JEE MAIN 2021 JULY SESSION

NEET: JHARKHAND STATE COUNSELLING

OFFICIAL QUESTION PAPERS

WITH DETAILED SOLUTIONS

7 sets having 630 questions with

detailed solutions of Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics
1
 Content
Online 20th July - Morning Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 03

Online 20th July - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 97

Online 22nd July - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 187

Online 25th July - Morning Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 274

Online 25th July - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 358

Online 27th July - Morning Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 434

Online 27th July - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 524

1
 Online 20th July (Morning Shift)

Physics
Q. 1

The value of current in the resistance is :

Option 1:
4A

Option 2:
8A

Option 3:
10A

Option 4:
6A

Correct Answer:
10A

Solution:

Applying KCL at the junction with voltage x (assigned)

By KCL,

Current through resistor is

The correct option is (3)

Q. 2 The normal reaction 'N' for a vehicle of 800 kg mass, negotiating a turn on a 30° banked
road at maximum possible speed without skidding is __________

Option 1:
10.2

Option 2:
7.2

Option 3:
12.4
 Option 4:
6.96

Correct Answer:
10.2

Solution:

For maximum possible speed, will be equal to i.e.

Along X-axis:

Along Y-axis:

From Eqn (1)

The correct option is 1.

 Q. 3 A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emissions of two particles with half-lives of
1400 years and 700 years respectively. What will be the time after which one-third of the
material remains? (Take ln )

Option 1:
1110 years

Option 2:
700 years

Option 3:
340 years

Option 4:
740 years

Correct Answer:
740 years

Solution:

For simultaneous decay, we know that,

By using the radioactive decay law

The correct option is (4)

Q. 4 A steel block of 10 kg rests on a horizontal floor as shown. When three iron cylinders are
placed on it as shown, the block and cylinders go down with an acceleration 0.2 m/s2. The
normal reaction R' by the floor if mass of the iron cylinders are equal and
of 20 kg each, is ______ N.

Option 1:
716

Option 2:
686

Option 3:
714

Option 4:
684

Correct Answer:
686
Solution:

The correct option in (2).

Q. 5 AC voltage of frequency 50 Hz is applied to a parallel plate capacitor. The

separation between the plates is 2 mm and the area is 1 m2. The amplitude of the oscillating
displacement current for the applied AC voltage is _______.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

We know that displacement current is,

But we know,

potential applied across capacitor plate.

The amplitude of displacement current

The correct option is (3)

 Q. 6 Region I and II are separated by a spherical surface of radius 25 cm. An object is kept in
region I at a distance of 40 cm from the surface. The distance of the image from the surface
is :

Option 1:
55.44 cm

Option 2:
9.52 cm

Option 3:
18.23 cm

Option 4:
37.58 cm

Correct Answer:
37.58 cm

Solution:

By using the formula for spherical surface

The correct option is (4)

Image is formed on the left as shown in the figure.

Q. 7 A person whose mass is 100 kg travels from Earth to Mars in a spaceship. Neglect all other
objects in sky and take acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth and Mars as
10 m/s2 and 4 m/s2 respectively. Identify from the below figures, the curve that fits best for
the weight of the passenger as a function of time.

Option 1:
(c)

Option 2:
(a)

Option 3:
(d)

Option 4:
(b)

Correct Answer:
(c)

Solution:
At some point P, during his/her journey, the weight will be equal to zero as the force due to earth and
mars will cancel each other making net gravitational force equal to zero.

This situation is correctly depicted by curve C.

Hence, the correct option is (1).

Q. 8 The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 4 moles of a rigid diatomic gas from
0°C to 50°C when no work is done is _______. (R is the universal gas constant)

Option 1:
250 R

Option 2:
750 R

Option 3:
175 R

Option 4:
500 R

Correct Answer:
500 R

Solution:
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Given gas is rigid diatomic gas.

From the first law of thermodynamics

Hence, the correct option is (4)

Q. 9 If and are two vectors satisfying the relation . Then the value of
will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The two vector are satisfying relation
The correct option is (4)

Q. 10 A deuteron and an alpha particle having equal kinetic energy enter perpendicular into a
magnetic field. Let be their respective radii of circular path. The value of is
equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (2).

Q. 11 A nucleus of mass M emits -ray photon of frequency . The loss of internal energy by the
nucleus is :
[Take 'c' as the speed of electromagnetic wave]

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
When the nucleus emits - ray there will be recoiling of the nucleus.

By momentum conservation,

Here negative sign implies the opposite direction motion of the nucleus (recoiling) when -ray emission
takes place.

Internal energy lost by the nucleus is given to the nucleus and x-ray.

Hence, the correct option is (4).

 Q. 12 A certain charge Q is divided into two parts q and (Q–q). How should the charges Q and q be
divided so that q and (Q–q) placed at a certain distance apart experience maximum
electrostatic repulsion ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For maximum force,

The correct option is (2).

 Q. 13 A current of 5 A is passing through a non-linear magnesium wire of cross-section 0.04 m2. At
every point, the direction of current density is at an angle of 60° with the unit vector of the
area of cross-section. The magnitude of the electric field at every point of the conductor is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3).

 Q. 14 Consider a mixture of gas molecule of types A, B and C having masses .
The ratio of their root mean square speeds at normal temperature and pressure is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

OR

The correct option is (4)

Q. 15 A butterfly is flying with a velocity in North-East direction. Wind is slowly blowing at 1

m/s from North to South. The resultant displacement of the butterfly in 3 seconds is :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4).

Q. 16 The value of tension in a long thin metal wire has been changed from . The
lengths of the metal wire at two different values of tension are
respectively. The actual length of the metal wire is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Let the actual length of wire be

Let T1 and T2 be the tension in the wire when the length of the wire is l1 and l2 respectively.

The correct option is 1.

 Q. 17 For the circuit shown below, calculate the value of

Option 1:
25 mA

Option 2:
0.15 A

Option 3:
0.1 A

Option 4:
0.05 A

Correct Answer:
25 mA

Solution:

As out of 100 v is 50 v drop is across R whereas remaining 50 V across resistance from equation 2.

The correct option is (1).

