MICROBIOLOGY

MCQS
Multiple Choice Question on Bacterial Pathogenesis
1) Which of the following microorganism is the major
inhabitant of the human skin?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes

2) All the following are medically important bacteria which

are frequently isolated pathogen human infections except?
a) Enteric bacteria
b) Pseudomonas spp
c) Plasmodium spp
d) Staphylococcus spp
e) Mycobacterium spp

3) All of the following pathogens are the major congenital

pathogens that are transmitted from infected mother to
baby, Except?
a) Treponema pallidum
b) Zika virus
c) Herpesvirus
d) Clostridium perfringens

4) Which of the following cocci-shaped bacteria usually grow

in pairs?
a) Klebsiella spp
b) Neisseria spp
c) Pseudomonas spp
d) Clostridium spp
e) Nocardia spp
5) Which of the following microbe can live only inside the
cell (obligate intracellular pathogen)?
a) Salmonella
b) Mycobacterium
c) Rickettsia
d) Vibrio

6)The upper respiratory tract of the human body typically

harbors ..................................... as part of its normal flora, but
an excessive proliferation of these bacteria can result in
respiratory tract infections.
a) Lactobacillus acidophilus
b) Streptococcus spp
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Clostridium difficile

7) Which of the following bacteria releases an endotoxin that

causes muscular paralysis and ultimately may lead to
infection of nervous system?
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Bacillus cereus
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Salmonella typhi

8) Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus spp. is

involved in the bacteria's defense mechanisms?
a) Coagulase
b) Lipase
c) Hyaluronidase
d) Proteases

9) Which of the following bacteria is predominantly present

as a normal flora in the urogenital tract of a mother and a
newborn female infant?
a) Candida albicans
b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Neisseria gonorroheae

10) Which of the following gram positive bacteria is the

causative pathogen for infection known as 'lock jaw'?
a) Clostridium tetani
b) Neisseria gonorroheae
c) Yersinia pestis
d) Mycobacterium leprae

11) Name the bacterial pathogen transmitted to humans by

the bite of fleas and can cause a serious and deadly infection
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Escherichia coli

12) Some bacteria and fungi need an iron receptors molecule

for their growth which is an important virulence factor of
bacterial pathogenesis, what is it called?
a) Siderophores
b) Ionophores
c) Siderocytes
d) None of the above

13) Which of the following is the example of toxin produced

by Streptococcus pyogenes?
a) Cyanotoxin
b) Endotoxins
c) Pyrogenic toxin (exotoxins)
d) Shiga like toxin

14) Name the bacteria that is a common cause of toxic shock

syndrome infection due to the release of the toxins.
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) E.coli
d) Yersinia pestis

15) Catalase test is one of the primary microbiological test

used for the identification of the enzyme catalase in bacterial
cells and differentiating various bacteria.
Which of the following is catalase negative bacteria?
a) E. Coli
b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus agalactiae

16) Staphylococcus aureus releases various types of toxins

that increase the virulence of the bacteria, Which of these
toxins is not released by S. aureus:
a) Aflatoxin
b) Exfoilative toxins
c) Leukocidins
d) Enterotoxins

17) Which pathogen is a major cause of dental disease?

a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
18) The bacteria that commonly causes an eye infection
is.............................
a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus sanguinis
19) The most significant bacteria found in acne
is .................................acnes.
a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) Propionibacterium
d) Bacillus

20) Which of the following bacteria is predominantly present

as normal flora in urine?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes

21) The virulence factors of a bacteria are the important

constituents of the bacteria that help in invading the host
and initiating the infection.
Select all the important virulence factors which help in the
process of bacterial pathogenesis:
a)Siderophores
b)Exotoxins and endotoxins
c)Pili/ fimbriae
d)Capsules
e) All of the above

22) Name the most possible bacteria associated with the

opportunistic infections that occur in patients who have
cystic fibrosis
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Candida albicans

23) All the microorganisms which are commonly transmitted

to humans by the vectors such as ticks and fleas except
a) Rickettsia spp
b) Yersinia spp
c) Borrelia spp
d) Bacillus spp

24)Which of the following toxins releasing bacteria are

common worldwide human gastroenteritis pathogens?
a) Rhizopus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Clostridium botulinum

25) Name the possible bacterial pathogen that can invade the
skin and cause tissue damage in humans
a) Rhizopus stolonifer
b) Bacillus cereus
c) Clostridium perfringens
d) Proteus mirabilis

Multiple Choice Questions on Classification, Culture, and

Identification of the microorganisms

1. Which of the following microorganism has the cocci cell

shapes and sizes arranged usually in tetrad structures?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Neisseria meningitidis

3. Which of the following RNA virus is a highly contagious

respiratory pathogen that can easily spread from person to
person?
a) Coronavirus
b) Dengue virus
c) Epstein Barr virus
d) Hepatitis B virus

4. Which of the following metabolic characteristic is a

distinguishing characteristic and identification of colonies
of E. coli?
a) Hydrogen sulfide formation
b) Indole Formation
c) Lactose fermentation
d) Urea Degradation

5. Which of the following bacteria is an endospore-forming

bacteria that is also a common foodborne pathogen?
a) Bordetella pertusis
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

6. A 19-year-old male living in a tropical region of India visited

the hospital. He had a lesion on the lower part of the left leg,
it first appeared about a week before visiting the hospital. A
skin biopsy test was performed and the infection was
diagnosed to be a parasitic infection.
Which of the following is a vector-borne parasitic infection
that can be transmitted to humans by the bite of infected
sandflies?
a) Leishmaniasis
b) Lassa fever
c) Malaria
d) Yellow fever

7. Which of the following is the example of encapsulated

gram-positive bacteria?
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Haemophilus influenzae

8. Which of the following morphological characteristics is an

important identification characteristic of Neisseria
gonorrhoeae?
a) Gram-Negative Diplococci
b) Gram-Positive Bacilli
c) Gram-Negative Bacilli
d) Gram-Positive Diplococci

9. A 7 year old girl developed a sore throat and fever for 2

days. On the second day, the symptoms got worse and she
was taken to the hospital. Microscopic examination and
culture of the sputum sample revealed gram-positive cocci
that appear in chains.
Which of the following bacteria could be the possible
pathogen?
a) Acinetobacter baumannii
b) Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes

10. Which of the following are the growth morphology of the

protozoa?
a) Multicellular and non motile
b) Unicellular and non motile
c) Multicellular
d) Unicellular and motile

11. A 24 year old sexually active woman had an infection in the

vaginal area with genital discharge while urinating. Urinary
tract infection was suspected, urine sample and swab
specimen were taken and cultured on suitable agar media, a
microscopic examination was performed.
Which of the following gram negative bacteria is a sexually
transmitted pathogen and cannot be isolated by using
regular agar media used in the microbiology laboratory?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) Klebsiella oxytoca

12. Which of the following gram positive bacteria is a strict

anaerobe and can only grow in the absence of oxygen?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

13. A 70 year old male visited a clinic with chronic cough,

chest pain, fever, chills, and weakness. When examined he
said the cough first started about a month ago with no other
symptoms in the first week, he complained about the loss of
appetite due to which he lost some of his body weight.
Pneumonia was suspected, and a chest X-ray was performed
that showed infection in both lungs. A sputum sample was
taken for lab diagnosis.
Which of the following could be the possible infection?
a) Candidiasis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Measles
d) Cystic fibrosis

14. Which of the following pulmonary pathogen cannot be

easily detected by the gram staining technique when
performing a microscopy test?
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Bordetella pertussis
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
16) A bacteriological stain also known as the differential stain
is used for the identification of acid-fast organisms, what is
the name of the stain?
a)Negative stain
b)Gram stain
c)Ziehl-Neelsen stain
d)Schaeffer Fulton stain

17) A Capsule is a......................................layer lying outside the

bacterial cell and can be found in both gram-positive and
gram-negative bacteria
a) Lipopolysaccharide layer
b) Polysaccharide
c) Phospholipid
d) None of the Above

18) Which of the following dye is commonly used for the

Negative staining technique?
a) Crystal violet
b) India ink
c) Lactophenol cotton blue
d) Periodic acid- Schiff stain

19) All of the following are common stains used in the

microbiology laboratory, Except:
a) Bismarck brown
b) Lactophenol cotton blue
c) Ziehl - Neelsen stain
d) Crystal violet

20) Gram staining technique is used for the differentiation of

gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. What color do
gram-negative bacteria show when observed under the
microscope after the staining procedure?
a) Blue
b) Pink
c) Purple
d)Green

21) MacConkey’s agar is both selective and differential media

that is primarily used for the isolation of enteric bacteria.
Which of the following metabolic property differentiate the
pink-colored colonies of E. coli from Salmonella spp that does
not show any color?
a) Urease production
b) Hemolytic activity
c) Lactose fermentation
d) Hydrogen sulfide production

22) All of the following bacteria are catalase positive, Except

a) E. coli
b) Shigella spp
c) Staphylococcus spp
d) Streptococcus spp

23) Which of the bacteria consists of flagella and shows a

positive motility test?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Proteus vulgaris

24) The metabolic reactions by bacteria can be observed by

performing different biochemical tests, this helps in the
identification and classification of bacteria.
Which of the following biochemical test shows a negative
result for Escherichia Coli?
a) Lactose
b) Indole
c) Citrate
d) Glucose

