
b y
b y 2
1 is equal to
c z
c z
2
c z
cz
2
1
(A) ax + by + cz (B) a-x b–y c-z
2x 2y 2z
(C) a b c (D) 0
3
69. x dx is equal to ([.] denotes the greatest integer function)
0
2
1
(A) 2 (B) 2 +1
(C) 3/ 2 (D) infinite
ln x
70. The value of dx is
(1 ln x ) 2
x x ln x
(A) c (B) c
1 ln x 1 ln x
x ln x
(C) c (D) c
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(1 ln x ) x(1 ln x )
71. Domain of log1/2log4log3[( x - 4)2] is, [.] denotes the integer function .
(A) (- , 2] [ 6, ) (B) (- , 2] [ 6, 8)
(C) (2, 6) (D) [ 2, 6]
72. PQ is a vertical pole with end P on level ground. R is the mid–point of PQ. At a point A on the
level ground, the portion QR subtends an angle at A. If AP = nPQ, then tan =
n n
(A) 2
(B) 2
2n 1 n 1
n
(C) 2 (D) None of these
n 1
73. The line lx + my + n = 0 will be a normal to the hyperbola b2x2 – a2y2 = a2b2 if
(A)
a2 b2
=
a2 b2 2
(B)
a2 b2
=
a2 b2
2
l 2 m2 n2 l 2 m2 n2
(C)
a2 b2
=
a2 b2 2
(D) None of these
l 2 m2 n2
2
74. The coordinates of the point on the parabola y = x + 7x +2, which is nearest to the straight line
y = 3x – 3 are
(A) (-2, -8) (B) (1, 10)
(C) (2, 20) (D) (-1, -4)
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
75. If AFB is a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax and AF = 4, FB = 5, then the latus-rectum of the
parabola is equal to
80 9
(A) (B)
9 80
(C) 9 (D) 80
n
76. 4n
n 1
4
1
equals to
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) (D) 1/4
1 1 1
77. If S denote the sum to infinity and Sn the sum of n terms of the series 1 ... such
3 9 27
1
that S – Sn < , then the least value of n is
300
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
78. The set of values of ‘a’ for which the equation x3 – 3x + a has three distinct real roots, is
(A) (-, ) (B) (-2, 2)
(C) (-1, 1) (D) none of these
79.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
If the line y = 3 x cuts the curve x4 + ax2y + bxy + cx + dy + 6 = 0 at A, B, C and D, then
OA.OB.OC.OD ( where O is the origin) is
(A) a – 2b +c (B) 2c2d
(C) 96 (D) 6
80. The equation of plane perpendicular to 2x + 6y + 6z – 1 = 0 and passing through the points
(2, 2, 1) and (9, 3, 6) is
(A) 3x + 4y + 5z + 9 = 0 (B) 3x + 4y – 5z + 9 = 0
(C) 3x + 4y – 5z – 9 = 0 (D) 3x + 4y + 5z – 9 = 0
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
x6 y2 z2 x4 y z 1
81. Shortest distance between lines and is
1 2 2 3 2 2
3 2
82. The number of solutions of the equation x + 2x + 5x + 2cosx = 0 in [0, 2] is
83. If the second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of (a+ b)n are 135, 30 and 10/3 respectively,
then n =
84. If the equation |z – z1|2 + | z – z2|2 = k represents the equation of a circle, where z1 2+ 3i, z2 4
+ 3i are the extremities of a diameter, then the value of k is
2 2
85. The sum of the distances of any point on the ellipse 3x + 4y = 12 from its directrix is
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
86. Given that g(x) is a function satisfying g(x + y) = g(x) g(y) x, y N and g(1) = 3, the value of
4
g x is equal to
x 1
1
87. Given a function f(x) continuous x R such that lim f x log 1 logf x = 0, then
f x
x 0
e
f(0) is
88. Let S be the set of 6-digit numbers a1a2a3a4a5a6 (all digits distinct)
where a1 > a2 > a3 > a4 < a5 < a6. Then n(S) is equal to
89. Six identical coins are arranged in a row. The number of ways in which the number of tails is
equal to number of heads is
90. Entries of a 2 2 determinant are chosen from the set {−1, 1}. The probability that determinant
1
has zero value is then is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 20-01-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
1. C
4 R sin / 2 2 R
Sol. For the sector, ycm
3 3
2 R sin / 2 3R
For the arc, ycm
2. A
Sol. If acceleration of block 2 is a2 to the right, then
5a2 ar a 6 4
a2 2 m / s 2
3. C
FL 3F 3F
Sol. acm
mL2 m 2 2m
3
Fx macm
3F F
Nx F Nx
2 2
Ny Mg
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 2
4. C
a
Sol. C.M. of triangle is at from centre of circular plate C
3
mcircle C
mtriangle
M y my
y CM
M m
a
On solving,
3( 1)
5. C
Sol. –U = ke
1
UB UA mv 2
2
Ball will leave when normal at B = 0
mv B2 mvB2
mgsin NB 0 at B mgsin
R R
6. D
Sol. Block number 1 and 2n will suffer one collision each, block number 2 and 2n – 1 will suffer two
7.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
collision each similarly block number n and n + 1 will suffer n collision each. So total number of
collisions will be 2(1 + 2 + … + n) = n (n + 1)
A
70
Sol. r R 1 1 132.4 1 22.1
2 60
8. B
Sol. 100 , 25 and 20 are in parallel.
Their, net resistance is 10
Rnet = 4 + 10 + 6 = 20
V = i Rnet = 80 V
9. A
20 2 2
Sol. Current decreases times or times. Therefore, net resistance should become times.
30 3 3
3
R 50 (2950 50)
2
Solving we get, R = 4450
10. A
Sol.
k C1 UC1 k C2 UC2
kmin qVC1 0 qVC2 ...(i)
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
1 Q Q
VC1
4 0 2R R
1 Q Q
VC2
40 2 2R
Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we can find Kmin.
11. C
Sol.
The induced charges on conducting sphere due to +q charge at P are as shown in figure.
Now, net charge inside the closed dotted surface is negative. Hence, according to Gauss’s
theorem net flux is negative.
12. A
Sol. p2V = constant
2
nRT
V constant
V
TG ~ @bohring_bot
T2 V
or T V
V is made three times. So, T will becomes 3 times.
13. A
Sol. W net = 2p0V0
Q+ve = QABC = W ABC + UABC
= area under the graph + nCvT
3
(3p0 V0 ) n R (TC TA )
2
3
(3p0 V0 ) (pC VC p A VA )
2
= 10.5 p0V0
W 4
net
Q ve 21
14. A
Sol. z
q
y
x a 2a 3a x
15. C
Sol. Conceptual
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Yash Patil 4
16. A
XC 1
Sol. tan R
R C
XC 1
tan C
4 R R
XC R
i leads emf circuit is LC
17. D
Sol. Potential difference between
1 2
O and A is VA VO Bl B
2
1 2
O and B is VB VO Bl
2
So VA VB 0
A O B
18. B
h 1
Sol.
2mE E
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
2
E2 = 4E1
E2
E1
10 10
0.5 10 10
E2
E1
Hence added energy = E2 – E1 = 3E1
19. A
Sol. Using Moseley’s law, we get
2 ( Z1 a ) 2
1 ( Z 2 a) 2
200 (74 1) 2
2 179.76 Å
(78 1) 2
20. C
x ln2
Sol.
t1/ 2
y ln2
t1/ 2
x
x
A x xN0 e t
y
2
A y yN0 e t
eln 2 2
SECTION – B
21. 2
Sol. D1 is reverse biased therefore it will act like an open circuit.
12
i 2.00 A
6
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
22. 3
Sol. Psueodo force and friction will make a force couple. Normal reaction and Mg will make a force
couple.
When block is about the topple normal reaction will shift to edge.
23. 2
Sol. W f mg cos ds
l
mg dx
0
mgl 0.5mg 4h 2mgh
Wg mgh
W fr / Wg 2
24. 5
Sol. mg kx (for m to leave the ground)
1 m
m0 gx kx 2 or m0 = 5 kg
2 2
25. 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Conservation of momentum along horizontal u
m40 6 v …(i) 20 3/2 u
u/2
Newton’s law of restitution 40
v/2
u 3 2a3
v 20 3 …(ii) 60° v 60°
2 2
Linear momentum of ball will remain conserved along 3/2 v
inclined Before Collision
3
u 20
2
40
u …(iii)
3
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
m = 4 kg
26. 4
10 i0 80
Sol. Pavg 40
2 2
Energy
Pavg
Time
27. 40
Sol. Here 3rd maxima is shifted by 3 10-4 m. It indicates fringe width increases by 1 10-4 m.
D 0.5 D
Hence 1 10 4
d d
0.5 2 10 3 1 10 4
or 1 10 4 m or 4 10 7 m = 40 nm
d 0. 5
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 6
28. 30
hc 12375
Sol. C1 = A = 1.2375 A° … (1)
eV 10 10 3
C2 0.61875 A° … (2)
1 2 1 1 7
= (Z – 1) 10 … (3)
K 1 4
It is given
3 × (k – 1.2375) = k – 0.61875
k = 1.54338 A° … (4)
Putting this value in (3)
Z –1 = 29
Z = 30
29. 6
Sol. As source (horn of bus) is approaching stationary wall (say, listener), therefore, apparent
frequency striking the wall is
v
v' …(1)
s
Sound of this frequency will be reflected by the wall (now, source). The passenger is the listener
( L )v '
TG ~ @bohring_bot
moving towards source. Therefore, frequency heard by the listener v' '
using (1)
L v ( L )v
v' '
s s
(330 5) 200 335
200
330 5 325
v' ' 206 Hz
Beat frequency = (v ' ' v)
206 200 6 Hz
30. 3
1
Sol. Total heat product CV 2
2
1
(2F)(5)2
2
= 25 J
Now, this should distribute in inverse ratio of resistors, as they are in parallel.
H5 R
HR 5
R
or H5 (Total heat)
R5
R
or 10 (25)
R 5
Solving this equation, we get
10
R
3
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. C
Sol. Intensity of incident radiations depends on no. of photons in the incident light and simultaneously
no. of photoelectrons increases and photoelectric current increases
32. A
Sol. In all the three options groups are arranged at ortho position. So after that the value of dipole
moment will depend on the electro negativity difference.
33. C
Sol. For helium is a very light gas for which attraction is ignored and do not have vanderwall constant
‘a’ in the equation of compressibility factor and for helium Z > 1.
34. A
Sol. Na2 CO3 NaHCO3 x
H2 CO3 x
NaHCO3
H2 CO3 y
NaHCO3
With phenolphthalein as indication 10 mL 1N 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 mill g. equation = x
with methyl orange as indicator
10mL 0.2N 4 milli gram equation = x + y
y = 2 mili gram eq.
2millgram eq.
Normality = 0.1N
20mL
N = nf molarity M = 0.05 M
35. D
2.303 a 2.303 100 2.303
Sol. For first order reaction, t log t 99.9 log 3
k ax k 100 99.9 k
2.303 2.303 2.303
t 50 log log2 0.301 t 99.9 t50 10 approx.
k k k
36. C
Sol. The cations will be liberated in the sequence of decreasing reduction potentials. Cations having
Eºvalue < –0.83 (reduction potential of water) will not be liberated from aqueous solutions
37. C
Sol. Iodine is a bulky group due to ortho effect mesomeric effect stops at ortho position & hence a and
b will be longer than C bond
38. B
Sol.
H CH3
O H
OH
More stable carbocation forms at this position
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Yash Patil 8
39. B
Sol. Benzilic acid involves transformation of –diketones to –hydroxyl acid by means of OH–
40. C
Sol. CO2, in CO2 carbon is already in it’s maximum oxidation state and cannot be oxidised further.
While N, Cl, S are not in their maximum oxidation state.
41. D
O O
S
O O
O O
Sol. Structure S S no S – S bonds
O
O O
42. B
Sol. [Co(NH3)2Cl4]– = cis and trans isomerism
AuCl2Br2– square planar cis and trans isomersim
[Co(NO2] [NH3]2+ = No isomerism
43. C
Sol. VBT is based on measurement of magnetic moment measurement. Based on that structure is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
being predicted.
44. B
Sol. Fehlings solution can separate reducing and non-reducing sugars.
Glucose – Reducing sugar
Sucrose – non-reducing sugar.
45. B
Sol. Poisoned palladius catalyst reduces Alkyne to cis-Alkene.
Me Me H
Me
H
H
H H
Optically inactive product
46. D
Sol.
2 2
i H O
ii Heat
H2C N(CH3)2
H3C N(CH3)2
H O
Less stable alkene is the major product
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
47. B
Sol. O O
O
+ +
+
Aromatic Anti-aromatic Aromatic
Anti-aromatic is the least stable
48. A
2
Sol. Partial pressure of O2 = 2660 mm
7
Thus 1 L of O2 is present at 0ºC and 760 mm
0.02 1023
So no. of O2 molecules =
22.4
PV = nRT
1atm 1L 1
No. of moles of O2 = 1
273k
0.0821 atm 22.4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
49. C
Sol. They have different bond connectivity. Hence constitutional isomers.
50. C
Sol. Zone refining is based on the principal that impurities are more soluble in molten state than solid
state.
Hence molten zone contains more impurities than the original metal.
SECTION – B
51. 25
Sol. AB2
AB g B g
500
500 x x x
Require = 600 torr = 500 – x + x + x, x = 100 torr
P P 100 100
K p AB B = 25 torr
PAB2 400
52. 3
Sol.
O
O +
+ Three Products
H O
O
O
H3C CH3
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Yash Patil 10
53. 6470
Sol. H2 SO 4
H HSO4
x
xy yZ yZ
H2 SO4
H SO1a
yZ Zy Z
K G1
y Z y Z kq
Z Z y
xy yZ
k a1 , x = y
2 10 2
1.2 102
yZ
1.2 (y) – 1.22 = Z
1.2 y = 2.2Z
Y = 1.833Z
Y + z = 0.01
2.8332 = 0.01
Z = 0.0025
Y = 0.0064705 = x
6470.546
54.
Sol.
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dz2 orbital has no mola plane.
Fe(CO)5 = dsp2 = dz2
MnO4– = d3sw = dxy , dyz, dx2
3
Co C 2O 4 3 sp3 d2 dx2 y2 and dz2
NiCl2 (PPh3)2 = dsp2 = dx2 y2
PtCl42 = dsp2 = dx2 y2
2
Ni CN4 dps2 dx2 y2
4
Ni CN 4 sp 3
55. 2
Sol. H2C CH3 CH3
Cl CH CH3 C
&
CH3 H3C Cl
2 products
56. 5
x
Sol. Fex CO y
Fe2 O3 yCO2
2
3x x
Fex CO y y O2 Fe 2O3 y CO2
4 2
0.0026 mole
1-50 L at 25ºC, P = 44.9 mm Hg
PV = nRT
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
44.9
1.50L n 0.0821 298
760
= n = 0.036 mole
0.142 = 56 x + 0.0036 28
0.0412
x 0.00073
56
y
4.9 5
x
57. 182
Sol. Fcc like structure has edge length
2r+ + 2r– = 520 ppm
From radius ration
r
0.414
r
– –
2 (0.414 r ) + 2r = 520 pm
–
2.85 r = 520
r – = 182 pm
58. 84
Sol. Given wt. of complex = 3.2 gm
Molecular wt. of complex = 4 M + 48 + 264
TG ~ @bohring_bot
= 4 M + 528 + 216
O
C OH
Molar mass of oxalic acid is is 90 gm
C OH
O
3.2g 1g
4M 528 90
M = 84 g/ mol
59. 2
Sol. Rate = 4.7 10 5 R x OH 0.24 10 5 RX
SN 2 SN 1
4.7 105 RX 103 M
% of SN2 = 100
0.24 10 5 RX 4.7 105 RX
on solving answer = 2
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 12
60. 8
Sol. Pt gly 2 Cl2 Pt AB 2 Cl2
Cl Cl Cl
Cl A Cl A Cl B
M M M
B B A B B A
A B A
complete cis
optically actice = 2
optically active = 2
optically active = 2
Cl
B A
M
A B
Cl
optically inactice & Cis – [co (en)2 Cl2] is optically active isomers = 2 while trans – [Co(en)Cl2] is
optically inactive
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. D
| 2 3 ( 1) 6 2 ( 2) |
Sol. sin–1
22 ( 1)2 22 3 2 6 2 ( 2)2
62. C
dy
Sol. cos 1 x 4 x 2
dx
= - cos-1x2
2 1
= 1/ 4
3 2 4
63. A
Sol. f(x) = cosx for 0 x /4 Y
= sinx for /4 < x /2
/4
/4 1
Required = 2 cos xdx = 2sinx 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
= 2 sq. units.
X
O /4 /2
64. D
Sol. (1 – x4) (1 + 9C1 x+ 9C2 x2 + 9C3 x3 …………9C9x9)
Coefficient of x7 = 9C7 – 9C3 = – 48
65. C
Sol. The chord of contact of tangents from (, ) is
x + y = 1 ..... (1)
Also, (, ) lies on 2x +y = 4 , so that 2 + = 4
1
2 4
1 1
Hence, (1) passes through , .
2 4
66. C
Sol. Equation of line is (2x + 3y + 4) + (6x – 3y + 12) = 0 …(1)
(1) is normal to circle, therefore (1) passes through (2, 0)
1
= and required equation is y = 0.
3
67. A
dy dy
Sol. 2y x y 2 sin 2x y 2 2 yx sin 2x
dx dx
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 14
d d
( xy 2 ) (cos 2 x ) xy2 = cos2x+c
dx dx
68. D
a x
a x
2
a x
a x
2
1
Sol. b y
b y 2
b y
b y 2
1
c z
c z
2
c z
cz
2
1
Operating C1 C1 – C2
4a x a x a x
ax 2
1 1 a x
a x
2
1
4b yb y b y
by
2
1 =4 1 b y
b y
2
1 =0.
4c z c z c z
c z
2
1 1 c z
cz
2
1
69. C
3 3 1 3
Sol. 0< 2
3, 2 2 x= and 2 =1x= 2
x 1 x 1 2 x 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1/ 2 2
1 1 3
I= 2dx + 1.dx + 0 dx = 2+ 2 =2 2 = .
0 1/ 2 2
2 2 2
70. C
ln x
Sol. dx
(1 ln x ) 2
Let lnx = t dx = et dt
te t e t t 1 1
(1 t )2
dt = (1 t )2
dt
e t t 1 1
= (1 t )2
dt
1 1
= et
dt
t 1 1 t 2
et
since e f x f x dx e f x c
x x
=
t 1
c
eln x x
= c c.
1 ln x 1 ln x
71. A
2 2 2
Sol. f(x) = log1/2log4log3[( x-4) ] log4( log3[ x –4) ] ) > 0 log3[ ( x –4) ] > 1
2 2
[ ( x –4) ] 4 ( x –4) - 4 0 ( x-2) ( x –6) 0
x ( - , 2] [ 6 , ) .
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
72. A
PQ 1 Q
Sol. tan( + ) = =
AP n
tan =
PR
=
1/ 2PQ
=
1
AP AP 2n
R
= ( + ) –
tan tan
tan =
1 tan tan
1 1 P
A
n 2n = n
= 2
.
1 1 2n 1
1 .
n 2n
73. C
Sol. Normal to hyperbola will be
ax cos + by cot = a2 + b2
If this is same as lx + my + n = 0, comparing the coefficients,
a cos b cot a 2 b 2
=
l m n
an bn
TG ~ @bohring_bot
sec = – , tan =
2
l a b 2
m a2 b2
2 2
sec – tan = 1
2
a 2 b2 a2 b2
2 2 .
l m n2
74. A
Sol. Any point on the parabola is (x , x 2+ 7x + 2)
Its distance from the line y = 3x –3 is given by
P=
3x x 2 7x 2 3
x 2 4x 5
=
x 2 4x 5
(as x2 +4x + 5 > 0 for all x R)
9 1 10 10
dP
= 0 x = -2
dx
The required point (-2, -8).
75. A
Sol. FA = 4, FB = 5 A
1 1 1
We know that
a AF FB
20 80 F
a= 4a = . O (a, 0)
9 9
B
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 16
76. D
n 1 1 1
Sol. 2
4
4n 1 4 2n 2n 1 2n 2n 1
2
k
n 1 1 1
Hence 4n
n 1
4
1
1 2
4 2k 2k 1
=
4
as k
77. C
1
Sol. S Sn
300
1
1
1 3n 1 3 1 1 1 1
1 1 300 2 3n 00
1 1
3 3
1 1 2 1 1
n n 3n > 450
3 300 3 3 450
least value of n = 6
78. B
Sol. Let f(x) = x3 – 3x +a
f(x) = 3x2 –3.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
For three distinct real roots (i) f(x) = 0 should have two distinct real roots and
and (ii) f() f() < 0
Here = 1, = −1.
Now f() f() < 0
(1− 3 + a) (−1+ 3 + a) < 0 (a – 2) (a + 2) < 0
−2 < a < 2.
79. C
r r 3
Sol. The line y = 3 x can be written as x = , y= .
2 2
If this line cuts the given curve, then
r 4 ar 3 3 br 2 3 cr dr 3
6 0.
16 8 4 2 2
Therefore OA. OB.OC.OD = |r1| |r2| |r3| |r4| = |r1 r2 r3 r4| = 96
80. C
Sol. Plane passing through (2, 2, 1) is a(x – 2) + b(y – 2) + c(z – 1) = 0
It passes through (9, 3, 6)
7a + b + 5c = 0 …. (1)
It is to 2x + 6y + 6z – 1 = 0
2a + 6b + 6c = 0 …. (2)
a b c
(1) and (2)
24 32 40
a b c
3 4 5
The required plane is
3(x – 2) + 4(y – 2) – 5(z – 1) = 0
3x + 4y – 5z – 9 = 0 .
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
SECTION – B
81. 9
10 2 3
1 2 2
3 2 2 108
Sol. S. D = 9
82 82 42 12
82. 0
Sol. Let f(x) = x3 + 2x2 + 5x + 2 cosx
f(x) = 3x2 + 4x + 5 – 2 sinx
2
2 11
= 3 x 2 sin x
3 3
11
Now 2 sin x 0 x (as −1 sinx 1)
3
f(x) > 0 x f(x) is an increasing function.
Now f(0) = 2
f(x) = 0 has no solution in [0, 2].
83.
Sol.
5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
T2 = nC1 abn-1 = 135
T3 = nC2 a2 bn-2 = 30
.....(1)
.....(2)
T4 = nC3 a3bn-3 = 10/3 .....(3)
Dividing (1) by (2)
n
C1abn 1 135
n 2 n 2
C 2a b 30
n b 9
n
2 n 1 a 2
b 9
n 1 .... (5)
a 4
Dividing (2) by (3)
nn 1
2 b
. 9
nn 1n 2 a
3 .2
b
3n 2 ....(6)
a
Eliminating a and b from (5) and (6)
n=5
84. 4
Sol. k = |z– z1|2 + | z– z2|2 = | z1– z2|2 k=4
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AITS-CRT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2023
Yash Patil 18
85. 8
x2 y2 1
Sol. 1 a = 2, b = 3 and e =
4 3 2
2a 4
Sum of distances = = 8.
e 1/ 2
86. 120
Sol. g(x) = g(x – 1 + 1) = g(x – 1) g(1)
= g(x – 2) [g(1)]2 = …. = [g(1)]x = 3x
4
x
3 = 31 + 32 + 33 + 34 = 120
x 1
87. 0
1
Sol. lim f x log1 f x logf x
x 0
e
1
1 f x
x 0
= lim log e f x log
e
f x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
e f x 1 ef x 1
lim log = 0 lim =1
x 0 f x x 0 f x
lim f x 0 f(0) = 0 (as f(x) is a continuous function) .
x 0
88. 2100
Sol. First, 6 distinct digits can be selected in 10C6 ways. Now the position of smallest digit in them is
fixed i.e. position 4. Of the remaining 5 digits, two digits can be selected in 5C2 ways. These two
digits can be placed to the right of 4th position in one way only. The remaining three digits to the
left of 4th position are in the required order automatically.
So n(S) = 10C6 5C2 = 210 10 = 2100.
89. 20
6! 720
Sol. Required number of ways = 20
3!3! 6 6
90. 2
a b
Sol. = ad bc = 0 whether ad = 1, bc = 1 or ad = 1, bc = 1
c d
which occur in eight ways. Total number of 2 2 determinants from {1, 1} is 16. Thus required
8 1
probability is .
16 2
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 05-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. Two infinite long thin wire have linear charge density and +. They are parallel to z-axis
passing through x-axis at point x = a and x = +a respectively. The equipotential surface having
n(2)
potential is
40
(A) a sphere (B) A cylinder
(C) having radius of 2a (D) having radius 2 2a
2. In the shown figure a solid hemisphere of radius R and a cone of
radius height H is welded. The object formed is placed on rough
horizontal surface. Density of material is same for hemisphere H
and cone. If it is slightly displaced from its equilibrium position.
The correct statements are/is
R
(A) It will oscillate if H = R
(B) It will have finite time period of H = 2R
(C) It will have finite time period if H R 3
3.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) It will not oscillate if H = R 2
A tuning fork of frequency 1000 Hz is sounded over Resonance
tube as shown in the figure. Speed of sound is v = 320 m/s and A = 200 cm
2
area of cross-section of tube is 200 cm 2 at the level of 100 cm a
water outlet is attached. The water outlet has area of cross- A = 100cm
section a = 1 cm 2 water outlet is opened at time t = 0. Neglect the
end effect of resonance tube. A = 1cm
2
(A) First resonance will occur when water level goes down by 8 cm from open end of tube.
(B) First resonance will occur when water level is 16 cm below open end of tube
(C) The time after which resonance occurs first time is nearly half minutes.
(D) The time between first two resonances is nearly 3 minutes.
4. Three conducting sheets 1, 2 and 3 are placed parallel to each +Q +3Q
other such that separation between them is negligible. Sheet-1 and
sheet-3 are given charges +Q and +3Q respectively. Cell of emf 1 d
2d
A
V is to be connected between sheet 1 and 3. (Take 0 30 mF
d
and Q = 3 mC) where A is area of sheets. First switch S1 is closed 1 2 3
and then switch S2 is closed.
(A) When switch S1 is closed charge flow through S1 is zero. S1
(B) When switch S1 is closed charge flow through S1 is 12 mC.
(C) When S2 is closed charge flown through S2 is 2 mC.
(D) When S2 is closed charge flown through S2 is 15 mC.
S2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
A
5. In figure shown rod A of mass 2m and length 2 is kept on a
horizontal frictional surface and hinged at point O such that it
can rotate about vertical axis passing through O. Another V0
identical rod B moving with a constant velocity v 0 collides with
rod A at its end and stickes to it (both rods are perpendicular to
each other)
B
3v 0
(A) angular velocity of system just after collision is
10
(B) Velocity of centre of mass at system just after collision is
2
9v 0
5
5
(C) Centre of mass of system is at a distance of from O.
2
3mv02
(D) Kinetic energy of system just after collision is
5
6. A particle of mass m, charge q is given horizontal
velocity v0 at the rim of smooth, fixed hemispherical
shell. The particle moves down and always is in m v0
contact with the inner surface of shell uniform electric
field E0 and magnetic field B0 is present in vertical
TG ~ @bohring_bot
direction. The correct statements are.
(A) The particle moves down and then it starts E B
R
moving upwards.
(B) Conservation of energy can be applied.
(C) Angular momentum of the particle along the
vertical axis passing through centre of shall is
conserved
(D) Due to presence of torque. Angular momentum is
not conserved
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. In List-I liquid of uniform density is filled in container and in the List-II gauge pressure at point N is
given
List –I List -II
(I) Wide container of height H (P) gH
and a pipe of length H is H
shown in the figure. The end
of the pipe is closed
H/2
N
H/2
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
(II) Wide container of height H is (Q) 5
gH
connected with a pipe of small H 4
area of cross section. Liquid is
allowed to flow out from pipe.
Assume Bernoulli’s theorem is H/2
valid N
H/2
(III) ABCD is U shape tube in A B (R) gH
which liquid is filled fully and 2
end B is closed with help of
cap, while end A is open. It is H
rotated about AC with angular
2g
speed = . Point N is at
H C N D
mid point of horizontal part of H
the tube.
(IV) A thin pipe of height H, H (S) gH
connected with a wide vessel H 2
of height H filled with liquid is
released from rest on smooth
TG ~ @bohring_bot
N
inclined plane. Point N is at
the edge point of bottom of
vessel.
60
(T) 3
gH
2
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I Q, II P, III S, IV T
(B) I T, II R, III Q, IV P
(C) I Q, II P, III S, IV R
(D) I T, II Q, III P, IV R
8. In List-I motion of a particle is shown and in List-II relative speed between object and its image is
given.
List –I List -II
(I) Object is moving towards u (P) 10 m/s
water with velocity 3 m/s.
Refractive index of water is
4/3
(II) Object O is moving towards (Q) 1 m/s
concave mirror focal length 10 u
cm with velocity u= 9 m/s
40 cm
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(III) Object is moving towards 3 m/s (R) 0
plane mirror with velocity u = 2
m/s and mirror is also moving O
with velocity 3 m/s as shown 60
u
in the figure.
(IV) Observer O is moving toward 10m (S) 8 m/s
lens with speed 1 m/s, which
is at 15 m away from it. The u
separation between lens (f =
1m/s
20 m) and mirror (f = 35 m) is
10 m.
f = 20 m f = 35 m
(T) 15 m
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I Q, II P, III Q, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III S, IV R
(C) I P, II Q, III S, IV T
(D) I P, II S, III T, IV R
9. In List-I, difference thermodynamics process are given and in List-II magnitude of possible heat
exchange between system and surrounding are given due the process.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
List –I List -II
(I) 2 mole monoatomic T(K) (P) 1850J
ideal gas is taken B
400
through process A B
which is shown in
temperature (T) and 300
A
entropy(s) diagram
1 3 S(J/k)
2
(II) 2 mole ideal P(N/m ) (Q) 8314J
monoatomic gas is C
500
taken through process
A B C as shown in
P-V diagram A
100
3
1 2 V(m )
(III) Two mole monoatomic T(K) (R) 333J
ideal gas is taken
through the process B
300
AB as shown in the
T-V diagram
A
100
3
1 3 V(m )
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
(IV) One mole monoatomic U(J) (S) 400J
ideal gas is taken B
1000
through the process
ABC as shown in the
figure, with the help of 500 A C
internal energy U and
pressure P of the gas 3
10 20 P(N/m )
(T) 700J
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I T, II P, III R, IV Q
(B) I T, II R, III P, IV Q
(C) I T, II P, III Q, IV R
(D) I Q, II P, III Q, IV S
10. In List-I a body is given which can oscillate if slightly disturbed from its equilibrium position. In
List-II time period of oscillation is given.
List –I List -II
(I) A thin hemispherical shell of (P) 26R
radius R is supported on the 2
15g
end of thin fixed vertical rod
(II)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A thin semicircular ring of (Q)
2
R
radius R is hanging from point a
O 4
O which is accelerating in g 1 2
horizontal direction with some
acceleration so that the line
joining two ends of the
semicircular ring is vertical.
(III) Solid hemisphere of radius R (R) 2R
is placed on rough sufficiently 2
R 4
rough horizontal surface to g 1 2
support rolling.
(IV) A solid sphere of radius R is (S) 4R
2
placed in side a fixed concave r
3g
R
surface of radius r = 6R
friction is large between
sphere and concave surface
to support rolling.
(T) 7R
2
g
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I T, II Q, III R, IV P
(B) I S, II P, III R, IV Q
(C) I S, II R, III T, IV P
(D) I S, II R, III P, IV T
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. A circular metal disc has some moment of inertia
about it tangent passing in its plane as shown in
figure-A. Now half of the disc is folded over the
other half as shown in the figure. B. Find the
fractional change in moment of inertia about the
same axis rotation (use value of = 3.14) R R
Fig-A Fig-B
12. In year 2050 humans on earth as mastered in fusion reactor technology and due
to atomic war possibility some of the people with all genetic material go on space
journey for safer planet. Total mass of rocket system is 300000 kg thrust force is
provided by radiation coming out of rocket system. Find the minimum rate of fuel
consumption (in kg/s) so that rocket system can leave the earth. (Assume all
radiation is coming out of nozzle of the rocket and it is in the form of parallel
beam)
13.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A thin rod of mass m = 1kg length = 20 cm is hanging from a high
point. The point of suspension is capable of bearing only 10 N force.
A particle of mass m = 1 kg is thrown from ground with velocity v 0 =
20 m/s at angle = 45 from horizontal. It collides with rod at its
lowest point and sticks to it. The collision takes place when particle
was moving horizontally. Find the number of rotation completed by
rod before it falls on the ground. (Take value of g = 10 m/s2 and =
3.14)
14. A bar AB of mass m = 10 kg and length = 10m is glued with a
massless rod of length L = 20 m. The rod is free to rotate in
vertical plane about horizontal axis passing at end O. An insect of
mass m = 0.02 kg lands smoothly on the bar at end A and runs
towards end B such that the rod remains vertical. Find the time A B
taken by insect to reach at end B in seconds.
15. Consider the nuclear reaction, in which particle collides Vp
with stationary nitrogen nucleus P
4 N14 O17 P1 60
k
in which incoming -particle has kinetic energy k = 4.0
N
MeV and outgoing proton going at angle 60 from
incoming direction of -particle has kinetic energy kP =
2.09 MeV. The Q value of the reaction in MeV is K0
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
16. The figure shows a massless rod having current carrying coil B
of cross section area 102 m2, current I= 4A and 20 turns. A
spring of force constant k = 100 N/m is connected to rod at 2.5
m from point O. The other end of spring is connected to
ground. Initially the spring is in relaxed state. At the end of rod 3m
O
a block of mass 4 kg is attached. When magnetic field of 5T is
switched on. The spring is extended. Find extension in the
spring in steady state in meter (for small angle sin ).
2.5m 2.5m
4A
4kg
17. A block with horizontal nail has total mass 5 kg, can move on
A
smooth horizontal surface. A small sphere B of mass 4 kg is
hanging from the nail with the help of thin, mass less string of
length = 2.5 m. A small particle of mass m = 1kg moving
= 2.5m
horizontal with velocity v0, hits the block B and get stuck with it.
The minimum value of v 0 (in m/s) such that block B can complete B
P
circular motion about nail in vertical plane is N 102 m / s .The v0
value of N is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
18. A pendulum of mass m connected with string of length = 20 3 m
cm. It is suspended above the centre of a sphere of radius 20 cm = 203 cm
and mass m, at a distance 40 cm above centre of sphere. After
collision pendulum stops. All surfaces are smooth. The
coefficient of restitution is
R = 20 cm
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. Consider the following reaction:
H3C
CH3
Conc. H SO
2
4
' X'
HO
H3C
CH3
The structure of the product can be:
(A) CH3
CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3
CH3
(B) CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
(C) CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
(D) CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
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20. Which of the following reaction(s) can take place?
2 Et O
(A) CH3 Br 2Li LiCH3 LiBr
2 Et O
(B) MgCl2 LiC2 H5 C2 H5 MgCl LiCl
2 Et O
(C) C2H5 Li C6 H6 C6 H5 Li C2H6
2 Et O
(D) Li3 N 2H2 LiNH2 2LiH
21. What happens when beryllium oxide is added to baryta water solution?
(A) BeO is insoluble in baryta water.
(B) BeO dissolves in baryta water.
(C) Basic character of the solution increases as the concentration of basic substance increases.
(D) pH of the solution decreases.
22. Which of the following compound(s) lose(s) CO2 just on heating?
(A) COOH
O
(B) COOH
(C) TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3
COOH
COOH
(D)
COOH O
23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Eight Cs ions occupy the second nearest neighbour locations of a Cs ion in CsCl crystal.
(B) Each sphere is surrounded by six voids in two dimensional hexagonal close packed layers.
o o
(C) If the radius of cation and the anion are 0.3 A and 0.4 A respectively, then coordination
number of the cation of crystal is 6.
(D) In AgCl, the silver ion is displaced from its lattice positions to an interstitial positions, such a
defect is called Frankel defect.
