Republic of the Philippines

Holy Angel University

Angeles City, Pampanga
SCHOOL OF ARTS AND SCIENCES

Psychometrician Review 2014

A Project Presented to
Prof. Ian Fel D. Metal

In Partial Fulfillment
Of the Requirements in
Synthesis in Psychology

Submitted by
Bigtas, Nathalie Rose N. Manalo, Francesca Gwen P.
Bulanadi, Ma. Vhea Nizza G. Manding, Melanie M.
Cruz, Aaron Steven B. Maravilla, Estefannie S.
Espero, Ma. Leovina Z. Martin, Joanna Mae L.
Espiritu, Jose Eduardo Mercado, Daphne Gayle F.
Fernando, Stephanie Deniese S. Perez, Jennica Rose
Garcia, Sean Angelo D. Sanchez, Hannah Kirsten D.
Hebres, Marc Gabriel D. Santos, Abigail G.
Hermoso, Alyssa F. Sinamban, Bien Emmnuel D.
Lagman, Renz Rafael V. Soriano, Nicole G.

2nd Semester
Of the A.Y. 2022 – 2022
P403
April 10, 2023
 2

Theories of Personality

1. The actualizing tendency and self-concept are to _____ as reciprocal determinism

and self-efficacy are to _____.
a. Abraham Maslow; Hans Eysenck
b. Alfred Adler; Albert Bandura
c. Raymond Cattell; Carl Jung
d. Carl Rogers; Albert Bandura

The idea of oneself, or one's self-concept, is crucial to Rogers' theory of personality.

The phrase "the ordered, consistent set of perceptions and beliefs about oneself" is
used to define this, while the urge to self-actualize, or the desire to reach the highest
possible level of "human-beingness," is also his theory that all human beings have. The
urge to self-actualize, or the desire to reach the highest allowable level of "human-
beingness," is Carl Rogers' (1959) theory that all human beings have (Mcleod, 2023).
Meanwhile, a central tendency in Albert Bandura's social learning theory is reciprocal
determinism as well as reciprocal determinism suggesting that a person's behavior is
influenced by and influences individual factors and the environment (Cherry, 2023).
2. An HR assistant busy selecting among the applicants the contender for a position of
a pre-school teacher. Who among the following should she choose?
a. An applicant who is thinking extrovert.
b. An applicant who is a feeling extrovert.
c. An applicant who is seeing introvert.
d. An applicant who is insulting introvert.
Extraverted-Sensing-Feeling-Judging (ESFJ) MBTI Types are characterized as being
gentle, patient, and empathic people, according to Hammer (1996). They also take
pleasure in fostering others' growth and collaborating closely with them. They can also
create and manage strategic plans to help them achieve short-term, attainable goals
for both themselves and others. Due to this, ESFJ MBTI Types (a specific type of feeling
extrovert) are frequently very well suited for jobs like kindergarten/ pre-school teachers
(Career Assessment Site, 2022).
3. A personality theory is a(n)
a. Category used to describe personality
 3

b. Interrelated system of concepts used to explain personality.

c. Relatively permanent set of behavior patterns.
d. Subjective evaluation of a person

The interrelated system of ideas and principles known as personality theory is used to
comprehend and clarify personality. It is also a set of assumptions, concepts, and
principles made out to describe personality (Coon, 1989; as cited in Notebook, 1993).
4. Behavioral theories of personality are often criticized for their
a. Inability to test or verify concepts
b. Limited recognition of temperamental emotion and subjective factors.
c. Ability to explain behavior matter
d. Emphasis on the conditions under which behavior occur.

Schultz&Schultz (2017) observed that theories strive for greater objectivity.

Nonetheless, psychologists have long acknowledged that some personality theories
contain a subjective element that can serve as a form of covert autobiography by
reflecting events in the theorist's life. Its proponent that they may use these events as
a source of data to explain and bolster his or her theory. In spite of their best efforts,
scientists' personal opinions are likely to have some influence on what they perceive.
Also, according to Rettew (2012), research in temperament and personality lay dormant
for many years as psychodynamic and learning-based theories dominated the field.
5. Marvin is angry and upset after an argument with his boss. At home that evening he
is harshly and unreasonably critical of his son for not getting all his homework
completed. According to Freud, Marvin is using
a. Identification c. Rationalization
b. Repression d. Displacement

According to Freudian psychology, the displacement theory coins the idea of the mind
mechanism of keeping or disposing of information in the human mind. According to the
displacement effects theory, the human mind has a defense mechanism that
unconsciously shifts the effects from something or someone that is considered to be
unacceptable to another circumstance that the mind recognizes as more acceptable.
Displacement effects can be seen in the situations leading to anger and this can only
be resolved through anger otherwise the effects can grow overtime. In most of the
cases, the effect of the emotion is let out to the target or to a safer alternative which in
the scenario was the child.
6. Cherry considers herself to be an outgoing, fun- loving person, and she goes a lot of
parties. Susan, on the other hand thinks herself as fairly quiet and shy, and enjoys
 4

being by herself, reading a book and listening a classical music. In Jung's theory
Cherry's and Susan's different behavior reflect
a. The two basic personality types
b. The two important archetypes
c. A superiority complex and an inferiority complex
d. Penis envy and womb envy

During his school years, Jung gradually became aware of two separate aspects
of his self, and he called these his No. 1 and No. 2 personalities.
Introversion and extroversion were first identified by Carl Jung (also spelled as
extraversion). He concluded that Freud’s theory was extroverted in its nature while
Adler’s theory was introverted. According to him, extroversion is the focus on the
outside world, whereas introversion is the focus on the inner world.
It must be associated with one of the four functions — thinking, sensation, intuition, and
feeling. This results in eight variations:
• Extroverted thinking
• Introverted thinking
• Extroverted sensation
• Introverted sensation
• Extroverted intuition
• Introverted intuition
• Extroverted feeling
• Introverted feeling
7. Unlike his brother and sister, Cynthia is lax when it comes to her studies. She would
normally be absent or when she comes to school she is usually late or drunk.
Everyone was surprised to see her studying and preparing for the board exams. She
had proved them wrong that she is nobody when she topped the board exam and is
now a well- known psychologist. What theory can explain the change in Cynthia's
behavior?
a. Horney c. May
b. Fromm d. Adler
 The pursuit of success or superiority is the only dynamic factor guiding people's
conduct, according to the first tenet of Adlerian theory. People work for a final aim of
either personal excellence or the prosperity of all humanity (Adler 1956).
8. Rotter would be described as the following, except
a. Interactionist c. Social learning theorist
b. Deterministic d. Cognitive theorist

Determinism is the idea that all occurrences, whether physical or mental, including
human behavior, are necessary outcomes of earlier causes or other outside forces. In
psychology, determinism, which assumes that both the past and the future are fixed,
takes the form of the idea that all human behaviors are the direct outcome of distinct,
efficient causal antecedents, such as biological structures or processes,
environmental factors, or prior experience (American Psychological Association, n.d).

The cognitive social learning theories of Julian Rotter and Walter Mischel each
rest on the assumption that cognitive factors help shape how people will react to
environmental forces. Rotter contended that human behavior is best predicted from
an understanding of the interaction of people with their meaningful environments. As
an interactionist, he believed that neither the environment itself nor the individual is
completely responsible for behavior. Social learning theory (Rotter, 1982) rests on five
basic hypotheses:
1) Humans interact with their meaningful environments
2) Human personality is learned.
3) Social learning theory is that personality has a basic unity, which means that
people’s personalities possess relative stability.
4) Motivation is goal directed.
5) People are capable of anticipating events. Moreover, they use their perceived
movement in the direction of the anticipated event as a criterion for evaluating
reinforces.
9. During the meeting, an employee just went along to the majority decision. This best
reflects which of the following?
a. Pakikitungo b. Pakikisama
 6

c. Hiya d. Pakikibagay

Lynch (1973) defined pakikisama as a Filipino value, giving it the English meaning of
upholding "smooth interpersonal connections" through following the group's or the
majority's decision.
10. The highest level of interaction that Filipinos shows other are considered as Hindi-
Ibang Tao.
a. Pakikisangkot c. Pakikipagpalagayang loob
b. Pakikisama d. Pakikiisa

Hindi Ibang Tao (“one-of-us”) category:

1) Pakikipagpalagayang-loob: act of mutual trust;
2) Pakikisangkot: act of joining others;
3) Pakikipagkaisa: being one with others.
These levels are not only interrelated modes but are arranged in babaw (surface) -
lalim (depth) levels of engagement: “from the relatively uninvolved civility in
pakikitungo to the total sense of identification in pakikiisa” (Santiago &
Enriquez,1976). Also, they are not just conceptually delineated but are marked by
different sets of behaviors as well. Ethno Scientific participant observation of food
sharing during a town fiesta (feast) revealed a progression of relationships that is
evident in the quality of interactions expressed in the meals, with pakikitungo as the
shallowest and pakikiisa as the deepest (Santiago, 1976 ).
11. According to Jung, art, religion, myths and drama are important to individual
functioning because they
a. Facilitate conscious development
b. Are symbols that appeal to basic archetypes
c. Provide the means for achieving control over a hostile environment
d. Transmit specific information for solving developmental task

Both introversion and extraversion can combine with any one or more of four functions,
forming eight possible orientations, or types. The four functions sensing, thinking,
feeling, and intuiting can be briefly defined as follows: Sensing tells people that
something exists; thinking enables them to recognize its meaning; feeling tells them its
 7

value or worth; and intuition allows them to know about it without knowing how they
know
12. To Skinner, the effects of punishment are:
a. The exact opposite to those of reward
b. The same effects with rewards
c. More predictable than reward
d. Less predictable than reward

Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental conditioning, is a method of learning

normally attributed to B.F. Skinner, where the consequences of a response determine
the probability of it being repeated. Through operant conditioning behavior which is
reinforced (rewarded) will likely be repeated, and behavior which is punished will occur
less frequently.
13. This theory maximized and this theory minimized the role of the unconscious.
a. Trait - humanistic
b. Psychoanalytic - humanistic
c. Psychoanalytic - behaviorist
d. Trait - behaviorist

Psychoanalysis is based on Freud's theory that people can experience catharsis and
gain insight into their state of mind by bringing the content of the unconscious into
conscious awareness. Through this process, a person can find relief from psychological
distress.
Humanistic psychology rejects behaviorism and psychoanalysis because they are too
deterministic and too often see unconscious, instinctive forces as determining human
thought and behavior. The humanistic perspective sees behavior as not determined by
the subconscious mind.
14. Miguel is giving a lecture on the five-factor model of personality. Which of the
dimension is not likely to be included in his talk?
a. Anal retentiveness c. Extraversion
b. Neuroticism d. Agreeableness
 The five-factor model of personality is a hierarchical organization of personality traits in
terms of five basic dimensions: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness,
Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience.
15. One of Freud's major contributions was his:
a. Belief that the first years of life help to shape personality
b. Belief in the concept of libido, sexual desires, and biological instincts.
c. Discovery of complexes during the genital stage
d. Elaboration of the humanistic approach to personality development what does

Freud believed that events in our childhood have a great influence on our adult lives,
shaping our personality. For example, anxiety originating from traumatic experiences
in a person's past is hidden from consciousness, and may cause problems during
adulthood (in the form of neuroses).
16. What belief does Bandura has different from Dollard and Miller and Skinner?
a. Reinforcement is not a necessary condition
b. Stimuli cannot have reinforcement value
c. Cognitive process are important
d. Modeling is a form of imitation

Bandura's social cognitive theory of human functioning emphasizes the critical role of
self-beliefs in human cognition, motivation, and behavior. Social cognitive theory gives
prominence to a self-system that enables individuals to exercise a measure of control
over their thoughts, feelings, and actions.
17. Sheila was often rejected by her parents is a result she mistrusts other people and
treats them with hostility, which leads to the rejection of her. The cycle of rejection,
mistrusts and further rejection illustrates
a. Self efficacy c. Self-fulfilling prophecy
b. Reciprocal determinism d. Identification

Bandura’s theory states that a person’s behavior is influenced by the environment and
vice versa. In simpler terms, it means that the environment tends to make changes in
 9

the behavior of the individual, and in return, the behavior of the individual is also
responsible for a change in the environment.
18. What do psychologists mean by term trait-situation interaction?
a. Situation change traits
b. Situations create new traits
c. Traits determine situations
d. Situations affect how traits are exhibited

A consideration of the manner by which personality and situational variables interact in

order to better understand thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
19. Psychologists who believe that people grow and develop throughout their lives and
that people are inherently good are;
a. Psychoanalysts' c. Radical behaviorists
b. Social learning theorists d. Humanist

Humanistic psychology (humanism) is grounded in the belief that people are innately
good. This type of psychology holds that morality, ethical values, and good intentions
are the driving forces of behavior, while adverse social or psychological experiences
can be attributed to deviations from natural tendencies.
20. According to the humanists, occurs when people are free from dependence on
external authority or on other people.
a. Autonomy c. Spontaneously
b. Peak experience d. Task centering

Individual autonomy is an idea that is generally understood to refer to the capacity to

be one’s own person, to live one’s life according to reasons and motives that are taken
as one’s own and not the product of manipulative or distorting external forces, to be in
this way independent.
21. A form of exposure therapy in which subjects are exposed to high levels of fear-
inducing stimulus is
a. Incompatible Stimulus c. Flooding
b. Toleration Method d. Behavioral Modification
 Exposure therapy is a form of behavioral therapy designed to help an individual face
their fears. It is a method that exposes you to the source of your fears in a safe
environment, breaking your cycle of fear and avoidance. One of the types of this method
is Flooding where a person is exposed to the highest level of the ladder all at once and
it is mostly used when fear interferes with a person’s ability to function in their daily
lives. Other forms of exposure therapy include Graded Exposure and Systematic
Desensitization (Gupta, 2021).
22. A psychiatrist who explains pathological behavior as a conflict between underlying
psychological forces is using the _____ model.
a. Psychoanalytic c. Behavioral
b. Medical d. Humanistic

Sigmund Freud's Psychoanalytic Model recognizes pathological behavior caused by

underlying psychological forces. Psychoanalysis can help people understand
themselves by exploring the unrecognized impulses hidden in their unconscious
(Cherry, 2022). Also, this model emphasizes that various mental disorders are rooted
in an individual’s past experiences and other representations of their memories of the
past (Safran & Gardner-Schuster 2016).
23. According to Behaviorists:
a. Hostile, generous, or destructive impulses arise in the unconscious.
b. Personality is acquired through conditioning and observational learning.
c. Personality is strongly influenced by one’s self-image.
d. Personality develops from initial feelings of inferiority.

In behavioral psychology, behaviorists believe that personality is acquired through

conditioning, and conditioning occurs through interaction with the environment. They
also suggest that it is the result of a person’s experiences and emphasizes the
importance of observational learning (Feist, 2013).
24. The need to rise above one’s passive accident is:
a. Individual c. Self-actualization
b. Transcendence d. Style of Life
 In humanistic psychology, Erich Fromm mentioned that humans are thrown into the
world without their consent and removed from it again without their will. However, unlike
animals, human beings are driven by the need for Transcendence which he defined as
the urge to rise above a passive and accidental existence and into the “realm of
purposefulness and freedom”. People can transcend their passive nature by either
creating life or destroying it. Other human needs according to Fromm include
Relatedness, Rootedness, a Sense of Identity, and a Frame of Orientation (Feist,
2013).
25. The _____ contains material you may be unaware of but can be easily brought to
awareness.
a. Subconscious
b. Unconscious
c. Preconscious
d. Conscious

In Psychoanalytic Theory, Sigmund Freud’s greatest contribution to personality theory

is his exploration of mental life levels. He divided mental life into two levels: unconscious
and conscious. The unconscious in turn, has two different levels, the unconscious
proper and the preconscious. Freud defined the unconscious mind where we contain
all the drives, urges, or instincts that are beyond our awareness but that nevertheless
motivate our words, feelings, and actions. On the other hand, the Preconscious level of
the mind contains all those elements that are not conscious but can become conscious
perceptions (Feist, 2013).
26. For skinner, which of the following are partially accounted for by contingencies
reinforcement?
a. Drives c. Emotion
b. Wants d. Motive

The agents maximize their rewards across all motives by using reinforcement learning
with minimum and maximum desirable motive values. The findings demonstrate that
even with significantly delayed rewards and motive shifts brought on by other agents,
an agent can learn to satisfy as many as four motives. The ability to activate and sustain
 12

behavior toward a goal is known as motivation. Further, Clark Hull believes that the
drive is a stimulation that results from a tissue requirement and motivates behavior. The
length of the deprivation or the intensity/strength of the subsequent behavior, whichever
comes first, determines how strong the drive is.
27. “To pamper a child is the same as to neglect.” This statement is given by;
a. Ma’am Oba c. Carl Rogers
b. Alfred Adler d. Karen Horney

According to Adler, children that are pampered don't feel overly loved; instead, they feel
unwanted. Doing too much for them and treating them as if they couldn't handle their
own difficulties show that their parents do not care for them. Because these kids
experience being spoiled and pampered, they adopt a pampered lifestyle. Children who
are pampered may also feel neglected. Having received protection from a parent, a
child feels fearful and anxious once separated. They feel excluded, mistreated, and
neglected if they have to fend for themselves. These encounters enrich the
accumulated sentiments of inadequacy in the neglected child.
28. What should a therapist avoid during formal inception?
a. Confronting the patient with anxiety-provoking matter
b. Permitting patient to express reason for therapy
c. Demonstrating his interpersonal skill
d. Formulating the tentative hypothesis

In Harry Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy, the therapeutic interview is broken

down into four periods: formal inception, reconnaissance, detailed injury and
termination. For further elaboration, the psychiatrist encourages the patient's
confidence at the initial consultation by displaying interpersonal skills and allowing the
patient to explain the reasons for seeking therapy The therapist then decides on a
potential course of action after formulating initial hypotheses about the stated reason
for seeking treatment. A basic personal and social history of the patient is developed
during reconnaissance, and the therapist tries to ascertain how the patient came to
have a certain personality type. Here, the therapist elicits details from the patient, such
as age, birth order, mother, father, educational background, prior employment
 13

experience, marital status, number of children, etc. To encourage the patient to feel
free to communicate their current emotional condition, open-ended questions are
posed. After that, the in-depth question aims to clarify the patient's motivation for
seeking therapy as well as the therapist's and patient's comprehension of their
respective situations. The interview is terminated or, in certain situations, interrupted at
the fourth and final stage. Naturally, this indicates that the interview has ended.
29. Which is included as one of the traits Maslow theorized were possessed by self-
actualizers?
a. Egocentrism
b. Extraversion
c. Capacity to laugh at oneself
d. Superior intelligence

Maslow’s highest point on his hierarchy of needs, self-actualization, is basically defined

as the person’s realization of knowing himself, as well as understanding his full potential
and attaining it. One trait of a self-actualized person is the capacity to laugh at oneself
as they have a philosophical sense of humor. They can laugh at themselves and take
pleasure in situations' humor, but they never make fun of or play around with someone
else's feelings. If they say something ridiculous, a person with self-actualization may
laugh at themselves, but they wouldn't laugh at someone else who did the same.
30. It is the last two-minute drive;
a. Ningas Bao c. Ningas Cogon
b. Pagpupursigi d. Loob

“Pursigi”, or to persevere in english, means “magsikap gawin ang isang bagay; magpilit
hanggang magtagumpay”.
31. A key element of Carl Rogers personality theory is the concept of;
a. Meta-needs c. The self or self-image
b. Self-reinforcement d. The pleasure principle

Carl Rogers, one of the founders of humanistic psychology, suggested that self-concept
includes three components: self-image, self-esteem, and ideal self. Self-Image is the
 14

way we see ourselves. Self-image includes what we know about ourselves physically
(e.g. brown hair, blue eyes, tall), our social roles (e.g. wife, brother, gardener), and our
personality traits (e.g. outgoing, serious, kind). Self-image doesn’t always match reality.
Some individuals hold an inflated perception of one or more of their characteristics.
These inflated perceptions may be positive or negative, and an individual may have a
more positive view of certain aspects of the self and a more negative view of others.
32. According to Freud, the Oedipal and Electra conflicts end when the child takes on
the values and behaviors of the same sex parent in a process called;
a. Fixation
b. Observation
c. Imitation
d. Identification

According to Freud, as children develop, there comes a time in which the child must
adopt the characteristics of one of the parents. During this process of identification, the
child adopts the characteristics of the same-sex parent and begins to associate
themselves with and copy the behavior of significant others. In addition, Freud stated
that this process also involves the development of the child's superego (our moral guide
in life - the moral component of personality) which is done by incorporating
characteristics of the parents' superegos into the child's own.
33. Horney believe that cultural conditions are largely responsible for the development:
a. Basic trust c. Basic mistrust
b. Basic anxiety d. Basic psychoses

Trained in Freudian psychoanalysis and influenced by Karl Marx, Karen Horney, and
other socially oriented theorists, Fromm developed a theory of personality that
emphasizes the influence of sociobiological factors, history, economics, and class
structure. His humanistic psychoanalysis assumes that humanity’s separation from the
natural world has produced feelings of loneliness and isolation, a condition called basic
anxiety.
34. Jung believed that there are basic universal concepts in all people regardless of
culture called;
 a. Persona c. Collective consciousness
b. Archetypes d. Mandalas

Archetypes are universal, inborn models of people, behaviors, and personalities that
play a role in influencing human behavior. Swiss psychiatrist Carl Jung's theory
suggested that these archetypes were archaic forms of innate human knowledge
passed down from our ancestors. In Jungian psychology, these archetypes represent
universal patterns and images that are part of the collective unconscious. Jung believed
that we inherit these archetypes much in the way we inherit instinctive patterns of
behavior.
35. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a conditioned reinforcer?
a. Food c. Physical comfort
b. Sleep d. Money

Unconditioned reinforcers are innately reinforcing. They are called primary reinforcers
as they are not dependent on an association with another reinforcer. Conditioned
reinforcers, referred to as secondary reinforcers, are dependent on an association with
primary reinforcers. These reinforcers are also known as Conditioned Reinforcers. For
example: money, grades and praise are conditioned reinforcers.
36. The description of a person’s characters implies:
a. The use of rating scales
b. The use of situational testing
c. The use of multiple observers
d. Judgement about the desirability of traits

It is a characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Personality embraces

moods, attitudes, and opinions and is most obviously portrayed in interactions with
other people. It includes behavioral characteristics, both inherent and acquired, that
distinguish one person from another and that can be observed in people’s relations to
the environment and to the social group.
37. For Horney, the use of Oedipus complex:
a. Is universal c. Is the result of cultural force
b. Did not exist d. Is the result of anatomy
 Horney believed that environment and social upbringing, rather than intrinsic factors,
largely lead to neurosis. The Oedipus complex is found only in some people and is an
expression of the neurotic need for love. She believed that people need warm,
supportive environments and strong interpersonal relationships to realize their "real self
(Cherry, 2022).
38. The main criticism of humanistic theory is that;
a. It emphasizes the negative dimension of personality
b. It is research rather that experience oriented
c. Its concepts are imprecise and difficult to study objectively
d. Its approach is more empirical that philosophical

As with any viewpoint, humanistic psychology has its critics. One major criticism of
humanistic psychology is that its concepts are too vague. Critics argue that subjective
ideas such as authentic and real experiences are difficult to objectify; an experience
that is real for one individual may not be real for another person. For this reason, critics
believe that conclusions drawn from subjective experiences are almost impossible to
verify, making research in humanistic psychology unreliable. In addition, critics claim
that humanistic psychology is not a true science because it involves too much common
sense and not enough objectivity (University of Wyoning, n.d)
39. Best friends Vah, Gina, and She failed. In their major subject. Both Vah and Gina
believe that it’s the end of the world and blame their teacher for their failure whereas
she sees that failure as a challenge to improve on her study habits. If she were a
psychologist she probably influenced by
a. Behavioral c. Cognitive
b. Humanistic d. Psychodynamic

Psychodynamics has different defense mechanisms that they use to protect

themselves against anxiety and unwanted challenges of the environment. The defense
mechanism used is Rationalization which comes from Sigmund Freud. When trying to
explain success or failure, people use this defense mechanism to attribute achievement
to their own qualities and skills while failures are blamed on other people or outside
forces (Cherry, 2022).
 17

40. Horney believed that a competitive and hostile society encourages

a. Hatred c. Love
b. Isolation d. Superior and Success

According to Horney basic anxiety defined as “a feeling of being isolated and helpless
in a world conceived as potentially hostile”. She believed that basic hostility and basic
anxiety are “inextricably interwoven.” Hostile impulses are the principal source of
basic anxiety, but basic anxiety can also contribute to feelings of hostility (Badillo,
2020).
41. Behaviorists are to the external environment as humanists are:
a. Stress
b. Humankind
c. Personal growth
d. Internal conflict

Behaviorists solely address their clients' conduct, implementing beneficial

repercussions for desired behavior and eliminating positive consequences for poor
behavior. Humanists seek to understand people's intentions, concentrating on a client's
personal perspectives, intentions, and self-worth. The therapeutic approach of a
humanist is nondirective. The therapist observes more than she instructs. Behavioral
therapists are authoritative. They specify behavioral consequences that may be altered
to encourage desired conduct while discouraging undesired behavior.
42. The healthy individuals passionate love of life and all living things is what from calls:
a. Libido
b. Eros
c. Megaphilia
d. Biophilia

Productive love is defined by the four love traits: care, responsibility, respect, and
knowledge. Aside from these four qualities, healthy people have biophilia: a strong love
of life and all that is living. Biophilic persons want to improve all life—people, animals,
plants, ideas, and civilizations. They are concerned with their own and others' growth
 18

and development. Biophilic persons strive to influence others via love, reason, and
example, not through force.
43. In conducting research in Filipino Psychology which of the following would be the
MOST likely important establishing rapport?
a. Pakikisama c. Pakikitungo
b. Pakikibagay d. Pakikipaglagayang-loob

To ensure accurate information, it is advised that the first level of Hindi-Ibang-Tao,

pakikipagpalagayang-loob (mutual trust, understanding, and rapport), be attained at the
very least.
Ang pakikipagpalagayang-loob ay tumutukoy sa “mga kilos, loobin, at salita ng isang
tao na nagpapahiwatig na panatag ang kanyang kalooban sa kanyang kapwa. Hindi
na nahihiya sa isa’t isa at halos ganap at walang pasubali ang pagtitiwala.” (Santiago
at Enriquez 159)
44. According to the existential view, anxiety is seen as a;
a. Result of faulty learning
b. Part of the human condition
c. Result of repressed sexuality
d. Neurotic symptom that to be cured

Existential therapists regard anxiety as a normal state of being that arises from a
person's struggle to live. This is known as 'existential anxiety,' and it is a typical reaction
to confronting life's four ultimate concerns: death, freedom, loneliness, and
meaninglessness. Existential anxiety may be dealt with productively if it is recognized.
Anxiety may be a development stimulant as we become aware of and appreciate our
independence. We may be terrified if we face ourselves and the hardships of human
existence, yet we can change.
45. These theories stress private, subjective experience and personal growth.
a. Trait c. Humanistic
b. Behavioristic d. Psychodynamic
 19

The primary terms in humanistic theories are acceptance and progress, whereas the
fundamental themes in existential therapy are client responsibility and freedom.
Human nature, according to the humanistic viewpoint, is fundamentally good, with the
ability to establish healthy, meaningful relationships and make decisions that benefit
both oneself and others.

46. Horney regarded the idealized self - image and self - hatred as;
a. Interpersonal conflicts
b. Psychosexual conflicts
c. Intra - psychic conflicts
d. Psychosocial conflicts

People also experience inner tensions or intrapsychic conflicts that become part of their
belief systems and take on lives of their own, separate from the interpersonal conflicts
that created them.
A. The Idealized Self-Image
People who do not receive love and affection during childhood are blocked in heir
attempt to acquire a stable sense of identity. Feeling alienated from self, they create an
idealized self-image, or an extravagantly positive picture of themselves. Horney
recognized three aspects of the idealized self-image:(1) the neurotic search for glory,
or a comprehensive drive toward actualizing the ideal self; (2) neurotic claims, or a
belief that they are entitled to special privileges; and (3) neurotic pride, or a false pride
based not on reality but on a distorted and idealized view of self.
B. Self-Hatred
Neurotic individuals dislike themselves because reality always falls short of their
idealized view of self. Therefore, they learn self-hatred, which can be expressed as: (1)
relentless demands on self, (2) merciless self-accusation, (3) self-contempt, (4) self-
frustration, (5) self-torment or self-torture, and (6) self-destructive actions and impulses.
 20

47. Vince experiences headaches every time he is asked to turn in his projects. Vince is
experiencing
a. Style of life
b. Fictional finalism
c. Organ dialect
d. Organ inferiority

According to Adler (1956), the whole person strives in a self-consistent fashion toward
a single goal, and all separate actions and functions can be understood only as parts
of this goal. The disturbance of one part of the body cannot be viewed in isolation; it
affects the entire person. In fact, the deficient organ expresses the direction of the
individual’s goal, a condition known as organ dialect. Through organ dialect, the body’s
organs “speak a language which is usually more expressive and discloses the
individual’s opinion more clearly than words are able to do”
48. All of the following are the fundamental features necessary for learning according to
Dollard and Miller, except:
a. Drive
b. Cue
c. Matching behavior
d. Reinforcement

Drive – An innate internal state, which leads to goal directed behavior aimed at reducing
the drive.
Cue – Any stimulus in the environment that either triggers a drive, or determines the
nature and direction of the goal-directed behavior.
Response – The behavior of the individual, who is guided by the cue, towards reducing
the drive by attaining a goal, in the appropriate direction.
Reward – The reinforcement attained after reaching the goal – drive reduction.
According to Miller and Dollard (1941), there are four essential factors involved in
learning: the cue, the response, drive, and reward. In simple terms, in the presence of
an appropriate signal (the cue), the person responds with a particular behavior, if there
is an adequate reward (based on learning). The entire process will not take place,
 21

however, if the individual does not want a reward (drive). The normal order, after
learning has taken place, would then be: drive → cue → response → reward; when we
want something, and we see a signal that it is available, we try to get it, and are
rewarded for our actions. Another important aspect of social learning is that both drives
and rewards can be acquired.
49. If you were asked to describe the personality of your best friend, and you said she
was optimistic, reserved , and friendly , you would be using _______ approach .
a. Psychodynamic c. Analytical
b. Humanistic d. Dispositional

Trait Theory, also known as Dispositional Theory, is an approach to study human

personality and behavior. It is the measurement of steady patterns of habit in an
individual’s behavior, thoughts and emotions. Trait theorists focus on the measurement
of ‘traits’, which lead to a better understanding of human personality. Over a period of
time, traits become relatively stable, depending on the individual and his social and
environmental surroundings, which influence behavior.
50. Armada tend to argue whenever her group memoirs do not agree with her ideas, this
is illustrates.
a. Cardinal traits c. Central traits
b. Secondary traits d. Source traits

Secondary Traits
Secondary traits are sometimes related to attitudes or preferences. They often appear
only in certain situations or under specific circumstances. Some examples include
public speaking anxiety or impatience while waiting in line.
51. Henry has a natural aptitude for mathematics and philosophy, according to Jung, his
personality type would be.
a. Extroverted thinking c. Introverted thinking
b. Extroverted sensing d. Introverted sensing

Henry’s personality type would be Introverted thinking. The structure and purpose of
information and objects are said to be given more focus by the people with thinking
 22

learning styles. In addition, thinking learners use rationality and logic when dealing with
problems and making decisions. Jung claimed that although introverted thinkers
respond to external stimuli, their interpretation of an event is more influenced by the
internal meaning they carry than by the actual objective facts. Philosophers and
inventors are frequently introverted thinking types because they respond to the outside
world in extremely subjective and creative manner, reinterpreting the same information
in novel ways.
While Extraverted thinking people usually rely on tangible ideas, they may also use
abstract concepts if they have received these ideas from outside sources, for example,
from parents or teachers. Extraverted thinking is often used in the work of
mathematicians and engineers. Because they must approach numbers objectively and
not subjectively, accountants are extraverted thinkers as well.
*the answer could either be introverted thinking or extroverted thinking
52. According to Adler, the creative power;
a. Usually leads to outstanding accomplishments
b. Is secondary to hereditary and environment in shaping personality.
c. Shapes one's style life
d. Is a deterministic concept.