25)Clostridium perfringens on agar can show all of the

following cultural characteristics, Except?
a) Microaerophilic
b) Spore-forming
c) H2S production
d) Haemolysis (alpha and beta)

26) …...............................is a rod-shaped, gram-positive, non-

spore-forming medically important virulent foodborne
pathogen. It can grow in raw meat and vegetables,
unpasteurized milk, and cheese.
a) Rhizopus stolonifer
b) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Clostridium botulinum
d) Cryptococcus neoformans

27)Which of the following bacteria exhibits hemolysis on

blood agar plates?
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Proteus vulgaris
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Candida albicans

28) All of the statements regarding Bacillus anthracis are

true, Except
a) Causative agent of smallpox
b) Colonies are non-hemolytic when grown on Blood agar
c) Gram positive, spore-forming bacteria
d) Transmitted to humans through animals

29) Which of the following bacteria is a part of the human gut

and mouth flora that is also important in making some
fermented dairy products?
a) Candida albicans
b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Micrococcus luteus

30) …................................is a type of fungus that is a part of

normal gut flora and it can be found as one of the common
pathogens of the skin, vaginal, and or oral infections.
a) Neisseria gonorrhoea
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Coccidiodes immitis
d) Candida albicans
e) Penicillium marneffei

31) Name the bacteria of the Enterobacteriaceae family that

have the following characteristics?

 swarming growth on culture media

 producing a urease enzyme
 major urinary tract pathogen

a) Proteus spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Histoplasma spp
d) Klebsiella spp

32) The following microorganism is an encapsulated gram-

negative bacillus that shows lactose fermentation when
grown in MacConkey agar.
Select the correct answer:
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
33) Which of the following media is one of the commonly
used media for the proper isolation of gram negative
pathogens such as Haemophilus spp and Neisseria
gonorrhoeae?
a) Potato dextrose agar
b) Chocolate agar
c) Nutrient agar
d) Mac Conkey agar

34) All of the statements are true about Corynebacterium

spp, Except
a) Requires a tellurite agar
b) Gram-positive
c) Colonies appear black or gray on agar
d) They are motile

35) Mannitol Salt agar (MSA) constitutes of high salt

concentration that is used as both selective and differential
culture media for the isolation of which of the following
gram-positive cocci?
a) Klebsiella spp
b) Streptococcus spp
c) Staphylococcus spp
d) Pseudomonas spp

36) Which of the following culture media is a primary media

used for the routine laboratory isolation
of Salmonella and Shigella spp?
a) Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar
b) Thiosulfate citrate bile salts agar
c) Mannitol salt agar
d) Bile esculin agar
37) Which of the following is the selective media used for the
cultivation and isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N.
meningitidis?
a) Buffered charcoal- yeast extract agar
b)Thayer martin agar
c)Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar
d) Bile esculin agar

38) All of the following statements are correct about the

most common bacteriological media called sheep blood agar
that is used in the microbiology laboratory, Except
a) It consists of 5% of sheep blood
b) Used for the culture of common fastidious bacteria
c) It is used for the culture of hemolytic bacteria
d) Used as a selective media for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

39) Select all the major and clinically important spore-

forming bacteria:
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Aspergillus flavus
c) Lactobacillus acidophilus
e) Haemophilus influenzae

40) Biochemical tests are a common and conventional

laboratory procedure in the differentiation and identification
of enteric bacteria.
Which of the following test result (Indole, methylene,
Voges-Proskauer, and Citrate) is correct in the identification
of E.coli?
a) IMViC (+,+,-,-)
b) IMViC ( +,-,+,+)
c) IMViC ( -,-,+,-)
d) IMViC (+,-,+,-)
41)All the common specimens collected for the laboratory
diagnosis of dermatophytes except
a) Nail clippings
b) Skin scrapings
c) Hair
e) Blood

42) Which of the following are the routine diagnostic

methods performed for the microbial examination of blood
specimens collected from a patient with a high fever for
more than 2 days?
a) Direct microscopic examination
b) Culture media
c) Serodiagnosis
d) Antibiotic susceptibility test
e) All of the above

43) Which of the following methods are the most common

and routine culture methods performed in the microbiology
lab for the proper isolation and identification of bacteria and
fungi?
Select all the correct answers:
a) Streak culture/ surface plating
b) Stab culture
c) Pour plate culture
d) Liquid culture
e) All of the above

44) Which of the following microorganisms can grow only as

strict intracellular parasites?
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Protozoa
45) All are types of general characteristics that are important
for the identification and classification of protozoa except
Select all the correct answers:
a) Presence of flagella or cilia
b) The examination of the infection sites
c) They are prokaryotes in cellular organization
d) Study of the life cycle of organisms

Multiple Choice Questions on Gram-Positive, Spore-Forming

Rods

1) All of the following are the cultural characteristics of Bacilli

spp, Except:
a) Anaerobes
b) Gram-positive
c) Spore-forming
d) Ubiquitous

2) Which one of the following Bacillus spp is Not commonly

isolated pathogenic bacteria?
a) Bacillus cereus
b) Bacillus thuringiensis
c) Bacillus thermophilus
d) Bacillus anthracis

3) Bacillus..................is commonly found in soil and is an insect

pathogen that can infect humans. It is often used in the
production of insecticidal products.
a) thuringiensis
b) subtilis
c) anthracis
d) cereus

4) Most of the species

of Bacilli and Clostridia are..........................., which means they
obtain their nutrients from dead or organic matter.
a) Parasites
b) Saprophytes
c) Symbiotic
d) Mutualistic

5) Bacillus anthracis is a medically important spore-forming

rod that may cause the disease "anthrax" in animals and
humans.
What are the two important virulence factors of the
bacteria?
a) Capsule and enterotoxins
b) Exotoxins and enterotoxins
c) Endotoxins and capsule
d) Capsule and exotoxins

6) Bacillus cereus causes two types of foodborne

intoxications, known as the emetic type and diarrheal type of
infections.
Which of the following is the approximate time period for the
symptoms to appear after the ingestion of contaminated
food?
a) 1-12 hours
b) 1-2 days
c) 1-5 hours
d) 1-24 hours

7) Bacillus….............is a common laboratory contaminant and

is used for sterility testing.
It is an endospore-forming bacteria and resistant to extreme
environmental conditions.
a) subtilis
b) thermophilus
c) cereus
d) agalactiae

8) Which of the following species of Clostridia do not have

flagella, but rapidly grow on nutrient media and mimic the
growth of motile organisms?
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Clostridium tetani
d) Clostridium difficile

9) Select the correct answers, other than food poisoning

what other clinically important types of diseases are caused
by Clostridium perfringens?
a) Gas gangrene
b) Impetigo
c) Cellulitis
d) Toxic shock syndrome

10) The AVA BioThrax is the FDA approved vaccine

for..........................
a) Bacillus cereus
b) Clostridium tetani
c) Bacillus anthrax
d) Bacillus substilis

11) The microscopic identification of the shape and position of

spores in a bacteria is a routine laboratory identification
method.
Clostridium perfringens forms subterminal spores
whereas Clostridium...................... forms terminal spores.
a) tetani
b) botulinum
c) cereus
d) None of the above
12) .........................can cause infections in humans through a
puncture wound and ultimately enter the central nervous
system by releasing a potent toxin known as neurotoxins.
This toxin can block the release of neurotransmitters and
result in cramping of muscles, causing loc jaw and other
muscle-related spasms.
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Clostridium tetani
d) Bacillus subtilis

13) Which is the most common food associated with infant

botulism?
a) Maple syrup
b) Honey
c) Canned baby food
d) Corn syrup

14) Name the most potent toxin produced by Clostridium

botulinum and C.tetani
a) Aflatoxin
b) Exotoxins
c) Cytotoxin
d) Neurotoxin

15) Bacillus cereus secretes.........................in the intestines and

cause foodborne illness in humans
a) Cytotoxins
b) Neurotoxins
c) Enterotoxins
d) Pneumolysin

16) All of the following statements about Bacillus

anthracis are true, EXCEPT
a) Form hemolytic colonies on blood agar
b) Causes severe infections in animals
c) A non-motile gram-positive rod
d) It consists of the capsule

17) Which of the following is the correct general

characteristic of Clostridia spp?
a) Grows well in Nutrient agar
b) Produce alpha-hemolytic colonies
c) Grows in aerobic conditions
d) Produces neurotoxins

18) Clostridium botulinum-associated foodborne illness may

occur within 18-24 hours of ingestion of a food containing the
bacterial toxin.
Which of the following are NOT the common symptoms of
the illness?
a) Poor vision
b) Fever
c) Difficulty swallowing
d) Bulbar paralysis

19) All of the following are the preventive measures for

'Tetanus', EXCEPT
a) Active immunization of toxoids
b) Prophylactic use of antitoxin
c) Administration of Bacitracin
d) All of the above

20) Clostridium perfringens toxins are released only after it

enters the host cell through wounds or the gastrointestinal
tract.
Which of the following enzyme produced by the bacteria is
also known as alpha-toxin that can damage the cell
membranes and result in 'hemolysis' and tissue destruction?
a) Lecithinase
b) Enterotoxin
c) Alpha
d) Beta

Enteric bacteria/ Gut flora - E. coli, Salmonella spp, and

Shigella spp
1) A large family of enteric bacteria is present as normal flora
in the intestines of humans and other mammals.
Which of the following is less likely to be found as the
normal flora of the intestine?
a) Escherichia spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Staphylococcus spp
d) Proteus spp