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
24. Which of the following is/are correct matched structure and IUPAC name?
(A) O
O
Cl : 2-Carboxyethyl benzoyl chloride
O
(B) O
O
Cl : Ethyl-2-(chloro-carbonyl) benzoate
O
(C)
Br : 5-Bromo-3-(bromomethyl) pent-1-ene
Br
(D)
Br : 1, 4-dibromo-3-ethyl butane
Br
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Match the compounds in List-I with their characteristics in List-II and choose the answer from the
codes given below:
List – I List – II
(I) (P) Reacts with Lindlar’s catalyst
H2 / Pd BaSO 4 .
(II) OH (Q) Trans alkene will form, when reacts
with Na / liq. NH3 .
C C H
(III) (R) Produces hydrogen gas by means of
sodium suspended in n-hexane.
(IV) CH3OH (S) Degree of unsaturation is greater than
two.
H3C
HC C
O
(T) Gives a white precipitate on reaction
with Ag NH3 2 NO3 .
(A) I→P, Q, S; II→P, Q, S, T; III→P,S, T; IV→Q, R, S, T
(B) I→P, Q, S; II→P, R, S, T; III→P, Q, S; IV→P,R, S, T
(C) I→P, Q, S, T; II→Q,R, S, T; III→P, Q, S; IV→Q, S, T
(D) I→P,Q, S; II→P, R, S, T; III→Q, R, S; IV→P, R, S, T
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
26. Match the compounds given in List-I with their corresponding characteristics in List-II and choose
the correct option from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(I) AlCl3 (P) Lewis acid
(II) BCl3 (Q) Forms acidic solution in water
(III) B2H6 (R) Sublimes on heating
(IV) Alum (S) Swells on heating
(T) Empty orbital is involved in hybridisation
(A) I→P, Q; II→P, Q; III→P, Q, T; IV→Q, S
(B) I→P, Q, R; II→P, Q, T; III→P, Q, T; IV→Q, S, T
(C) I→Q,R, T; II→P, Q, T; III→P, Q; IV→Q, S
(D) I→P, Q, R; II→P, Q; III→P, Q, T; IV→Q, S
o
27. Consider the following galvanic cell at 25 C.
Pt s / H2 g | H3 PO4 Na3 PO 4 CH3 COOH | H2 g / Pt s
1 bar 100 mL, 0.2 M 100 mL, 0.1 M 100 mL, 0.1 M 1 bar
For H3 PO4 : K a1 104 , K a2 108 , K a3 1012 at 25 o C
For CH3 COOH : K a 1 10 5 at 25o C
Now, some electrolyte is added in one of the compartment of the given cell in List-I and
corresponding cell potential is given in List – II. Choose the correct option(s) from the codes given
TG ~ @bohring_bot
below:
2.303 RT
[Take 0.06 V, log 2 0.3 ]
F
List – I List – II
(I) If no electrolyte is added in either of the (P) Ecell 0.06 V
compartment of cell, then
(II) If 100 mL, 0.1 M NaOH solution is added (Q) Ecell 0.282 V
in the anode compartment of the original
cell, then
(III) If 50 mL, 0.1 M NaOH solution is added (R) Ecell 0.18 V
in the cathode compartment of original
cell, then
(IV) If 100 mL, 0.1 M HCl solution is added in (S) Ecell 0.078 V
the anode compartment of original cell,
then
(T) Ecell decreases after addition with
respect to its initial value.
(A) I→R; II→Q; III→P, T; IV→S
(B) I→Q; II→R, T; III→P; IV→S, T
(C) I→R; II→Q; III→P, T; IV→S, T
(D) I→P; II→Q, T; III→R, T; IV→S
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
28. Match the reactions given List-I with their corresponding characteristics in List-II and select the
correct option from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(I) Br (P) Major product is formed via E1cb
mechanism
C2 H5 ONa
(II) (Q) Major product is formed via E2 or E2
ONa CH3I mechanism
(III) O Br (R) Reaction proceeds with the formation
KOH alc. of transition state
(IV) (S) Carbanion is formed as intermediate
N(CH3)3
KOH alc.
(T) Major product is formed via SN 2
mechanism
(A) I→Q, R; II→R, T; III→P, S; IV→Q, S
(B) I→Q, R; II→R, T; III→P, S; IV→P,S
(C) I→R, T; II→Q, T; III→P, T; IV→P, S
(D) I→Q, R; II→R, T; III→P, S; IV→Q, R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. Consider the following statements:
(i) There are a maximum of 5 plane of symmetry in a molecule of SF6 .
(ii) Paracetamol gives positive FeCl3 test.
(iii) Asprin is used as an antipyretic as well as analgesic.
(iv) About 60% of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by earth surface, which
increases its temperature.
(v) Methane is one of the gas responsible for global warming.
(vi) SO2 and NO2 are major contributors of acid rain.
(vii) Clean water would have biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) value less than 5 ppm.
(viii) Water sample having nitrate content of 40 ppm is good for drinking purpose.
(ix) Azurite is a mineral of copper metal.
Of the above statements, the ratio of number of correct statements to the number of incorrect
statements is:
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Yash Patil
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30. Helium is contained at 30.2o C in the system as shown in the figure.
Vacuum
a Mercury
B L
Figure
The leveling bulb (L) can be raised so as to fill the lower bulb with mercury and force the gas into
the upper part of the device. The volume of bulb ‘A’ to the mark ‘a’ is 100.5 cm3 and volume of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
bulb ‘B’ between the marks ‘a’ and ‘b’ is 110 cm 3. The pressure exerted by helium is measured by
the difference between the mercury levels in the device and in evacuated arm of the manometer.
When mercury level is at ‘b’, the pressure is 20.14 mm Hg. If the mass of helium in the container
be x 10 4 g (scientific notation) R 0.082 L atm mol1 K 1 , then the value of ‘x’ is……
31. Two moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K are compressed at constant temperature by use of
constant pressure of 5 bar. If the compression is driven by a 100 kg mass, how far (in ‘metres’)
will it fall in the earth’s gravitational field? g 10 m / s2 .
32. The iodine content of a solution was determined by titration with cerium (IV) sulphate in the
presence of HCl, in which I is converted to ICl. A 200 mL sample of the solution required 15 mL
of 0.05 N Ce 4 solution, calculate the iodine concentration in original solution in g/L?
33. Ratio of the total number of isomers of Benzene hexachloride to that of K Co NH3 2 F 2 Cl 2
is:
34. Consider the following reactions
P4 S10 H2 O X Y
Containing sulphur
PCl
5
Z
Let, the sum of all atoms in one molecule each of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ be x, and total number of atoms in a
x
molecule (Z) = y, then calculate the value of
y
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35. Let, the maximum number of electrons present in palladium atom (Z = 46) satisfying the condition
m 0 be ‘x’ and the total number of plane of symmetry in *2pz orbital be ‘y’, then the value
x
of will be……
y
36. Ratio of the total number of triangular faces to that of octagonal faces in a truncated solid cube is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 16
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s)?
(A) The number of ways of arranging 5 boys and 5 girls in a queue if infront of each girl number
k
of girls are more than or equal to the number of boys is k, then is 42
5! 2
n n zj
(B) Let z1, z2, ..... zn be complex number such that |z1| = |z2| = ..... = |zn| and Re 0 if
j 1 k 1 zk
n
and only if z
k 1
k 0
(C) The number of ways of arranging 5 boys and 5 girls in a queue if infront of each girl number
k
of girls are more than or equal to the number of boys is k, then is 45
5! 2
(D) Let a, b, c, x, y, z > 0 and ax + by + cz < d, then maximum value of xyz (d – ax – by – cz) is
d4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4
4 abc
n
1 1
38. Let Sn t r where t1 = 1 and tr 0, n N. If Sn t n , then
r 1 2 tn
(Where [.] represents greatest integer function)
1
(A) S100 = 10 (B) lim Sn t n
n 2
100 1
(C) 18 (D) lim Sn t n 1
n 1 Sn n
10 10
Cr
39.
r 0
30
C10 r
is equal to
10 10
1 10 r 20 r 1 10 r 20 r
(A) 30
C20 20 C10
r 0
Cr C10 (B) 30
C20 20 C10
r 0
Cr C10
31 40
C10 C10
(C) 30
(D)
C20 20 C10 30
C20 20 C10
ln 3 x 2 x 2m sin x 2
40. Let f x lim , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
m 1 x 2m
(A) f(x) is discontinuous at two points
(B) There exists such that f() = 1
(C) The equation f(x) = 0 has atleast one root in (1, )
(D) Minimum value of f(x) is equal to (–sin 1)
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
41. Let F(x) be a six degree polynomial with leading coefficient k. If y = F(x) touches, f(x) = x + at x
= 1, 2, and 3, then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
3
32 2 2
(A) If F x f x dx , then k = 2 (B) F(x) – f(x) is divisible by (x – 1) (x – 2)
1 105
3
32
(C) If F x f x dx 105 , then k = 1 (D) F(x) – f(x) is divisible by (x – 2)(x – 3)2
1
42. Consider the 3 planes r n1 a , r n2 b and r n3 c where abc 0, then which of the
following is/are CORRECT?
(A) If the above 3 planes have common line of intersection, then
a n2 n3 b n3 n1 c n1 n2 0
(B) If the above 3 planes have a common line of intersection, then
a n2 n3 b n3 n1 c n1 n2 0
(C) If n1 n2 n3 0 , then the above 3 planes will intersect at a point
(D) If n1, n2 , n3 are non coplanar vectors, then the above 3 planes will intersect at point with
1
position vector = c n1 n2 a n2 n3 b n3 n1
n2 n2 n3
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
1 x 2 ; 1 x 0
43. Let f x 1 x 2 ; 0 x 1 and g(x) is a function such that g(f(x)) = x, x –1 and f(g(x)) =
1 x3 ; x 1
x, x 0, then match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(I) The range of y = g(x) is (P) [–2, )
(II) The domain of y = g(x) is (Q) [–1, )
(III) The range of y = f(f(f(g(x)))) is (R) [0, )
(IV) The domain of y = g(g(g(f(x)))) is (S) [1, )
(T) [2, )
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (Q); (II) (R); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (R); (II) (Q); (III) (T); (IV) (S)
(C) (I) (Q); (II) (R); (III) (S); (IV) (T)
(D) (I) (Q); (II) (T); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 18
44. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
The distance between the point A(–1, –5, –10) and point of
x 2 y 1 z 2 1
(I) intersection of with the plane (P)
3 4 12 3
x + 5y + z + 1 = 0 is
The distance of the point P(–2, 3, –4) from the line
x 2 2y 3 3z 4
(II) measured parallel to the plane (Q) 2
3 4 5
4x + 12y – 3z + 1 = 0 is
In ABC let P and Q be points on AB and BC respectively,
AP 1 CQ 3
such that and . Let R be the point of 13
(III) BP 3 BQ 1 (R)
9
intersection of AQ and CP, then area of ABC is (given area of
BRC is 1 square unit)
x
3
If f x sin t dt , 0 x has local maximum at x = k, then
(IV) x (S) 13
k
is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
17
(T)
2
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (P); (IV) (R)
(B) (I) (S); (II) (R); (III) (T); (IV) (P)
(C) (I) (S); (II) (P); (III) (R); (IV) (T)
(D) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (R); (IV) (P)
45. Let a double differentiable function g(x), satisfies the relation g(x) g(x) = (g(x))2 + g(x) g(x),
g(0) = g(0) = 1, then match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(I) The number of solution of the equation g(x) = ex is (P) 1
(II) lim 3e g x is (Q) 5
x
4 g x 1
(III) lim is (R) 4
x 0 x
(IV) The number of real roots of the equation g(x) = x (S) 3
(T) 0
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (P); (II) (T); (III) (R); (IV) (S)
(B) (I) (P); (II) (S); (III) (R); (IV) (T)
(C) (I) (P); (II) (S); (III) (T); (IV) (R)
(D) (I) (P); (II) (R); (III) (S); (IV) (T)
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Yash Patil 19 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
46. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
x 1
2
(I) Let 2g x x t f t dt and f t dt 3 , then g(1) is (P) 8
0 0
e2
x 1
(II) Let g(x) = e + x + 1, then g1 x dx is (Q)
2 2
Let g: R R be a differentiable function such that
x y g x g y
(III) g x, y R. If g(0) = 1, g(0) = 1, then (R) 4
2 2
area bounded by y = g(x) and co-ordinate axes is
2 2
If the area bounded by |x| 2, |y| 2, 2xy x + y x + y is A,
(IV) 1 (S) 3
then A ln15 is
2 2
3
(T)
2
The correct option is:
(A) (I) (S); (II) (Q); (III) (P); (IV) (T)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (P); (IV) (Q)
(C) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (Q); (IV) (P)
(D) (I) (S); (II) (T); (III) (Q); (IV) (R)
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
47. The number of polynomials P(x) with integral coefficient such that P(a) = b, P(b) = c and P(c) = a
is (Where a, b and c are distinct integers)
48. Let a tangent to the parabola with focus S(1, 2), is x + y = 1 at A. If tangent intersects directrix
and tangent at vertex at B and C respectively, then the value of AC·BC is equal to
2 2 2 2
49. Let AB and CD be the direct common tangents to x + y = 4 and (x – 3) + (y – 4) = 9. Let both
the circles intersect at the point P. Let the Circumradius of the CPD be r, then [r] is
(Where [.] represents greatest integer function)
x2 1
50. The variable chords of the ellipse y2 1 which subtends right angle at 2, pass
4 2
1 p
through a fixed point P, the length of the tangent drawn from P to x 2 y 2 is , then p + q
4 q
is equal to
(Where HCF of (p, q) is 1)
8
cosk sin9
51. The value of 1 k
for = 30 is p, then 8
is equal to
k 1 cos
p sin cos
6 6
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 20
1
52. Let P and Q be invertible matrices of order 3 3 with real entries such that P1 Q 1 P Q .
If |P| = 5, then |Q| is equal to
53. Two persons A and B fire at the target. A fires 9 times and B fires 10 times. If probability of their
1
success is , then the probability that number of successful hit of B is more than that of A is
2
45
54. Let N sin 2r 1 , then 2 245 N is equal to
r 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 05-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. A particle is projected from the foot of smooth, fixed inclined plane, which
is at an angle of 37 from horizontal. After its elastic collision with the u
plane it moves in vertical direction. Its initial velocity is u 388 m/s. (g =
2
10 m/s ) 37
(A) The time after which particle returns to its initial position is 6s
(B) The time after which particle returns to its initial position is 4s
3
(C) The angle of initial velocity with incline plane is tan1
4
5
(D) The angle of initial velocity with incline plane is tan1
9
2. Below shown is heat insulating piston cylinder arrangement having ideal E
gas of adiabatic exponent enclosed. A point charge q having negligible P0
q
mass is attached to centre of freely movable piston of mass M. The
TG ~ @bohring_bot
system is kept in uniform electric field E as shown. Atmospheric
pressure is P0 and when the piston is in equilibrium volume is V0. On
disturbing the piston from equilibrium position (Assume system to have
cross-sectional area as A)
M V0
(A) The system executes S.H.M. with time period T= 2
qE Mg
P0 A 2
A
(B) The system does not executes S.H.M.
(C) The system will not execute S.H.M. if magnitude of charge is increased.
M V0
(D) The system executes S.H.M. with time period T= 2
P0 A 2
3. In the shown figure, A thin rod AB of length is placed on smooth
inclined plane having angle 30 with horizontal. It is hinged at end A
such that it is free to move parallel to the plane. Its linear mass A
dm 30
density increases linearly as x , where x is distance from end
dx
B
A. It is slightly displaced from its equilibrium position then it
oscillates about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to
inclined plane. The time period of oscillations is
3 3
(A) 2 (B) 2
2g 4g
2
(C) 2 (D) 2
3g 2g
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4. A uniform non-conducting sphere of mass m, radius R is placed on rough
horizontal surface. Uniform horizontal magnetic field is present in circular
region co-centric with centre of the sphere. Sphere is uniformly charged R
with total charge Q on its surface. Magnetic field is suddenly switched off.
The sphere starts moving on the surface and finally it starts pure rolling with
velocity.
QBR QBR
(A) (B)
m 6m
5QBR QBR
(C) (D)
21m 2m
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. In the shown figure a spool of mass 10 kg of outer and inner F
radius R=2m and r=1m respectively , moment of inertia about
its axis 10 kg-m2 is placed on rough inclined surface where R
coefficient of friction is = 0.5. A block of mass 4 kg is attached r = 0.5
with a string which is wrapped on the spool. Force F = 106 N is
applied up the inclined plane as shown in the figure. The correct
statements are (no slipping between spool and string) [take g = 37
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10 m/s2]
(A) Acceleration spool is 2 m/s2 down the plane
(B) Acceleration spool is 2 m/s2 up the plane
(C) Acceleration of the block is 1 m/s2 up the plane
(D) Acceleration of the block is 1 m/s2 down the plane
6. Hexagonal prism wire frame is made in which 6 sources of equal E E
I
emf = 5V with equal internal resistance r = 1. Six equal
resistance each equal to R = 2 and four capacitors of capacitance
as shown in the figure. Value of capacitance C = 2F then the E
E E
correct statement(s) is/are
(A) Value of current I = 6A R R R R
(B) Value of current I = 5A
4C
(C) Value of charge on capacitor 4C = 16c 4C
(D) The value of charge on capacitor C = 0 E
R R
2C 2C
C
7. A right circular cone of height H R 3 is glued with hemisphere
of radius R. Both are made from same material of uniform C
density. The object made is rolled on rough horizontal surface H
such that speed of centre of hemisphere is v 0. The correct R
statements are
(A) The ratio of time period of top about cones axis to the vertical axis is 2 : 3
(B) The ratio of time period of top about cones axis to the vertical axis is 1 : 2
2
5 mv 0
(C) The frictional force acting on this top is where m is mass of the top.
2 R
2
2 mv 0
(D) The frictional force acting on this top is , where m is mass of the top.
3 R
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Yash Patil
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8. A disc of radius R = 20 cm and mass m is lying (in X-Y plane) on smooth v0
horizontal surface. A particle of mass m moving with velocity
R
v 0 (5iˆ 10ˆj) m/s collides with the disc at a distance from centre of the
2
R/2
disc. The coefficient of restitution e = 1 and coefficient of friction between
particle and disc is = 0.2. Assume slipping during collision and the vertical R
plane in which particle is moving is at distance R/2 from centre of disc. The
correct statements are (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Angular velocity of disc after collision is 20 rad/s
(B) Linear velocity of the centre of disc is 4 m/s
20
(C) The ratio of time of flight of particle after collision and time period of disc is
(D) The ratio of time of flight of particle after collision to time period of disc is
20
1 C
9. In the shown figure a block of mass m = kg is 37 P m
2
suspended in equilibrium with the help of ideal string and =0
two ideal spring of force constant k = 100 N/m. Now string k
AP is cut. Pullies are massless, frictionless, AP is vertical
and other spring is horizontal. Just after cutting the string A
(g = 10 m/s2)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
B k
(A) Tension in string BC is 3N
37
(B) Tension in string BC is N
7
32
(C) Acceleration of the suspended block is m/s2.
7
(D) Acceleration of the suspended block is 8 m/s2.
10. In the shown figure a block of mass 10 kg is placed on smooth
horizontal surface. It has smooth hemispherical surface of
h = 4m
radius R = 2m. A particle of mass 5 kg is released from rest
from height of 4m above point A, such that it smoothly lands
on spherical surface at point A. Neglect air drag .The correct B R=2m A
option(s) are (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Particle will move up from end B upto height 4m
(B) Particle will move up from end B upto height less then 4m
(C) maximum vertical acceleration of the particle is 90 m/s2
(D) maximum vertical acceleration of particle is 40 m/s2
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. A block B of mass MB kg placed on rough horizontal surface is B
e
connected with block A with the help of string (ideal). The string
passes over fixed horizontal cylinder. The coefficient of friction
between block B and ground as well as between string and cylinder
7 A
is . Find the minimum mass of block A in kg so that block B
11
22
starts sliding. (Take value of and e = 2.72)
7
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. A sphere of mass 1.8 kg and radius 40 cm is radially pierced by a
massless stick up to its centre. Length of stick is 2m. The free
= 5rad/s
end of stick is pivoted on smooth ground and sphere is given
velocity so that it slides on the ground such that its centre moves
in a circle around pivot with angular velocity = 5 rad/s. The
normal force acting on sphere due to ground in newton is 9P.
2
Find the value of P. (g = 10 m/s )
13. Two spherical conductors A and B of radius 9m and 18m respectively S
are placed at large distance. They are connected to each other through
a cell of emf = 300 volt as shown in the figure. Initially they are A B
chargeless. The loss of electric energy when switch is ON is 10P J.
The value of P is
4 A
14. A wave y 10 sin 200t x (where x and y are in cm and t is B
100
in second) is travelling in string in which tension is 100 N. The = 25 cm
wave is reflected from a fixed support and stationary wave is
produced. Assuming no loss of energy due to reflection and air
drag, the energy in 25 cm length of string is k2 Joules. Find the
value of k.
15. Object O is placed at a distance of 14 cm from an equi-
TG ~ @bohring_bot 3 O
convex lens of refractive index and radius of curvature
2
of lens surface is 32 cm. One of its surface is silvered another
convex lens of focal length 24 cm is placed between object 14 cm
and silvered lens such that the final image coincides with the
object. The distance between object and the lens in cm is
…………..
16. In the shown figure two uncharged capacitors each of equal C
S
capacitance C = 2mF are connect to cell of emf 28V. The
circuit was in this state from long time. Now switch S is
closed with inductor with inductance L = 16mH. The L
maximum current in inductor in ampere will be = 28V C
17. In the figure two identical voltmeter having their reading V1 = 15 R R
V and V2 = 10V. The reading of ideal ammeter is I = 3A. All the
five resistance have equal resistance R. The value of R is is V2
V1 R
A
R R
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18. A conducting solid sphere of radius r = 2 cm is surrounding by a
conducting shell which is made up of fine wire mesh with radius R B
= 4 cm are shown in the figure. The shell and sphere are joined
by a capacitor of capacitance C = 2F. Work function of the R
material of shell A and B is 1eV and 4eV respectively. Light falls r c
on this system have frequency = 7.27 1014 Hz. The energy
stored in the capacitor C in steady condition (in J) is
A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19.
In a AB x L y sp3 d hybridisation of ' A ' have linear shape. What will be the shape of molecule if
‘A’ forms AB y L x type molecule?
(B = Bond pair of electron, L = Lone pair of electrons and A = Central atom).
(A) T-shape (B) See – saw
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal (D) Linear
20. If only gases remain after 12 g carbon is treated with 49.26 litre of air at 300 K and 2 atm
pressure (Assume 20% by volume of O2, 79% by volume of N2 and 1% by volume of CO2 is
present in air). Total amount of heat released in this reaction is…….
H f for CO and CO2 are 26 kcal mol1 and 94 kcal mol1
(No reactants are left unreacted after the reaction)
(A) 96.8 kcal (B) 66.8 kcal
(C) 23.4 kcal (D) 33.4 kcal
21.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Which of the following is correct graph for the reaction given below (where ‘a’ represents initial
conc. of reactant and t1/2 represents its half-life time) [Assume the rate constant of the reaction to
be greater than unity]
Pt 1
N2 O g
N2 g O 2 g
2
(A)
45o
log a
log t 1
2
(B)
40o
log a
log t 1
2
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
(C)
30o
log a
log t 1
2
(D)
log a
22.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
log t 1
2
Fructose has a specific rotation of 92.4o . An aqueous solution of fructose has an observed
angle of rotation of 27.7o when placed in a polarimeter tube 10 cm long. How much amount
of fructose is dissolved in 100 ml of aqueous solution?
(A) 0.299 g (B) 3.33 g
(C) 2.99 g (D) 29.97 g
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MOER THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. A metal sulphide crystallizes with cubic close packed array of S2 ions. Cations are
th
1
Zn2 and Al3 ions. Only half of the octahedral voids and of the tetrahedral voids are
8
occupied by cations. The correct conclusion regarding this solid is/are:
(A) Empirical formula of the solid is ZnAl2 S4 .
(B) Empirical formula of the solid is Zn5 Al2 S8 .
(C) Co-ordination number of Zn2 ions is 4.
(D) Co-ordination number of Al3 ions is 6.
24.
A solution is 0.01 M in NH4 2 SO4 and 0.02 M in NH4 OH K b 2 10 5 . Which of the following
is/are true about this solution?
(A) The solution has buffer property.
(B) pH of this solution is (9 + 2 log2)
(C) pH of this solution is (9 + log2)
(D) Adding water to this solution increases pH.
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25. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct regarding XeF6 ?
(A) It acts as Lewis acid when it reacts with RbF.
(B) It undergoes complete hydrolysis to give XeO3 .
(C) It fluorinates silica SiO2 to give XeOF4 .
(D) When it reacts with HCl, gives HF, XeCl2 and F2.
O
I dil. H2SO 4 /HgSO 4 I conc. H2SO 4 I dil. KOH
26. C6 H10
ii NaBH4 /ethanol
Q
ii O3
2 R
H3C C CH C CH3
P iii dil. HCl iii Zn/H2O
CH3
Which of the following is/are NOT the possible structure of (P)?
(A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 C C H
(B) CH3 CH2 C C CH2 CH3
(C) H3C
H C C C CH3
H3C
(D) H3C
H3C C C C H
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H3C
27. For the reaction:
A B
The rate expression is given below:
2 A
rate
3 A
Where [A] is the concentration (mol/L) of reactant left at any time ‘t (in minutes)’ and A o
represents initial concentration of the reactant ‘A’ n2 0.7
Now, identify the correct statement(s) regarding the above reaction:
(A) Plot of half-life time (Y-axis) versus A o (X-axis) is a straight line with slope 0.25 and
intercept 1.05 on Y-axis.
(B) If initial concentration of A is 8 M, then it takes 5.1 minutes to reduce its concentration to 2 M.
(C) The reaction follows first order kinetics if concentration of ‘A’ is very small as compared to 3.
(D) If concentration of A is much greater than 3, then the plot of t1/2 (Y-axis) versus A o
(X-axis) is a straight line passing through origin.
28. Cyclohexene on heating with conc. H2 SO 4 gives a major product (A) and a minor product (B)
having greater number of hydrogen atoms as compared to the other minor product B . (A)
on reductive ozonolysis gives (C) while (B) on reductive ozonolysis gives (D). (C) on heating with
dil. KOH gives (E) while (D) on heating with dil. Alkali gives (F).
Now, choose the correct option(s) from the following:
(A) (E) on reductive ozonolysis gives (C) and new product which on heating with conc. NaOH
followed by acidification gives hydroxy cyclopentanecarboxylic acid.
(B) Degree of unsaturation of (F) is 4.
(C) Ratio of degree of unsaturation of (D) to that of (C) is 1.5.
(D) (F) consists of two rings and both rings are of same size.
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Yash Patil 10
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. If total number of plane of symmetry in a molecule of TEREPHTHALIC ACID be ‘x’ and total
number of elements of symmetry (excluding axis of symmetry) in a molecule of
MESO-2,3-dichlorocyclobutane be ‘y’ and total number of stereocentres in pent-3-en-2-ol be ‘z’,
then the value of (x + y + z) will be……….
30. Consider the following set of reactions:
n
(i) Ag2 S NaCN Ag CN x
n
H O
(ii) 2
Au NaCN O2 Au CN y
n Zn m
(iii) Ag CN Ag Zn CN z
x
n m
Au CN Zn
(iv) Au Zn CN z
y
(Where m, n, x, y and z, all are positive integers.)
What is the value of (x + y + z – 2n + m)?
31. ‘P’ gram of urea is dissolved in 500 g of water. If the difference in boiling point and freezing point
of the solution is 100.46 K, then what is the value of (P)?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
[For water, K b 0.5 K kg mol1 and K f 1.8 K kg mol1 ]
32. How many of the following molecules have locant-2 for bromine atom [Locant = Figure to indicate
the position of bromine atom] as per IUPAC nomenclature?
CHO CHO Br Br CHO
Br Br CHO CHO Br CHO
Br
I II III IV V VI
33. How many of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Sodium amalgam is better reducing agent than hydrogen.
(ii) Sodium carbonate can be decomposed to its oxides on gentle heating.
(iii) On adding excess of NaOH to salt solution of ZnCl2 , soluble product is formed.
(iv) Copper sulphate on treatment aq. Na2 CO3 solution gives basic copper carbonate.
(v) In case of alkali metals, for performing flame test, chlorides are preferred over
carbonates.
34. Volume strength of H2 O2 solution is 22.4. 5 mL of this H2 O2 solution is just sufficient to react
with 0.40 gm impure sample of H2 S . If the mass % of pure H2 S in the impure sample is 17x,
then find the value of ‘x’. [Assume impurities are inert]
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
35. in how many of the following reactions ‘BORON’ is formed?
red hot
(i) NH4 Cl Na2 B4 O7 ?
o NaBH
140 C
(ii) BCl3 NH4 Cl ?
4
?
(iii) KBF4 K ?
(iv) B 2 O3 Cr2 SO4 3 ?
3 2CH NH
(v) B2H6 ?
CH
3 3 N
(vi) B 2H6 ?
36. 6.0 g of He4 having average velocity 4 102 m / s is mixed with 12 g of Ne20 having same
average velocity. If the average kinetic energy per mole of the mixture is ‘x’ kJ, then find the value
of 10x?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
37. Consider the 12 face diagonals of a cube. If two diagonals are selected at random, then the
probability that they are skew lines is
3 6
(A) (B)
11 11
1 5
(C) (D)
2 11
38. A new sequence is obtained from the sequence of the positive integers 1, 2, 3, ..... by deleting all
the perfect squares. Then the 2023rd term of the new sequence is
(A) 2066 (B) 2067
(C) 2068 (D) 2069
5 2
39. Let x , . Then the maximum value of y tan x tan x cos x is
12 3 3 6 6
12 2 11 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) (B)
5 6
11 3 11 3
(C) (D)
6 5
40. If x a yb zc , where a, b, c are unequal positive numbers and x, y, z are in Geometric
Progression, then a3 + c3 is
(A) > 2b3 (B) > 2c3
3
(C) < 2b (D) < 2c3
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
41. Let A, B and C be the points (4, 1), (–1, –6) and (–3, 2) respectively. The point (x, y) in inside
triangle ABC or on its perimeter, then
(A) maximum value of 4x – 3y is 14 (B) maximum value of 4x – 3y is 18
(C) minimum value of 4x – 3y is –14 (D) minimum value of 4x – 3y is –18
42. A variable point z1 in the complex plane moves according to the equation |z1 – z0| = |z1|, where z0
is a fixed point (z0 0). A second variable point z moves according to the equation z1z = –1. Then
the locus of point z is
1 1
(A) a circle with centre (B) a circle with centre
z0 z0
1 2
(C) a circle with radius (D) a circle with radius
z0 z0
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43. Let 4x – y = 0 and y = 0 be two lines and C(6, 4) be a point in the xy plane. A variable line through
C intersect the given lines at A and B respectively. P be the point of intersection of the given
lines, then
3
(A) if area of PAB is minimum, then A is , 6
2
(B) if area of PAB is minimum, then A is (2, 8)
15
(C) if PA + PB is minimum, then B is , 0
2
(D) if PA + PB is minimum, then B is (10, 0)
1
44. The solution set of the inequality log2 x 1 log 1 x 3 2 0 may be
2 2
(A) [2, 3) (B) (2, 3]
(C) [2, 4) (D) (2, 4]
45. Let f : z R be defined as f(x + 2) = f(x) + 2(x + 1) if x is even and f(x + 2) = f(x) + 1 if x is odd
and f(1) = 1, f(2) = 5, then
(A) f(6) = f(41) (B) f(7) < f(8)
(C) f(x) is increasing (D) f(10) + f(11) = 59
46. Consider the equation 3 cot2 x + cot x + 3 = 0, x (0, 2) – {}. Which of the following options
is/are CORRECT?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) Sum of the solutions of the equation = 3 if = 7
(B) Sum of the solutions of the equation = 3 if = –8
(C) Sum of the solutions of the equation = 5 if = 9
(D) Sum of the solutions of the equation = 5 if = –10
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
47. The number of real solution of the equation x 2024 11 x 2 x 4 ..... x 2022 2024x 2023 is
48. The complex numbers z1 and z2 satisfy z1 z1 z2 3 and z1 z2 3 3 . If the value of
2023 2023
log3 z1z2 z1z2 is 578k, then the value of k is
49. The maximum value of f x x 4 3x 2 6x 13 x 4 x 2 1 is k, then [k] is
(where [.] represents greatest integer function)
x2 y2
50. Let P be any point on the hyperbola 1 . If F1 and F2 be the foci of the hyperbola and I be
9 4
the in-centre of the PF1F2. If locus of I is y2 + 2x + = 0, then the value of | + | is equal to
2 2 2
51. Let a, b, c be three vectors such that a 1, b 2, and c 4 . If a b b c c a 62 ,
then the value of 2a 3b 4c is equal to
1 1
52. Let f x ln 1 t 2 dt , x (0, 1) and f x dx , then the value of 4 + 5 is equal to
x 0
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53. Let tangent at (1, 1) on the curve y = x 4 – 2x2 – x touch the curve again at (2, 2), then the
value of 1 2 1 2 is equal to
x 1 y 2 z 3
54. Let A and C be two points on the line and B & D be two point on the line
3 2 1
x 2 y 1 z 2
such that AB is perpendicular to both the given lines and the length of CD is
5 2 3
3 3 . If V is the maximum volume of the tetrahedron ABCD, then [V] is equal to
(where [.] represents greatest integer function)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 05-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. B, D
2k P
Sol. E
r
V r
r r
0
dV Edr
r0
R
+
V 2k(nr nr0 ) O x = +a
x = a
V 2kn(r) C
r
VP V V 2kn(r ) 2kn(r ) 2kn
r
r (x a)iˆ yjˆ
r (x a)iˆ yjˆ
(x a)2 y 2
VP 2kn
(x a)2 y 2
for vP ln2
40
(n a)2 y 2
2
(x a)2 y2
(x a)2 y 2 2(x a)2 2y 2
(x 3a)2 y 2 8a2
Equipotential surface is cylinder with radius 2 2a
2. A, C
Sol. For oscillation to occur it must be in the stable equilibrium i.e. centre of mass of the system must
be below the centre of hemisphere.
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3. A, C, D
320
Sol. 1000 1 = 8 cm
41
3 320
1000 2 = 24 cm
4 2
dh dh a
A
dv
2 2gh
h A
2g dt
4. B, D
Sol. Charge flown through S1 is Q + 3Q = 12 mC (Q+q) (Q+q) (+3Qq)
(Q q) (3Q q)2d
0 d 0 d 2d
0 A 0 A
By solving q = 15 mC
1 2 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
=1V
5. A, C, D
Sol. Conserve angular momentum about O. 2mv 02 = I /2
O
40m 2
Where I
3 r
3v C
0
10
2
2
r
4 2
5
r
2
5 3v 3
v c rc 0 v0
2 10 2 10
1 3
K.E. = I2 mv 20
2 5
6. A, B, C, D
Sol. Torque along vertical axis is zero
7. B
3H
Sol. (I) PN P0 g
2
H
PN P0 3g
2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(II) V 2g(2H) 2 gH
H 1
P0 gH PN g (4gH)
2 2
gH gH
PN P0 gH 2gH
2 2
2
1 2H
(III) PN P0 gh
2 2
1 2 2
PN P0 gH H
8
2H 2g
5
PN P0 gH
4
(IV) PN P0 (gcos60)2H
TG ~ @bohring_bot
PN P0 gH
8. B
4
Sol. (I) vI 3 4
3
vr 4 3 1 m/s
2
dv v du
(II)
dt u dt
vI 1 m/s and vr 10 m/s
(III) vI,m 4
vI, g = 7 vr = 8 m/s
(IV) final image is at the position of object hence magnification is 1
vI = v0 = 1m/s
vr = 0
9. C
Sol. (I)
Q Tds = Area between T-s diagram = 700 J
3 5
(II) Q = n R Tf Ti n R(Tf Ti )
2 2
3 5
(nRTf nRTi ) (nRTf nRTi )
2 2
3 5
(500 100) (1000 500) 1850 J
2 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
T
(III) Process is T = 100 V constant i.e. pressure = constant
V
5
Q = nCPT = 2 R(300 100) 1000R
2
(IV) A B is V = constant and B C, P = constant
3 5 5
Q = n R(TB TA ) n R(TC TB ) (1000 500) (500 1000)
2 2 3
10. D
R 2 3g
Sol. (I) mg mR2
2 3 4R
4R
T 2
3g
2R
(II) maR = mg
R
2g ma 2R/
a
mg
4R2
mgeff R2 sin 2mR2
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4
geff a2 g2 g 1
2
g 4 2R
1 2 T 2
2R 4
g 1 2
(III) P IP O
d
mgdsin = IP
3R 13 N mg
d , IP mR2
8 20
P fS
mgd
IP
IP 26R
T 2 T 2
mgd 15g
gsin
(IV) a
I r
1 C 2 R
mR
5g 5g x g
a x
7 7 r R 7R
7R
T 2
g
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B
11. 0.68
MR2 I0
Sol. I1 MR2 …(i)
4 I2
2
4R
I2 Icm M R …(ii)
3
cm O
2
4R R
I0 Icm M
3
MR4 Icm
I0
4
Solving the equations
I2 I1
0.68
I1
12. 0.01
h
Sol. Fn
and F = mg
TG ~ @bohring_bot
hc
Power P = n
P
mg
c
P = mgc
dm 2
Also, P c
dt
dm mg
0.01 kg/s
dt c
13. 19.11
Sol. mv0 cos 2mv C
v 0 cos
vC
2
Conservation of angular momentum
m 2 m 2 m 2
mv0 cos
4 16 12 16
6v cos
0
5
3v 2 sin2
= t and N= 0
2 10g
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
14. 3.14
Sol. f S = ma
N = mg
0 = 0 N
Nx fS 0 fS
x fS x
mgx
fs
g mg N
a x
Time = sec
g
15. 1.19
Sol. 2 4k 2 1 k p cos 60 2 17k 0 cos
2 1 k P sin60 2 17 k 0 sin
Solving k0 = 0.71 MeV
Q = (k kP k0) = 1.19 MeV
16. 0.80
Range ( 0.79 to 0.82)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. For rotation equilibrium net torque is zero
NIAB + 4g 5 102 + (100x) 2.5 102 = 0
x = 0.8 m
17. 0.75
Sol. Minimum speed of sphere w.r.t. block at highest point is v min=5m/s.