Under the final tenet of Adlerian theory, it was stated that Style of life is molded by
people’s creative power. Adler believed that everyone has the freedom to create their
own way of living. Eventually, everyone is responsible for how they are and how they
behave. Their capacity for creativity gives them control over their own lives and is
responsible for their final goal. To put it simply, creative power makes each person a
free individual. Furthermore, in accordance with Adler (1964), Creative power is a
dynamic concept implying movement, and this movement is the most salient
characteristic of life. Every aspect of psychic life includes movement toward a goal,
movement with a direction.
53. Arthur is a shy and timid boy. He operates in this belief that "if I give in, I won't get
hurt". Arthur is using;
a. Moving away c. Moving towards
b. Moving against d. Moving on
 In Arthur’s case he is using the concept of Moving Toward People. Horney's concept of
moving towards refers to a neurotic need to protect oneself against the feelings of
helplessness. Compliant people use one or both of the first two neurotic needs—that
is, they desperately seek other people's approval and affection or they look for a strong
partner who will take responsibility for their lives—in an effort to protect themselves
from feelings of helplessness. These needs were described by Horney in 1937 as
"morbid dependency," a concept that predated the word "codependency." Horney also
referred to it as a philosophy of life. Adopting this philosophy is likely to make neurotics
perceive themselves as loving, generous, selfless, humble, and sensitive to other
people's feelings. They are prepared to put others before themselves, to see others as
more attractive or intelligent, and to rate themselves based on what other people think
of them.
54. From the radical behaviorism, which of the following is an explanatory fiction?
a. Wants c. Emotion
b. Drives d. Motive

B.F Skinner’s concept of radical behaviorism has applications in environments outside

of the psychology field. Skinner's theories can also help youngsters adjust to
educational situations, organizations and enterprises perform better, people are
happier at work, and help people achieve greater personal fulfillment. The individual
engaging in such private behaviors as thinking, recalling, and anticipating are all
observable –by the person experiencing them Skinner's approach was known as
radical behaviorism because of its strong devotion to observable behavior. Its doctrine
avoids any hypothetical constructs like ego, traits, drives, needs, hunger, and so forth
55. Ed has a very few friends. When he is with his classmates he acts like them
scholarly; when he is around his childhood neighbors he is as rude as them and
when he is at home he is as meek as his father. Ed's personality according to
Fromm is;

a. Hoarding c. Exploitative
b. Marketing d. Receptive
 Fromm's Character Orientations indicate that Ed's personality fits the Marketing
character. It was stated that the marketing character is an outgrowth of modern
commerce in which trade is no longer personal but carried out by large, faceless
corporations. Marketing characters view themselves as commodities, with their
personal value based on their exchange value, that is, their capacity to sell themselves,
in line with the needs of contemporary commerce. When personalities are being traded
or marketed, they must believe that they are in high demand and convince others that
they are competent and marketable. They must modify their personalities to fit or adjust
to the current trends, which puts their sense of security at jeopardy. They take on a
variety of roles and live by the motto "I am as you desire me".
56. In Adler’s view, the main strong personality for:
a. Hoarding c. Sophistication
b. Instincts d. Superiority

All human action is goal-oriented and driven by a desire for superiority. Individuals differ
in their goals and approaches to achieving them.
According to Adler (2013), the characteristic of an inferiority complex is that "persons
are continually attempting to find a circumstance in which they excel". This motivation
stems from their intense feelings of inferiority. The superiority complex emerges when
a person feels the need to prove that he is more superior than he actually is. Adler
(2013) believes that superiority complexes are created out of inferiority complexes; they
are "one of the ways which a person with an inferiority complex may employ a strategy
of escape from his difficulties".
57. Concerning pure extroversion and pure introversion, it is most accurate to say,
a. A person either one or the other
b. They represent basic physical traits
c. Most people fall somewhere between these extremes
d. There terms were coined by the famous Swiss psychologist, Gordon Allport.

Jung (1921) suggested the primary contrast between personalities is the source and
direction of an individual's manifestation of energy - describing extroversion as "an
outward turning of libido" and introversion as "an inward turning of libido". The introvert's
 25

focus is inner; they think, feel, and behave in ways that imply the subject is the primary
motivator. Extroverts, on the other hand, focus their attention on their surroundings;
they think, feel, and act in response to external variables rather than the subjective.
Extroverts, according to Abernethy (1938), are "ones who enter with interest and
confidence into social activities of the direct type and have little liking for planning or
detailed observation," whereas introverts are "below the general average in social
inclination and above the average in liking for thought."
Heidbreder (1926), stated that "strong introversion and prominent extroversion
essentially reflect extremes of conduct, linked by continuous gradations. In other words,
the data suggests a single, mixed type rather than two separate classes."
Conklin (1923) proposed the presence of ambiverts as the most 'normal,' with
individuals exhibiting flexibility between the two extremes. The bulk of people in this
group, according to Roback (1927), are "the less distinguished normal man, the source
of whose motivation can barely be established offhand, since his introversion or
extraversion is not sufficiently highlighted."
Introversion and extroversion are complex, multi-faceted personality constructs.
Individuals can fall at the extremes of each dimension or, more commonly, lie
somewhere in between the two and exhibit traits of both.
58. When we judge the case of our behavior, this process is called by Bandura as:
a. Values Clarification c. Performance Attribution
b. Causal Analysis d. Reciprocal Reasoning

Albert Bandura's social learning theory is built around the concept of reciprocal
determinism. Reciprocal determinism, also known as triadic reciprocality, is a concept
that consists of three components that impact conduct: the individual (including how
they think and feel), their environment, and the activity itself.
But however, according to Bandura, a person's environment impacts not just their
thinking, but also their future actions. In other words, a person's surroundings effects
how they think and feel, which influences their behavior, which impacts the
environment, and so on.
59. Classifying people as having either Type A or Type B personality has been used to
predict;
 26

a. Competency as a parent
b. Chances of suffering a heart attack
c. Success in education
d. Chances of developing a serious mental illness

Friedman and Rosenman (both cardiologists) discovered Type A behavior by accident

when their waiting-room chairs needed to be reupholstered far sooner than they
anticipated.
Unlike most patients who patiently wait, the cardiac patients were unable to sit in their
seats for lengthy periods of time and wore out the chair arms. They sat on the edge of
the seat and frequently leapt up. Unfortunately, the physicians rejected this statement
at first, and it wasn't until five years later that they began their formal investigation.
This conduct was classified as Type A personality by Friedman and Rosenman (1976).
They then performed studies to prove that persons with type A personalities are more
likely to develop heart disease and high blood pressure than type Bs. Although
Friedman and Rosenman referred to it as "Type A personality," it is now thought of as
a series of behavioral reactions known as the Type A behavior Pattern.
60. Rogers calls the image of the person you would like to be the
a. Ago ideal c. Self archetype
b. Ideal self d. Reinforced self

Carl Rogers, a humanist psychologist, argued that self-concept is composed of three

distinct components:
- The ideal self: is the person you want to be. This individual possesses the
characteristics or traits that you are striving for or wish to attain. It's who you
imagine yourself to be if everything went just as planned.
- Self-image: Your self-image is how you view yourself right now. Physical
attributes, psychological traits, and social roles are all factors in your self-
image.
- Self-esteem: How much you like, accept, and respect yourself all contribute to
your self-concept. A variety of things can impact self-esteem, including how
 27

others see you, how you believe you compare to others, and your position in
society.
61. Which personality theorists attempt to explain behavior by focusing on the inner
workings of the personality including internal life?
a. Trait
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioristic
d. Humanistic
The psychodynamic approach encompasses all psychological theories that view
human behavior as the interaction of drives and forces within the person, notably the
unconscious, and between the various personality structures (Mcleod, 2023).In
addition, according to Bornstein (n.d), psychodynamic theory (also known as
psychoanalytic theory) explains personality in terms of unconscious psychological
processes (such as wishes and anxieties that we are not completely aware of) and
claims that childhood events are important in determining adult personality.
62. Delaying action until it is appropriate describes the ego’s use of the
a. Ego-dynastic behavior
b. Primary thought process
c. Ego-synchronic behavior
d. Secondary thought process

Based on the study of Cherry (2020), The secondary process relieves the strain that
unfulfilled drives or needs place between the ego and the id. The ego's search for a
physical thing in the real world that corresponds to the mental image produced by the
id's first process is how the secondary process works. The ego's primary goal is to put
off the id's demands until the right moment. The so-called reality principle is something
to which the ego ascribes.
63. ________ theorists believe humans have free will;
a. Humanistic c. Behaviorist
b. Psychodynamic d. Trait

Psychologists that embrace humanism think that people have free will. Humans are
independent decision-makers who are not constrained by biological or environmental
circumstances.
 28

64. If a positive reinforcement is not given within a short time following the response,
learning will proceed slowly. This phenomenon is called.
a. Delay of reinforcement c. Extinction
b. Condoned response d. Consistency

In accordance with Lattal (2010), when compared to immediate reinforcement, delays

in reinforcement can either increase or decrease behavior or leave it unchanged.
Response rate reduction is the more frequent result of delayed reinforcement, but under
some circumstances responding has been seen to be unaffected by rapid
reinforcement. Others have seen an increase in response rates when delays are put in
place.
65. A poor person who is a kind and honest person and respects the dignity of hard
work has a lot of;
a. Dangal c. Paninindigan
b. Katapatan d. Kagandan-Loob

The internal component of dignity is dangal. Refers to one's perception of one's own
value. Dangal is the awareness of one's true worth, success, accomplishment, and
character. It may be honored with a prize or tribute, but even without external
recognition, it is inside you (Pe-pua & Marcelino, 2000).
66. Abraham Maslow developed the concept of self-actualization by initially studying;
a. The maze-learning abilities of rats with sub cortical lesions
b. How children reacted to viewing aggressive role models on television
c. People who lived unusually effective lives
d. His own patients

Maslow began to study biographies from well-known people within history and arts to
see if they have self-actualizing traits. During his studies, Maslow realized that instead
of trying to find out what makes certain people reach self-actualization, he started to
ask why all people are not self-actualizing. (Feist et. al, 2018)
67. Every time two year old Kati is given a bath, she plays with her gentle area. If her
parents punish her, she is likely to experience frustration, which of the following can
explain if said child becomes sexually preoccupied?
a. Freud b. Bandura
 29

c. Skinner d. Ericson

The Phallic stage in Freud's theory suggests that this is the time in which the genital
area becomes the leading erogenous zone in individuals. This is also the time in which
individuals start to get aware of their anatomical differences between sexes. (Feist et.
al, 2018)
68. Horney believed that personality was typified by;
a. A balanced use of the neurotic trends in a neurotic personality
b. A lack of struggle in the use of the neurotic trends in a healthy individual
c. A balance between the idealized self image and the real self
d. A consistency in the organism self and the ideal self

Horney states that the use of Neurotic Trends are not limited to neurotics. Unlike
neurotics who tend to use only one for every situation, normal individuals are capable
of utilizing all of the neurotic trends depending on what the situation requires. (Feist
et. al, 2018)
69. Which of the following is POOR advice for a version who wishes to promote self-
actualization
a. Seek peak experiences
b. Take responsibility
c. Be willing to change
d. Try to live up to what others think you should be

Self-actualization as the name suggests is focused on an individual’s journey in order

to reach their absolute selves. Trying to live up to what others think you should be
contradicts the whole idea as it makes it look as if individuals who wish to reach the
state of self-actualization need to seek approval from others other than themselves.
70. Rogers called believed that when the real self and the ideal self are different
a. An individual cannot attain self-actualization
b. An individual can achieve self-actualization
c. An individual is in a state of imbalance
d. An individual is experiencing existential vacuum
 30

Carl Rogers's theory states that when the ideal self and the real self are incongruent to
one another, a person experiences various types of mental discomfort. This is in
contrast to when the ideal self and the real self are congruent, an individual is
considered as healthy. (Feist et. al, 2018)
71. The messy and disorderly person is described by Freud as being:
a. Orally retentive
b. A phallic personality
c. Anally retentive
d. Anally expulsive

The anal-retentive personality is stingy, stubborn, has a compulsive need for order
and neatness, and might be considered a perfectionist. On the other hand, some
parents may be too soft when it comes to potty training. Freud also said that children
could also become fixated and display an anal-expulsive personality. As an adult, an
anal-expulsive personality is messy, careless, disorganized, and prone to emotional
outbursts (Open Stax College, 2014).
72. Sa oras ng sakuna ang Pinoy ay kinakikitaan ng pagiging matulungin ng dahil sa
anong value?
a. Bayanihan
b. Kapwa
c. Pakikisama
d. Hiya

Ang tamang sagot ay "a. Bayanihan". Sa oras ng sakuna o kalamidad, kadalasan nating
makikita ang mga Pilipino na nagtutulungan at nagbibigayan ng tulong sa kanilang mga
kapwa. Ito ay dahil sa kulturang bayanihan ng mga Pilipino, kung saan ang bawat isa
ay nagbibigay ng kanyang sariling kakayahan at oras upang makatulong sa mga
nangangailangan. Sa ganitong paraan, nakakapagpakita ang mga Pilipino ng
pagkakaisa at pagmamalasakit sa kanilang kapwa
73. Suppose the ego were a hungry person in a crowded cafeteria. The ego would most
likely
a. Do nothing
 31

b. Push to the head of the line

c. Feel guilty about being so hungry
d. Wait in line

As ego follows delay principle and ego manages the urges by delaying it, while id
believes in immediate gratification.
74. If you wanted to teach a chicken to "play" the piano, you should
a. Use shaping
b. Use negative reinforcement
c. Extinguish piano-playing behavior
d. Wait for a musically inclined chicken to show you?

Shaping is a behavior modification technique that involves breaking down a complex

behavior into smaller, more achievable steps. Each small step is then taught to the
animal, and once the animal learns the step, the next step is gradually introduced until
the full behavior is learned.
In the case of teaching a chicken to play the piano, shaping would involve breaking
down the behavior of playing the piano into small steps, such as pecking at a specific
key, and then rewarding the chicken for each small step it learns. Over time, the chicken
can learn to play simple tunes by continuing to build upon each step it has learned.
Negative reinforcement and extinction are not effective methods for teaching a new
behavior. Waiting for a musically inclined chicken to show up is not a reliable method
either, as it is unlikely that chickens possess the cognitive ability to play the piano
without proper training.
75. Which of the following could account for a major personality changing in middle
adulthood?
a. Moving to a few city c. Changing your looks
b. Making new friends d. A personal tragedy

While moving to a new city, making new friends, and changing your looks can all lead
to some changes in personality, they are unlikely to account for a major personality
change in middle adulthood. A personal tragedy, on the other hand, can have a
significant impact on a person's life and may cause them to reevaluate their priorities,
 32

beliefs, and behaviors. The experience of a personal tragedy, such as the loss of a
loved one, a serious illness, or a traumatic event, can lead to changes in personality as
individuals try to cope with the emotional and psychological impact of the experience.
It is important to note, however, that personality is a complex and multi-dimensional
construct that is influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, environment, and
life experiences. Therefore, while a personal tragedy may be a significant factor in a
major personality change, it is not the only possible explanation and other factors
should also be considered.
76. The A defining characteristic of traits is that they are;
a. Fixed c. Evaluate
b. Observed d. Enduring

Traits, which are comparatively lasting features that affect our behavior in a variety of
contexts, are used to describe personalities. Personality qualities that explain
consistency in behavior, such as introversion, friendliness, conscientiousness, honesty,
and helpfulness, are essential.
77. According to Jung, a mental storehouse for unconscious and images shared by all
humans is;
a. The persona c. The collective unconscious
b. The animal d. The personal unconscious

A mysterious repository of universal psychological ideas is the Collective Unconscious.

In contrast to a person's own unconscious, according to Jung, this is the portion of the
unconscious mind that is derived from ancestor memory and experience and is shared
by all humankind.
78. Salespeople who are paid exclusively by commission are reinforced on which type of
schedule;

a. Fixed ratio c. Fixed interval

b. Variable ratio d. Variable interval

Schedule with varied ratios (VR schedule)

 33

A sort of intermittent reinforcement used in free-operant conditioning, when a response

is reinforced after a variable number of responses. The average number of responses
per reinforcer determines the schedule's value; for instance, "VR 10" denotes that there
were typically 10 responses prior to reinforcement.
79. The personality theories of Sullivan, Maslow, Rogers, and others that emphasize
interpersonal relations deal mostly with
a. Umwelt c. Elgenwelt
b. Mitwelt d. Dasein

The Umwelt (the immediate environment), Mitwelt (the world with), and Eigenwelt
(one's own world) exist. The environment or the world around us is referred to as the
Umwelt. It takes into account both our innate biological requirements and the certainty
of our eventual demise. Our self-awareness and capacity to relate to ourselves are
referred to as the Eigenwelt, and they are exclusively human. (May & Yalom, 1995). A
crucial idea in existential psychotherapy, time, has a specific link to the Mitwelt. We
frequently dwell on the past because we think of ourselves spatially, as objects residing
within our lives. In other words, we prioritize what we are now rather than what we could
be.
80. Which is generally more highly valued?
a. Positively valued reinforcement
b. Negatively valued reinforcement
c. Reinforcement that satisfies week need
d. Reinforcement that satisfies strong needs

Punishment results in a behavior being decreased, whereas reinforcement results in

an increase in the behavior. Punishment can be used in a positive or bad way, much
like reinforcement. Any reinforcer, whether positive or negative, makes a behavioral
response more likely. Positive or negative punishments both reduce the chance of a
behavioral response. Take these four concepts—positive reinforcement, negative
reinforcement, positive punishment, and negative punishment—and combine them.
Positive reinforcement is when something is supplied to make a behavior more likely.
 34

Negative reinforcement is when something is taken away to make a behavior more

likely.
Positive Punishment: Adding something to make a behavior less likely to occur.
Negative Punishment is the removal of something to make a behavior less likely.
Positive reinforcement is the most efficient method for teaching a person or animal a
new habit. A desirable stimulus is provided to a behavior in positive reinforcement.
81. During a discussion of various perspectives on personality, Dr. Oh points to all
evidence that human beings are destructive and aggressive. She points out to the
million who died in wars and the ongoing killings by riding in tandem that continue in
a large part of Metro Manila. Dr. Oh observation about basic human nature supports
the _______ perspective and is a criticism ________ perspective.
a. Social cognitive, trait
b. Trait; social cognitive
c. Humanistic; psychoanalytic
d. Psychoanalytic; humanistic

Humanistic therapy can effectively treat various mental health conditions, including
anxiety, depression, substance use, interpersonal issues, and personality disorders.
82. Dr. Mega Minds studies the effects of heredity on behavior. One of the areas of his
research focuses on the similarities and differences in identical twins who were
separated at birth or early infancy and raised by different families. Dr. Mega Minds is
most probably a (n).
a. Psychoanalyst
b. Social cognitive psychologist
c. Humanistic psychologist
d. Behavior geneticist

Behavioral geneticists study how the genetic and the environment can influence human
behavior. In order to do so, they focus on the similarities and differences between twins
that were separated at birth or early infancy and raised by different families.
 35

83. Although Jaja has many fond memories of her college days, she only vaguely
remembers the man she was engaged to but left her suddenly for another girl. Jaja
is demonstrating
a. Identification c. Sublimation
b. Denial d. Repression

Repression is a defense mechanism that people develop to keep certain thoughts,

feelings, or urges out of conscious awareness. The primary reason this form of defense
is developed is to keep unacceptable desires or thoughts out of the conscious mind in
order to prevent or minimize feelings of anxiety or depression or guilt. This is what Jaja
developed to keep the heartbreak out of her mind
84. Sebastian during his college years is just one of the many class. In fact he only
attends classes only when he finds the teacher interesting. Now he is reviewing for
the board exam. He attends classes regularly and tops the quizzes and mock board
exams. His classmates could not believe this change in him. What Filipino
personality can best explain what is happening to Sebastian?
a. Hiya c. Ningas cogon
b. Kapwa d. Amorpropio

One of the Filipino toxic traits is “Ningas Cogon“. Ningas-kugon is lack sustained
perseverance. It also means a tendency among individuals to start a new venture or
task with too much enthusiasm and effort, but after some time will take a pause or will
suddenly stop working, until such time that they lose interest in the venture or task.
Leaving things incomplete. Just like a wildfire burning out quickly
85. Which of the following demonstrate epigenetic principle?
a. Ana has developed false pride because of an undeveloped concept of the self.
b. Ryan is developing strong feelings for her therapist and is trying to overcome it
through the help of another therapist.
c. Cynthia has not learned to perform roles with respect to her gender and is
now having difficulty in establishing intimate relationships
d. Bob has not learned to perform addition and is only learning it in his lesson in
division.
 36

Epigenetics is defined as heritable changes in gene expression that are, unlike

mutations, not attributable to alterations in the sequence of DNA. The predominant
epigenetic mechanisms are DNA methylation, modifications to chromatin, loss of
imprinting and non-coding RNA.
86. Jayson tried to train his potbellied pig to pick up the newspaper on the doorstep and
bring it into the house. However, the pig pushed the paper with his snout into the
garden even though this behavior would not be rewarded. It appears that the pig has
been subject to;
a. Instinctual drift c. Stimulus discrimination
b. Extinction d. Undoing

Instinctive drift, also called instinctual drift, is the substitution of instinctive behaviors
for behaviors that have been reinforced. In one example, pigs were conditioned to
pick up a coin, carry it some distance, and deposit it in a toy bank. When the animals
had deposited a certain number of coins, they were given food as a reinforcer. They
learned the desired behaviors quickly, but after having performed the sequence nicely
for some time, they began to engage in undesirable behaviors, at least from the
viewpoint of the trainers. Pigs would stop on their way [to the bank], bury the coin in
the sand, and take it out with their snout. What had happened was that instinctive
behavior, such as the pigs’ rooting in the dirt came to take precedence over the
learned behavior, even though it meant a delay in receiving the reinforcement (the
food). The trainers published an article on the phenomenon called “The Misbehavior
of Organisms” (Breland & Breland, 1961 in Shultz, 2017, p. 335).
87. A major difference between the psychoanalytic and trait perspectives is that;
a. Trait theory defines personality in terms of behavior, psychoanalytic theory in
terms of its underlying dynamics,
b. Trait theory describes the behavior but does not attempt to describe it
c. Psychoanalytic theory emphasizes the origins of personality in childhood
sexuality
d. All of the above are differences
 37

Trait and psychoanalytic perspectives are highly different from each other. The
statements mentioned in all three options are true about the difference between the two
perspectives. Freud’s Psychoanalytic Theory focused on the underlying dynamics of
an individual such as the id, ego, and superego, childhood experiences, dreams, and
sexual conflicts (Schultz, 2017, p. 76.). On the other hand, trait theory gives importance
to describing personality in terms of behavioral characteristics rather than internal
conflicts. Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.
88. The following are higher mental processes, except:
a. Foresight c. Social training
b. Reasoning d. Swimming

Higher mental processes are defined as any of the more complex types of cognition,
such as thinking, judgment, imagination, memory, and language (APA Dictionary of
Psychology, 2023). Moreover, these are also considered cognitive factors such as
thought, memory, judgment, and foresight (Feist, et al., 2021, p.54).
Social Cognitive Training (SCT) is a cost-effective, adaptable, evidence-based model
that has been used for the intervention of social cognition in schizophrenia and autism-
related disorders (Turner-Brown et al., 2008; Kurtz and Richardson, 2011; Peyroux and
Franck, 2014; Kurtz et al., 2016 in Trujillo, et al, 2017).
89. This typically results when neurotics attempt to find love.
a. Success c. Decreased hostility
b. Basic anxiety d. Increase self-esteem

As a result, many people see love and affection as the solution for all their problems.
Genuine love, of course, can be a healthy, growth-producing experience; but the
desperate need for love (such as that shown by Horney herself) provides a fertile
ground for the development of neuroses. Rather than benefiting from the need for love,
neurotics strive in pathological ways to find it. Their self-defeating attempts result in low
self-esteem, increased hostility, basic anxiety, more competitiveness, and a continuous
excessive need for love and affection (Feist, et al., 2021, p.184).
90. Which is analogous to expectancies?
a. Gullibility b. Social interest
 38

c. Interpersonal trust d. Self-efficacy

How people act in a particular situation depends on the reciprocity of behavioral,

environmental, and cognitive conditions, especially those cognitive factors that relate
to their beliefs that they can or cannot execute the behavior necessary to produce
desired outcomes in any particular situation. Bandura (1997) calls these expectations
self-efficacy. According to Bandura (1994), “people’s beliefs in their personal ­efficacy
influence what courses of action they choose to pursue, how much effort they will invest
in activities, how long they will persevere in the face of obstacles and failure
experiences, and their resiliency following setbacks” (p. 65). Self-efficacy combines
with -environment, prior behavior, and other personal variables, especially outcome
expectations, to produce behavior (Feist, et al., 2021, p.545).
Expectancy (E) refers to a person’s expectation that some specific reinforcement or set
of reinforcements will occur in a given situation. The probability is not determined by
the individual’s history of reinforcements, as Skinner contended, but is subjectively held
by the person. History, of course, is a contributing factor, but so too are unrealistic
thinking, expectations based on lack of information, and fantasies, so long as the
person sincerely believes that a given reinforcement or group of reinforcements is
contingent on a particular response (Feist, et al., 2021, p.574).
91. Which of the following is not true of the social-cognitive approach?
a. It emphasizes the experiencing person in an accepting environmental condition
b. It emphasizes the importance of immediate experiences as determinations of
behavior
c. It argues that people’s actions are a function of selection process acting
through eviction
d. It views reinforcement as necessary for learning.

Social cognitive approach is used in psychology, education, and communication, holds

that portions of an individual's knowledge acquisition can be directly related to
observing others within the context of social interactions, experiences, and outside
media influences
92. Another term for George Kelly’s approach to the theory of personality?
 a. Person-centered c. Self efficacy
b. Personal construct d. Self-concept

Kelly’s theory suggests that humans form personal conceptions about how the world
works. People then use these constructs to make sense of their observations and
experiences. Kelly believed that we start by first developing a set of personal
constructs, which are essentially mental representations that we use to interpret events.
These constructs are based on our experiences and observations.
93. Which of the following is best illustrates classical conditioning
a. Henry feels all the sight or smell of peanut butter
b. Jewel studies hard because she wants to pass the board exam
c. Karina drives at the posted speed limit after getting a number of speeding
tickets
d. Denise goes shopping for new clothes fairly frequently because it makes her feel
good

Pavlov’s classical conditioning or also known as Pavlovian conditioning is a type of

unconscious or automatic learning. This learning process creates a conditioned
response through associations between an unconditioned stimulus and a neutral
stimulus.
Karina’s situation best illustrates classical conditioning. Conditioned stimulus is one of
the basics of classical conditioning, it is a stimulus that was once neutral but now leads
to a response. Karina doesn’t pay attention to her driving speed before, but after
receiving a number of speeding tickets Karina has now acquired the Conditioned
response (a response that is created where no response existed before).
94. Cynthia is noted for her tact, charm, and stability by her friends and family. Her
personality type is:
a. Extraverted thinking c. Introverted judgment
b. Extraverted feeling d. Introverted feeling

Being polite or nice, friendly or considerate involve Extroverted Feeling. It is often this
same function in action when a person intervenes to try to get people to be kind to
 40

each other. And this function can also be seen in action through the facial
expressions of the Feeler.
95. Safeguard tendencies perfect exaggerated feelings of superiority against;
a. Anxiety c. Public disgradity
b. A controllable d. Guilt

Adler believed that people create patterns of behavior to protect their exaggerated
sense of self-esteem against public disgrace. These protective devices, called
safeguarding tendencies, enable people to hide their inflated self-image and to maintain
their current style of life.
Adler's concept of safeguarding tendencies can be compared to Freud's concept of
defense mechanisms. Basic to both is the idea that symptoms are formed as a
protection against ANXIETY. However, there are important differences between the two
concepts. Freudian defense mechanisms operate unconsciously to protect the ego
against anxiety, whereas Adlerian safeguarding tendencies are largely conscious and
shield a person's fragile self-esteem from public disgrace. Also, Freud's defense
mechanisms are common to everyone, but Adler (1956) discussed safeguarding
tendencies only with reference to the construction of neurotic symptoms. Excuses,
aggression, and withdrawal are three common safeguarding tendencies, each
designed to protect a person's present style of life and to maintain a fictional, elevated
feeling of self-importance (Adler, 1964).
96. The first model of interpersonal relation according to klein is the:

a. Father c. Mother
b. Self d. Breast

Melanie Klein's psychoanalytic theory describes the internalized representation of the

mother's breast as lacking or unsatisfied (see introjection). Klein contends that the
infant first perceives the mother and the nourishing breast as part-objects with both
positive and negative properties, the good breast and the terrible breast.
97. What results when the female oedipus complex is successfully resolved? The little
girls will:
a. Develop positive feelings towards both parents
 41

b. Adopt homosexual attitude toward her mother

c. Develop negative feeling towards her mother
d. See her mother as rival

A daughter's desire for her father and rivalry with her mother were how Freud termed
the feminine Oedipus attitude complex. The daughter and mother compete because
the daughter has an unconscious yearning to take the position of her mother as her
father's sexual partner.
98. What do infants use as means of controlling?
a. Splitting c. Introjection
b. Rejection d. Projection

In order to prevent the good object from becoming tainted by the bad object, Klein
characterizes splitting as a child trying to hold onto positive feelings and introject good
objects while ejecting bad items and projecting unpleasant sensations onto an external
object.
99. It is lessening ot the symptoms of a disease or their temporary reduction of
disappearance
a. Cure rate c. Relapse
b. Remission d. residual

According to Collins dictionary of medicine, remission is a marked reduction in the

severity of the symptoms or signs of a disease, or its temporary disappearance.
100. Comparing hundreds of comrades killed by the government security forces,
hostage would be dismissed as unimportant. This illustrates?
a. Moral justification
b. Euphemistic label
c. Diffusing responsibilities
d. Palliative comparison
 42

Social learning theory considers how both environmental and cognitive factors interact
to influence human learning and behavior. According to Albert Bandura,There are three
ways we redefine the nature of behavior
First is Moreal Justification, next is Palliative comparisons, which essentially mean
“what i did wasn't as bad as so and so i did what i did". And last is euphemism labels
which is basically giving a nice name for bad behavior.
 43

Psychological Assessment

1. If a mental ability is to be given to Filipino adults living in the highly urbanized city
and asks a question as part of information subscale: “Who is the 6th President of
America?” the said item is can be best described as:
a. Culture free c. Internally consistent
b. Reliable d. Valid

The said item can be best described as culture free since the question does not contain
bias or no environmental influences that reflect any specific culture (American
Psychological Association, 2023).
2. If the court issues a subpoena to a psychologist to attach the protocols to the
psychological report, the psychologist should:
a. Tell the court in writing that he will release after he has secured consent
from the client.
b. Tell the court that he cannot do so as said data are confidential.
c. He will obey the court with mental reservation.
d. He will readily obey the court as part

According to the American Psychological Association (2016), responding to the

subpoena does not necessarily mean that the psychologist must disclose confidential
information requested in the subpoena. Before a psychologist does so, he or she should
ensure that the subpoena is valid and that the conditions for disclosing confidential
information are met — such as with a client's consent, a protective order or other legal
mandate.
3. Who demands for the following ethical standards like informed consent,
confidentiality, competence?
a. Examiner c. Professional organizational
b. Examinee d. Research

The first safety concept derived from the 1978 Belmont Report is the respect for
persons, or "human dignity" principle. This requires that researchers safeguard the
autonomy of study participants while also assuring complete disclosure of all relevant
 44

study-related information, including any potential risks and benefits. Researchers must
make sure prospective participants are aware of their right to decide whether or not to
participate in research studies and that declining to participate in any research will not
in any way affect their access to current or future care in order to ensure that
participants have the autonomous right to self-determination. Also, self-determined
participants must be able to communicate with the researcher and understand the
questions that are being posed to them (Barrow et al, 2022).
4. Which is the concern of a test developer if he is trying to establish construct validity:
a. His object is determining the extent to which the test is related to specific criteria.
b. He is concerned with how well a test measures the construct that it claims
to measure.
c. He is focused on how well a test represents all aspects of the construct that it
claims to measure.
d. None of the above.

Construct validity is about how well a test measures the concept it was designed to
evaluate. It’s crucial to establish the overall validity of a method. When researching
something that cannot be immediately measured or witnessed, such as intelligence,
self-confidence, or happiness, assessing construct validity is extremely crucial. To
measure those constructs, you need a variety of observable or quantifiable indicators;
otherwise, you run the danger of injecting research bias into your work (Bhandari,
2022).
5. The area of a normal distribution from 0 to +3 encompasses approximately of the
curve:
a. 99% c. 95%
b. 68% d. 50%

The Empirical Rule states that 99.7% of data observed following a normal distribution
lies within 3 standard deviations of the mean. Under this rule, 68% of the data falls
within one standard deviation, 95% percent within two standard deviations, and 99.7%
within three standard deviations from the mean (Hayes, 2022).
 45

6. Which of the following is content-related evidence of validity?

a. Observed participants characteristics are consistent with responses on a
scale.
b. Scores obtained on two administrations of the instrument are consistent.
c. Scores are corrected with scores obtained on another instrument.
d. Test items are at an appropriate reading level.

Since content validity is the degree to which a test or assessment instrument evaluates
all aspects of the topic, construct, or behavior that it is designed to measure (Frost,
n.d.), if the observed participants’ characteristics are consistent with responses on a
scale, it means the scale measures what it is meant to measure/has content validity
because of its consistency.
7. If not accompanied by further information, a high raw scores is:
a. Reliable when correlated with another variable.
b. Valid when correlated with another variable
c. Always better than a low score.
d. Meaningless

A raw score on any psychological test alone is meaningless unless we have additional
interpretive data. Therefore, the scores on psychological tests are most commonly
interpreted by reference to norms that represent the test performance of the
standardized sample.
8. When transformed into the Wenchsler-scale type of deviation IQs, a Z score of -1.00
would become a Wenchsler IQ of:
a. 115 c. 105
b. 85 d. 95

Equivalent of a z score of -1.00 if transformed

to Wechsler IQ is 85 here in the table of the
normal curve.
 46

9. The client who is trying project fake good or fake bad is an attempt which tries to
manipulate others. This process is called:
a. Discriminates evidence
b. Divergent thinking
c. Discriminant analysis
d. Impression management

Impression management is the sum total of actions we take — both consciously and
unconsciously — to influence how others perceive us. We often attempt to manage how
people see us to make us more likely to achieve our goals. People use impression
management to align how we're seen with what we want.
10. _______ constitutes the most widely used frame of reference for test score
interpretation.
a. Criteria
b. Norms
c. content domain
d. Work samples

Norms refer to information regarding the group performance of a particular reference

on a particular measure for which a person can be compared to.