2) Which of the following bacteria is not a clinically important

enterobacteriaceae?
a) E.coli
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Proteus mirabilis

3) All are the important general characteristics of enteric

bacteria, EXCEPT?
a) Aerobic and facultatively anaerobic
b) Non-spore forming
c) Grow in media with bile salts
d) Do not produce nitrates
e) Ferment glucose
f) Most of them are catalase positive and oxidase negative

4) Enteric bacteria are mainly classified based on their ability

to ferment various sugars including lactose.
Which of the following bacteria is a non-lactose fermenter?
a) Klebsiella spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Enterobacter spp
d) Citrobacter spp

5) Escherichia coli is one of the widely distributed enteric

bacteria that causes diarrhea worldwide.
Name the other common gram negative bacteria that causes
diarrhea developing countries like India, Nepal, and
Bangladesh?
Select all the correct answers:
a) staphylococci spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Mycobacterium spp
d) Proteus spp

6) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) is a common foodborne

pathogen, when ingested through contaminated water or
food, it attaches to the mucosal cells of the small intestine.
Symptoms such as watery diarrhea, vomiting, and non-
bloody stools lasting for 1-3 days.
What are the two important virulent factors of
pathogenesis of EPEC?
a) The chromosomal locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE)
b) The bundle-forming pilus encoded by a plasmid adherence
factor (EAF)
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

7) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) are nonmotile, non-lactose, or

late lactose fermenters that are predominantly found in
developing countries infecting children and travelers.
Which of the following infection is similar to the EIEC
infection?
a) Bacillary dysentery
b) Shigellosis
c) Typhoid
d) Hay fever

8) Enterobacteriaceae expresses a variety of virulent antigens,

all of the following are the antigens of enteric
bacteria, EXCEPT?
a) O antigens (in lipopolysaccharide)
b) K antigens (capsular antigens)
c) H antigens (flagellar proteins)
d) D antigens

9) E. coli is one of the most common enteric bacteria isolated

in urinary tract infections (UTIs) followed by the
bacteria Proteus mirabilis.
All of the following are the cultural characteristics
of Proteus mirabilis, EXCEPT?
a) Facultative aerobe
b) Urease positive
c) Motile
d) Citrate positive

10) Shigellosis is caused by Shigella dysenteriae in humans, the

common symptoms are fever, abdominal cramps, diarrhea
sometimes with blood. The infection is attributed to
the …................................. activity of Shiga toxin which
increases the severity by tissue invasion in the large intestine.
a) Exotoxic
b) Enterotoxic
c) Cytotoxic
d) Neurotoxic

11) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) produces two major types of

toxins, heat-labile (LT) and heat-stable (ST) toxins.
LT or cholera-like toxin activates adenylate cyclase (cAMP)
whereas ST activates................................. that causes
Travelers’ diarrhea.
a) Ribosomal dysfunction
b) Decarboxylase reaction
c) Guanylate cyclase
d) Fermentation of sugars

12) The following bacteria has the following morphological

characteristics:
 a rapid lactose fermenter
 motile with flagella

It is one of the major pathogens that causes a broad range of

hospital-acquired infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract
infections, and wound infections.
Name the possible pathogen
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Enterobacter aerogenes

13) Salmonella typhi is an important foodborne and

waterborne pathogen, during the pathogenesis it penetrates
into the intestine, reaching the lymphatics and the
bloodstream that ultimately causes the infection in the
intestine, also known as "Typhoid".
Which of the following is the most likely site where the
pathogenesis can easily occur?
a) Mononuclear phagocytic cells in the liver and Peyer’s
patches of the small intestine
b) Liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and large intestine
c) Isolated follicles and Peyer’s patches of a large intestine
d) None of the above

14) Which type of salmonellae is primarily infectious to

humans?
a) Salmonella typhi A
b) Salmonella paratyphi A, B, and C
c) Salmonella paratyphi A and B
d) Salmonella paratyphi A

15) The symptoms of typhoid fever usually develop in one to

three weeks after exposure to S. typhi.
Which of the following is the least common symptom of the
disease?
a) Weight gain
b) Headache
c) High-grade fever
d) Rashes

16) Which of the following Shigella spp produces a heat-labile

exotoxin that can affect both the gut and central nervous
system resulting in diarrhea and meningismus?
a) Shigella sonnie
b) Shigella dysenteriae type 1
c) Shigella dysenteriae type 2
d) Shigella dysenteriae type 3

17) S. enteritidis and S. typhimurium cause enterocolitis and

gastroenteritis in humans.
What is the most common food for source of transmission
of the infection to humans?
a) Fruits and vegetables
b) Poultry and eggs
c) Canned beans
d) Yogurt

18) The biochemical properties of enteric bacteria are helpful

in the differentiation of the specific pathogen.
Which of the following biochemical test method
demonstrates the production of tryptophan into an indole
compound?
a) IMViC test
b) MRVP test
c) TSI test
d) Citrate test

19) Which of the following culture media is not the selective

media most commonly used for the isolation
of salmonellae and shigellae?
a) Deoxycholate citrate agar
b) Xylose-lysine decarboxylase agar
c) Salmonella –Shigella agar
d) Potato dextrose agar

20) The Widal test is used for the detection of Salmonella

typhi and other subspecies.
This test is based on which of the following 'principles'?
a) the antigens are detected using the neutralization assay
b) the antigen combines with its soluble antibody and forms
a lattice with a visible precipitate
c) the antigens bind to RBCs and form the agglutination
d) None of the above

21) The bloody dysentery epidemics occurred in different

parts of India during the 1980s.
Name the predominant pathogen identified during the
dysentery outbreaks in India in the 2000s
a) Shigella dysentery type 1
b) Shigella boydii
c) Shigella dysentery type 3
d) Shigella sonnei

22) All of the following statements regarding coliform

bacteria are true, Except?
a) They are used as the indicator for the sanitation of the
water
b) Consists of gram-negative, rods, non-spore-forming
bacteria
c) Can survive in soil and plant vegetation
d) The acceptable number of coliform counts in drinking
water is <1

23) There are numerous research studies that have been

done by scientists around the world on gut flora, in recent
years several studies have shown that there is a strong
relationship between gut flora and the health conditions of
an individual.
What are the common types of poor health conditions that
have been strongly associated with the imbalance and
changes in the gut flora?
a) Overweight
b) Mental stress
c) Inflammation
d) all of the above

24) Cholera is a virulent disease that is most prevalent in Asia,

mainly affecting children under 5 and older people, according
to WHO (world health organization) there have been more
than 5 pandemics reported in history.
Select all the correct statements regarding the prevention
and control of cholera that can help to reduce the spread of
the disease in children.
a) Provide oral rehydration solution to the patients
b) Proper and regular hand washing practices
c) Provide oral cholera vaccines to the older patients
d) Organizing awareness program for hygiene practices
e ) a, b and d
25) Salmonella typhi and S.paratyphii are the two major
pathogens that cause enteric fever.
Which of the following are Not possible specimens taken for
the routine diagnosis of the disease?
a) Blood
b) Sputum
c) Feces
d) Urine

Multiple Choice Question on Pseudomonas

spp & Acinetobacter spp

1) Which of the following is not the general characteristic

of Pseudomonas spp?
a) Rod-shaped, curved
b) Motile
c) Found in soil and water and plants
d) All species cause diseases in humans only

2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is capable of producing two

water-soluble pigments that contribute to the virulence of
the pseudomonas infections, one is blue color pigment called
pyocyanin and ….......................color pigment called
pyoverdin.
a) Green
b) Blue-green
c) Red
d) Pink-red

3) Patients with cystic fibrosis infection suffer from a chronic

lung infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
The bacterial growth results in the formation
of................................in the host cells.
a) Pigment
b) Biofilm
c) White blood cells
d) Endotoxin

4) Which of the following temperature and incubation

periods is the most optimal for the bacteria?
a) 42 degree Celsius for 48 hours
b) 37 degree Celsius for 48 hours
c) 42 degrees Celsius for 24 hours
d) 37 degree Celsius for 42 hours

5) All of the following are the cultural and morphological

characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa, except
a) The optimum temperature for growth is 37c and 42c
b) It is a common opportunistic pathogen
c)A lactose fermenting bacteria
d) A gram negative aerobic bacillus

7) P. aeruginosa is responsible for one of the common

nosocomial infections primarily seen in immunocompromised
patients.
Which of the following route is a high risk for the transfer of
the pathogen to the susceptible patient?
a) Surgical procedures, burns
b) Contaminated ventilators
c) Air droplets
d) All of the above

8) The main structural component 'pili' is important in the

virulence factor of P. aeruginosa.
Which of the following is Not the most common pathogenic
factor of the bacteria?
a) Hemolysins
b) Phospholipase B
c) Pigments
d) Extracellular protease
9) All of the following gram-negative bacteria are common
pathogens associated with nosocomial infections, Except?
a) Acinetobacter baumanii
b) Klebsiella oxytoca
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Candida albicans

10) Which one of the following is not the general

characteristic of the HACEK ( Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter,
Cardiobacterium, Eikinella, Kingella) organisms?
a) Normal flora of the oral cavity
b) Require CO2 for growth
c) Grow well on MacConkey agar
d) Causative agents of infectious endocarditis