Conservation of momentum
1v 0 = (1+4)v = 5v1 + 5(v15)
Conservation of energy
1 1 1
5v 2 5g(2 2.5) 5v12 5(v1 5)2
2 2 2
18. 0.75
Sol. Velocity of pendulum before collision
v 0 2g cos30 6 m/s
Ft = mv0
Ft cos 30 = mv Ft
v
3 v 3 30
mv0 mv v 0
2 2 Ft
3
v
2 3
e
v0 4
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. A, D
Sol. H3C H3C H3C
CH3 CH3 CH3
H
H
HO O
H3C H
H3C H3C
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 CH2 CH3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3
CH3 CH3 H3C
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 H
CH3 Option A
CH3 CH3
H
H3C
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 Option D
CH3 CH3
H
H3C
CH3
20. A, B, C, D
Sol. The driving force behind these reactions (A and B) is the formation of LiCl or LiBr (very large
lattice energy and insoluble in organic solvents in which the reaction is performed)
Benzene is more acidic than C2H6 , so the reaction (C) can occur.
Li3 N converts into amides and hydrides by reaction with hydrogen.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
21. B, D
Sol. BeO Ba OH 2 Ba Be OH4
Amphoteric oxide Baryta water
basic
22. A, B, C
Sol. keto acids, gem-dioic acids and , unsaturated acids decarboxylates on simple heating.
(D) is however a keto acid but in transition state, there will be a double bond at bridge head
position which is not stable. So, (D) will not decarboxylate on heating.
23. B, D
Sol. (A) Second nearest neighbours of Cs are 6 and not 8 (in CsCl crystal).
(B)
There are 6 triangular voids around a sphere in two dimensional hcp layer.
(C) r 0.3
0.75 which indicates that cations are present in cubic void of a simple cubic unit
r 0.4
cell, so its coordination number is 8 and not 6.
24.
(D)
B, C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Definition of Frenkel defect.
Sol. C Cl has less priority than ester, so, (A) is wrong but (B) is correct.
O
Double bond has more priority than ‘Br’.
25. B
Sol. (I) Ph Ph
4
Ph C C Ph
Pd BaSO C C
H 2
H H
D 10
Ph H
Na
liq. NH3
C C
H Ph
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(II) OH
Pd BaSO 4
H2
CH CH2
OH ONa
Na
H2
C C H n hexane
C CNa
D 3
OH
AgNH3
2
C C Ag
White precipitate
(III)
Pd BaSO
4
H
C C CH2 CH3
2
H H
C C CH2 CH3
D 6 Ph H
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Na
liq. NH3
C C
H Et
(IV) CH3OH
H3C
CH3OH
Pd BaSO
4
H
2
H2C O
H3C
HC C H3C CH3ONa
O
Na
D 6
n hexane
O
NaC C
26. D
3 2
Sol. AlCl3 H2 O Al H2 O 6 Al H2 O 5 OH H
BCl3 3H2 O H3 BO3 3HCl
B 2H6 H2 O H3 BO3 H2
Acid
Alums contains Al3 or Cr 3 or Fe3 ions whose aqueous solution is strongly acidic.
Also, in B2H6 , there is 3c-2e bond formation in which vacant 2p-orbital of ‘B’ is also involved in
sp3-hybridisation.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
27. C
Sol. Pt s / H2 g | H3 PO4 Na3 PO 4 CH3 COOH | H2 g / Pt s
1 bar 100 mL, 0.2 M 100 mL, 0.1 M 100 mL, 0.1 M 1 bar
From Nernst Equation
H
a
Ecell 0.06 log
H
c
or Ecell pHa pHc 0.06 … (1)
H3 PO4 PO34 H2 PO4 HPO42
(I)
20 10 0 0
10 0 10 10
Again,
H3 PO4 HPO42 2H2PO 4
10 10 10
0 0 30
pK a1 pK a2
48
pHa 6
2 2
Also, at cathode
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3 COOH CH3 COO H
Ka 105
102 , H 103
c
C 0.1
pHc 3
Ecell 0.06 6 3 0.18 V
(II) If 100 mL, 0.1 M NaOH is added in anode compartments
H3 PO4 , PO34 , NaOH
20 m.mol 10 m.mol 10 m.mol
H3 PO4 OH H2PO 4 H2 O
20 10 0
10 0 10
Also,
H3 PO4 PO34 H2 PO4 HPO42
10 10 10 0
0 0 20 10
So, it is a buffer.
HPO24 10
pHa pK a2 log
2
8 log
H2PO 4 20
pHa 7.7
Ecell 0.06 7.7 3 0.282 V
(III) 50 mL, 0.1 M NaOH is added in cathode compartment
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
CH3 COOH OH CH3 COO H2 O
10 5 0
5 0 5
P it is also a buffer.
5
pHc 5 log 5
5
Ecell 0.06 6 5 0.06 V
(IV) 100 mL, 0.1 M HCl is added in anode compartment
PO34 H HPO24
10 10 0
0 0 10
H3 PO4 HPO24 2H2PO 4
20 10 0
10 0 20
pHa 4 log 2 4.3
Ecell 0.06 4.3 3 0.06 1.3 0.078 V
28.
Sol.
D
(I) TG ~ @bohring_bot
Br
2 5C H ONa
E 2
(II)
ONa CH3 I
S 2
O CH3 NaI
N
(III) O Br
KOH alc.
O
KBr H2 O
E1cb
(IV)
N(CH3)3
KOH alc.
NMe3 H2 O
E2
Section – B
29. 3.50
Sol. Except statements (i) and (iv), all other statements are correct.
(i) SF6 molecule has a maximum of 9 planes of symmetry (and not 5).
(iv) About 75% (and not 60%) of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by earth
surface which increases its temperature.
30. 8.97
[Range :8.96 – 8.98]
Sol. PV = nRT
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
W
PV He R T
4
20.14 110 100.5 WHe
0.082 273 30.2
760 1000 4
WHe 8.97 10 4 g x 10 4 g
x 8.97
31. 19.82
[Range : 19.81 – 19.83]
Sol. W P2 V2 V1
nRT nRT
P2
P2 P1
P
nRT 1 2
P1
5
2 8.314 298 1
1
W 19820.576 J
Now, W mgh
TG ~ @bohring_bot
W
h
mg
19820.576
h 19.82 'm '
100 10
32. 0.24
[Range : 0.23 – 0.25]
Sol. meq. of iodine in 200 mL solution = meq. of Ce 4 15 0.05
= 0.75
0.75
Normality of iodine
200
127
Eq. weight of I
2
0.75 127
Iodide ion concentration = 0.238 g/L
200 2
33. 1.50
Sol. Total number of isomers of B.H.C. = 9
Total number of isomers of K Co NH3 2 F 2 Cl 2 = 6
34. 2.20
Sol. X H3 PO4 , Y H2 S, Z PSCl3
x 8 3 11
y5
x 11
2.20 P4 S10 16H2 O 4H3 PO4 10H2 S
y 5 X Y
P4 S10 6PCl5 10PSCl3
Z
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
35. 9.33
[Range : 9.33 – 9.34]
Sol. Pd 46 : 1s2 2s 2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 5s0
4 4 8 4 8
So, x = 28
y=3
36. 1.33
[1.33 – 1.34]
Sol. Number of triangular faces in truncated cube = 8
Number of octagonal faces in truncated cube = 6
Each corner of the cube will become a triangular face and each square face will become an
octahedral face in a truncated solid cube.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A, B, D
Sol. Apply AM GM
d – ax – by – cz > 0
ax, by, cz, d – ax – by – cz
Apply AM GM
38. A, B, C
Sol. Sn2 Sn21 1 Sn n
39. B, C
10 10 10
Cr 1 10
Sol. 30
30 10 r
Cr 20 r
C10 = coefficient of x is (1 – x)–22
r 0 C10 r C20 20 C10 r 0
40. A, B, C
sin x 2 ; x 1
ln 4 sin1 ; x 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
Sol. f x ln 3 x 2
; 1 x 1
ln 4 sin1
; x 1
2
sin x
2
; x 1
41. A, B, D
Sol. F(x) – f(x) = k(x – 1)2(x – 2)2(x – 3)2
42. A, C, D
Sol. The plane r n1 a r n2 b 0 is identical with r n3 c
43. A
Sol. Domain of g(x) is [0, ) and range of g(x) is [–1, )
44. D
Sol. (I) The point of intersection is (2, –1, 2)
x 2 2y 3 3z 4
(II) Line drawn from P intersects the line measured parallel to the plane
3 4 5
5
4x + 12y – 3z + 1 = 0 at 4, , 2
2
AR 4
(III)
RQ 9
5
(IV) f x sin x sin x 0 x or at x local maxima exists
3 3 6 3
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
45. B
d g x g x 1 ex
Sol. g x e
dx g x g x e
46. C
Sol. (I) Expand the square
1 g1
(II) g x dx g
1
x dx 1 g 1 0 g 0
0 g0
1 e 2
e x 1 dx
x
g1 x dx e 2 1 0 2
0 2
e2 1
x2 1 1 3
g1 x dx e 2 e x x = e 2 e 1 e0 = e 2 e =
2 2 0 2 2 2
(III) g(x) = ax + b
2 2
1 x 1
(IV) Area bounded = 44 2 dx
2 2 2x 1 2
3
Section – B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
47. 0.00
Sol. P(a) = b, P(b) = c and P(c) = a
bc c a ab
I1 , I2 and I3
ab bc c a
48. 2.00
Sol. AC·BC = CS2
49. 2.00
Sol. Circle touches each other externally
50. 33.00
3 2 3 36 9 1 9 1 36 10 13
Sol. P , =
5 5 2 50 50 4 10 4 40 20
51. 1.00
cos isin cosk isink
Sol. Let z ; zk
cos cosk
cosn isinn
n 1
n 1
1 z cosn sinn cosn cos n
zk = i
k 0 1 z
1
cos isin sin cosn 1 sin cosn 1
cos
sinn
n 1 k sinn 6
So, Re z n 1
n 1
k 0 sin cos
sin cos
6 6
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
52. 5.00
1
Sol. P 1 Q 1 P Q P1 Q 1 P Q I I P 1Q Q 1P I I
Let P 1Q A , then A A 1 I 0 A 2 A I 0
3
A = I |A| = 1
1
P1Q 1 P1 Q 1 Q 1 |Q| = 5
P
53. 0.50
Sol. The person B will score more if
Case-I: In first 9 chances A and B have same score and B is successful in 10th chance
Case-IIL In first 9 chances B has more score.
54. 2.00
Sol. Multiply and divide by sin 2 sin 4 sin 6 ..... sin 88
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 05-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. A
Sol. At t = T 37
2u sin 37
Y 0 T 37
gcos 37
u 37
u sin x
T
4 37
Also at t = T, v is at 37 with normal on the plane i.e.
V
tan37 x
Vy
3
ucos gT
3 5
4 4
usin gT
5
4
By solving tan
9
1 388 4
Also, T 388 sin 2 sec
4 4 97
Velocity of particle just before it collides
v y u y a y T 8
v x ux a x T 6
v 82 62 10 m/s
Velocity after collision = 10 m/s
2 10
T 2 sec
g
Total times in returning is 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 sec
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 2
2. A
Sol. PA = qE + P0A + Mg PA
PV0 constant
After displacing piston through small distance x in downward directions
pressure changes. Let new pressure be P qE+P0A+Mg
So, PV0 P (V0 AX)
AX
PV0 PV0 1
V0
AX
P P 1
V0
qE AX
Mg P0 P 1
A V0
qE Mg
P0 A 2
A
MV0
3. A
dm
Sol. kx
dx
m
0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
dm k xdx k
0
2m
2
2m
dI = x2dm x 2 xdx
2
2m 3 m 2
I
2 x dx
0
2
2
Xcm xdm 3
2 m 2
(mgsin30)
3 2
2g
3
3
T 2
2g
4. C
dB
Sol. E.2r = r 2
dt
r dB
E R
2 dt d
r2 dB
rdq E dq
2 dt
dB r 2
d dq
dt 2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
2
dB 1 2
d 2R sin2 2R sin Rd ( r = R sin)
dt
0
dB 4
R4
dt 3
0
4R 4
dt
3 dB
B
4
I 0 BR4
3
Conservation of angular momentum
v
I I mvR
R
IR 5QBR
v 2
I mR 21m
5. A, D
Sol. F T mg cos mg sin = ma1
106 T 40 = 4a1 …(i)
10g sin T f S = 10aC
60 T f S = 10 aC …(ii)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
f SR + rT = I
2f S + T = 10 …(iii)
r aC = a1 …(iv)
and aC = R …(v)
Solving the equations aC = 2 m/s2, a1 = 1 m/s2
6. A, C, D
Sol. i1r i1r i1r i1r i1r 0
i1 5A
r
i2r i2R i2R 0 i2 1A
r 2R
I I1 I2 6A
Charges on capacitors 2C, C is zero since current in resistance R is zero
q
- i 2R =
4C
q = 16c
7. B, D
Sol. Velocity of point P is 2 2R 1R 0 2
T1 2 1 1
z C
T2 1 2
H
mv 20 2 mv 20
R
fS
z 3 R P
8. A, B, C
Sol. Velocity of particle after collision in vertical direction is 10 m/s
Nt = 20 m
For disc, Nt = mvC
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
vC = 4 m/s
R MR2
Nt ( 0)
2 2
= 20 rad/s
9. B, C
4mg C
Sol. Initial tension in spring kx = 37
7
FBD of block just after string is cut T
Since, v = 0
acceleration along string is zero
kx = 4mg/7
37
T = kcos37 + mgsin37 = N mg
7
Acceleration is only perpendicular to spring
ma = mg cos 37 kx sin 37
32
a m/s2
7
10. A, C
Sol. Using conservation of energy and momentum when particle leaves end B, velocity of the block
will be zero.
v2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
B
At lower most point vertical acceleration is
R
5v 1 = 10v2 V1
1 2 1 2 V2
and 5 g 6 = 5v1 10 v 2
2 2
Solving equations v1 80 , v 2 20
v P,B 80 20
2
v ( 80 20 )2
aP,B P,B
R 2
aP,g aP,B aB,g
aB,g 0 (when particle is at lowest position)
aP,g aP,B 90 m/s2
Section – B
11. 2
Sol. T1 = MBg N
T2 = mg T2
T1
due to friction on pull
in limiting case ,when block B is about to slide B
T1 A
T2 = T1e 2 N
Solving equation m = 2kg Mbg
T2 Mg
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. 4
Sol. F cos = m2R N
F sin + mg = N
N = mg + m2r = 36 N
F
r
R
Mg
13. 3
q q -q +q q +q
Sol. 0
C 2C S S
C 2C
2
q C A B
3
Loss energy H = q U
3 q2
= , where C = 40 9 = 30 J
4 C
14. 4
Sol. Standing wave y = 2Asinkx cos t
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Has energy E = 2A2
15. 6
1 1 1 x
Sol.
v x 24
O
1 1 1
v 24 x
1 1 f = 24
v 24 x
24x
24x
Object distance for silvered lens is (14 x) for image to be on object O, this distance
(24 x)
must be equal to equivalent radius of mirror.
For (Reflecting lens is effectively mirror)
2 3 1 1 3
2 1
Req 2 32 32 32
Req = 16 cm
24x
16 (14 x)
(24 x)
x = 6 cm
16. 7
Sol. Using Kirchhoff's Law
q q
0 …(i)
C C
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
C C
+q q +C/2 C/2 S
i i2
i1
q L +C/2 L
C q C C/2
i1
q di
L 2 0 …(ii)
C dt
q di
L 2 0 …(iii)
C dt
C
Solving these equations and at t = 0, i2 = 0 and i2 sin t
2L
C
i2(max) 7A
2L
17. 5
Sol. Consider some resistance to the voltmeter and applying Kirchhoff’s law
18. 4
6.6 1034 7.27 1014
Sol. K e max h 1 2 eV
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1.6 10 19
Maximum potential difference is 2V
1
U CV 2
2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. A
Sol. AB2L3 has linear shape but AB3 L 2 has T-shape.
20. B
PV 2 49.26
Sol. Total moles of air 4 mole
RT 0.0821 300
nO2 4 0.2 0.8 mole
Moles of ‘C’ = 1
C O2 CO CO2
1 mole 0.8 mole x mole y mole
Apply POAC for C-atom
1 1 x 1 y 1 or x y 1 … (1)
Also, apply POAC for O-atoms,
0.8 2 x 1 y 2 or x 2y 1.6 … (2)
On solving Equation (1) and (2), we get
y 0.6 and x 0.4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So, total amount of heat produced
0.4 26 0.6 94
10.4 56.4
66.8 kcal
21. A
Sol. Since, decomposition of N2O on hot platinum surface follows ZERO order kinetics:
a
So, t1/2
2k o
or a 2k o t1/2
log a log 2k o log t1/2
y C mx
m 1 or tan 1 or 45o
C log 2k o ve
22. D
Sol.
dm C g / ml.
27.7o
92.4o
1 dm C
27.7
C 0.2997 g / ml
1 92.4
So, mass of fructose dissolved in 100 mL solution
0.2997 100
= 29.97 g.
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Yash Patil 8
23. A, C, D
Sol. Since, the crystal should be electrically neutral. So, empirical formula of the solid should be:
Al3 1 Zn2 1 S2 ZnAl2 S 4
4 8 4
2 8
Since, Zn2 ions are present in tetrahedral void, so, its coordination number = 4.
Also, Al3 ions are present in octahedral void, so, its coordination number = 6.
24. A, C
Sol. Since, the solution contains a weak base NH4 OH and salt of this weak base with strong acid,
i.e. NH4 2 SO 4 . So, it is a basic buffer.
By Henderson’s Equation:
2 0.01
pOH pK b log pKb
0.02
pH 14 pOH
pH 14 5 log 2 9 log 2
Since, it’s a buffer, so dilution does not affect the pH.
25. A, B, C
Sol. (A) XeF6 RbF Rb XeF7
(B) XeF6 3H2 O XeO3 6HF
(C)
(D) TG ~ @bohring_bot
2XeF6 SiO2 2XeOF4 SiF4
XeF6 6HCl 6HF Xe 3Cl2
26. A, B, C
Sol. H3C H3C H3C
dil. H2 SO 4
H3C C C C H
HgSO4
H3C C C CH2 H3C C C CH3
H3C H3C OH H3C O
P
NaBH4 ethanol
H3C H3C
H3C C CH CH3
dil.acid
H3C C CH CH3
OH H3C ONa
H3C
Q
H3C H3C CH3 O
conc. H2 SO4 1. O3
H3C C CH CH3
C C
2. Zn/H2 O
2 H3C C CH3
OH H3C CH3
R
H3C
Q
dil. OH
Aldol condensation
O
H3C C CH C CH3
CH3
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
27. A, B, C, D
2 A
Sol. r
3 A
So, integrated rate equation of the above reaction is
1 A o
t A o A 3n
2 A
1 3
So, t1/2 A o n2
4 2
3 A o 3
t 3/4 3n2 8 3 0.7 5.1 min utes
8 8
28. A, B, C
Sol. Minor products
conc. H SO
2 2
4
8 hydrogen A 5 hydrogen B 3 hydrogen
Major product
O3 / Zn / H2 O B
O3 / Zn / H2 O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O
O
2 H
O
C D
O
dil. OH O /Zn/H O
2 O 3 2
O
Aldol condensation
C E C
O
O
HO C OH
O
i conc.OH ,
O
hydroxy cyclopentanecarboxylic acid ii H
Benzillic acid rearrangement
O
CH O
O dil. OH C
Also,
F
D
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Yash Patil
AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Section – B
29. 8
Sol. COOH
has 3 planes of symmetry, i.e. x = 3
COOH
(Terephthalic acid)
CH3
H Cl
It has one plane of symmetry and one centre of symmetry. So, y = 2.
H Cl
CH3
(Meso-2,3-dichlorobutane)
Stereocentres
OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H3C C C C CH3
H H H
(Pent-3-en-2-ol) Stereocentres
So, z = 3.
30. 8
Sol. x= 2, y = 2, z = 4.
n = 1, m = 2
31. 6
Sol. Freezing point in Kelvin 1.8 m 273 K
Boiling point in Kelvin 373 0.5 m K
Difference of boiling point and freezing point = 100 + 2.3 m = 100.46
M 0.2
P 1000
Now, 0.2
60 500
P 6 gram
32. 4
Sol. CHO CHO Br Br CHO
1 6
Br 1 Br 2 CHO 2 CHO 1 1 CHO
2 6 Br 5
3 3 2
6 2 1 1 6 2
3 5 5 3 4 6 4 6 5 3 4
Br
4 4 5 5 4 3
I II III IV V VI
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
33. 4
1
Sol. (i) Na Hg H2 O NaOH Hg H2
2
(ii) Na2 CO3 X
(iii) 4NaOH ZnCl2 Na2 ZnO2 2NaCl 2H2 O
(iv) CuSO4 Na2 CO3 H2 O CuCO3 .Cu OH2
basic copper carbonate
(v) In case of alkali metals, for performing flame test, chlorides are preferred over carbonates
as chlorides are more volatile.
34. 5
22.4
Sol. NH2O2 4
5.6
Let, mass of pure H2 S present in impure sample = ‘w’ gm
w
Then 4 5 10 3 w 0.34 gm
34
2
0.34
So, % of pure H2 S in impure sample 100 85%
0.40
TG ~ @bohring_bot
17x 85
x 5
35. 1
red hot
Sol. (i) NH4 Cl Na2 B 4 O7 BN x NaCl H2 O
o NaBH
140 C
(ii) BCl3 NH4 Cl B3 N3 H3 Cl3
4
B3 N3 H6
(iii) KBF4 K B KF
(iv) B 2 O3 Cr2 SO4 3 Cr BO2 3
CH3NH2
(v) B 2H6 BH2 CH3 NH2 2 BH4
CH N
(vi)
3 3
B 2H6 2BH3 . CH3 3 N
36. 8
8RT
Sol. Average velocity 4 102
M
RT 2M 104
3 3 6 9RT
Total kinetic energy of ‘He’ nRT RT
2 2 4 4
9
Total kinetic energy of ‘He’ 2M 10 4
4
9
3
2 4 10 10
4
4
180 Joule
3 3 12
Total kinetic energy of 'Ne20 ' nRT RT
2 2 20
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
9
2M 10 4
10
9
10
2 20 103 104
360 Joule
360 180
Average kinetic energy of mixture per mole
1.5 0.6
540
3.14
2.1
807.42 J
0.80742 kJ
So, x = 0.8
10x 8 .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. D
Sol. Favorable cases: For first diagonal we have 12 choices them for the second to be skew we have
12 5
5 choices. So number of favorable choices is 30
2
30 5
Required probability = 12
C2 11
38. C
Sol. Since 2066 2067 2068 2069 45 and 2023 + 45 = 2068
39. C
Sol. Let z x , then z , and 2z ,
6 6 4 3 2
2
Then, y cot z tan z cos z cos z
sin2z
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Since, both and cos z are monotonic decreasing in this case
sin 2z
2 11 3
Then ymax cos
6 6
sin
3
40. A
Sol. x a yb zc , now x, y, z are in Geometric Progression
2 1 1
therefore a, b, c are in Harmonic Progression
b a c
By G.M. > H.M.; ac b for a3, b3, c3
a3 c 3 3
A.M. > G.M.; ac b3
2
41. A, D
Sol. Draw variable lines of slope 4x – 3y that passes through the points on or inside the triangle
42. A, C
1 1 z 1 1
Sol. z0 multiply both side by , we have z
z z z0 z
0 z 0
1 1
Circle with centre and radius , however we have to exclude the point z = 0 from the locus
z0 z0
43. B, D
Sol. If PA + PB is minimum Area of PAB is minimum
C is mid-point of AB Equation of AB is x + y = 10
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
44. A, B, C
3 2 1
Sol. Since, log2 x 1 0 ; Let log2 x 1 t , we have t
t 0 and t 0
2 2
Solution of the above inequality is 0 t < 1 0 log2 x – 1 < 1 2 x < 4
45. A, B, D
x2 x 1
Sol. f x 3 if x is even and f x is x is odd
2 2
46. B, C
Sol. If 6, then sum of solutions = 5 and if –6, then sum of solutions = 3
Section – B
47. 1
1 2 4 2022
Sol. x 2023 1 x x ..... x 2024
x
1 1 1
x x3 x5 ..... x 2023 2023 2021 ..... 2024
x x x
By A.M., G.M. inequality, we get
x x3 x5 ..... x2023 1 13 ..... 2023
1
2 1012 2024
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x x x
1 1 1
Where the equality holds if and only if x , x 3 3 , ....., x 2023 2023 x = 1
x x x
48. 7
Sol. z1 z2 3 and z1z2 z1z2 9 z1z2 9
Let z1z2 9 cos isin , then z1z2 9 cos isin
1
18 cos 9 cos
2
z1z2 9 and z1z2 92 where is cube root of unity other than 1
2023 2023
log3 z1z2 z1z2 2 2023 4046
49. 3
2 2 2 y
Sol. f x x 3 x 2 2 x 2 x 2 1
A(3, 2)
Let P be any point on the parabola y = x 2 and A(3, 2), B(0, 1)
By inequality |PA – PB| AB B(0, 1)
PA PB 10
P
k = 10 x
50. 6
Sol. Locus of I is the tangent at the vertex Locus is x = 3
51. 8
2 2 2
Sol. a b b c c a 62 a b b c c a 10 c 4a 2b
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-OT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
52. 3
1
t 2r
1 1
Sol. ln 1 t 2 f x dx 2r r 1 2
r 1 r 0 r 1
53. 4
4 2 2 2
Sol. Let y = mx + c be the tangent x – 2x – x – (mx + c) = (x + ax + b)
a = 0, b = –1, m = –1, c = –1
x + y + 1 = 0 is tangent to the curve at (–1, 0) and (1, –2)
1 2 1 2 4
54. 3
Sol. A and B are (1, 2 3) and (2, 1, 2) respectively
1 3
If AC = d1 and BC = d2, then volume of tetrahedron = ABd1d2 d1d2
6 6
Also, CD2 d12 d22 3 d12 d22 24
d12 d22
Using AM, GM, d1d2 d1d2 12 V 2 3
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – III
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. The brake mechanism used to reduce recoil in certain types of guns consist essentially of a
piston attached to the barrel and moving in a fixed cylinder filled with oil. As the barrel recoils with
an initial velocity 0 , the piston moves and oil is forced through orifices in the piston, causing the
piston and the barrel to decelerate at a rate proportional to their velocity; that is, a k ,
(k > 0), where v and x are the velocity and position of barrel at time t.
Piston
Oil
Choose correct graph(s):
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x
0
0
k
(A) (B)
O t O t
v
v
0
O
t
(C) (D)
O x
0
k v 0
2. A nozzle discharges a stream of water of cross – sectional area A with a velocity v A. The stream
is deflected by a single blade which moves to the right with a constant velocity V. Assuming that
the water moves along the blade at constant speed, Choose the correct option(s);
Y
vA B
X
A
v
2
(A) The Y component of the force exerted by the blade on the steam is A VA V sin .
2
(B) The X component of the force exerted by the blade on the steam is A VA V 1 cos
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
2
(C) The X component of the force exerted by the blade on the steam is A VA V cos
VA
(D) The velocity V for which maximum power is developed is V
3
3. A ring of mass m and radius R is set into pure rolling on horizontal rough surface, in a uniform
magnetic field of strength B-as shown in the figure. A point charge(q) of negligible mass is
attached to rolling ring. Friction is sufficient so that it does not slip at any point of its motion. ( is
measured in clockwise from positive y-axis)
y
m q
v /R
R x
v
(A) Ring will continue to move with constant velocity.
(B) The value of friction acting on ring is Bqv cos .
(C) The value of friction acting on ring is Bqv sin .
TG ~ @bohring_bot
mg
(D) Ring will lose contact with ground if v is greater than
2qB
4. A solid paraboloid of base radius R0 and height h0 is having uniform volume mass density of s is
Inverted and placed just above the surface as shown, of a liquid having volume mass density of
L . When paraboloid is released from rest it has been observed that when it becomes completely
submerged in the liquid the paraboloid comes to the rest again. There exist uniform gravity of g.
Assume that the liquid body is very large so that liquid level is not changing as the paraboloid
enters into the liquid.
R0
s h0
L
(A) The phenomenon is true for all paraboloids irrespective of their dimensions as long as density
ratio is maintained.
(B) The phenomenon is not true for all paraboloids irrespective of their dimensions as long as
density ratio is maintained.
(C) The ratio of L is 2.
s
L
(D) The ratio of is 3.
s
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
5. consider a metal rod of length L that is given a uniform acceleration as shown in figure (a) and an
identical rod rotating with constant angular velocity in figure (b).
B
a l
R
A B
A
l
Stationary conducting
(a) Circular Frame
(b)
(A) If VA and VB are potentials of end A and B respectively, then VA < VB in figure (a)
(B) If VA and VB are potentials of end A and B respectively, then VA > VB in figure (b)
ma
(C) Electric field inside rod has magnitude in figure (a)
e
m 2r
(D) Electric field inside rod has magnitude in figure (b)
e
6. A bead is fixed on a rigid ring of radius r and negligible mass as compared to that of the bead.
Assembly thus formed is held motionless on a horizontal floor with the plane of the ring vertical
and the bead on the top. Coefficient of friction between the ring and the floor is . Now the
assembly is given a slight push so that the ring starts rolling Acceleration of free fall is g. Choose
the correct statements.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) The angle rotated by the ring before it begins to slide is tan-1
(B) The speed of centre of the ring before it begins to slide is gR
(C) The angle rotated by the ring before it begins to slide is 2tan-1
(D) The speed of the centre of the ring before it begins to slide is 2gR
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. A sample of hydrogen atoms in its ground
state is irradiated with photons of energy 10.2 eV. The radiations from the above sample is then
incident on two sample containing excited He ions and excited Li2 ions respectively. Both the
o
samples absorb the radiations. (use hc 12400 eV A )
List-I List-II
(I) No. of spectral lines obtained in the Spectra of Li2 (P) 6
(II) (Q) 15
No. of spectral lines obtained in the Spectra of He
o
(III) Smallest wavelength in spectra of He is 48.8 X A then X (R) 5
(Approx.) is
o
(IV) Smallest wavelength in spectra of Li2 is (10.4)Y A then Y (S) 10
(Approx.) is
(T) 18
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R P P T
(B) Q P P Q
(C) Q P R S
(D) T P R Q
8. Consider a given series LCR circuit as shown in figure. There are 10 switches. In list-I switches
which are closed, is given and corresponding value is asked. In list-II these values are given.
Choose the proper value from list-II to list-I using the codes given below.
S1 S2 S3 S4
XL R R XC
S5 S6 S7
E1 E2
S8 S9 S10
E1 E0 sin t E 2 E0 sin t
List-I List-II
It is observed that effective current in the circuit in case
TG ~ @bohring_bot
if either S8 ,S6 and S7 or if S5 , S6 , S9 , S10 or if 2
(I) S8 , S9 and S10 are closed (Rest open) remains same. (P)
5
Value of is:
Switch S8 , S9 & S10 are closed. Now its observed if
rest switches are opened or switches S3, S4 are closed
(II) (rest opened) effective value of current in the circuit is (Q)
4XC 2
same, value of is
5R
Switch S8 , S6 , S7 are closed. Now effective current if
S1, S2 closed (Rest opened) is I1 and If S3 ,S4 closed 2
(III) 2 (R)
I 3
(Rest opened) is I2 , value of 1 is
I2
Switch S5 , S6 , S9 and S10 are closed. Peak value
current if rest are opened is I3 and if S2 , S3 closed 8
(IV) 2 (S)
I 5
(Rest opened) is I4. Value of 3 is
I4
(T)
3
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) Q S P T
(B) Q T P S
(C) R P T Q
(D) R S P Q
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9. In each of the four situations of List I, a stretched string or an organ pipe is given along with the
required data. In case of strings the tension in strings is T 102.4 N and the mass per unit
length of string is 1 g/m. Speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. Neglect end corrections. The
frequencies of resonance are given in List II. Match each situation in List I with the possible
resonance frequencies given in List II.
List-I List-II
String fixed at both ends
(I) (P) 320 Hz
0.5
fixed fixed
String fixed at one end and free at other end
(II) 0.5m (Q) 480 Hz
fixed end free end
Open organ pipe
(III) (R) 640 Hz
0.5 m
Closed organ pipe
(IV)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0.5 m
(S) 800 Hz
(T) 1280 Hz
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P R Q S
(B) P S R Q
(C) R Q S P
(D) Q S P R
10. There exists a uniform electric field in space. Potential of few points in space is given below
Coordinates (0, 0, 0) (a, 0, 0) (0, b, 0) (0, 0, c)
Potential 1V 2V 3V 4V
Match the points in List I with their potential in List II
List-I List-II
(I) (a, b, 0) (P) 4V
(II) (a, b, c) (Q) 7V
(III) (-a, -b, -c) (R) 0V
(IV) (0, b, c) (S) 6V
(T) 5V
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R T Q S
(B) P Q T S
(C) S Q P R
(D) T P Q R
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. A pendulum with massless string of length l and bob of mass m is
attached inside a railway carriage which is moving with speed v 0 as V0
V0
shown. Carriage is brought to rest uniformly by applying brakes.
When carriage comes to rest pendulum string is horizontal.
Minimum magnitude of retardation of carriage such that bob
completes vertical circular motion is (in ms-2).
-2
(g = 10 ms )
12. A small boat is travelling downstream with velocity 5 m/s relative to river flowing with speed 7/3
m/s. it encounters a log floating in the river at some distance from itself. It turns by an angle of
37o and just crosses the edge of the log after 8 sec. Find time (in seconds) taken by boat to just
cross the edge of log if log is kept fixed.