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 Q. 18 The arm PQ of a rectangular conductor is moving from x = 0 to x = 2b outwards and then
inwards from x = 2b to x = 0 as shown in the figure. A uniform magnetic field perpendicular
to the plane is acting from x = 0 to x = b. Identify the graph showing the variation of different
quantities with distance :

Option 1:
A-Flux, B-Power dissipated, C-EMF

Option 2:
A-Power dissipated, B-Flux, C-EMF

Option 3:
A-Flux, B-EMF, C-Power dissipated

Option 4:
A-EMF, B-Power dissipated, C-Flux

Correct Answer:
A-Flux, B-EMF, C-Power dissipated

Solution:
During motion from to , arm PQ cuts the magnetic field lines so there will be induced emf
Beyond there won't be any induced emf

For right direction motion

For left direction motion

EMF depicted by B in the graph (both positive & negative)

As when arm PQ is moved from the flux associated with loop

increases and then it remains constant for motion between

The correct option is (3).

Q. 19 The entropy of any system is given by

where are the constants. are no. of moles, mechanical equivalent

of heat, Boltzmann constant and gas constant respectively.

Choose the incorrect option from the following :

Option 1:
have the same dimensions.

Option 2:
have the same dimensions.
 Option 3:
have different dimensions.

Option 4:
have the same dimensions.

Correct Answer:
have the same dimensions.

Solution:

The correct option is (4).

Q. 20 The radiation corresponding to transitions of a hydrogen atom falls on a gold

surface to generate photoelectrons. These electrons are passed through a magnetic field of
. Assume that the radius of the largest circular path followed by these electrons
is 7 mm, the work function of the metal is :

Option 1:
1.36 eV
 Option 2:
1.88 eV

Option 3:
0.16 eV

Option 4:
0.82 eV

Correct Answer:
0.82 eV

Solution:

By Einstein's photoelectric equation,

The correct option is (4).

 Q. 21 In a spring gun having spring constant 100 N/m a small ball 'B' of mass 100 g is put in its
barrel (as shown in figure) by compressing the spring through 0.05 m. There should be a box
placed at a distance 'd' on the ground so that the ball falls in it. If the ball leaves the gun
horizontally at a height of 2 m above the ground. The value of d is ____ m.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
 Q. 22 In an LCR series circuit, an inductor 30 mH and a resistor are connected to an AC source
of angular frequency 300 rad/s. The value of capacitance for which, the current leads the
voltage by . Then the value of x is ________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Given here that current leads the voltage by 45o .

 Q. 23 The amplitude of wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by
at time where x and y are in
meres. The shape of wave does not change during the propagation. The velocity of the wave
will be ____m/s.

Option 1:
2

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
For travelling wave

Q. 24 A body having specific charge is resting on a frictionless plane at a distance 10 cm

from the wall (as shown in the figure). It starts moving towards the wall when a uniform
electric field of 100 V/m is applied horizontally towards the wall. If the collision of the body
with the wall is perfectly elastic, then the time period of the motion wil be ________s.
 Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

Total time taken

(Forward+Backward)

Note: In both forward & backward acceleration magnitude is the same hence the same time.
 Q. 25 In the reported figure, heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process is
_______

Correct Answer:
100

Solution:

In cyclic process,

From first law of thermodynamics,

Q. 26 A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length 'L'. When it slips
down the plane, it takes time . When it rolls down the plane, it takes time . The value of
is . The value of x will be _______.

Correct Answer:
2
Solution:

Case (I) when disc slips down

Case (II): When the disc rolls down

Q. 27 A rod of mass M and length L is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. A particle of mass
'm' travelling along the surface hits at one end of the rod with a velocity 'u' in a direction
perpendicular to the rod. The collision is completely elastic. After collision, particle comes to
rest. The ratio of masses is . The value of 'X' will be _______.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
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By linear momentum conservation ,

By angular momentum conservation, about the centre of the rod

For a perfectly elastic collision

From equations (1) and (3)

 Q. 28 An object viewed from a near point distance of 25 cm, using a microscopic lens with
magnification '6', gives an unresolved image. A
resolved image is observed at infinite distance with a total magnification double the earlier
using an eyepiece along with the given lens and a tube of length 0.6 m, if the focal length of
the eyepiece is equal to ______ cm.

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:
For simple microscope,

For compound microscope

Q. 29 The frequency of a car horn encountered a change from 400 Hz to 500 Hz. When the car
approaches a vertical wall. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s. Then the speed of car is ______
km/h.

Correct Answer:
132

Solution:
Frequency of a car horn cncounter change from 400 Hz to 500 Hz
 Q. 30 A carrier wave volts is made to vary between
and V by a message signal
volts. The peak voltage Am of the modulating signal is
_______.

Correct Answer:
40

Solution:

Chemistry
Q. 1 According to the valence bond theory the hybridization of central metal atom is for
which one of the following compounds?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Configuration of

Configuartion of

Thus, has 2 unpaired electrons which can be paired up in the presence of a strong field ligand like
as depicted below

Thus, has a hybridisation.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 2 The correct structure of Rhumann's Purple, the compound formed in the reaction of
ninhydrin with proteins is :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Ninhydrin is a powerful oxidising agent and reacts with proteins to give a blue - violet compound called
Rhumann's Purple

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

 Q. 3 Green chemistry in day–to–day life is in the use of:

Option 1:
Chlorine for bleaching of paper

Option 2:
Large amount of water alone for washing clothes

Option 3:
Tetrachloroethene for laundry

Option 4:
Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes

Correct Answer:
Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes

Solution:
Liquefied for dry cleaning of clothes is an example of Green chemistry.

The is captured as a by-product from existing industrial processes and after use is also recycled
after filtration in further cleaning cycles.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).

Q. 4 The correct order of intensity of colors of the compounds is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
Intensity of color is due to greater number of photons during d-d transitions. These transitions will be
greater in complexes having lesser splitting because of low energy barrier.

The given complexes can be arranged in order of their splitting on the basis of complex type and also the
ligand involved as

So, the order of intensity is

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 5 The set in which compounds have different nature is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The nature of the compounds is given below.
Hence, the set containing compounds with different nature is

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 6 The species given below that does NOT show disproportionation reaction is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learn,t

In disproportionation reactions, the same species is oxidised as well as reduced.

Since, already contains Br in its maximum oxidation state (+7), it cannot be further oxidised.

Thus, it cannot undergo disproportionation.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 7 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A : Sharp glass edge becomes smooth on heating it upto its melting point.

Reason R : The viscosity of glass decreases on melting.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

Option 1:
A is true but R is false

Option 2:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
 Option 3:
A is false but R is true.

Option 4:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Solution:
Sharp glass edges become smooth on heating upto its melting point. The melting of glass causes the
liquid to take a rounded shape to minimise the surface area. This is because of the surface tension in the
liquid molecules. Hence, (A) is correct.