11) P. aeruginosa is becoming more resistant to antibiotics

over the years.
Select all the important drugs used in the treatment of
urinary tract infections caused by the bacteria
a) Azithromycin
b) Norfloxacin
c) ticarcillin
d) Acetaminophen

12) Which of the following are the most common gram-

negative bacteria found in a specimen that can grow in
burned wounds or skins?
a) Streptococcus epidermidis
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Acinetobacter baumannii
d) Moraxella catarahalis

13) Acinetobacter baumannii is most commonly found

in..............................
a) Chickens
b) Soil
c) Mice
d) Bats

14) Which of the following bacteria is a small, capnophilic,

gram-negative, oxidase-positive bacillus that can be isolated
from human bite infections?
a) Eikenella corrodens
b) Moraxella spp
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Burkholderia mallie

15) Capnophiles are microorganisms that can grow in high

concentrations of............................
a) Oxygen
b) Sugar
c) Carbon dioxide
d) pH

16)The following bacteria is an opportunistic pathogen that is

commonly isolated from hospitalized patients with chronic
lung infections and is also a primary plant pathogen
a) Enterobacter aerogenes
b) Burkholderia cepacia
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Acinetobacter baumanii

17) All of the following statements regarding Acinetobacter

baumanii are correct, Except?
a) Primary pathogen in nosocomial infections
b) Ubiquitous in nature
c) Causes skin infection
d) Sulfonamides are the drug of choice
18) Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is an
important plant pathogen?
a) Pseudomonas syringae
b) Burkholderia glanders
c) Fusarium spp
d) Capnocytophaga spp

19) Name the bacteria used as bioremediation agents that

have the ability to degrade organic solvents such as toluene.
a) Pseudomonas syringae
b) Acinetobacter baumannii
c) Pseudomonas alcaligens
d) Pseudomonas putida

20) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to most antibiotics

that are mainly due to the chromosomally encoded antibiotic
resistance genes and the................................................of the
bacterial cellular envelopes.
a) Low susceptibility
b) High permeability
c) Low permeability
d) High susceptibility

Multiple Choice Question on Cholera, Campylobacter spp,

and Helicobacter spp

1) A 5 year old boy suffering from watery diarrhea, vomiting

since last 24 hours is presented to a clinician. Food poisoning
is suspected, a watery stool sample was collected
and cultured using high pH media containing NaCl. Smooth
and round colonies appeared on the media, gram-negative,
motile, comma-shaped bacteria were observed after the
microscopic examination.
Name the possible bacteria
a) Aeromonas spp
b) E.coli
c) Helicobacter pylori
d) Vibrio cholerae

2) Cholera is predominant in developing countries where

there is a lack of clean drinking water supply.
Name the type of diarrheal infection associated with V.
cholerae?
a) Acute watery bloody diarrhea
b) Acute watery rice water diarrhea
c) Mild watery rice water diarrhea
d) Acute watery diarrhea with no blood
3)What is the most common food associated with foodborne
gastroenteritis by Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
a) Chicken
b) Fish
c) Oysters
d) Rice

4) Which of the following statements is/are not correct

about Aeromonas spp and Plesiomonas spp?
a) Both are oxidase-positive
b) They can be found in freshwater and soil
c) They are gram-negative rods
d) Grow well on TCBS (thiosulphate citrate bile salt) media

5) Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of

food poisoning, it has also been associated with a post
diarrheal syndrome that is known as...................................?
a) Toxic shock syndrome
b) Guillain-Barre syndrome
c) Short bowel syndrome
d) Rett syndrome
6) Campylobacter jejuni is a microaerophilic bacteria, which of
the following statement is true about the cultural
requirements for the proper growth of the bacteria?
a) An atmosphere of increased O2 (10%) with added CO2 (5%)
b) An atmosphere of reduced O2 (5%) with added CO2 (10%)
c) An atmosphere of reduced O2 (0%) with CO2 (10%)
d) An atmosphere of increased O2 (10%) with added CO2 (5%)

7) What of the following is not the growth characteristics

of Campylobacter spp?
Select from all the options given below.
a) Oxidase and catalase positive
b) H2S production
c) Ferment carbohydrates
d) Have darting motility

8) Helicobacter pylori is associated with all of the following

infections, EXCEPT?
a) Malt lymphoma
b) Gastric carcinoma
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Burkitt lymphoma

9) Which of the following virulence factors may be associated

with the pathogenesis of infection caused by Helicobacter
pylori?
a) Flagella
b) Lipopolysaccharides
c) Exotoxins
d) Endotoxins

10) Which one of these is not the common laboratory test for
the diagnosis and identification of Helicobacter pylori?
a) Biopsy test
b) Urease breath test
c) Stool antigen test
d) Urine test

11) Which of the following biotypes of Vibrio cholerae is

prevalent in developing countries?
a) EL Tor
b) Classic
c) Biotype 0139
d) Biotype 139

12) Aeromonas hydrophila mostly causes infections to fish and

amphibians and is less pathogenic to humans, mostly causing
gastroenteritis in humans.
Name the other common human infection associated with
the bacteria.
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Cellulitis
c) Asthma
d) Gastritis

13) Helicobacter pylori infection is most prevalent in

developing countries.
Which of the following age range are found more susceptible
to the disease?
a) 10 to 30
b) 30 to 50
c) 60 and above
d) Infant

14) Vibrio vulnificus and V. parahaemolyticus are both gram-

negative, motile bacteria that are mostly found in warm
coastal areas.
What is the common source of transmission of infection in
humans?
a) Water
b) Oysters
c) Shellfish
d) All of the above

15) …...........................is less likely to cause gastroenteritis or

diarrheal disease in humans.
a) Vibrio spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Plesiomonas spp
d) Campylobacter spp

16) Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated

with more than 5% of gastroenteritis cases each year in the
USA?
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Campylobacter enteritis
c) Helicobacter pylori
d) Vibrio cholerae

17) Select all the possible risk factors that are associated
with H. pylori infections
a) Continuous consumption of contaminated water
b) Living in a rural area with a crowded population
c) Person who has high blood pressure
d) People who live in warmer regions
e ) a, b and d
18) All of the following are the general symptoms of cholera
infections, except?
a) Diarrhea
b) Dehydration
c) Vomiting
d) High-grade fever
19) Which of the following is the most commonly used easy
and effective method for the treatment of cholera symptoms
in developing countries like India, Nepal, and Bangladesh?
a) Continuous oral rehydration with electrolytes
b) Intake of omeprazole medication after the onset of
cholera infection
c) Vaccination method

20) In 2022 outbreaks of cholera infections have occurred in

different parts of the world such as India, Nepal, Pakistan,
and some parts of Africa.
What precautions should be followed while traveling to
cholera endemic regions?
Select all the correct answers:
a)Drinking boiled water or bottled water
b)Disinfection of water by using chlorine and filter
c)Frequent hand washing with soap and water
d)Eat only foods that are served hot and fresh
e ) All of the above
21) Select one general characteristics difference
between Aeromonas spp and Vibrio spp?
a) Gram negative, facultative anaerobes
b) Oxidase and catalase positive
c) Curved, comma shaped bacilli
d) Infection in humans by consumption of contaminated
water

22) Which of the following virulence factor (toxin) is not

released by V. cholerae?
a) Cholera toxin (CT)
b) O1 and O139 somatic antigens
c) Zonula occludens toxin (Zot) enterotoxin
d) Diphtheria toxin
Multiple Choice Question on Neisseria species (Gram-
negative cocci)

1). All of the following statements are the cultural

characteristics of gram-negative diplococci, EXCEPT
a) Can be isolated in aerobic as well as anaerobic conditions
b) Fastidious microorganism that require enriched media
(blood)
c) Have smooth, unpigmented colonies with diplococcus in
shape
d) Require 20 to 25 % CO2 for the proper cultivation and
isolation

2) All of the following infections are the common clinical

manifestations caused by N. gonorrhoeae, EXCEPT
a) Genital gonorrhea in women
b) Pelvic inflammatory disease in men
c) Neonatal conjunctivitis
d) Pharyngitis

3) N. gonorrhoeae consists of conjugate plasmids that make

the bacteria resistant to which of the following antibiotics?
a)Tetracycline
b)Penicillin
c)Chloramphenicol
d) Ketoconazole

4) All, except one, are the examples of protein present in the

antigenic structure of Neisseria gonorrhoeae that helps the
bacteria to invade a host cell
a) Por proteins
b) Rmp proteins
c) Opa proteins
d) IgM protease
5)Name the antimicrobial drug that is not added in the
culture media for the inhibition of other bacteria and growth
and isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
a) Penicillin
b) Vancomycin
c) Amphotericin
d) Colistin

6) Which statement is true about the Nucleic Acid

Amplification Tests used for the direct detection of Neisseria
gonorrhoeae in the genitourinary specimens?
a) The test has low sensitivity and specificity in symptomatic
and high prevalence populations
b) The test has equal sensitivity and specificity as Neisseria
gonorrhoeae in symptomatic and high prevalence
populations
c) The test has high sensitivity and specificity in
symptomatic and high prevalence populations

d) The test has high sensitivity and low specificity in

symptomatic and high prevalence populations

7)There are various serogroups of Neisseria meningitidis.