13. In YDSE, if sources are incoherent, the intensity on screen is 13I0. When these sources are
coherent then minimum intensity on screen is I0. The maximum intensity produced by these
coherent sources on screen is___W/m 2 given I0 1W / m2
14. TG ~ @bohring_bot
The electrostatic flux through a rectangular area of
7
188
m2 lying in a plane 2x 3y 6z 10 due
to an electric field 8iˆ 6ˆj 10kˆ V / m will be in (V – m)
4
15. A diver D is still under water at a depth d = 10m. A bird is diving along line AB at a
3
constant velocity in air. When the bird is exactly above the diver he sees it at a height of 50 m
from himself and velocity of the bird appears to be inclined at 450 to the horizontal. At what
distance from the diver, the bird actually hits the water surface. (in meter)
A
d
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
16. Consider the circuit shown. If in steady state VA – VC = 1 volt, find 11 VI VG in steady state.
B C D
5 f 2.9 f
3 f
F
6 f I 7 f
A G
E
17. In the given circuit initially the capacitor is uncharged. R R
At t = 0 the key k is closed. The time constant of circuit
is n times of RC. Find the value of ‘n’.
R
R C
E
k
R R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
18. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and its cap is divided into 100 divisions. When nothing is
placed between its studs, the zero of the circular scale lies 6 divisions below the reference line.
When a wire is placed between its studs, the main scale reading is 4 mm and 56th division of
circular scale coincides with the reference line. The length of the wire is 4.20 cm. Find the curved
surface area (in cm2) of the wire in true significant figures.
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. The radial wave equation for hydrogen atom is:
3/2
1 1
16 4 a0
x 1 x 2 8x 12 e x/2
where x 2r / a0 , a0 radius of first Bohr’s orbit.
Select the correct statement(s)
(A) minimum position of node will be 0.5a0
(B) maximum position of node will be 3a0
(C) There will be 3 radial nodes
(D) There will be 2 radial nodes
20. How many of the following will give Cannizzaro reaction?
(A) Me2N CHO (B) Me2 CHCHO
(C) TG ~ @bohring_bot
O CHO
(D)
O
C
O
C H
21. On the basis of MO theory, which is correct?
(A) The bond order for C2 molecule is two and both bond are bond
(B) The bond order for C2 molecule is two and one bond is and one is
(C) The bond order for C2 molecule is two and both bond are bond
(D) Total bonding e in C2 is 8
22. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about slag?
(A) The calcium silicate, CaSiO3 is obtained in slag formation zone in the extraction of iron from
haematite ore.
(B) The chemical composition of “slag” formed during the smelting process in the extraction of
copper is FeSiO3
(C) In blast furnace/Bessemer converter, the upper layer of molten liquid (i.e. molten metal) is of
slag.
(D) The slag is fusible matter.
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23. CH3
H Cl LiAlH4
(A),
H D
CH3
CH3
H Cl LiAID4
(B) (assume SN2)
H D
CH3
Select the correct is/are statement(s)
(A) A is optically active
(B) B is optically active
(C) A is optically active, but B is optically inactive
(D) A is optically inactive, B is optically active
24. Which of the following orders is/are correct?
(A) SbH3 NH3 AsH3 PH3 Boiling point
(B) NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 Thermal stability
(C) NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 Basic character
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 Bond Angle
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Consider the following list:
List - I List - II
Electrode Anode Cathode
(I) Fused NaCl Graphite & mercury (P) O2 g Na g
(II) Conc. NaCl Pt (Q) O2 g H2 g
(III) Dil. NaCl Pt (R) Cl2 g H2 g
(IV) Dil. NaCl(aq) Mercury (S) Cl2 g Na s
(T) O2 g Cl2 g
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) S R Q P
(B) T R Q P
(C) S T Q P
(D) S R T P
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
26. Match List-I with List-II:
List – I (Molecules) List – II (Relationship)
Cl Cl
(I) (P) Identical
CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
(II) (Q) Enantiomer
CH3 CH3
Cl CH3
(III) (R) Diastereomer
CH3 Cl
Cl
Cl
(IV) (S) Structural isomerism
CH3
CH3
(T) Homomers
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R T P S
(B) R R T S
(C) R R P T
(D) R R P S
27. Consider the following lists:
List - I List - II
NaBH4 ,alc
(I) CH2 CH CHO (P) Acetal
pH 4 5
(II) C6H5 CHO Ph NH2
(Q) Schiff’s base
pH(4 5)
(III) C6H5 COCH3 CH3 CH2 NH CH3
(R) Unsaturated alcohol
(IV) H (S) Enamine
RCHO 2RCH2OH
(T) Imine
Which one is correct?
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R Q S P
(B) T Q S P
(C) R T S P
(D) R Q T P
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Yash Patil 12
28. Consider the following lists:
List - I List - II
Me3 C OEt
(I) Me3 C Cl EtO Na (P)
(II) EtCl Me3 CO Na (Q) Alcohol
(III) PhCl MeONa (R) Anisole
(IV) (S) No result
PhO Na MeCl
(T) Ph O Ph
Which one is correct?
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P Q S R
(B) S P Q R
(C) Q P S R
(D) Q P T R
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. With strong oxidizing agent, the oxidation product of K 4 Fe CN6 is K 2 O, Fe2O3 , NO3 and
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CO23 , then what will be the ‘n’ factor of K 4 Fe CN6 .
30. For the acid indicator (HIn) thymol blue, pH is 2.176 when 60% of the indicator is in ionized form.
Find the % indicator in unionized form in the solution with H 3.33 103 M.
31. Find out the efficiency (in %) of the following cyclic process A B C D A for 1-mole
mono-atomic gas.
2T 4T
2P0 B C
P
A D
P0 2T
T
V0 2V0
V
32. A solution having a vapour pressure of 520 mm of Hg contains o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol
with mole fraction of 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. One of the above has P 400 mm of Hg. The
vapour pressure of o-nitrophenol is
33. A hydrogen like species with atomic number ‘Z’ is in excited state ‘n’ and emits photons of energy
st nd
25.7 and 8.7 eV when makes a transitions to 1 and 2 excited state respectively. Ionisation
energy (eV) of specie is
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
34. What should be the relative humidity below which CuSO4 .5H2O would efflorescent at 25C ? For
the reaction
CuSO4 .5H2O s CuSO4 .3H2O s 2H2O g
at 25C Kp is 1.0 104 atm2 and vapour pressure of water is 30.4 torr. (Given: Relative humidity
is the ratio of amount moisture in air to the maximum amount of moisture that could exist in air at
specific temperature)
35. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbours distance 4.52 A. Its atomic weight is 39.
-3
Its density (in kg m ) will be:
4
36. Two moles of an ideal triatomic gas at 16 bar and 300 K are expanded reversibly upto a
3
final pressure of 1 bar. How much work (in J (magnitude)) is done by the gas?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. If 1, 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 are roots of equation x 5 5x 4 1 0 , then
r 5 r 5
1 1 1
(A)
r 1
4
20
(B) r 1
4
20
r r
5 3
r 5 1 r 5 1 1
(C) 4 5 1
r 1 r
(D) 4 5
5
r 1 r
38. If three non-zero and non-collinear vectors ˆi ajˆ kˆ , 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ and a ˆi ˆj 3kˆ are coplanar,
then ‘a’ is/are
1
(A) (B) 2
3
1
(C) (D) –2
3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
39. If 3f x 4f 3 x 3x 2 8 and f x dx 0 , where , are roots of x 2 3x a 0 ,
then ‘a’ can be
1 1
(A) (B)
101 101
2 401
(C) (D)
301 301
1 1
40. If the curves y x2 x and x y2 y are tangent to each other, then can be
24 24
2 3
(A) (B)
3 2
13 601 13 601
(C) (D)
12 12
n
1 1 1 1
41. lim
n n 2 n 1 n n 2 ........ n n 1 is ‘a’, then
2 2 2
(A) a 5 (B) a 7
(C) a 6 (D) a 8
Here (.) represents least integer part and [.] represents greatest integer part.
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
42. a, b, c are distinct complex numbers with a b c 1 and z1, z2 be the roots of the equation
az 2 bz c 0 with z1 1. Also, let P and Q represents the complex numbers z1 and z2 in the
complex plane with POQ , where O is origin. Then,
2 2
(A) b2 ac, (B) , PQ 3
3 3
(C) b2 ac, PQ 2 3 (D) 2b2 ac,
3
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Let N be the number of words which can be formed using all the letters of the word
“DARJEELING” so that there are at least two consonants between any two vowels. Then match
List I with List II:
List - I List - II
n
(I) If N is divisible by 2 n N , then n can be (P) 1
(II) If N is divisible by 6P P N , then P must be less than (Q) 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(III) Number of odd divisors of N is greater than (R) 3
(IV) Number of zeroes at the end of N is less than (S) 4
(T) 5
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQR QRST PQRST PST
(B) QRT PQT PQRS PQRST
(C) PQRST ST PQRST QRST
(D) PQST PQRST PQRT PQR
44. Given y ax 2 bx c is a quadratic expression for x [0, 2], y falls completely in [0, 1] and
b
(0, 2). Then, for a 0 , match the following:
2a
List - I List - II
(I) The value of c may be (P) 0
(II) The value of 2a b may be (Q) 1
2 1
(III) If is a root of ax bx c 0 , then may be (R)
a 2
The sum of roots of ax bx c 0 is p p 3
2 2
4
(IV) (S)
for p R , then the value of a can’t be 3
(T) 2
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQ R PR QST
(B) PQR PR T ST
(C) ST Q PQ RS
(D) R ST QST PQ
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
45. Match the equations in List I to solution in List II:
List - I List - II
2 x 1 2 k
(I) tan e for 0 < x <1 (P) Only one solution for k 0,1/ e
2 2x
1
(II) ln x kx has (Q) Only one solution for k ,0
e
1
(III) xe x k has (R) Two solutions for k ,0
e
1
(IV) xlnx k has (S) Two distinct solutions for k 0,
e
1
(T) No solution for k 0,
e
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQ T S PR
(B) T PT PR QS
(C) QS Q PT R
(D) RT QS PR PR
46. Match the locus of ‘z’ in List I from List II:
List - I List - II
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
(I) Straight line (P) If z z z z z z then z lies on
;
(II) Circle (Q) If | z 3 | | z 3 | 6 , then z lies on
(III) Parabola (R)
If z 3 z zz 3 2 z 2 z 2 4 | z |2 2 , then z lies on
(IV) Hyperbola (S) z 2
z 2 4 Re (z) × z z 2
z z 0 , then z lies on
2 2
(T) z z zz , then z lies on
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQ PR S QR
(B) Q PR QS T
(C) QR QR S P
(D) P T Q S
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
2 1
47. If cos 1(2 x 2 ) sin 1(2 x 2 ) tan 1 x . Given the solution set, x , then 2 is
3
equal to
If y
x y x dx 2
48.
x
, then x y x y f(y) . Then, f '(4) is equal to
2 2
x2
x
2
49. If 9 sin x 4cos ec x 2k 4 has only three solutions, then k
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
50. If 5x 2y 5 0 is a tangent at any point P on the parabola whose focus is 5,2 & length
of latus rectum is 4 units; intersect axis at A & normal at point P intersect axis at B, then the
circum radius of PAB is
n
1 50 1 dx 1
e
|x|
51. If
e 1 n 1 n 1 ! n 1 e sin x
1
ab !
where a and b are prime, then | a b | is equals to
3 2 2
52. Let f ( x ) x x x 1, g ( x ) a 2 (where a is real parameter) and f ( x) g ( x ) has
2
three real and distinct roots, then f ( x) [ a ] has real root having the integral part (where [.] is
G.I.F) equal to
3x 2 1
53. If max f(x) , where f(x) is constant for 0 x 2 , then minimum value of
x4 x2
2
3x 2 1
dx is
0 x 4 x2
2 2 2
54. Let x, y, z are selected from the set of natural numbers. If the probability that x y z is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
p
divisible by 5 is (where p, q are coprime), then p + q is equal to
q
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. Four particles A, B, C and D of masses m A, mB, mC and mD respectively, follow the paths shown
in the figure, in a uniform magnetic field. Each particle moving with same speed. QA, QB,QC and
QD are the specific charge of particles A,B,C and D respectively :
X X X X X X X X X X
X X X X X X X X X X
X X X X X X X XConstant
X X
magnetic
X X X X X X X XfieldX X
X X X RX X X X X X X
X X X X X X X X X X
X X X AX X X X X X X
2R C
X X X X X X X X X X
B
X X X X X X X X X X
R
X X X X X X X X X X
X X X X X X X X D X X
(A) QA < QB <QC <QD
(B) QD < QB < QC < QA
(C) Charge on the particle B and particle D is of different nature
(D) Work done by magnetic force on the particle C is minimum as compared to other particle
2.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Two rays are incident on a spherical concave mirror of radius R 5 cm and rays are parallel to a
line AB which passes through the centre C. The rays are at perpendicular distances 3 cm and 4
cm from AB respectively as shown. Find the distance between the points at which these rays
intersect the line AB after reflection –
3cm
A B
C
4cm
25 24
(A) cm (B) cm
24 25
1
(C) zero (D) cm
3
3. A neutron collides head-on with a stationary hydrogen atom 1H1 in ground state, then choose
the correct statement: (Assume that mass of neutron and mass of 1H1 atom is same)
(A) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 13.6 eV, collision must be elastic
(B) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 13.6 eV, collision may be inelastic
(C) Inelastic collision may take place only when initial kinetic energy of neutron is less than 13.6
eV
(D) None of these
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
4. Three identical large plates are fixed at separation of d from Q1 d 2 d 3
each other as shown. The area of each plate is A. Plate 1 is
given charge +Q while plates 2 and 3 are neutral and are
connected to each other through coil of inductances L and
switch S. If resistance of all connected wires is neglected the
maximum current flow through coil after closing the switch is
C 0 A / d (neglect fringe effect)
Q0 Q0 S
(A) (B)
LC 2LC
2Q0 Q0
(C) (D)
LC 2 LC
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. A homogeneous disk of radius r and mass m is mounted on an axle OG of length L and negligible
mass. The axle is pivoted at the fixed point O, and the disk is constrained to roll on a horizontal
floor. Knowing that the ‘disk’ rotates counterclockwise at the rate 1 about the axle OG,
L Y
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
X
G
Choose the correct option(s)
1 r ˆ
(A) The angular velocity of the disk 1ˆi j
L
r
(B) The angular velocity of the disc 1 ĵ
L
1 2
(C) The X component of angular momentum of disc about ‘O’ is mr 1
2
(D) The Z component of angular momentum of disc about ‘O’ is zero
6. Two glass slabs of same thickness and same refractive index are joined to form an ‘L’ shape as
shown. A ray is incident on the combination as shown (in the plane of paper)., Choose correct
option(s):
A
(A) Total deviation will zero for all values of .
(B) Total deviation will be zero for 45 only.
(C) The ray will emerge from point A for all values of .
(D) The ray will emerge from point A for 45 only.
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Yash Patil
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7. If the two slits of double slit experiment were moved symmetrically apart with small relative
velocity v and the distance between screen and mid-point of slits is fixed and equal to D.
Consider a point P on the screen at a distance x from central maxima then (x<<<D):
(A) Rate of change of number of fringes between central maxima and point P changes with
xv
respect to time is
D
(B) Number of fringes contained between central maxima and point P increases with time
(C) Fringe width decreases as time passes
(D) Fringe width increases as time passes
8. There exists a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to piane of the A
paper (inward) right side of the line AB. A particle of charge –q and B
mass m enters uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to paper
inward) at P with a velocity V0 at an angle and leaves the field at V0
Q with velocity V at angle as shown in figure. P
(A)
(B) V V0 V
2mV0 sin
(C) PQ Q
Bq
2m
(D) The particle remains in the field for time t B
Bq
9.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The figure shows the velocity as a function of the time for an object with mass 10 kg being
pushed along a frictionless horizontal surface by external horizontal force. At t 3 s, the force
stops pushing and the object moves freely. It then collides head on and sticks to another object of
mass 25 kg.
V (m/s)
15
t (sec)
3 4 5
(A) External force acting on the block of mass 10 kg is 50 N from t 0 to t 3 sec.
nd
(B) Speed of the 2 particle just before the collision is 1 m/s.
(C) Before collision both bodies are moving in the same direction.
(D) Before collision, bodies are moving in opposite direction.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
10. A ideal gas having f degrees of freedom is kept inside a thermally insulated vessel, the vessel
has two large pistons each with charge of +Q and -Q. Assume charges are uniformly distributed.
Pistons can move without friction inside the vessel. At an instant the charge of pistons is
increased k times with the help of an external agent. Then which of the following statements are
correct
+Q -Q
Vacuum Vacuum
Gas
K2 f
(A) The Ratio of final to initial temperature of gas in equilibrium is .
2f
2K 2 f
(B) The Ratio of final to initial temperature of gas in equilibrium is .
2f
(C) Work done by the agent in the process is (K 2 1)nRT1 where T1 is initial temperature.
Q2L1
(D) Work done by the agent in the process is K 2 1 where L1 is initial separation between
A 0
pistons.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. A thin spherical soap bubble has surface tension S. Its surface is uniformly charged with charge
Q, its volume is V. It is found that when Q2 16n0SV, the excess pressure inside the bubble
becomes zero. Find n.
12. A circular disc of diameter d lies horizontally inside a metallic hemispherical bowl of radius a. The
disc is just visible to an eye looking over the edge. The bowl is now filled with a liquid of refractive
d
index 3 . Now, the whole of the disc is just visible to the eye in the same position, if is
a
equal to:
13. A metallic ring of mass 2 kg and radius 1m with a uniform metallic
spoke of same mass 2kg and length 1 m is rotated about its axis
with angular velocity 1 rev/sec. in a perpendicular uniform magnetic
field B of magnitude 10T as shown in figure. If the central end of the
spoke is connected to the rim of the wheel through a resistor R R
magnitude as shown. The resistor does not rotate, its one end
is always at the center of the ring and other end is always in contact
with the ring. A force F as shown is needed to maintain constant
F
F
angular velocity of the spoke then, fill (The ring and the spoke
25
has zero resistance)
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14. Mirror in the arrangement shown in figure is moving up with speed 8 cm/sec. Speed of final image
(in cm/sec) is 4x, calculate x.
Object
water
4 / 3
15. Two coherent monochromatic point sources S1 and S2 are placed in front of an infinite screen as
shown in figure. Wavelength of the light emitted by both the sources is . Initial phase difference
between the source is zero.
S1 S2
Initially S1S2 2.5 and the number of bright circular rings on the screen in n1. If the distance
S1S2 is increased and made 5.7 the number of bright circular rings becomes n2 . The difference
TG ~ @bohring_bot
n2 n1 is:
16. If the frequency of k x-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 31 is f, if the frequency
25
of k x-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 51, is given by f , then x is (assume
x
that screening constant for K is 1)
17. A stationary observer receives a sound from a source of frequency 2000 Hz moving with constant
velocity. The apparent frequency varies with time as shown in the figure.
f(Hz)
fm
2000
1800
t(s)
The value of f m is (2300 – 10x)Hz. Find the value of x. (Take speed of sound = 300 m/s and
neglect the time taken by sound to reach the stationary observer).
18. 5 moles of Nitrogen gas are enclosed in an adiabatic cylindrical vessel. The
piston itself is a rigid light cylindrical container containing 3 moles of Helium He
gas. There is a heater which gives out a power 100 cal/second to the nitrogen
gas. A power of 30 cal/sec is transferred to Helium through the bottom surface N2
of the piston. The rate of increment of temperature of the nitrogen gas (in
kelvin/sec) is (assuming that the piston moves slowly):
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
3 2
19. The magnetic moment of Mn CN6 is 2.8 BM while the magnetic moment of MnBr4 is
5.9 BM. The geometries of the complex ions respectively are:
(A) Tetrahedral, tetrahedral (B) Octahedral, octahedral
(C) Octahedral, tetrahedral (D) Tetrahedral, octahedral
20. D-glucose on treatment with x mol of PhNHNH2 gives 1 mol of (A), 1 mol of PhNH2 and 1 mol of
NH3 . (A) and x are:
A x
HC N NH Ph
C N NHPh
HO H
(A) 3
H OH
TG ~ @bohring_bot
H
CH 2OH
OH
CH N NHPh
H OH
HO H
(B) 3
H OH
H OH
CH2OH
C N NH Ph
HO H
(C) H OH 3
HO H
CH2OH
CH N NHPh
C N NHPh
HO H
(D) 2
H OH
H OH
CH2OH
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Yash Patil
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21. Initially 3 moles of ‘A’ was taken in a 1L container. What would be the approx. moles of A left in
the container when the following equilibrium is established.
3A B; K C 8 1015
(A) 1.67 104 (B) 3.33 10 8
(C) 1.25 10 10 (D) 5 10 6
22. Which of the following cationic detergents?
(A) Sodium lauryl sulphate (B) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide.
(C) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (D) Glyceryl oleate
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. Following graph is constructed for the fixed amount of the gas. Which of the following is/are
correct?
1 3
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
T(K)
(A) From 1 2 pressure will increase
(B) From 2 3 pressure remains constant
(C) Gas pressure at (3) is greater at state (1)
(D) For pressure the correct order is P 3 P 2 P 1
24. The compound(s) which (have) peroxo linkage is (are):
(A) H2 S2O3 (B) H2 SO5
(C) H2 S2O7 (D) H2 S2O8
25. Which one is classified as addition polymer?
(A) Acrylonitrile (B) Dacron
(C) Neoprene (D) Teflon
26. Which of the following is /are true about azulene?
Azulene
(A) Both rings are aromatic in nature
(B) It is soluble in polar solvents
(C) Attack of electrophile occurs at five membered ring
(D) Attack of nucleophile occurs at seven membered ring
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
27. Which one of the following statements about acidic/ basic strength is/are correct?
(A) HCOOH is more acidic than Ph COOH
(B) Acidic strength odder is as CH3 OH H2 O C2H5 OH
(C) Fumaric acid is stronger acid than Maleic acid
(D) Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole
28. Compound ‘P’ C10H12 O evolves H2 gas with Na metal. It reacts with Br2 / CCl4 to give ‘Q’
C10H12Br2O . With I2/NaOH it forms iodoforms and an acid ‘R’ C9H8 O2 . ‘P’ has geometrical
and optical isomers. The structure of ‘P’ and ‘R’ should be
COOH
(A) (B) PH CH CH COOH
CH CH2
OH
CH CH CH CH3
CH CH CH3
(C) OH (D)
TG ~ @bohring_bot Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. The number of moles of CO2 that will be evolved in the following is
O
HOOC COOH
HOOC COOH
HOOC
HOOC COOH
30. How many of the reagents from the lists below would give effeverence when treated with
propyne?
NaOH (I) CH3 CH2ONa (II)
CH3 CH2MgBr (III) NaH IV
NaNH2 V Na VI
NaHCO3 VII CH3 CH2 NLi VIII
CH3 CH2Li IX
31. How many of the following are reducing sugars?
Glucose Fructose Mannose Sucrose Maltose Cellobriose
Lactose Cellulose Starch
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
The formation constant of complex HgI24 is 1.0 10
n5
32.
Given: E 2 0.85 and E 2 0.05 V.
Hg /Hg HgI4 /Hg, I
The value of ‘n’ is
10
33. 30 ml of 0.2 M NaOH is added to 50 ml 0.2 M CH3 COOH is give 80 ml of the solution. mL of
x
0.2 M NaOH required to make the pH of the solution 5.00. The value of ‘x’ is
Given: The ionization constant of CH3 COOH 2 105.
34. Iron exists as BCC at 10C while exist as FCC at 910C. What would be the percentage decrease
in volume of iron at 910C from 10C?
35. Among the following how many of the molecule is linear?
CO2 , NO2 , SO2 , N3 , C2H2 , I3 , XeF2 , BeCl2 , CS 2
36. For the reaction: 3A g 2B g , the rate of formation of ‘B’ at 298 K is represented as
d B
ln 0.04 2ln A . The order of reaction is
dt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1 1
37. If , , are in A.P. for 0 and , then for quadratic equation
ax 2 bx 1 0
(A) a 2, (B) a , 2
(C) a , 0 (D) a 0,
38. lim
n r 3
8
n
r 3 r 3
8
1 2
(A) (B)
3 5
3 2
(C) (D)
8 7
39.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Let P be a point (not origin) lying on the parabola x 2 y . The normal line to the parabola at P
will intersect the parabola at another point Q. The minimum possible value for area bounded by
the line PQ and the parabola is
2 3
(A) (B)
3 4
4 3
(C) (D)
3 5
40. If
tan x
2
sec 2 x 3 tan x 17
for
x , then number of solutions of
2 3
1 tan x 2 2
1 tan x 1 tan x
tan x x 2 1 is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) Infinite
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
41. Which is/are correct?
2
sin3 xdx x 1 sin3 xdx cos3 x
(A) 3 sin 2x. x 1 ln dx (B) 0 2x dx
0 1 x 0 e 0 x
sin3 xdx cos3 x sin3 xdx
(C) dx 0 (D) 3 sin 2x x 1 ln x 1 dx
0 1 x 0 x 0 1 x 0
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Yash Patil 12
6 1 6 3 1
42. If , are roots of x 2 x 1 0 , then quadratic whose roots are either 3 or
3
is/are
(A) x 2 5x 4 0 (B) x 2 7x 12 0
(C) x 2 5x 6 0 (D) x 2 9x 14 0
k n k 1
k 1 dx x2
43. If f n x x 1 and g x x 1 ln f x , then
k 1 k x 1
(A) g' 0 2 (B) g'' 0 1
r n
1 1
(C) g' 1 (D) lim g r loge 2
2 n
r 1 2.e 1 n
44. If P moves on a circle which touches both the axis and angle bisector of APB for two different
positions of P in the same segment are given by x y 3 and x y 1 , then radius of circle can
be _______ (AB is given chord)
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
45. Let f : R 0, 1 be a continuous function, then which of the following pair of vectors are linearly
dependent for some x 0, 1 ?
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) a f x ˆi 2ˆj, b x 2 ˆi 3ˆj (B) a f x ˆi 3 ˆj, b x 2 ˆi 2ˆj
1 x 1 x
(C) a f t dt ˆi 3ˆj, b xiˆ 2jˆ (D) a f t dt ˆi 2ˆj, b xiˆ 3ˆj
0 0
46. Matrices of order 2 2 are formed by using the elements of the set A 2, 1, 0, 1, 2 . Then,
probability that matrix is either symmetric or skew-symmetric, is greater than
1 2
(A) (B)
10 15
3 3
(C) (D)
5 10
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
2x 2 ax 2 ey
47. Number of integral values of a for which is true x R and y 0 (where [.]
x2 x 1 y 1
denotes G.I.F), is
0
48. If det (A) = , where is complex number, is its conjugate and det 2A 2 2A 144 ,
2
then tr(A) is either m or n, then (m + n) = ________.
x 1
49. If f(x) x R & 1 & 1 is a self-inverse function such that
x
f(4) f(12) 1
f , then “” is equal to
4 12 1
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
h1(x) h1(1)
50. If f(x) x 1 & g1 (x) x 3 x 1 , let gof x h x , then lim =
x 1 x 1
51. Let be a complex number satisfying i 3 2 i 0 and be a complex number satisfying
| 1| 4 , then maximum value of | | is
52. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 such that transpose of inverse of A is A itself, then
| adj(adjA) | is equal to
53. If p sin4 cos 4 1 and q cos6 sin6 1 , R , then the value of
p q max p qmin is (where [.] is G.I.F)
54. Let n x1 x2 x3 x9 is formed using the digit 1, 2 9 . Each digit is being used once only. If n1
is number of possible n for which 1 | x3 x4 | 5 and n2 is number of possible n for which
n
| x3 x4 | 1 , then 1 is equal to (where [.] is G.I.F)
n2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – III
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
1. ABC
TG ~ @bohring_bot
d d t
Sol. k , k dt t dt
dt
In kt 0 ekt
0
dx
0 ekt
dt
x t kt
0 dx 0 0 e dt
0 kt t
x
k 0 k k
e 0 ekt 1 , x 0 1 e kt
d
k , d k dx
dx
x
d k dx
0 0
0 kx , 0 kx
2. ABD
Sol. B
uA A V
m u A
m u A
mi v i mi v i
Fx t
Fy t
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
x components: m u Fx t m ucos
y components: Fy t m usin
Substituting m A A V t and u A V, we obtain
2 2
Fx A A V 1 cos and Fy A A V sin
2
Power Fx V A A V 1 cos V
d power
dV
A 2A 4 A V 3V 2 1 cos 0
VA V
V A V For maximum power V A
3 3
3. ACD
Sol. f qv 'B sin q 2v cos B sin Bqv sin
2 2
2
Since, speed at topmost point is maximum
N mg 2Bqv
Fmag qv 'B
R
TG ~ @bohring_bot
/2
v
v ' 2v cos
v 2
To loose the contact, N 0
mg
v
2qB
4. AD
Sol. Let Y ax 2 ( A parabola)
H 2
Y x ( from given data)
R2
Fup
x y
y
a
R
H
mg
x
dy
v
dt
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1 dv
mg L x 2 y g m
2 dt
dv x2 ygL L x 2 yg
g g g
dt R2H s R 2 H
2s
2
dv gy 2
v g L 2
dy s H
0 H
L gy 2
vdv (g
0 0 s H2
) dy
gL
o gH H
3s
L
3
s
5. ABCD
Sol. Due to pseudo force, electrons move from B to A.
a
A E B VA > VB
-ive +ive
TG ~ @bohring_bot
In figure (b) electron moves from A to B
Region I Region II
6. BC
Sol.
V
N
P N
VC is Horizontal only.
VP VPC VC
VP 0
Mechanical energy conservation,
1 2
mgR 1 cos mVbead VBead 2v cos / 2
2
gR 2sin2 / 2 2v 2 cos2 / 2
V = gR tan / 2
em Icm 0 As Icm 0
NR sin N R R cos
tan / 2
2 tan1
7. C
Sol. For He absorption occur from level 2 4
For Li2 absorption occur from level 3 6
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
8. D
st
Sol. (I) If 1 case E E1 E0 sin t
nd
If 2 case E E2 E0 sin t
If 3rd case E E1 E2 E0 'sin t
All three cases effective value is same E0 ' E0
2
3
(II) Case : (2) When S3 , S 4 closed Z1 2R
2
Case : (2) When all opened Z2 R2 XC XL
XC
XC XL R XC 2R 2
R
4 XC 8
5 R 5
(III) When S1, S2 closed Z1 5R
When S3, S4 closed Z2 2R
I1 2 I 2
1
I2 5 I2 5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(IV) When all opened Z1 2R
When S2 , S3 Closed Z2 R
2
I3 1 I
3
I4 2 I4 2
9. B
Sol. (I) The fundamental frequency in the string.
T/ 102.4 1
f0 Hz 320 Hz.
2 1 10 3 2 0.5
Other possible resonance frequencies are f A and f0 320 Hz, 640 Hz, 960 Hz.
(II) The fundamental frequency in the string.
T/ 320
f0 160 Hz.
4 4 0.5
Other possible resonance frequencies are
fB 160 Hz, 480 Hz, 800 Hz.
(III) The fundamental frequency in both ends open organ pipe is
v 320
f0 320 Hz.
2 2 0.5
Other possible resonance frequencies are
fc 320 Hz, 640 Hz, 960 Hz
(IV) The fundamental frequency in one end open organ pipe is
v 320
f0 160 Hz.
4 4 0.5
Other possible resonance frequencies are
fD 160 Hz, 480 Hz, 800 Hz.
10. B
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1 2V 3V
Sol. Ex Ey Ez
a b c
V E.d
Section – B
11. 25.00
Sol. Acceleration of train = a
Motion of bob w.r.t. train:
Initially V bob /train O
o
From A B, pseudo force F = ma acts on bob. Let bob turns through 180
and has speed v’ at highest position
V’
1800
v
F
F = ma A
(pseudo) at rest
W/E theorem A B :
1
FR = mv 2 mgh
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
mv 2
2 ma mg …….(i)
R
B C : Now train has stopped, a = 0,
No pseudo force acts on bob.
Conservation of Energy
1 1
mgR + mv '2 mv 2
2 2
mv '2 mv 2
2mg
R R
T + mg = 2 (ma – mg) – 2mg [From eq. (i)]
On solving a 25m / s 2
12. 6.00
Sol. Q
Vbr = 5
PQ = 5 8 4 0m
37o w.r.t Ground
P Boat
Vb Vbr Vr
Velocity must be along PQ
vbr sin vr sin37
sin 7 / 25
Vbr Vb Q
Q
P Vr
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
40
t 6 sec.
v br cos v r cos 37o
13. 25.00
Sol. I1 I2 13I0
2
I2 I2 I0
I1 I2 2 I1 I2 I0
2 I1 I2 12I0
2
Imax 13I0 12I0 25I0 5 I0
14. 0.50
8 2 6 3 10 6 7
Sol. E.n A
22 32 62 47
15. 41.23
vy
Sol. tan
vx
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16. 1.80
q1
Sol. VI VG 0
7
1.80
VIG
11
17. 2.75
11R
Sol. Equivalent resistance across capacitor (after shorting the battery) =
4
3E
Voltage across capacitor in steady state =
4
4t
CE
q 1 e1 RC
4
18. 5.94
P 1mm
Sol. Least count 0.01 mm
N 100
Diameter of the wire is
d 4mm 56 L.C 6 L.C
d 4mm 50 L.C
d 4mm 50 0.01mm
d 4.50mm
d 0.450 cm
The curved surface area of the wire is
S dl
22
S 0.450 4.2 5.94cm2
7
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. ABC
Sol. x 1 x2 8x 12 0
x 1, 2, 6
2r a
x r 0 , a0 , 3a0
a0 2
Minimum position maximum position
0.5 a0 3a0
20. BCD
Sol. It will give Cannizzaro because it fails to give self aldol
CH3
CH CHO II
CH3
IV
TG ~ @bohring_bot
O CHO
O O
C C H VI
These will give Cannizzaro reaction.
21. AD
* *
Sol. C2 1s 2 1s 2 2s 2 2s2 2p2x 2p2y
forms bond
22. BCD
Sol. Fact
23. AB
Sol. CH3 CH3
H Cl LiAlH4 H H
H D H D
CH3 CH3
A Optically active
CH3 CH3
H Cl LiAlH4 D H
H D H D
CH3 CH3
A Optically active
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
24. ABCD
Sol. (A) NH3 has higher boiling point than AsH3 and PH3 on account H-bonding. SbH3 has highest
boiling point on account of highest molecular weight.
(B) As the size of element increases, the strength of M-H bond decreases and thus stability
decreases.
(C) Basicity decreases down the group. (Drago rule).
(D) (Drago rule). HEH angle : NH3 107.8;PH3 93.6,AsH3 91.8;SbH3 91.3.
25. A
Sol. Electrolysis of NaCl
(I) Fused NaCl
(II) Conc. NaCl(aq)
(III) Dil. NaCl(aq)
(IV) NaCl (mercury electrode)
(I) Fused NaCl:
At cathode:
Na e Na s ;E 2.71V
At anode:
2Cl Cl2 g 2e ;E -1.36V
Voltage 2.71 1.36 4.07V
(II) Conc. NaCl(aq)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
At cathode:
2H 2e H2 g ;E 0.00V
2H2O 2e H2 g 20H ;E 0.828V
Na e Na ;E 2.71V
At anode:
40H O2 2H2O 4e ;E 0.401V
2H2O O2 4H 4e ;E 1.229V
T,K 2Cl Cl2 2e ;E 1.36V
(due to over voltage and high conc. of Cl-)
At cathode: H2 g
At anode: Cl2 g , [O2 also but percentage may be low]
To increase the kinetics of reactions a higher voltage (as from required) is provided, due to this
Cl- start to oxidized at the anode, So
Cl2 higher voltage
O2 lower voltage
(III) Dil. NaCl(aq)
At cathode:
2H2O 2e H2 g 20H ;E 0.828V
At anode:
2H2O O2 g 4H 4e ;E 1.229V
At cathode: H2 g
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
At anode: O2 g
(IV) NaCl(aq) (Mercury electrode):
As Na makes an amalgam with Hg so the kinetics favoured the occurrence of Na rather than
H2 g .
26. D
Sol. Fact
27. A
Sol. O
NaBH4
CH2 CH CH CH2 CH CH2OH
(I) alc.
Unsaturated alcohol
pH(4-5)
(II) C6H5CH O + H 2N Ph C6H5CH N Ph
Schiff's base
C6 H 5 CH3 C 6H 5 CH3
pH(4-5)
(III) C O + HN C N
H3C CH2CH3 H 2C CH2CH3
Enamine
O
TG ~ @bohring_bot
OCH2R
(IV) R CH + 2RCH 2 H+
R HC
OCH 2R
Acetal
28. C
Sol. H3C CH3
+
(I) H 3C C Cl+ EtO Na + EtOH
H3C H3C Alcohol
CH2
Q
(II) CH3CH2Cl + Me3CO Na CH3CH2 O C(Me)3 + CH2 CH2
P
+
(III) Cl + MeO Na NO rxn
+
(IV) O Na + Me Cl O CH3
Anisole R
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Section – B
29. 61.00
Sol.