Norms mean standardized scores. Scores on the psychological tests are most
commonly interpreted by reference to the norm that represents the test performance
on the standardization sample. Norms always represent the best performance.
11. The following statistical techniques may be employed for establishing internal
consistency except?
a. KR20
b. ANOVA
c. Chronbach's alpha
d. Spearman brown
 47

ANOVA, which stands for Analysis of Variance, is a statistical test used to analyze the
difference between the means of more than two groups. A one-way ANOVA uses one
independent variable, while a two-way ANOVA uses two independent variables.
The three most commonly used statistical tests for measuring internal consistency are
the Spearman–Brown, the Kuder–Richardson 20, and Cronbach's alpha formulas.
Cronbach's alpha is the most frequently used because it calculates all possible split half
values of the test.
12. The following reliability has content sampling as a source of error, except:
a. Split-half
b. Equivalent, delayed
c. Test, re-test
d. Parallel. Immediate

Among the given options above, the only reliability that does not have content sampling
as a source of error is Test, Re-retest. It is an estimate of reliability obtained by
correlating pairs of scores from the same people on two different administrations of the
same test (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 146). From the definition, Test, Re-retest does
not involve the administration of two tests with a different set of items that are inherent
in the other three choices. Hence, proving that content sampling is a source of error for
these three reliability estimates specifically Split-half, Equivalent, delayed, and Parallel,
immediate.
13. The best construct-related evidence of validity comes from:
a. A validity coefficient that is near 0.
b. A series of studies of the instrument
c. Careful review of the instrument by expert
d. Data based predictions that prove to be correct

To achieve construct validity, you have to ensure that your indicators and
measurements are carefully developed based on relevant existing knowledge.
Evaluating construct-related evidence for validity involves evaluating the logical
arguments and empirical evidence supporting the central claim (implied or explicit) in
assessment
 48

14. Test items or questions with three or more alternative response are:
a. Polytomous test item
b. Standard error of measurement
c. Dichotomous
d. Item response theory

Polytomous models are for items that have more than two possible scores. The most
common examples are Likert-type items (Rate on a scale of 1 to 5) and partial credit
items (score on an Essay might be 0 to 5 points).
15. If the shape of the distribution of scores obtained from a test is significantly skewed,
it means that the test is probably _____ for the test takers.
a. Too hard
b. Too easy
c. Either too easy or too hard
d. Just right

Skewness is a measurement of the distortion of symmetrical distribution or asymmetry

in a data set. Skewness is demonstrated on a bell curve when data points are not
distributed symmetrically to the left and right sides of the median on a bell curve. If the
bell curve is shifted to the left or the right, it is said to be skewed.
16. A trait or variable, such as reading ability, creativity, or attentiveness.
a. Z-score c. Measurement
b. Test d. Construct

Construct is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or explain behaviors.

It includes variables that cannot be seen, heard, or touched, but we can infer their
existence from overt behavior which refers to an observable action or the product of an
observable action, including test- or assessment-related responses (Cohen & Swerdlik,
2018).
17. Which of the following statement about measurement using continuous scales is
true:
a. Always involves error.
b. Is always ordinal in nature.
 49

c. Is always normally distributed.

d. All the above

In statistics, measurement using a continuous scale involves data values that are
continuous in nature, and are more precise and contain more information. Many
statisticians use continuous scale of measurement as an appropriate measurement for
ordinal data as it represents scales using numbers such as Likert scales, and the scale
can be meaningfully separated into smaller increments, including fractional and decimal
values (Poldrack, 2021).
18. Which of the following statements accurately portrays the relationship of reliability to
validity?
a. Score reliability is not related to inference validity.
b. Scores must be reliable before inferences can be valid.
c. Inferences must be valid before the scores can be reliable.
d. The more valid the inference is, the higher the reliability of the score must be.

Reliability and validity are concepts used to evaluate the quality of research. They
indicate how well a method, or technique. or test measures something. Reliability is
about the consistency of a measure, and validity is about the accuracy of a measure.
Reliability and validity are closely related, but they mean different things. A
measurement can be reliable without being valid. However, if a measurement is valid,
it is usually also reliable (Middleton, 2019). With this, we can assume that the second
option (scores must be reliable before inferences can be valid) accurately describes the
relationship of reliability and validity.
19. A measure of variability in data indicating the distance from the lowest to the highest
score in the set.'
a. Range
b. Mode
c. Semi-interquartile range
d. Standard deviation

The range of a distribution is equal to the difference between the highest and the lowest
scores. for example, having a range of 20 if we knew that the highest score in this
 50

distribution was 60 and the lowest score was 40 (60 − 40 = 20). With respect to
distribution A, if we knew that the lowest score was 0 and the highest score was 100,
the range would be equal to 100 − 0, or 100. The range is the simplest measure of
variability to calculate, but its potential use is limited. As a descriptive statistic of
variation, the range provides a quick but gross description of the spread of scores.
When its value is based on extreme scores in a distribution, the resulting description of
variation may be understated or overstated (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
20. A test developer wants to correlate scores obtained in a self-esteem inventory he
has constructed with his two kinds of respondents; students active in extra-curricular
activities and students who are not. The test developer is establishing:
a. Validity c. Reliability
b. Norms d. All of the above

We may define norm-referenced testing and assessment as a method of evaluation

and a way of deriving meaning from test scores by evaluating an individual test taker’s
score and comparing it to the scores of a group of test takers. In this approach, the
meaning of an individual test score is understood relative to other scores on the same
test. A common goal of norm-referenced tests is to yield information on a test taker’s
standing or ranking relative to some comparison group of test takers.
In a psychometric context, norms are the test performance data of a particular group of
test takers that are designed for use as a reference when evaluating or interpreting
individual test scores. As used in this definition, the “particular group of test takers” may
be defined broadly (e.g., “a sample representative of the adult population of the United
States”) or narrowly (e.g., “female inpatients at the Bronx Community Hospital with a
primary diagnosis of depression”). A normative sample is a group of people whose
performance on a particular test is analyzed for reference in evaluating the performance
of individual test takers (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
21. A Pearson correlation coefficient describes the ____ and the ____ of a linear
relationship between two interval scale or ratio scale variables.
a. Level; amount c. Similarity; Importance
b. Direction; strength d. Variability: Significance
 The most widely used devised to measure correlation is the Pearson r, also known as
the Pearson correlation coefficient and the Pearson product-moment coefficient of
correlation devised by Karl Pearson. It is the most common way of measuring a linear
correlation and is known by many names such as Pearson’s r and Bivariate correlation.
It is a number between –1 and 1 that measures the strength and direction of the
relationship between two variables (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
22. It refers to the list of respondents in a particular area who agree to respond to
questionnaire regarding products, services, advertisements, or other promotional
efforts:
a. Consumer panel c. Motivation, research method
b. Consumer d. Consumer psychology

Many commercial research firms maintain a list of a large number of people or families
who have agreed to respond to questionnaires that are sent to them. The people who
make up this list are referred to as a consumer panel. In return for their participation,
panel members may receive incentives such as cash and free samples of all the
products about which they are asked to respond (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
23. The doctor reviewed a measurement scale designed to measure extroversion and
said that it appeared to measure extroversion. The measure has _____ validity.
a. Internal c. Convergent
b. Face d. Predictive

Face validity refers to how well a test looks to assess what it promises to measure
based on its appearance. A researcher, for example, may design a questionnaire to
assess people's levels of depression. A colleague may then review the questions and
determine that the questionnaire is valid only on its face value. In other words, on the
surface, the questionnaire appears to be designed in such a way that it can be used to
assess depression levels.
24. Compared to psychological testing, psychological assessment is generally;
a. More structured c. More expensive
b. Simpler d. More objective
 Testing entails the use of formal tests such as questionnaires or checklists. These are
commonly referred to as "norm-referenced" tests. That simply means that the
examinations have been standardized so that all test-takers are evaluated in the same
way, regardless of where they live or who administers the test. A norm-referenced test
of a child's reading abilities, for example, may score that child's ability in comparison to
other children of comparable age or grade level. Researchers have designed and
assessed norm-referenced tests, which have been shown to be helpful for measuring
a certain characteristic or disease.
Norm-referenced psychological exams, informal tests and surveys, interview
information, school or medical records, medical examination, and observational data
are all possible components of a psychological assessment. A psychologist decides
what information to use based on the questions asked. Assessments, for example,
might be used to establish whether a person has a learning disability, is competent to
stand trial, or has had a traumatic brain injury. They can also be used to determine
whether or not a person would make an effective boss or team member.
25. Validity is demonstrated when a measure is NOT related to variables with which it
should not be related.
a. Concurrent c. Discriminate
b. Convergent d. Differentiation

The extent to which a test or measure deviates from (i.e., fails to correlate with) another
measure whose underlying construct is conceptually unrelated to it. Construct validity
is one of two aspects, the other being convergent validity. Also known as divergent
validity.
26. Content validity:
a. Construct validity
b. Prima facie face validity
c. The emotional principles of a psychological test
d. A test with only-one digit of two-digit numbers
 53

Content validity assesses how well an instrument (such as a test) covers all essential
aspects of the construct being measured. In this context, a construct is a theoretical
concept, theme, or idea that cannot normally be measured directly.
Content validity is one of the four types of measurement validity. The other three are:
• Face validity: Does the content of the test appear to be suitable for its aims?
• Criterion validity: Do the results accurately measure the concrete outcome they
are designed to measure?
• Construct validity: Does the test measure the concept that it’s intended to
measure?
27. It is a plural form, “norms” is a term used in psychometrics to refer to the test
performance data of:
a. Distributing norms to members of target populations
b. Putting a carpenter’s personal signature on a work product
c. Test takers who constitute a control group in an experiment
d. People tested at a different time than another group of test takers

Norm-referenced refers to standardized tests that are designed to compare and rank
test takers in relation to one another. Norm-referenced tests report whether test takers
performed better or worse than a hypothetical average student, which is determined by
comparing scores to the performance results of a statistically selected group of test
takers, typically of the same age or grade level, who have previously taken the exam.
The procedure of calculating norm-referenced scores is known as the "norming
process," and the comparison group is known as the "norming group." Norming groups
often consist of only a small fraction of past test takers, rather than all or even the
majority of previous test takers. Test developers use a variety of statistical methods to
select norming groups, interpret raw scores, and determine performance levels.
28. My measure allows me to successfully predict future behavioral outcomes. My
measure has:
a. Face validity
b. Criterion validity
c. Coefficient of stability
d. Alternate reliability
 54

Evidence that a test score or other measurement corresponds with a variable that can
only be examined after the test or measurement has been conducted or made. For
example, if high test scores were connected with persons who later had that disease,
the predictive validity of a test designed to anticipate disease start would be strong. It
is one of three types of criterion validity. Also called predictive criterion-related validity;
prospective validity.
29. The standardization sample is composed of 1200 college students; 600 are male
and 600 are females. Approximately how many will get a score above a ceeb of
500?
a. 600
b. 300
c. 250 males and 350 females
d. 300 males and 250 females

A standardization sample is a group of people with previously well-documented

intelligence and/or achievement levels who are used to "standardize" new or revised
test instruments to ensure that they reliably measure what they are supposed to
measure.
30. One way to assess the stability of measuring, computing a Pearson:
a. Linear coefficient
b. Coefficient criterion
c. Coefficient of determination
d. Correlation coefficient

The bivariate Pearson Correlation yields a sample correlation coefficient, r, which

quantifies the strength and direction of linear correlations between two continuous
variables. By extension, the Pearson Correlation assesses whether there is statistical
evidence for a linear relationship between the same pairs of variables in the population,
as indicated by a population correlation coefficient, "rho." Pearson Correlation is a
quantitative measure. Pearson's correlation or Pearson product-moment correlation are
other names for this metric. (PPMC).
 55

31. Which of the following statements about test anxiety and test performance is
correct?
a. The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is direct
b. The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is indirect
c. The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is non-linear
d. The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is non-directional

In accordance with the study of Schillinger, et. al. (2021), a negative correlation exists
between test anxiety and performance. With modest to medium effect sizes, test
anxiety is strongly and negatively connected to test performance on standardized
assessments like aptitude and achievement tests. Additionally, the inverse relationship
between test anxiety and performance begins in elementary school and persists
throughout formal schooling. The fact that anxious children frequently obtain poorer
school and course grades than their non-anxious peers is more evidence of this
connection.
32. Which of the following is a projective technique?
a. Army beta c. Bender test
b. NEO-PI d. Block design

The Bender gestalt test is used to evaluate how children's and adults' visuomotor
perceptions have matured. It evaluates the ability of adults and kids between the ages
of 4 and 85+ to integrate their visual-motor skills. It is intended to shed insight on
perception, visual-motor coordination, and the approach a subject take to problems in
addition to personality structure and dynamics (N & Sams, 2018).
33. Equal to the square root of the averaged squared deviation about the mean, this
statistics is called:
a. Average deviation
b. The range
c. The semi-interquartile asymptotic
d. The Standard deviation
 56

According to Hargrave (2023), a statistic known as the standard deviation, which is

derived as the square root of variance, gauges a dataset's dispersion from its mean.
By calculating each data point's divergence from the mean, the standard deviation may
be determined as the square root of variance.
34. Which of the following characteristics of the ball shaped curve tells that the lines do
not touch the baseline
a. It bilaterally asymptotic
b. It is asymptotic
c. It is asymmetrically asymptotic
d. It is symmetrical

In the study of The University of Utah (2021), the mean, median, and mode are all equal
in the normal distribution, which is a symmetrical distribution with a bell-shaped form.
The distribution will be either favorably or negatively skewed if the mean, median, and
mode are not equal. It serves as the foundation of inferential statistics. A normal
distribution that may be seen using z scores is the standard normal distribution. It
consistently has a zero mean and a one standard deviation.
35. The MMPI gives a quantitative measurement of an individual’s:
a. Emotional adjustment
b. Reality testing
c. Internal psychodynamic adjustment
d. IQ and mental health

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a personality and

psychopathology assessment exam. Its primary purpose is to screen those suspected
of having mental health or other clinical difficulties. It is the most often used clinical
testing instrument and one of the most well investigated psychological tests available.
While the MMPI is not perfect, it is nonetheless an important tool in the diagnosis and
treatment of mental illness.
36. The theoretical basis for the Edwards personal Preference Schedule is:
a. The psychodynamic approach by Freud
b. The factor analysis approach by Cattell
 57

c. The needs system proposed by Murray

d. The socio-cultural perspective proposed by Horney

Murray's need system serves as the theoretical foundation. (1938). Edwards might
avoid the blind, subjective, and atheoretical methods of other tactics by selecting
objects based on theory. Personality inventory using forced choices that is objective
and non-projective.
37. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory is a(an):
a. Personality test developed mainly to assess job applicants
b. Personality test used primarily to assess focus of control
c. Empirically deprived and objective personality test
d. A projective technique

Clinical psychologist Starke R. Hathaway and neuropsychiatrist J. created the

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) in 1937. Charnley McKinley of the
University of Minnesota created the exam to be utilized in the Department of
Psychology at the university. The purpose was to create an instrument that could be
used objectively to measure the severity of various mental illnesses. The test's authors
thought that self-report inventories of the time were too apparent. Respondents might
readily manipulate the data since they could simply infer the objective of these
inventories. Initially, test items were created by picking questions that were endorsed
by patients diagnosed with various mental health problems.
38. A test that was developed for a particular use with a particular population is said to
be:
a. Sensitive c. Standardized
b. Reliable d. Valid

A test is said to be standardized when it has clearly specified procedures for

administration and scoring, typically including normative data. The method of
administering a test to a representative sample of testtakers in order to establish norms
is referred to as standardization or test standardization. In the process of
standardization, a normative sample is important because it is a group of people whose
performance on a particular test is analyzed for reference in evaluating the performance
 58

of individual testtakers. Members of the normative sample will all be representative of

the population for which the particular test was created, regardless of how broad or
specific its reach.
39. The personality test Mary is taking involves her describing random patterns of dots.
What type of test is she taking?
a. MMPI c. A projective test
b. MBTI d. An empirically derived test

A projective test is a type of personality test in which an individual is assumed to

“project” onto some ambiguous stimulus his or her own unique needs, fears, hopes,
and motivation. The ambiguous stimulus could be anything from an inkblot, a drawing,
a photograph, or anything else. The Rorschach Inkblot Test, Thematic Apperception
Test (TAT), Draw-A-Person Test, and others are some of the most popular projective
tests.
40. He coined the term mental tests:
a. Lewis Terman
b. Raymond Cattell
c. James McKeen Cattell
d. Alfred Binet

Sir Francis Galton was the first to attempt to measure intelligence. He believed that
individuals who exhibit high degrees of sensory discrimination were assumed to be
highly intelligent. At Cambridge, Cattell came in contact with Galton, whom he
described as the greatest man he has known. James McKeen Cattell was inspired by
his interaction with Galton, returned to the University of Pennsylvania in 1888 and he
coined the term “mental test” to describe measures of sensory perception and reaction
time, as these constructs were used as the first measures of cognitive ability.
41. It can be argued that all validity measures are measuring:
a. Predictive validity c. Criterion validity
b. Content validity d. Construct validity
 Construct validity is also referred to as umbrella validity because every other variety of
validity falls under it. It is a measure of validity that is obtained through executing a
thorough analysis of (a) how scores on the test relate to other test scores and
measures, and (b) how scores on the test can be understood within some theoretical
framework for understanding the construct that the test was designed to measure.
42. In contrast to a power test, a speed test:
a. Tends to yield a score differences among test takers that are based on
performance speed
b. Tends to yield spuriously inflated estimates of alternate forms of reliability
c. Can yield a split-half reliability estimate based on only one administration a test
d. Has time limit designed to be long enough to allow all test takers to attempt all
items

In speed tests versus power tests, when a time limit is long enough to allow testtakers
to attempt all items, and if some items are so difficult that no testtaker is able to achieve
a perfect score, then the test is a power test. On the other hand, a speed test generally
contains items of uniform level of difficulty (typically uniformly low) so that, when given
generous time limits, all testtakers should be able to successfully complete all the test
items. In reality, a speed test's time limit is set so that few, if any, test-takers will be able
to finish the entire test. Score differences on a speed test are therefore based on
performance speed because items attempted tend to be correct.
43. A key difference between the terms “psychological testing” and “psychological
assessment” is that psychological testing refers to a process that
a. Is more technician like than psychological assessment
b. Was first described by Maloney and Ward in the mid 1970’s
c. Is much broader in scope than psychological assessment
d. Involves more problem-solving than psychological assessment

Psychological testing is the process of measuring psychology-related variables by

means of devices or procedures designed to obtain a sample of behavior. Since
administering test is following a procedure, the evaluator requires a technician-like skills
in terms of administering and scoring a test as well as in interpreting a test result.
 60

A technician is a skilled professional employed in almost every industry. They typically

work alongside other skilled workers and should be able to read instructions and
communicate effectively.
44. A five point Likert scale is most likely to commit:
a. Severity error c. Central tendency error
b. Random error d. Halo effect

Likert scales often have five or seven options. Response anchors are the options on
each end. The middle point is frequently a neutral item, with positive and negative
options on either side (Bhandari and Nikolopoulou, 2023). Each item is given a score
between 1 to 5 or 1 to 7. The central tendency error is more likely to occur on a five
point Likert scale. An error of central tendency is a general tendency to give everyone
ratings close to the midpoint of a scale. When a rater constantly avoids giving ratings
at either the positive or negative extreme, this is known as central tendency error. As a
result, all of this rater’s ratings would tend to cluster in the middle of the rating
continuum.
45. When thirty out of forty test takers answered item no 7 correctly said statement is
describing:
a. Item difficulty c. Item discrimination
b. Validity of the item d. Reliabiity of the item

The item difficulty is the percentage of students who correctly answered an item. In this
case, it is also equivalent to the item mean. The item difficulty index ranges from 0 to
100; the higher the value, the easier the question. When there are many correct
answers to a question or when an alternative is worth more than one point, the item
difficulty is calculated by dividing the average score for that item by the highest number
of points given for any one alternative. Item difficulty is relevant for determining whether
students have learned the concept being tested. It also plays an significant role in the
ability of an item to discriminate between students who are familiar with the tested
material and those who are not. The item will have low discrimination if it is so difficult
that almost everyone gets it wrong or guesses, or so easy that almost everyone gets it
right.
 61

While, Item discrimination refers to the ability of an item to differentiate among students
on the basis of how well they understand the topic being tested. It is a measure of an
item's ability to discriminate between test takers who scored the highest and those who
scored low.
46. The Which is true about the Army Alpha Test?
a. Its correlation with the SB was unacceptable
b. It was developed for use in a matter of weeks
c. It was designed for the use of the illiterate recruits
d. Its correlation with officer ratings were unacceptable

According to Brandwein (2011), the American Psychological Association (APA)

Committee on the Psychological Examination of Recruits, under the direction of Robert
Yerkes, created the Army Alpha shortly after the United States entered World War I. It
was one of three intelligence assessments used to separate out Army recruits with low
IQ and identify individuals who could be good candidates for special missions and
officer-training programs. All recruits received The Army Alpha, which placed an
emphasis on verbal abilities.
47. The test developer please refer to item 50 is influenced by the theory of:a.
a. Rotter c. Rogers
b. Beck d. Bandura

In order to create a statistical model (normal distribution curve) that depicts the
distribution of the five adopter categories across the typical time of adoption, Everett
Rogers created adopter categories to "measure" the innovativeness of farmers. It first
appeared in communications to describe how an idea or product gradually develops
traction and diffuses (thus the term) over a particular population or social system.
According to Rogers' estimation, each category's percentage is actually rather close to
the proportions found in a typical bell-curve (Beever, 2022).
48. A psychological report should:
a. Use jargon
b. Be at least ten pages long
c. Be read only by the client
 62

d. Directly and adequately answer the referral question

A psychological report gives a thorough justification for the evaluation's purpose, the
methods and tactics employed, and the findings. The report also contains the
psychologist's judgments and initial diagnostic impressions, as well as an interpretation
of the results. A "referral question" is something that you, the school, your kid, and/or
other providers are interested in learning and that requires a direct response because
it serves as the framework for the entire assessment procedure. The psychological
report must provide consistent and convincing proof from a variety of tests and
information-gathering techniques (interviews, work samples) that backs up diagnostic
findings (Flanagan & Caltabiano, 2004).
49. The deviation IQ is based on the notion of:
a. A delinquency as a factor affecting the development of intelligence
b. Mental age versus chronological age
c. Verbal versus performance scores
d. A z-score

In accordance with the article of Brock (n.d.), Deviation IQ Scores are a standard score
with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. Z-scores can be transformed into
Deviations IQ scores by multiplying the given Z-score by 15 (the standard deviation of
the distribution of Deviation IQ scores), and adding 100 (the mean of the distribution of
Deviation IQ scores) to this product.
50. The area of the normal distribution for a T distribution encompasses approximately
________ of the curve.

a. Ninety five percent c. Ninety nine percent

b. Fifty percent d. Sixty eight percent

Based on the study of BYJUS (2023), the T distribution and the normal distribution are
quite similar in that they are both symmetrical about the mean and the median (mean
= median with symmetric distributions). The two tails at each end of a T distribution are
wider than the tails of a normal distribution because it has greater variances. This
distribution will closely resemble a typical normal distribution with a mean of 0 and a
 63

standard deviation of 1 the higher the degrees of freedom (df). 68% of the observations
for the typical normal distribution are within one standard deviation of the mean
(Lamorte, 2016).
51. The An online “IQ” test that provides result based on the performance on a single
task, such as block design, is said to be a poor intelligence test even if it correlates
well to school success because it is said to have low:
a. Content validity
b. Reliable validity
c. Criterion related validity
d. Concurrent validity

As per Markus & Smith (2012), The degree to which the items on a test are fairly
reflective of the full domain the test tries to examine is referred to as content validity.
Wherein, according to Cherry (2022), An IQ test assesses a variety of cognitive skills
and yields a score that is meant to be used as a gauge of a person's potential and
intellectual prowess. Therefore, a single task such as block design is said to be poor
intelligence test because it’s content is just for a subtest of an IQ test.
52. A senior instructor at the Air Force Academy insists that his “personnel test” for
officer candidate school need on, consists of one question: Did you ever fly a model
airplane that you built yourself? If this one item test was actually used to select their
candidates, we could assume that the test:
a. Based on informal empirical criteria keying
b. Based on formal factor analytic procedures
c. Invalid due to the informal nature
d. None of the above

As per N & Sams (2013), Information about people is systematically gathered through
personnel assessment. Decisions about applicants and workers' employment or
careers are made using this information. Wherein, based on the article of ExamSoft
(2021), if a test measures what it is intended to measure, it is considered legitimate.
The findings of the personality test would be invalid if they suggested that someone
who is extremely timid is actually outgoing.
 64

53. Which of the following self-report inventories include items for measuring mental
ability?
a. 16 PF Test
b. MMPI-1
c. NEO-PI-R
d. MMPI-2

16 PF Test - Healthy Human Traits

MMPI - Unhealthy Human Traits
NEO-PI-R - Assess personality in the domains of the Big Five Personality Factors
MMPI 2 - Determines whether you have symptoms of a mental illness or personality
disorder.
54. Evidence of psychological testing can be traced back to:
a. Hammurabi's code of civil law
b. Public service examinations in ancient China
c. Selection of candidates for the Roman senate
d. Caveman challenging each other to lift heavy stones

Some scholars believe that the use of psychological tests dates back approximately
4,000 years to 2200 BCE, when the Chinese emperor Yushun examined officials every
third year to determine whether they were suitable to continue in office (DuBois, 1970;
Martin, 1870). However, modern scholars of ancient China say that there is little
archaeological evidence to support these claims. Reliable writing systems were
developed by the Chinese somewhere between 1766 and 1122 BCE (Shang dynasty;
Bowman, 1989). Nowhere in these writings were there any hints suggesting that
leaders were examined as just described. Even in 1115 BCE, with the advent of more
elaborate writing systems, there were no inscriptions or writings to suggest the
existence of such an examination process (Martin, 1870).
55. Which of the following is true about internal consistency reliability?
a. It's measurable using alternate forms
b. It's measurable via test-retest format
c. It's measurable using the split-half procedures
 65

d. It measures the consistency over time or situation

Internal consistency reliability is a type of reliability used to determine the validity of

similar items on a test. All questions on a test proposed to measure certain content
should produce similar and consistent results (Gossett-Webb, 2022).
56. Empirical keying refers to:
a. Empirically validating test scores via research
b. Scoring a test based on the theory of what is being measures
c. Scoring a test based on its ability to discriminate between certain
identifiable groups of people
d. Scoring a test using a scoring key made out of cardboard in which small holes
reveal the correct answers

An approach to test development that emphasizes the selection of items that

discriminate between normal individuals and members of different diagnostic groups,
regardless of whether the items appear theoretically relevant to the diagnoses of
interest
57. What is psychological assessment primarily used for:
a. Report writing
b. Answering referral question
c. Legal decision making
d. Research

Psychological assessment is primarily used to answer referral questions that have been
posed by the individual or organization requesting the assessment. These questions
may relate to a variety of concerns, such as a person's cognitive functioning, emotional
well-being, personality traits, or behavioral problems.
The purpose of psychological assessment is to gather information about the individual
being assessed, which can then be used to make informed decisions or
recommendations based on the results. For example, psychological assessment may
be used to determine a person's eligibility for certain services or programs, to diagnose
mental health conditions, or to provide recommendations for treatment or intervention.
 66

While psychological assessment may be used in report writing, legal decision making,
and research, these are not the primary purposes of the assessment. Instead, they may
be secondary uses of the information that has been gathered through the assessment
process.
For problem 58 - 60

Researchers have noted that a decline in cognitive functioning as people age (bartus,

1990). However, the results from other research suggest that the antioxidants in food
such as berries may reduce and even reverse age related declines (joseph, et.al). To
examine the phenomenon, suppose that the researcher obtains a sample of n=16 adults
who are between the ages of 65 and 75. The researcher used a standardized test to
measure cognitive a functioning for each individuals. The participants then begin a
month program to which they receive daily doses of blueberry supplements. At the end
of the two month period, the researcher again measures the cognitive performance for
each participant.

58. What kind of experimental design was used?

a. Within subject design
b. Pre-experimental
c. Between subject design
d. Quasi experimental

In a within-subject design, each participant is exposed to all levels of the independent

variable. In this case, each participant serves as their own control by being tested on
their cognitive functioning both before and after the blueberry supplement program.
In the given scenario, the researcher measured the cognitive performance of each
participant before and after the blueberry supplement program. This means that each
participant served as their own control, making it a within-subject design.
A pre-experimental design lacks a control group or random assignment, so it is not
applicable in this scenario. A between-subject design involves different groups of
participants being exposed to different levels of the independent variable, which is not
the case here. A quasi-experimental design involves assigning participants to groups
 67

based on pre-existing characteristics, but the scenario does not mention any such
assignment.
59. Which of the following threats to internal validity is more likely to be encountered by
the researcher:
a. History
b. Instrumentality
c. Regression toward the average
d. Both a and b

History and instrumentality are both threats to internal validity that are commonly
encountered by researchers.
History refers to external events or factors that occur during the course of a study that
may influence the results. For example, if a study is examining the effectiveness of a
new treatment for a particular condition, and during the study period, a major news story
breaks about the condition or an unrelated event occurs that affects public opinion or
behavior, the results of the study may be influenced by these external factors.
Instrumentality refers to changes in the way that the dependent variable is measured
over time. For example, if a study is measuring the level of depression in a group of
participants, and the measure used to assess depression changes midway through the
study, the results may be affected by the change in measurement.
Regression toward the mean is another threat to internal validity, but it is less likely to
be encountered by the researcher in the context of a study. It refers to the tendency for
extreme scores on a variable to move closer to the mean when the variable is measured
again. This can occur simply due to chance, rather than any actual changes in the
variable being measured.
Therefore, in the given options, the most likely threats to internal validity that a
researcher is likely to encounter are history and instrumentality, and not regression
toward the mean.
60. The difference in test performance between percentile scores of sixty and fifty-five:
a. Cannot be readily equated to all other five point differences in percentiles
b. Is equivalent to that between percentile scores of sixty and seventy Is equivalent
to that between percentile scores of fifteen and ten
 68

c. Is twice that between percentile scores of fifteen and ten

Percentile scores represent the percentage of scores that fall below a given score in a
distribution. A five-point difference in percentile scores can represent different
differences in raw scores, depending on the distribution of scores.
For example, a five-point difference in percentile scores between 60 and 55 may
represent a larger difference in raw scores if the distribution of scores is relatively
narrow, while it may represent a smaller difference in raw scores if the distribution is
relatively wide.
Therefore, a five-point difference in percentile scores cannot be readily equated to all
other five-point differences in percentiles, as the actual difference in raw scores may
vary depending on the distribution of scores. The other options provided in the question
are not accurate representations of the relationship between percentile scores.
61. Results for a client on a psychological test:
a. Should be interpreted in a isolation
b. Should be interpreted by a computer
c. Should be interpreted in isolation
d. Should be interpreted by a computer

Psychologists avoid interpreting test results in isolation, if possible. Psychologists are

presently developing advanced technologies such as computer-assisted assessment,
computer test interpretation, and item response theory.
62. Project test are not objective because:
a. Different scores are likely to produce the same test score from the same test
performance
b. Scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the score
c. They are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli
d. They are scored in a simple, straightforward manner

Projective test, in psychology, examination that commonly employs ambiguous stimuli,

(Rorschach Test) and enigmatic pictures (Thematic Apperception Test), to evoke
responses that may reveal facets of the subject’s personality by projection of internal
attitudes, traits, and behavior patterns upon the external stimuli.
 69

63. Mental status examination is what type of assessment

a. Structured interview c. Portfolio assessment
b. Work samples d. Behavioral observation

The mental status examination is a structured assessment of the patient's behavioral

and cognitive functioning.
64. A psychological test can become obsolete when:
a. Psychological theory develops to render the basis of the test obsolete
b. Society changes to render the content of items less appropriate
c. Society changes to render the tests norms obsolete
d. All of the above

A decision as to when a test is obsolete lies in the reflective and informed judgment of
a professional who is committed to the selection and use of the best version of a test
to address referral issues and client qualities. The professional can anticipate being
able to articulate support for this judgment. A test is generally considered to be out of
date when its underlying theory, item content, norms, or technological suitability fail to
meet the demands of its intended usage, professional standards, or when prolonged
use might result in improper or incorrect conclusions or diagnoses (International Test
Commission, 2015).
65. Objective tests are objective because:
a. Different scorers are likely to produce the same test score from the same
test performance
b. Scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the scorer
c. They are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
d. They are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli

An objective test is a test that has right or wrong answers and so can be marked
objectively. It can be compared with a subjective test, which is evaluated by giving an
opinion, usually based on agreed criteria.
66. Another way of talking about the reliability of a test for a particular purpose is to talk
about it:
a. Utility b. Validity
 70

c. Dependability d. Discriminability

Reliable assessment tools produce dependable, repeatable, and consistent information

about a test score. In order to meaningfully interpret test scores and make a valid
particular purpose
67. Systematic error in a test exerts what kind of effect on test scores?
a. Consistent. c. Unknowable
b. Random d. Inconsistent

If systematic errors occur, there is a threat to the validity of the exam program. Having
an exam that measures something other than what it is intended to will result in
inaccurate exam results and inappropriate score interpretations. This would be
considered a major flaw in the program.
68. Multiple choice tests provide more than two options for each question to overcome
the problem of:
a. Faking
b. Carelessness
c. Defensiveness
d. Guessing

Multiple choice test questions, also known as items, can be an effective and efficient
way to assess learning outcomes. Having two or more options can help the student to
re-think the descriptions of the other choices.
69. Forensic assessment is considered different from therapeutic assessment because:
a. The purpose of assessment is different
b. The validity of the tests used is different
c. The test used for assessment are different
d. The time required to conduct assessment is different

A therapeutic assessment is conducted for the purpose of helping the person being
assessed, explains the Therapeutic Assessment Institute. On the other hand, a forensic
assessment is conducted solely to establish the facts for use in court.
70. Which of the following areas are usually covered in a Mental Status Examination?
 71

a. Appearance, orientation, affect through content and process, insight

b. Appearance, orientation, tendency to lie, though content and process,
insight
c. CT scan, appearance, orientation, affect, insight
d. Orientation, affect, thought content and process, insight, CT scan

1918, Adolf Meyer developed an outline for a standardized method to evaluate a

patient’s “mental status” for psychiatric practice. It combines information gathered from
passive observation during the interview with data acquired through direct questioning
to determine the patient’s mental status at that moment. This approach is used to
identify, diagnose, and monitor signs and symptoms of mental illness. Each part of the
mental status examination is designed to look at a different area of mental function to
thoroughly capture the objective and subjective aspects of mental illness.
71. In forming a test we need to bear in mind:
a. How the test is to be used
b. What we expect the average respond to be
c. How we ensure everyone in the sample is normal
d. How we ensure the sample is normally distributed

Knowing the process on how the test is to be used on your test is very important.
72. A false positive in personnel selection is.
a. The rejection of an applicant who could have been successful
b. The use of a test with negative validity
c. The appointment of someone whose job performance turns out to be
substandard
d. The incorrect scoring of a psychological test leading to someone being
appointed who shouldn’t have been.