Which of these are the most important associated with
meningococcal infection?
a) A, B, C, Y and W135 ( meningitidis)
b) A, B, C, X, Y, and W135 ( meningococcal infections )
c) A, B, C, X, Y, and W125
d) A, B, C, X and W135

8) The meningococcal infections are predominant in which of

the following age group?
a) Infants only
b) Children and Young adults
c) Adults only
d) Children and Adults

9) What is the one effective method of treatment for the

primary stages of gonorrheal infections?
a) Antibiotics
b) Use of condom
c) No treatment available
d) Vaccine

10) Which of the following antigenic structure is considered

the major virulence factor in the pathogenesis of Neisseria
meningitidis?
a) Opa protein
b) Pili
c) Porin
d) Polysaccharide capsule

11) Which of the following component may not be required

for the culture of blood specimens taken from the individuals
with meningococcal infection?
a) Sodium sulfonate
b) Sodium gluconate
c) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
d) Sodium polyascorbate

12) What serological test is used to measure the antibodies to

meningococcal polysaccharides?
a) Latex agglutination test
b) Hemagglutination test
c) Latex and hemagglutination tests
d) None of the above

13) What is the drug of choice for the treatment of the

meningococcal disease?
a) Penicillin
b) Amphotericin
c) Methicillin
d) Penicillin G

14) Which of the following route is not the common route for
the transfer and spread of N.gonorrhoea?
a) Through kissing and hugging
b) Sexual intercourse
c) Infected mother to fetus
d) All of the above

15) Which of the following tests can be used to differentiate

between Moraxella catarrhalis and saprophytic Neisseria
spp from sputum specimens?
a) Oxidase
b) Butyrate esterase
c) Gram stain
d) Catalase

16) Vertical transmission of gonococcal infection to neonates

can occur through an infected mother during the delivery.
What is the most common type of gonococcal infection seen
in newborns?
a) Liver infection
b) Ocular infection (conjunctivitis)
c) Mastitis
d) Meningitis

17) N. gonorrhoeae infection of the genitourinary tract can

develop into a pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
What are the most common life-threatening infections that
may occur due to the infection?
a) Infertility( not life-threathing)
b) Endometritis ( is also a complication but not life-threating)
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Meningitis

18) All of the following statement is true for meningococcal

disease, except?
a) Vaccine is available for children above 10 for the
prevention of the disease
b) Immunocompromised patient that have HIV, or people
with sickle cell anemia are susceptible
c) Three serogroups of virus are most prevalent for the
majority of the infection
d) It is a rare disease but can be severe and fatal if contracted

19) All of the following are commonly used specific tests for
the identification of N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis, Except?
a) Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAATs)
b) Enzyme immunoassays for gonococcal antigen
c) Rapid antigen detection by latex agglutination
d) Venereal disease laboratory test (VDRL)

20) Which of the following bacteria are the leading cause of

meningitis around the world?
a) Neisseria meningitidis
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Group B Streptococcus
d) Coccidioides immitis

Multiple Choice Question on Tuberculosis and Leprosy

1) Mycobacteria are acid-fast positive bacteria because they

consist of:
a) lipopolysaccharide in the bacterial cell wall
b) mycolic acid in the bacterial cell wall
c) lipids
d) Both B and C options above

2) Which of the following first-line antibiotics are usually

resistant to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Isoniazid and ciprofloxacin
b) Isoniazid and Rifampin
c) Rifampin and ciprofloxacin
d) Rifampin and streptomycin
3) What is the mechanism responsible for antibiotic
resistance seen in M. tuberculosis?
a) Mutations in DNA gyrase gene
b) Alterations in beta-lactamase
c) Mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
d) Alterations in RNA polymerase

4) All of the following are examples of selective media/agar

used for the culture of M. tuberculosis, Except?
a) Inspissated egg media
b) Middlebrook 7H10/7H11 media with antibiotics
c) Dubos media
d) Middlebrook 7H10 media without antibiotics

5) Which of the following statement is true about the

tuberculin test and purified protein derivative (PPD)?
a) The presence of intradermal skin induration is observed 6
to 8 hours after being applied
b) The redness of skin or erythema is also measured while
reading the tuberculin test
c) A positive tuberculin test means that a person was
infected with M. tuberculosis in the past and continues to
carry the viable organism
d) A positive PPD test indicates that a person can never be
infected with M. tuberculosis
6) Which of the following pathogen has a shorter incubation
period and is a nontuberculous mycobacterium?
a) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Mycobacterium fortuitum

7) All of the following are the symptoms of pulmonary

tuberculosis, EXCEPT?
a) Weakness and fatigue
b) Decreased body temperature
c) Weight loss
d) Severe prolonged cough with sputum or blood

8) Select all the distinguishing properties of Mycobacterium

tuberculosis
a) A major respiratory pathogen
b) It is an acid-fast bacteria
c) The cell wall consists of mycolic acid
d) A fast grower and usually easy to grow in artificial media

9) Which of the following bacteria causes lung infection and

is the most common non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection
associated with AIDS patients?
a) Mycobacterium avium complex
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium gordonae
d) Mycobacterium gastri

10) A 50 year old patient who had his kidney transplant 6

months ago visited the hospital with pneumonia-like
symptoms for the last 2 months.
The chest x-ray examination revealed a typical feature of
tuberculosis infection, a photochromogenic (orange pigment
when exposed to UV light) acid-fast rod bacterium was
isolated from the sputum sample.
Name the possible identified bacteria?
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium kansasii
d) Mycobacterium leprae

11) All of the given are the distinguishing characteristics

of Mycobacterium leprae, EXCEPT:
a) It is an acid-fast bacillus
b) It cannot be isolated in-vitro culture method
c) It can be isolated by only the in-vivo culture method
d) It is a human and as well as animal pathogen ( cause
disease in armadillo)
NB: In my opinion there is no correct answer here because
the organism is an intracellular pathogen and cannot be
isolated in-vitro.

12) Which one of the following acid-fast rod bacilli can take up
to ten years for its growth in host cells and causes skin
infections?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium avium complex
d) Nocardia spp

13) Other than Mycobacterium tuberculosis which of the

following bacteria causes tuberculosis infection in animals
and can be transmitted to humans by consumption of milk
and other animal products?
a) Mycobacterium bovis
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium ulcerans
d) Mycobacterium abscessus
14) The initial therapy of tuberculosis includes which type of
antibiotics/drug regimen from the following options?
a) Streptomycin and rifampin
b) Isoniazid, streptomycin, and ethambutol
c) Rifampin, isoniazid, and ciprofloxacin
d) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

15) What is the interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) for

TB bacteria?
a) Blood test for the detection of the release of interferon-
gamma by T-cells
b) Sputum test for the detection of genetic material of TB
bacteria
c) The test used as an alternative tuberculin skin test in latent
tuberculosis
d) The test used as an alternative tuberculin skin test in the
active tuberculosis

16) The specimen of Mycobacterium tuberculosis should be

handled with safety and caution.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
laboratory diagnosis of Tuberculosis?
a) It is one of the most common laboratory-acquired
infection
b) Sputum is the common specimen used for the diagnosis
c) Culture method is the rapid detection method for TB
bacteria
d) None of the above

17) A 16-year-old boy from a remote region in Australia visited

the hospital, a painless lesion on the left side of the neck with
a yellowish-white papule first appeared about 2 months ago.
The lesion grew larger as the days passed. He did not have
any underlying disease condition and no other clinical
symptoms.
A tissue sample was taken for the biopsy examination, gram
staining and acid-fast staining showed gram-positive rods,
after 4 weeks of incubation transparent colonies appeared
on the culture media.
Name the possible pathogen?
a) M. ulcerans
b) M. bovis
c) M. avium
d) M. leprae

18) From the above question (17), which of the following

infection is caused by the pathogen?
a) Chagas disease
b) Hansen's disease
c) Buruli ulcer
d) Peptic ulcer

19) All of the following are the rapid and confirmatory

staining techniques for the identification of Mycobacterium
spp, Except?
a) Ziehl neelsen method
b) Fluorochrome stain
c) Dorner method
d) Kinyoun method

20) The nitrate reduction test is one of the primary

biochemical tests in identifying M. tuberculosis. Which of the
following biochemical test is useful in the identification
of lipase producing M. kansasii and M. marinum?
a) Tween 80 hydrolysis test
b) Neutral red test
c) Tellurite reduction test
d) Bile esculin test
21) What is a Mantoux test?
a) Sputum sample microscopy
b)Tuberculin skin test (TST)
c) Blood test
d) Urine test

22) Which of the following test is used for the detection of

genetic material of TB bacteria in sputum sample?
a) Interferon-gamma assays IGRAs
b) Tuberculin skin test
c) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL)
d) Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)

Multiple Choice Question on Haemophilus & Bordetella

1) All of these are small, gram-negative coccobacillus are

clinically important human pathogens except?
a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Bordetella pertussis
c) Haemophilus parainfluenzae
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
e) Brucella melitensis

2) Name the common bacteria that resides as normal flora in

the upper respiratory tract of human which is also commonly
isolated respiratory pathogens
a) Haemophilus influenzae (36%)
b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c) SARS CoV-2
d) Aspergillus fumigatus
e)Streptococcus pneumoniae(15%)
According to studies in university students in Kampar
Malaysia
3) Which of the following gram-negative
coccobacillus require both the X (hemin) and V (NAD) factors
for its growth?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Bordetella pertussis
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Haemophilus influenzae