The viscosity of glass decreases on melting. This is because of weaker intermolecular forces in the liquid
state. Hence, (R) is also correct.

However, the Assertion (A) is not explained by the Reason (R ) given.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 8 Orlon fibres are made up of :

Option 1:
Polyacrylonitrile

Option 2:
Polyesters

Option 3:
Polyamide

Option 4:
Cellulose

Correct Answer:
Polyacrylonitrile

Solution:
Fact Based.

Orlon fibers are made up of polyacrylonitrile.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

 Q. 9 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A : The dihedral angles in in gaseous phase is 90.2° and in solid phase is
111.5°.

Reason R : The change in dihedral angle in solid and gaseous phase is due to the difference
in the intermolecular forces.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below for A and R.

Option 1:
A is correct but R is not correct.

Option 2:
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Option 3:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Option 4:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Correct Answer:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Solution:
has dihedral angles of and in the gas phase and the solid phase respectively. The
angle is greater in the gas phase.

This change in dihedral angle is due to the change in the intermolecular forces.

Thus, Assertion (A) is not correct while Reason (R) is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 10 Chemical nature of the nitrogen oxide compound obtained from a reaction of concentrated
nitric acid and ( in 4 : 1 ratio) is :

Option 1:
acidic

Option 2:
basic

Option 3:
amphoteric
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 Option 4:
neutral

Correct Answer:
acidic

Solution:
is a strong dehydrating agent and it reacts with to dehydrate it and form .

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 11 An inorganic Compound 'X' on treatment with concentrated produces brown fumes

and gives dark brown ring with in presence of concentrated . Also
Compound 'X' gives precipitate 'Y', when its solution in dilute HCl is treated with gas.
The precipitate 'Y' on treatment with concentrated followed by excess of
further gives deep blue coloured solution, Compound 'X' is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Acconding to the information given in the question
This confirms the presence of Nitrate ions as the acidic Radical.

The precipitation with in presence of dil. HCl tells us that the Basic radical is of Group (2).

Futher reaction of the precipitate with and excess giving a blue solution confirms the
presence of ions

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 12

Among the given species the Resonance stabilised carbocations are:

Option 1:
(C) and (D) only

Option 2:
(A), (B) and (D) only

Option 3:
(A) and (B) only

Option 4:
(A), (B) and (C) only

Correct Answer:
(A) and (B) only

Solution:
Among the given carbocations, only benzylic and allylic carbocations are resonance stabilised. Other
carbocations are not conjugated to the double bond.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 13 A s-block element (M) reacts with oxygen to form an oxide of the formula . The oxide is
pale yellow in colour and paramagnetic. The element (M) is:

Option 1:
Mg

Option 2:
Na

Option 3:
Ca

Option 4:
K

Correct Answer:
K

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Larger metals in Group 1 (Alkali metals) form their superoxide upon reaction with air.

Superoxides are paramagnetic and are orange - yellow in colour.

show this behaviour.

Elements of Group 2 form their oxides upon reaction with excess oxygen which are generally colourless

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 14 In the given reaction:

3-Bromo-2, 2-dimethyl

Product A is :
 Option 1:
2-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane

Option 2:
1-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane

Option 3:
2-Ethoxy-2, 3-dimethyl butane

Option 4:
2-Hydroxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane

Correct Answer:
2-Ethoxy-2, 3-dimethyl butane

Solution:
The given reaction proceeds via mechanism as shown below

The major product obtained is named as 2- Ethoxy - 2,3 - dimethylbutane

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)

Q. 15 The metal that can be purified economically by fractional distillation method is:

Option 1:
Fe

Option 2:
Zn

Option 3:
Cu

Option 4:
Ni
 Correct Answer:
Zn

Solution:
Distillation is used for refining of metals having low boiling point like Zinc.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 16 Compound A is converted to B on reaction with and . The compound B is toxic

and can be decomposed by C. A, B and C respectively are :

Option 1:
primary amine, nitrile compound, conc. HCl

Option 2:
secondary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. NaOH

Option 3:
primary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. HCl

Option 4:
secondary amine, nitrile compound, conc. NaOH

Correct Answer:
primary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. HCl

Solution:
The reaction sequence is given as

The given set of conditions can be satisfied by the following:

Hence, the correct nswer is option (3)

 Q. 17 The conditions given below are in the context of observing Tyndall effect in colloidal
solutions:

(A) The diameter of the colloidal particles is comparable to the wavelength of light used.

(B) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much smaller than the wavelength of light used.

(C) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much larger than the wavelength of light used.

(D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are
comparable.

(E) The dispersed phase has a very different refractive index from the dispersion medium.

Choose the most appropriate conditions from the options given below:

Option 1:
(A) and (E) only

Option 2:
(C) and (D) only

Option 3:
(A) and (D) only

Option 4:
(B) and (E) only

Correct Answer:
(A) and (E) only

Solution:
For Tyndall effect, the following conditions are necessary:

(i) The wavelength of hight should be similar to the size of colloidal particles

(ii) There should be a significant difference in the refractive indices of the the dispersed phase and
dispersion medium

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 18 Identify the incorrect statement from the following

Option 1:
Amylose is a branched chain polymer of glucose
 Option 2:
Starch is a polymer of glucose

Option 3:
Glycosidic linkage makes cellulose polymer

Option 4:
Glycogen is called as animal starch

Correct Answer:
Glycogen is called as animal starch

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Amylose is a linear polymer of

Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of

All other statements are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 19

Which among the above compound/s does/do not form Silver mirror when treated with
Tollen's reagent?

Option 1:
(I), (III) and (IV) only

Option 2:
Only (IV)

Option 3:
Only (II)

Option 4:
(III) and (IV) only

Correct Answer:
Only (II)
Solution:
As we have learnt,

Positive silver mirror test is given by Aldehydes or Hemiacetals which can be hydrolysed to aldehydes in
basic medium

So, out of the given molecules, only the one given in option (II) will not give a positive silver Mirror Test.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 20

For above chemical reactions, identify the correct statement from the following:

Option 1:
Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are dicarboxylic acids

Option 2:
Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are diols

Option 3:
Compound 'A' is diol and compound 'B' is dicarboxylic acid

Option 4:
Compound 'A' is dicarboxylic acid and compound 'B' is diol

Correct Answer:
Compound 'A' is dicarboxylic acid and compound 'B' is diol
Solution:
As we have learnt,

Hot acidic is a strong oxidising agent which cleaves the alkene while cold neutral is a
mild oxidising agent which causes dihydroxylation on the double bond.