In terms of data talent hiring, a false positive would mean that the recruitment process
and/or pre-employment skills testing identified someone as being qualified for a
particular data science or engineering role when in fact they are not.
73. A test of scholastic attitude is administered at the beginning of first semester and the
academic performance of the sample is examined at the end of the first year of
 72

university (I.e two semesters later). A failure to find a high-to-perfect correlation

between test scores and academic performance.
a. Indicates the test lacks concurrent validity
b. Indicates the test lacks predictive validity
c. May indicate a lack of test validity but may also reflect intervening effects
unrelated to scholastic aptitude
d. Is highly unlikely

When test scores correlate with specific behaviors, attitudes, or events, we can confirm
that there is evidence of validity. In other words, the test scores may be used to predict
those specific behaviors, attitudes, or events.
74. Which of the following procedures does not yield an estimate of the reliability of a
test?
a. Finding the average of the correlation of each item with every other item
b. Correlating each item with the total score on the test
c. Correlating the total of items in the first half of the test
d. Correlating the total of all even-numbered items with the total of all odd-
numbered items

The test-retest method of estimating reliability is to issue the same test to the same
subjects on two separate occasions, then to measure the correlation of the resultant
scores. If the test does have considerable reliability, then it should produce fairly
consistent scores on both occasions.
75. Which of the following statements about forms is correct?
a. The standard deviation of scores on intelligence test has remained constant over
time
b. The raw score on mean on intelligence tests has been decreasing over the years
c. The raw score on mean on intelligence tests has remained constant over the
years
d. The raw score on mean on intelligence tests has been increasing over the
years
 73

The average rate of increase seems to be about three IQ points per decade in the
United States, as scaled by the Wechsler tests.
76. Meta- analysis is a term used to describe
a. A tendency of scores to fan out from the mean
b. A graphic technique for representing regression
c. A variant of psychoanalysis developed by Carl Jung
d. A method of combining information across studies

A sort of statistical study known as a "meta-analysis" combines and analyzes the

findings of numerous studies. When numerous prior studies have examined the same
question, researchers may do this type of study.
A meta-analysis is beneficial because it is made to compile data. It follows a few
standard guidelines. The meta-analysis
• is carried out systematically
• fulfills particular criteria
• includes a pool of outcomes
• uses a quantitative analysis as its foundation
77. The personality test Maria is taking involves her describing random patterns of dots.
What type of test is she taking?
a. An empirically derived test c. MBTI
b. MBTI d. A projective test

When taking a projective test, individuals answer questions about uncertain situations,
words, or images. This type of test originated from the psychoanalytic school of thought,
which stated that people had unconscious thoughts or drives.
These difficulties can then be addressed through psychotherapy or other suitable
treatments. Projective tests are designed to enlighten individuals about sentiments,
wants, and conflicts that are not readily apparent to them.
78. When 35 out of 40 tests takers answered item no. 7 correctly said statement is
describing.
a. Item difficulty c. Item discrimination
b. Validity of the item d. Reliability of the item
 The percentage of students who correctly answer an item is the sole indication of item
difficulty for questions with a single correct alternative worth one point. It is also
equivalent to the item mean in this instance. From 0 to 100, the item difficulty index
ranges; the higher the value, the easier the question. When there are many correct
answers to a question or when an alternative is worth more than one point, the item
difficulty is calculated by dividing the average score for that item by the highest number
of points for any one alternative. When evaluating whether students have retained the
concept being evaluated, item difficulty is relevant.
79. Test scores can be meaningfully compared when
a. The test or test versions are the same
b. The test or test versions are different
c. When reference group are different, so long as test versions are the same
d. When derived scores are the same, even when test are different

The test version must be identical. This is because of the fact that test results can only
be compared when the test, including the items and testing instructions, is the same for
all students who take it
80. Cultural sensitivity in test development is manifested by:
a. Panels of experts who review the test items for discriminatory content
b. Test purchaser qualification form that require statements of cultural background
c. Behavioral evaluation of test scores from different cultural background
d. Strict adherence to the guidelines to form in Tara off v Regents of University of
California.

The Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity is based on formal cross-cultural

dynamics observed in schools, communities, and organizations as well as decades of
academic research.
In Bennett's words, (Organizing Engagements ,n.d), "the capacity for exercising
competence in intercultural encounters develops as one's perceptual organization of
cultural difference becomes more complicated, one's experience of culture becomes
more sophisticated. Understanding how cultural diversity is experienced allows for the
prediction of intercultural communication efficacy as well as the customization of
 75

educational interventions to promote development along the continuum. The continuum

describes two distinct orientations toward cultural difference: ethnocentrism and
ethnorelativism
81. If Pearson's correlation coefficient is zero, then the two variables are not related.
a. True c. Neither true or false
b. False d. Either true or false

A 0 coefficient indicates the nonexistence of a linear relationship. There is no tendency

for the other variable to either increase or decrease as one increases.
82. A researcher obtained the following regression equation from a sample of data:
y^=5+ 2x. Using this equation & an x value of 3, her prediction to the corresponding
y value is:
a. 30 c. 8
b. 11 d. 6

x=3, y= 5+2x
y= 5+2(3)
y= 5+6
y= 11
83. With regard to the samples used to established within group of norms, the single
most important requirement is that they should be:
a. gathered locally by the institution or organization that will use them
b. very large, numbering in thousands
c. representative of the group for which they will be used.
d. convenient to obtain in the process of standardization.

A good sample should be a representative subset of the population we are interested

in studying, therefore, with each participant having equal chance of being randomly
selected into the study.
84. which of the following statements about test-retest reliability is false?
a. the reliability coefficient of a measure should be atleast 80% based the measure
is acceptable is reliable.
 76

b. sometimes test-retest reliability is artificially high because people remember how

they answered the first time
c. test-retest reliability is the best form of reliability measurement
d. test-retest reliability is very useful if the variable being measured is expected to
stay constant over time.

There will always be some error, even if a test-retest reliability process is used without
any intervening factors. Students will likely perform better if they remember some of the
questions from the previous test.
A few students may very well have had a terrible day the initial time around or they
might not have viewed the test in a serious way. As a result, students taking retake
exams can anticipate different questions and slightly more stringent marking standards.
85. in the following age calculation, what would be the correct age given the following
information:

Date of test: 2009/10/25

Date of birth: 1998/04/27

Date the tests were scored and interpreted: 2009/11/25 Date of submission of
psychological report: 2009/11/16

a. 1years,6months,28days
b. 11years,6months,29days
c. 11 years, 5 months, 28 days
d. 11years,5months,29days

The amount of time that has passed since your birth to the specified date is known as
your chronological age. It represents your age in years, months, days, etc
86. test construction, test administration, and test scoring and interpretation are?
a. sources of error variance
b. the sole responsibility of a test publisher
c. facets according to the true score theory
d. variables affected by inflation of range
 77

For alternate forms reliability, test administration or construction are the sources of error
variance. Things that may affect the test taker's attention or motivation are called test
administrations. There are environmental factors that can prevent test takers from
performing at their best. Factors include: temperature, lighting, and noise in the room.
87. which regards to the samples used to establish within group norms, the single most
important requirement that they should be?
a. gathered locally by the institution of organization that will use them
b. very large, numbering in thousands,
c. representative of the group for which they will be used.
d. convenient to obtain in the process of standardization

A good sample should be a representative subset of the population we are interested

in studying, therefore, with each participant having equal chance of being randomly
selected into the study.
88. Which psychological tests make use of a theory of personality in its construction and
development?
a. Edward’s personal preference schedule
b. Minnesota multiphase personality inventory
c. 16 personality factor test
d. Guilford – Zimmerman temperament survey

Allport's list was examined by Cattell, who reduced it to 171 traits primarily by removing
words that were redundant or uncommon. On Gordon Allport's initial list of personality
traits, which he described, Cattell based his 16 factors. Based on these 16 personality
factors, Cattell created a test. The 16PF Personality Questionnaire is the test, which is
still widely used today.
89. A psychologist developed an instrument that will determine successful marriages.
Using the said instrument she found that 85% of those who scored a T score 70
remained marriages for about 20 years and above and 75% of those who scored
below 30 got annulled or separated in the bed and board. The psychologist
concluded that the test has high:
a. reliability b. validity
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c. normative data d. standardization

How precisely a method assesses something is shown by its validity. A method can be
regarded as valid if it produces findings that closely match actual values and measures
what it purports to measure.
90. The following is a speed test except:
a. SRA c. CFIT
b. RPM d. PNIT

Speed tests are designed to assess how quickly a test taker is able to complete the
items within a set time period. The primary objective of speed tests is to measure the
person's ability to process information quickly and accurately, while under duress.
PNIT is a nonverbal test of 100 items created by Filipinos for Filipino children using an
item format in which S points to one of five illustrations that does not belong with the
other four. According to the findings, children in urban and rural areas require distinct
norms. When testing additional ethnic groups, the structure easily accommodates new
items and an updated analysis.
91. The ____ classmen people according to Carl Jung’s personality types

a. Myer’s Briggs Type Indicator c. MMPI

b. Locus of Control Scale d. TAT

The MBTI test is based on Carl Jung's theories regarding perception, judgment, and
the ways that various personality types use these traits. The purpose of the MBTI
instrument is to determine a person's fundamental preferences for perception and
judgment based on self-reports of quickly identifiable reactions, allowing for the
establishment of each preference's individual and combined impacts through research
and practical application.
92. A person’s accumulation of stored information, called ____ intelligence, generally
____ with age.
a. Fluid; decreases c. Fluid; increases
b. Crystallized; increases d. Crystallized; decreases
 Crystallized intelligence makes use of information gained from earlier education and
experiences. These circumstances frequently call for vocabulary and reading
comprehension. Crystallized intelligence grows more potent as we get older and learn
new things. As a result, it is grounded on reality and experiences. Learning can
increase one's crystallized intelligence since the more knowledge one has gathered,
the more crystallized intelligence one will have. You can deepen your education on a
formal or informal basis to enhance this component of intelligence.
93. Which statement is true?
a. Validity sets the limit on test’s reliability
b. The validity of a test is limited by its reliability
c. The validity of a test is limited only by the test’s inter-rater reliability
d. Validity sets a limit only on test’s inter-rater reliability

Validity will tell you how useful a test is in a specific circumstance; reliability will tell you
how consistent a test result will be. You cannot draw valid conclusions from a test score
unless you are sure that the test is reliable. While proof for validity might be difficult to
come by unless a measure has reasonable validity, reliability and validity are
connected. A measure can have a high level of reliability without any proof that it is
valid.
94. Which of the following is not a Level C test?
a. MMPI-2 c. Bender Test
b. Wechsler Scales d. Rorschach Inkblot Test

Tests and tools in Level C, the category with the most restrictions, call for advanced
training and experience in administration, scoring, and include interpretation. Tests at
Level C would typically consist of any aptitude, language, personality, clinical diagnostic
exam, group or individual. Specifically, test publishers and professional standards
indicate that use of Level C tests for teaching or decision-making purposes requires a
minimum of a Masters and/or Doctoral (Ph.D.) degree in education, psychology or
related discipline. Use of Level C tests generally requires graduate level training in the
specific professional field to which the tests apply (e.g., school, clinical or counseling
psychology).
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95. In psychological testing and measurement, who is the user of a test/psychological

test?
a. Examiner c. Examinee
b. Test Constructor d. Test Developer

A professionally qualified examiner is necessary for psychological testing. A skilled

practitioner, preferably a psychologist or psychiatrist with knowledge in the relevant
field, should administer, score, and interpret any psychological tests.
96. Which of the following procedures does not yield an estimate of the reliability of a
test?
a. Correlating the total of all even-numbered items with the total of all odd-
numbered items.
b. Correlating the total of items in the first half of the test with the of items in the
second half of the test.
c. Finding the average of the correlation of each item with every other item.
d. Correlating each item with the total score on the test.

Several reliability types have names that specify the category of consistency they apply
to. The consistency of test-takers' performance over different testing variations is known
as the alternate-forms reliability. The consistency of the ratings given to the same
responses by various raters is known as interrater reliability (essays, performance
samples, etc.). The concept of stability or the test-retest reliability refers to the
consistency of test-takers' performance over many testing days or periods.
97. The term social desirability when used with respect to construction of a personality
test refers to the fact that?
a. People differ in their tendency to create a favorable impression of
themselves when answering the test item.
b. People differ in how strongly they are drawn to the company of others.
c. People differ in how attractive they find social activities.
d. People differ in terms of their tendency to agree rather than disagree with
personality statements.
 81

The inclination for research participants to try to behave in ways that make them appear
desirable to others is known as social desirability. The validity of study might be
compromised by such efforts to "appear nice to others," especially when participants
are aware that they are being researched. Social desirability, frequently regarded as a
response bias, is frequently linked to self-report questionnaires, although it can also
influence any research based on behavioral observation
98. Transforming test on Psychological test is done primarily to
a. Protect the privacy of the test takers
b. Aid interpretations on the scores
c. Make the scores more manageable
d. Make the score available for research

One factor of Transforming test is converting scores from raw scores into psychological
test is It gives meaning to the scores and allows some kind of interpretation of the
scores. Psychological evaluation and testing are comparable to medical examination in
many aspects. In order to determine what is causing a patient's physical complaints, a
primary care physician may request test. The test findings will be used to establish a
treatment plan. Psychological assessments have the same function. In order to make
a diagnosis and provide therapy, psychologists monitor and watch a patient's behavior
using tests and other assessment instruments (American Psychological Association,
2022).
99. Test construction
a. Is a linear process with one stage following the other without variation
b. Is a relatively inexpensive process
c. Follows a sequence of steps but these steps may need to be retracted from
time to time
d. Can be done quite quickly using moderns computers

According to Niwlikar (2011) The American Psychological Association (APA) defines a

psychological test as any standardized tool, including scales and self-report inventories
that is used to assess a person's behavior or mental characteristics. With this, there are
7 steps in psychological/psychometric test construction they are as follows: (a.)
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Planning the test. (b.) Item writing (c.) Preliminary tryout (d.) Reliability of the test (e.)
Validity of the test (f.) norm of the test (g.) Manual of the test. The test is necessary to
be retraced or revise when new research data, significant changes in the domain, or
new conditions of test use and interpretation suggest that the test is no longer optimal
or fully appropriate for some of its intended uses (American Psychological Association,
2014).
100. Which among the following statements about norms is correct?
a. For every psychological test there is one and only one set of norms
b. The size of the sample used in developing norms is irrelevant once the norm has
been developed
c. Different norms may apply for the different purposes for which a test score
is used
d. Norms are best developed using a criterion referencing approach

The process of creating norms, or the usual performance of a group of people on a

psychological or achievement examination, is referred to as norming. Norms provide
one the ability to meaningfully understand test results and make predictions based on
data. The size and representativeness of the sample are key factors in developing
suitable standards. In order to avoid inaccurate results and subsequent
misinterpretations, norms should be based on representative samples of people from
the test population for which they were intended. This is because when tests are applied
to people for whom they were not intended and who were therefore not included in the
norm group, inaccurate results may occur (Renbarger & Morgan, 2021)
101. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that;
a. The raw score mean on intelligence tests has remained constant over the years
b. The raw score means intelligence test has been increasing over a years
c. The raw score mean intelligence tests has been decreasing over the years
d. The standard deviation of scores on intelligence test has remained constants

According to Trahan, et al. (2014) the term "Flynn effect" refers to the observed
increase over time in standardized test scores that was observed by Flynn in a research
 83

on IQ score increase in the standardization samples of succeeding Stanford-Binet and

Wechsler intelligence tests.
102. Refer to the fact in no. 101 which of the following statements is correct?
a. As regards the three subjects taken by carmen, she performed best in
science
b. With regard to Math, Cynthia perform better than carmen
c. Effra did better than Cynthia in grammar
d. Efra is just an average student

Based on the question in 102 that refers to the answer in 101 which is the (b) the raw
score means intelligence test has been increasing over the years showed that among
the choices the best answer would be (a) as regards the three subjects taken by
Carmen she performed best in science. With this, among the 3 subject the science
subject stood up the most over the years of Carmen taking that three subjects.
103. Still refer on facts no 102. Who had superior performance in science?
a. Carmen
b. Efra
c. Cynthia
d. All of them

According to the options in 102, Carmen did best in science out of the three topics she
chose.
104. Which of the following coefficients represent the strongest degree of correlation
between variables?

a. –80 c. 0
b. +80 d. .60

The strongest connection is taken into account when the value is closest to +1 (positive
correlation) or -1 (negative correlation), in accordance with the rule of correlation
coefficients. As a result, we may infer from the possibilities that -80 is the value that is
most close to -1 and that no other value is closer to either -1 or +1 than that. It is hence
more adversely connected (Cuemath, 2021).
 84

105. The form class interval is best associated with?

a. A socioeconomic status of a sample test takers
b. A frequency distribution of test takers score
c. A grouped frequency distribution of test takers scores
d. Measure of central tendency

In a frequency distribution, the numerical width of a class is referred to as the class

interval. Data is organized into classes in a grouped frequency distribution. The class
interval is determined by the difference between the upper and lower class limits
(Cuemath, 2020).
106. Which is a criterion-referenced test?
a. The final condition in Your Face Sounds Familiar
b. An examination for entry into a faculty union
c. A teacher made bid term examination scored on a curve
d. All of the above

Renaissance (2018), criterion-referenced tests compare a person’s knowledge or skills

against a predetermined standard, learning goal, performance level, or other criterion.
With criterion-referenced tests, each person’s performance is compared directly to the
standard, without considering how other students perform on the test. Criterion-
referenced tests often use “cut scores” to place students into categories such as
“basic,” “proficient,” and “advanced.”
107. This validity is demonstrated when a measure is NOT related to variables with
which it should not be related?

a. Convergent c. Concurrent
b. Differentiation d. Discriminant

Nikolopoulou (2022), discriminant validity is a subtype of construct validity. In other

words, it shows you how well a test measures the concept it was designed to measure.
Discriminant validity specifically measures whether constructs that theoretically should
not be related to each other are, in fact, unrelated.
 85

108. Dr. L reviewed a measurement scale designed to measure extroversion and said
that it appeared to measure extroversion. The measure has:
a. Face c. Internal
b. Convergent d. Predictive

Face Validity is about whether a test appears to measure what it’s supposed to
measure. This type of validity is concerned with whether a measure seems relevant
and appropriate for what it’s assessing on the surface
109. An assessment center is
a. A place where assessments are conducted.
b. A place where assessments information is collated.
c. An index of central tendency for a large number assessment
d. Comprised of many different activities.

The Open University (n.d), assessment centres are a great way for employers to
evaluate how you respond to different situations, tasks and tests. Assessors can
observe first-hand how you behave and work within a team, how you approach
assignments and how you apply your skills and knowledge during a variety of activities.
110. An examinee who sacrifice speed for accuracy emphasizing?
a. Quality over quantity
b. Quantity over quality.
c. Reliability over validity
d. Relevance over determination

Ackerman & Ellingsen (2016), later investigators were better aware of the potential
measurement issues associated with the fact that individuals could trade-off accuracy
for speed on some tests. That is, there is a fundamental dependence between how
rapidly one completes test items and how accurate (correct) the answers are. Most
researchers attempted to grapple with this issue by trying to equalize performance of
individuals who adopted different speed-accuracy tradeoff strategies. For example,
discussions have been accorded to determining the ‘best’ (from reliability and validity
perspectives) methods for computing the total score for multiple-choice tests.
Numerous alternate formulas have been proposed. Such formulas typically either
 86

provide no credit for incorrect responses or impose a penalty in an attempt to ‘correct

for guessing’ on other items for which one can reasonably infer the examinee did not
actually know the correct answer, but managed to guess correctly (see Lord, 1975, for
a review; see also Diamond & Evans, 1973).
111. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A phi coefficient is used to establish the relationship between the score in
polytomous scale and a dichotomous.
b. A phi coefficient is used when establish the relationship between there those who
answered true in every item and the total score in the 10 item quiz.
c. A phi coefficient is used when establishing relationship between the
response in the dichotomous scale among the male and female
respondents.
d. A phi coefficient is used when establishing relationship between the response in
the polytomous scale of participants from urban and rural locality.

American Psychological Association (2023), (symbol: φ) a measure of association for

two dichotomous or binary random variables. The phi coefficient is the product-moment
correlation coefficient when both variables are coded (0, 1). For example, the phi
coefficient could be used to examine the relationship between gender (male [0] and
female [1]) and left- (0) or right-handedness (1). A table could be constructed to record
the frequency of people with a 0 on both variables (i.e., left-handed males), a 1 on both
variables (i.e., right-handed females), a 0 on the first variable and a 1 on the other (i.e.,
right-handed males), and vice versa (i.e., left-handed females). The pairs of responses
on the variables could then be analyzed and a phi coefficient calculated to determine
whether any relationship exists.
112. It is considered as the breakthrough in the creation of modern tests.
a. The development of the Woodworth's Personal data Sheet.
b. The development of the Simon -Binet Intelligence Test.
c. The use in China of the tests for selection of public officials.
d. The use of the tests in Greece to further educational system.
 87

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale was first developed in 1905 by French

psychologist Alfred Binet and his collaborator Theodore Simon to test the attention,
memory, and verbal skill of schoolchildren and thereby measure their intelligence. It
was revised in 1908 and 1911.
”The Stanford-Binet is one of the first examples of an adaptive test. Examiners use the
information they have about an examinee to determine where to begin testing and
administer only those items that are appropriate for that examinee…. One element of
test structure that appears throughout the history of the Stanford-Binet is that of point
scales and age scales. A point scale is the currently widespread arrangement of tests
into subtests, with all items of a given type administered together. Age scales, long a
part of the Stanford-Binet format…was used to provide a direct translation of the child’s
performance to mental age.”
113. Convergent validity is intended to explain what relationship is?
a. Premise from conclusion
b. The degree to which an operation is similar to other operations
c. Scores on a test can be correlated with scores on any other test
d. High correlations between random test scores.

Convergent validity refers to how closely a test is related to other tests that assess the
same (or similar) constructs. A construct is a behavior, attitude, or notion that is not
directly observable.
114. It refers to the average of all test scores in a distribution.

a. Mean c. Median
b. Mode d. Percentile

Mean (or average) and median are two statistical terms that serve a similar purpose in
determining the center tendency of a group of statistical values.
The mean is the arithmetic average of a group of numbers, often known as a
distribution. It is the most widely used measure of a set of numbers' central tendency.
115. Coefficient alpha is also known as:
a. Chronback’s Alpha c. Kronbach’s Alpha
b. Chronbach’s Alpha d. Chrobach’s Alpha
Lee Cronbach established Cronbach's alpha (or coefficient alpha) in 1951 to measure
reliability or internal consistency.
Cronbach's alpha tests are used to determine the reliability of multiple-question Likert
scale surveys. These questions assess latent variables, which are hidden or
unobservable characteristics such as a person's conscientiousness, neurosis, or
openness.
116. The most frequently used coefficient of correlation is:
a. Standard Deviation c. ANOVA
b. Pearson’s R d. Chi-square

Pearson's r is the most often used correlation coefficient since it provides conclusive
results. It is parametric and is used to measure linear relationships.
117. An attribute, trait or characteristic from overt behavior is called:
a. Construct c. State
b. Concept d. Standard

Overt behavior refers to human behaviors that may be observed in some way. Our
physical movements (e.g., shaking a friend's hand, slapping a person, dancing,
walking, etc.), verbal behaviors (everything we say), and facial or bodily gestures are
all examples of overt behaviors since they can be seen or heard.
118. It is the machine that measures the brain activity while asleep.

a. Electromyography c. Electroencephalograph
b. Echoencephalograph d. Sphygmomanometer

An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test that uses small metal discs (electrodes)

connected to the scalp to examine electrical activity in the brain. Brain cells interact by
electrical impulses and are constantly active, even while sleeping.
119. What is the machine that measures electrical activity of the muscles?
a. Electromyography c. Electroencephalograph
b. Echoencephalograph d. Doppler
The electromyogram (EMG) analyzes the electrical activity-induced response of
muscles and nerves. It is used to assist diagnose illnesses that may cause muscle
weakness, such as muscular dystrophy and nerve problems.
120. These are the abilities which consist of nonverbal and culture free.
a. Crystallized Intelligence
b. Three Stratum Theory of Cognitive Abilities
c. Fluid Intelligence
d. Emotional Intelligence

Fluid intelligence indicates adaptability and the capacity to understand abstractly. It is

thought to be a mainly nonverbal and culture-free, or independent of life experiences,
kind of mental efficiency that represents a person's intrinsic ability to learn and solve
issues.
121. A theory of intelligence that relies on how information is processed.
a. Information Processing Style
b. Cross Battery Assessment
c. Two-Factor Theory
d. Correlation Matrix

“The Information processing style is a theory that attempts to explain how information
is encoded into our memories. The basic concept of this style states that human beings
process the information that they receive. First, the information will be received by
through our senses. The information is then processed and stored within the memory
until such time comes that the information encoded is needed to be retrieved
(Bouchrika, 2023).”
122. The collections of items to be further evaluated for the final version of the test is
____.
a. Item Pool c. Item Analysis
b. Item Bank d. Item Sampling

“An Item Pool is defined as the set of items where the final version of the test will be
based on. When drafting items for a test, it’s advisable for testers to come up with a
 90

number of items double than the items of the final version of the test. This helps a lot in
a test’s content validity as it will indicate results on whether which items are effective
and not so effective for the final version of the test (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2013).”
123. The middle score in the distribution is _____.
a. Mean c. Mode
b. Median d. Range

“The median is defined the value considered to be the middle ground in a set of
numbers. This indicates that in order for a value to be considered as the median, half
of the values in a group of numbers should be less than the median while also having
the other half of the set to have greater values (Tenny & Hoffman, 2022).
124. It is a symmetrical distribution of scores that when graphed looks like a bell-
shaped.
a. Norm
b. Mean
c. Normal Curve
d. Mode

“A normal curve is defined as a type of frequency distribution where the values of a set
take place in the middle and de-escalate on the sides. The values in the middle of a
normal curve can be considered true if the measures of central tendencies occur at the
highest point of the curve.”
125. It refers to two or more forms or versions of the same tests.

a. Parallel Forms c. Pattern Analysis

b. Homogeneity d. Heterogeneity

“Parallel forms is defined as the degree of correlation between two equivalent types of
a test. It’s used mostly when there are 2 separate types of a test that measure the same
variables (Middleton, 2019).”
126. Memory for how to do things or perform certain functions called _______.
a. Declarative Memory c. Procedural Memory
b. Working Memory d. Long Time Memory
“Is defined as a long term type of memory that enables humans to perform different
tasks and specific skills. Procedural Memories start as early as childhood by enabling
humans to learn basic motor skills such as walking, talking, eating and playing (Cherry,
2023).”
127. It is a method or procedure for evaluation and scoring.
a. Protocol c. Assessment
b. Profiling d. Norming

“Assessment in psychology is defined as the process of expressing individual’s mental

health and behavioral patterns by interpreting results acquired through the use or
standardized tests and observations administered by the assessors (Farley, 2020).”
128. It reflects a simple tally or basic score calculated in a test performance.
a. Rating Scale
b. Raw score
c. Range
d. Performance Assessment

The original score or observation, sometimes known as a "raw score," has not yet
undergone any transformation. The raw score is a statistic that helps in gauging the
unedited data. Unlike other types of data, the raw score data has not been weighted,
altered, calculated, changed, or converted. The raw data set refers to the raw score's
whole unedited data set.
129. The extent to which the test is self-consistent or stable is called
a. Reliability
b. Scoring
c. Validity
d. Interpretation

The consistency and predictability of an assessment tool's results is referred to as

reliability.
130. The science of psychological measurement is,
a. Biospychological
b. Clinical
 92

c. Biospychosocial
d. Psychometrics

Psychological measurement is often referred to as psychometrics.

131. Analysis that provides information on two variables or group is called.
a. Bivariate Analysis
b. Multivariate Analysis
c. Exploratory Factor Analysis
d. Measurement of Central Tendency

Bivariate analysis is the process of analyzing two variables to ascertain their

correlations. In quality of life research, bivariate analyses are frequently presented. For
a great example of research that makes use of bivariate analyses and shows how the
findings of bivariate analyses may be utilized to guide more in-depth, sophisticated
investigations, go here. Michalos, Thommasen, Read, Anderson, and Zumbo (2005).
In order to ascertain whether there is a statistical link between two variables, the
strength of the association, and whether one variable can be predicted from another,
bivariate studies are used. Bivariate analyses, for instance, could be used to determine
whether there is a relationship between income and quality of life or whether it is
possible to forecast quality of life.
132. A is to A as to o is to a./ b B c.> d.O. This is an example of hypothetical is called:
a. Aptitude test c. Achievement test
b. Personality test d. Interest test

An aptitude test is used to assess a person's skills or to predict what they will be able
to learn or achieve given the right instruction and direction. A person's capacity for
picking up new skills is predicted by an aptitude test. It demonstrates a person's
aptitude for a given activity type.
133. CAPA is an acronym that stands for:
a. Computer Assisted Psychological Adaptation
b. Computer Assisted Psychological Assessment
c. Career Assisted Potential Aptitude
d. Checklist Adaptive Personality Assessment
 93

The important studies, as well as the ethical and legal concerns related to the use of
computers in psychological evaluation are also explored in Computer-Assisted
Psychological Assessment, which examines the history and evolution of computer use
in the assessment process.
134. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Criterion-Referenced Testing and Assessment
b. Domain Referenced Testing and Assessment Content Referenced
c. Testing and Assessment
d. Norm Referenced Testing and Assessment

Domain-referenced examination
an assessment that covers a specific area of study such that a score will reveal how
much of this area has been mastered. This is analogous to a criterion-referenced test,
in which a content area is mapped and scores reflect whether a specific standard or
criterion has been met. Thus, if an individual got 90% of the items correct on a domain-
referenced or criterion-referenced test, this would be a high score indicating his or her
in-depth knowledge and understanding of the test's content. These tests are
distinguished from norm-referenced tests, in which scores indicate how well a test taker
performed on the items in comparison to other test takers. While the Testing and
Assessment Tests are administered by a psychologist, the results will be analyzed to
determine the cause, severity, and duration of your symptoms.
135. Which of the following is NOT included in measuring the ratio IQ?
a. Mental Age c. Chronological Age
b. 100 d. Individual Performance

To determine an individual's IQ, multiply their mental age by their chronological age,
then multiply that result by 100.
136. A laboratory study was designed to research a phobia of snakes in the wild. This
is an example is:
a. Severity error c. Discriminant analysis
b. Central tendency error d. Leniency error
Answer: Analogue Study (not included in the choices)
Analogue study is a research or behavioral intervention that replicates a variable or
variables in ways that are similar to or analogous to the real variables the experimenter
wishes to study; for example, a laboratory study designed to research a phobia of
snakes in the wild (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 438)
137. He was the one who developed the two-factor theory of intelligence in 1904.
a. Howard Gardner c. Jean Piaget
b. Charles Spearman d. Alfred Binet

As early as 1904, the British psychologist Charles Spearman pioneered new techniques
to measure intercorrelations between tests. He found that measures of intelligence
tended to correlate to various degrees with each other. This theory is sometimes
referred to as a two-factor theory of intelligence, with g representing the portion of the
variance that all intelligence tests have in common and the remaining portions of the
variance being accounted for either by specific components ( s ) or by error components
( e ) of this general factor (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 276)
138. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Tailored Testing c. Sequential Testing

b. Branched Testing d. Objective Personality

The SB5 is exemplary in terms of what is called adaptive testing, or testing individually
tailored to the testtaker. Other terms used to refer to adaptive testing include tailored
testing, sequential testing, branched testing, and response-contingent testing (Cohen
& Swerdlik, 2018, p. 294).
139. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Item Response Theory c. Latent-Trait Model
b. Latent-Trait Theory d. Item Characteristic Curve

Item response theory (IRT) is also referred to as latent-trait theory or the latent-trait
model, a system of assumptions about measurement (including the assumption that a
trait being measured by a test is unidimensional) and the extent to which each test item
measures the trait (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 164, 166–169). While Item
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Characteristic Curve is a plot of the probability that a test item is answered correctly
against the examinee’s underlying ability on the trait being measured.
140. The client who’s trying to project being fake good or fake bad is an attempt which
tries to manipulate others. This process is called:
a. Impression Management c. Discriminant Analysis
b. Divergent Thinking d. Discriminant Evidence

Impression management is a term used to describe the attempt to manipulate others’

impressions through “the selective exposure of some information (it may be false
information) coupled with suppression of [other] information” (Braginsky et al., 1969, p.
51 in Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 367).
141. These are specific and distinguished features or characteristics of an individual.
a. Character c. Attitude
b. Personality d. Trait

A trait has been defined as “any distinguishable, relatively enduring way in which one
individual varies from another” (Guilford, 1959, p. 6 in Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018, p. 115)
142. It refers to the standard measure of performance against which a test or a score
is evaluated.
a. Construct c. Cognitive Test
b. Criterion d. Cultural Relativity

A criterion is defined as a standard on which a judgment or decision may be based.