+2 +2 -3 +3 +5 +4 2-
K4[Fe(CN)6] [O]
K2O + Fe 2O 3 + NO-3 + CO 3
48
12
Total in oxidation number 48 12 1 61
So ‘n’ factor 61
30. 25.00
Sol.
HIn
H In
10.6 0.6
0.4
In
pH pKIn log
HIn
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2.176 pKIn log
pKIn 2 KIn 102
0.6
0.4
HIn
H In
10.6 0.6
0.4
now
HIn H In
C1 3.33103 C
3.33 10 3 C
102
C 1
3 3 3
1
0.75
So HIn 1 0.75 0.25
% HIn 25%
31. 15.38
Sol. Total work done in the cyclic process
Area under PV
P 0V 0
Now,
A
B
C D A
Heat taken Heat taken Heat rejected Heat rejected
3R 3R
1 2T T 1 4T 2T
2 2
at constant volume at constant pressure
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
3 5
RT 2RT
2 2
1.5RT 5RT
At point A
1.5P0 V0 5P0 V0
P0 V0 1RT
Total Heat taken
6.5 P0 V0
work done P0 V0
0.1538 i.e. 15.38%.
Heat taken 6.5P0 V0
32. 600.00
Sol. o-nitrophenol p-nitrophenol
Note:
H
O O
N
O
Due to intramolecular H Bonding V P of O nitrophenol will be higher. If one have V P 400 &
the V P of mixture is 520 mm of Hg, i.e. the V P of other will be higher than 400, so if P is the
TG ~ @bohring_bot
V P then it will of O nitrophenol
O nitrophenol P nitrophenol
P 400
520 P 0.6 400 0.4
520 160 360
P 600 mm of Hg.
0.6 0.6
33. 122.40
1 1
Sol. 25.7 13.6 z 2 .....(i)
2
2 n2
1 1
8.7 13.6 z2 .....(ii)
2
3 n2
Now (i) (ii)
25.7
n2 4 9n2
8.7
4n2 n2 9
25.7 9n2 36
8.7 4n2 36
2.95 4n2 2.95 36 9n2 36
n2 11.816 9 36 1.95
n2 25 n5
Now,
1 1
25.7 13.6z 2
4 25
z3
Ionisation energy 13.6 32 122.4 eV
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
34. 25.00
Sol.
CuSO2 5H2O CuSO4 3H2O s 2H 2 O g
p
kp p2
10 4 p2
p 10 2 atm
102 760 7.6 mm of Hg
7.6
Relative humidity 100 25%
30.4
35. 915.00
Sol. In BCC nearest neighbor distance
3a
2
3a
4.52
2
2 4.52
a A
3
ZM 2 39 2 39
TG ~ @bohring_bot
d 0.915 g/cc
NV 3 6 14.2
23 2 4.52 24
6 10 10
3
915 kg/m3
36. 7482.60
Sol. Given: P1 16 bar, T1 300 K, P2 1 bar, T2 ?
To calculate T2 use:
1
TP cons t
1 1
T1P1 T2P2
1 1
300 16 T2 1
3
1
T2 300 16 4
300
T2 150 K
2
Wrev.adia nC V T2 T1
2 3R 150 300
7482.6 J
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. BC
Sol. x4 x 5 1
1
x 5
x4
1
r 25 5 25 20
r4
1
Similarly, 4 5 r
r
38. A
1 a 1
Sol. 2 1 3 0
a 1 3
1
a or 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
But for a = 2, two vectors are parallel.
39. D
Sol. I f x dx
I f x dx f 3 x dx
3x
2
So, 7I 8 dx
3 3 8
2 2 8
9 4a 9 8 9 4a 1 a 0
9
1 a
4
40. AB
1
Sol. If x2 1 x 0 has equal and real roots,
24
2 1
1 4..
24
6 2 13 6 0
13 169 144 2 3
or
26 3 2
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
41. BD
n n
1 n 1 1 1
Sol. lim
n nn
. nn 1 1
n 2n
1 2 ........
2 n
1 1
2
e1.e 2 .e 2 ..........
1
1 1 1
1 2 ....... 1
e 2 2
e 2 e2 7.3441
42. AB
Sol. z1 z2 1 & z1 z 2 1
z1 z2 z1 1 ei 1
z1 z2 z1 1 ei 1
z 2 z1
b
z1 z2 z1 1
a
c
& z1z 2 z12
a
b2 c
2 b2 ac
a a
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 cos2 2cos sin2 1
2 2cos 1
1 2
cos
2 3
43. C
Sol. AEEI (4 vowels) and DRJLNG (6 consonants)
4
N 6 12 720
2
2 6 3 3 51
44. A
Sol. Either increasing or decreasing part lie in [0, 2] [0, 1]
Then y 0 c 1 or 0
and y x ax b c y 2 2 2a b c 1 or 0
1
2a b
2
2 2 b
If is root, a 2 b c 0 1 0 ……. (i)
a a a a a
4 a 2b 1 0
b 1
1 0 …….. (ii)
2a 4a
1
From (i) and (ii),
2
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1
2a
b 2 p 2 p 3 11
Sum of roots =
a a 4
1 11
4 a 2b 1 0 2
2a 4
1 1 3 2
b 2 a For a 0 , a
2 2a 4 3
2 2
For a 0 , a a
3 3
a 0.66
45. D
2 x 1 1
Sol. f x tan has point of minima at x
2 2x 2
2
So, range ,
ek 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
ek 1 k0
1
So, for k , 0 , we have two solutions.
e
In the same manner use graphs.
46. A
Sol. z2 z z 2 z z z
zz z z z z
x 2 y 2 1 or x 0
circle straight line
P
B A
–3 6 3
PA PB 6
means, P lies on straight line
& PA PB 6 shows it is hyperbola.
Section – B
47. 1.33
2
Sol. 1 | x | 3 & tan 1
3 2 6
1 1
x x 3.
3 3
1 1 4
1 .
2 3 3
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
Yash Patil
48. 0.25
x
Sol. y 2
y2 x2y x 0
x y
x
2x. 2 1
dy
2xy 1
dy
2
x y
2 2
y
2x x y / x y
dx x 2
2y dx
x yy x
y
y
y(x 2 y)
1 dy
y x2
(x 2 y)(x y 2 ) y dx (x 2 y)(x y 2 )
d y x2 y x dx
2
ln y 2 ln y c x y x y
dx
x y x y2 2 2
49. 4.50
Sol. Graph of 9 sin x 4 cosec x is
13
12
12 2k 4 13
TG ~ @bohring_bot
8 2k 9
9
4k
2
9
k
2
50. 1.78
2
1 4 1 16
Sol. (distance from focus)2 = (Circumradius) L.R. . R 4 R
4 3
4 9
51. 14.00
n dx
e
|x|
Sol. n 1 esin x
n
e dx.
|x|
0
1 x x
n e n e 1
0
50
n 1
n 1! 1 3 17 !
1
So | a b | 14
52. 1.00
Sol. x 3 x 2 x 1 ( x 1)( x 1) 2 , f ( x) g ( x ) have 3 real and distinct roots
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
0 a2 2 1
[a 2 ] 2
3 2
Now x x x 1 2
has solution in (1, 2)
the integral part of root is 1.
53. 4.00
Sol.
3x 2 1
3x 1
2
x 4
x2 x x 1
2 2
2x 2 x 2 1
x x2 1
2x x2 1
x2 1 x
2 2
Equality for 2x 2 x 2 1
x2 1
x 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2
3x 2 1
0 x4 x2
dx 2 2
2 0 4
54. 147.00
176 22
Sol. Required probability =
10 10 10 125
So, p q 147
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
1. B
Sol. Since B & revolve in opposite since, thus they are oppositely charged. From direction of motion of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
the charges QA = + ve QB & QD -ve QC neutral
2. A
R R2
Sol. CF1 and h1 3 cm
2cosi 2 R2 h2
1
i
i h1
i
C F1
R2 25
CF2 and h2 4 cm CF2 CF1 cm
2 R2 h22 24
3. A
Sol. If maximum loss in kinetic energy is greater than first excitation energy inelastic collision may take
place.
4. D
2 Q Q Q Q Q Q
Q
2 2 2 2 2 2
Sol. 2 1 Li2
0
2C 2
Q
I0
2 LC
S
i L
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
5. ACD
Sol. 1i 2 j
y
L
1i G
x
r
2 j C
z
vC rC 0
1i 2 j Li r j 0
L2 r1 k 0 2 1i / L
1i r1 / L j
1
Hx Ix x mr 2 1
2
2 1 2
Hz Iz z mL mr 0 0
4
6. AD
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A
Option B and C are incorrect.
7. ABC
Sol. Let N be the number of fringes within the length x, then we have,
D xd
N x N x N
d D
At any time t
x
N d vt
D
dN xv
.
dt D
8. ABCD
mV0 2mV0
Sol. r , and PQ 2r sin sin
qB qB
2r
Time taken t
V
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
9. ABC
Sol. From graph in time from t 0 to t 3 sec.
Acceleration of object of mass m1 10 kg is
15 0
a 5 m / s2
3
Force on object of mass m 1 from t 0 to t 3 sec . ...(i)
10 5 50 N
Before and after collision at t 4 sec, the velocities of blocks are as shown.
m1 10kg u1 15m / s m2 25kg u2
Before collision
m1 m2 35kg v 5m / s
After collision
Initial momentum of system
m1u1 m2u2 150 25 u2
Final momentum of system
m1 m2 v 35 5 175
From conservation momentum
TG ~ @bohring_bot
150 25 u2 175
or u2 1 m/s
speed of second particle just before collision is 1 m/s and before collision both blocks move in
same direction.
10. BCD
Sol. Stage 1
+Q -Q
Vacuum Vacuum T1
Gas
L1
Q2 nRT1
P1AL1 nRT1 P1A (Force Balancing)
2A 0 L1
Stage 2
Charge is suddenly changed
KQ -KQ
Gas T1
L1
System is not in equilibrium
Stage 3
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
KQ -KQ
T2 L 2 CL1
Gas
L2
Finally system in equilibrium
K 2 Q2 nRT2
P2 AL 2 nRT2 P2 A
2A0 L2
Energy of the system is conserved between stage 2 and 3.
1 f 1 f
0E22 AL1 nRT1 0E22 AL2 nRT2
2 2 2 2
On solving all the above equation
T2 2K 2 f Q2L1
w ext K 2 1 K 2 1 nRT1
T1 2f 2A0
Section – B
11. 6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
4 3
Sol. V r .... (1)
3
Q
....(2)
4r 2
p0
2 / 2 0 p
2 4s
p p0 .... (3)
2 0 r
p p0 0 .... (4)
2
1 Q 4s
20 16 2r 4 r
n6
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. 1
Sol.
r
a
d2
a2
4
d/2
ad/ 2
r
2a 2 ad
i 2a 2 ad
d2 d2
a2 a2
4 4
d d
a a
2 2
sini sinr
d
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
a
13. 2
Sol. Fb BIL , ( L r 1m )
Induced current: I
B r 2 / 2
R
Br 2 2 3
B r
Fb B r
2R 2R
To maintain constant angular velocity:
Fb
F r FB r / 2
2 3
FB B2 r 3 10 2 1
F 50N
2 4R 4
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
14. 3
Sol. Apparent distance of mirror from O
O
x
y
x
Distance of final image from O
y
2 x
Velocity of image
dx 1 dy 2 2
2 8 8 12 cm / s
dt dt 4/3
15. 3
Sol. For S1S2 2.5 max path different 2.5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Min path different 0
Between 2.5 and 0 lie 2 and two circular bright fringes
n1 2
For S1S2 5.7, max. path different 5.7
Min path different 0
Between 5.7 and 0 lie 5, 4, 3 2, Five circular bright fringes.
n2 5
n2 n1 5 2 3
16. 9
Sol. f a Z 1
f a 31 1
25f
a 51 1
x
x9
17. 5
v
Sol. fm f
v v s cos min
v
1800 f
v v s cos max
On solving,
fm 2250 Hz
2300 50
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
18. 2
Sol. Net power given to N2 gas 100 30 70 cal/s
The nitrogen gas expands isobarically
dq dT 7 dT
n Cp or 70 5 R
dt dt 2 dt
dT
2k / sec
dt
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. C
3d 4s2
Sol. Mn
3
[Mn CN6 ]3 2.8 so n2
unpaired
3
for [Mn CN6 ]3
xx xx xx xx xx xx
Octahedral
2
[MnBr4 ]2 5.5 so n5
so,
xx xx xx xx
20. A
TG ~ @bohring_bot Tetrahedral
Sol. CHO CH N NH Ph
H OH N NH Ph
HO H HO H + PhNH2
+ 3 Ph-NH-NH2
H OH H OH
+ NH3
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
21. D
Sol.
3A
B K C 8 1015
Initially 3 0
Assume 3-3 1
0 1
Actually 3x 1-x
1
1
So 8 1015
3
3x
1
3x 3
8 1015
1
3x 105
2
A 3x 5 106
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
22. B
Sol. Fact.
23. ABC
Sol.
1 3
V 2
T(K)
(A) for 1 2
V &T so
By PV nRT
nRT
P
V
P will
(B) for 2 3
VT
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So P will be constant
(C) at 1 & 3, T is higher at 3 so
P3 P1
24. BD
Sol. O O O
HO O O OH
S S S
O O OH
H O O O
(B) (D)
25. ACD
Sol. Dacron is a condensation polymer. Teflon, neoprene and acrylonitrile are addition polymers.
Hence option (A, C and D) is the answer.
26. ABCD
Sol.
Zwitter ion
E Nu:
Aromatic Aromatic
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
27. ABD
Sol. Maleic acid is stronger acid than fumaric acid
Maleic acid form cyclic ring after ionization while fumaric acid cannot do so that’s why maleic acid
pK a1 1.9, pK a1 6.1 is more stringer acid than fumaric acid pK a1 3.0, pKa1 4.4 .
H COOH H COOH
C C
C C
H COOH HOOC H
Maleic acid Fumaric acid
O
H C
H COOH O-
C +
C
H + H
C
C H O
C
H COOH
O
Maleic acid
28. BC
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Na metal
Ph CH CH CH CH3 + H2
(1)
ONa
* OH
CH CH CH CH3
Br2/CCl4
OH Ph CH CH CH CH3
(2)
Br Br
(Q)
I2/NaOH
(3) Ph CH CH COOH+ CHI 3
(R)
‘P’ has optical and geometrical isomers.
Section – B
29. 5
Sol. O
O O
HOOC COOH HOOC COOH
HOOC COOH
-3 CO2 -2 CO2
HOOC O C
HOOC
HOOC COOH COOH C
O
O
5 mole CO2
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
30. 6
Sol. The following will release H2 gas with propyne
CH3 CH2MgBr (III) , NaH IV , NaNH2 V , Na VI , CH3 CH2 NLi VIII , CH3CH2Li IX
31. 6
Sol. Glucose Fructose Mannose Maltose Cellobiose Lactose
32. 6
Sol. Hg2 2e Hg G1o 2F 0.85
Hg 4I HgI24 2e Go2 2F 0.05
So
Hg2 4I HgI24 Go 2F 0.90
0.06
0.90 logK f
2
K f 1.0 1030
33. 3
Sol. m.m. of NaOH 30 0.2 6 m.m
m.m. of CH3 COOH 50 0.2 10 m.m
Now:
10
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH3 COOH NaOH CH3 COONa H2O
6 0
10 6 4 66 0 6
6
pH log 2 10 5 log 4
4.87
Suppose ‘v’ mL of NaOH is added then
m.m of CH3 COONa 6 v 0.2
m.m of CH3 COOH 4 v 0.2
6 0.2v
5 log 2 105 log
4 0.2v
6 0.2v
0.3010 log
4 0.2v
6 0.2v
So 2 v 3.33mL
4 0.2v
34. 8
Vbcc Vfcc
Sol. % decrease in vol 100
Vbcc
1 1
dbcc dfcc
100
1
dbcc
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
3 3
NA 4r NA 4r
2 56 3 3 4 56 2 2
3
NA 4r
2 56 3 3
1 1
3 3 2 2 2
1
3 3
0.46
100 8%
5.65
35. 7
Sol. OCO
1 2
N N N
H C C H
I I I
TG ~ @bohring_bot
F Xe F
Cl Be Cl
SCS
are linear
36. 2
1 d B n
Sol. kA
2 dt
Taking ln on both side
1 d B
ln ln lnk n ln A
2 dt
d B 1
ln lnk ln n ln A
dt 2
So n2
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. D
1 1
Sol. 2
1
2
2 a 0 a 2 0 a 2
a
But 0 0a0
1
38. D
Sol.
3 3
8 4
5 8 ........ n 8
3
8 3 3
3 3
8 4
8 5 8 3
n 8
3 3
Use: n 8 n 2 n 2n 4
3 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
and n 8 n 2 n 2n 4
3 2
1.2.3.4. n 3 n 2n 4 3
We get, product
n 1 n. n 1n 2 .7.12
1.2.3.4 2
For n , its value
7.12 7
39. C
Sol. Let P t, t 2 and Q s, s 2 .
So, equation of normal at P is x 2 y t 2t 3
t 3
1 x 4 1 4
Area t 2 x 2 dx t AM GM
s 2 2t 3 4t 3
(Here, take t > 0)
40. B
Sol. Let 1 tan x t 2
2
t 2
1 3
t 4 t 2 16
2
t 2
t t4
t3 8 t 2 1
But t > 0 and t 1
tan x 1, 0 0, 3
–1
x 0 or 0 x tan1 3
4
Only one solution on graph.
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
41. AC
sin3 xdx 3 1
Sol. 0 x 1 0 sin(I) x 1 x dx
(II)
0 3 sin2 x.ln x 1 dx
(I)
0 (II)
3 0 sin2x. x 1 ln x 1 1 dx
0
2 2
sin3 xdx sin3 x cos3 x
& 0 2x 2 0 2x dx 2 0 2x dx
2
cos3 x
dx
0 x
42. ABC
Sol. 2 1 0 6 3 1 3.3
6 1 4 3
6 1
4
3
Similarly,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 1 0
6 3 1 3.3
6 3 1
3
3
43. BCD
n 1 n 1
Sol. f n n 1 ln ln
n 2 2
n 1 x 1
g n ln g x loge
2 2
2 1
g' x . g' 0 0
x 1 2
1
g'' x 2
g'' 0 1
x 1
r n r n r n
1 1 1 1
& lim
n
r 1 log
e
r 1
r 1 r 1 1 n r 1 n r
2.e 2 1 n 1
n
44. AD
Sol. (2, 1) lies on circle
2 2
2 r 1 r r 2 for touching circles on axis.
r 2 6r 5 0
r 1 or 5
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
45. BCD
f x 2
Sol. (A) g x 3f x 2x 2
x2 3
g 0 0 & g 1 0 or 0
So, can’t say.
(B) g x 2f x 3x 2
g 0 0 & g 1 0
Similarly, (C) and (D).
46. AB
53 5 1
Sol. Probability 0.203
54
Section – B
47. 5
Sol. y0
ey
1
y 1
2x 2 ax 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
x2 x 1
x 2 x a 1 1 0x R
1 a 3
So, no. of integer a = 5
48. 7
2 1 0
Sol. A . and A I
2 1
2
A I 1 1
2
A I tr A 1
Given, 2A 2 2A 144
A 2 A 36
A A I 36
2 2
1 36
1 6 or 6
2 6 or 6
1 i 2.3
3 or –2 or
21
1 i 2.3
3 or –2 or
2 1
6 or –4 or 1
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AITS-FT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
49. 8
f(4) f(12)
Sol.
2
4 12
8
2
50. 4
1
Sol. f 1(x) x 1 then h1(x) g f(x)
d 1
dx
h (x) 3x 2 1 f 1 g1(x) (reversal law)
f 1 x 3 x 3 x 1
3
x x
h 1
(1) ' 3 1 4
51. 6
Sol. || ||||
Now,
i 3 2 2 i 0
2 i 1 i i 1 0
TG ~ @bohring_bot
| | 1
so | | 1 5 6
52. 1
Sol. Given that A 1,T A (A T )1 AA T I
| A | 1
2
Now, | adj(adjA) | | A |2 1
53. 4
3 1
Sol. p ,2 ,q ,1
2 4
7
pq3
4
p qmax p q min
3 1 4
54. 2
Sol. n1 2(7 6 5) 7! 36(7!)
n2 16(7!)
n1 36
2
n2 16
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – IV
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. Two particles are projected with sped 4 m/s and 3 m/s
simultaneously from same point as shown in the figure. Then:
(A) Their relative velocity is along vertical direction.
(B) Their relative acceleration is non-zero and it is along
vertical direction.
(C) They will hit the surface simultaneously.
(D) Their relative velocity is constant and has magnitude 1.4
m/s.
2. In the system shown in figure m1 > m2. system is held at rest by
thread BP. Just after the thread BP is burnt:
(A) Magnitude of acceleration of both blocks will be equal to
m1 m2
g
m1 2m2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) Acceleration of m1 will be equal to zero.
(C) Acceleration of m2 will be upwards
(D) Magnitudes of acceleration of two blocks will be non-zero and
unequal.
3. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the rough hill by a force
which at each point was directed along tangent to the hill. Work
done by the force
(A) Is independent of shape of trajectory
(B) Depends upon vertical component of displacement but
independent of horizontal component.
(C) Depends upon both the components of displacement.
(D) Does not depend upon coefficient of friction.
4. A thin uniform rod AB of mass 1 kg move translationally with
acceleration a = 2m/s2 due to two antiparallel force as shown. If
= 20 cm then:
(A) F1 = 3N
(B) F1 = 5N
(C) Length of rod is 1 m
(D) Length of rod is 80 cm
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
5. S is solid neutral conducting sphere. A point charge q of 1 ×
10–6 C is placed at point A. Point C is the centre of sphere and
AB is a tangent. BC = 3m and AB = 4m:
(A) The electric potential of the conductor is 1.8 kV.
(B) The electric potential of the conductor is 2.25 kV.
(C) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on the
sphere is –0.45 kV.
(D) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on the
sphere is 0.45 kV.
6. Two light bulbs shown in the circuit have ratings
A(24 V, 24 W) and B(24 V and 36 W) as shown.
When the switch is closed:
(A) the intensity of light in bulb A increases.
(B) the intensity of light in bulb A decreases.
(C) the intensity of light in bulb B increases.
(D) the intensity of light in bulb B decreases.
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
TG ~ @bohring_bot
answer.
7. Two men of mass 60 kg and 80 kg stand on a plank
of mass 20 kg. Both of them can jump with a velocity
of 1 m/s relative to the plank. In each event shown in
List-I, find the velocity of plank after the event.
Sign of right direction is (+ve) and (–ve) for left
direction.
List-I List-II
(I) Ram alone jumps to the left (P) 17
m /s
40
(II) Shyam alone jumps to the right (Q) 1
m /s
2
(III) Ram jumps to left and Shyam (R) 3
jumps to right simultaneously m /s
8
(IV) Ram jumps to left and after that (S) 1
Shyam jumps to right. m /s
8
(T) 1
m /s
3
The correct option is:
(A) I R, II Q, III S, IV P (B) I R, II Q, III P, IV S
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV P (D) I S, II T, III P, IV Q
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
8. A bird in air is diving vertically over a tank with speed 6 cm/s. Base
of tank is silvered. A fish in the tank is rising upward along the
same line with speed 4 cm/s. Water level is falling at rate of 2
cm/s. (take: water = 4/3)
List-I List-II
(I) Speed of the image of fish as seen by the (P) 12
bird directly (Apparent)
(II) Speed of the image of fish formed after (Q) 4
reflection fro the mirror as seen by the bird.
(III) Speed of image of bird relative to the fish (R) 9
looking upwards
(IV) Speed of image of bird relative to the fish (S) 3
looking downwards in the mirror
(T) 5
The correct option is:
(A) I R, II Q, III T, IV P (B) I R, II S, III P, IV Q
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV P (D) I T, II S, III P, IV Q
9. A long straight conductor of radius R carries a current I as
shown. The current density j varies as a function of radius
according to j = br where b is a constant. Match the quantities
in List-I with those in List-II.
List-I List-II
(I) Binside (P) Maximum
(II) Bsurface (Q) 0br 2
3
(III) Boutside (R) 2br 3
3
(IV) I (total current inside wire) (S) 0bR3
3r
(T) 0br 2
3
The correct option is:
(A) I R, II Q, III T, IV P (B) I R, II S, III P, IV Q
(C) I P, II Q, III R, IV S (D) I Q, II PT, III S, IV R
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
10. List–I shows the cylindrical region of radius r where a downward magnetic field B exists,
dB
and B is increasing at the rate of , A rod PQ is placed in different situation as
dt
shown. Match the list–I with the correct statement in list–II regarding the induced e.m.f.
in rod.
List-I List-II
(I) (P) Induced e.m.f. in rod PQ is
1 2 dB
r
2 dt
(II) (Q) Induced e.m.f. in rod PQ is less
1 dB
than r 2
2 dt
(III) (R) End P is positive with respect to
TG ~ @bohring_bot
point Q
(IV) (S) End Q is positive with respect to
point P
(T) End P and Q are at same potential
The correct option is:
(A) I RS, II T, III TP, IV PS (B) I RQ, II S, III PT, IV QP
(C) I QS, II PR, III SP, IV QR (D) I QR, II PS, III RP, IV QS
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. A convex surface has a uniform radius of curvature equal to 5R. A wheel of radius R is
rolling without sliding on it with a constant speed V. Find the acceleration of the point (P)
of the wheel which is in contact with the convex surface.
(V = 6 meter/second, R = 4 meter)
12. A man can jump up to a height of h0 = 1 m on the surface of the earth. What should be
TG ~ @bohring_bot
the radius of a spherical planet (in km) so that the man makes a jump on its surface and
escapes out of its gravity? Assume that the man jumps with same speed as on earth and
the density of plant is same as that of earth. Take escape speed on the surface of the
earth to be 11.2 km/s and radius of earth to be 6400 km. (g = 10 m/sec2)
13. The figure shows a schematic layout of a hydraulic jack. The load to be raised weighs
20,000 N. The area of cross section of the two pistons are A1 = 50 cm2 and A2 = 10 cm2.
The force (F) is applied at the end of a light lever bar as shown in the figure. Lengths a
and b are 4 cm and 36 cm respectively. Find the force (F) required to raise the load
slowly.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
14. Consider the -decay
198 198
Au Hg v
where 198Hg represents a mercury nucleus in an excited state of energy 1.088 MeV
above the ground state. What can be maximum kinetic energy of the electron emitted (in
kilo electron volt). The atomic mass of 198Au is 197.968233 u and that of 198Hg is
197.966760 u. 1 u = 931 MeV/c2.
15. Two circular aperture S1 and S2 of radii 1 mm and 2 mm. A parallel beam of light of
7
intensity Wm2 and wavelength 600 nm is incident normally as shown in the figure.
22
A transparent film of thickness 200 nm having refractive index 1 = 2 is placed in front of
S1, and other transparent film of thickness 200 nm and refractive index 1.5 is placed in
front of other slit. Find the resultant intensity (in W) at the centre of screen.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16. A vessel of volume 0.2 m3 contains hydrogen gas at temperature 300 K and pressure 1
bar. Find the heat (in Kcal) required to raise the temperature to 400 K. The molar heat
capacity of hydrogen at constant volume is 5 cal/mol K. (R = 8.31)
17. Steel wire of length ‘L’ at 40°C is suspended from the ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is
hung from its free end. The wire is cooled down from 40°C to 30°C to regain its original
length ‘L’.
The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the steel is 10–5 / 0C. Young’s modulus of
steel is 1011 N/m2 and radius of the wire is 1 mm. Assume that L >> diameter of the wire.
Then the value of ‘m’ in kg is nearly. (g = 10 m/sec2)
18. A tuning fork of frequency 200 Hz is in unison with a sonometer wire. How many beats
are heard in 30 s if the tension is increased by 1%.
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
19. Silicate having one monovalent corner oxygen atom in each tetrahedron unit is
(A) Sheet silicate (B) Cyclic silicate
(C) Single chain silicate (D) Double chain silicate
20. Given H0f C2H6 ,g 85 kJ / mole,
H0f C3H8 ,g 104 kJ / mole,
H0sub C,s 718 kJ / mole & B.E.of H H 436 kJ/mole.
Then, in kJ/mole, the
(A) C – C bond enthalpy is 218 (B) C – H bond enthalpy is 414
(C) C – C bond enthalpy is 345 (D) C – H bond enthalpy is 448
21. Which of the following plots of rate constant vs temperature is correct?
(A) (B)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K lnk
T 1/T
(C) (D)
lnk k
T T
22. The correct statement regarding Ytterbium is/are
(A) it contains no unpaired electrons
(B) Yb2+ contains a full-filled electronic configuration
(C) it produces H2 gas when reacts with HCl
(D) radius of Yb3+ is larger than Yb2+ ion
23. Which of the following carbide(s) form CH4 when react(s) with water?
(A) Be2C (B) CaC2
(C) Mg2C3 (D) Al4C3
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
(A) All adiabatic processes are isoentropic (or isentropic) process
(B) The heat of vaporization of water at 1000C is 40.6 kJ/mole. When 9g of water vapour
condenses to liquid at 1000C of 1 atm, then Ssystem 54.42 J / K
(C) When Gsystem 0 ; the reaction must be exothermic
T,P
(D) dG = Vdp – S dT is applicable for closed system, both PV and non – PV work
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
List – I List – II
(I) Br (P) Nucleophilic substitution
O
(II) (Q) Elimination
TG ~ @bohring_bot
OH
(III) CHO (R) Nucleophilic addition
OH
(IV) Br (S) Esterification with acetic anhydride
NO2
(T) Dehydrogenation
Which of the following is the correct combination?
(A) I PQT, II PST, III RS, IV P (B) I PST, II PQT, III PRS, IV PS
(C) I QT, II QR, III T, IV S (D) I SU, II PQR, III ST, IV ST
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
26. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
List – I List – II
(I) Work done in isobaric process (P) -Pext V
(II) Work done during free expansion (Q) P
nRTn 1
P2
(III) Work done in reversible adiabatic (R) V
process nRTn 1
V 2
(IV) Work done in adiabatic irreversible (S) -nR(Tfinal – Tinitial)
process
(T) Zero
Which of the following is the correct combination?
(A) I PS, II T, III P, IV PS (B) I T, II PQ, III P, IV Q
(C) I R, II S, III PS, IV QR (D) I P, II QT, III QR, IV ST
27. Match the following list-I with list-II.
List – I List - II
(Electronic configuration) (Corresponding elements)
(I) [Xe]4f145d106s2 (P) s-block elements
(II) [Rn]5f146d17s2 (Q) Transition elements
(III) [Xe]4f145d106s26p67s2 (R) d-block elements
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(IV) [Xe]4f145d26s2
(A) I T, II R, III QS, IV PR
(S) Representative elements
(T) Inner transition elements
(B) I RS, II RS, III P, IV Q
(C) I R, II T, III PS, IV QR (D) I P, II QT, III QR, IV ST
28. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
List – I List - II
(I) Gas evolved by the action of dilute (P) Colour of acidified KMnO4 is
H2SO4 on a sulphite discharged
(II) Gas evolved by the action of dilute (Q) Acidified dichromate solution is
H2SO4 carbonate turned green
(III) Gas evolved by heating an (R) Nessler’s reagent gives a brown
ammonium salt with NaOH precipitate
(IV) Gas evolved by the action of dilute (S)
Bartya water turns milky
H2SO4 on a sulphide
(T) Alkaline nitroprusside turns violet
(A) I PS, II ST, III RS, IV PQ (B) I PQS, II S, III R, IV PQT
(C) I PQ, II RS, III PQ, IV PQT (D) I ST, II QRS, III QR, IV ST
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. A sample of camphor used in a method for determining of molar mass had melting point
of 450 K. The melting point of a solution containing 0.5 gm camphor and 0.04 gm of an
unknown non-volatile non-electrolyte compound was 430 K. The molar mass of camphor
is 152 and its Hfusion 1.52 Kcal mol1. The molar mass of unknown compound in
gm/mole is………
R 2 cal mol1 K 1 .
30. What volume of 0.001 M HCl solution be added into 100 mL of 0.001 NaOH to change
the pH by one unit?
31. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of CaCl2, Ca(CH3COO)2 and HCl are
respectively 271.6, 200.8 and 425.95 S cm2 mol–1. What will be the molar conductance
of CH3COOH in S cm2 mol–1 unit?
32. For one mole of a vander Waals gas when b = 0 and T = 300 K, the PV vs 1/V plot is
shown below. The value of the van der Waals constant a (atm. litre2 mol–2) is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
33. Seldane contains a chemical named terfenadine. Reaction of this chemical with
Cu/300oC forms product(X).
Cu/300o C
X
N
Ph OH
HO
Ph
How many pi-bond(s) is/are present in (X)?
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
34. How much gram of Fe2+ ions can be completely oxidized into Fe3+ ions by 104.3 litre of
acidified KMnO4 solution of 0.1 M concentration, according to the following reaction.
MnO4 Fe2 H Mn2 Fe3 H2O
35. What is the percentage of ferric ion in the non-stoichiometric solid having formula
Fe0.96O.
o
36. Aluminium crystallises in a cubic system with unit cell edge length equal to 4.0 A . It its
45 o
density is g/cm3, then the atomic radius of Al atom in A is
16
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. Let V be the volume of the parallelogpiped formed by the vectors a a1ˆi a 2 ˆj a3k,
ˆ
a b1ˆi b2ˆj b3k,c
ˆ c ˆi c ˆj c k,
1 2 3
ˆ If a ,b ,c where r = 1,2,3 are non – negative
r r r
3
real numbers and a
r 1
r br c r 3L, then which of the following may hold
3 3
(A) L V (B) L V
3
(C) L V (D) Nothing can be said
38. The real parameters m and n are such that the graph of the function
f x 3 8x 3 mx 2 nx has the horizontal asymptote y = 1 then
(A) m n 10 (B) m n 14
x 14
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(C) m n 10
P x
(D) m n 2
39. If x6
dx arctan C, , .
1 Q x
1
(A) (B) P 1 0
3
(C) P 1 0 (D) Q 1 4
x b
b a
e e x
40. Let a and b be positive real numbers and f a, b dx, then
a
x
(A) f 1,2 0 (B) f 3, 1 2
(C) f 2,1 0 (D) f 1, 3 2
1 3 9
41. o
o o
cot 9 3 tan9
cot 27 3 tan 27 cot 81 3 tan 81o
o
27
cot 243 3 tan 243o
o
o o
(A) 10 tan 9 (B) 10 cot 81
o o
(C) 10 cot 9 (D) 10 tan 81
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
2 2
42. Point M moved on the circle x 4 y 8 20 . Then it broke away from it and
moving along a tangent to the circle, cuts the x – axis at the point (–2, 0). The
coordinates of a point on the circle at which the moving point broke away is:
3 46 2 44
(A) , (B) ,
5 5 5 5
(C) (6, 4) (D) (3, 5)
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Match the following list-I with list-II.
List– I List- II
(I) 3/5 5
x if x 1 (P)
Let f x 3 then the number of
x 2 if x 1
critical points on the graph of the function is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(II) Number of real solution of the equation, 4
2
log x x 1 log2 x 6 2x, is (Q)
2
(III) The number of values of c such that the straight line 3
x4 (R)
3x 4y c touches the curve x y is
2
(IV) x2 2
f x (S)
If t 1 dt, 1 x 2, then global maximum
x
value of f x is
(T) 1
Which is correct option?
(A) I Q (B) IIS
(C) IIIP (D) IV T
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
44. Match the following list-I with list-II.
List– I List- II
(I) 1 0
sin x 1cos x (P)
If lim is L then In (L) equals k. The value of
x 0
x
1
is equal to
k2
(II) tan
1 1
n2 n (Q)
The value of lim is
n n 1
(III) Number of solution of the equation 8 sin x 8cos x 5
4 4 3
(R)
in the interval 0 x 2 is
(IV) Let f x be a non – constant polynomial function and 8
(S)
g x x x 1 x 2 f x . If g x is differentiable
x R, then minimum number of distinct roots of
f x 0 is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(T) 9
Which is correct option?