Their reaction with the alkene are given as

Thus, (A) is a dicarboxylic acid while (B) is a diol

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 21 The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central I atom in is _________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
As we have learnt,

The structure of is given as

Thus, there are three lone pairs of electrons on the central Iodine atom

Hence, the answer is 3.

Q. 22 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 mL of 1 M HCl. The number of unreacted HCl
molecules in the solution after complete reaction is _______ (Nearest integer)
 Correct Answer:
226

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is 226.

Q. 23 The Azimuthal quantum number for the valence electrons of ion is _________.

(Atomic number of )

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
The electronic configuration of is

Thus, the valence electrons in are present in 4s subshell whose azimuthal quantum number is 0.

Hence, the answer is 0.

Q. 24 The spin-only magnetic moment value for the complex is ______________BM.

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
Electronic configuration of

Electronic configuration of
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In the presence of strong field ligand, the electrons will get paired up

Thus, there is no unpaired in

Hence, the correct answer is 0.

Q. 25

In an equilibrium mixture, the partial pressures are

. The equilibrium constant . (Nearest
integer)

Correct Answer:
172

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is 172.

Q. 26 The number of nitrogen atoms in a semicarbazone molecule of acetone is _________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
The structure of semicarbazone of Acetone is
It contains 3 Nitrogen atoms.

Hence, the correct answer is (3)

Q. 27 To synthesise 1.0 mole of 2-methylpropan-2-ol from Ethylethanoate ________ equivalents of

reagent will be required. (Integer value)

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
The given reaction is

The above reaction requires 2 equivalent of grignard reagent as shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is (2).

Q. 28 The inactivation rate of a viral preparation is proportional to the amount of virus. In the first
minute after preparation, 10% of the virus is inactivated. The rate constant for viral
inactivation is __________ . (Nearest integer)
 Correct Answer:
106

Solution:
Given,

The inactivation follows first order kinetics.

Given,

From first order kinetics,

Hence, the correct answer is 106.

Q. 29 An average person needs about 10000 kJ energy per day. The amount of glucose (molar
mass = 180.0 g mol–1) needed to meet this energy requirement is _________ g.

Correct Answer:
667

Solution:
Total energy required

Energy obtained from 1 mole of Glucose

2700 kJ is obtained from 180 g Glucose.

 will be obtained from

Hence, the correct answer is 667.

Q. 30 At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 70 torr and that of methyl benzene is 20 torr.
The mole fraction of benzene in the vapour phase at 20°C above an equimolar mixture of
benzene and methyl benzene is ________ . (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
78

Solution:
Given,

And ,

Hence, the correct answer is 78.

Maths
Q. 1 The Boolean expression is equivalent to :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

We know

As statements in both brackets are same

The correct answer is option (2).

Q. 2
Let a be a positive real number such that where [x] is the greatest

integer less than or equal to x. Then a is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

Let,

Now {x} is periodic with period is periodic with period 1.

Given that this equals

Comparing

Q. 3 The mean of 6 distinct observations is 6.5 and their variance is 10.25. If 4 out of 6
observations are 2, 4, 5 and 7, then the remaining two observations are:

Option 1:
10,11

Option 2:
3,18

Option 3:
8,13

Option 4:
1,20
 Correct Answer:
10,11

Solution:
Let observations be

Mean

Now,

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 4
The value of the integral is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Integrating by parts

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

 Q. 5 If and are the distinct roots of the equation ,then the
value of is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

are complex cube roots of unity

Now,
Hence, the correct anwer is option (3)

Q. 6
Let be written as where P is a symmetric matrix and Q is

skew symmetric matrix. If det(Q) = 9, then the modulus of the sum of all possible values of
determinant of P is equal to :

Option 1:
36

Option 2:
24

Option 3:
45

Option 4:
18

Correct Answer:
36

Solution:
Using property of matrices,

A can be written sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix.

Where

Given
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So,

Sum of possible

Mod of this value

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 7
If are two complex numbers such that and ,

then is :

(Here arg(z) denotes the principal argument of complex number z)

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Its Argument

Q. 8
If in a triangle ABC, , and radius of circumcircle of

is 5 units, then the area (in sq. units) of is :

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Given,

We know,

Using cosine rule .

Now Area

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 9 Let [x] denote the greatest integer where . If the domain of the real valued

function is

, then the value of a+b+c is

Option 1:
8

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
-2

Option 4:
-3

Correct Answer:
-2

Solution:

So, for to be defined.

(Using wavy curve)

But will take only non-negative integral values

So , can take values 0,1,2,4,5,...........

So, only value that cannot take is 3

Hence answer is R minus these two intervals

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 10 Let be the solution of the differential equation

, . Then the area of

the region bounded by the curves in the upper half plane

is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Given,

Required area

Integrating by parts

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

 Q. 11 The coefficient of in the expansion of is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

First term :

General term is

For coefficient of

So r is not an integer term

Second Term :

General term :

Coefficient

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

 Q. 12
Let matrix, where

Let a function be defined as . Then the sum of maximum and

minimum values of f on R equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
We can find A by putting different combinations of i and j

So,
As coefficient of in , so gives minimum and gives maximum value.

Hence , the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 13 Let . If is a vector such that

and the angle between and is then the value of
is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
........(i)

Now ,
Now we need to get

Using (i)

Q. 14 The number of real roots of the equation

is :

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
0

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:

Domain
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Overall domain is intersection of these 3

For

Equation is

So do not satisfy it

For

Equation is

also does not satisfy it

So, no solution

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 15 Let be the solution of the differential equation

. Then the value of is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Integrating

Using by parts on LHS and substituting in RHS

Given

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 16 Let 'a' be a real number such that the function is

increasing in and decreasing in

. Then the function has a

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

increasing in & decreasing in

As is linear, so

Now,

It is a downward parabola, so it will have maximum at

So maximum at

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

 Q. 17 Let a function be defined as

Where [x] is the gretest integer less than or equal to x. If is continuous on R, then
is equal to :

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
At

LHL:

RHL :

Continuous at

At

LHL :

RHL:

Continuous at

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

 Q. 18 Words with or without meaning are to be formed using all the letters of the word
EXAMINATION. The probability that the letter M appears at the fourth position in any such
word is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The word has

Total number of words

(Total letters =11 & 3 are repeated twice)

Word with M at fourth position :

Now we need to arrange remaining 10 letters in remaining 10 positions and out of 10 letters 3 are
repeated twice.