Criterion-referenced testing and assessment may be defined as a method of evaluation
and a way of deriving meaning from test scores by evaluating an individual’s score with
reference to a set standard. The criterion in criterion-referenced assessments typically
derives from the values or standards of an individual or organization. (Cohen &
Swerdlik, 2018, p. 136).
143. It is a family of statistical techniques which is used to shed light on the
relationship between certain variables
a. Method of predictive yield
b. Mapping method
c. Discriminant analysis
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d. Job analysis

Discriminant analysis (DA) is a multivariate technique which is utilized to divide two or

more groups of observations (individuals) premised on variables measured on each
experimental unit (sample) and to discover the impact of each parameter in dividing the
groups.
144. It refers to a tool used to pinpoint students' difficulty or area of deficit usually for
remedial purposes or intervention.
a. Achievement test
b. Aptitude test
c. Diagnostic test
d. IQ test

Diagnostic Test, as used in educational contexts (and related phrases such as

diagnostic purposes ) is typically applied to tests or test data used to pinpoint a student's
difficulty, usually for remedial purposes.
145. What does DSM-5 stand for?
a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders fifth edition
b. Diagnostic and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders fifth edition
c. Diagnostic and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders fifth rendition
d. Diagnostic and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders sixth edition

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, (DSM-5) was
the product of more than 10 years of effort by hundreds of international experts in all
aspects of mental health.
146. It is a group of test hand-picked by the assessor relevant to some purpose
a. Flexible battery
b. Performance assessment
c. Fixed battery
d. Clinical assessment
In a flexible battery, a variety of tests are chosen and administered (thus, the term
"battery") based on the neuropsychologist's assessment of the patient's presenting
complaints. There isn't a single adaptable battery that all neuropsychologists use.

147. It focuses more on informal learning or life experiences

a. Aptitude test
b. Perpetual test
c. Achievement test
d. Power test

Perceptual test is a memory test that involves processing the surface features of a
stimulus. Perceptual tests can be used to measure implicit memory, as in word-stem
completion in which participants are given sets of introductory letters and asked to form
complete words using the first words that come to mind. Such tests can also be used
to measure explicit memory, as in the graphemic cued-recall test in which participants
are given cues that are similar in physical appearance to the target item but differ in
meaning (e.g., fickle as a cue for freckle). Compare conceptual tests.
148. It is an error in measurement when the test taker does not possess a particular
behavior or trait when in fact the test taker does not
a. False positive c. False negative
b. True positive d. True negative

A case that is incorrectly excluded from a group by the test used to determine inclusion.
In diagnostics, for example, a false negative is an individual who, in reality, has a
particular condition but whom the diagnostic instrument indicates does not have the
condition. In inferential statistics, a false negative is also referred to as a Type II error.
149. The practice of norming on the basis of race or ethnic background is called ___?
a. Age norm c. Grade norms
b. Race norming d. Local norms
Race-norming, more formally called within-group score conversion and score
adjustment strategy, is the practice of adjusting test scores to account for the race or
ethnicity of the test-taker.
150. In test construction, it is a process of setting rules for assigning numbers in
measurement
a. Validity c. Range
b. Reliability d. Scaling

Scaling may be defined as the process of setting rules for assigning numbers in
measurement. In psychometrics, scales may also be conceived of as instruments used
to measure a trait, a state, or an ability.
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Industrial-Organizational Psychology

1. How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?

a. Situational interviews utilize predetermined situational questions and answers
b. Situation and behavioral interviews do not really differ.
c. Situation interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a
hypothetical situation
d. Behavioral interviews ask applicant to their emotions in different hypothetical
situation.

Situational interviews ask hypothetical questions about the future, whereas behavioral
interview questions focus on the past. Employers can compare the responses of all
candidates by placing them in the same hypothetical situations.
2. The CEO of Rosario Industries is considering hiring internally to fill vacant positions.
Which of the following disadvantage of using internal sources?
a. High commitment to the company.
b. Accurate view of skills sets.
c. Potential to upset or lose employees who aren't promoted.
d. Knowledge of candidates ' strengths and weakness.

Internal hiring may result in tension among managers and employees. If a coworker or
outside applicant ends up getting the job, employees who were considered for the
position could feel resentful. Managers may even go so far as to obstruct the transfer
or promotion process since they find it difficult to lose good team members.
3. The training director for a company providing training for its Thirty customer service
representatives wants to undertake a needs analysis. What is the best way to gather
information about customer service problems and solutions since the
representatives are located at headquarters?
a. Review employee records to define past customer service problems.
b. Form an advisory committee consisting of customer service, training and
operations managers.
c. Ask customer service representatives to fill out questionnaires related to
their training needs.
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d. Conduct a series of focus groups with customer service representatives

The process of identifying the needs, also referred to as "gaps," between present and
intended outcomes is called a needs assessment. When appropriately applied, this
assessment offers insightful information about the procedures followed by the team and
identifies areas where efficiency can be increased.
An excellent technique to examine and interpret relevant information is through a needs
assessment. One must comprehend both the fundamental requirements of the team
and the ultimate objective of the process in order to accomplish this. Prior to making a
choice, consider whose viewpoint you are seeking because it may affect your process.
Needs analyses give teams vital information about current processes and aid in the
creation of more efficient systems.
Here are the top three techniques for gathering information for needs assessments:
• Questionnaires
• Survey
• Focus Group
4. Which of the following is considered to be one of the most prominent obstacles
encountered when an organization desires to start self-manage teams?
a. Inexperienced employees c. Lack of management involvement
b. Insufficient training d. Information technology

For an organization to succeed, training is essential. The kinds of training options

offered will vary depending on your organization, but providing educational chances at
work has several advantages. You run a risk of the following by downplaying the
significance of workplace training:
• reduced productivity
• unhappy and dissatisfied workers,
• unsafe work environments
• staff turnover
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5. Indigo, the supervisor of the manufacturing department is in the process of

evaluating his staff performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be
identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average
performers, and 15% as poor performers Indigo is using a method:
a. Graphic rating scale c. Alteration ranking
b. Paired comparison d. Forced distribution

One of the most popular and heavily criticized methods of assessing performance is
forced distribution. Companies utilize this rating method to assess their workforces all
around the world. It calls for the supervisor to rank each employee into three or more
categories after evaluating each one according to a set of predetermined criteria. Most
frequently, personnel fall into excellent, good, or poor categories; however, the
company may also use a 5-point scale. It was first adopted by General Electric in the
1980s, under Jack Welch, who was notorious for routinely reducing GE's staff by
eliminating underperformers.
6. Fast Car is a manufacturing unit dealing with the manufacturing of car accessories.
Currently, it is not doing well because of tough market competition and financial
crisis. The Manager, Mr. Mendoza is worried because of decreasing interest of
employees and low productivity. What step could he take to improve the situation?
a. Introduce monetary incentives.
b. Reduce the employee’s strength to cut costs.
c. Introduce certain recognition programmers.
d. Suggest the management to sell the unit.

Most employers use monetary incentives to motivate employees in meeting their

targets. Money plays a big role in satisfying the needs of a person and as that being
said it can be a maintenance factor
7. Rey uses a group comprised of between five-twenty members to get jobs performed
in the fastest and most efficient way possible. Mr. Cabrera usually permits this group
to have a moderate amount of authority over their work and allows the group itself to
determine the mission it will pursue. As the organization's manager, he has little
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involvement in directing the group. Which type of group is most probably formed at
this organization?
a. Virtual team c. Self-managed work team
b. Advisory d. Cross-functional team

A Self-managed work team is a team of workers who are in charge of all or the majority
of the tasks involved in creating a product or providing a service.
8. The president of the union, Mr. Liam San Jose informs the management of a
mandatory issue to be discussed during a collective bargaining session. What might
this issue be:
a. Number of new hires
b. Wage rates
c. Pricing strategy for new products
d. Product design

Most employers use monetary incentives to motivate employees in meeting their

targets. Money plays a big role in satisfying the needs of a person and as that being
said it can be a maintenance factor
9. Under which condition below is it acceptable for employee of the opposite sex to
receive different pay for doing roughly equivalent work?
a. When the difference exists despite similar responsibility.
b. When the difference exists because of a merit system.
c. When the difference exists despite equal effort. d. When the difference exists
despite of a skills.

Answer: It is never acceptable

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 is a U.S. law that forbids paying men and women who labor
under comparable conditions and whose jobs require the same level of ability, effort,
and responsibility different compensation.
10. There are ten training programs which the director wishes to implement during the
coming year. But due to the effects of the recession on the company, director's
training budget has been reduced by 30 percent. The directors realize he will not be
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able to conduct all these training efforts and he must prioritize them in order to -
reduce the number. Director's should prioritize these training programs based on:
a. The cost per trainee of the program
b. The organizational strategies objectives
c. The quantifiability of program criteria
d. The number of requests he had from employees & managers for types of
training.

To deliver a training session, the director must first determine the organization’s specific
training needs. Many organizations create training sessions when they identify an
unmet need, whether it be for knowledge or skills.
11. The major benefit of off-site training programs is that:
a. The training facilities are usually more comfortable
b. The training can be provided by outside experts
c. There is more space for the training to take place
d. Job related distraction can be minimized

Employers can reduce distractions by holding training sessions away from the office so
that employees can concentrate entirely on the material they are studying. Off-site
training is commonly utilized when participants are traveling from different cities that
are not close to one another. This strategy can also offer a less stressful environment
in a location away from the office, enabling a better concentration on the training itself.
12. Marc's job as leader operator for Hard Street Company permits him to work 10 hours
per day. Monday through Thursday. This demonstrates Marc's utilization of a(n)
a. Flexible work schedule
b. Organizational culture
c. Compressed work schedule
d. Staffing development

An individual who works a compressed schedule can complete a standard 35–40 hour
workweek in fewer than five working days. A full-time worker, for instance, could work
four 10-hour days as opposed to five 8-hour days. Reduced work weeks can increase
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coverage of the work area and the number of hours available to serve both internal and
external clients.
13. HRD Supervisor Marcie is considering including self-rating in the performance
appraisal. The HRD should be cautioned that?
a. Interpreter reliability is higher.
b. Appraisals are subject to halo effect.
c. Ratings are higher than when rated by supervisors.
d. Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

Employee self-appraisals frequently suffer from leniency (Beehr et al., 2001), only
moderately correspond with real performance (Zell & Krizan, 2014), and perform
poorly when compared to subordinates. Employees react poorly to negative feedback
and doubt its accuracy when peer ratings are lower than self-ratings (Brett & Atwater,
2001).
14. The management consulting group Laura contracted to analyze how to increase
productivity in her insurance company just suggested that one action Laura should
take immediately is to try to determine the outcomes or rewards of each one of her
employees' value. The consulting group is suggesting that Laura use the ____
theory (model) to motivate her employees to increase performance.
a. Maslow's needs hierarchy c. Herzberg's two-factor
b. Equity d. Expectancy

In contrast to Maslow and Herzberg, Vroom emphasizes and concentrates on

outcomes rather than needs. According to the theory, an individual's predisposition to
act in a certain way is influenced by how strongly they expect their actions to result in
a specific outcome and how appealing those results are to them. According to the
expectation theory, a person's desire for a reward determines how motivated they are
at work (Valence), the evaluation of the likelihood that an effort will result in the desired
performance (Expectancy) and the certainty that the desired performance will be
rewarded (Instrumentality).
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15. During the maturity stage of a business's organizational life cycle the firm:
a. Uses its compensation system to retain its employees
b. Makes stock options available to a limited number of employees.
c. Provides few short-term incentives for employees.
d. Offers a base salary that is at or below market level.

During the maturity stage, companies have accumulated a significant quantity of assets
and are well-known in the marketplace. They have a huge market share and are cash
cows. In addition to formal measurements for bonus plans, job descriptions and grades,
merit pay systems, and a full range of perks, official compensation programs are
implemented. Workers in business units with rapid development and those in crucial
roles could receive more pay than those in units with slower growth. Line of sight
determines stock eligibility, with higher levels receiving more options.
16. Judy is a single mother of two. One of the biggest challenges in the job market is
a. Getting a sufficient salary
b. Finding permanent job position
c. Balancing work and family life
d. Getting access to the internet to search job sites

In today's workplaces, finding a healthy balance between one's profession and life
outside of work has proven to be particularly difficult for single parents who must take
care of their children's social, economic, and health needs. Due to the necessity to
divide their time between employment, childcare duties, and leisure pursuits, single
parents often struggle (Edubirdie, 2022).
17. In order to prepare a comprehensive job analysis, an organization needs to survey
or interview job incumbents as well as;
a. Supervisors and job analysis
b. Supervisors and job applicants
c. Supervisors, job analysis and customers
d. Job applicants, human resource personnel and managers

Even while human resources (HR) may obtain some job analysis data from incumbents,
it's crucial to remember that when assessing a job, the work itself, and the person
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performing it, is the focus of the analysis. The panel members select the KSAs
necessary to meet the competences, and HR scores it (Society of Human Resource
Management, 2023).
18. Which of the following are particular benefits the team works to the organization
rather than the individual?
a. Learning skills from others.
b. Increased Motivation
c. Job Enrichment
d. Transfer of skills and technical expertise

Research demonstrates that group problem-solving produces superior results. If they

have a team behind them, people are more inclined to take calculated risks that result
in innovation. Working as a team promotes development of the individual as they learn
from others, boosts job satisfaction, and lessens stress (Middleton, 2022).
19. Which of the following statements would you ask if you were to conduct a behavioral
interview?
a. Employees in the division are frequently under a great deal of stress. How would
you think you would handle the stress of the position?
b. Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation
c. We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you
go about a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?
d. Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the
company. What would you do?

According to Development Dimension International (2021) a structured interviewing

method known as "behavioral interviewing" was developed on the theory that previous
conduct might predict future behavior. In a behavioral interview, the applicant offers
specific instances of how they applied particular attitudes or abilities at work
20. If an organization was considering using some form of a test as a part of the
selection process the choice would depend on:
a. Company policy, type of job, applied cost of test.
b. Cost, ability of HR manager to administer tests, candidate’s personality.
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c. Management commitment, business strategy, HR managers perception of the

test usefulness.
d. Qualification of candidate, business strategy, HR managers perception of the
test’s usefulness.

Before interviews and testing begin, criteria should be established based on specific
test results and expectations. If any test is to be used as a criterion for measuring a
candidate, this should be disclosed to each interviewer and HR personnel. After a
successful interview, a number of exams might be administered. These job
assessments, such as cognitive tests, ability tests, and aptitude tests to determine the
applicant's personality, can compare a person's KSAOs against those of another
candidate (Society of Human Resource Management, 2022).
21. As a training manager, your best strategy for reducing the problems of transfer of
training is.
a. To have the trainee practice the learning longer in each training session.
b. To have the trainee develop an action plan for implementing the new
learning.
c. To provide more immediate feedback during the training period
d. To lengthen the training time over additional training periods

A learning action plan is a plan that the learner completes as part of their training. It
defines their objectives for how they will employ their newly acquired talents or abilities.
A learning action plan is useful in assisting the learner in retaining and practicing their
information after they have completed their course. Peer-to-peer exercises can also be
used in action plans to increase engagement between coworkers and their supervisors
or managers in order to solidify learning in the workplace.
22. The A manager may choose to have a larger group of new employee trainees are
smaller group. He has worked carefully with the HR department to coordinate
employees, lecture style training program. If he chooses to train a larger group in a
effort to save time, money for organization. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Classrooms must be used to accommodate a large group to be trained.
b. Small rooms must be used to accommodate a large group to be trained.
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c. It does not matter where the training program is held.

d. Office space of each employee can be used to accommodate a large group

With the lecture method, one person discusses various aspects of a programme. The
lecture system can provide technical or specific knowledge in a straightforward manner.
Audio-visual aids can be utilized to make the course more understandable and exciting
for the learners. This strategy is useful when training a large number of trainees at once.
23. Due to budgetary constraints, PJS Freight Systems decided to conduct their own
performance appraisal instead of sourcing it out. The two basic considerations their
HRD should consider are:
a. What to measure and how to measure
b. When to measure and what to measure.
c. What to measure and who should measure
d. Who should measure and when to measure
• A performance appraisal is a regular review of an employee’s job performance
and contribution to a company.
• Performance appraisals are also called annual reviews, performance reviews
or evaluations, or employee appraisals.
• Companies use performance appraisals to determine which employees have
contributed the most to the company’s growth, review progress, and reward
high-achieving workers.
24. At a large on- line catalog retail company, the manager listens in on calls handled by
customer representatives to make sure that the customers are greeted politely,
orders are taken accurately, order details are repeated to the customer and that
customers are thanked for their orders. This is a based type of performance
information:
a. Trait c. Results
b. Productivity d. Behavior

Behaviour is how someone acts. It is what a person does to make something happen,
to make something change or to keep things the same. Behaviour is a response to
things that are happening:
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- internally - thoughts and feelings

- externally - the environment, including other people.
1. the manner of conducting oneself
2. (a) anything that an organism does involving action and response to
stimulation; (b) the response of an individual, group, or species to its
environment
25. A man designed a performance appraisal instrument that focuses on an employee's
ability to identify and analyze problems " or to "maintain harmonious and effective
working relationships ." That instrument is focused on measuring:
a. Employee competency
b. Generic dimensions of performance
c. Achievement of objective
d. Performance of actual duties
When developing a performance dimension, you begin with the job and specify the
range of behaviors that employees must display in order to achieve or exceed job
requirements. These behaviors are then classified into broad categories called
"dimensions," which assist answer the question, "How does someone act and/or
behave when s/he accomplishes the job well?””
Because dimensions are wide categories, a certain dimension usually applies to each
individual who works in a specific job. Dimensions that apply to all employees in a group
are also available for departments, units, and even entire companies.
Some examples of performance factors, in addition to good interpersonal skills, are:
• Attention to Client Service
• Teamwork
• Clear Communication
• Embracing Diversity
• Problem-solving and analysis
• Making Decisions and Getting Outcomes
• Adaptability
• Creating a Secure and Safe Environment
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26. What is the best conclusion you can make about job satisfaction in today’s
workforce?
a. Most people are at least somewhat satisfied with their jobs most of the time
b. Most people are not satisfied with their jobs most of the time
c. It isn’t an importance issue for managers to consider
d. The only real concern is pay

Wages aren't the sole factor in employee job satisfaction, but they're near to the top of
the list. Competitive compensation makes employees feel appreciated and reduces
their motivation to hunt for job elsewhere.
27. Which statement about job satisfaction, job performance relationship is most true
based on research?
a. A productive worker well rewarded for performance will be a happy worker
b. There is no relationship between being happy and being productive in a job
c. A happy worker will be a productive worker
d. A productive worker will be a happy worker

A comprehensive research of happiness and productivity showed that happy people

are 13% more productive. When employees are dissatisfied with their employment or
their employers, they are less likely to show up on time, create less, and the quality of
their work declines. According to a 2011 Harvard Business Review study, employees'
levels of pleasure have a significant influence on their creativity, productivity,
dedication, and collegiality.
28. In a defined benefit plan,
a. Survivors will receive the benefits if the employee dies before the retirement,
funds are paid out
b. Benefits received upon retirement vary by the employee’s age & length of
service
c. Employees can receive a lump sum amount on retirement
d. Benefits begin when the employee’s turn sixty-five

A defined benefit plan gives financial benefits to a retired employee based on a formula
that has been created and is well known well in advance of retirement. Typically, the
 111

formula includes criteria like years of service, age, and the employee's income. Unlike
a traditional pension system, where the amount paid out in retirement is determined by
the company's investment performance, a defined benefit plan provides a fixed amount
based on a formula. A defined benefit plan can be given as a supplement to other
retirement savings plans, such as a 401(k), or as the exclusive retirement benefit
option.
29. Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into
discussing, shaping and agreeing on ___ which then improves direction and
guidance under any and all conditions.
a. A common purpose
b. Allocation of roles
c. The level of individual contribution
d. Developing team efficiency

The majority of the work in a business is done by teams of workers. As a result, it is

critical for individuals to have the abilities required to collaborate effectively with others.
A team is a collection of people who work together to achieve a common purpose.
30. Mendoza Consulting Forms employs sixty five individuals. She allows her
employees to outline their work schedules and only requires that each employee
report to work on Monday and Friday from 9:00 a.m. until 3:00 p.m. Miss Mendoza is
utilizing a(n):
a. Compressed work schedule
b. Job enrichment approach
c. Ineffective employee benefit system
d. Flexible employee work schedule

Flexible work arrangements, as an alternative to the standard 9-5, 40-hour workweek

schedule, provide employees the freedom to work when and when they choose.
31. Joe is unhappy with his new job as a first line supervisor at the call center. He
dislikes trying to motivate his subordinates to increase their productivity. He is
dreading having to give the upcoming performance appraisals to his subordinates.
Joe finds the job boring and watches the clock all afternoon, longing for the end of
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his shift. He is planning to apply for another job either within the organization or
outside. Joe is experiencing:
a. Poor person job fit
b. Burnout
c. Poor person organization fit
d. The result of negligent hiring

A Poor Person Job Fit occurs when a person is assigned to a position that doesn't align
with their natural talents or their professional and personal needs. When an individual
is a good fit for a job, team members and themselves are more likely to be effective,
content, and loyal. While those who work in positions they aren't suited for on the other
hand, frequently exhibit lower levels of productivity, happiness, and loyalty. (Balsa, n.d.)
32. The Which of the following is an advantage of using management assessment
centers in the selection process?
a. Time required to administer and assess results
b. Use of managers as assessors
c. Re-evaluation of candidates
d. Cost of development

Management assessment centers are defined as an assessment method that involves

a series of exercises, interviews, simulations, and tests conducted by co-employees.
These series of exercises make it possible for their peers to predict who among the
individuals are successful. (Study.com, n.d.)
33. The three elements of good training objective are: (a) they are stated in behavioral
terms, (b) they specify the conditions constrains’ and time limitations, and (c) they
specify
a. The behavior that are realistic
b. The socially acceptable activities
c. What is important to the organization
d. The standards of acceptable performance

Training is done in order for employees to be trained in doing tasks that they normally
struggle at or yet to learn. Good training objectives help trainers to track what kind of
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training will they administer for the employees. The standards for a acceptable
performance is one of the most important objectives as it is crucial in an employee’s
contribution to the company’s production cycle.
34. The James is looking for a new job. He used to be the top sales representative for
the region and was expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional
manager’s golfing buddies was promoted to district manager instead. James
dissatisfaction with his current job stems from a breakdown in the ______
relationship.
a. Effort-satisfaction c. Effort-performance
b. Reward personal goal d. Performance reward

Rewards-personal goals is defined as the extent in which an organizational reward

satisfy and individual’s goal or needs. Individuals who are under this kind of motivation
often find promotions and organizational compensations alluring. (University of
Baltimore, n.d.).
35. They agree to this type of flexible work used to meet peak demand for instance by
being present when workloads are heavy. This is called:
a. Shift work c. Compressed work week
b. Job sharing d. Term-time work

Shift-work is a type of flexible work-schedule that consumes the whole 24-hours of a

day by having employees work at a shifting schedule. For example, some employees
can work in the morning up to the afternoon only for other employees to take over
starting from night time as soon as they clock out.
36. Rex is interviewing six candidates for a position as an entry level management
trainee. The first two candidates were judged unfavorable. The third candidate was
just average. But he was so pleased to find an acceptable candidate after the first
two interviews that he assigned a better rating to candidate. This is an example of

a. Decency error c. Contrast error

b. Order error d. Context error
 A kind of rating error when the performance of other group members has an impact on
how well the target person is rated. There may be a tendency to rate the target lower
than is accurate when the others are performing well. There can be a propensity to rate
the objective higher than is accurate when the others do poorly.
37. In designing a performance appraisals form in which subordinates would provide
feedback for supervisors, the comments should be anonymous because identifiable
response tend to result in:
a. More negative attitudes from managers receiving the feedback
b. Increased comfort with the process on the part of the subordinate
c. More critical ratings
d. More inflated ratings

Upward feedback consists of unidentified, private comments made by subordinates.

Employee input is typically used to help managers or supervisors lead their teams more
effectively. In actuality, managers or supervisors also take the input positively and act
favorably in response. Even studies support this claim. When managers receive
positive feedback from known or unnamed employees, they work to address any areas
that need improvement.
38. Which of the following does not characterized successful team members?
a. Specific team goals
b. A common purposes
c. A manageable degree of conflict
d. A moderate amount of social loafing

The term "social loafing" refers to the phenomena in which people put up less effort
when working in a group than when working alone. According to research, social loafing
occurs to some extent in all groups, whether they are high-functioning or dysfunctional.
39. When employees are asked to describe the job satisfactions of their employees and
the implications they often:
a. Underestimate intentions to stay on the job
b. Overestimate inclinations to job search
c. Underestimate job satisfaction
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d. Overestimate job satisfaction

Employees are more likely to perform well in their employment and stick with a company
for a longer period of time if they are pleased and have high job satisfaction. In fact,
business units with staff who perform in the top half in terms of employee engagement
see an average 50% greater success rate in terms of productivity outcomes.
40. Employees of Alberto Industries refuse to work but remain in the premises of the
company, refuse to leave the plant and machines and not allow these to be operated
by others. they are on a
a. Sit down strike c. Sympathy strike
b. Wildcat strike d. Low down strike

A sit-down strike, also known as a stay-in, tool-down, or pen-down strike, is one in

which employees stop doing their jobs but remain on the job site. Similar to a sit-in,
unions have also employed a sit-down to occupy workplaces of corporations that were
the target of a strike. The United Automobile Workers' strike against the General Motors
Corporation in 1937 marked the first significant American usage of the sit-down. view
civil disobedience as well.
41. You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee who is satisfactory but
not promotable. Which incentive listed below would likely be the least effective for
maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation?
a. Small bonus
b. Time off
c. Added professional development
d. Compliments

An essential strategy for motivating employees is to provide an incentive for employees

to accomplish the goals set by an organization. As a result, organizations offer
incentives for a wide variety of employee behaviors (Aamodt, 2016, p. 338). In the given
situation it is essential to provide incentives in order to maintain the satisfactory
performance of the employee which can be in the form of either giving compliments,
small bonuses, and time off. Hence, the least effective incentive is adding professional
development since the employee is not promotable and at the moment does not need
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any more training nor education for he/she is already producing a satisfactory
performance.
42. Which question below is an example of a job knowledge question?
a. What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising
campaign?
b. What work experience, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in
a teamwork environment?
c. Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have
ever taken to help out co-workers?
d. Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question
arose that you could not answer. What would you do?

Job knowledge tests are designed to measure how much a person knows about a job.
They are typically given in multiple-choice fashion for ease of scoring, but they also can
be written in essay format or given orally in a job interview (Aamodt, 2016, p. 169). In
this situation, questions B, C, and D tap into various essential skills which are teamwork,
camaraderie, and critical thinking, respectively, but it does not measure the applicant’s
job knowledge. Whereas, question A, when answered, will provide substantial
information as to how much the applicant knows about the job, itself.
43. Liza is generally considered unfriendly at work. His supervisor rates him low on the
trait "gets along well with others" but also rates him lower on other traits unrelated to
socialization at work. Liza's performance appraisal may be unfair due to:
a. Halo effect
b. Stereotyping
c. Leniency bias
d. Strictness bias

Halo error or Halo effect occurs when a rater allows either a single positive or negative
attribute of an individual to affect the ratings that she makes on each relevant job
dimension (Aamodt, 2016, p. 259). This usually results in a consistently high, medium,
or low on all performance appraisal dimensions (Lunenburg, 2012, p.8). This is true in
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the situation of Liza as she was also given a low rating on traits unrelated to
socialization.
44. A company purchases new billing software that will be used by its customer service
and accounting department. Which of the following training methods will be most
effective in training employees to use the new system?
a. Reading and case study
b. Demonstration and structured exercise
c. Reading and a powerpoint presentation
d. Group discussion and structural exercise

The most effective way of training the employees in the company is to use
demonstration and a structured exercise for them to learn the newly purchased billing
software. Demonstration allows employees to understand how a skill should and could
be carried out on the job. While, a structured training program contains a very specific
timetable, time period, activity plan, and responsibility assignment. It has clearly defined
objectives and results (Kokemuller, n.d.). A more specific training method that involves
both demonstration and structured exercise is a simulation. According to Aamond
(2016), simulations are effective for learning how to use new equipment or software
programs. It allows the trainee to practice newly learned skills. Simulations offer the
advantage of allowing the trainee to work with equipment under actual working
conditions without the consequences of mistakes (p.292).
45. What is the most important reason for conducting an internal marketing campaign for
a new training program?
a. It increases employee motivation to participate
b. It increases the company's reputation in the marketplace
c. It makes HRD more visible to the organization
d. It protects a company from charges of discrimination

Internal marketing occurs naturally when organization members attempt to influence

each other. Managers use internal marketing when they sell an idea up the line, try to
convince someone in another department to do something, or convince a subordinate
to take on a difficult task. There are four approaches to internal marketing campaigns,
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one of which is relationship marketing. The primary goal of this approach is the joint
acceptance of company programs and shared understanding. Thus, it promotes
employee involvement, consensus, and motivation (Dravis, 2001, p. 121-123).
46. Which of the following statements about arbitration is true
a. The process of arbitration follows the same rules as used in a court case
b. The neutrality of the arbiter is guaranteed by the selection process
c. Binding arbitration can lead to a trial if both parties are not satisfied with the
decision
d. Dispute are open to public view as soon as the involved parties agree to the
arbitration

By agreement of the parties, a dispute is presented to one or more arbitrators through

the arbitration process, who then render an official ruling on the matter. Instead of going
to court, the parties choose arbitration as a private conflict settlement process.
47. In her interview schedule, Ellen includes the following statement. ”Imagine that you
have just been assigned the task of winning the business at your competition's
biggest client. How would you proceed? “What type of interview is she using”

a. Directive interview c. Situational interview

b. Stress interview d. Behavioral interview

Situational interviews resemble behavioral interview questions in that they ask

hypothetical questions about the future, whereas behavioral interview questions focus
on the past.
48. Have you been given the unfortunate task of terminating an employee? Which
correct order of steps you should consider
I. receipt of explanation
II. the findings
III. the holdings of inquiry
IV. issue of notice of inquiry
V. charge sheet is framed and issued
a. IV III II V I c. V I IV III II
b. I III II V I d. V II III I IV
 According to the Labor code of the Philippines, Choose the best defense and gather
evidence. You must specify and provide evidence for the grounds for dismissal, just
like you would for just causes.
30 days or more before the termination date, provide the employee a written notice of
termination. At least 30 days prior to the termination date, the employee(s) must receive
a written notice of termination outlining the grounds for the dismissal.
Send a copy of the notice to the human resources department. The company's regional
DOLE office or your location must get a copy of the written notice.
Determine the proper severance money and pay it out. For some legitimate reasons,
you must pay the dismissed employee separation compensation based on the current
policies and calculations.
49. Which of the following statements about adult learners is true?
a. They can assess their own progress, do not use feedback from the instructor
b. They are inclined to refer to past experiences and want opportunities to
share
c. They are more open to new ideas and alternatives options than student learners
d. They are not motivated by external incentives, since self-satisfaction is most
important.