4) Which of the following are NOT the virulence factors

responsible for the pathogenicity of Bordetella pertussis that
causes “whooping cough” disease?
a) An Endotoxin
b) A fimbriae and hemagglutinin
c) A pertussis toxin
d) A tracheal cytotoxin

5) Which of the following bacteria is an obligate aerobe, a

highly contagious pathogen that may cause serious
respiratory infections in young children?
a) Haemophilus ducreyi
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Bordetella pertussis
d) Haemophilus parainfluenzae

6) B. pertussis is only found in the human respiratory tract?

a) True
b) False

7) Which of the following agar is the selective culture media

for the proper growth of B.pertussis?
a) Sheep blood agar
b) Charcoal horse blood agar
c) Potato dextrose agar
d) Mannitol salt agar
e) Chocolate agar

8) Name the highly contagious coccobacillus that is naturally

found in animals such as squirrels, mice, and rabbits?
a) Francisella tularensis
b) Haemophilus influenzae type b
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Bordetella parapertussis

9) All of the following are the major virulence factors present

in H. influenzae, Except?
a) Capsule
b) Neuraminidase
c) IgA protease
d) Exotoxins
e) Lipid A

10) Which of the following are Not the general characteristics

of Haemophilus ducreyi?
a) Gram-negative coccobacillus
b) It grows well on standard chocolate agar
c) It requires the X factor but not the V factor
d) It is susceptible to erythromycin

11) Name the antibiotics group which is NOT a commonly

used drug for the treatment of infections caused
by Haemophilus influenzae?
a) Third-generation cephalosporins
b) Aminopenicillins with a beta-lactamase inhibitor
c) Chloramphenicol with ampicillin
d) Amoxicillin with penicillin

12) What is a ' Quellung reaction '?

a) The capsule detection test
b) The serological antibody detection test
c) Direct antigen detection test
d) The bacterial motility test

13) The preventive measure for Bordetella pertussis infection

is the vaccination method, the pertussis vaccine is usually
administered in combination with toxoids of Diphtheria and
tetanus (DTaP) that is recommended by WHO for children,
preteens, pregnant women, and adults who have never
received it.
What doses of the vaccine are usually recommended for
children under six years?
a) Two doses of vaccine
b) Three doses of vaccine
c) Five doses of vaccine
d) One dose of vaccine

14) ........................................... is the causative agent of the

chancroid, one of the most common sexually transmitted
diseases and is characterized by painful lesions and genital
ulcers?
a) Neisseria gonorrohoeae
b) Haemophilus haemolyticus
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Haemophilus ducreyi

15) Which of the following do not prove to be helpful for the

treatment of the disease "whooping cough"?
a) Cough syrups and expectorants
b) DPT vaccine
c) Macrolides
d) None of the above

16) H. parainfluenzae can grow on blood agar and requires

which of the following factor for proper growth in the clinical
laboratory?
a) X (hemin factor)
b) V (NAD+ factor)
c) X and V factor
d) None of the above

17) What is the most common infection associated with type

b H. influenzae?
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Genital chancre
c) Arthritis
d) Meningitis

18) Haemophilus influenzae are mainly categorized into

serotype and nonserotype, which of the following
component is present in the serotype H.influenzae?
a) Exotoxin
b) Flagella
c) Capsule
d) Teichoic acid

19) Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib) is the

preventive measure for the control of the infections caused
by the bacteria, the Hib vaccine should usually be complete at
which of the following age group of the children?
a) 1 to 5 year old
b) 2 months to 15 months old
c) 5 to 10 year old
d) 6 months to 5 years old

20) The cause of sore throat and difficulty breathing in young

children is usually due to type b H.influenzae infection, what is
it called?
a) Epiglottitis and cellulitis
b) Otitis media
c) Brazilian purpuric fever
d) Lassa fever

MCQ on Spirochetes

1) Which of the following is not the common morphological

characteristics of spirochetes?
a) They are gram-negative helical bacteria
b) They are motile and have periplasmic flagella (endo
flagella)
c) They reproduce by transverse binary fusion
d) They are obligate aerobes

2) Which of the following subspecies of Treponema

pallidum causes endemic syphilis?
a) Treponema carateum
b) Treponema endemicum
c) Treponema pertenue
d) None of the above

3) The RPR test (Rapid Plasma Reagin test) is a

nontreponemal test method that is a common screening test
for syphilis, which of the following statement correctly
describes the test?
a) A screening test used for the detection of syphilis
antibodies in the urine
b) A screening test used for the detection of syphilis
antibodies in the blood
c) The test results for RPR are identified by using the
microscope
d) All of the above

4) A 30 year old man infected with syphilis developed a skin

lesion on his prepuce, the lesion was oval in shape and
painless.
What is the specific name for this type of lesion?
a) Nodules
b) Papule
c) Eczema
d) Hard chancre

5) Epidemic Relapsing fever in humans is caused by the

infected body louse that acts as a vector and transfers the
pathogen to humans.
Which of the following is the most likely spirochete?
a) Borrelia recurrentis
b) Leptospira interrogans
c) Borrelia burgdorferi
d) Borrelia hermsii

6) The following pathogen is transmitted to humans through

the bite of infected ticks, flu like symptoms and ringlike skin
rashes occur which is also known as Lyme disease.
Name the most likely pathogen
a) Leptospira interrogans
b) Bordetella pertusis
c) Borrelia burgdorferi
d) Enterococcus faecalis

7) Which of the following statements is most correct about

the dark field microscopy for the diagnosis of spirochetes?
a)Performed for the identification and detection of
spirochetes from the specimen collected from the oral cavity
b) The specimen is stained and detected under the
compound microscope
c) The color of the spirochetes appears grey when observed
under the dark background
d) Performed for the observation and detection of thin
spirochetes suspended in a liquid

8) Which of the following organisms is NOT commonly found

as a part of normal flora in the oral cavity?
a) Streptococcus mutans
b) Borrelia buccalis
c) Spirillum minor
d) Candida albicans

9) What stain is mostly used for the detection of Borrelia spp

that causes Relapsing fever?
a) Gram stain
b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
c) Giemsa stain
d) Methylene blue

10) The bacteria causing Leptospirosis are difficult to isolate

from urine, blood, or CSF specimens by culture method,
therefore a confirmation test should be performed.
Which of the following statement is most correct in the
diagnosis of the disease?
a) RPR tests for the detection of serogroup antigens from
the acute or convalescent phase
b) Antibodies are tested against the serogroup antigens
from the acute or convalescent phase
c) Darkfield microscopy method is done to detect the
pathogen from serum samples
d) All of the above
11) The diagnosis of Lyme disease is done by performing two
serological tests after the screening test, one is a positive
confirmatory ELISA test, what is the other test?
a) Western blotting assay
b) PCR
c) Immunofluorescent assay
d) Southern blotting assay
12) The following spirochetes causes skin disease known
as Pinta prevalent in Latin America and primarily seen in
individuals who have dark skin color, the human transmission
is by direct contact or vectors such as flies.
Name the possible pathogen?
a) Borrelia hermsii
b) Spirillum minor
c) Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue
d) Treponema carateum

13) Which of the following pathogen causes sexually

transmitted diseases?
a) Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
b) Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
c) Borrelia recurrentis
d) Borrelia hermsii

14) Which of the following statements is not correct about

'congenital syphilis'?
a) The spirochetes are transferred from mother to fetus
across the placenta
b) The early manifestations occur in children during the birth
(4 weeks after gestation)
c) Five to ten percent of infected children can develop
cutaneous lesions (70%)
d) The infection can lead to stillbirth

15) What is the most likely pathogen related to rat-bite fever?

a) Leptospira interrogans
b) Borrelia hermsii
c) Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
d) Spirillum minor
16) Which of the following infections are transmitted through
the non-sexual route caused by the Treponema spp?
a) Yaws, Bejel and Pinta
b) Visceral leishmaniasis
c) Shingles
d) Donovanosis

17) 'Syphilis' is caused by Treponema spp.