So, number of such words

Probability

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

 Q. 19 The probability of selecting integers such that
for all is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Here,

We only need

But we can select a only from

So favourable values of

(Total of 8 values)
Total possible values of a in

Probability

Hence, the correct answer option is (2)

Q. 20 Let the tangent to the parabola at the point meet the x-axis at Q and
normal at it meet the parabola S at the point R. Then the area (in sq. units) of the triangle
PQR is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Equation of tangent at P :
For point

Now point R

If P is , then point R will be

Area of

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 Let be three mutually perpendicular vectors of the same magnitude and equally
inclined at an angle , with the vector . Then is equal to ________.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
Given,

and these are mutually perpendicular,

So,

Angle of with
Now,

Using this in (i)

Hence, the correct answer is 4

Q. 22
Let where I is an identity

matrix of order . If , then is equal to ________

Correct Answer:
910

Solution:

This can be written as

where,

So,
and ,

Now,

Expanding using Binomial Thearem and using

Hence, the correct answer is 910.

Q. 23 Let P be a plane passing through the points . Let a

vector be such that is parallel to the plane P, perpendicular to
and equals ____________.

Correct Answer:
81

Solution:
is parallel to plane containing

is perpendicular to normal to this plane.

And
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 .........(i)

Also given is perpendicular to

And ,

From (i)

Q. 24
The number of rational terms in the binomial expansion of is ________

Correct Answer:
21

Solution:

General term

For this term to be rational, r should be a multiple of 2 and r should be a multiple of 6

Total of 21 values of r

Hence, the correct answer is 21.

Q. 25 If the shortest distance between the lines

and
is 9, then is equal to ________.

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
Clearly the given lines are not parallel, so they must be skew lines

Distance between skew lines

Here,

Using these

Q. 26 Let T be the tangent to the ellipse at the point . If the area of

the region bounded by the tangent T, ellipse E, lines and
, then is equal to ________.

Correct Answer:
1.25

Solution:
Equation of tangent can be obtained using
Equation of line

Equation of ellipse

Hence, the correct answer is 1.25

Q. 27 Let a, b,c,d be in arithmetic progression with common difference . If

then value of is equal to __________

 Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
As a,b,c,d are in AP with common difference

So,

So determinant is

Expanding along column 3

Hence, the correct answer is 1

Q. 28 There are 15 players in a cricket team, out of which 6 are bowlers, 7 are batsmen and 2 are
wicketkeepers. The number of ways, a team of 11 players be selected from them so as to
include at least 4 bowlers, 5 batsmen and 1 wicketkeeper,is__________.

Correct Answer:
777

Solution:
7 batsmen , 6 bowlers and 2 wicketkeeper are available for selection.

Possible ways to select the team :

Batsmen Bowlers wicketkeepers

 1. 6 4 1
2. 5 4 2
3. 5 5 1
So number of ways

Hence , the correct answer is 777.

Q. 29 Let be the focal chord of which is tangent to

. Then, the value of is equal to ___________.

Correct Answer:
34

Solution:
Focus of is .

As is focal chord to

It passes through its focus

Now, this line is tangent to circle

So distance between centre of circle & line radius of circle

Hence, the correct answer is 34.

 Q. 30 If the value of is equal to , then a is equal to _________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

This is of form
 Online 20th July (Evening Shift)

Physics
Q. 1 If the Kinetic energy of a moving body becomes four times its initial Kinetic energy, then the
percentage change in its momentum will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Percentage change in momentum

The correct option is 1

Q. 2 A boy reaches the airport and finds that the escalator is not working. He walks up the
stationary escalator in time . If he remains stationary on a moving escalator then the
escalator takes him up in time . The time taken by him to walk up on the moving escalator
will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Velocity of person
Velocity of moving escalator
time taken by walking person on moving escalator

length of escalator

The correct option is (3)

 Q. 3 A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius around earth, while a second satellite
is launched into a circular orbit of radius . The percentage difference in the time
periods of the two satellites is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Orbital speed

The correct option is (4)

Q. 4 With what speed should a galaxy move outward with respect to earth so that the sodium-D
line at wavelength is observed at ?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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The correct option is (1)

Q. 5 The length of a metal wire is , when the tension in it is and is when the tension is .
The natural length of the wire is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let the original length be

The correct option is (2)

Q. 6 In an electromagnetic wave the electric field vector and magnetic field vector are given as
and respectively. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic
wave is along :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

E-M wave propagates in the direction of

Here is pointing in the direction
The correct option is 4

Q. 7 For a series LCR circuit with and connected across

AC supply, the phase angle between current and supplied voltage and the
nature of the circuit is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As much langer than The circuit is predominantly capacitive circuit

As the circuit is behaving as capacitive ckt, the voltage will lead the current by almost

The correct option is (4)

Q. 8 Which of the following graphs represent the behavior of an ideal gas? Symbols have their
usual meaning.

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 9 A particle is making simple harmonic motion along the . If at a distances and
from the mean position the velocities of the particle are and respectively. The time
period of its oscillation is given as :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
We know that
The correct option is (4)

Q. 10 An electron having de-Broglie wavelength is incident on a target in a X-ray tube. Cut-off

wavelength of emitted X-ray is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For cut off length, the total kE of moving electron is dissipated to radiate x-ray
The corccte option is (3)

Q. 11 A body rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The kinetic energy of rotation is
of its translational kinetic energy. The body is :

Option 1:
Solid sphere

Option 2:
Solid cylinder

Option 3:
Hollow cylinder

Option 4:
Ring

Correct Answer:
Solid cylinder

Solution:

Also,

.... (given)
For Disc or solid cylinder

The correct option is (2)

Q. 12 If time , and angular momentum are taken as the fundamental units.

Then the dimension of mass in terms of and is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Comparing both sides

The correct option is (4)

Q. 13 The correct relation between the degrees of freedom and the ratio of specific heat is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
We know that ,
By Mayer's relation,

Cp=Cv+R

or

The correct option is (1)

Q. 14 For a certain radioactive process the graph between In and is obtained as shown
in the figure. Then the value of half life for the unknown radioactive material is
approximately :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
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 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Comparing eqn,(1)&(2)

The correct option is (4)

Q. 15 Consider a binary star system of star A and star B with masses and revolving in a
circular orbit of radii and respectively. If and are the time period of star A and
star B, respectively,
then:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

the radius of circular motion for mass

the radius of circular motion for mass .