According to Beanman, Adults have more experience learning than children. Since they
may bring more diversity to their own learning, the richer and more varied their
experience is, it becomes the primary source of both their learning and the personal
identity they have formed. Conversely, as young learners typically lack personal
experience, it is impossible for this experience to be used as a learning resource; rather,
it can only be built upon.
50. Using David McCleaveland as a theory guide, a person high in need for
achievement will be:
a. Guaranteed success in top management
b. Motivated to control and influence other people
c. Motivated by challenging but achievable goals
d. Motivated to teamwork and collective responsibility
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According to McClelland's Human Motivation Theory, each person is primarily driven

by one of three needs: the need for power, affiliation, or achievement. We acquire these
motivators through our culture and life experiences; they are not inherently present in
us.
People who are driven by Achievement require difficult yet doable projects. Make sure
to keep them engaged in challenging tasks or situations because they thrive on doing
so. When working alone or with other high achievers, people who are achievement-
driven perform exceptionally well.
51. To perform effectively, you require your team three different types of skill. Which of
the following is not one of these major skill categories?
a. Technical skills c. Interpersonal skills
b. Conceptual skills d. Decision-making skills

According to American social and organizational psychologist Robert Katz, the three
basic types of management skills include Technical skills, Conceptual skills, and
Interpersonal skills (CFI Team, 2023). Decision-making skills were not included.
52. As an example of flexible working hours, the workers in this type are often found in
hotels, restaurants, health and social work, shops, warehouses, business and
financial services and agriculture.
a. Flextime c. Part-time
b. Overtime d. None of the above

Part-time workers are often found in hotels, restaurants, health and social work, shops,
warehouses, business, financial services, and agriculture (Acas, 2007).
53. What type of screening device would you use if you are to measure attitudes,
regarding tolerance of others who steal & acceptance of rationalization for theft?
a. Graphology c. Paper-and-pencil honesty test
b. Personality tests d. Interest inventories

Integrity tests were first called the paper and pencil honesty tests because they were
written as the name suggests, with paper and pen (Evalart, 2019). The polygraph
protection act triggered the paper and pencil or online honesty tests. These are
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psychological tests to find out the applicant’s proneness to dishonesty. It is also used
to measure other attitudes, like, tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of
rationalizations for theft, of an applicant. The validity of this test has been proven by
different studies and is considered reliable (MBA Skool Team, 2015).
54. When asked by her supervisor to rate her fellow group members according to their
performance on a group project, she gave everyone an “excellent,” although it was
obvious that some have worked harder than others. This demonstrates the rating
error of:
a. Recency c. Central tendency
b. Primacy d. Leniency

Leniency error is a type of rating mistake in which the ratings are consistently overly
positive, particularly regarding the performance or ability of the participants. It is caused
by the rater's tendency to be too positive or tolerant of shortcomings and to give
undeservedly high evaluations, also called leniency bias (American Psychological
Association, 2023).
55. Dingo is an office worker who processes health insurance forms. He has worked at
his present job for three years. Initially, he was criticized by his supervisor for sloppy
work, but thereafter improved considerably. Now he consistently processes his
forms without errors and even does more forms than his required quota. However,
he has found his supervisor has not responded to the extra efforts he puts in, giving
him no praise and no financial reward. Dingo is most likely to perceive that there is a
problem in this relationships:
a. Effort performance c. Personal goal-self actualization
b. Rewards personal goals d. Performance awareness

Effort-performance relationship or the probability perceived by the individual that

exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. Performance-reward
relationship or the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular
level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome (University of Baltimore, n.d.). In
the given scenario, Dingo’s effort and performance have not led to the attainment of his
desired outcome which is his supervisor’s praise or financial reward.
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56. A pharmaceutical company is undertaking a joint venture that enables it to sell a new
drug. The company is on a tight time frame and needs to provide training for 150
sales representatives located throughout the Philippines. Given the company's time
constraints, which needs assessment method would best determine the training that
sales representatives need?
a. Assessment center c. Advisory committee
b. Tests d. Observation

Psychological tests are measuring devices that are used to assess a sample of
behavior objectively, consistently and systematically. Industrial and organizational
psychology is the field of psychology that applies psychological principles to work
related issues.
57. Simeon is a content developer for a learning solutions company. He has been
working there for past five years and has done well in different projects. But since
past few months, he has displayed certain different behaviors.
I. He reacted badly in the meeting when a new responsibility was given to him
II. He often comes late to office
III. He is forwarding his resume to recruiters
IV. He continuously complains about the working condition

What does this indicate?

a. Simon is highly motivated

b. He is not satisfied with job
c. He wants promotion
d. He is under stress

Not only does job dissatisfaction decrease work performance and morale, it can also
negatively impact your bottom line. When employees are not engaged in their work,
they are less likely to have the motivation to be productive and carry out quality
services. There are five key signs of job dissatisfaction: Lack of Interest,
Procrastination, Irritability, Frequent Absences, Lack of Effort.
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58. Improvements in job satisfaction are most likely under Herzberg's two factor theory
when are improved:
a. Base salary
b. Working conditions
c. Opportunities for responsibility
d. Co-worker relationship

According to Herzberg’s theory, the environment in which people work has a

tremendous effect on their level of pride for themselves and for the work they are doing.
Do everything you can to keep your equipment and facilities up to date. Even a nice
chair can make a world of difference to an individual's psyche. Also, if possible, avoid
overcrowding and allow each employee his or her own personal space, whether it be a
desk, a locker, or even just a drawer. If you've placed your employees in close quarters
with little or no personal space, don't be surprised that there is tension among them
59. If an employer is shown to use selection procedures resulting in adverse impact, the
employer could then use all of the alternatives listed below, except:
a. Revise the selection test to eliminate the problem
b. Monitor the selection test to see if it has disparate impact
c. Show that the test is valid by conducting a validation study
d. Institute another valid selection procedure, does not have an adverse impact

Adverse impact is generally the first step considered in a potential selection bias case.
If a hiring practice has no adverse impact, it can be considered to be in compliance with
hiring procedures. If an adverse impact occurs, it does not automatically mean that
there is a problem with the selection process.
The use of tests, or other aspects of the selection procedure, can be justified if the
evidence supports their use. Generally, this means conducting validation studies, which
are research studies on employees that show how individuals who score higher on job
skills tests perform their jobs better.
60. Rowel is being interviewed for a position as a public relation specialist in a
communication firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with
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the person who would be his direct supervisors. Finally, he meets with the company
president. Rowel is experiencing a (n):.
a. Panel interview
b. Group interview
c. Sequential interview
d. Return interview

A sequential interview, also known as a serial interview, has several sessions of job
interviews taking place one after another. Typically done using the one-on-one format,
these interviews can take place in a day or over a period of time (even months).
61. Which of the following statements would you ask if you were to conduct a job-related
interview?
a. Why are you leaving your current position?
b. Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to
handle a difficult situation?
c. Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer, who threatened to sue
the company, what would you do?
d. I see you’ve changed jobs four times in the last two years, I’ve always felt that
frequent job changes reflect irresponsible and immature behavior.

Job-related interviews require the interviewer to ask applicants questions about

relevant past experiences. It is a series of job-related questions that focuses on relevant
past job-related behaviors and questions that do not revolve around hypothetical or
actual situations scenarios (Aamodt, 2016). With this, the second option is the best
example of a job-related interview as it focuses on the relevant past experience of the
applicant on his previous job.
62. Rusty is the manager of a food stall. His unit works well together. They consistently
produce high-quality food on a timely basis and have little wastage. Which of the
following statements best describes Rusty’s group situation?
a. The group is effective.
b. The group is ineffective in some ways.
c. The group has only effective human resource maintenance.
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In I/O Psychology, a group consists of two or more people who perceive themselves as
being part of a group, have common motives and goals, are interdependent to each
other, perform different roles, and are structured by a set of norms. Additionally, we can
describe this case as a traditional approach of work teams as they use a method of
manufacturing a product because employees are specialized in performing one
particular task with the supervision of their manager (Aamodt, 2016). In the presented
situation, we can say that Rusty has an effective group given that they successfully
manage themselves and solve work-related problems.
63. He is the director of training for a job based company that is a clearing house for
vacation rentals. The company is growing rapidly and hiring large numbers of
employees. He has recently redesigned the new employee orientation program. He
should measure all the following, except:
a. Promotion rate of employee in the first 2 years of employment
b. Turnover of employees with less than six months tenure
c. Cost per employee of the orientation program
d. Performance levels of new hires

New employee orientation is the process of welcoming new employees into the
organization. The goal of this activity is to helped the newly hired employees to feel
welcomed, integrated into the organization, and perform the job successfully as quickly
as possible. It was mentioned in the presented situation that a job-based company
redesigned its new employee orientation program, therefore, it should contain
information in areas of promotion rate of employees in the first 2 years of employment,
turnover of employees with less than six months tenure, and performance levels of new
hires to minimize cost and turnover rate and maximize the productivity of the employees
(Aamodt, 2016). However, discussing the cost per employee of the orientation program
is not a significant subject to be measured in the new employee orientation.
64. Task demands and ethical dilemmas are examples of ____ stressor while type A
personality is a ____ stressor.
a. Work-related; nonwork c. Nonpersonal; personal
b. Real; imagined d. Work-related; personal
 Work-related stressors include task demands and ethical dilemmas that are usually
encountered in the workplace setting. In an organization, employees are faced with task
demands which is one of the most common sources of work-related stress. While
workers may need challenging tasks to maintain their interest and motivation, and to
develop new skills, it is important that demands do not exceed their ability to cope. They
are also experiencing ethical dilemmas every day, these are ambiguous situations that
require a personal judgment of what is right or wrong because there are no rules,
policies, or laws guiding such decisions. Individuals often rely on their morals and
personal values, which often leads to different decisions by different people in similar
situations. Aside from work-related stressor, personal stressors can be also seen in a
workplace and a Type A Personality is one of the personal stressor that an employee
can encounter. People with this personality are characterized mainly by achievement
striving, impatience and time urgency, and anger and hostility. They tend to do many
things at one time (called multitasking). Type A employees under stress are more likely
than others to exhibit high blood pressure and high levels of stress-related hormones.
In addition, Type A individuals are slower to recover after the stressor is removed
(Aamodt, 2016).
65. A t-shirt manufacturing company decided to bring in some changes in its policies
and work environment. The team of experts has recommended that:
I. Flexible work arrangements shall be provided
II. Enhance the job security
III. creating task variety
IV. Exploring and creating career opportunities

What are their main purposes behind doing all this?

a. Organization change c. Introducing new value system

b. Managing stress d. Enhance job satisfaction

Job satisfaction has been defined as a combination of psychological, physiological, and

environmental circumstances that cause a person to truthfully say that they are satisfied
with a job. Most employers find ways to increase job satisfaction to have a stable and
competitive business, maintain productivity, and an engaged and satisfied workforce.
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In increasing job satisfaction, leaders of an organization follows the process of: (1)
Providing a positive working environment, (2) Giving rewards and recognition, (3)
Increasing employee engagement, (4) developing the skills and potential of workforce,
and (5) evaluating job satisfaction (Aamodt, 2016).
66. You are tacked to do requirement activities. Which two central issues you must
address?
a. Methods to use to find applicants and source to targets
b. Job analysis and places to look for applicants
c. Cost and applicant fit within organizational culture
d. Cost and places to look for applicants

A job analysis is the process of researching a career or position to learn what activities
it entails and what abilities are required. A job analysis can also determine the
conditions under which the individual performs the work and how that role may affect
other roles in the firm.
67. The Bryan thinks that Charles, the foreman at metal works, is a poor performer. He
regularly checks the work and closely supervises him. He does not trust the
competency of Charles. He has low expectations and this has resulted in the
decrease of Charles' performance. What effect is evident here?
a. Halo effect
b. Golem effect
c. Pygmalion effect
d. Galatea effect

The Golem effect is a concept used in modern psychology to describe the impact that
low expectations have on an individual's performance. This psychological idea, which
is typically seen in educational and organizational settings, is based on a form of self-
fulfilling prophecy
Expectations are placed on an individual at every stage of life; expectations of the
supervisor at work, expectations of friends and family, and expectations of oneself.
These expectations substantially influence our conduct and the outcomes of our
actions. When a person is subjected to a negative or low expectation, he or she tends
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to create the same bad or minimal consequence. This is in stark contrast to the
Pygmalion effect, which is noticed when higher expectations are placed on someone,
resulting in better outcomes.
68. When managers ask “How can I construct a total portfolio of rewards of rewards
programs that link to both short and long term business success, drive shareholder
value to our employees?” they are seeking to produce a:
a. Wage curve
b. Reward strategy alignment
c. Strategic compensation package
d. Pay-for-performance program

A reward strategy entails developing and implementing reward policies and practices
that support the goals of your organization, resulting in a motivated and effective staff.
The pay and reward structure of an organization has frequently evolved without any
overarching aim, allowing bias and uneven compensation hazards to come in.
69. Randal is preparing a job advertisement that would be sent and published in a
leading newspaper. What statement does he need to put to develop interest in the
job?
a. Ideal candidate will possess a four year degree with an emphasis on
management
b. Schedule flexibility and familiarity with various software application requires
c. Responsibilities include event planning and relationship management
d. You’ll thrive on challenging work

A job advertisement, also known as a job posting, is a written description of an open

position that encourages qualified candidates to apply. To locate professionals to
recruit, a company places job adverts on major job-search websites such as Indeed.
Hiring managers frequently use persuasive language in job advertisements to persuade
professionals to apply for open positions. Although job advertisements should be
encouraging to professionals, it is also crucial that professionals represent an available
position as honestly as possible to ensure that the organization picks the ideal
candidate for the job.
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70. A manager would like to ask the applicant a question like: “How would you recognize
a sales effort?”. He is seeking information regarding the applicant’s factor:
a. Motivativation c. Personality
b. Knowledge d. Intellectual

In a possible hire, an applicant's skills and knowledge of the industry are almost always
deemed more significant than personality. However, the truth is that while talents may
be learnt, people cannot change their personalities. Most people can quickly gain the
necessary skills if they are thrown into a profession.
71. Vanessa is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team
meetings because she has seen members talk behind each other's back after the
meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members’ work, looking for
mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which
contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of Vanessa’s team?

a. Team structure c. Performance evaluation

b. Climate of trust d. Adequate resources

The idea of trust climate is defined as an essential aspect of organizational climate

experienced by employees, based on individual subjective evaluations of the overall
trustworthiness of the workplace environment. (Costigan, Ilter and Berman, 1998). We
explore the link between perceptions of organizational climate, motivation, and
individual actions from the standpoint of psychological dynamics in order to clarify how
a trustworthy corporate environment promotes outstanding individual performance.
A setting of trust is one that fosters mutual respect, honesty, and open communication.
Leaders who appreciate the relevance and application of consistency, collaboration,
and compromise within work relationships. People frequently have frustrations, doubts,
and hesitations in the workplace for a variety of reasons; nevertheless, cultivating a
climate of trust provides a secure, nonthreatening, and transparent environment in
which information is exchanged, cooperation is encouraged, and team building is
adopted. When an organization's infrastructure changes, this scary element might
cause social opposition, which can either embrace or postpone progress and
development.
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72. The business supply company decides to send account managers to a training
course on bill collection. A successful account manager thinks that the course will be
interesting but doubts that the company will give account managers time for
collection activities. In this case the training is likely to be minimally successful
because the account manager:
a. Lacks the ability to learn new skills
b. Seems unmotivated to learn new skills
c. Does not see how the training relates to the job
d. Doubts that the company will reinforce the learning

Because the successful account manager thinks that the course will be interesting but
doubts that the company will give account managers time for collection activities.
73. An employee training and development program which is designed to help the
employee get the most out of it has the best result in the long-term growth of any
organization. Which factor is the most important in designing this training program?
a. Defining outcomes
b. Hiring trainee
c. Evaluating the progress of trainee
d. Correcting trainee problems

It is designed to help the employee get the most out of it and has the best result in the
long-term growth of any organization by evaluating the progress of the trainee
74. DR Gold is an agency engaged in employee performance appraisal. Recently it has
got an assignment from Jump and Kick. The requirements:
I. Giving the best picture of performance
II. Maintain the confidentiality
III. Keeping the names of appraisers anonymous
IV. Requires a subjective feedback and comments

Which method should it employ?

a. BARS c. Management by objective

b. BOS d. 360-degree feedback
 A Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is a performance management scale
that uses behavior "statements" as a reference point rather than generic descriptions
found on standard rating scales. Establishing particular behaviors for grading improves
the rating's accuracy in relation to performance. This is because you are depending on
behaviors that are specific to each job inside an organization rather than behaviors that
are evaluated across the board.
75. Which of the following illustrates using result as a criterion for evaluating a
supervisory training program?
a. Frequency count of how often the supervisors praised or disciplined their
subordinates over the next 8 weeks
b. Measures of turnover, productivity improvement and grievances in each
supervisors department
c. An interpersonal relations rating scale completed by the subordinates of each
supervisor
d. A 10-item questionnaire asking the supervisors to evaluate the results of the
training

Kirkpatrick (1978) provided a guidelines and procedures for evaluating supervisory

training programs. The evaluation procedure is provided in four stages: (1) participant
reactions, (2) knowledge and skill development and attitude changes, (3) changes in
on-the-job behavior, and (4) program outcomes are all steps in the process.
76. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The costs of using teams may exceed the benefits
b. Teamwork takes less time than individual work
c. Teamwork requires more meetings
d. More conflicts exist in teamwork

Working in teams and promoting strong teamwork among the staff can have a positive
impact on an organization and give it a competitive advantage. A lot of organizations
go to great lengths to promote teamwork. In general, teamwork is regarded as
advantageous and crucial for a business to enhance output. While working as a team
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can have many positive effects, if not done properly, it can also be costly to an
organization.
77. Joe and Jess agree to an arrangement that they will be available for work when
required but no particular number of hours or times of work and specified. They
enter into:
a. Sub-contracting c. Temporary working contracts
b. Fixed-term contracts d. Zero hours contracts

A fixed-term contract is a type of employment contract that establishes a working

relationship between an employer and employee for a specific period of time. Fixed-
term contracts frequently feature a pre-determined end date for the contract to expire.
Also, it can offer certainty to the employer by specifying the employee will be available
for work during a specific time.
78. Tony Quezon has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales. As a
recruiter which personally characteristics of Tony would you look into as most
predictive of his success in a sales position?
a. Extraversion c. Openness to experience
b. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness

According to Klang's (2012) study, extraversion and conscientiousness are the two big
five personality traits that are most closely related to people who engage in sales-
related jobs. High levels of conscientiousness are characterized by thoughtfulness,
good impulse control, organization, meticulous attention to detail, and goal-directed
behavior. While an individual with high extraversion are sociable, talkative, assertive,
and feels energized when around other people.
79. Which of the following best describes how the work sampling technique is executed?
a. Applicants submit work samples from previous jobs
b. Applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they would perform
various tasks
c. Applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to
performing the job of interest
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d. Applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to

several positions in a company

Work sampling is a process that analyzes and evaluates the workers' work time within
narrowly specified categories. These categories apply Depending on the type of labor
or activity assigned to a specific worker. Moreover, it is a statistical concept that enables
recognition, analysis, and improvement of organizational workflows, performance skills,
and activities. Among the different tasks based on which the workers are assessed and
work sampling is applied on them include setting and assembling of a machine, looking
after its maintenance and many others.
80. This training method has limited usefulness because it does not provide for active
participation of the learners and there is no practice, no feedback, no knowledge and
limited transfer of training. Which method could you avoid?
a. Simulation c. Programmed instruction
b. Lecture d. Special study

Lecture method is the oldest method of teaching. It is focused on the idealism

philosophy This approach entails providing learners with an explanation of the subject.
The way the content is presented is what is important. This method has both
advantages and disadvantages. The advantages include time savings, convenient in
handling large classes or groups, and training for students in listening. The
disadvantages include a lack of encouragement for active student participation, which
makes learning passive and leaves the teaching to do all the work, information is also
easily forgotten quickly when students are passive, and lectures are not appropriate for
teaching higher-order thinking skills like application, analysis, synthesis, or evaluation;
for teaching motor skills, or for influencing attitudes or values.
81. The following are the steps of grievance of handling. They are not given in proper
sequence:
I. Analyze and divide
II. Follow-up
III. Receive and define the nature of the dissatisfaction
IV. Get the facts
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V. Apply the answer

Choose the correct sequence from the options given below;

a. III, IV, I, V, II c. I, III, IV, II, V

b. V, II, IV, III, I d. I, II, V, IV, III

A grievance is a problem, complaint, or issue that an employee brings up with their

employer. A change in the terms and conditions of employment, bullying or harassment
at work, pay, and discrimination are just a few of the situations and reasons for which
an employee might file a grievance. First, this can entail having a conversation with the
employee who filed the complaint to learn their preferences for handling the situation.
Second, a grievance hearing with an employee will be required. Third, if a grievance
investigation is required, it will also involve interacting with any parties involved in the
case as well as witnesses. Fourth, after the inquiry is complete and all relevant
information has been gathered and weighed, a determination will be made regarding
whether to accept the grievance in full or in part. The employee should be informed of
the decision. Before deciding on an appeal, the case should be examined, the appeal's
grounds should be looked into, and all relevant factors should be taken into account
(Castle Associates, 2019).
82. A classroom based program, led through discussion, role play or training videos in
conjunction with discussion work best when teaching complicated ideas or methods
of interacting with other people. Which of the statements does not portray the
benefits of classroom training?
a. Classroom allow little interaction among trainees
b. Classroom can accommodate a large number of trainee
c. Classroom provide formal learning environments
d. Classroom are well equipped for training purposes

In accordance with the study of Selmar Institute of Education (2022), the best part of
the classroom delivery method is that it offers comprehensive training that paves the
path for our learners to quickly secure a job placement as they take advantage of
everything the classroom has to offer. Trainers can determine your skills and learning
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preferences in the classroom since they can see you and engage with you. It's peer-to-
peer training. It helps us to build relationships that are mutually beneficial, and you may
even discover that learning in a classroom environment may help you meet some like-
minded people who you will remain friends with for the rest of your life. With classroom-
based learning, you don't have to worry about shaky internet connections, poor Wi-Fi,
uncomfortable chairs, dogs barking, or other people making noise in the house. It is a
structured and immersive learning experience. You have access to specialized study
areas and facilities when you attend classes.
83. Jesus is a salaried employee whose job is to proofread legal documents. He
discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues, even though their
jobs and performances are very similar. What is likely to be his reaction to this
discovery according to the equity theory?
a. The quantity of documents he proofreads will decrease
b. The quality of documents he proofreads will decrease
c. The quantity and/or the quality of documents he proofreads will increase
d. He will seek a position within the company to commensurate his pay

The study of Moniz (2014) stated that, it takes both motivators and demotivators into
account, equity theory is somewhat similar to motivation-hygiene theory. It implies that
a person's feeling of fairness greatly influences their motivation at work. Employees
keep track of the inputs and outputs of their work in a mental ledger, which they use to
assess how their inputs and outputs compare to those of others. Effort, performance,
skill, education, and experience are examples of possible inputs. Pay, benefits, and
promotions are some of typical results. Employees may lose motivation and become
dissatisfied with their work if they believe that their input-to-outcome ratio is not
equitable with that of their colleagues.
84. Andrea is the owner of fast glow cosmetics company. Since the 2-3 months, she is
facing problems regarding employee discipline. The employees come late and enter
into arguments. Sometimes they even destroy or waste the organizational
resources. She is looking towards a short term solution for dealing with problem
behaviors. What action should she take?
a. Give written warnings and suspend temporarily
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b. Redefine the rules and apply consequences

c. Reprimand and terminate
d. Reprimand and reassign

Most frequently, an employee who exhibits unprofessional behavior in their place of

employment is regarded as problematic. To handle this, concentrate on the employee's
specific acts and behavior rather than passing judgment. When dealing with
problematic personnel, it is impossible to come up with effective solutions until you
comprehend the underlying causes of their behavioral issues. Be receptive to
suggestions from every member of your team. Establish a space where coworkers can
express their concerns in an honest and open manner. Pay attention to what they have
to say without avoiding bias or judgment. Your challenging coworker needs to
comprehend what you expect of them in order for change to take place. Initially, you
must persuade them to be more open and let down their guard if your relationship is at
odds with them. Then, create a plan that outlines the goals, a precise timetable, and
regular assessments of their advancement. Include the repercussions if they don't
adopt these new behavioral patterns. If the repercussions of their behavior are made
plain, most people will take the situation seriously (Marquette University, 2022).
85. What is the reason why teamwork can increase management control?
a. Team members monitor and control each other’s action
b. Creating high performance teams’ increases management’s control
c. People within the team compete with each other for management’s favor
d. People can share more information and knowledge so individual skill
diminishes

Based on the article of SHRM (2015), In today's workplace, work teams form the
foundation. A team is a collection of individuals who cooperate to achieve goals that go
beyond their own self-interests. Because each team member can contribute unique
skills, ideas, and perspectives, high-performance work teams are advantageous over
individual projects. High-performance work teams are also empowered, accountable
for their functional activity, and responsible for executing strategy, meeting targets, and
requiring minimum managerial oversight.
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86. Which of the following statements regarding incentive pay plans is most accurate?
a. Unlike merit pay plans base pay is set at the market rate for incentive plans.
b. Once earned, the incentive pay becomes part of the employees base pay
c. Cap are used to keep incentive pay levels even with the industry pay level
d. Maximum earning potential is usually greater with an incentive plan than a
traditional merit plan

Incentive pay plans are compensation systems that offer employees additional pay
based on their individual or group performance. The main objective of an incentive plan
is to motivate employees to improve their performance, productivity, and overall work
quality.
In contrast to traditional merit pay plans, incentive pay plans are typically not based on
an employee's time with the company or job seniority. Instead, the focus is on achieving
specific performance goals or objectives that are linked to the employee's
compensation.
Option a is incorrect, as incentive pay plans do not necessarily base pay at market rate.
The base pay can be set at any level, but the incentive pay is typically a variable amount
that is earned based on performance.
Option b is incorrect, as incentive pay is usually not added to an employee's base pay.
Instead, it is a separate component of compensation that is earned based on meeting
specific goals or objectives.
Option c is incorrect, as caps are used to limit the amount of incentive pay that can be
earned, rather than to keep it even with industry pay levels. Caps ensure that the cost
of the incentive plan does not exceed a certain amount and that employees do not earn
an excessive amount of additional compensation.
Therefore, option d is the most accurate statement regarding incentive pay plans, as
they typically offer a higher maximum earning potential than traditional merit pay plans.
87. To maintain performance of a newly learned skill after training is completed, the
trainer should:
a. Provide clear instruction
b. Teach the trainees self-management skills
c. Provide opportunities for enactive mastery
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d. Match training techniques to trainees self-efficacy

Stay engaged: Staying engaged with the skill you've learned can help you maintain
your performance. This might involve participating in related activities or communities,
attending events or workshops, or seeking out opportunities to apply your skills in real-
world situations.
88. Mara has recently discovered that a co-worker is making Ph 40,000 more per month,
in spite of the fact that both Mara and her co-worker have similar credentials and
levels of effort. In light of this discovery, Mara is dissatisfied. Mara's dissatisfaction
can be explained by theory.
a. Equity theory c. Expectancy theory
b. Reinforcement theory d. Self-efficacy theory

Equity theory suggests that people compare the ratio of their own inputs (such as effort,
skills, and experience) to outcomes (such as pay, recognition, and promotions) with the
ratio of inputs to outcomes of others around them. When individuals perceive that the
ratio of their inputs to outcomes is different from that of others who are in similar
positions, they experience a sense of inequity, which can lead to dissatisfaction.
In Mara's case, she perceives that her co-worker is receiving a higher outcome (pay)
despite having similar inputs (credentials and effort). This perceived inequity can lead
to feelings of dissatisfaction and frustration. Mara may feel that her co-worker is being
rewarded unfairly, and she may feel undervalued and underappreciated in her own role.
89. A manager wants to promote group interaction in the training session that he
conducting. Lack of accountability of individuals within a group, off-task conversation
and employees who try to dominate the discussion are just some of the potential
problems surrounding group interactions. Which of the following learning methods
must the manager use to maximize group interaction among participants in a training
program?
a. Lectures c. Group discussion
b. Orientation d. Case studies

The key to maximizing group interaction in a training program is to create a safe and
supportive environment that encourages participation and collaboration among the
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participants. Group Discussion will not only promote group interaction but also give
everyone an opportunity to contribute and learn from one another.
90. All of the following are characteristics of a person described as having a hardy
personality, except:
a. They are critical of their environment
b. They feel they are in control of their lives
c. They are unexpected change as a challenge
d. They feel a sense of commitment to their goals

A hardy personality is characterized by three main components: commitment, control,

and challenge. People with a hardy personality are committed to their goals, feel in
control of their lives, and view unexpected change as a challenge rather than a threat.
However, being critical of their environment is not typically considered a characteristic
of a hardy personality. Instead, people with a hardy personality tend to have a positive
outlook and focus on the things they can control, rather than being critical of their
environment.
Therefore, option a is the characteristic that does not fit with a person described as
having a hardy personality.
91. Employees who wish to lower their job stress should follow all of the following
suggestions, except:
a. Putting off dealing with distasteful problems
b. Finding time every day for detachment and relaxation
c. Creating realistic goals and deadline for yourself and set regular progress review
d. Building pleasant, cooperative relationships with as many of your colleagues as
you can

According to the study of McLean (2023), putting off means procrastination. Experts
define procrastination as a self-defeating behavior pattern marked by short-term
benefits and long-term costs. Many of us know it as putting off things that we need to
get done, no matter the level of difficulty behind the task.
92. Although the manager chose to use a structural interview, what must a manager in
mind about the disadvantage of using structure interview:
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a. Reduced subjectivity
b. Lower potential for bias
c. Enhanced ability to withstand legal challenge
d. Lack of ability to pursue follow-up questions as they develop

The disadvantages of structured interviews include the questions need development,

review, and testing to approve and implement
93. Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the
following do you think would most likely recieve the highest rating for an executive
level position?
a. There are no such biases based on attractiveness and gender
b. An attractive man
c. An unattractive man
d. An attractive woman

During an interview with an attractive applicant they received higher hirability ratings
than less attractive candidates did. In other words, attractive applicants' heightened
feelings of self-assurance affected how they came across to others in ways that made
them more likely to get the job
94. Training and development is very closely linked to performanced appraisal because:
a. Both functions and carried out by the same people
b. Both functions seek to gather the same employee related data
c. Strengths and weaknesses identified in the performance appraisal will be used to
determine training needs
d. Training and development activities are only provided for those employees
whose performance is considered to be below an acceptable standard

Training is concerned with enhancing the skills and knowledge of the employees so
that they can perform their jobs effectively. Development is the process of increasing
and improving the existing skills of the employees that help in their growth and
development. Performance appraisal is related to assessing the performance of
employees to analyze their contribution to the organization.
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95. Jenna is a single mother of two. Although she a competent worker, she could not
physically be in the office every day. As her manager, which type of flexible place
would you offer her as an alternative?
a. Hot desking
b. Mobile working
c. Teleconferencing
d. Telemmuting

Mobile Working definition. Mobile working is a type of working practice that isn't limited
to a physical location. It relies on technology to connect the employee to the platforms
required to do their job effectively. Mobile working can be also referred to as “remote
working”, and it is related to flexible working.
96. Which of the following statements is most likely to have been said by a Theory X
manager?
a. “I spend most of my day closely supervising employees. When I’m not around I
suspect that they do as little as possible”
b. “My employees work really hard, they seem to motivate themselves”
c. “Most people are hard workers”
d. “The key to high productivity is giving employees the opportunity to make
decisions”

Theory X managers tend to take a pessimistic view of their people, and assume that
they are naturally unmotivated and dislike work. Work in organizations that are
managed like this can be repetitive, and people are often motivated with a "carrot and
stick" approach.
97. In preparing the performance appraisals, the sales manager ranked Marcia as the
overall best salesperson because she had the highest level of sales, and Linton as
the overall worst salesperson because he had the lowest level of sales. The other
salesperson were placed between Marcia and Linton in order of their sales. What
performance appraisal format was used?
a. Straight ranking c. Graphics rating scale
b. Forced distribution d. Absolute standards
 Straight ranking compares all employees to each other, ranking them from best to
worst. Whilst it may be easy to see who's a high flier and who's not making the cut,
everyone in the middle will be harder to rank.
98. Jenny must decide who will deliver her company’s training program. Which are her
choices?
a. Professional trainers and the top management team
b. The top management team and operating managers
c. Operating managers and professional trainers
d. Line workers and top management

Operating managers and Professional trainers are the perfect one who should deliver
their company’s training program as they are the one who have the knowledge on
training the employees.
99. Training in organizations is managed scientifically and practiced in key steps. Find
which of the following steps are in correct sequential order?
I. Assessments of Training Requirements
II. Organizational analysis
III. Execution of training programs
IV. Task analysis
V. Evaluation of Training Effectiveness

Choose the correct option:

a. Only 1 - 2 – 4
b. Only 1 - 3 – 5
c. Only 2 – 3
d. Only 2 - 4 - 5

Assessing of training requirements first is very important if you will start to train a
employee, after assessing you can move on and execute your training programs after
executing you can now evaluate the employees training effectiveness.
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100. If you want to find jobs for the unemployed, which technique is most appropriate?
a. Job posting
b. College placement offices
c. Private employment agencies
d. Public employment agencies

A Private Employment Agency (PEA) is any individual, partnership, corporation or entity

licensed by the Department of Labor and Employment to engage in the recruitment and
placement of workers for local employment.
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Abnormal Psychology

1. Of the following, this sport has been found to encourage eating disorders MOST, due
to its emphasis on weight:
a. Volleyball c. High jumping
b. Wrestling d. Gymnastic

Athletes has found that there is a significant overall prevalence of eating disorders
(13.5%). The prevalence rate was highest among female athletes with 20.1%, although
the prevalence rate among male athletes, which was 7.7%, was significantly higher
than that of non-athletes. Athletes do have particular vulnerabilities because of the
demands of their sport and the pressure to succeed, which increases their likelihood of
engaging in disordered eating or exercising behaviors. An athlete may be more
vulnerable to distorted body image and disordered eating habits just due to the culture
of athletics. Sports that are strongly associated with a higher likelihood of developing
eating problems are gymnastics for girls and wrestling for boys.
2. Which of the following is a recognized exception to the clinician’s confidentiality
obligations and does not require patient consent to release information?
a. Providing information to a patient’s employer
b. Providing information to a patient’s attorney
c. Providing information to a deceased patient’s spouse
d. Discovering that a patient may be abusing to a social service agency.