(A) I Q (B) IIS
(C) IIIP (D) IV R
45. The number of 10 letter permutations comprising 4a ' s, 3b' s and 3c ' s such that
List– I List- II
(I) a' s are separated and all b’ s are 18
together is equal to (P)
(II) a’ s are separated and exactly two 20
b’ s are together is equal to (Q)
(III) no two adjacent letters are identical 150
is equal to (R)
(IV) no two b’s are together, no two c’ s 180
are together and all ‘a’ s are (S)
(T) 248
Which is correct option?
(A) I Q (B) IIT
(C) IIIP (D) IV Q
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
46. In a tournament, there are twelve players S1,S 2 ,....,S12 and divided into six pairs at
random. From each game a winner is decided on the basis of a game played between
the two players of the pair. Assuming all the players are of equal strength, then
List– I List- II
(I) Probability that S 2 is among the losers is 5
(P)
22
(II) Probability that exactly one of S 3 and S 4 is among 1
(Q)
the losers is 2
(III) Probability that both S and S are among the 6
2 4
(R)
winners is 11
(IV) Probability that S and S not playing against each 10
4 5
(S)
other is 11
(T) 3
11
Which is correct option?
(A) I P (B) IIQ
(C) IIIR (D) IV S
TG ~ @bohring_bot Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
2018
47. Let N be the integer next above 3 1 . The greatest integer ‘p’ such that (16)P
divides N is equal to
n2 n 14
48. The coefficient of x 2
in x 1 x 2 2 x 3 3 x 4 4 ... xn n ,n 30 is equal to
49. If , , are such that 2, 2 2 2 6, 3 3 3 8, then 4 4 4 is
50. Find the global minimum of the function
9 7
f : 2 , f x, y x 4 6x 2 y 2 y 4 x y
4 4
51. Let f : be a differentiable function such that f’ is continuous on with
5 2
f ' 3 18 . Define gn x n f x f x . Then lim gn 3 equals ____
n n n
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
2 2
52. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y x , y 2 x and y 2,
which lies to the right of the line x 1.
53. Find the maximum value of S 1 x1 1 y1 1 x 2 1 y 2 if
x12 x 22 y12 y 22 8
54.
Let x greatest integer less than or equal to x. If all the values of x such that the
1 1
product x x is prime, belongs to the set x1, x 2 x 2 , x 4 , find the value
2 2
2 2 2 2
of x1 x 2 x 3 x 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – IV
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. A thin lens of refractive index 1.5, and focal length in air
20 cm is placed inside, a large container containing two
immiscible liquids as shown. If an object is placed at an
infinite distance close to principle axis (common
intersection line of the layers), the distance between
images
(A) 25 cm (B) 45 cm
(C) 65 cm (D) 85 cm
2. There is a uniform magnetic field B in circular region of radius
R as shown in figure, whose magnitude changes at the rate of
dB/dt. The e.m.f. induced across the ends of a circular
concentric conducting arc of radius R1 having an angle as
shown (OAO) is:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 dB dB
(A) R1 (B) R2
2 dt 2 dt
2 dB
(C) R (D) none of these
2 dt
3.
If (I) represents isothermal and (II) represents adiabatic, which of the graphs given
above in respect of an ideal gas are correct?
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) I and III (D) I, II and III
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
4. A travelling wave is given by
0.8
y
3x 12xt 12t 2 4
2
Where x and y are in m and t is in sec, then velocity and amplitude of wave will be
(A) 2 m/s, 0.2 m (B) 4 m/s, 0.2 m
(C) 2 m/s, 0.4 m (D) none of these
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. Three unlike point charges are arranged as shown in given
figure, where AOB is the right angle formed by two conducting
half-planes. The magnitude of each of the charges is | q | and
the distances between them are shown in the figure. Total
charge induced on the conducting half-planes and the force
acting on the charge –q is
(A) charge = –q
(B) charge = –3q
2 2 1 q2
(C) Force
4 2a2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
0
4 2 1 q2
(D) Force
4 2a2
0
6. Consider an arrangement of cells shown in the
figure. There are m-branches and in each
branch there are n-cells. Suppose this
combination of cells can be replaced by a
single battery of emf V and internal resistance
R, then V and R.
n(m 1)E
(A) V
2
m(n 1)E
(B) V
2
n(n 1)r
(C) R
2m
m(m 1)r
(D) R
2n
7. Consider the shown case of a freezing lake due to
negative environmental temperature (–0C). Thickness (x)
of ice layer is small in comparison to depth of lake. Rate of
increase in x will be greater:
(A) if environmental temperature increases.
(B) for larger thickness of ice layer.
(C) if environmental temperature decreases.
(D) for smaller thickness of ice layer.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
8. For a certain transverse standing wave on a long string, an antinode is formed at x = 0
and next to it, a node is formed at x = 0.10 meter, the displacement y(t) of the sting
particle at x = 0 is shown in figure.
(A) Transverse displacement of the particle at x = 0.05 m and t = 0.05 sec is 2 2 cm
(B) Transverse displacement of the particle at x = 0.04 m and t = 0.025 sec is 2 2 cm
(C) Speed of travelling wave that interfere to produce this standing wave is 2 m/s.
1
(D) The transverse velocity of the string particle at x m and t = 0.1 sec is 20
15
cm/sec.
9.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A particle performing simple harmonic motion undergoes initial displacement of A/2
(where A is the amplitude of simple harmonic motion) in 1s At t = 0, the particle may be
at the extreme position or mean position. The time period of the simple harmonic motion
can be
(A) 6 s (B) 2.4 s
(C) 12 s (D) 1.2 s
10. A sky lab of mass m is first launched from the surface of earth (radius R) in a circular
orbit of radius 2R (from centre of earth) and then it is shifted from this circular orbit to
another circular orbit of radius 3R.
3
(A) Minimum energy required to place the lab in first orbit is equal to mgR.
4
mgR
(B) Minimum energy required to shift lab from first orbit to second orbit is .
12
(C) Energy of sky lab in second orbit is greater than its energy in firsts orbit.
(D) Energy of sky lab in second orbit is less than its energy in first orbit.
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. A glass of refractive index 1.5 is coated with a thin layer of thickness t, of refractive index
1.8. Light of wavelength travelling in air is incident normally on the layer. It is partly
reflected at the upper and at the lower surfaces of the layer. The two reflected rays
interfere. If = 648 nm, obtain the least value of t (in 10–8 m) for which the rays interfere
constructively.
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. A Bohr hydrogen atom undergoes a transition n = 5 to n = 4 and emits a photon of
f
frequency f. Frequency of circular motion of electron in n = 4 orbit is f 4. The ratio is
f4
18
found to be . State the value of m.
5m
13. Two uniform spheres shown in given figure rotate separately on two parallel horizontal
axis passing though their centres. The upper sphere has an angular speed 0 and the
lower sphere is at rest. Now the two spheres are moved together so that their surfaces
touch. After a short time the two spheres, now in contact, are rotating without slipping.
Find the final rate of rotation of upper sphere in rad/s [given moment of inertia of the
upper sphere II = 4 kg m2, moment of inertia of lower sphere I2 = 2 kg m2, radius of upper
sphere a = 2 m, radius of lower sphere b = 1 m, 0 = 12 rad/s].
TG ~ @bohring_bot b
14. A solid cylinder of height h and mass m is floating in a liquid of
h/4
density as shown in the figure. Find the acceleration of the vessel
(in m/s2) containing liquid for which the relative downward
acceleration of the completely immersed cylinder w.r.t. vessel m
becomes equal to one-third of that of the vessel acceleration in
magnitude. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
15. A barometer contains two uniform capillaries of radii 1.44 × 10–3 m and 7.2 × 10–4 m. If
the height of liquid in narrow tube is 0.2 m more than that in wide tube. The true
pressure difference is 310 × N. Then the value of ‘N’ is ______.
Density of liquid = 103 kg/m3, surface tension = 72 × 10–3 N/m and g = 9.8 m/s2. (Angle of
contact = 0)
1
16. Two electrode each of radius a = are embedded a large distance apart in a
homogeneous conducting medium of resistivity = 1. Resistance between the
4
electrodes is . Then the value of ‘n’ is ______ .
n
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 6
17. Time constant in given network. = 2.1 × n. Then the value of ‘n’ is ______ .
1F 2F
1F
2F
1F
4 4
4
+
A
4 8
20
8
4 3 6
B 2
18. TG ~ @bohring_bot
Plane of height h = 1.6 meter and inclination = 30°
to the horizontal has a smooth groove cut in it
inclined at an angle = 45° to the line of greatest
slope as shown in figure. Time that a particle would
take to move top point A to bottom point O in groove,
3.2
starting from rest at the top is . Then value of ‘k’
k
is (g = 10 m/sec2)
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. End product of the following sequence of reaction is
O
1. I2 NaOH,
C—CH3 2. H ,
O
O O
(A) Yellow ppt. of CHI3, (B) Yellow ppt. of CHI3,
COOH CHO
O
(C) (D) Yellow ppt. of CHI3, COOH
Yellow ppt. of CHI3, COOH
20.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The following reactions takes place in stratosphere
U.V radiation
O2 O O
O O2 M O3 M exothermic
What is the role of ‘M’ in above reaction?
(A) It is used as a catalyst
(B) It absorbs some heat energy and prevents decomposition of O3
(C) It converts ground state O2 to excited O*2
(D) It reduces the reactivity of nascent oxygen
21. The temperature of a definite amount of an ideal monoatomic gas becomes four times in
an isoentropic process. Which of the following is correct relation between the final and
initial parameters of gas?
(A) Vf = 8Vi (B) Vf = 16 Vi
(C) Pf = 32 Pi (D) Pf = Pi
22. 0.1 M acetic acid solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution. What would be the
difference in pH between ¼ and ¾ stages of neutralization of acid.
(A) 2 log 3/4 (B) 2 log ¼
(C) log 1/3 (D) 2 log 3
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. -
O
H3C O
O
Br
Which of the statements regarding the product formed in the above reaction is correct?
(A) If Br is replaced with NO2 rate of reaction increases
(B) Inversion of configuration takes place.
(C) Nucleophillic acyl substitution takes place.
(D) Configuration at chiral carbon does not change
24. Which of the following statements is/are true about an azeotropic mixture?
(A) An azeotropic mixture boils at constant temperature
(B) The composition of an azeotropic mixture changes on distillation
(C) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than that of either of
them when it shows positive deviation from the Raoult’s law
(D) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point higher than that of either of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
them if it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
25. The following data are given for the reaction
X g Y g Product
No. of Initial concentration of Initial concentration of Rate of reaction in M s–1
expt. ‘X’ in ‘M’ ‘Y’ in ‘M’ unit
1. 0.1 0.1 2 10–8
2. 0.2 0.2 4 10–8
3. 0.4 0.2 8 10–8
Choose the correct statement(s) from the following
(A) The order of reaction with respect to X is one
(B) The overall order of reaction is one
(C) The rate constant of the reaction is 2 10–7 s–1
(D) The half-life of ‘Y’ does not depend on its concentration
26. Which of the following substance(s) produce(s) gases when treated with water?
(A) CaC2 (B) Mg3N2
(C) Na2S (D) KNO3
27. What is/are the product of reaction?
Ph
Cl2
CCl
Product / s
4
Cl Ph
Ph Cl
(A) (B)
H Cl
Cl H
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Cl Ph
H Cl
(C) (D)
Cl H
Ph Cl
28. Which of the following complex(es) show(s) geometrical isomerism?
(A) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (B) [Pt(NH2CH2COO)2]
(C) [PtCl2P(C2H5)3]2 (D) K2[Fe(CN)4(NH3)2]
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. NH3 ,
X Y
CH3CHO
40% NaOH dil.HNO 3
CH2OH (Z)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
HOH2C C CH2OH
CH2OH
Total how many sp2 hybridised N are present in (Z)
30. Among the following
The total number of aromatic species is
31. The MoMo bond order in [(5-C5H5)Mo(CO)2]2 which obeys the 18- electron rule is__.
HCl Na Fe CN NO
32. X s 2
Y
NaOH
5
Purple solution gas
Y has been allowed to react with following species in neutral/acidic medium
(a) FeCl3 (b) CuSO4 (c) BaCl2 (d) SO2 (e) Cr2O72 (f) CH3COONa (g) Hg2+
The calculate the value of P + Q – R
P : Number of species which undergoes redox reaction with gas Y
Q: Number of species with which gas Y undergoes precipitation
R: Number of species with which gas Y produce no observable change
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33. On heating a sample of 25 mg hydrated compound(molecular weight = 250 g/mol) in
thermogravimetric analysis, 16 mg of dehydrated compound remains. The number of
water molecules lost per molecule of hydrated compound is _________
(Molecular weight of water = 18 g/mol)
34. Number of carbonyl groups present in the final product of the following reaction
sequence is
35. A tetrapeptide, made up of natural amino acids, has alanine as the N-terminal residue
which is coupled to a chiral amino acid. Upon complete hydrolysis, the tetrapeptide gives
glycine, alanine, phenylalanine and leucine. The number of possible sequences of the
tetrapeptide is
36. The number of possible stereoisomers for cyclononene is ______
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
37. Let A and B be 2 × 2 matrices with real entries satisfying (AB – BA)n = I2 for some
positive integer n, then n is
(A) even (B) odd
(C) prime (D) any integer
38. Let A & B be two n × n matrices that do not commute and for which there exist non zero
real numbers p, q, r such that pAB + qBA = In and A2 = rB2 then
(A) p + q = 0 (B) p – q = 0
(C) p2 + q = 0 (D) p = 2q
d2 y
39. The solution of the differential equation 2
sin 3x e x x 2 when y1 0 1 and
dx
y 0 0 is
sin 3x x4 1 sin 3x x4 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) ex x 1 (B) ex x
9 12 3 9 12 3
cos 3x x4 1
(C) ex x 1 (D) none of these
3 12 3
40. Consider a circle of diameter AB and center O, and the tangent t at B. A variable tangent
to the circle with contact point M intersects t at P. The locus of the point Q where the line
OM intersects the parallel through P to the line AB is
(A) straight line (B) parabola
(C) ellipse (D) hyperbola
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
41. Variable circle is described to pass through point (1, 0) and tangent to the curve
y tan tan1 x . The locus of the centre of the circle is a parabola whose:
(A) length of the latus rectum is 2 2
(B) axis of symmetry has the equation x y 1
3 1
(C) vertex has the co – ordinates ,
4 4
(D) none of these
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
x2 y2
42. Line through P(a, 2) meets the ellipse 1 at A and D and meets the coordinate
9 4
axes at B and C so that PA, PB, PC, PD are in G.P., then possible values of a can be:
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) –7
43. Let be a real number, then the integral, n I
1 sin dx
I 1 1 2x cos x 2
(A) if 2n, 2n 1 (B) if 2n 1 , 2n 2
2 2
(C) if 2n 1 , 2n 2 (D) if 2n, 2n 1
2 2
44. Let u ax by a 3 b 0, v bx ay b 3 a 0, where a,b R be two straight lines.
The equations of the bisectors of the angles formed by k 1u k 2 v 0 and
k1u k 2 v 0 for non zero real k1 and k 2 are:
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) u 0
(C) k 2u k 1v 0
(B) k 2u k 1v 0
(D) v 0
45. If f : , such that f x
x 2
x 1 , then
x6 x3 1
3
(A) minimum value of f x is 1 (B) minimum value of f x is
1 3
(C) maximum value of f x is 1 (D) maximum value of f x is 9
46. Let z, iz and z + iz represent three vertices of a triangle then,
1 2 2
(A) area of is given by, Area z (B) area of is given by, Area z
2
(C) orthocentre of is given by z iz (D) None of these
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
x2 y2
47. Tangent are drawn from any point on the hyperbola 1 to the circle x 2 y 2 9 .
9 4
2
If the locus of the mid – point of the chord of contact is a x 2 y 2 bx 2 cy 2 , then the
value of a 2 b2 c 2 7870 is equal to
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
48. Let b 4i 3j and c be two vectors perpendicular to each other in the xy – plane. If
r i , i 1,2,....n are the vectors in the same plane having projection 1 and 2 along b and
n 2
k
c respectively r i is equal to k then equals to
i 1 4
1
49. If the value of greater of sin x tan x and 2x 0 x at is g then g
2 4 4 4 2
is equal to
50. Let A & B be 2 × 2 matrices with integer entries such that A, A + B, A + 2B, A + 3B and
A + 4B are all invertible matrices whose inverse have integer entries, then find I det (A +
5B) I
51. Let an be an arithmetic sequence such that arithmetic mean of
50 r r 1
a1,a3 ,a5 ,.....a97 ,a 99 is 1. Find the value of 1
r 1
2 .a2r 1
2
Let f x ax bx c, where a 0, a,b,c are integers and f 1 1, 6 f 3 8
TG ~ @bohring_bot
52.
x
and 18 f 5 22 . Then the number of solutions of equation f x e is ______
53. If z1,z 2 are complex numbers, then the maximum value of
z1 z 2 z1z 2 z1z 2 z1 z 2
is equal to ____________.
z1z 2
2
54. Let f x ax bx c, a b and f x 0 x R . If the minimum value of
abc
is k then value of k is
ba
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – IV
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. AD
Sol. So, velocity of first particle
= 3 cos 37° î + 3 sin 37° ĵ
12 ˆ 9 ˆ
= i j
5 5
Velocity of second particle
= 4 cos 53o ˆi 4 sin 53o ˆj
12 ˆ 16 ˆ
= i j
5 5
So, relative horizontal velocity is zero. So their relative velocity is in vertical direction
only. Since, both particles are moving under gravity, so their relative acceleration is zero.
16 9 7
Their relative velocity = = 1.4 m/s
5 5 5
2. BC
Sol. Just after BP is cut.
For block A no force has changed.
acceleration of m1 = 0
for m2 downward force is being reduced
m2 will move upwards.
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
3. AC
Sol. dw f ds
Since, body is hauled slowly, so
f = mg sin + mg cos
W = (mg sin mg cos )ds
mgds sin mgds cos
mgdy mgdx
= mgh + mgL
4. AC
Sol. 5 – F1 = 1 × 2 F1 = 3 N
Taking torque about CM:
5x = 3( + x) 2x = 3 × 20 x = 30 cm
Length of rod = 2 × ( + x) = 100 cm = 1 m
TG ~ @bohring_bot
5. AC
Sol. AC = 5 m
kq 9 109 1 10 6
V
AC 5
3
= 1.8 × 10 = 1.8 kV
VB = (VB)due to q + (VB)i
(VB)i = –0.45 kV
So, (A) and (C) are correct.
6. BC
V2
Sol. For a bulb R
W
RB RA
when switch is open IA = IB
2
PA R AIA
2
PB RBIB
PB < PA and VA > VB
VA > 12V and VB < 12V
After closing the switch
VA = VB = 12 V
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
7. A
Sol.
(I)
Pi Pf 60(1 V) 100 V
3 3
V opposite to velocity of Ram i.e. m/s towards right.
8 8
(II) 80 V = 80 (1 – V)
1
V = m / sec left.
2
(III) 80(1 + V) + 60(–1 + V) + 20V = 0
1
V m/s
8
(IV) After jump of Ram 3/8
3
Now (80 20) 80(1 V) 20 V
8
17
V m /s
40
8. B
Sol. (I)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Velocity of fish in air = 4
3
4
= 3
Velocity of fish w.r.t. bird = 3 + 6 = 9
3
(II) Velocity of image of fish after reflection from mirror in air = 4 = 3
4
w.r.t. bird = –3 + 6 = 3
4
(III) Velocity of bird in water = 6 = 8
3
w.r.t. fish = 8 + 4 = 12
(IV) Velocity of bird in water after reflection from mirror = 8
w.r.t. fish = 8 – 4 = 4
9. D
r
2br 3
Sol. I 2rdrbr
0
3
Use ampere law for B.
10. C
dB
Sol. B d A dt
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – B
11. 7.50
Sol. The centre of the wheel is moving with constant speed on a circular path of radius 6R.
V2
Hence, it has a centripetal acceleration of ac directed towards the centre of
6R
curvature of the convex surface.
V2
With respect to the centre of the wheel, the contact point has acceleration equal to
R
directed towards the centre of the wheel.
Acceleration of the contact point in reference frame of ground is
V 2 V 2 5V 2
aP .
R 6R 6R
12. 2.56
Sol. For a jump of h0 = 1 m on the earth, speed required is given by
1
mV 2 mgh0 V 20 m /s
2
Escape speed on the surface of a planet is
2GM 8 GR2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Vesc
R 3
Vesc planet Rplanet
Vesc earth Rearth
planet
We want Vesc = 20 m /s
planet
And it is given that Vesc = 11.2 km/s
20 (6400 km)
Rplanet = 2.56 km
11200
13. 400.00
Sol. If force exerted on piston of area A2 is F2 then, the force acting on the other piston will be
F
= 2 A1 [Pascal’s law]
A2
A
= 5F2 1 5
A2
To raise the load 5F2 = 20000 F2 = 4000 N
Since lever bar is light, net torque on it (about the hinge) must be zero.
F2a = F(a + b)
Fa 4000 4
F 2 = 400 N
ab 4 36
14. 283.40
Sol. The product nucleus 198Hg is in excited state and possesses extra 1.088 MeV energy. If
198
Hg would had been in ground state, the kinetic energy available to electron and
antineutrino must have
Q = (mAu – mHg) 931 MeV
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
= (197.968233 – 197.966760) 931 MeV
= 1.3714 MeV
Since 198Hg is in excited state, actual kinetic energy available to electron and
antineutrino is
K = (1.3714 – 1.088) MeV
= 0.2834 MeV
As -ray and antineutrino has continuous spectrum starting from zero value, therefore,
this is also the maximum kinetic energy of the electron emitted.
15. 7.00
Sol. x = (1 – 1)t1 – (2 – 1)t2
= (2 – 1)200 – (1.5 – 1)200
= 200 – 100 = 100 nm
2 2
x 100
600 3
P P1 P2 2 P1P2 cos
= I0 r12 I0 r22 2 I0 r12 I0 r22 cos
3
= 7 W
TG ~ @bohring_bot
16. 4.01
Sol. As here volume of gas remains constant,
(Q)v = CVT, Here Cv = 5 cal/mol K
And T = (400 – 300) = 100 K
And so for ideal gas PV = RT,
(10)5 (0.2)
= 8.0224
8.31 300
(Q)v = × 5 × 100 = 4.01 kcal.
17. 3.14
F L mg
Sol. Y Y()
A L A
AY( ) r 2 Y( )
m
g g
(10 3 )2 1011 10 5 10
= =
10
18. 30.00
Sol. f T for strings.
On increasing the tension by 1%
f 1.01 T
1
f 1.01 T 1
(1 0.01) 2 1
f T 200
f
Beat frequency, f f f 1 = 1
f
Number of beats in 30 seconds = 1 × 30 = 30.
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. A
Sol. O O
O
O
O O O O O O
O O
O O
O O O O O
20. BC
Sol. 2C 3H2 C2 H6
s g g
0 0
H 2 H 3 B.E H H B.E. C C 6 B.E C H
f sub
85 2 718 3 436 x 6y
TG ~ @bohring_bot
x 6y 2829 …..1
Similarly for C3H8 g
2x 8y 4002 …..2
Solving (1) & (2), x = 345
y = 414
21. AB
E a
Sol. k Ae Ea /RT or nk nA
RT
22. ABC
Sol. The outermost electronic configuration of Yb is 4f 146s2
Yb2+ has full-filled 4f14 configuration radius of Yb3+ <Yb2+
23. AD
H2O
Sol. Be 2C Be OH2 CH4
H2O
Al4 C3 Al OH 3 CH4
24. ABCD
H 40,600
Sol. S 108.84 j / K for one mole
T 373
9 108.84
for mole, S 54.42 j / K
18 2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
25. A
Sol. I – can undergo Nu– substitution, elimination
II – can undergo Nu– substitution, esterification, dehydrogenation & oxidation.
III – can undergo Nu– addition, esterification and oxidation
IV – can undergo Nu– substitution
26. A
Sol. Fact based
27. C
Sol. Elements having filled d-orbitals are not true transition elements.
28. B
Sol. SO32 dil.H2SO 4
H2O SO 2 SO24
CO32 dil.H2SO 4
H2O CO 2 SO 42
NH4 NaOH Na H2O NH3
S 2 H2SO 4
H2S SO 42
Section – B
29.
Sol.
162.00
TG ~ @bohring_bot
K f of camphor
R Tfo
2
M2
2 152 450
2
40.5
1000 Hof 1000 1.52 1000
Tf i K f m
0.04 1000
450 430 1 40.5
Msolute 0.5
0.04 1000 40.5
Msolute 162
0.5 20
30. 81.81
Sol. NaOH HCl NaCl H2O
Millimoles 0.1 .001 x 0 0
-0.001 x -0.001x
_________________________
t=t 0.1 - .001 /x x
10–3 M NaOH have pH = 11
New pH after adding acid be 10
Hence, 10–4 M (100 + x) = 0.1 - .001 x
0.1 0.001x
100 + x =
10 4
11x = 1000 – 100 = 900
900
x= 81.81 mL
11
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
31. 390.55
Sol. 0mCH3COOH
0
m Ca CH3 COO 2 2 m0 HCl m0 CaCl2
2
200.8 2 425.95 271.6
390.55
2
32. 1.50
Sol. Vander waals equation for 1 mole of real gas, when b = 0
a
P 2 V RT
V
1
PV a RT
V
y mx c
Slope = tan(–) = –a
21.6 20.1
So, tan = a = 1.5
32
33. 11.00
Sol. The product contains three phenyl group and two multiple bonds
Total number of pi-bonds = (3 3) + 2 = 11
34.
Sol.
2920.40
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Meq of MnO 4 = Meq of Fe2+
w
VMn= 1000
E
w
or, 104.3 1000 0.1 5 = 1000
56
1
On solving w = 2920.4 g
35. 8.33
200
Sol. The average O.S of iron in Fe0.96O is
96
Let the % of Fe(II) be x
100 200
x (+3) + (100 - x) (+2) =
96
3x + 200 – 2x = 208.33
x = 8.33
36. 1.41
ZM
Sol. d
Na a3
45 z 27
3
16 6.02 1023 4 10 8
Z = 4 (so fcc)
2a o
r 1.41 A
4
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. AC
Sol.
V a. b c a12 a22 a32 b12 b 22 b32 c12 c 22 c 23 …….(i)
1/3
a1 a 2 a3 b1 b2 b3 c1 c 2 c 3 (Using A.M. G.M.)
L3 a1 a2 a3 b1 b 2 b3 c1 c 2 c 3
2 2 2 2
now a1 a 2 a3 a1 a 2 a3 2 a1a2 a2a3 a3a1
2
a1 a2 a3 a12 a22 a32
a1 a2 a3 a12 a22 a32
similarly b1 b2 b3 b1 b2 b3
2 2 2
c1 c 2 c 3 c12 c 22 c 32
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1/2
L3 a12 a 22 a32 b12 b22 b23 c12 c 22 c 23
L3 V
38. BC
3 3 2
Sol. We supposed to find m and n such that lim 3 8x mx nx 1 or
x
3
lim 8x 3 mx nx 1.
x
We compute
3 3
8x mx nx 2 8 n x 3 3
mx 2
.
2
3
8x 3
mx nx
2 3 3
8x mx n x 2 2 2
8 n3 must be equal to 0
n2
m
Now f x .
2
m m
8 x 23 8 x 4
3
m
We see that lim f x . For this to be equal to 1, m must be equal to 12. Hence the
x 12
answer to the problem is (m, n) = (12, 2).
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
39. ABCD
x4 1 x 4 x2 1 x2 1 1 x '
3
Sol. x 6 1 dx x 6 1 dx x 6 1 dx x 2 1 dx 3 x3 2 1 dx
1
arc tan x arc tan x 3 .
3
To write the answer in the required form we should have
P x
3 arctan x arc tan x 3 arc tan
Q x
Applying the tangent function to both sides, we deduce
3x x 3
2
x3 P x
1 3x tan arctan .
3x x 3 3 Q x
1 .x
1 3x 2
P x 3x 3x 5
From here arctan arc tan , and hence
Q x 1 3x 2 3x 4 x 6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
P x 3x 3x 5 ,Q x 1 3x 2 3x 4 x 6 . The final answer is
1 3x 3x 5
arctan C.
3 1 3x 2 3x 4 x 6
40. AC
ab
Sol. Denote the value of the integral by I. With the substitution t we have
x
b t t b
t a a t
b e e ab be e
I . 2 dt dt I .
a ab t a t
t
Hence, I = 0.
41. AB
Sol. 3 tan3x
3 3 tan x tan3 x 3 tan 3
x 9 tan x
2
1 3 tan x 3 tan2 x 1
8 tan x
.
3 tan2 x 1
Hence
1 tan x 1
2
3 tan 3x tan x for all x k , k .
cot x 3 tan x 1 3 tan x 8 2
It follows that the left – hand side telescopes as
1
8
3 tan 27o tan9o 9 tan81o 3 tan 27o 27 tan243o 9 tan81o 81 tan729o 27 tan 243o
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1
8
81tan9o tan9o 10 tan9 o .
42. BC
Sol.
A
O
(4, 8)
B
P
(–2, 0)
2 5 1
sin
10 5
8 4
Slopes of PA and PB are tan where tan
6 3
4 1
3
2
4 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
,
4 1
3
4 1
2
1 . 1 .
3 2 3 2
11 5
,
2 10
11 2
A,B 4 2 5 ,8 2 5 ,
5 5 5 5
1 2 2 44
4 2 5 , 8 2 5 5 , 5
5 5
6, 4
43. B
y
Sol. (I) A, B, C are the 3 critical points of y f x . A
f " x 0 for x 2 and fails to exists at x = 0.
c
B
x
0 1 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
1
(II) x and 2. Make a quadratic in log2 x and
4 3x + 4y = c
interpret the result.
x1, y1
dy 3 1
(III) 1 2x13 x1
dx 4 2
1 1 15 3
y1 or y1 c
32 2 32 8
3
(IV) f ' x 2x 3x 1 this is always positive in (1, 2).
Increasing in [1, 2]
f 2 will be the greatest value.
44. D
1
tan
n2 n o
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. Let L lim
n n 1
1 n2 2ln ln n 1
In L lim tan ln lim
n n n 1 n 1
cot
n
2
Put n t lim
4ln t ln t 2 1
2 t2 2
t 1 1 1
cot lim t t 2 1 cos ec 2 2
t t
t t
2
1
2 t 2 sin t
2
lim 1 0
t t t 2 1
t
L 1 Q
3
(III) sin 2x
2
2x 0, 4
Hence, 8 solutions.
(IV) Since g x is differentiable x R
f x must have the factor x x 1 x 2 atleast once.
minimum 3 roots of f x 0 R
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
45. A
Sol. x bbb x c x c x c x
4! 5
Number of ways C4 20
3!
(II) 2b, 1b; 2c, 1c or 2b,1b; 1c,1c,1c or 2b, 1b; 3c
(same way starting with c)
cbbcbc, cbcbbc
bbcccb, bcccbb
Number of ways 12 6C4 180
7
(III) bcbcbc C4
bccbcb or bcbccb 2 6C3
bbccbc or bccbbc or bbcbcc or bcbbcc 4 5C2
bcccbb or bbcccb 2 4C1
bbbccc 4C4
Total ways 2 35 40 40 8 1 248
(IV) bcbcbc, cbcbcb
TG ~ @bohring_bot
bccbcb, cbbcbc
bcbccb, cbcbbc
bcbccb, cbcbbc
7
number of ways C1 2 4 18
46. D
1 11C5 1
Sol. (I) P 12
C6 2
2
C1 10C5 6
(II) P 12
C6 11
10
C4 5
(III) P
12
C5 22
10
(IV) P
11
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
Section – B
47. 252.00
2018 2018
Sol. x 3 1 and y 3 1
2018 2018
x x y 3 1 3 1
1009 1009
x 1 21009 2 3
2 3
21009 2 1009 C0 21009 1009C2 2100731 ..... 1009C1006 23 3503 1009C1008 2 3504
x 1 21011 1009 C0 21008 ..... 1009C1006 22 3503 1009C 1008 3504
odd
[ {x} + y (0, 2) {x} + y = 1]
N is divisible by 21011, hence divisible by (16)252
48. 13.00
n n 1
7
Sol. Coefficient of x 2 7 1 6 2 5 3 4 1 2 4 13
49.
Sol.
18.00
TG ~ @bohring_bot 2
We have 2 2 2 2
4 6 2
1 .
Also, 3 3 3 3
2 2 2
50. –1.59
Sol. The critical point of f are solutions to the system of equations
f 9
x, y 4x3 12xy2 0,
x 4
f 7
x, y 12x 2 y 4y 3 0
y 4
divide the two equations by 4 and then add, respectively, subtract them, we obtain
1
x 3 3x 2 y 3xy 2 y 3 1 0 and x 3 3x 2 3xy 3 y 3 . We write these as
8
3 3 1 1
x y 1 and x y , from which we obtain x y 1 and x y . We
8 2
3 1
find a unique critical point x , y . The minimum of f is attained at this point, and
4 4
3 1 51
it is equal to f , .
4 4 32
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
51. 126.00
5 2
Sol. We have, lim gn 3 lim n f 3 f 3
n n
n n
f 3 h f 3 f 3 f 3 h
5 lim 2 lim
h 0 h h 0 h
5f ' 3 2f ' 3 5 18 2 18 90 36 126 .
52. 1.01
Sol. y x2 y 2 x2 y2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
Required area
x2 2 x2
2 x
2
2 dx
1 2
20
4 2 1.01
3
53. 18.00
Sol. The points x1, x2 and y1, y2 lie on the circle of radius 2 2 c centered at the
origin. We can write x1, x2 c cos ,c sin and y1, y2 a cos ,c sin .
Then
s 2 c cos sin cos sin c 2 cos cos sin sin
2 c 2 sin sin 0 c 2 cos to 1 by choosing
4 4
5 2
4
2
. The maximum of S is 2 2c 2 c c 2 .
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
54. 11.00
1 1
Sol. x 2 1 or x 2 1
1 1
x 1,2 x 1, 2
2 2
3 5 1 3
x , ….(1) x , ……..(2)
2 2 2 2
1 2
1 3 3 5
x , ,
2 2 2 2
1 9 9 25
x12 x 22 x 32 x 24 11
4 4 4 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – IV
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. C
Sol. For upper portion:
1 1.5 1
f1 2 (fa ) 20 40 cm
2 1.5
1 1
1 1.2
1
For lower portion, f1 2 (fa )
2
1
3
1.5 1
= 20 = –25 cm
1.5
1
2.5
Object is at infinity, images will be form at focal points.
Hence the distance between two images will = 40 | 25 | 65 cm
2. B
R2 dB
Sol. E
2R1 dt
R2 dB
e.m.f = 2R1
2 2R1 dt
2 dB
= R
2 dt
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
3. D
Sol. As > 1
dT
for TV – 1 = constant 0
dv
and for T = KP – 1
dT
0
dP
4. A
0.8
Sol. y
3(x 2t)2 4
v = 2 m/s
A = 0.2 m
5. AC
Sol. AOB is zero potential surface F3
F1
+q –q
Induce charge = –q
F2
kq2 kq2
F 2 A
a2 2a2 O
TG ~ @bohring_bot –q
B
+q
6. AC
n(n 1)
Sol. I1 r Ix nE where x external resistance
2
n(n 1)
Im r Ix mnE
2
I1 + I2 + I3 + …….. + Im = I
n(m 1)E
2 V
I
n(n 1) x R
x r
2m
7. CD
dQ KA( T) KA[0 ( )] dQ KA
Sol. ;
dt x x dt x
8. ACD
Sol. y ( x, t) = –cos kx sin t
2 2
y(0.05, 0.05) = 4 cos 0.05 sin 0.005
0.4 0.2
= 4 cos sin 2 2 cm
4 2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
0.4
v f = 2 m/s
0.2
y
A cos (kx) cos ( t)
t
2 2 1 2
= 4 cos cos 0.1
0.2 0.4 15 0.2
y
= 20 cm/sec = particle velocity
t
9. AC
A T
Sol. In SHM, time taken to move from x = 0 to x is and time taken to move from
2 12
A T
extreme to x is .