In a Binary star system, their respective angular velocity is constant i.e

The correct option is (2)

Q. 16 At an angle of to the magnetic meridian, the apparent dip is . Find the true dip :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4)

Q. 17 A body at rest is moved along a horizontal straight line by a machine delivering a constant
power. The distance moved by the body in time ' t ' is proportional to:

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Distance travelled is directly proportional to

The correct opfion is (1)

Q. 18 Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If the magnitude of is times the
magnitude of , then angle between and is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct answer is option (4)

Q. 19 Two small drops of mercury each of radius R coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio
of total surface energy before and after the change is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let the radius of large drop be

By volume conservation as density remains constant,

The correct option is 1

Q. 20 The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499. Permeability in a vacuum is

. Absolute permeability of the material of the rod is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 21 A zener diode having zener voltage and power dissipation rating of is

connected across a potential divider arranged with maximum potential drop across zener
diode is as shown in the diagram. The value of protective resistance is ........... .

Correct Answer:
192

Solution:

The correct answer is 192

 Q. 22 A body of mass ' ' is launched up on a rough inclined plane making an angle of with
the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the body and plane is if the time of
ascent is half of the time of descent. The value of is_________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

During ascent

Let the time of ascent & descent be respectively

Let distance travelled be s

During descent,

Option (1) is correct.

Q. 23 In the given figure switches and are in open condition. The resistance across ab when
the switches and are closed is ______________

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
When are closed
 Q. 24 Two bodies, a ring and a solid cylinder of same material are rolling down without slipping an
inclined plane. The radii of the bodies are same. The ratio of velocity of the centre of mass at
the bottom of the inclined plane of the ring to that of the cylinder is . Then, the value of
is _____.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Speed of the body performing rolling motion on inclined plane is,

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 Q. 25 For the forward biased diode characteristics shown in the figure, the dynamic resistance at
will be_________ .

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:

Q. 26 A series LCR circuit of and is connected across an AC

supply of , having variable frequency. The power dissipated at resonance condition is
_______ .

Correct Answer:
125

Solution:
 Q. 27 One mole of an ideal gas at is taken from A to B as shown in the given PV indicator
diagram. The work done by the system will be__ . [Given :
] (Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
17258

Solution:

Q. 28 A certain metallic surface is illuminated by monochromatic radiation of wavelength . The

stopping potential for photoelectric current for this radiation is . If the same surface is
illuminated with a radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential is . The threshold
wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is_______ .

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
As we know, Einstein's photoelectric equation is

By applying the above equations we get,

Q. 29 A body rotating with an angular speed of is uniformly accelerated to in

. The number of rotations made in the process is____.

Correct Answer:
200

Solution:
 Q. 30
A radioactive substance decays to of its initial activity in 80 days. The half life of the

radioactive substance expressed in days is ____.

Correct Answer:
20

Solution:

Chemistry
Q. 1 Which one of the following pairs of isomers is an example of metamerism ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Metamers are isomers which have different alkylation around a functional group.

Among the given molecules, the ones given in Option (4) represent Metamers.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 2

In the above reactions,product A and product B respectively are:

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given reactions occur as

Reaction 1: Hoffman Bromamide degradation

Reaction 2: Reduction
Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 3 The major product (P) in the following reaction is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given reaction is an example of intramolecular aldol condensation. The reaction occurs as

It is to be mentioned that aldehydes are better receptors for the attack of nucleophile and cyclisation
occurs preferably to form 5 or 6 membered rings.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 4 The single largest industrial application of dihydrogen is:

Option 1:
Manufacture of metal hydrides

Option 2:
Rocket fuel in space research

Option 3:
In the synthesis of ammonia

Option 4:
In the synthesis of nitric acid

Correct Answer:
In the synthesis of ammonia

Solution:
Fact Based

The single largest industrial application of dihydrogen is in the preparation of Ammonia

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

 Q. 5 Consider two chemical reactions (A) and (B) that take place during metallurgical process :

The correct option of names given to them respectively is :

Option 1:
(A) is calcination and (B) is roasting

Option 2:
Both (A) and (B) are producing same product so both are roasting

Option 3:
Both (A) and (B) are producing same product so both are calcination

Option 4:
(A) is roasting and (B) is calcination

Correct Answer:
(A) is calcination and (B) is roasting

Solution:
As we have learnt ,

Carbonate ores are converted into their oxides by calcination

Sulphide ores are converted into their Oxides by Roasting.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 6 A solution is and in .Solid is gradually added to it

Assuming that the addition does not change in volume and
and .
Select correct statement from the following :

Option 1:
AgCl precipitates first because its is high.

Option 2:
precipitates first as its is low.
 Option 3:
precipitates first because the amount of needed is low.

Option 4:
will precipitate first as the amount of needed to precipitate is low.

Correct Answer:
will precipitate first as the amount of needed to precipitate is low.

Solution:
Given,

Now,

Precipitation of AgCl occurs when

And,

Precipitation of will occur when

Thus, it is evident that requires a greater concentration of to get precipitated.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

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 Q. 7 Outermost electronic configuration of a group 13 element, E is . The electronic
configuration of an element of p-block period-five placed diagonally to element, E is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given element having configuration of is Ga and the element present in period 5
which is diagonally opposite to it will have a configuration of .

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 8 Metallic sodium does not react normally with:

Option 1:
Gaseous ammonia

Option 2:
But-2-yne

Option 3:
Ethyne

Option 4:
tert-butyl alcohol

Correct Answer:
But-2-yne

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Na metal is able to liberate from species containing acidic hydrogen.

The reactions are given below :

Since, But-2-yne does not contain acidic hydrogen, Na metal will not react with it.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 9 Spin only magnetic moment of an octahedral complex of in the presence of a strong

field ligand in BM is :

Option 1:
4.89

Option 2:
2.82

Option 3:
0

Option 4:
3.46

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
Electionic configuration of

In the preserce of a strong field ligand, pairing will take place

Thus there are no unpaired electrons and the spin only magnetic moment is zero.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 10 Which one of the following species doesn't have a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM (spin only
value)?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
In exists as and it has an electronic configuration of

It has no unpaired electrons and as a result it has a zero spin only magnetic moment.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 11 Which one of the following statements is not true about enzymes?

Option 1:
Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and substrate.

Option 2:
Almost all enzymes are proteins.

Option 3:
Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.

Option 4:
The action of enzymes is temperature and specific

Correct Answer:
Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and substrate.

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Enzymes are highly specific catalysts and a perticular enzyme is able to carry out one particular reaction
only.

Almost, all enzymes are proteins and they act as catalysts by lowering the activation energy of reactions.
They operate under an optimum pH of 5-7 and optimum temperature of 298-310 K.