Psychologists and other mental health professionals receive extensive training in

techniques that put patients at ease and facilitate communication, such as
nonthreatening methods of information seeking and appropriate listening skills. Most
states have "privileged communication" or confidentiality laws that protect the
information patients give psychologists and psychiatrists. This means that even if
authorities want the information the therapist has received from the patient, they cannot
have access to it without the patient's express consent. The only time this rule is broken
is when a clinician judges that a patient's condition, may cause some harm or danger
to either the patient or someone else is imminent
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3. Which of the following dissociative disorders is now considered a specifier in the DSM-
5?
a. Dissociative fugue c. Dissociative amnesia
b. Depersonalizations d. Derealization

The DSM-5 includes “specifiers”, which are the extensions to the formal diagnoses that
specify one or more specific features, such as onset or severity. A diagnosis can have
one or more specifiers to make it more precise. In other words, a DSM specifier can
better characterize certain situations because a mental health problem doesn't always
exhibit itself in the same manner.
According to American Psychiatric Association, dissociative fugue is now a specifier of
dissociative amnesia rather than a separate diagnosis. Dissociative fugue is a form of
reversible amnesia that affects personality, memories, and personal identity. This kind
of temporary amnesia may last for hours, days, weeks, months, or longer. It involves
wandering or unplanned travel, in which the person may develop a new identity in a
place that is substantially different from where they were before.
4. Exposure and response prevention therapy works most effectively for this disorder.
a. Generalized anxiety disorder
b. Specific phobia
c. Panic disorder
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

An approach that works most effectively with obsessive-compulsive disorder is called

exposure and ritual prevention (ERP). It is a process whereby the routines are carefully
avoided during this procedure, and the patient is systematically and progressively
exposed to the feared thoughts or situations
5. This theory of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) suggests that both conscious and
unconscious thoughts of people with GAD are focused on threat.
a. Humanistic c. Existential
b. Behavior d. Psychodynamic

The psychodynamic perspective focuses on unconscious psychological processes

(such as wishes and fears that we are not completely aware of), and claims that
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childhood experiences are essential in shaping adult personality. Majority of the content
of the unconscious is unacceptable or unpleasant, and if it were to become conscious,
it might result in pain, anxiety, or conflict. The focus on anxiety itself would thus serve
as a diversion from emotional states and fantasies that are more threatening than the
worries themselves since in psychodynamic treatment, worrying is frequently
conceptualized as a defense that protects the client from other sensations or conflicts.
6. Treatment forms such as objects relations, attachment based approaches and self-
psychology have developed out of this mode/perspective of abnormality:
a. Cognitive c. Psychodynamic
b. Humanistic d. Behavioral

Since Freud's time, the psychodynamic perspective has changed significantly, and it
now incorporates creative new ideas such as object relations theory and
neuropsychoanalysis. Certain psychodynamic concepts have withstood empirical
scrutiny better than others, and portions of the theory remain contentious, but the
psychodynamic approach continues to impact many different fields of current
psychology.
7. Treatment forms such as object relations, attachment-based approaches, and self-
psychology have developed out of this model/perspective of abnormality

a. Cognitive c. Humanistic
b. Psychodynamic d. Behavior

Since Freud's time, the psychodynamic perspective has changed significantly, and it
now incorporates creative new ideas such as object relations theory and
neuropsychoanalysis. Certain psychodynamic concepts have withstood empirical
scrutiny better than others, and portions of the theory remain contentious, but the
psychodynamic approach continues to impact many different fields of current
psychology.
8. The applied tension technique is most appropriately utilized in what type of specific
phobia?
a. Natural environment c. Blood-injection-injury
b. Animal d. Situational
 Blood-injury-injection (BII) phobia causes a distinct anxiety reaction that frequently
includes blood pressure decreases and significant bradycardia, which can result in
fainting. Applied Tension (AT), a tension approach that incorporates in vivo exposure,
is the current recommended therapy for BII phobia.
9. A patient displays periods of mood disturbance over the past three years.
a. Brief psychotic c. Delusional disorder
b. Schizoaffective disorder d. Schizophrenia

One of the criteria in DSM-5 states: An uninterrupted duration of illness during which
there is a major mood episode (manic or depressive) in addition to criterion A for
schizophrenia; the major depressive episode must involve depressed mood.
10. What is a common/normal experience involving dissociation
a. Seeing oneself as if looking at another person
b. Remembering the past so vividly one seems to be reliving it
c. Feeling as though the person himself/herself were two different people
d. All of the above

Dissociation is defined as a separation between a person's ideas, memories, feelings,

behaviors, or sense of self. This is a normal procedure that everyone has gone through.
Daydreaming, highway hypnosis, or "getting lost" in a book or movie are all examples
of mild, common dissociation, all of which involve "losing touch" with awareness of
one's immediate surroundings.
11. Patients with this personality disorder exude a sense of entitlement with the
expectation of special favors but without assuming reciprocal responsibilities.
a. Antisocial
b. Paranoid
c. Narcissistic
d. Borderline

According to Drescher (2022), a narcissistic personality disorder patient could have an

exaggerated feeling of self-importance, a sense of entitlement, or they might take
advantage of other people or lack empathy. They demand excessive amounts of
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attention and want to be admired. It's possible for those who have this disease to be
incapable of comprehending or caring about the sentiments of others.
12. Of the substances associated with the onset of intellectual disability, the one which
has the most well-documented negative effects is;
a. Cocaine
b. Alcohol
c. Heroin
d. Nicotine

Based on the study of Lee, et. al (2022), alcohol is one of the most typical hazardous
substances that causes an intellectual impairment during pregnancy. Fetal alcohol
syndrome, a disorder caused by alcohol exposure, does, in fact, frequently result in
intellectual incapacity along with other developmental problems. Additionally, in
accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2022), Chronic illnesses
and other serious conditions including high blood pressure, heart disease, stroke, liver
disease, immune system deterioration, cancer, depression, and many others can occur
as a result of excessive alcohol consumption.
13. A significant percentage of those with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and
oppositional defiant disorder will eventually be diagnosed with this disorder;
a. Substance use disorder
b. Conduct disorder
c. Antisocial personality disorder
d. Major depressive disorder

A persistent pattern of aggressive and disobedient behaviors is a sign of conduct

disorder, a mental health disease. It affects kids and teenagers and can be treated with
different types of psychotherapy. Oppositional defiant disorder is one of a range of
disruptive behavioral disorders that includes conduct disorder. (ODD). Conduct
disorder frequently co-occurs with other psychiatric diseases such depression, ADHD,
and learning problems (Kivi &Gepp, 2017).
14. Cognitive theorists suggest that people with this personality disorder harbor belief
such as “people with flaws, defects or mistakes are intolerable”.
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a. Narcissistic p.d.
b. Schizoid p.d.
c. Obsessive compulsive p.d.
d. Dependent p.d.

Based on the study of NIMH (2022), obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a

widespread, persistent, and long-lasting mental illness in which a person experiences
uncontrollable, recurrent thoughts (also known as "obsessions") and/or behaviors (also
known as "compulsions") that they feel compelled to repeat. Compulsions are repetitive
activities that a person with OCD feels the want to undertake in reaction to an obsessive
thought, whereas obsessions are recurring urges, thoughts, or mental images that
create anxiety.
15. the theory of schizophrenia currently with the MOST research support is:
a. Double-bind
b. Expressed emotion
c. Schizophrenic mothers
d. Communication deviances

According to Amaresha & Venkatasubramanian (2012), the quality of interaction

patterns and the form of family ties between family caregivers and patients of
schizophrenia and other psychiatric disorders are thought to be components of the
expressed emotion (EE), which is regarded as an unfavorable home environment. One
of the most reliable indicators of schizophrenia relapse has been discovered to be the
influence of EE.
16. Although using psychotherapeutic techniques for treatment have not been previously
successful for personality disorders, a number of therapies have been developed
and found to have made significant improvements in behaviors of people with this
disorder:
a. Obsessive-Compulsive personality disorder
b. Narcissistic personality disorder
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. Avoidant personality disorder
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Borderline Personality Disorder has a significantly affect a person's capacity to control

their emotions. This collapse in emotional control can amplify a person's impulsive
tendencies, which can have a negative impact on how they feel about themselves, and
damage their social relationships. Psychotherapeutic Techniques are considered as
possible treatments for BPD. These techniques include, Dialectical Behavior Therapy,
Schema Focused Therapy, and MentalizationBased Therapy (Mayo Clinic, n.d).
17. Cognitive theories regarding this disorder view patients as rigid and moralistic in
their thinking and who view intrusive thoughts as unacceptable and feel guilty about
them:
a. Separation anxiety disorder
b. Generalized anxiety disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
d. Post-traumatic Stress disorder

Obesessive-Compulsive disorder or OCD is defined by a pervasive obsession with

orderliness, perfectionism, and control which eventually slows down or obstructs the
completion of a task. Symptoms of this disorder include: fixation with perfectionism,
rigidity and stubbornness, pre-occupation with details and excessive
conscientiousness, fastidiousness, and inflexibility regarding ethical and moral issues
and values (Zimmerman, 2022).
18. From a socio-cultural perspective, the following disorders can be greatly influenced
by low socio-economic status except:
a. Mental retardation/intellectual disability
b. Antisocial personality disorder
c. Depressive disorder
d. Anorexia Nervosa

Mental retardation/intellectual disabilities are most likely not influenced by socio-

cultural perspectives due to the reason that some of these disabilities are present ever
since a child’s birth. Genetics and complications in pregnancy play a huge part in the
development of these disorders which is completely different with other disorders from
other choices as they can be contracted or develop as an individual’s life goes on
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19. The following statements are true of malingering, except:

a. It has medical treatment
b. Patients deliberately fake their illness
c. There is a conscious intent to deceive others
d. They may have antisocial personality disorder

Malingering is defined as when an individual makes up a sickness which is either

medical or psychological in order to obtain an external gain. In order to receive these
gains, the individual knowingly fabricates information regarding their “illness”. Once
they receive their gains, they cease whining. Malingerers cannot be cured by
medication or other treatment. Once the malingerer has exhausted all excuses, they
might give up (Alozai & McPherson, 2022).
20. A forty year old male is referred from his workplace for a psychiatric evaluation. It
appears that his colleagues noted him to be “bizarre” and “eccentric”, “suspicious of
others”. On assessment, it appears this individual has some ideas of reference and
believes in telepathy. His speech was over elaborate and circumstantial. His affect
was constricted and his behavior is peculiar. He remained anxious and
uncomfortable throughout the interview. A detailed mental status assessment does
not reveal any evidence of schizophrenia, mood disorders with psychotic features, or
any psychotic disorders. What is the patient’s most diagnosis?
a. Narcissistic personality disorder
b. Schizoid personality disorder
c. Schizotypal personality disorder
d. Paranoid personality disorder

The Schizotypal Personality Disorder (STPD) is characterized by a persistent pattern

of extreme discomfort in close relationships and social situations. People who are
diagnosed with the said disorder often have beliefs in superstition, have a distorted view
of reality and unusual behavior that hinder their social interactions with other people
(Cleveland Clinic, 2022).
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21. In this personality disorder, patients believe they are socially inept, personally
unappealing, or inferior to other:
a. Antisocial p.d
b. Histrionic p.d
c. Avoidant p.d
d. Schizotypal p.d.

A person who has an avoidant personality disorder is aware of being uncomfortable in

social situations and often feels socially inept.
Despite this self-awareness, comments by others about your shyness or nervousness
in social settings may feel like criticism or rejection.
22. What is the most common defense mechanism in patients with paranoid personality
disorder?
a. Regression
b. Projection
c. Repression
d. Reaction formation

Projection, in the form of projecting their inadequacies onto others

23. Which of the following are possible theories for the cause(s) of paranoid PD?
a. Modeling from the family
b. Cultural groupings have no effect.
c. A defect in chromosome
d. It has been definitively linked to childhood sexual abuse.

The exact cause of paranoid personality disorder is not fully understood, and there is
no single theory that can fully explain its development. However, some possible
theories include:
Biological factors: There may be genetic and neurobiological factors that increase the
risk of developing paranoid personality disorder. Some studies have suggested that
certain genes may be associated with paranoid personality traits.
 153

Environmental factors: Traumatic experiences, such as physical or emotional abuse,

neglect, or abandonment, may contribute to the development of paranoid personality
disorder.
24. In this category of disorders, children are thought to display deficits in a "theory of
mind"
a. Autism spectrum disorder
b. Intellectual disability
c. Specific learning disorder
d. Communication disorders

The category of disorders that is associated with deficits in "theory of mind" in children
is autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Theory of mind refers to the ability to understand
and attribute mental states such as beliefs, intentions, and emotions to oneself and
others. Children with ASD often have difficulty with social communication and
interaction, which may be related to their difficulty with theory of mind. They may have
trouble interpreting social cues, understanding the perspectives of others, and
communicating their own thoughts and emotions effectively. However, it's important to
note that not all children with ASD have the same symptoms or experience the same
challenges, as the disorder can vary widely in its presentation and severity.
25. Patients with this type of specific phobia are more prone to fainting spells:
a. Natural environment
b. Blood-injection-injury
c. Animal
d. Situation

Patients with blood-injection-injury phobia are more prone to fainting spells. This type
of specific phobia is unique in that it is associated with a unique physiological response
that is not seen in other types of phobias. When exposed to the feared stimulus, such
as blood or needles, individuals with this phobia may experience a sudden drop in heart
rate and blood pressure, leading to dizziness, nausea, and fainting. This is known as a
vasovagal response and is thought to be an evolutionary response that helped our
ancestors avoid blood loss in times of injury. However, in modern times, this response
 154

can be triggered by situations that pose no real threat, leading to the distress and
impairment associated with blood-injection-injury phobia
26. Interpersonal social rhythm therapy (ISRT)has been found to be effective for people
with this disorder:
a. Bipolar disorder
b. Major depressive disorder
c. Autism spectrum disorder
d. Intellectual disability

Frequent relapses are a hallmark of bipolar disease and are frequently brought on by
drug treatment noncompliance, stressful life events, and changes in social rhythms.
These issues are the focus of interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT), which
was created for this purpose.
27. Token economies can benefit patients with which category of disorders?
a. Neurodevelopment disorders
b. Schizophrenic spectrum disorder
c. Neurocognitive disorders
d. Both A & B

Throughout the 1960s and 1970s, token economies were frequently employed to treat
schizophrenia, focusing on its negative symptoms, such as lack of desire or attention
and social withdrawal.
28. Males are more prone to the following problems/conditions related to mental
disorders except;
a. Problems with sustaining attention
b. Obsessive-compulsive behavior
c. Concerns about weight gain
d. Earlier onset of schizophrenia

Male students had lower weight concerns and utilized less weight-controlling
techniques than female students.
29. Genes are biological factors in feeding and eating disorders carry a specific risk for
which disorder?
 a. Binge-eating disorders c. Anorexia nervosa
b. Rumination disorder d. None of the above

Many studies have been conducted on genetic risk factors and polymorphisms
(differences in gene expression) associated with core EDs. Anorexia Nervosa (AN),
Bulimia Nervosa (BN), and Binge Eating Disorder all appear to have a hereditary
component, according to research done in twins, family groups, and large-scale
genomic investigations (BED). It has been discovered that ED incidence rates are more
than twice as high in people with ED-affected parents as they are in people without
such a background. An especially substantial genetic link for AN has been shown by
familial research. If a person has a relative with AN, they are 11 times more likely to get
the condition than someone without a family history.
30. In a particular personal disorder, this therapy/intervention is conducted in a group
setting:
a. Metallization-based treatment c. Dialectical-behavior therapy
b. Steppes d. Transference-focused therapy

For outpatients with borderline personality disorder, Systems Training for Emotional
Predictability and Problem Solving (STEPPS) is a 20-week manual-based group
therapy program that incorporates cognitive behavioral components, skills training, and
a systems component. STEPPS, an additive group therapy, can alleviate symptoms
and behaviors associated with borderline personality disorder, increase overall
functioning, and lessen depression.
31. This pair of disorders typically occurs after a traumatic experience:
a. Acute stress disorder and dissociation amnesia
b. Acute stress disorder and panic disorder
c. Social anxiety disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder

Social anxiety and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a psychiatric disorder that
may occur in people who have experienced or witnessed a traumatic event, series of
events or set of circumstances.
 156

32. In this neurodevelopment disorder, behaviors such as body rocking, self-biting and
hitting one’s own body are typical behaviors:
a. Tourette’s disorder
b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
c. Developmental coordination disorder
d. Stereotypic movement disorder

Stereotypic movement disorder is characterized by repetitive, seemingly driven, and

apparently purposeless motor behavior. This behavior might look like hand shaking or
waving body rocking, head banging, self-biting, or hitting one’s own body.
33. The following are predatory paraphilic disorders except:
a. Frotteuristic disorder c. Exhibitionistic disorder
b. Pedophilic disorder d. Fetishistic disorder

Exhibitionism is a form of paraphilia. Exhibitionists (usually males) expose their

genitals, usually to unsuspecting strangers, and become sexually excited when doing
so. They may be aware of their need to surprise, shock, or impress the unwilling
observer. The victim is almost always a woman or a child of either sex.
34. The following are psychological factors that lead to sexual dysfunctional except:
a. Presence of an anxiety disorder
b. Performance anxiety
c. Spectatoring
d. Belief that sex is beneficial to health

Psychological causes: These include work-related stress and anxiety, concern about
sexual performance, marital or relationship problems, depression, feelings of guilt,
concerns about body image and the effects of a past sexual trauma
35. In this theory of schizophrenia, families are simultaneously over protective and
critical of a family member with the mental illness:
a. Expressed-emotion
b. Schizophrenogenic deviance
c. Double-binding
d. Communication deviance
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Meta-analyses of absolute and relative rates of mental disorders in offspring of parents

with schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or depression in family high-ris.
36. Mr. P comes to the ER intoxicated, and the resident learns he has a long history of
alcohol and drug abuse. What personality disorder would he probably have if he
were diagnosed as having one?
a. Dependent c. Antisocial
b. Paranoid d. Schizoid

People with antisocial personality disorder are characterized as having a history of

failing to comply with social norms (Barlow et al., 2018, p.416). It is a personality
disorder involving a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of
others. Substance abuse is common in people with antisocial personality disorder and
appears to be a lifelong pattern among these individuals (Hasin et al., 2011 in Barlow
et al., 2018, p.462).
37. A forty-five years old male is seen by a neurologist for "severe tension headaches".
The neurologist finds the patient to be anxious and has a tightened grip. The patient
further mentions that he was involved in a bus accident and was trapped in the bus
for several hours before he was rescued. This happened five months ago, and since
then, he has not been able to ride public transportation because he is 'scared' and
has nightmares about the accident. He also complains of difficulty in sleeping,
inability to concentrate at work, and feel nervous and on edge all the time, and
cannot relax his muscles. He avoids watching news programs on television that
feature vehicular accidents. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
a. Acute stress disorder c. PSTD
b. Major depression d. Panic disorder

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an enduring, distressing emotional disorder

that follows exposure to severe helplessness or a fear-inducing threat. The victim
reexperiences the trauma, avoids stimuli associated with it, and develops a numbing of
responsiveness and an increased vigilance and arousal (Barlow et al., 2018).
38. When patients with schizophrenia are viewed as attributing internal phenomena
(e.g., hallucinations) to external experiences, this is related to which type of theory?
 a. Cognitive c. Expressed emotion
b. Behavioral d. Socio-cultural

Researchers in London used single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

to study the cerebral blood flow of men with schizophrenia who also had auditory verbal
hallucinations and made a surprising discovery (McGuire, Shah, & Murray, 1993 in
Barlow et al., 2018, p. 490). The researchers used the brain-imaging technique while
the men were experiencing hallucinations and while they were not, and they found that
the part of the brain most active during hallucinations was Broca’s area. These
observations support the metacognition theory that people who are hallucinating are
not hearing the voices of others but are listening to their own thoughts or their own
voices and cannot recognize the difference (Allen & Modinos, 2012 in Barlow et al.,
2018, p. 490).
39. Self-talk, repeating phrases to help avoid reacting negatively to situations, is an
effective cognitive behavioral therapeutic technique for:
a. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder
b. Attention deficit hyperactive disorder and conduct disorder
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and autism spectrum disorder
d. Oppositional deficit disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

The DSM-5 criteria for conduct disorder focus on behaviors that violate the basic rights
of others and violate major societal norms. These behaviors include aggression and
cruelty toward people or animals, damaging property, lying, and stealing. Whereas, the
oppositional defiant disorder is diagnosed if a child does not meet the criteria for
conduct disorder—most especially, extreme physical aggressiveness—but exhibits
such behaviors as losing his or her temper, arguing with adults, repeatedly refusing to
comply with requests from adults, deliberately doing things to annoy others, and being
angry, spiteful, touchy, or vindictive (Kring et al., 2012).
Based on cognitive behavioral techniques, it is important to identify self-defeating or
irrational self-talk, then try and rationalize the thought processes, before finally
replacing the negative thoughts with more productive ones. In this way, performers
learn to take control of their thoughts with the positive impact this is likely to have on
 159

subsequent emotions and actions. Hence, self-talk is a helpful intervention to reduce

maladaptive behaviors from conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder.
40. All of the following are true of schizophrenia, except:
a. Equally prevalent in both men and women b.
b. Males have a later onset compared to females
c. Substance abuse is common in patients with schizophrenia
d. Stressful life events appear the trigger schizophrenia at an earlier age in
vulnerable individuals

While men and women have a similar prevalence of Schizophrenia, most of studies
demonstrated that female onset is typically 3–5 years later than males. It is now
accepted that men has a single peak age for onset which is between 21 and 25 years
old and women have two peaks age of onset, one between 25 and 30 years old and
another one is after 45 years old (Li et al., 2016). Furthermore, up to 50% of patients
with schizophrenia exhibit either alcohol or illicit drug dependence, and more than 70%
are nicotine-dependent (Winklbaur et al.,2006). On the other hand, Brown and Birley
(1968; Birley & Brown, 1970 Barlow et al., 2018, p.506) examined people whose onset
of schizophrenia could be dated within a week. These individuals had experienced a
high number of stressful life events in the 3 weeks before they started showing signs of
the disorder.
41. All of the following are characteristics features of conversion disorder, except:
a. Patients believe that they have serious underlying illness
b. Symptoms appear or are worsened following severe stress
c. Usually occurs between the age of 10 to 15 years
d. Patient are usually suggestible

Conversion disorder (also known as functional neurological system disorder) is a

condition in which a person experiences physical and sensory problems, such as
paralysis, numbness, blindness, deafness or seizures, with no underlying neurologic
pathology.
42. This therapeutic technique emphasized the patient’s need to recognize bodily
processes such as “gut” feelings that have been blocked off from awareness:
 160

a. Gestalt therapy
b. Client-centered therapy
c. Rational-emotional behavior therapy
d. Motivational Theory

Gestalt therapy is a form of psychotherapy that is centered on increasing a person's

awareness, freedom, and self-direction. It's a form of therapy that focuses on the
present moment rather than past experiences. Gestalt therapy is based on the idea that
people are influenced by their present environment. Each individual works to achieve
personal growth and balance. Gestalt therapy focuses on the use of empathy and
unconditional acceptance. This helps individuals get rid of distress by learning how to
trust and accept what they feel.
43. Phenylketonuria an inability to break dawn an essential amino acid found in milk and
milk products, it is typical biological factor in:
a. Tic Disorder
b. Intellectual disability
c. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. Autism spectrum disorder

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disorder that causes a buildup of the amino acid

phenylalanine, which is an essential amino acid (one that cannot be made in the body
but must be consumed in food). Excess phenylalanine is normally converted to tyrosine,
another amino acid, and eliminated from the body. Without the enzyme that converts it
to tyrosine, called phenylalanine hydroxylase, phenylalanine builds up in the blood and
is toxic to the brain, causing intellectual disability.

44. According to cognitive theorists, certain people tend to process information about
social interactions in ways that promote aggressive reaction/behavior, this is true for
what disorder?
a. Conduct disorder c. Intermittent explosive disorder
b. Antisocial personality disorder d. All of the above
 All of the disorder that have been mentioned are all promoting aggressive
reaction/behavior when interacting with other people.
45. It is the most common type of delusion disorder:
a. Jealous c. Persecutory
b. Grandiose d. Erotontanic

The most common type of delusional disorder is the persecutory type — when someone
believes others are out to harm them despite evidence to the contrary
46. From a cognitive standpoint, people with depressive disorders think or perceive in
the following ways except;
a. They percieve events beyond their control less accurately than those
without depression
b. They explain negative events in terms of internal, stable, global, causal
attributions
c. They view uncontrollable events more, accurate than those who are not
depressed
d. They view the world through a negative triad

Depression results in cognitive, psychomotor, and other sorts of dysfunction, as well as

a depressed mood (e.g., difficulty concentrating, exhaustion, lack of sexual drive, loss
of interest or pleasure in practically all previously appreciated activities, sleep
difficulties). Suicidal thoughts and attempts are common among people with depressive
disorders.
However, if the patient perceives events beyond their control it might seem like they
have coexisting mental disorders such as Anxiety and panic episodes. Frequently
coincide with other mental symptoms or diseases, which can sometimes make
diagnosis and treatment more difficult.
47. Which of the following are usually found in patients with persistent depressive
disorder
a. Psychomotor retardation or agitation
b. Low energy and low self esteem
c. Disturbed appetite and libido
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d. anxiety

A persistent, protracted form of depression is known as persistent depressive disorder.

You can experience melancholy and emptiness, lose interest in routine tasks, and
struggle to complete them. You might also experience low self-esteem, failure, and
hopelessness. These emotions last for years and may obstruct your relationships,
studies, employment, and daily activities.
48. Patients who have a defective capacity to form social relationships are mainly
diagnosed as displaying;
a. Schizoid personality disorder
b. Antisocial personality disorder
c. Narcissistic personality
d. Borderline personality disorder

One of the illnesses in the "Cluster 'A'" or eccentric personality disorder is schizoid
personality disorder. These conditions frequently cause people to appear strange or
weird. Additionally, those who suffer from schizoid personality disorder frequently
exhibit a disinterest in and indifference to social interactions. They typically favor
solitary hobbies and are loners who rarely show intense emotion.
49. At what age it is common to see normal separation anxiety?
a. Two years c. Eighteen months
b. Nine months d. Five months

Anxiety about losing or being separated from a person or other attachment figure is
known as separation anxiety. Although it is more frequent in children, separation
anxiety can also occur in adults. Due to the actual or projected separation from a
particular attachment figure, a person may experience extremely high levels of anxiety.
While some infants exhibit object permanence and separation anxiety as early as 4 to
5 months of age, the majority begin to exhibit more severe symptoms at around 9
months. If your baby is under the weather or hungry, exhausted, or unwell, the leave-
taking may be harsher. If it's a difficult day, keep transitions brief and routine.
50. A thirty year old male comes in reluctantly to see a psychiatrist because his family
believes he has mental illness. The patient however, thinks he is fine, the family
 163

members report that as far as they remember, the patient has little interest in
meeting others, pleasurable activities or having a girlfriend/sexual relationship. A
detailed mental status assessment does not reveal any evidence of schizophrenia
mood disorder with psychotic features, or any psychotic disorder. What is the
patient's most likely diagnosis?
a. Obsessive compulsive disorder
b. Schizotypal personality disorder
c. Schizoid disorder
d. Dependent personality disorder

A persistent pattern of extreme discomfort with close relationships and social

interactions is a defining characteristic of schizotypal personality disorder (STPD), a
mental health disease. Superstitions, flawed reality views, and strange actions are all
characteristics of STPD patients. Their ailments typically interfere with their
relationships.
51. Using the drug antabuse to treat alcohol use, disorder is an example of this form of
behavior therapy.
a. Flooding
b. Aversion therapy
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Response shaping

Aversion therapy has been used as a psychological treatment method for stopping
compulsive behaviors such as drinking since 1932. It is known for using antabuse
medication as treatment (Wellness Retreat, 2022).
52. Habit reversal therapy has been found to be effective in this category of neuro-
developmental disorder:
a. Tic disorder
b. Intellectual disability
c. Autism spectrum disorder
d. Communication disorder
 164

Several studies have confirmed that Habit Reversal Therapy can significantly reduce
Tic disorder symptom severity. Meta‐analysis of TD behavioral interventions showed
that behavioral therapy yields medium to large effects (Liu et al, 2022).
53. The therapeutic technique often involves rationally disputing or confronting a
person’s false beliefs:
a. Psychodynamic therapy
b. Client-centered therapy
c. Rational emotive behavior therapy
d. Motivational interviewing

Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy

(CBT) that aims to help a person challege unhelpful thoughts to avoid negative
emotions or behaviors (Fletcher, 2022).
54. While Freud suggested this personality disorder is a result of fixation on an earlier
phase of psychosexual development. Horney saw it as a reaction formation against
the problems of self-worth:
a. Borderline p.d.
b. Narcissistic p.d.
c. Antisocial p.d.
d. Obsessive-compulsive p.d.

There have been multiple etiological theories of OCPD. Freudian theorists have posited
fixation or strict parenting during anal-psychosexual stage (Reddy et al, 2016).
Meanwhile, according to Horney, compulsive behavior generates a basic intrapsychic
conflict that may take the form of either an idealized self-image or self-hatred
55. The following defense mechanism is involved in dramatic-emotional-erratic
personality disorder:
a. Dissociation c. Acting out
b. Splitting d. All of them

A histrionic personality disorder, or commonly known as a dramatic personality

disorder, is a psychiatric disorder distinguished by a pattern of exaggerated
 165

emotionality and attention-seeking behaviors. These patients take repression and

dissociation as a significant form of defense mechanism (French & Shrestha, (2022).
56. Which is a diagnostic symptom of Histrionic PD?
a. Inappropriate sexually seductive or provocative behavior
b. Recurrent self- mutilating behavior
c. Auditory hallucination
d. Pressured speech

A mental health condition known as histrionic personality disorder (HPD) is

characterized by strong, erratic emotions and a distorted sense of self. Histrionic is
defined as "dramatic or theatrical."
Diagnosis criteria for histrionic personality disorder require meeting five (or more) of the
following persistent behaviors:
• Uncomfortable when not the center of attention.
• Seductive or provocative behavior.
• Shifting and shallow emotions.
• Uses appearance to draw attention.
• Impressionistic and vague speech.
• Dramatic or exaggerated emotions.
• Suggestible (easily influenced by others).
• Consider relationships more intimate than they are.
57. All of the following are considered as negative symptoms of schizophrenia, except:
a. Delusion c. Affect flattening
b. Apathy d. Antiedonia

Schizophrenia is a chronic mental disorder. People who have the disorder may go
through moments of feeling detached from reality, frequently exhibiting a mix of
hallucinations and delusions. Although the condition can have a significant impact on a
person's life, it is less prevalent than other mental disorders, affecting roughly 20 million
individuals globally.
 166

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia involve more behaviors that are typically absent in
those without the illness. They consist of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized
thinking, and abnormal body movements
Negative symptoms are behaviors that are absent or underdeveloped, as opposed to
positive symptoms, which signify additional behavior. Schizophrenia's negative
symptoms include; an inability to convey emotions, social disengagement, such as
speaking to others relatively little even in circumstances where it may be crucial,
planning or completing an activity, such as purchasing groceries, with difficulty. A
person in the field of mental health may use the words:
affective flattening: lack of emotional expression
alogia: poverty of speech
avolition: difficulties planning or sticking with everyday activities
58. An example of a skill in the practical domain among patients with intellectual
disability:
a. Problem solving
b. Managing personal care
c. Understanding others experience
d. Regulating own social interaction

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders Mental Disorders (DSM-5;
American Psychiatric Association Association, 2013) distinguishes three types of
Criteria B (adaptive functioning): conceptual, social and practical.
In order to be diagnosed with ID, individuals must have at least one disability. domain.
Typically, children with ID have difficulties in several areas: The conceptual
(academic) domain consists of memory, language, and reading abilities writing,
mathematical thinking, practical knowledge knowledge, problem-solving abilities, and
sound judgment in unusual circumstances, among others.
The social domain entails being aware of the actions of others. feelings, experiences,
and thoughts; empathy; friendship; interpersonal communication skills among others,
abilities; and social judgment.
 167

Learning and self-management in a variety of life circumstances are part of the

practical domain, including personal care, job responsibilities, money
among other things, task organization for school and job, self-regulation of conduct,
and management.
59. Which of the following treatments requires that a clinician obtain written informed
consent from a patient?
a. Behavior therapy
b. Group therapy
c. Supportive psychotherapy
d. Making the patient join a self -help group

The term "behavioral therapy" refers to a wide range of methods for altering undesirable
behavior. The objective is to prevent undesirable behaviors and strengthen positive
ones.
Behavioral therapy is action-based, in contrast to the forms of therapy that are founded
on insight (such as psychoanalytic therapy and humanistic therapies). Because of this,
behavioral therapy is frequently extremely focused. The intention is to educate people
on new behaviors to reduce or completely eradicate the problem, which is the behavior
itself.
Behavioral therapy can be used to treat a wide range of psychological conditions and
disorders, including:
• Bipolar disorder
• Alcohol and substance use disorders
• Anxiety
• Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
• Autism spectrum disorders
• Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
• Depression
• Eating disorders
• Panic disorder
• Phobias
 168

• Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

The benefits of behavioral therapy are numerous. However, using behavioral strategies
is not always the best course of action with these following reasons:
• It's Not Enough for Complex Mental Health Conditions
• It May Not Account for Underlying Problems
• It May Not Address the Whole Picture
Informed Consent Goals and Benefits
Potential goals and benefits of an appropriately completed informed consent process,
according to Snyder and Barnett (2006), include "promoting client autonomy and self-
determination, minimizing the risk of exploitation and harm, fostering rational decision-
making, and enhancing the therapeutic alliance. In particular, informed consent:
• Clients are empowered by providing them with necessary information,
diminishing their reliance on the psychotherapist and boosting their autonomy.
(Beahrs & Gutheil, 2001).
• Encourages trust, openness, and sharing in the interaction between the
psychotherapist and the client and sets the tone for a collaborative working
partnership. (Barnett, Wise, Johnson-Greene, & Bucky, 2007).
• Encourages trust, openness, and sharing in the interaction between the
psychotherapist and the client and sets the tone for a collaborative working
partnership. (Barnett, Wise, Johnson-Greene, & Bucky, 2007).
• Reduces the danger of client exploitation or injury by teaching clients about
realistic roles, duties, and behaviors. (Barnett et al., 2007).
• Encourages ethical actions through developing respect for the client's right to
dignity as well as a feeling of autonomy, justice, and integrity. (APA, 2010).
60. Severe amphetamine intoxication can produce all of the following signs, except:

a. Elevated pulse c. Auditory hallucination

b. Hypervigilance d. d. Constricted pupils

Hypervigilance is a high level of alertness. When you are hypervigilant, you are
particularly sensitive to your surroundings. It can make you feel as though you're on
 169

high alert for any hidden dangers, whether from other people or the surroundings.
These dangers however, are not always real.
Hypervigilance can be a sign of a variety of mental health issues, including:
• PTSD is an acronym for post-traumatic stress disorder. (PTSD)
• Anxiety problems
• Schizophrenia
All of these things might put your brain and body on high alert. Hypervigilance could
endanger your life. It can have an effect on how you interact with and perceive others,
or it might promote paranoia. Hypervigilant symptoms include physical, behavioral,
emotional, and mental symptoms.
61. Which of the following conditions are associated with a higher risk of depression?
a. Alzheimer's disease c. Stroke
b. Parkinson's disease d. All of the above.