2 6
T
If =1 T = 12
12
T
If =1 T = 6.
6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
10. ABC
GMm GMm GMm
Sol. Es ; E1 ; E2
R 2(2R) 2(3R)
3
E1 Es mgR
4
mgR
E2 E1
12
Section – B
11. 9
Sol. Path difference between rays reflected from upper and lower faces of layer = 2t cosr =
2 t (for normal incidence). But there is change in path of /2 of light at upper surface
due to reflection from denser medium. So actual path difference is 2 t – /2.
For constructive interference 2 t n
2
(2n 1)
t . For least thickness n = 0.
4
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
648
tmin nm = 90 nm
4 4 1.8
12. 5
mZ2 e4 mZ2e 4 1 1
Sol. En , so hf 2 2 16
802n2h 2
8 0h 25
mZ2e 4 9
f
820h3 16 25
Z 2 e 2m Z 2 e 4m
and frequency f4
402n3h3 402 (4)3 h3
f 18
= , so m = 5.
f4 25
13. 4
Sol. When the two spheres come in contact, they exert equal and opposite impulse.
Fa dt I1(0 1 ) …(i)
Fb dt I2 2 …(ii)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Finally 1a 2b …(iii)
2
a
I1( 0 1) I2 1
b2
I10
1 = 4 rad/s.
a2
I1 2 I2
b
14. 5
Sol. Let the volume of the cylinder be V. When the cylinder is floating , upthrust = weight.
Hence,
3 4m
V g mg V
4 3
Let the acceleration of the particle vessel be A (upwards). In the
reference frame of the vessel, the acceleration of the cylinder is
A/3.
A
mg + mA – upthrust = m
3
A
mg + mA – Vg = m
3
where g = g + A = effective value of g for upthrust.
A
mg + mA – V (g + A) = m
3
4 2
mg m(g A) m A
3 3
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
g
A upwards
2
g 10
The acceleration of the vessel should be = 5 ms–2 (downwards).
2 2
15. 6
Sol. Let the pressures in wide and narrow limbs be P1 and P2, respectively. If R1 and R2 be
the radii of meniscus in wide and narrow limb, pressure just below the meniscus of wide
2T 2T
tube = P1 and pressure just below the meniscus of narrow limb = P2 .
R1 R2
Therefore, difference of these pressures
2T 2T
P1 P2 hg
R1 R2
Therefore, true pressure difference,
1 1
P1 P2 h g 2T
R2 R1
For the water and glass surface, taking the angle of contact to be zero, we have
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r r
R1 1 r1 and R 2 2 r2 where r1 and r2 are radii of wide and narrow limbs,
cos cos
respectively.
1 1 1 1
P1 P2 h g 2T 0.2 103 9.8 2 72 10 3 4
3
r r
2 1 7.2 10 1.44 10
= 1.96 × 103 – 0.10 × 103 = 1.86 × 103 N/m2 = 1860 N/m2
N = 6.
16. 8
q
Sol. J = E =
20r 3
q + – –
I= +
J 2xdx 0 + –
0
+ –
q + – –
V IR + –
20 a +
R = 0.50
2a
n = 8.
17. 4
2C1C2 C2C3 C3C1 7
Sol. Ceq
C1 C2 2C3 5
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Where C1 = 1, C2 = 2, C3 = 1
4
3 4
2 4 4
B A
8
6
4 8
20
Req = 6
= RC = 8.4
n = 4.
18. 2
Sol. Component of acceleration along incline is g sin
and effective acceleration along groove is a = sin
cos .
h
From figure OB
sin
TG ~ @bohring_bot
OA is the groove making an angle = 45° with AB
on the inclined surface.
OB
From figure, cos
OA
h
or OA
sin cos
Since acceleration along groove is constant, we
1
may use equation s at 2 .
2
k = 2.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. C
Sol. O
Intermediate is
COOH
Which loses CO2 on heating (-keto acid)
20. B
Sol. M absorbs some heat energy and prevents decomposition of O3
21. C
Sol. Tf 4Ti
Tf v
S nC V ln nRln f
Ti v1
3R v
0 n ln 4 n.Rln f
2 v1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
3 v
log4 log i
2 vf
vi
43 /2
vf
8v f v i
Tf Pi
0 S nCp ln nR.ln
Ti Pf
Pf
45/ 2
Pi
32Pi Pf
22. D
Sol. At ¼ th and 3/4 th neutralization points the solution is buffer solution. Upon substitution
we can get the ans.
23. ACD
Sol. - O
O
H3C O O O-
O CH3
Br
Br -
O
H3C +
O O
Br
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
24. AC
Sol. Azeotropic mixture has fixed composition.
25. ABC
Sol. Rate = k[X][Y]0 2 10-8 = k[0.1] [0.1]0 k = 2 10–7s–1
26. ABC
Sol. CaC2 2H2O Ca OH2 C2H2
Mg3N2 6H2O 3 Mg OH2 2NH3
Na2S 2H2O 2NaOH H2S
KNO3 H2O No reaction
27. ABCD
Sol. Cl
Ph Ph
Cl 2 Ph
Cl
TG ~ @bohring_bot Cl-
dichloroproduct
28. BCD
Sol. The geometrical isomers of (B) are
NH2 NH2 NH2
O
CH2 CH2 CH2
Pt C O O C
O C Pt C O
CH2
O O O
H2 N
Cis trans
The geometrical isomers of (C) are
Cl Cl Cl (C2H5)3P Cl Cl
Pt Pt Pt Pt
(C2H5)3 P Cl P (C2H5)3 Cl Cl P (C2H5)3
Cis trans
The geometrical isomers of (D) are
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
2- 2-
NH 3 NH 3
NH3 CN NC CN
Fe Fe
CN CN NC CN
CN NH3
Cis trans
Section – B
29. 6
NO 2
N
Sol. Compound (Z) is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
N N
O 2N NO 2
30. 4
Sol. (4n + 2)e– rule
31. 3
Sol. 5C2H5 – 5e–
2 CO – 4e–
Mo – 6e–
Mo – Mo – 3e–
32. 3
Na Fe CN NO
Sol. S 2 HCl 2
H2S
NaOH
5
Na 4 Fe(CN)5 NOS
33. 5
25 10 3 g 16 10 3 g
Sol.
250 250 x18
X=5
34. 4
Sol. O O
O O
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
35. 4
Sol. (1) ala-phe-leu-gly
(2) ala-phe-gly-leu
(3) ala-leu-phe-gly
(4) ala-leu-gly-phe
36. 3
Sol. It exists in two geometrical isomeric forms in which trans isomer is optically active.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. A
Sol. Since for two square matrices A & B the trace of AB – BA is zero.
a b
let AB BA
c a
(AB – BA)2 = k I2
where k = a2 + bc
and odd power of AB – BA is equal to a multiple of this matrix.
i.e. odd power it can not be equal to I2
‘n’ is even.
38. B
Sol. A2B2 = rB4
B2A2 = rB4
A2B2 = B2A2
& rB2A = rAB2 = A3
Multiplying pAB + qBA = In on the right and then on the let by B, we obtain
TG ~ @bohring_bot
pAB2 + qBAB = B
pBAB + qB2A = B
also we have B2A = AB2
on subtraction (p – q) (AB2 – BAB) = 0
if p q then AB2 = BAB
(p + q) AB2 = (p + q) B2A = B
(p + q) A2B2 = AB
& (p + q)B2A2 = BA
AB = BA
which is a contradiction
p=q
39. A
dy cos3x x3
Sol. Integrating the given differential equation, we have ex C1 but
dx 3 3
1 1
y1 0 1 so 1 1 C1 C1 .
3 3
sin 3x x4 1
Again integrating, we get y ex x C2
9 12 3
sin 3x x4 1
but y 0 0 so 0 0 1 C 2 C2 1 . Thus y ex x 1
9 12 3
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
40. B
Sol. Let the radius of the circle is equal to 1. Set the origin at B with BA the positive x – semi
axis and t the y – axis. If BOM , then BP PM tan . In triangle PQM, PQ
2
tan tan 2 1 sin
2 . So the coordinates of Q are ,tan ,
.
sin sin 2 1 cos 1 cos
The x and y coordinates are related as follows:
2
sin 1 cos2 1 cos 1
2
2 1.
1 cos 1 cos 1 cos 1 cos
2
Hence the locus of Q is the parabola y 2x 1.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Q
M
N
A O B
41. BC
0 1 2
Sol. 4a 2 2
2 2
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
42. BCD
Sol. Put a r cos ,2 r sin to equn. of ellipse
a 2 r 2 cos2 2ar cos
9
2 2
4 r sin 4r sin
1 0
4
4a2
4 cos2 9 sin2
Put a r cos ,2 r sin to equation xy 0
a2
PA PD 9
cos2 sin2
9 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2a r 2 sin cos a sin 2 cos r 0
2a
PB PC
sin cos
PA .PD PB.PC
4a 2 2a
4 cos2 9 sin2 sin .cos
4 cot 9 tan
a
2
a 49 6
a , 6 6,
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AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
43. CD
Sol. If is a multiple of , then I 0 . Otherwise, use the substitution
x cos t sin . The indefinite integral becomes
sin dx dt
1 2x cos x2 1 t 2 art tan t C .
1 cos 1 cos
I arctan arc tan ,
sin sin
where the angles are to be taken between and . But
2 2
1 cos 1 cos
1.
sin sin
Hence the difference between these angles is . Notice that the sign of the integral is
2
the same as the sign of . Hence I if 2k, 2k 1 and if
2 2
2k 1 , 2k 2 for some integer k.
44. AD TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. k1u k 2 v 0 ……….(i)
k1u k 2 v 0 ………..(ii)
equations of bisectors of the angles formed by lines (i) and (ii) are
k1u k 2 v
2 2
ak1 bk 2 k1b ak 2
k1u k 2 v
2 2
k1a bk 2 k1b ak 2
k1u k 2 v k1u k 2v ………..(iii)
(i) by taking positive sign in (iii), we get
k1u k 2 v k1u k 2 v
2k 2 v 0 v0
(ii) by taking negative sign in (iii), we get
u0
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
45. BD
3
1
x 1 x
Sol. After we bring the function into the form f x
, let x 1 s
1 x
x3 1 3
x
3
s 1 1 3s 6s over the domain , 2 2, . Setting the
2
h s 3
s 3s 1 s3 3s 1
3 2
first derivative equal to zero yields the equation 3 s 1 s 3s 2 0 .
The roots are s = 1 (double root) and s 1 3 . Of these, only s 1 3 lies in the
domain of the function.
We compute
3
lim h s 1, h 2 1, h 2 9, h 1 3
x
2 3
.
46. AC
Sol.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
R(z + iz)
Q(iz)
P (z)
Section – B
47. 3
Sol. Equation of the chord of contact of a point P 3 sec , 2 tan on the hyperbola with
respect to the circle is 3 sec x 2 tan y 9 (1)
Let M (h, k) be the mid point of (1), then equation of (1) in terms of the mid – point is
hx ky h2 k 2 (2)
Since (1) and (2) represent the same line.
3h 9k
sec 2 , tan s
h k 2
2 h k2
2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 16
locus of (h, k) is
9x 2 81y 2
2
2
1
x 2 y2 4 x2 y 2
2
or 4 x 2 y 2 bx2 cy 2
a 4, b 36, c 81
a b c 2 16 1296 6561 7873
2 2
48. 5
Sol. Let r b c and c xi yj . Since c and b are perpendicular, we have
4
4x 3y 0 c x i j
3
r .b b c .b b.b
1 proj. of r on b
b b b
b.c 0
1
b 5 . Hence
5
TG ~ @bohring_bot
r .c
Also, 2 proj. of r on c
c
b c .c c
5
x
c 3
6
Thus, x . Therefore,
5
1 6 4
r 4i 3j i j 2i j
5 5 3
1 6 4 2 11
r 4i 3j i j i j
5 5 3 3 5
Thus there are four such vectors
4 2
2 2 2 11
i 1
ri 2 2i j 2 i
5 5
j 20
49. 1
Sol. Let f x sin x tan x 2x . Then g x f ' x
cos x sec 2 x 2
g' x sin x 2 sec 2 x tan x
2
sin x 1
cos3 x
1 cos3 x 1
sin x
cos3 x
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Yash Patil 17 AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Since for 0 x , we have 0 cos3 x 1, g is an increasing function. Hence
2
g x g 0 , i.e. cos x sec 2 x 2 0 . Therefore f is an increasing function, so
1
f x f 0 for 0 x . Hence sin x tan x 2x . Thus g 1
2 4 2
50. 1
Sol. The inverse of 2 × 2 matrices C = [Cij]2×2 with integer entries is a matrix with integer
entries if and only if |c| = 1
1 adj C 1
C & C 1
C C
So lets take a polynomial.
P(x) A xB
as per the problem P(0),P(1),P(2),P(3),P(4) 1,1
three of these must be same
and P(x) has degree at most 2.
it is constt.
A xB 1, x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
A 5B 1
51. 2
Sol. a1 a3 ... a99 50
a a 2d a 4d ... a 98d 50
50a 2d 1 2 ... 49 50
2d 50 49
50a 50
2
a 49d 1
a1 a3 a5 a7 a9 a11 ... a 93 a 95 a 97 a99
(26 negative terms and 24 positive)
a1 a99 2a 98d 2 2
52. 1
Sol. Given a b c 1 ………(1)
9a 3b c 7 ………(2)
18 25a 5b c 22 ………(3)
From above (1), (2) and (3) 4 7a b c 8
4 7a b a 1 8
5 8a 9
a 1, b 1, c 1
a 1, b 1, c 1
For question (2) h x ln x x 1 x
2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 18
53. 4
i1
Sol. Let z1 z1e and
z1 z 2 z1z 2 z1z2 z1 z 2
z2 r2 ei2 2 cos 1 2 2cos 1 2
z1z 2
54. 3
abc abaac
Sol.
ba ba
2a c
1
ba
2
Now: f x ax bx c
Given f x 0 x f 2 0
4a 2b c 0
2a c 2 b a
2a c
2
ba
abc
ba TG ~ @bohring_bot
3
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – V
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. Two vertical conducting cylinders A and B of different cross
sections are connected by a thin tube as shown. An ideal gas is A B
trapped in the cylinders by two airtight pistons of masses 1.0 kg
and 2.0 kg respectively. Initially the pistons are at the same
height 40cm above the base of the cylinders. If an additional 40 cm
mass of 10 g were gently placed on the piston in the cylinder A,
which of the following statements correctly describe the new
steady state ultimately reached.
(A) Pressure of the gas has been increased.
(B) Pressure of the gas remains unchanged.
(C) Height difference between the pistons becomes 30 cm.
(D) Height difference between the pistons becomes 60 cm.
2. Five equal resistances, a capacitor and two batteries are V
A R
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The capacitor D
is initially uncharged and each battery has negligible internal
TG ~ @bohring_bot
resistance. It is given that R = 1, C = 1F and V = 8 volt. R R
On the basis of above information answer the following E C
questions, if switch ‘S’ is closed at t = 0. (Assume e–1 = 0.37, B R
if required) S R
(A) Current in the branch of capacitor at t = 5/8 s is 2V
(approximately) 6 A
(B) Current in the branch AB at t = 5/8 s is (approximately) 1.7 A
(C) Potential difference between points A and C at t = 5/8 s is (approximately) 2.5 V
(D) Potential difference between points A and C at t = 5/8 s is (approximately) 6 V
3. A point mass m is attached to an ideal string, which in turns is wrapped on a vertical pole. Point
mass is kept on a smooth horizontal surface and string is horizontal. A horizontal velocity is
imparted to the point mass perpendicular to length of string.
(A) Speed of mass will become twice of initial value if length of string between the point mass
and the pole becomes half of the original value.
(B) Kinetic energy of mass increases.
(C) Work done by tension on the point mass is zero.
(D) Energy of the mass remains constant.
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
4. In the adjacent figure, a uniform disc of mass 2m and radius 2m
/ 2 is lying at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A particle
‘A’ of mass m is connected to a light string of length , whose
other end is attached to the circumference of the disc. Initially
string is just taut and tangential to the disc, particle A is at rest.
In the same horizontal plane another particle B of same mass
m moving with velocity v0 perpendicular to string collides
elastically with A. Just after impact which of the following
statements will be true m v0
A
B m
2mv 20 v 02
(A) Tension in the string is (B) Acceleration of the centre of the disc is
5 5
5 2v 02
(C) Initial radius of curvature of ‘A’ is (D) Acceleration of the centre of the disc is
2 5
5. Three masses are joined using pin joints (can move
freely). Length of both rods are identical and system starts
from rest. Accelerations of the balls are shown in figure.
Angle between the rods at this moment is 90°. The
horizontal surface is smooth. Choose the correct
option(s).
(A) 2a2 = a1 + ax
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) 2ay = a1 + a2
(C) 2ax = a1 – a2
(D) 3a1 = 5a2
6. A particle of mass m is subjected to two forces
r
F1 f(r) and F2 v
r
Where f(r) is a real valued function depends on the distance of particle from origin, r is position
vector of particle and is positive constant. If at t = 0, v vector is in x-y plane and angular
momentum of the particle about the origin is L0. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Plane of motion of particle does not change.
t
(B) Angular momentum of particle about the origin is given by L0 e m
(C) Angular momentum of particle about the origin is remains constant.
(D) The value of angular momentum about the origin will depend on f(r)
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. Match List I with List II:
List I (Circuit) List II (Ceq)
3C
(I) (P)
C C C C C C 4
C C C C C C 5C
A B
(II) (Q)
12
C C C C C C
A B 2C
(III) (R)
3
A C C C C C C 3C
B
(IV) (S)
2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) I – S; II – Q; III – R; IV – P (B) I – S; II – P; III – Q; IV – R
(C) I – S; II – P; III – R; IV – Q (D) I – S; II – Q; III – P; IV – R
8. One mole of an ideal gas whose adiabatic exponent equals , undergoes a process P = P0 + /v,
where P0 and are positive constants. Its volume increases from v 1 to v2.
List–I List–II
(I) Heat capacity of gas as a function of its (P) P0 (V2 – V1 )
volume –1
(II) Internal energy increment of a gas (Q) P0 (v 2 – v1 ) v
ln 2
–1 v1
(III) The work performed by it (R) v2
P 0 (v 2 – v1 ) ln
v1
(IV) The amount of heat transferred (S) R R
– 1 p0 v
(A) I – S; II – P; III – R; IV – Q (B) I – P; II – Q; III – R; IV – S
(C) I – P; II – S; III – R; IV – Q (D) I – S; II – P; III – Q; IV – S
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
9. Consider a situation in which a projectile is fired at 40 m/s
from the top of a tower in absence of air resistance t =0. 40m/s
37
36m
List–I List–II
(I) Time at which particle moves at right (P) 2.4 s
angles with the initial direction
(II) time at which kinetic energy is least (Q) 6s
(III) Time at which it strikes the ground (R) 20/3 s
(IV) Time when the v make 45 with horizontal (S) 5.6 s
(T) 7.2 s
(A) (I) (R); (II) (P); (III) (S); (IV) (Q) (B) (I) (P); (II) (R); (III) (Q); (IV) (S)
(C) (I) (P); (II) (Q); (III) (R); (IV) (S) (D) (I) (R); (II) (P); (III) (Q); (IV) (S)
10. A neutron moving with kinetic energy K collides with a hydrogen atom at rest in ground state.
Assume mass of neutron to be equal to that of hydrogen atom. Match the kinetic energy of
TG ~ @bohring_bot
neutron with the possible phenomena mentioned in column II. Energy of hydrogen in ground state
is –13.6 ev
List– I List–II
(Kinetic energy of colliding neutron)
I K = 10.2 eV (P) Elastic collision may take place
II K = 13.6 ev (Q) Inelastic collision may take place
III K = 20.4 ev (R) Perfectly inelastic collision may take place
IV K = 22.0 ev (S) Hydrogen atom may get ionised
(A) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S (B) I-P; II-P; III-P, R; IV-P, Q
(C) I-P; II-P; III-P; IV-Q (D) I-P; II-P; III-R; IV-Q
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. Two identical springs each of stiffness k are welded at a point P. If a
particle of mass m is welded at P. The period of oscillation of the k
Ym P
particle in the direction of x is . Find Y x
sin k m
k
A
12. A body executing SHM with time period T and amplitude A. When it is at from equilibrium
2
position moving toward right. It receives an impulse which doubles its velocity without changing
1 K
direction. Time taken by the block to reach the right extreme position is t T cos . Find
13
K.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
13. Figure shows a meter bridge wire AC has a uniform cross- X 4 Y
section. The length of wire AC is 100 cm. X is a standard
resistor of 4 and Y is a coil. When Y is immersed in melting
ice the null point is at 40 cm from point A. When the coil Y is
heated to 100°C, a 12 resistor has to be connected in G
parallel with Y in order to keep the bridge balanced at the
same point.
A C
D
14. A circular disc of a diameter d is slowly rotated in a liquid of large
viscosity at a small distance h from a fixed surface. An
expression for torque T necessary to maintain an angular
d4 Liquid h
velocity is . Find the value of X.
Xh
15. A set of parallel rays incident on the bi-convex lens. If f1 15 cm f2 20 cm
after two refractions and one reflection final image
Convex mirror
X
formed at 15 cm left of lens, the value of is
9
16.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Three SHM in the same direction in having same amplitude and same period are superposed. If
X
each differ in phase from the next by 45°. Then, find the energy associated with resulting motion
taking energy associated with each of given SHM as 1 J.
17. Two rods of different materials having coefficient of thermal expansion 1, 2 and Young’s
modulus Y1, Y2 are fixed between two massive walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
the same increase in temperature. If 1 : 2 = 2 : 3, then thermal stresses in rods are equal, then
the ratio Y1 : Y2 is _____ .
18. A student determines a dimensionless quantity,
en
B .
Z 0hc
Where, e = electric charge,
0 = permittivity of vacuum,
h = Plank’s constant
and c = speed of light.
Find the value of n.
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
76
19. An isotone of 32 Ge is
77 77
(A) 32 Ge (B) 33 As
77 78
(C) 34 Se (D) 34 Se
20. For a compound AB crystallises in a rock salt structure with edge length a of the unit cell,
(A) the minimum distance between A and A is a/ 2
(B) the minimum distance between B and B is a/ 2
(C) the minimum distance between A and B is a/2
4 M
(D) the density of the crystal is given by 3 AB
a NA
21. Which of the following statements are not correct
(A) For an ideal binary liquid solution, the plot of 1/xA versus 1/yA (where xA and yA are the mole
fractions of A in liquid and vapour phases, respectively) is linear.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(B) According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole
fraction of solvent in the solution.
(C) The crysoscopic constant Kf is property of solvent.
(D) The value of van’t Hoff factor for CH3COOH in benzene will be 2
22. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Linear overlap of two atomic p-orbitals leads to a sigma bond
(B) The bond angle H – N – H in NH3 is greater than the bond angle H – As – H in AsH3.
(C) Anhydrous HCl is a bad conductor of electricity but aqueous HCl is a good conductor
(D) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile whereas p-nitrophenol is not.
23. Which of the following reactions give an alkyne?
Kolbe 's
(A) sodium fumarate electrolysis
(B) CH3 CBr2 CHBr2
Zn alcohol
NaNH3
(C) CH3 CH2CHBr2
NaNH2
(D) CH3 CHBr CHBr
24. Which of the following reactions give n-propyl alcohol as the major product?
H
(A) CH3 – CH = CH2 + H2O
3 2 i CH CH MgBr
(B) HCHO
ii hydrolysis
cold aq KMnO
(C) CH3 – CH = CH2 4
Ni
(D) CH2 CH CHO H2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
25. Match the entries in List-I for the spectral series of hydrogen atom with those given in List-II. The
symbols n1 and n2 are the quantum level in the expression
List -I List-II
(I) Lyman series (P) n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 4, 5,…
(II) Balmer series (Q) n1 = 4 and n2 = 5, 6, 7
(III) Paschen series (R) n1 = 5 and n2 = 6, 7,…
(IV) Pfund series (S) n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4,…
(T) n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5, 6,….
Which of the following is correct match
(A) I–S; (B) II–Q
(C) III–R (D) IV – T
26. Match the list -I and List- II
List -I List-II
(I) Electrophilic substitution (P) NaOH
C6H5N2Cl + C6H5 OH
(II) Nucleophilic substitution (Q) Toluene + NBS
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(III) Free radical substitution (R) Dow’s process
(IV) Coupling reaction (S) Phenol picric acid
(T) C6H5ONa + CH3Br
Which of the following is correct match
(A) I–R, (B) II–P
(C) III-Q (D) IV–T
27. Match the list -I and List- II
List -I List-II
(I) 2p – 3 p (P) F 2C = O
(II) 3p – 3 d (Q) F 3P = O
(III) 2p – 3 d (R) F 3P = S
(IV) 2p – 2 p (S) F 2S = O
(T) F 2C = S
Which of the following is correct match
(A) I–R, (B) II–T
(C) III-Q (D) IV–P
28. List-II give the values of (- Cp, m/CV, m) at high temperature of gases which are shown in column I.
Identify the gas with the corresponding values.
List -I List-II
(I) Monatomic (P) 1.154
(II) Diatomic (Q) 1.286
(III) Linear Triatomic (R) 1.167
(IV) Nonlinear Triatomic (S) 1.407
(T) 1.667
Which of following is correct match
(A) I–Q (B) II–T
(C) III-P (D) IV–R
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
29. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The energy in electron volt required to
remove an electron in the n = 2 state of the hydrogen atom is
30. The density of a gas is 1.5 g L–1 at STP. Its density at 27 ºC and 1000 Torr would be
31. Ammonium chloride crystallizes in a body-centred cubic lattice with edge length of 387 pm. If the
–
size of NH4 is 154 pm, the size of Cl ion would be
32. A container of volume ‘V’ litre contains an equilibrium mixture which consists of 2 mol each of
PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2. The equilibrium pressure is 3 atm and temperature is ‘T’ kelvin. A certain
amount of Cl2 gas is now introduced into the container keeping the temperature and presence
constant, until the equilibrium volume becomes ‘2V’ litre. How many moles of Cl2 were added?
33. The conductivity of a saturated solution of silver oxalate is 4.5 × 10–5 S cm–1. If its Ksp = 1.35 ×
10–11M3, the molar conductivity of the saturated solution would be
34. How many grams of potassium perchlorate (KClO4) must be mixed with 108 g of water in order to
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
obtain a solution, which has a mole fraction of KClO4 equal to ?
7
35. Calculate effective nuclear charge on last electron of Cl. (using Slater rule)
36. The number of isomers possible for complex K2[PtClBr2SCN]:
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Yash Patil 10
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
37. A point P
3,1 moves on the circle x 2 y 2 4 and after covering a quarter of the circle
leaves it tangentially. The equation of a line along which the point moves after leaving the circle is
(A) y 3x 4 (B) 3y x 4
(C) 3y x 4 (D) y 3x 4
38. A chord PP’ of a parabola cuts the axis of the parabola at O. The feet of the perpendiculars from
P and P’ on the axis are M and M’ respectively. If V is the vertex then VM, VO, VM’ are in
(A) AP (B) GP
(C) HP (D) none of these
39. , and are three angles given by 2 tan1
2 1 ,
1 1 1
3 sin 1 sin 1 and cos 1 . Then
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2 3
(A) > (B) >
(C) < (D) none of these
8
40.
4
16x 64 x x 16x 64 dx
6 10
(A) 2 16x 64 x x 16x 64 dx (B) 2 16x 64 x x 16x 64 dx
4 8
9
(C) 2 16x 64 x x 16x 64 dx (D) 16
7
41. If M is the skew symmetric matrix of order n × n, then
(A) det (M – I) = det (M + I) (B) det (M – I) = – det (M + I) if n is odd
–1
(C) det (M – I) = det (M + I) if n is even (D) det (I – M) (I + M) ) = 1, det (I + M) 0
42. If the unit vectors a and b are inclined at an angle 2 such that a b 1 and 0 , then
lies in the interval
(A) [0, /6) (B) (5/6, ]
(C) (/6, /2] (D) [/2, 5/6)
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Match the List– I & List–II
List–I List–II
A straight line with negative slope passing through (1, 4) meets the
I coordinate axes at A and B. The minimum length of OA + OB, O being the P 52
origin, is
II If the point P is symmetric to the point Q(4, –1) with respect to the bisector Q 32
of the first quadrant, then the length of PQ is
III On the portion of the straight line x + y = 2 between the axis a square is R 9/2
constructed away from the origin, with this portion as one of its sides. If d
denotes the perpendicular distance of a side of this square from the origin
then the maximum value of d is
IV If the parametric equation of a line is given x = 4 + /2 and y = – 1 + 2, S 9
where is a parameter, then the intercept made by the line on the x-axis is
(A) I R; II P; III Q; IV S (B) I S; II P; III Q; IV R
(C) I S; II R; III Q; IV P (D) I P; II S; III Q; IV R
44. Match the List–I & List–II
TG ~ @bohring_bot
List–I List–II
1 1
I The smallest integer greater than is P 10
log3 log4
II Let 3a 4, 4b 5, 5c 6, 6 d 7, 7e 8, and 8 f 9. Then the value Q 3
of the product (abcdef) is
III Characteristic of the logarithm of 2008 to the base 2 is R 1
IV If log2 log2 log3 x log2 log3 log2 y 0, then the value of (x – y) S 2
is
(A) I R; II S; III P; IV Q (B) I S; II Q; III P; IV R
(C) I Q; II S; III P; IV R (D) I Q; II R; III P; IV S
45. Match the following List-I with List–II
List–I List–II
1 cos2x
I lim x2 equals to P 1
x 0
e ex x
II 3 / x 1
1/ x Q 2
If the value of lim can be expressed in the form of
x 0 3 / x 1
p/q
e , where p and q are relative prime, then (p + q) is equal to
III tan3 x tan x 3 R 4
lim 5
equals to
x 0 x
IV x 2sin x S 5
lim equals to
x 0
x 2 2sin x 1 sin 2 x x 1
(A) I R; II S; III P; IV Q (B) I Q; II S; III S; IV P
(C) I R; II P; III S; IV Q (D) I Q; II S; III P; IV R
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Yash Patil 12
46. Let be the plane parallel to y-axis and containing the points (1, 0, 1) and (3, 2, -1). A (4, 0, 0)
and B (6, 0, –2) are two points and P (x0, y0, z0) is a variable point on the plane = 0.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List - I List - I
I If the equation of the plane = 0 is x + ay + bz = c, then |a + b + c| is P 16
II If (PA + PB) is minimum, then 4 x0 y 0 2z0 is Q 12
III If |PA + PB| [0, N) , then N is R 3
IV If the reflection of the line AB in the plane S 8
x2 y z 4 4
0 is , then ( + )
1 0 1
T 10
(A) I R, II Q, III P, IV S (B) I Q, II R, III S, IV P
(C) I R, II Q, III S, IV P (D) I R, II S, III Q, IV P
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
47. In the coordinate plane, the region M consists of all the points (x, y) satisfying the inequalities
y 0, y x y and y 2 x simultaneously. The region N, which varies with the parameter t,
TG ~ @bohring_bot
consists of all the points (x, y) satisfying the inequalities t x t 1and 0 t 1
2 1
simultaneously. The area of M N is k 1t k 2 t , then k1 + k2 is ______ .
2
48. The slope of the tangent to the curve represented by x = t2 + 3t – 8 and y = 2t2 – 2t – 5 at the
point M 2, 1 is , then value of is ?
7
49. Let 1 3x 4x 2 a0 a1x a2 x 2 .. a20 x 20 . Then value of a3 is –
cos 2 cos sin sin
50. Find the value of f , where f cos sin sin 2 cos
6
sin cos 0
51. If , , are such that + + = 4, 2 2 2 6, 3 3 3 8 , then the value of
4 4 4 must be equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
52. Find the Coefficient of x103 in (1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4)199 (x – 1)201.
x 1 2021
1 1
53. If 1 1 , then |x| is equal to
x 2021
54. If two events A and B are such that P( A ) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4, P(A B ) = 0.5, then the value of
P(B/(A B )) is
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – V
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 54 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
TG ~ @bohring_bot
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
1. The refractive index of the medium within a certain region, x > 0, y > 0, changes with y. A thin
light ray travelling in the x-direction strikes the medium at right angles and moves through the
medium along a circular arc.
How does the refractive index depend on y?
[R : Radius of path & 0 : Initial refractive index]
2R R 0
(A) 0 (B)
Ry Ry 2
Ry R
(C) 0 (D) 0
R Ry
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2. A mass is suspended from a wire and is pulled along the length of wire, resulting in oscillations of
time period T1. The same mass is next attached to wire of the same material and length but
double the cross-sectional area. The time period this time is T2. Then T1/T2 is equal to
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
3. Initially, C1 is charged but C2 is uncharged. When 20 C
switch is closed, charges on C1 and C2 are 2 F 2 F
(A) 20 C, 0 +
(B) 10 C, 10 C
(C) 30 C, 10 C C1 C2
(D) 0, 20 C
10 V
4. A standing wave is produced in a vapour of an element of atomic mass 254 (g mol-1) at 400 K.
Nodes are found to be 6.77 cm apart when frequency of source was 1000 Hz. The vapour used
for the experiment is (R = 8.31 JK-1mol-1)
(A) monatomic (B) diatomic
(C) polyatomic (D) none of these
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
5. A particle of mass m is moving in a field where the potential energy is given by
U ( x ) U 0 (1 cos ax) , where U0 and a are constants and x is the displacement from mean
position . Then (for small oscillations)
m
(A) the time period is T 2 (B) the speed of particle is maximum at x = 0
aU 0
m
(C) the amplitude of oscillations is (D) the time period is T 2 2
a a U0
6. In an interference arrangement similar to Young’s double slit
experiment, the slits S1 and S2 are illuminated with coherent S1
microwave sources, each of frequency 106Hz. The sources are d/2
synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits are
separated by a distance d = 150.0 m. The intensity I() is d/2
measured as a function of , where is defined as shown. If I0 is
maximum intensity, then I() for 0 90 is given by S2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
I0 I0
(A) I() for = 30° (B) I() for = 90°
2 4
(C) I() I0 for = 0° (D) I() is constant for all values of
7. A uniform square plate of mass m and edge a initially at rest starts rotating about one of the edge
under the action of a constant torque . Then at the end of the 5th sec after start
752
(A) angular momentum is equal to 5 (B) kinetic energy is equal to
ma2
75 2
(C) angular momentum is equal to 2.5 (D) kinetic energy is equal to
2ma 2
8. A particle of mass m start moving at t = 0 due to a force F = F0cost, where F0 and are
constant. Particle will stop first time at t = t0 and distance travel in this time interval is S, then
(A) T0 = (B) t 0
2
2 F0 F0
(C) S (D) S
m 2 m 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
9. An ideal gas under goes a thermodynamic cycle as shown in figure.
Which of the following graphs represents the same cycle ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
In the given circuit, initially the charge on capacitor is Q0 . At t = 0, the
switch S is closed. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Maximum current through the inductor is
Q0
.b
C
LC
L S
(B) Charge on the capacitor is zero at t LC.
2
(C) Current through the inductor is maximum at t LC.
2
Q2
(D) Maximum magnetic energy can be stored in the inductor is 0 .
2C
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
11. A vertical hollow cylinder contains an ideal gas. The gas is enclosed by a 5 kg movable piston
2
with area of cross-section 5 × 103 m . The gas is slowly heated from 300 K to 350 K and the
piston rises by 0.1 m. The piston is now clamped at this position and the gas is cooled back to
300 K. The difference between the heat energy added during heating process and heat energy
lost during cooling process is 11x. Find value of x. [Take p0 = 105 N/m2]
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
12. Graph 1 and 2 represent the spectral emissive power of a body at temperature T1 and T1. The
ratio of area under curve 2 and curve 1 is.
dE
d
1
0 2 0
13. In the diagram there are four conducting plates A, B, C and D
placed parallel to each other at equal separation L. If plate C +q1 +q2 –q3 +q
3
starts moving towards plate B with velocity v. Find the current –q1 –q 2
(in mA) flowing in the wire connecting A and D. (assume all
other plates to be fixed)
A B v C D
(Given: q2 = 2C, q3 = 3C, v = 30 m/s, L = 0.05 m)
14. Water is flowing in varying cross-section pipe.
The areas of cross-sections 1, 2 and 3 are 1 37.5 cm
35 cm
cm2, 2 cm2 and A cm2, respectively. Water 200 cm
TG ~ @bohring_bot
levels are shown in different vertical tubes of
manometers. The speed of water at cross-
1
section 3 is m/s. 1
x 3 2
The value of x is
15. If the K radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a wavelength of 0.71 Å, calculate wavelength of the
corresponding radiation of Cu. i.e. K for Cu (Z = 29). Find the value of nearest integer value
(in Å) of wavelength.