Hence, the answer is option (1)

 Q. 12 The hybridisations of the atomic orbitals of nitrogen in and respectively
are

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The structures are given as

Hence, the correct answer is Option(4)

Q. 13 Bakelite is a cross-linked polymer of formaldehyde and:

Option 1:
PHBV

Option 2:
Buna-S

Option 3:
Novolac
 Option 4:
Dacron

Correct Answer:
Novolac

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Phenol and fomaldehyde undergo polymerisation to form Novolac which is a linear polymer.

Novolac further undergoes choss linking with formaldehyde to obtain Bakelite resin.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

 Q. 14 Benzene on nitration gives nitrobenzene in presence of mixture,
where :

Option 1:
both and act as bases

Option 2:
acts as an acid and acts as a base

Option 3:
both and act as acids

Option 4:
acts as a base and acts as an acid

Correct Answer:
acts as a base and acts as an acid

Solution:
During nitration, a mixture of conc. and is taken as the nitrating mixture which
generates the electrophile .

Here, acts as a base and is protonated to generate the leaving group .

acts as an acid.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 15

Consider the above reaction, compound B is :

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given reaction is an example of diazo conpling

The reactions occurs as

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 16

Major product P of above reaction,is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction is given as

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

 Q. 17 salt reacts with potassium iodide to give

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
reacts with to form precipitate of .

is reduced to while Iodide ions are oxidised to Iodine as shown below

The complexes with to give tri iodide ions which forms a reddish solution.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 18 In Carius method, halogen containing organic compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in
the presence of :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

In Carius method, halogen containing organic compounds are heated with fuming Nitric Acid in the
presence of .

This is done to precipitate the halide ions in the form of . The silver halides have very low Ksp values
and have very low solubility.

Hence, the correct answer is Option(2)

Q. 19 Which one of the following gases is reported to retard photosynthesis ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Fact Based

Higher concentrations of damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 20

The correct order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis at room temperature is :

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Acid derivatives can be arranged in the order of Nucleophilic substitution at acyl carbon on the basis of
the leaving group ability of the leaving group.

Leaving group ability of the groups are given as

Hence, the reactivity order is

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 For a given chemical reaction the free energy change is

and the enthalpy of reaction is . The entropy change of
the reaction is ________ .

Correct Answer:
360

Solution:
Given, for the reaction

Now, we know that

Hence, the correct answer is (360).

Q. 22 The wavelength of electrons accelerated from rest through a potential difference of is

.

The value of is _________(Nearest integer)

Given : Mass of electron

Charge on an electron
Planck's constant

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
As we have learnt,

A charge Q coulombs when accelerated by a potential difference of V volts acquires a kinetic energy
equal to QV Joules.

Hence, the correct answer is (6).

Note : Shortcut formula

For an electron accelerated by a potential difference of V volts, the de Broglie's wavelength can be
approximately calculated as
 Q. 23 The vapour pressures of A and B at are respectively. If
A and B are mixed such that the mole fraction of A in the mixture is , then the mole
fraction of B in the vapour phase is . The value of is________
(Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Given,

Hence, the correct answer is (1)

Q. 24 equimolar mixture of and contains of and of

.

The value of is________g. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Given,

Equimolar mixture of and weighs 4g.

Let, the number of moles of each base be a.

Hence, the correct answer is (1)

Q. 25 When of an organic compound was analyzed using Carius method for estimation of
bromine, of AgBr was obtained. The percentage of bromine in the organic
compound is __________. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : Silver =108, Bromine =80]

Correct Answer:
68

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is (68).

Q. 26 solution of ion was the minimum concentration of

required to precipitate a negative sol in one h.

The moles of ion present in the 100 ml sample is . The value of is

____(Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Coagulating value is the millimoles of an electrolyte that must be added to 1 lit of a colloidal solution for
complete coagulation in 2 hours.
Given, 100 ml of 0.0018 % w/v of was taken.
This means 100 ml solution contains 0.0018 g of Chloride ions.

Hence, the correct answer is (5)

Q. 27

In the above first order reaction, the concentration of reduces from initial
concentration in 120 minutes at . The rate constant for
the reaction at .

The value of is _______ (nearest integer)

[Given ]

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
The given reaction follows first order kinetics

As we know,

for a first order reaction.

Hence, the correct answer is (1).

 Q. 28 Diamond has a three dimensional structure of atoms formed by covalent bonds. The
structure of diamond has face centred cubic lattice where of the tetrahedral voids are
also occupied by carbon atoms. The number of carbon atoms present per unit cell of
diamond is_________.

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
Given,

Diamond has a face centred cubic structure of Carbon atoms with Carbon atoms also occupying the
alternate Tetrahedral voids in the lattice.

Hence, the correct answer is (8)

Q. 29 An aqueous solution of was heated with excess sodium cyanide in presence of strong
oxidizing agent to form . The total change in number of unpaired electrons on
metal centre is________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
Given,

Thus, in weak ligand field gets oxidised to in strong ligand field.

Electronic configuration of

In weak ligand field, it exists as

Electronic configuration of

In strong ligand field, it exists as.

Thus, the number of unpaired electrons changes from 2 to 0 .

Hence, the correct answer is (2)

Q. 30 Potassium chlorate is prepared by electrolysis of in basic solution as shown by

following equation.

A current of has to be passed for to produce of potassium chlorate. the

value of is______. (Nearest integer)
(Molar mass of

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Given,

Hence, the value of x is 1

Maths
Q. 1 For the natural numbers , if

and , then the value of is equal to:

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Given that this equals

So, by comparing coeficients of .

and

Hence option (4) is correct answer

Q. 2
The value of is equal to :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 3 Let be the radii of the largest and smallest circles, respectively, which pass
through the point and having their centres on the circumference of the circle
.
If is equal to :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Centre of given circle is (-1,-2), radius is 3.

Distance between center and point (-4,1) is

In given figure .

Radius is maximum when centre is at .

Radius is minimum when centre is at

Hence option (3) is correct.

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 Q. 4 Consider the following three statements :
(A) If then .
(B) If then earth is flat.
(C) If both (A) and (B) are true then .
Then, which of the following statements is correct?

Option 1:
(A) is false, but (B) and (C) are true

Option 2:
(A) and (C) are true while (B) is false

Option 3:
(A) is true while (B) and (C) are false

Option 4:
(A) and (B) are false while (C) is true

Correct Answer:
(A) and (C) are true while (B) is false

Solution:
If then statement is false only when is true and is false. In all other cases this statement is true

(A) As is false and is false so (A) is True

(B) As is true and 'earth is flat' is false, so (B) is false.
(C) As 'both (A) and (B) are true' is false (as (B) is false) and is false so (C) is True.