What is the other major disease that is caused by the
bacteria?
a) Lyme disease
b) Tularemia
c) Periodontal disease
d) Infectious mononucleosis

18) Which of the following test is a simple, low-cost, and

commonly used test for screening syphilis infection around
the world?
a) Western blot
b) VDRL test
c) Agglutination test
d)None of the above

19)Penicillin is the drug of choice for the treatment of

syphilis, but in recent years it has been found to be highly
resistant.
Which of the following types of antibiotic is recommended
for early as well as late-stage syphilis that show resistance
to Penicillin?
a) Macrolides
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Tetracyclines
d) Fluoroquinolones
20)Endemic syphilis is mainly transmitted through nonsexual
contact and has been found to be prevalent in which of the
following country?
a) USA
b) Europe
c) Spain
d) South Africa

Multiple Choice Question with answers on Chlamydia spp

1) Which of the following Chlamydia spp are human

pathogens?
a) Chlamydia pecorum
b) Chlamydia psittaci
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Chlamydia pnuemoniae
e ) b, c and d

2) Which of the following is a common specimen used for the

diagnosis of sexually transmitted chlamydial infections that
occur in both men and women?
a) Oral swab
b) Cerebrospinal fluid
c) Urine
d) Skin biopsy

3) What type of methods are important laboratory

approaches for the diagnosis of genital Chlamydia
spp infections?
Select all the correct answers:
a) Specimen culture in McCoy cell tissue culture
b) Direct fluorescent antibody and Enzyme-linked
immunoassay
c) Serological tests
d) Nucleic acid amplification test
e ) All of the above

4) Chlamydia is one of the major pathogens that cause

sexually transmitted diseases.
What is the most common symptom of the disease that can
occur both in men and women?
a) Diarrhea and vomiting
b) Mouth ulcers or sores
c) Flu-like symptoms with high-grade fever
d) Painful urination with abnormal discharge

5) Which of the following antibiotics are the drug of choice or

are the first line treatment for chlamydia infection?
a) Rifampin and isoniazid
b) Metronidazole
c) Doxycycline and azithromycin
d) Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone

6) Which of the following statements are NOT the

distinguishing features of the family Chlamydiaceae?
a) They are seen on Gram stain
b) They are obligate intracellular bacteria
c) They cannot make ATP
d) They consist of two forms elementary and reticulate body

7) All of the statements given below are correct

about Chlamydia psittaci, EXCEPT?
a) It is a primary pathogen of birds
b) It can cause respiratory infections in human
c) It is usually resistant to sulfonamides
d) It only infects birds like parrots and cockatoos
8) What is the most sensitive laboratory diagnostic tests
for Chlamydia pneumoniae?
a) Giemsa staining test
b) Micro immunofluorescence test
c) Cell culture method
d) None of the above

9) Human is the only reservoir of Chlamydophila pneumoniae,

the pathogen that is most prevalent in which age group of
people?
a) 2 to 5 years
b) 10 to 30 years
c) 5 to 18 years
d) 20 to 45 years

10) Name the organism given below which is frequently

associated with urethritis apart from Chlamydia trachomatis?
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b) E. Coli
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Neisseria gonorrohoea

11) All of the statements given below are correct about

pathogenic Chlamydophila pneumoniae, EXCEPT?
a) It causes respiratory infections that are common in young
children
b) The bacteria spread from person to person via a
respiratory route
c) It produces intracytoplasmic inclusions that lack glycogen
d) The infections caused by the bacteria are usually
asymptomatic

12) When do the symptoms of neonatal pneumonia in babies

start to show caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
a) In 1 week after the birth
b) In 2 to 12 weeks after birth
c) In 5 to 10 days after the birth
d) In 2 to 3 weeks after the birth

13) Which of the following pathogens is associated with the

disease 'reiter's syndrome'?
a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Ureaplasma urealyticum
d) clostridium tetani

NB; Reiter syndrome is also called reactive arthritis

(salmonella, shigella, campylobacter N. gonorrhea can also
cause it)

14) All of the following statements about C.trachomatis are

correct, Except?
a) A leading cause of ocular and genital infections
b)The organism grows well in the egg yolk sac
c)It occurs in two bodies form, elementary and reticulate
d)A common pathogen of acute respiratory disease

15) Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the

infection 'psittacosis' that is transmitted from the parrots to
humans?
a) Chalmydia trachomatis
b) Chlamydia pneumoniae
c) Chlamydia psittaci
d) Chlamydia pecorum

16) Which of the following syndrome is most commonly

associated with complications of pelvic inflammatory disease
caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
a) Blue baby syndrome
b) Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome
c) Toxic shock syndrome
d) Leaky gut syndrome

17) Name the different body parts that can be infected by the
spread of C.trachomatis through the bloodstream usually in
the late stage of the infection
a) Eye
b) Joints
c) Urethra
d) Heart
e) a, b and c

18) A vaginal swab specimen was taken from the 23 year old
patient with symptoms of painful urination, a laboratory
diagnosis of the chlamydial pathogen was performed.
Select all the correct methods commonly used for the
isolation of the bacteria
a) Venereal disease research laboratory test
b) Direct microscopic examination by using gram stain
c) Agar culture plate method
d) Nucleic acid amplification test
e) b, c and d

19) Chlamydia trachomatis reinfection can occur in both men

and women, True or False?
a) TRUE
b) FALSE

20) Which of the following gram negative bacteria are the

common cause of 'Proctitis' (infection of the rectum)?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Candida albicans and Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Giardia lamblia and Chlamydia trachomatis
 Multiple Choice Questions on Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella
sps- Plague

1) All of the following bacterial pathogens given below are

the example of bacterial zoonotic diseases, EXCEPT
a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Borrelia burgdorferi
c) Yersinia pestis
d) Leishmania tropica
2) Which of the following is the most common form of plague
that causes swelling of the lymph nodes?
a) Septicemic plague
b) Bubonic plague
c) Pneumonic plague
d) All of the above

3) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about

the cultural characteristics of Yersinia pestis?
a) The bacteria can cause pneumonia in humans through
airborne droplets
b) The suitable bacterial growth temperature is room
temperature using MacConkey agar
c) The bacteria is lactose positive
d) The common source of transmission to humans is through
rats

4) Select all the correct answers, the commonly used

preventive measures to control the plague
are................................................?
a) Patients diagnosed with the infection should be isolated
and quarantined
b) The laboratory specimens should be handled in the
biological safety cabinet
c) The control of rodents should be done by finding their
habitat and destructing it
d) Protective wear, gloves, and insect repellent cream should
be used in the endemic areas
e) all of the above

5) All of the statements given below about the Yersinia

enterocolitica is correct, EXCEPT
a) The bacteria are gram-negative, non-motile
b) Consist of bipolar staining property
c) The most common serotypes causing human
gastroenteritis is O:1
d) Transmitted to humans may occur via contaminated food
and water

6) What is the recommended drug regimen for Yersinia

enterocolitica infections?
a) Penicillin
b) Ampicillin with cefalotin
c) Doxycycline with aminoglycoside
d) Penicillin G

7) Which of the following is the selective media used for the

isolation of the pathogen Yersinia enterocolitica from a stool
specimen?
a) Regan lowe medium
b) Celfsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar
c) MacConkey agar
d) Lowenstein-Jensen media

8) Which of the following pathogen can be transferred to

humans and cause infections from the bite of dogs and cats?
a) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Yersinia enterolitica
d) Pasteurella pneumotropica
9) Which of the following is the drug of choice for infections
caused by Pasteurella multocida?
a) Ampicillin
b) Tetracyclines
c) Penicillin G
d) Doxycycline

10) Which of the following is NOT the possible pathogen

isolated from infections of the human genital tract and may
transmit from mother to the newborns?
a) Treponema pallidum
b) Toxoplasma gondii
c) Pasteurella bettyae
d) Campylobacter jejuni

11) The asymptomatic individuals in exposure to untreated

people with pneumonic plague and laboratory personnel
working with handling the specimens should be given
antibiotic prophylaxis for a given period of time.
What is the drug usually used for prophylaxis?
a) Rifampin
b) Penicillin
c) Erythromycin
d) Doxycycline

12) All of the following are the possible laboratory methods

used for the diagnosis of Bubonic plague, EXCEPT
a) Blood culture on MacConkey agar
b) Stool culture on Chocolate agar
c) Aspirates culture in brain heart infusion broth taken from
swollen lymph nodes
d) Wayson stain method for the identification of the
suspected bacteria
13) All of the statements given below are correct about the
diagnosis of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis related infection in
humans, EXCEPT
a) Appendicitis-like symptoms may be observed
b) Presented as mesenteric lymphadenitis
c) Tuberculosis like symptoms may be seen in laboratory
animals after bacterial inoculation
d) Genetic features are similar to Yersinia enterolitica

14) Pasteurella multocida has been found as normal flora in

the respiratory tract of which of the following animals?
a) Cats
b) Deer
c) Pigeons
d) Bats

15) In addition to membrane lipopolysaccharide

endotoxins, Yersinia pestis possesses other virulent plasmids.
They include.............................................................?
a) pPCP1 that encodes for a plasminogen-activating protease
b) pFra/pMT that encodes for a capsular protein that has
antiphagocytic activity
c) pFra/pMT that encodes for phospholipase D crucial for
survival in flea gut
d) All of the above

16) All of the following primary pathogens found in rodents

are gram-negative, short bacilli, Except?
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
f) Yersinia pestis
17) Which of the following statements is Not correct about
the disease Tularemia?
a) Most commonly transmitted through the poultry to
humans
b)The skin and respiratory tract are the primary sites of
infection
c) Prevalent in different states of the USA
d) It is caused by a gram-negative small bacilli

18) The outbreak of the black death, a pandemic during the

1300s killed millions of people in Europe and Asia.
Name the possible pathogen found to be responsible for the
outbreak?
a) Francisella tularensis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
d) Pasteurella haemolytica

19) Name the disease also known as the "Black Death" which
is considered one of the worst pandemics that occurred in
human history
a) Pneumonic plague
b) Septicemic plague
c) Bubonic plague
d) Hemorrhagic plague

20) Which of the following statements is true about the

treatment methods of plague disease?
a) Vaccines administration to the patients
b) Antibiotic treatment at the onset of the disease
c) No treatment is available for any type of plague
 MCQ on Rickettsiae and zoonotic diseases- obligate
intracellular pathogens

1) All are the different types of medically important Rickettsial

infections except
a) Epidemic and endemic typhus
b) Scrub typhus
c) Yellow fever
d) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

2) All the statements given below are correct about

'epidemic typhus', Except?
a) Transmitted to humans lice (vector)
b) Doxycycline is the drug of choice
c) Fever lasts for about two weeks
d) The causative pathogen is Rickettsia typhi

3) Among the Rickettsia spp listed, which one is responsible

for rickettsial pox in humans, transmitted by vector mites,
and exhibits early symptoms such as fever, rashes, and flu-
like symptoms that closely resemble varicella infection?
a) Rickettsia rickettsi
b) Rickettsia akari
c) Rickettsia prowazekii
d) Rickettsia australis

4) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the

characteristics of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
a) It is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii
b) Predominant in the eastern and southeastern regions of
the United States
c) Fever and Skin rashes develop within 6 hours after a tick
bite
d) Ticks are the primary vectors
5) All of the statements given below are correct about the
Ehrlichiosis infection in humans, EXCEPT?
a) Ehrlichia chaffeensis is the causative organism
b) Fleas are the vectors that transmit Ehrlichiosis infection in
humans
c) The infection represents an Intracellular inclusion called
morulae
d) Blood tests can detect antibodies against Ehrlichia
chaffeensis or the genetic material of the bacteria.