16. A particle is suspended by a light vertical inelastic string of length from a fixed support. At its
equilibrium position, it is projected horizontally with a speed 6g . What is the ratio of the tension
in the string in its horizontal position to that in string, when the particle is vertically above the point
of support?
17. The electric field on two sides of a charged plate is shown in the
figure. If the charge density on the plate is n0, then n is
E1 8 V / m
E 12 V / m
2
18. A hydrogen like atom (atomic number z) is in a higher excited state of quantum number n. The
excited state by successively emitting two photons of energy 10.2 eV and 17.0 eV, respectively.
Alternative, the atom from the same excited by successively emitting two photons of energies
4.25 eV and 5.95 eV, respectively. Determine the value of n. (Take, ionisation energy of H-atom =
13.6 eV)
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
19. For [HgI3]– ion geometry and magnetic behaviour is respectively:
(A) triangular bipyramideal, paramagnetic
(B) triangular pyramidal, diamagnetic
(C) triangular planar, paramagnetic
(D) triangular planar, diamagnetic
20. CH CH2 CH
O
A
MnO2
OH OH
The product (A) is
(A) (B)
C CH2 CH C CH2 C
O OH O O
(C) (D)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
CH
OH
CH2 C
O
CH
OH
CH2 CH
OH
21. For most reactions, rate of a reaction increases about two times when its temperature is raised by
10 K. This fact is due to
(A) increase in number of collisions per unit volume
(B) increase in number of molecules having energy EA or more
(C) lowering of activation energy
(D) lowering of pre-exponential factor in Arrhenius equation
22. At constant volume, for a fixed amount of a gas the pressure of the gas increase with rise of
temperature due to
(A) increase in average molecular speed
(B) increased rate of collision amongst molecules
(C) increase in molecular attraction
(D) decrease in mean free path
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. Which of the following statements are correct?
2+
(A) Copper metal can reduce Fe in acidic medium.
(B) The absolute value of standard electrode potential can be determined experimentally
(C) In a Daniell cell, electrons flow from zinc electrode to copper electrode outside the cell
(D) Cell voltage is an intensive quantity.
24. Which of the following show the correct order of nucleophilicity?
– –
(A) CH3S > CH3O (B) (CH3)3 N > (CH3)3 P
(C) CN– > Cl– (D) OC2H5 OH
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
25. Which of the following is/are more acidic than phenol?
(A) OH (B) OH
CH3
NO2
(C) OH (D) OH
Br
OCH3
26. Select molecules(s) in which all the -orbitals are in same plane.
(A) C6H6 (B) O = C = C = C = O
(C) H2C = C = CH2 (D) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
27. In which of the following Pauli rule is violated?
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p7 (B) 1s1, 2s1, 2p6
(C) (D)
28.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1s2 2s 2 2p6
Synergic bonding in metal carbonyl complexes [M = Metal]:
1s2 2s 2 2p 4
(A) decreases C – O bond strength
(B) increases M – C bond length
(C) increases bond order for M – C bond
(D) increases paramagnetism of complex
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
29. Find the total number of electron in Cr which have (n × l) = zero
4
30. Total number of exchanges possible for 3d electronic configuration are?
31. Total number of bonds in PCl5 which are at 90º to each other, are
32. Consider octahydral complex K2[Ni(EDTA)].
Total no. of 5 member rings in compound = X
Total number of geometrical isomers possible for compound = Y
Represent your answer as a total of X and Y.
33. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt solution using
diphenylamine as indicator. The amount of Mohr’s salt required per mole of dichromate is
34. The number of atoms in a single face-centred cubic unit cell is
35. Total no. of geometrical isomers possible for 1, 2, 4-tribormocyclohexane are?
36. Total no. of stereoisomers possible for 1, 2-dimethylcyclopropane are?
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
37. If the area bounded by f(x) 1 x 2 (x 0) the line y = x, y axis and y = x + a(a>1) is k, then
area bounded by the graph of f 1(x), the line y = x between the lines y = x + 1 and y = x + a is
k 1 2k 1
(A) (B)
4 2
4k 1
(C) k (D)
4
38. In a acute angle triangle ABC, the foot of the perpendicular from A divide the opposite side into
22 Area of ABC
two parts of length 3 and 17 units and tan A , the is
7 22
5
(A) (B) 5
2
(C) 10 (D) 20
39.
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The digits of three digit number N are in A.P. If sum of the digits is 15 and the number obtained
by reversing the digits of the number is 594 less the original number, then
1000
N 252
is equal to :
5 5
(A) (B)
6 3
(C) 0.06 (D) 0.03
40. A flagstaff stands vertically on a pillar, the height of the flagstaff being double the height of the
pillar. A man on the ground at a distance finds that both the pillar and the flagstaff subtend equal
angles at his eyes. The ratio of the height of the pillar and the distance of the man from the pillar,
is
(A) 3 :1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 1: 3 (D) 3:2
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
bc c a ab
41. Let a, b, c be noncoplanar vectors and p , q , r then
a b c bc a c ab
(A) p a 1 (B) p a q b r c 3
(C) p a q b r c 0 (D) none of these
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
42. 7 points are given in a plane (as shown in adjacent figure), then using these 7 points –
(A) Number of lines that can be formed is 10.
(B) Number of triangles that can be formed is 24.
(C) Number of quadrilateral that can be formed is 6.
(D) Maximum number of circles that can be formed is 24, where each circle contains atleast three
of 7 points
2 2
43. The equations of four circles are x a y a a2 . The radius of a circle touching all the
four circles is
(A)
2 1 a (B) 2 2a
(C) 2 1 a
(D) 2 2 a
44. If f(x) is a cubic polynomial such that f(0) + 2 = 0 and f (0) 6 & f (x) 0 posses three positive
integral roots then
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(A) f (1) 0 (B) 2f (0) f (0) 0
(C) 2f (0) f (0) 2 (D) f (2) 0
45. If x [y] {z} 1.1 [.] is G.I.F and {.} is fractional part
[x] {y} z 2.2
{x} y [z] 3.3 then
(A) x y z 3.3 (B) y 2x 1
(C) 2(z 1) 5y (D) {x} {y} {z} 0.3
46. If the sides a, b & c of a triangle ABC are in G.P. then B can never be
5
(A) (B)
6 6
2
(C) (D)
4 3
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.
47. If S 3. 9. 27 . 81...., then sum of digits in S is
x2
48. Let f(x) = (1 + x) n 1 x x
, x 1 and f ' x 0 x 0, , then value of [] is (where
4
denotes greatest integer function)
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
49. Let f(x) be a derivable function such that f(0) = 1, f(2) = 2,
f(4) = 1 and f(6) = – 4. The graph of y y f ' x is given
below. Then find the total number of points of local
maximum/local minimum of y =f (x) ln (0, 10)
50. The projection length of a variable vector xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ on the vector p = ˆi 2 ˆj 3kˆ is 6. Let
be the minimum projection length of the vector x 2 ˆi y 2 ˆj z 2 kˆ on the vector p , then the value
3
of l 2 152 is
51. Non-zero vectors a, b, c satisfy a.b = 0, (b a).(b c) = 0 and 2 | b c | | b a | . If
a b 4c then the value of is
52. 3 couples have to be seated around a circle. Let p be the probability that no couple is together
then the value of 30 p is
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
53. If f 0 1, f 2 3, f ' 2 5 then the value of the definite integral 0 x f " 2 x dx is
54. A special die is so constructed that the probabilities of throwing 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are (1 – k)/6,
(1 + 2k)/6, (1 – k)/6, (1 + k)/6, (1 – 2k)/6 and (1 + k)/6 respectively. If two such dice are thrown
1 2
and the probability of getting a sum equal to 9 lies in , . Then find the number of integral
9 9
solutions of k.
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – V
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. B, D
1000 2000
Sol. S 2 2S1
S1 S2
S1x S2 y S1 S2 40
S1x 2S1y S1 2S1 40
x 2y 120
2. A, B, C
5RC
Sol. time constant of capacitor ()
8
Maximum charge on capacitor at steady state (q0 ) 5CV / 4
Charge on capacitor at any time V
A R
5CV
8t
D
q 1 e 5RC .... (i) R
4 R
C
Current in the branch of capacitor at any time E i2 C
8t i1 i1 - i2 R
2V 5RC
i1 e R
R
i1 1.7 amp D 2V
Now, v A i2R(i1 i2 )R VC
VA v C 2.52 volt
3. C, D
Sol. The force on the particle is not the central force.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
4. A, B
Sol. For the disc (2m) 2m
T 2ma ....(i)
/2
T lC ....(ii) C
2 P a
For A (w.r.t. ‘P’) T
mv 20
T m[a R
T
V02
Initial R.O.C. of A A
(T / m) v0
aA
mv 20
5. A, B, C, D
Sol. ax + ay = a1 ...(i)
ay – ax = a2 ...(ii)
acm(x) = 0
2a2 + a1 + ax ...(iii)
6. A, B
Sol. L = mvr ...(i)
dL
dt
dL
TG ~ @bohring_bot
v r
L
from (i)
dt m
L t
dL
dt
L0 dt m0
t
m
L L0e
7. B
Sol. Eq. circuit of case P
(P) A B
A B
(Q)
(R) A B
(S)
A B
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
8. A
RT dV Pdv
Sol. (I) C = Cv + Cv Cv (for one mole gas)
v dT dT
RT
we have p = P0 + , or P0
v v v
or RT = P0v + .
dv R
Therefore RdT = P0dv, so,
dt P0
R R
Hence C = Cv + P0 , 1 R
v 0P r – 1 P0V
R R R R
= R P v –1 P v
r – 1 0 0
(II) work done given by
v2 dv
v2
W= P0 v P0 (v 2 – v1 ) a n
v1
v1
P v – P1V1 1
(III) U = Cv(T2 – T1) = Cv 2 2 = p2 v 2 – p1v1
R – 1
P (v – v1 )
= 0 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
–1
P0 (v 2 – v1 ) v
(IV) Q = DV + W = aln 2
–1 v1
9. D
Sol. (A) 8 2t j 8 2t j
88
(B) S 16
22
(C) v 8i 8j , | v | 8 2
1
(D) 0 8t 2t 2 ,t 8
2
10. B
Sol. If energy required by transition or ionization is Q then kinetic energy K required for colliding.
Particle is
M
K Q 1 1
M2
here M 1 M 2
K 2Q
Minimum kinetic energy required for neutron to exite the atom = 2 × excitation energy.
Possible values of excitation energy = 10.2 ev, 12.1 ev,….
Ionisation energy = 13.6 ev
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
Section – B
11. 2.00
F
Sol. keff numerically
x
Let us find x (static deformation of the system).
Since the particle is in equilibrium,
F 2 Fs sin
2 2 2
By Pythagoras theorem, x y l
Taking differentials of both sides, we have 2 x x 2 y y 2l l
Since y is constant, y0
x
l x
l
F
2k sin 2
x
keff 2k sin 2
2m
Substituting keff , we have T
sin k
12.
Sol.
1.00
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Velocity = A2 x 2
2 3 A
= (doubles)
T
2 3 A 2
A2 x 2
T T
13
A1 A
2
A/2 1 1 1
cos cos
A1 13 3
1
cos 1 t
13
1
t T cos 1
13
13. 1.00
Sol. According to given condition,
i 4 AD 40 2
i R0 DC 60 3
R = 12
Now, R R0 (1 T)
12 6(1 100)
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1 102
So, x=1
14. 4.00
Sol. Consider an element of disc at a radius r and having a width dr.
Linearly velocity at this radius = r
du
Shear stress,
dy
Assuming, the gap h to be small, so that the velocity distribution may be assumed linear
v r
h h
Viscous force, dF = Area
= 2 rdr Liquid h
Torque dT on the element,
dT dF r 2r 2 dr r
2 dr
r 2 r dr
or dT 2r 2 dr
h h
Total torque,
3
d / 2 2 r dr d4
T
0 h 4h
Thus, x = 4
15.
Sol.
4.00
TG ~ @bohring_bot
The condition is possible only when the foci of lens
and mirror coincides. Then, only the final image will be F1 and F2
at 15 cm left to lens
So, x 15 21 36 cm
x 36
Hence, 4 cm
9 9 15 cm
16. 5.82
Sol. ynet y1 y 2 y 3
a[sin t sin(t 45) sin(t 90)]
( 2 1)a sin(t 45)
Energy ratio is
2
Eresul tan t A
( 2 1)2
Ering a
(3 2 2)
Eresultant = 5.82 J
17. 1.50
Sol. Thermal stress = Y
As, thermal stresses are equal
y111 y 2 2 2
Y1 2 3
Y2 1 2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
18. 2.00
0 0 0
Sol. Dimension of B = [M L T ]
Dimension of e = [AT]
Dimension of 0 [A 2M1L3 T 4 ]
Dimension of h = [ML2T–1]
Dimension of c = [LT–1]
Equating,
[AT]n
[M0L0 T 0 ] 2 1 3 4
[A M L T ][ML2 T 1 ][LT 1 ]
[M0L0 T 0 ] [A n 2L0 Tn 2 ]
n – 2 = 0 or n = 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. B, D
Sol. Isotones have same number of neutrons
20. A, B, C, D
Sol. The dA–A = d B–B =
2 a/2 and dAB = a/2. There will be four molecules of AB in a unit cell. Hence.
4M
Its density will be given as 3 AB .
a NA
21. B, D
Sol. RLVP = mole fraction of solute
Van’t Hoff factor for CH3COOH in benzene will be less than 1, because of association of
CH3COOH
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. Factual
TG ~ @bohring_bot
23. A, B, C, D
Sol. Factual
24. B, D
Sol. (A) CH CH CH
H H2 O
CH3 CH CH3
3 2
OH
aqKMnO4
(B) CH3 CH CH2
cold
CH3 CH CH2
OH OH
25. C
Sol. Factual
26. C
Sol. Factual
27. D
Sol. Factual
28. C
Sol. Factual
Section – B
29. 3.40
Sol. I.P = RHZ2, 13.6 = RH
1 1 1 1 1
E RH 2 2 13.6 2 2 13.6 3.4
n 2 4
1 n2
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
30. 1.80
PM RT 1.5 R 273
Sol. or M
RT P 1
1000 1.5 R 273
1.8
760 R 300
31. 181.14
Sol. for bcc, 3 a 2 r r
1.732 × 387 = 2 (154 + rCl–)
rCl 181.14
32. 6.67
2
Sol. PPCl5 PCl3 PCl2 3 = 1 atm
6
1 1
Kp 1
1
Let “y” mol of Cl2 were added
PCl5 g PCl3 g Cl2 g
Initialmol 2 2 2 y
molof equilibrium 2 x 2 x 2 y x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Total mol = 12, because total volume is twice of initial volume
Mol of PCl5 + PCl3 = 2 + x +2 –x = 4
Mol of Cl2 = 12 – 4 = 8
PCl5 =
2 x 3 2 x , P = 2 x , P 8 3 2
PCl3 Cl2
12 4 4 12
2x
2 2
4 1.0 x
2x 3
4
2
2y 8
3
20
y 6.67
3
33. 300.00
2
Sol. For Ag2C2O4 2Ag C2 O4
1 1
1
K sp 3 1.35 10 11 3
S 3.375
12
3 1.5 104
4 4
k 1000
m
S
4.5 10 5 103
m 300 S cm2 mol–1
1.5 104
34. 138.50
1 6
Sol. XH2 O 1
7 7
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
XKClO4 1 7 1 n KClO4
XH2 O 7 6 6 n H2 O
It mean 6 mol H2O (108g H2O) contain 1 mol KClO4 = 138.5g KClO4
35. 6.10
Sol. Factual
36. 4.00
Sol. Br SCN Br NCS Br SCN Br NCS
Pt Pt Pt Pt
Cl Br Cl Br Br Cl Br Cl
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. B, C
Sol.
Clearly, A 2 cos 60 , 2 sin 60 and B 2 cos 60 , 2sin 60 .
The tangent at A is x 2 cos 60 y 2 sin 60 4 and the tangent at B is
x 2 cos 60 y 2 sin 60 4 .
38. B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol.
2
Let the parabola be y 4ax and p at12 , 2 at1 , P ' at2 2 , 2at2
a12 2at1 1
2 2
VM at ,VM ' at2 and VO k , where a 22
1 2at2 1 = 0
k 0 1
p , p ', O are collinear
k at1t 2 0
2
VM VM ' at1t 2 k 2 OV 2 .
39. B, C
1
Sol. 2 tan1
2 1 2 tan1 tan
8
2 cos1
8 4 2
.
7
3 .
4 6 12
1 1 1 1
Also cos1 cos1 .
3 2 3 2 4
So .
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
1
Again cos 1 belongs to the first quadrant and is in the second quadrant.
3
.
40. A, B, D
8 8
Sol.
4
x4 2 x 4 2 dx 4dx 16
4
Similarly option A = B = D = 16
41. B, C, D
Sol. det (M I) det (M I) T
det (M T I)
det (M I), if n is even
det ( M I)
det (M I), if n is odd
42. A, B
Sol. Since, a and b are unit vectors, we have
2
a b a b
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2 2
a b 2a .b 1 1 2cos 2 2 sin
Therefore, a b 1
2 sin 1
1
sin
2
5
0, or ,
6 6
43. B
Sol. I.
OA 1 4 cot
OB 4 tan
OA + OB = 5 + 4 cot + tan 5 + 2 4cot tan
5 2 2 9
II.
The reflection of P(4, –1) on y = x is Q (–1, 4).
2 2
Hence, PQ = 4 1 1 4 50 5 2 .
III. AB = 22
OC = 2
The maximum value of d is
OF = 2 + 22 = 32
IV.
1 y 1
The given line is x 4 or y 2x 9
2 2
Hence, the intercept made by the x-axis is 9/2.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
Yash Patil
44. C
1 1
Sol. I. We have log 3 log 4 log 12
log3 log4
But 2 12 3 , we have 2 < log 12 < 3.
II. 3a 4; a log3 4
Similarly, b = log45 etc.
Hence, abcdef = log34 . log45 . log5 6 . log6 7 . log78 . log8 9 = log3 9 = 2
III. We have to find characteristic of log22008.
We know that log21024 = 10 and log2 2048 = 11, therefore 10 log2 2008 11
Hence, it has characteristic 10.
IV. log2 log2 log3 x 0 log2 log3 x 1 log3 x 2
x 9
Similarly, we have log3 log2 y 1
log2y = 3 or y = 8
Therefore, x – y = 1.
45. A
2 2
ex 1 x ex 1 1 ex 1 x e x 1 1 e x x 1
Sol. I. l lim 2
lim 2
lim 2 1 lim
x 0 sin x 2 x 0 x x 0 x 2 x 0 x2
2 2 .x 2
x
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1/ x 1 3 x 2x
3x lim 1 lim
II. l lim e x0 x 3 x
e x0 x 3 x e2/3 2 3 5
x 0 3 x
tan3 x x3 tan x 3 x 3
III. lim
x 0 x5
3 3
tan x x tan3 x x3
lim lim
x 0 x5 x 0
x5
zero by exp ansion
tan x x tan2 x x tan x x 2 1
lim . 3 1
x 0 x3 x2 3
IV. Rationalising given
x 2sin x x 2 2sin x 1 sin2 x x 1
lim
x 0 x2 2 sin x 1 sin2 x x 1
x sin2x
2.lim 2
x 0 x sin 2 x 2 sin x x
sin2x
1
x 1 2
2.lim 2
2 2
x 0 sin x 3
x 2 1
x
46. C
Sol. Let the plane be x + z + 1 = 0
Pass through (1, 0, 1); (3, 2, –1)
1 1
;
2 2
(I) : x + z = 2
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
(II)
Both A and B are on same side of .
Reflection of A in plane is A’(2, 0, –2)
Equation of line A’B = r 6iˆ 2kˆ (4i)
ˆ
1
For P : 6 + 4 + 0 – 2 = 2 =
2
P(4, 2, – 2)
4x0 y0 2z0 12
(III) Now |PA – PB|min = 0
|PA – PB|min will approach
AB = 4 0 4 8
| PA PB | [0, 8 ).
x2 y z
(IV) Also, A’ will lie on
.
1 0 1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
22 0 2
1 0 1
0, 2
4 4 16
Section – B
47. 2.00
Sol. The region M is the large triangle in the diagram below, and the region N is the infinite strip
between the lines x t and x t 1where 0 t 1
0 t t +1
1
Hence M N is the pentagon. Its area is given by
1
2 2
2 t 2 2 t 1
2
t t 21
2
48. 6.00
Sol. t 2 3t 8 2 t 2, – 5
2
2t 2t 5 1 t 2, 1
So, at t 2
dy
dy dt 6
dx dx 7
dt t 2
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14
Yash Patil
49. 4320.00
3
Sol. a3 is coefficient of x
10! 10!
3 4 33 4320
8! 7!3!
50. 1.00
Sol. Applying C1 C1 sin C 3 and C 2 C 2 cos C3 , we get
1 0 sin
f 0 1 cos
sin cos 0
Applying R 3 R 3 sin R1 cos R 2 , we get
1 0 sin
f 0 1 cos 1
2 2
sin 0 sin cos
Thus, f 1
6
51. 7.00
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Sol. We have
2 2 2 2 2
16 6 2
5
Also,
3 3 3 3 2 2 2
8 3 4 6 5
or 3 4
or = 4/3
2
Now, 2
2 2 4
22 2
4 2 2
2
4
6 2 4 2 25 2. .4
3
64 64 22
4 36 50 3 3 14 3
22
4 4 4 7
3
52. 0.00
Sol. Coefficient of x103 in (1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4)199 (x – 1)201
103 2 5 199
Coefficient of x in –(1 – x) (1 – x )
103 2 199 5 199 10 199 15
Coefficient of x in –(1 – 2x + x ) (1 – C1 x + C2 x – C3 x + …..)
103
Coefficient of x = 0
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Yash Patil 15 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
53. 2022.00
Sol. For x > 0 not possible
For x < 0 put x = – y
1 y 1 y 1 y 2021
1 y 1 y 2022
1 y y
y 1 2021
y 2022
x 2022
x 2022
54. 0.25
P(B (A B) P(A) P(A B)
Sol. P(B) (A B )) =
P(A B) P(A) P(B) P(A B)
0.7 0.5 0.2 1
=
0.7 0.6 0.5 0.8 4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil
FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – V
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 08-02-2023
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Physics PART – I
Section – A
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1. D
Sol. Equation of circle is y
(x 0)2 (y R)2 R 2 …(1)
dy
tan …(2)
dx
By Snell’s law sin(90 ) 1 0 …(3) x
2. D
Ay
Sol. F L KL
L
Ay
K
L
m
T 2
K
3. A
Sol. Apply KVL 40p C-q q
40 q q + +
10 0
2 2
Solve for q
10 V
4. B
YRT
Sol. Velocity, v
M
Find Y
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
5. B, C, D
dU
Sol. U U 0 (1 cos ax) , F aU 0 sin ax
dx
d 2x
m 2
a 2U 0 x (For small oscillations)
dt
m
T 2 2
a U0
Potential energy is maximum at x =
a
amplitude is
a
Speed of particle is maximum at x = 0 ( PE is minimum)
6. A, C
Sol. (i) for = 30
c 3 108
300 m, d = 150 m
106
2 2 1
(dsin ) (150)
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(300) 2 2
I
I() I0 cos2 I0 cos2 0
2 4 2
2
(ii) for = 90° (150)(1)
300
I() I0 cos2
2
I0 cos2 0
2
(iii) for = 0°, = 0
I() = I0
7. A, D
Sol. Change in angular momentum = angular impulse
L 5
ma2
l
3
L2 752
K
2l 2ma2
8. A, C
0 t0
F F0
Sol. a 0 cos t , 0 dv m cos t dt , t0
m 0
v t s t
F F F 0
and dv 0 cos t dt , v 0 sin t , ds 0 sin t dt
0 m 0 m 0 m 0
F F 2 F0
S 0 2 cos t 00 0 2 2
t
m m m 2
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Yash Patil 3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
9. A, C
Sol. Using PV = nRT
(A)
(C)
10. A, B, C, D
Sol. Charge on capacitor at time t is
q Q0 cos t
1
TG ~ @bohring_bot
Where .
LC
At t ,q 0
2
t LC
2
By conservation of energy
Q20 1 2
Limax
2C 2
Q
imax 0
LC
Section – B
11. 5
Sol. ΔQ P = nCP ΔT
When piston is clamped; heat is rejected and volume becomes constant
(ΔQ)V = nCV ΔT
Difference = nCP ΔT -nCV ΔT = ΔW =PΔV
Mg
P = P0 + and ΔV = (A × 0.1)
A
Mg
(ΔQ)P - (ΔQ)V = P0 + × A ×0.1
A
= 55 J
x=5
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4
12. 4
Sol. 2 0 T1 0 T2
4
T2 A 2 T2
2 ; 4
T1 A1 T1
13. 1
2q1L 2q2 x 2q3 (2L x) I
Sol. 0 … (i)
2A 0 2A 0 2A 0
+q1 +q2 –q3 +q
dq dq3 dq2 3
I 1 … (ii) –q1 –q2
dt dt dt
From (i), q1L q2 x 2q3L q3 x 0 v
dq1 dq dx dq dq dx L x 2L–x
L x 2 q2 2 3 L x 3 q3 0
dt dt dt dt dt dt
v
I (q2 q3 ) = 1 Ma
3L
14. 2
Sol. Apply Bernoulli’s equations at pipe (1), (2) and (3)
1 1
p3 v 32 p2 v 22 p1 / 2v12
2 2
TG ~ @bohring_bot
gh3
v 23
1 2
2
gh2
v 22
gh1
v12
2
p0 gh3 v 3 p0 gh2 v 22 p0 gh1 v 12
2
...(i)
2 2 2
v3 A3 v2 A 2
v3 A v2 2 ....(ii)
v 2 2 v1 1 ....(iii)
From Equation (i), we get
v2 v2
gh2 2 gh1 1
2 2
35 v 22 20 v12
10 10
100 2 100 2
15 v12 v 22
10 2
4v v 22
2
2
2
2
3v
2
2
v 2 1 m/s, v1 2 m/s
From equation (i), we get
v2 v2
gh3 3 gh2 2
2 2
37.5 v 23
10
100 2
35 1
10
100 2
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Yash Patil 5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
v 23 1 35 37.5 1 2.5 1 25
2 2 10 10 2 10 2 100
v 23 1 1
v 23
2 4 2
1
v3 ,X 2
2
15. 2
Sol. v a(Z b)
v a(Z 1)
(Z 1)2
1
or (Z 1)2
(ZMo 1)2 Cu
(ZCu 1)2 Mo
(ZMo 1)2
Cu Mo
(ZCu 1)2
2
41
0.71 1.52Å
28
TG ~ @bohring_bot
=2Å
16. 4
Sol. For vertical circular motion, student should always remember that
v (N 4)g
v (N 2)g
v (N 2)g
u Ng
For given, u 6g
v 2 2g
mg
T2 v1 4g
T1
At horizontal position,
mv12
T1 4mg …(i)
At highest point,
mv 22
T2 mg 2 mg
T2 mg …(ii)
From above equation, we get
T1
4
T2
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6
17. 4
Sol. The electric field produced by thin charged sheet is given by .
20
E E
20 20
[Where, = surface charge density]
E0 E 12 V/m ...(i)
E0 E 8 V/m ...(ii)
Solving Equations (i) and (ii), we get
E 2 V/m
Now, electric field due to plate 2
2E0
s 4e0
n=4
TG ~ @bohring_bot
18. 6
Sol. From the given conditions, we get
En E2 (10.2 17)eV
= 27.2 eV ...(i)
En E3 (4.25 5.95)eV
= 10.2 eV ...(ii)
Subtracting Equation (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
E3 E2 17.0 eV
1 1
Z2 (13.6) 17.0
4 9
5
Z2 (13.6) 17.0
36
2
Z 9 or Z = 3
1 1
Z2 (13.6) 2 27.2
4 n
1 1
32 (13.6) 2 27.2
4 n
1 1
0.222
4 n2
1
0.0278 n2 36 n 6
n2
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Yash Patil 7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. D
2 2+ 10
Sol. sp hybridization of Hg and Hg has d configuration
20. A
Sol. MnO2 oxidise allylic alcohols
21. B
Sol. Factual
22. A
Sol. Factual
23. C, D
Sol. Factual
24. A, C, D
Sol. Down the group nucleophilicity increases
TG ~ @bohring_bot
25. A, D
Sol. –NO2 and –Br increases acidic character of phenol by dispersing –ve charge of phenoxide ion –
OCH3 and –CH3 decreases acidic character by intensification of –ve charge of phenoxide ion.
26. A, D
Sol. Factual
27. A, C
Sol. p-subshell can have maximum 6 electron and an orbital can have maximum 2 electron with
opposite spin.
28. A, C
Sol. Factual
Section – B
29. 7
Sol. for s-subshel, l = zero, hence for all electrons presente in s-orbitals, n × l = zero
2 2 6 2 6 5 1
Cr = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 3d , 4s
In Cr there are 7 electrons present in s-orbitals
30. 6
Sol. Factual
31. 6
Sol. Triangular bipyramidal molecules have six, 90º angles
32. 5
Sol. edta make five rings of 5 member, x = 5 and octahydral [M(edta)] complex can not show
geometrical isomerism, y = 0
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8
33. 6
Sol. Cr2 O72 6Fe2 14H 2Cr 3 6Fe3 7H2O
34. 4
1 1
Sol. Z = 8 6 4
8 2
35. 4
Sol. Br Br Br H Br Br H Br
Br Br H Br
H Br H H
H H Br
H H Br H
36. 3
Sol.
CH3
CH3 CH3 H
H CH3
H H
H CH3 CH3 H
TG ~ @bohring_bot
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Yash Patil 9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
Mathematics PART – III
Section – A
37. D
1
Sol. Required area of shaded region is k
4 y = x+1 y=x
y = x+a y = x+a
y = x+a
y = x+1
38. B
Sol. B+C=–A
tan (B + C) = – tan A
1 1
h
17 3 22 20h 22
h2 7 51 h2 7
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1
51
1
Area of triangle ABC 20 11 110
2
39. B
Sol. Let three digits of N be :
Hundred’s digit = a – d, ten’s digit = a, and unit’s digit = a + d
(a – d) + a + (a + d) = 15 a = 5
N = 100(5 – d) + 50 + (5 + d) …(1)
Number obtained by reversing digits of N is
N1 = 100(5 + d) + 50 + (5 – d) …(2)
Now, 594 = N – N1 = 10(– 2d) + 2d
2d = – 6 d = –3
1000 1000 5
Thus, N = 852 and
N 252 600 3
40. C
h
Sol. Let a. Then tan a,tan 2 3a.
x
2a 1
3a a
1 a2 3
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10
41. A, B
Sol.
a b c d a vector perpendicular to a b a n d c d
If l is the line of intersection of the two planes of a,b a n d c, d th e n l a b and
l c d.So, a b c d is along l which is equally inclined to a b a n d c d
42. A, B, C, D
Sol. (A) 7 C2 3 C 2 5 C2 2 10
(B) 7 C3 3 C3 5 C 3 24
(C) There is no use of point’3’
6
C 4 4 C 4 4 C3 .2 C 2 6
43.
Sol.
A, C
TG ~ @bohring_bot
(D) 7 C3 3 C3 5 C 3 24
The four circles are as shown in the figure. The smallest circle touching all of them has the radius
= 2a a and the greatest circle touching all of them has the radius = 2a a .
44. A, C
Sol. Consider f (x) x 3 ax 2 bx 2
2
, , N two of them are 1 & other is 2
f ''(0)
a ( ) 4
2
b ( ) 5 f '(0)
Hence f (x) x 3 4x 2 5x 2
Again 1 is a repeated root of f(x) = 0
f (1) 0
45. A, B, C, D
Sol. x [y] {z} 1.1 …(1)
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Yash Patil 11 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
[x] {y} z 2.2 …(2)
{x} y [z] 3.3 …(3)
(1) + (2) + (3)
2(x y z) 6.6
x y z 3.3 …(4)
(4) (1)
{y} [z] 2.2 {y} 0.2 &[z] 2
(4) – (2)
{x} [y] 1.1 {x} 0.1, [y] 1
(4) – (3)
[x] {z} 0 [x] 0 & {z} 0
x 0.1
y 1.2
z 2
46. B, D
Sol. b 2 ac
a 2 c2 b 2 a 2 c 2 b 2
cos B
TG ~ @bohring_bot
2ac 2b 2
a2 c2 1
cos B
2ac 2
1 a2 c2 1 1
cos B cos B 1 cos B
2 2ac 2 2
B (0, / 3)
Section – B
47. 9
Sol. S 3.32/ 2.33/ 4.3 4/8.....
2 3 4
1 ....
2 4 8
S3
2 3 4
S ' 1 .... ....(1)
2 4 8
S' 1 2 3
.... ....(2)
2 2 4 8
Subtract (2) from (1)
S' 1 1 1
1 ....
2 2 4 8
S'
S 3 4 81
48. 2
x2
Sol. f(x) (1 x)n(1 x) x
4
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Yash Patil
AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12
1 3
lim f(x) 0 1 and f 0 0
x 1 4 4
(2, 3)
49. 2
Sol.
50. 9
Sol. Projection length = | a .p |
| x 2y 3z |
TG ~ @bohring_bot
So, 6
14
|x + 2y + 3z| = 6 14
|( xiˆ 2yjˆ 3 zkˆ ). ( ˆi 2ˆj 3k)
ˆ | = 6 14
2
(x2 + 2y2 + 3z2) (1 + 2 + 3) cos2 = 6 14
x 2 2y 2 3z 2
6 14 l = 6 14
14
So, (l2 + 152)1/3 = (504 + 225)1/3 = (729)1/3 = 9.
51. 0
a b
Sol. c and a.b 0
4
a b
Now, b a . b c 0 b a . b
4
0
2 2
(4 – ) b = a ( < 4) ... (i)
2
2 2 (4 )b a
Again 4| b c | = | b a | 4 | b a |2
4
2 2
4 2 a 2 2 2 2 2
4 b = b + a ((4 – ) – 4)b = 3a ... (ii)
4 4
(4 ) 2 4 3
(i) & (ii) we get = 2 – 5 = 0
4 1
= 0 or 5 but as < 4, so, = 0.
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Yash Patil 13 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2023
52. 8
5!3 C1 (4!).(2!) 3 C2 (3!).(2!).(2!) 3 C3 (2!).(2!).(2!).(2!) 120 144 72 16 4
Sol. p=
5! 120 15
So 30p = 8
53. 2
f ' 2x f ' 2x f ' 2x f 2x
Sol. x f " 2x dx x 2
2
dx x
2
4
I II
1 1
xf ' 2x f 2x f ' 2 f 2 f 0
0
x f " 2x dx 0
0 2 4 2 4 4
5 3 1
0 2
2 4 4
54. 1
Sol. Let E1, E2, E3 E4, E5 and E6 be the events of occurrence of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on the dice
respectively, and let E be the event
1 k 1 2k 1 k
P E1 ; P E2 ;P E 3
6 6 6
TG ~ @bohring_bot
1 k 1 2k 1 k 1 2
P E4 ; P E5 ; P E6 and P E
6 6 6 9 9
Then, E 3, 6 , 6, 3 , 4,5 , 5, 4
Hence, P E P E3 E 6 P E 6 E3 P E 4 E 5 P E 5 E 4
P E 3 P E 6 P E 6 P E3 P E 4 P E5 P E 5 P E 4
2P E 3 P E 6 2P E 4 P E5
{Since E1, E2, E3, E4, E5 and E6 are independent}
1 k 1 k 1 k 1 2k
2 2
6 6 6 6
1
2 k 3k 2
18
1 2
Since, PE
9 9
1
k0
3
Set of integral value of k = {0}
Number of integral solution of k is 1
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