Depression is very common among people with Alzheimer's, especially during the early
and middle stages. Depression is very common when it comes to Parkinson's disease.
Up to 50% of people with Parkinson's disease experience depression. Depression is
common after stroke, affecting approximately one third of stroke survivors at any one
time after stroke (compared with 5%–13% of adults without stroke), with a cumulative
incidence of 55%
62. Which of the following is correct about those suffering from body dysmorphic
disorder?
a. Sudden onset of symptoms.
b. Surgery usually is successful
c. They conceptualize the problems as only physical in nature
d. Surgery does not affect the development of psychiatric symptoms.

Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD), or body dysmorphia, is a mental health condition

where a person spends a lot of time worrying about flaws in their appearance. These
flaws are often unnoticeable to others.
63. Obsessions regarding contamination are associated with which compulsive
behavior?
 170

a. Checking behavior
b. Hand washing
c. Counting behavior
d. Arranging and rearranging objects

Patients with compulsive hand washing perform excessive and repetitive washing of
their hands in an attempt to relieve severe distress associated with obsessive and
irrational fears of contamination.
64. The cognitive perspective suggests that this diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia
arises from expectations that social interactions will be aversive, resulting in the
need to converse scarce cognitive resources:
a. Delusions c. Hallucination
b. Disorganized behavior d. Negative symptoms

Negative symptoms of hallucinations may include anticipating social encounters to be

unpleasant and avoiding them to conserve limited cognitive resources. Hallucinations
can also be characterized as hypersensitivity to perceptual information with a
predisposition to assign events to other sources.
65. Theoretically, the cognitive explanations for this personally disorders is that is a
result of a basis belief that others are malevolent and deceptive, but one is not
confident in defending oneself against them
a. Antisocial p.d c. Paranoid p.d
b. Borderline p.d d. Schizoid p.d

Paranoia–the belief that others have malicious intentions towards us–shares many of
the hallmarks of self-deception [7]. It may protect self-esteem [8,9], and, by polarizing
the social world it may solidify group identity [7], via direct inflation of self-image, or
indirectly, through overconfidence. Confident people are more convincing [10,11], and,
in so being, they further reinforce their own misbeliefs [12,13]. Paranoid beliefs are of
course social, in that they are about powerful and nefarious others.
66. Cognitive theorists suggest that people catastrophes their symptoms in this category
of disorders:
a. Factitious b. Eating
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c. Anxiety d. Personality

Our dysfunctional thoughts, according to cognitive theory, most likely lead to extreme
emotions. Maladaptive behaviors result from these extreme emotions. Take a look at
the following example to see how powerful these thoughts are. Let's say I'm getting
ready to take a difficult test. At the same time I ponder internally "I can do nothing right,
I'll most likely fail this test." This thought will probably make me feel troubled. This level
of anxiety will make it hard for me to concentrate and get a good grade when I finally
take the test.
67. In this this anxiety disorder, patients in therapy are given role-playing and relaxation
exercises, and are coached by a therapist, often in group setting for modeling and
feedback purposes:
a. panic disorder
b. social anxiety disorder
c. separation anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Social anxiety disorder is typically treated with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a
type of psychotherapy that has been supported by research. To help you feel less
anxious and afraid, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) teaches you new ways to
think, act, and respond to situations. Additionally, CBT can assist you in developing
and practicing social skills, which are crucial for treating social anxiety disorder. CBT
is the gold standard for psychotherapy and has been thoroughly studied.
CBT's exposure therapy encourages you to engage in previously avoided activities by
gradually confronting the fears that are underlying your anxiety disorder. Exercises for
relaxation are sometimes used in conjunction with exposure therapy. For social
anxiety disorder, CBT in a group setting can also provide unique benefits.
68. What do patients with dissociative disorder and borderline personality disorder have
in common?
a. chronic feelings of emptiness
b. self-mutilated behavior
c. two or more personalities alternate control over the individual’s behavior
 172

d. they engage in frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment

People with dissociative disorders self-injure for a variety of reasons, including trauma-
related cues, emotion dysregulation, stressors, psychiatric and physical health
symptoms, dissociative experiences, and unsuccessful coping strategies. Also,
episodes of extreme sadness, hopelessness, anxiety, or confusion are common for
people with mood disorders like bipolar disorder. At the point when these feelings get
too serious, the individual might battle with how to adapt to overpowering feelings, and
for certain individuals, endeavors at adapting to trouble might appear as
demonstrations of self-injury.
69. which of the following disorders is characterized by obsessive-compulsive
symptoms?
a. trichotillomania c. gambling disorder
b. pyromania d. kleptomania

A mental health condition known as trichotillomania, or TTM for short, is characterized

by the compulsive pulling out or breaking of one's own hair. Obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD) is the term used to describe this condition. It frequently has extremely
detrimental effects on a person's happiness, well-being, and overall quality of life when
it is severe.
70. An acutely psychotic woman with schizophrenia is voluntarily admitted to the
hospital. After a history and physical examination are completed, the clinician
recommends medication, which the patient promptly refuses. Which of the following
steps would the clinician take next?
a. Contact a family member and discuss one’s recommendations to get consent.
b. insist that the medication be given without the patient’s consent.
c. conduct an interview to determine if a patient is competent to consent or
refuse medication.
d. consider the patient competent and convince an administrative panel to
determine the need for involuntary medication.

According to a study, in clinical practice, it is essential to determine psychiatric patients'

mental capacity for making healthcare-related decisions. It is difficult to accurately
 173

estimate the prevalence of decision-making capacity in mental health patients due to

the variability in study methods. However, up to three quarters of psychiatric patients,
including those with serious illnesses like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder, may be
able to make decisions about their medical care in light of their illness.
71. You are asked to assess a twenty-eight-year-old woman who is waiting for stitches
for a wrist laceration. She has been in a hospital ER seven times previously for self-
inflicted wrist lacerations. She reports rapid mood swings, impulsivity, a chronic
feeling of emptiness, and periods in which she feels paranoid when under stress.
Which diagnosis seems most appropriate?
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
d. Paranoid personality disorder

Borderline Personality Disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal

relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity, beginning in early
adulthood. In reference to DSM-D this personality disorder includes the following
criteria: (1) Frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment. (Note: Do not include
suicidal or self-mutilating behavior covered in Criterion 5.) (2) A pattern of unstable and
intense interpersonal relationships characterized by alternating between extremes of
idealization and devaluation. (3) Identity disturbance: markedly and persistently
unstable self-image or sense of self. (4) Impulsivity in at least two areas that are
potentially self-damaging (e.g., spending, sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, binge
eating). (Note: Do not include suicidal or self-mutilating behavior covered in criterion 5.)
(5) Recurrent suicidal behavior, gestures, or threats, or self-mutilating behavior. (6)
Affective instability due to a marked reactivity of mood (e.g., intense episodic dysphoria,
irritability, or anxiety usually lasting a few hours and only rarely more than a few days).
(7) Chronic feelings of emptiness. (8) Inappropriate, intense anger or difficulty
controlling anger (e.g., frequent displays of temper, constant anger, recurrent physical
fights). (9) Transient, stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms
(Barlow and Durand, 2015).
 174

Thus, in assessing the presented case, we can make a diagnosis that she has a
borderline personality disorder as she possesses most of the criteria for the said
personality disorder.
72. Which of the following is used in the first-line treatment of OCD?
a. Avoidance of stressful stimuli
b. In vivo exposure therapy
c. Lithium
d. Neurosurgery

Aside from various drugs that were initially used to treat patients with OCD, it was seen
that exposure and ritual prevention (ERP) is a highly structured psychological treatment
and the most effective approach to use. It is also known as In Vivo Exposure Therapy,
a process whereby the rituals are actively prevented and the patient is systematically
and gradually exposed to the feared thoughts or situations. In severe cases, patients
may be hospitalized, and the faucets removed from the bathroom sink for a period to
discourage repeated washing. However, the rituals are prevented, the procedures
seem to facilitate “reality testing,” because the client soon learns, at an emotional level,
that no harm will result whether he carries out the rituals or not (Barlow and Durand,
2015).
73. Cognitive Theorists view patients with this disorder as people who experience bodily
symptoms more intensely than other people:
a. Somatic symptom disorder c. Major depressive disorder
b. Body dysmorphic disorder d. Generalized anxiety disorder

Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms

such as pain or fatigue that cause major emotional distress and problems functioning.
The diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder include the following: (A) One or
more somatic symptoms that are distressing and/or result in significant disruption of
daily life. (B) Excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to the somatic
symptoms or associated health concerns as manifested by at least one of the following:
1. Disproportionate and persistent thoughts about the seriousness of one’s symptoms.
2. High level of health-related anxiety. 3. Excessive time and energy devoted to these
 175

symptoms or health concerns. (C) Although any one symptom may not be continuously
present, the state of being symptomatic is persistent (typically more than 6 months)
(Barlow and Durand, 2015).
74. Which of the following is a primary defense mechanism in anxious and fearful
personality disorder?
a. Fantasy c. Isolation
b. Projection d. Dissociation

Anxiety and fearful personality disorders frequently cause intense, excessive and
persistent worry about everyday situations, and it interferes with the daily functioning of
an individual. There are several types of anxiety disorders that include specific features
of the focus of the anxiety which are generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder,
agoraphobia, specific phobia, social anxiety disorder, separation anxiety disorder, and
selective mutism. As an individual experiences persistent worry about their everyday
life, they tend to develop a subconscious mechanism of isolation where they are
separating their emotions or impulse from the rest of their thoughts to protect their ego
from experiencing anxieties that are aroused by specific situations (Barlow and Durand,
2015).
75. Object relations theories suggest that this personality disorder stems from a “poorly
developed and integrated view of the self” mainly due to poor early relationships with
caregivers:
a. Borderline p.d. c. Obsessive-compulsive p.d
b. Schizoid p.d d. Schizotypal p.d

Object-Relations theory focuses on how early experiences influence the formation,

organization, and functioning of mental capacities needed to adaptively navigate adult
life. It also provides clinicians with a framework for conceptualizing personality
development that can be used in characterizing personality pathology. In relation to
ORT, if an individual experienced a poorly developed and integrated view of self due to
a poor early relationship with caregivers, we can assume that he has a schizotypal
personality disorder. Schizotypal Personality Disorder stems during childhood and can
be shaped through the interaction of inherited tendencies and environmental factors.
 176

People with this kind of personality disorder are often described as eccentric and have
few, if any, close relationships. They generally don't understand how relationships form
or the impact of their behavior on others. They may also misinterpret others' motivations
and behaviors and develop significant distrust of others (Barlow and Durand, 2015).
76. Which of the following symptoms has to be present to diagnose major depressive
disorder?
a. Hopelessness
b. Lack of energy/motivation
c. Guilt or worthlessness
d. Depressed mood or loss of interest

When a person exhibits persistently low or depressed mood, anhedonia, or decreased

interest in pleasurable activities, guilt or worthlessness feelings, lack of energy, poor
concentration, appetite changes, psychomotor retardation or agitation, sleep
disturbances, or suicidal thoughts, a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is made.
In order to be diagnosed with MDD, a person must exhibit five of the symptoms listed
above, of which one must be a depressed mood or anhedonia causing social or
occupational impairment, according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5).
77. This theory/model for explaining panic disorder suggests that those with the disorder
are born with an overactive fight-or-flight response, but don’t develop it unless
something triggers such an overactive reaction.
a. Behavioral c. Vulnerability-stress
b. Humanistic d. Psychodynamic

The tendency to be generally neurobiologically overreactive to the events of daily life is

a vulnerability to stress that we all inherit—some more so than others (generalized
biological vulnerability). But certain individuals are also more likely than others to react
to an emergency alarm reaction (unexpected panic attack) when presented with stress-
producing situations.
78. A sixty-five year old attorney is spending time with his family and his eighteenth
month old granddaughter. When the child is given to him, he holds her at arm's
 177

length, obviously uncomfortable, and at dinner when she is crying, he snaps, "Act
like a young lady". He prides himself in his accounting skills and the fact that he has
never made a mistake on any forms. When confronted with clients who contest wills
by their family members, he advises, "You should relate to your family more",
without explaining further. He is stubborn and cold, but not mean. His symptoms are
most characteristic of what disorder?
a. Narcissistic p.d
b. Obsessive-compulsive PD
c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. Intermittent explosive disorder

A persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control (with no

tolerance for flexibility) that eventually slows down or obstructs job completion is a
hallmark of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. An individual with OCPD could
not be conscious of their illness or recognize the need for change. They can even think
that it's the responsibility of others to change. Individuals with OCPD have a tendency
to hold other people to their high standards.
79. Which pair of therapeutic techniques is effective for treating posttraumatic stress
disorder?
a. Aversion therapy and modeling
b. Systematic desensitization and imaginable exposure
c. Aversion therapy and flooding
d. Systematic desensitization and vivo exposure

A traumatic incident is challenging to replicate, and few therapists are willing to try. This
contrasts with the object of a specific phobia. As a result, imaginal exposure, in which
the details of the trauma and the emotions connected to it are worked through
systematically, has gone by many names throughout the years. The most popular
method for accomplishing this goal with adolescents or adults right now is to work with
the victim to create a narrative of the traumatic experience that is then thoroughly
discussed in therapy.
80. Primary gain and secondary gain and usually associated with this disorder:
 178

a. Panic disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Somatic symptom disorder
d. Post-Traumatic stress disorder

One or more signs or symptoms of various types may be present in conversion disorder.
Weakness or paralysis, irregular movements such tremors or dystonia, abnormal gait
patterns, and abnormal limb posturing are all examples of motor symptoms. Skin
sensation, eyesight, or hearing may be altered, diminished, or absent as sensory
symptoms. Epileptic seizures may resemble episodes of abnormal widespread limb
shaking with apparent impairment or loss of consciousness (also called psychogenic or
non-epileptic seizures). There could be periods of inactivity that resemble syncope or
coma. Additional signs include diplopia, altered articulation (dysarthria), a sensation of
a lump in the throat (globus), and reduced or missing voice volume
(dysphonia/aphonia).
81. One effective therapeutic technique for this disorder involves keeping the caregiver
and the patient apart for increasing periods of time until the patient is able to
manage without the caregiver being around all the time.
a. Panic disorder c. Agoraphobia
b. Separation anxiety disorder d. Generalized anxiety disorder

The strong fear of being removed from a loved one or caregiver is known as separation
anxiety disorder. It has the potential to impact both children and adults. Separation
anxiety in babies and toddlers is a typical emotion. When anxiety interferes with age-
appropriate behavior, it is diagnosed as a disease that requires treatment. Therapy and
medicine may be used in treatment.
82. Mr. Hero is a forty-five years old criminal with a diagnosis of antisocial PD. What is
the primary behavioral pathology of patients with this disorder?
a. Mistrust of the motives of others
b. Social anxiety
c. Overly deliberate planning
d. Disregard and violation of others’ right
 179

Antisocial personality disorder, often known as sociopathy, is a mental health disease

in which an individual continuously disregards right and wrong and disregards the rights
and feelings of others. People with antisocial personality disorder intentionally irritate
or anger others, and they manipulate or treat others cruelly or with cruel indifference.
They have no guilt or regret for their actions.
People with antisocial personality disorder frequently break the law and become
criminals. They may lie, act angrily or impulsively, and have drug and alcohol issues.
They have difficulties completing duties linked to family, career, or school on a
consistent basis.
83. In factitious disorder:
a. Substance addiction
b. Symptoms are not under the patients’ control
c. The primary goal of the symptoms is secondary gain
d. The physician may become the perpetual object of transference

Factitious disorder is a significant mental health disorder in which a person appears ill
or suffers from physical or mental sickness. People with factitious disorder purposefully
fabricate symptoms of sickness in order to receive care and attention in a medical
setting. The symptoms are not intended to provide patients with practical benefits;
rather, the gain is thought to be primarily psychological.
Factitious disorder is a type of mental illness. It is related with severe mental issues
and patients' proclivity to injure themselves by producing more symptoms, culminating
in unneeded procedures and surgeries.
84. An exogenous substance that alters the functions cells when given at relatively low
doses is called: c. Antibiotics
a. Minaret d. Vitamins
b. Drugs
The term "drug" has multiple meanings:
- Disease treatment medication
- A chemical that is prone to overuse
- An "exogenous" chemical that, when consumed in relatively low levels
 180

significantly changes the activity of particular physiological cells (chemical is

not necessary for normal cellular activity)
85. Persons who experience others as either “all good” or “all bad” and cannot
experience an ambivalent relationship are exhibiting which of the following
mechanisms?
a. Splitting c. Regression
b. Projection d. Identification

Otto Kernberg is a renowned psychoanalyst. He started talking about "splitting" as a

deficit rather than a protection technique. He argued that people with BPD lacked the
ability to see both the good and the negative in others or oneself at the same time.
According to his theory, future patients with BPD failed to negotiate an early
developmental stage known as reconciliation, which occurs around the age of two.
Two-year-olds who are "normal" are said to develop the ability to combine positive and
unpleasant images.
86. Psychodynamic theorist attributes this act to repressed rage, leading to self-
destruction
a. Homicide c. Abuse of Child
b. Suicide d. Drug Abuse

According to Hendin (2020) the psychodynamic meaning of suicide for a patient derives
from both affective and cognitive components. Young patients often commit suicide in
situations of rage, despair, hopelessness, and guilt. Death as reunion, death as rebirth,
death as retaliatory abandonment, death as retribution, and death as self-destruction
or atonement are some of the conscious (cognitive) and unconscious meanings
ascribed to death by the suicidal patient that may be used to categorize the meanings
of suicide
87. This defense mechanism is said to be involved in the development of specific
phobias.
a. Displacement c. Intellectualization
b. Identification d. Reaction-Formation
 According to Bailey and Pico (2022), Specific phobias are extreme, unjustified fears of
things or circumstances that are not actually dangerous but nonetheless cause anxiety
and avoidance. The worry of suppressing a memory, thought, or incident is projected
onto another object or circumstance, as part of the unconscious defense mechanism
known as displacement. This may lead to a particular phobia, which is generally less
frightening to manage than suppressed emotions or conflicts.
88. All of the following features predict a good prognosis in patients with schizophrenia,
except:
a. Female Gender c. Good social support
b. Later age of onset d. Negative symptoms

According to Chow (2018), one of the factors that contributes to schizophrenia's poor
prognosis is the disease's later age of onset. Symptoms of schizophrenia often manifest
in persons in their mid- to late 20s, however they can appear as late as their mid-30s.
When schizophrenia manifests before the age of 18, it is referred to as having an early
onset. Schizophrenia seldom develops in children under the age of 13, and it may be
more difficult to recognize the illness in this age range (Mayo Clinic, 2021)
89. While riding the train a 25-years old man experiences intense and vivid mental
imagine of ripping the blouse of the elderly woman across from him. Through
recognizing he would never act such thoughts, he becomes visibly anxious and turns
away from her. These symptoms are an example of a(an):
a. Visual Hallucination c. Dissociative experience
b. Thought Insertion d. Intrusive image/thought

According to Brewin, Gregory, Lipton and Burgess (2010) Intrusive images are made-
up scenes that are frequently incredibly vivid, intricate, and have extremely distressing
content. As opposed to that, stuck ideas that cause a lot of distress are called intrusive
thoughts. They generate a lot of anxiety because they seem to appear suddenly, arrive
unexpectedly and can cause a great deal of anxiety. Unwanted intrusive thoughts
frequently contain sexual, violent, or otherwise unpleasant images. Individuals who
have unwelcome intrusive thoughts worry that they could actually perform out the
imagined actions (Seif & Winston, 2018).
 182

90. The following are true of motivational interviewing except:

a. Brief form of therapy
b. Influenced by Fritz Peris therapeutic technique
c. Often used in treating substance use disorder or addiction
d. Helps people resolve their commitment to treatment

The foundation of motivational interviewing is the importance of the relationship.

According to MI, the counselor is a component of the change process and has been
influenced by Otto Rank and Carl Rogers (Online Psychology, 2022)
91. Patients with general anxiety disorder commonly seek initial psychiatric treatment for
their;
a. Insomnia c. Dysphonic mood
b. Muscle tension d. Excessive worry

GAD is also characterized by persistent muscular tension, cramping, twitching, and

discomfort. In an emergency, our muscles contract to ready us for action. When the
initial tension has passed, the muscles of people with GAD are unable to return to a
relaxed state. GAD patients are most likely to experience stiffness and even discomfort
from excessive muscular tension in the neck and shoulders. Tension headaches are
also prevalent and are caused by tight muscles in the back of the head, the jaw, and
the forehead. GAD is a fairly prevalent condition among Fibromyalgia patients whose
continuous muscular tension has resulted in a large number of very tightly clenched
"knots."
92. Which of the following psychoactive substances can cause symptoms similar to
depression?

a. Opiates c. Amphetamines
b. Ecstasy d. Phencyclidine

Chronic use of CNS depressants (e.g., alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and

opiates) can cause depressive symptoms such as poor concentration, anhedonia, and
difficulty sleeping, while withdrawal can cause anxiety and restlessness.
 183

93. This condition is characterized by painful sexual intercourse

a. Dyspareunia c. Sexual aversion disorder
b. Vaginismus d. Disorganized Schizophrenia

Dyspareunia (dis-puh-ROO-nee-uh) is the medical name for painful intercourse, which

is described as chronic or recurring genital discomfort that occurs shortly before, during,
or after sex. If you're having painful intercourse, consult your doctor. Treatments target
the underlying cause and can help remove or mitigate this widespread issue.
94. A man who just admitted to a psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of schizophreniform
disorder. The resident is taking a detailed history from the family about his premorbid
symptoms and functioning. The prodromal phase of schizophrenia commonly
includes:
a. Hallucination c. Disorganized speech
b. Suicidal thoughts d. Strange ideations

There is substantial evidence that schizophrenia is a neurodevelopmental illness with

a life-long course. Beginning with hereditary and environmental causes, it will
eventually lead to deficiencies in brain systems, impairing the functioning of substrates
necessary for sensory input appraisal, cognitive processes, and information
processing. The widely accepted neurodevelopmental model of schizophrenia has not
shed light on the hotly discussed prodromal phase of the condition. Anxiety, sadness,
mood swings, sleep difficulties, irritability, aggression, and suicide ideation are all
recorded as prodromal symptoms. Patients may also appear with a variety of diseases,
such as obsessive-compulsive disorder and dissociative disorders.

95. A level given to people who manifest abnormal behavior during the dark ages is
called:
a. Demons
b. Witches
c. Sorcerers
d. Heretics
 184

Answer: All of the above.

From the standpoint of current psychology and psychiatry, it is all too easy to look back
in time and think that it is a modern discipline, although one with origins in the
Renaissance and Enlightenment. Before this period in European history, there was the
Middle Ages, sometimes known as the Dark Ages, a time when popular belief held that
demonic possession, witchcraft, and superstition defined mental disorders and religion
dominated research of the mind.
96. The Five months after his parents separated, an eleven year old girl seems sad at
home most of the time , loses interest in playing friends and begins to do poorly in
school .
a. Adjustment disorder
b. Major depressive episode
c. Acute stress disorder
d. Avoidant personality disorder

A major depressive episode is a two-week or longer period during which a person

suffers the following significant depressive symptoms: sorrow and hopelessness,
exhaustion, weight gain or loss, changes in sleeping patterns, lack of interest in
activities, or suicidal thoughts. These symptoms are persistent and difficult to modify,
even if they contradict a person's circumstances. Major depression patients experience
recurrent depressive episodes.
97. She reports that she is sexually aroused, a twenty-nine-year-old women has never
reached orgasm by any means during sexual activity with her husband.
a. Vaginismus
b. Sexual aversion disorder
c. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
d. Orgasmic disorder

Orgasmic dysfunction is a condition in which a person has trouble achieving orgasm.

This problem persists even when they are sexually aroused and have enough sexual
stimulation. This disorder is known as female orgasmic dysfunction when it occurs in
 185

women. Males can have orgasmic dysfunction, although it is considerably less

prevalent.
Orgasms are powerful emotions of pleasure experienced during sexual stimulation.
They can differ in terms of severity, duration, and frequency. Orgasms can occur with
minimal sexual arousal, although additional stimulation is occasionally required.
Even after plenty of sexual stimulation, many women have difficulties attaining orgasm
with a partner. According to studies, orgasmic dysfunction affects 11 to 41% of women.
Anorgasmia, or female orgasmic disorder, is another term for orgasmic dysfunction.
98. It refers to a sexual dysfunction in women involving difficulty reaching orgasm or
inability to reach orgasm following a normal level of sexual interest and arousal.
a. Female orgasmic disorder
b. Sexual aversion disorder
c. Hypoactive sexual desire
d. Female impotence

Orgasmic dysfunction is a condition in which a person has trouble achieving orgasm.

This problem persists even when they are sexually aroused and have enough sexual
stimulation. This disorder is known as female orgasmic dysfunction when it occurs in
women. Males can have orgasmic dysfunction, although it is considerably less
prevalent.
Orgasms are powerful emotions of pleasure experienced during sexual stimulation.
They can differ in terms of severity, duration, and frequency. Orgasms can occur with
minimal sexual arousal, although additional stimulation is occasionally required.
Even after plenty of sexual stimulation, many women have difficulties attaining orgasm
with a partner. According to studies, orgasmic dysfunction affects 11 to 41% of women.
Anorgasmia, or female orgasmic disorder, is another term for orgasmic dysfunction.
99. A patient was observed sitting in one corner of his room, not showing any movement
at all for the pass three hours.
a. Stupor c. Negativism
b. Chorea d. Catalepsy
According to Nall (2019), stupor is a serious mental condition in which people do not
respond to regular conversations. Instead, they only respond to physical stimuli, such
as pain or stroking on their chest, known as a sternal rub.
Stupor is sometimes known as "obtunded." It is a significant symptom since it is related
with illnesses such as drug overdose, stroke, lack of oxygen, meningitis, or brain
enlargement. When someone exhibits indications of stupor, it is critical to seek quick
medical assistance.
100. The client excessively focuses on minor or imagined physical defects usually of
the face and head
a. Somatization disorder
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Body dimorphic disorder
d. Conversion disorder

Body dysmorphic disorder is a mental health problem in which you can't stop worrying
about one or more perceived imperfections in your look – a flaw that appears trivial or
is invisible to others. Nonetheless, you may avoid numerous social interactions
because you are embarrassed, humiliated, or nervous.
When you have body dysmorphic disorder, you obsess about your appearance and
body image, checking the mirror, grooming, or seeking reassurance frequently
throughout the day, often for several hours. Your perceived fault and repeating actions
give you tremendous discomfort and interfere with your capacity to function in daily life.
 187

Answer Keys
Theories of Personality

1. D. 35. D. 69. D.
2. B. 36. D. 70. C.
3. B. 37. C. 71. D.
4. B. 38. C. 72. A.
5. D. 39. D. 73. D.
6. A. 40. B. 74. A.
7. D. 41. C. 75. D.
8. B. 42. D. 76. D.
9. B. 43. D. 77. C.
10. D. 44. B. 78. B.
11. A. 45. C. 79. B.
12. D. 46. C. 80. A.
13. B. 47. C. 81. C.
14. A. 48. C. 82. D.
15. A. 49. D. 83. D.
16. C. 50. B. 84. C.
17. B. 51. A/C 85. C.
18. D. 52. C. 86. A.
19. D. 53. C. 87. D.
20. A. 54. B. 88. D.
21. C. 55. B. 89. B.
22. A. 56. D. 90. D.
23. B. 57. C. 91. C.
24. A. 58. D. 92. B.
25. C. 59. B. 93. C.
26. C. 60. B. 94. B.
27. B. 61. B. 95. A.
28. A. 62. D. 96. D.
29. C. 63. A. 97. D.
30. B. 64. A. 98. A.
31. C. 65. A. 99. B.
32. D. 66. C. 100. D.
33. B. 67. A.
34. B. 68. B.
 188

Psychological Assessment
1. A. 51. A. 101. B.
2. A. 52. C. 102. A.
3. A. 53. D. 103. A.
4. B. 54. B. 104. A.
5. A. 55. D. 105. C.
6. A. 56. C. 106. D.
7. D. 57. B. 107. D.
8. B. 58. A. 108. A.
9. D. 59. D. 109. D.
10. B. 60. A. 110. C.
11. B. 61. B. 111. C.
12. C. 62. C. 112. B.
13. B. 63. A. 113. C.
14. A. 64. D. 114. A.
15. C. 65. A. 115. B.
16. D. 66. C. 116. B.
17. B. 67. A. 117. C.
18. B. 68. D. 118. C.
19. A. 69. A. 119. A.
20. B. 70. B. 120. C.
21. B. 71. A. 121. A.
22. A. 72. D. 122. A.
23. B. 73. C. 123. B.
24. D. 74. B. 124. C.
25. C. 75. D. 125. A.
26. A. 76. D. 126. C.
27. D. 77. D. 127. C.
28. B. 78. A. 128. B.
29. C. 79. A. 129. A.
30. D. 80. A. 130. D.
31. C. 81. A. 131. A.
32. C. 82. B. 132. A.
33. D. 83. C. 133. B.
34. D. 84. C. 134. C.
35. A. 85. C. 135. D.
36. C. 86. A. 136. Analogue Study
37. B. 87. C. 137. B.
38. C. 88. C. 138. D.
39. C. 89. B. 139. D.
40. C. 90. D. 140. A.
41. D. 91. A. 141. D.
42. A. 92. B. 142. B.
43. A. 93. B. 143. C.
44. C. 94. B. 144. C.
45. A. 95. A. 145. A.
46. C. 96. D. 146. A.
47. C. 97. A. 147. B.
48. D. 98. B. 148. C.
49. D. 99. C. 149. B.
50. D. 100. C. 150. D.
Industrial-Organization Psychology

1. C. 35. A. 69. A.
2. C. 36. C. 70. D.
3. C. 37. D. 71. B.
4. B. 38. D. 72. D.
5. D. 39. A. 73. C.
6. A. 40. A. 74. A.
7. C. 41. C. 75. B.
8. B. 42. A. 76. A.
9. It is never acceptable 43. A. 77. B.
10. B. 44. B. 78. A.
11. D. 45. A. 79. D.
12. C. 46. A. 80. B.
13. B. 47. C. 81. A.
14. D. 48. A. 82. A.
15. A.&B. 49. B. 83. C.
16. C. 50. C. 84. B.
17. D. 51. D. 85. D.
18. A. 52. C. 86. D.
19. B. 53. C. 87. C.
20. B. 54. D. 88. A.
21. B. 55. A. 89. C.
22. A. 56. B. 90. A.
23. C. 57. B. 91. A.
24. D. 58. B. 92. D.
25. B. 59. C. 93. B.
26. D. 60. C. 94. A.
27. D. 61. B. 95. B.
28. B. 62. A. 96. B.
29. A. 63. C. 97. A.
30. D. 64. D. 98. C.
31. A. 65. D. 99. B.
32. B. 66. B. 100. C.
33. D. 67. B.
34. B. 68. B.
 190

Abnormal Psychology

1. B.&D. 35. B. 69. A.

2. D. 36. C. 70. C.
3. A. 37. C. 71. B.
4. D. 38. A. 72. B.
5. D. 39. A. 73. A.
6. C. 40. B. 74. C.
7. B. 41. A. 75. D.
8. C. 42. A. 76. D.
9. B. 43. B. 77. C.
10. D. 44. D. 78. B.
11. C. 45. C. 79. B.
12. B. 46. A. 80. B.
13. B. 47. B. 81. B.
14. C. 48. A. 82. D.
15. B. 49. B. 83. C.
16. C. 50. B. 84. B.
17. C. 51. B. 85. A.
18. A. 52. A. 86. B.
19. A. 53. C. 87. A.
20. C. 54. D. 88. B.
21. C. 55. A. 89. D.
22. B. 56. A. 90. B.
23. A.&C. 57. A. 91. B.
24. A. 58. B. 92. A.
25. B. 59. A. 93. A.
26. A. 60. B. 94. B.
27. B. 61. D. 95. All of the above
28. C. 62. C. 96. B.
29. C. 63. B. 97. D.
30. B. 64. C. 98. A.
31. C. 65. C. 99. A.
32. D. 66. D. 100. C.
33. C. 67. B.
34. D. 68. B.
 191

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