6) The following bacterial zoonotic diseases

 resembles the symptoms of influenza and pneumonia
 can be spread to humans most commonly by inhalation
of infected aerosols and dust
 primary reservoirs are sheep, and goats

Name the disease

a) Rocky mountain fever
b) Q fever
c) Dengue fever
d) Yellow fever
7) ….................................. causes endemic typhus or murine
typhus which is transmitted to humans primarily through rats
and cats fleas.
a) Ehrlichia chaffeensis
b) Rickettsia rickettsii
c) Coxiella burnetii
d) Rickettsia typhi

8) Which of the following serological test should be

performed for the positive diagnosis of the Rickettsia
rickettsii from skin biopsy specimens of a rash?
a) Complement fixation test
b) Indirect Immunofluorescence technique
c) Schick skin test
d) Agglutination test

9) What is the effective drug regimen used in the treatment

of chronic Q fever?
a) Combination therapy with doxycycline and
hydroxychloroquine for up to 18 months
b) Doxycycline for 18 months
c) Combination therapy with penicillin and fluoroquinolones
for 12 months
d) Antibiotics do not work in this phase of illness

10) Which of the following statements is most correct

regarding Coxiella burnetii infections?
a) Transmitted to humans by the bite of vector ticks
b) Can cause atypical pneumonia
c) Fever, chills and headache are the common symptoms
d) Resistant to various chemical and physical agents

11) Which of the following disease is NOT a tick-borne

rickettsial disease?
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Ehrlichiosis
d) Scrub typhus
e) Tularemia

12) All of the following statements are true about the 'Scrub
typhus' disease caused by Rickettsia spp, EXCEPT?
a) The common symptoms are fever and body aches
b) Ulcer known as eschar ulcer appears at the site of the bite
c) Cases usually occur in people who work on farms
d) The causative agent is Rickettsia australis

13) ......................................also known as 'recrudescent

typhus', is a late relapse of epidemic typhus that is caused
by R. prowazekii
a) Rickettsialpox
b) Scrub typhus
c) Brill-Zinsser disease
d) Murine typhus

14) What are the primary hosts or sources of flea-borne

typhus, also known as murine typhus, among the following
options?
a) Rats
b) Dogs
c) Ticks
d) Mites

15) Which of the following is NOT the proper preventive

method to control Rickettsial diseases?
a) Use of insecticides to control possible vectors and
reservoirs of the pathogen
b) Use of tick and insect repellent while traveling to endemic
areas
c) Proper hygiene and cleanliness to eliminate lice and fleas
d) Use of sulfonamides for the treatment of typhus fever

16) A PCR test is a commonly used molecular diagnostic

method for the detection of all medically important
Rickettsial diseases, the test is less sensitive during which
stage of this disease?
a) Late stage of the infection
b) Within 2-3 days of the infection
c) Between 1-2 weeks of the infection
d) 1 week after the antibiotic therapy
e) a and d

17) Serological testing is essential for accurately diagnosing

rickettsial infections, as it can produce positive result when
conducted during both the acute and convalescent phases of
the infection.
Select all the statements that are true about the diagnosis
procedure done during these phases.
a) Sample is collected within initial 14 days in the acute phase
b) Decrease in IgG antibody titer is a confirmatory result of
the infection
c) Convalescent samples are collected after the 2-3 weeks of
the acute phase
d) Collection of samples for antibody titer is done in the acute
phase

18) 'Anaplasmosis' in humans mostly occurrs in which of the

following regions of the world?
a) Australia
b) Japan
c) United kingdoms
d) United States

19) Name the most frequently used specimen for the

microscopic diagnosis of the rickettsial diseases
a) Blood
b) Nose swab
c) Throat secretions
d) Urine

20) Which of the following best describes the primary general

characteristic of the pathogen Coxiella burnetii?
a) A gram-negative rod
b) Causes Lyme disease
c) Transmitted to humans via tick bites
d) Usually resistant to high temperatures and chemical
disinfectants
 Multiple Choice of Question on Mycoplasma species
1) Which of the following are the common human infections
caused by Mycoplasma spp?
Select the correct answers from the options given below
a) Pneumonia
b) Food poisoning
c) Urethritis
d) Skin infections
e) a and c

2) All of the following are the general characteristics

of Mycoplasma spp, EXCEPT?
a) It can grow on cell-free media containing lipoprotein and
sterol
b) They are pleomorphic and very small in size
c) They are best identified using a gram staining technique
d) Colonies appear as a fried egg in shape in the media
e) The bacteria are aerobic/facultative anaerobic
f) Do not consist of flagella or spores

3) A 14-year-old boy contracts cough and fever at school

where one of his friends from the class had the same
symptom for a few days. At the hospital, laboratory sputum
culture and gram staining method showed negative results
and chest radiography results also did not demonstrate the
infection area properly.
Which is the likely pathogen?
a) Mycoplasma hominis
b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Ureaplasma urealyticum
4) Which of the following statements is true
about Ureaplasma urealyticum?
a) It can be cultivated in routine culture medium
b) The transmission of the bacteria is through the respiratory
passage
c) The bacteria can grow easily in media containing urea
d) It is susceptible to penicillin and amoxicillin

5) Mycoplasma spp are resistant to the drug Penicillin

a) True
b) False
6) A blood sample from a 19-year-old sexually active woman
with genital infections was taken and cultured for the
isolation of the responsible pathogen.
Name the least likely pathogen that can be responsible for
the infection?
a)Chlamydia trachomatis
b)Mycoplasma hominis
c)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d)Mycoplasma genitalium

7) Select the primary pathogens of genital infections

a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b) Mycoplasma hominis
c) Ureaplasma urealyticum
d) All of the above
e) b and c

8) The routine laboratory diagnostics method is usually not

helpful for the isolation and identification of Mycoplasma
pneumoniae.
All of the following are the important clinical tests for the
diagnosis of the infection in humans caused
by M.pneumoniae, EXCEPT?
a) ELISA
b) Complement fixation
c) Cold hemagglutinins
d) Electron microscopy

9) All of the following pathogens commonly cause

community-acquired pneumonia except
a)Streptococcus pneumoniae
b)Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Haemophilus influenzae

10) Which of the following Mollicutes is associated with the

infection “salpingitis” and “postpartum fever”?
a) Mycoplasma genitalium
b) Ureaplasma urealyticum
c) Mycoplasma hominis
d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

11) Which of the following Mycoplasma spp grow rapidly in

both broth and agar medium?
a) Ureaplasma urealyticum
b) Mycoplasma genitalium
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) None of the above

12) Ureaplasma urealyticum is found as normal flora of the

urinary tract in sexually active men and women, about what
percentage of women have it?
a) 20 to 40%
b) 40 to 80 %
c) 5 to 20 %
d) 25 to 45%

13) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections are most prevalent in

what age group of people?
a) 15 to 60
b) 5 to 45
c) 5 to 20
d) 10 to 50

14) Which of the following statements is true regarding the

pathogenesis of Mycoplasma infections?
a) Adherence to the host cells is mediated by the bacterial
proteins
b) The bacteria enter the host cell by releasing exotoxin
c) Inhibited by beta-lactam antibiotics
d) All of the above

15) Which of the following is the drug of choice

for Ureaplasma urealyticum infections?
a) Penicillin
b) Tetracyclines
c) Cephalosporins
d) Imipenem

16) Which of the following virulence factor is present

in Mycoplasma pneumoniae, also known as Community-
acquired distress syndrome toxin?
a) Endotoxin
b) Capsule
c) Lipid
d) Exotoxin

17) Mycoplasma pneumoniae can cause extrapulmonary

infections and can infect mucous membranes and cutaneous
membranes. Symptoms usually include rashes, soreness, and
inflammation of these membranes.
Name the commonly used term for this type of infection?
a) Sporotrichosis
b) Epiglottitis
c) Mucositis
d) Cellulitis

18)All are the different types of infections commonly

associated with M. genitalium except
a) Nongonococcal urethritis in men and women
b) Pelvic inflammatory disease in women
c) Trachoma
d) Infertility in women

19) Due to the lack of cell wall, the drug penicillin is not
effective against M. genitalium, and the bacteria have shown
high resistance to azithromycin and other macrolides.
Name the drug used for the treatment of infections
associated with M.genitalium
a) Moxifloxacin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Acyclovir
d) Retrovir