So, (A) and (C) are true and (B) is false.

Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 5 The lines are coplanar, if :

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Lines can be re-written as

Line 1:

( is position vector of point lying on it and is the vector parallel to this line ).

Line 2:

Now lines are co-planar if

Expanding along row 1.

Hence option (1) is correct.

 Q. 6 If denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to , then the value of the integral

is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 7
If the real part of the complex number is , then

the value of the integral is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 8
Let be defined by .

Then the value of for which , for all , is :

Option 1:
No such exists

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As this is true for all values of , so this is an identify and all coefficients are 0.

is common in all, so this is the answer.

Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 9 If is given by , then the value of

is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (4) is correct answer

Q. 10 Let A,B and C be three events such that the probability that exactly one of A and B occurs is
, the probability that exactly one of B and C occurs is , the probability that
exactly one of occurs is and the probability of all A, B and C occur
simultaneously is , where . Then the probability that at least one of A, B and C
occur is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

P (All of A , B and C occur) =

Adding first three equations

________(v)

Hence option (2) is correct answer

Q. 11 The sum of all the local minimum values of the twice differentiable function
defined by is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

It is a cubic polynomial with postive coeficient of so only one local minimum value will be there at the
larger of the 2 roots of

To get let us differentiate it again

Minima at

Value at local minima

Hence option (3) is correct answer

Q. 12 Let in a right angled triangle, the smallest angle be . If a triangle formed by taking the
reciprocal of its sides is also a right angled triangle, then is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Here

Theor reciprocals:

These also form right angled triangle, so

From first figure

Hence option (2) is correct.

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 Q. 13
Let satisfies the equation , where

, then the value of is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Linear Differential equation

Hence option (1) is correct answer.

Q. 14
Consider the line L given by the equation . Let Q be the mirror
image of the point with respect to L. Let a plane P be such that it passes through
Q, and the line L is perpendicular to P. Then which of the following points is on the plane P ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let be the image of in given line

So

Also given that plane is perpendicular to line L

A also lies on plane

For Plane
lies on the plane and

Checking the given options, satisfies it.

Hence option (4) is correct answer.

Q. 15 If the mean and variance of six observations ,

respectively, then the value of is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

Hence option (4) is correct answer.

Q. 16
Let , where

.Then which one of the following is correct?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

is an odd function.

Now,

As f(x) is odd function is odd function.

So second integral is 0.

and is even function

Now,

Hence, the correct option is (2).

Q. 17 Let P be a variable point on the parabola . Then, the locus of the mid-point of
the point P and the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point to the line is :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

So it is a parabola opening upwards with vertex at (0,1)

Let foot of perpendicular from

Slope of

R is the mid point

As (p,q) lies on

Hence, the correct option is (2)

Q. 18 The value of , for which the following system of linear equations

has infinitely many solutions, is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For following system to have infinite solutions determinant of coefficient matrix should be 0.

Correct option is (2).

Q. 19 If sum of the first 21 terms of the series , where

is 504 , then is equal to
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As,

So given series can be written as

Given that this equals 504

Hence, the correct option is (4).

Q. 20 In a triangle and , then the projection of the

vector is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Clearly projection of AB on BC is

To get we can apply Casine Rule

Hence, the correct option is (3).

Q. 21 Let matrix, where

then is equal to

Correct Answer:
108

Solution:
Using given formula we can find matrix A as,

We know that

Now,

Hence, the correct option is 108

Q. 22 The number of solutions of the equation

is

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

also lies in domain of all the terms, so it is the answer.

The correct answer is (1).

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 Q. 23 Let a curve be given by the solution of the differential equation

If it intersects , and the intersection point of the curve with

, then is equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
Let,

and

Let,

We know,

Equation is
It passes through

It passes through,

Hence, the correct answer is (2).

Q. 24 For , a vector is obtained by rotating the vector

by an angle about origin in counter clockwise direction. If

, then the value of is equal to______.

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

Clearly,
Now,

Hence, the correct answer is (6)

Q. 25 Consider a triangle having vertices . If a line L passing

through the circum-centre of triangle ABC, bisects line BC, and intersects at point
, then the value of real number is________.

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

Their Product

So circumcentre is mid point of

and mid of BC is

Equation of line L:
It passes through

Hence, the correct answer is (9)

Q. 26
If the point on the curve , nearest to the point , then

is equal to_______.

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

Let Point P be

Equation of normal at this point

For shortest distance this normal will pass through

Point P is
Hence, the correct answer is (9).

Q. 27 Let a function be defined as

then the number of points in the interval is NOT differentiable,

is__________.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Let,

Clearly it is non-differentiable at

Hence, the correct answer is (1).

 Q. 28 For , let

where . Then the value of is equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

Taking LCM on RHS

Putting , we get

Similarly putting

Now,
Hence, the correct answer is (9)

Q. 29 Let be a sequence such that and

. Then the value of is equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:
........(i)

We need to find

Now (i) :

Apply sunmation from

Hence, the correct answer is (7).

Q. 30
If , then the value of
is______.
 Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is (3).

Online 22nd July Evening Shift

Physics
Q. 1 In a circuit consisting of a capacitance and a generator with alternating emf
are the voltage and current. Correct phasor diagram for
such circuit is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
In the pure capacitive circuit, the current leads voltage by

The correct option is (3).

Q. 2 A Copper rod of length and cross-sectional area is joined with a similar

Aluminium rod as shown in figure. Find the resistance of the combination between the
ends .
(Take Resistivity of Copper Resistivity of Aluminium )

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
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 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 3 What will be the projection of vector on vector ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (4)

Q. 4 A porter lifts a heavy suitcase of mass and at the destination lowers it down by a
distance of with a constant velocity. Calculate the workdone by the porter in
lowering the suitcase.
(take )

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

As the suitcase lowering is done with the constant velocity

Work done

The correct option is (2)

Q. 5 is the time period of a simple pendulum at a place. If the length of the pendulum is
reduced to times of its initial value, the modified time period is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4)

Q. 6 A ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium at an angle of incidence .
The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of with each other. The angle of
reflection and refraction are resepectively . The critical angle is given by:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4)

Q. 7 Statement I : The ferromagnetic property depends on temperature. At high temperature,

ferromagnet becomes paramagnet.

Statement II : At high temperature, the domain wall area of a ferromagnetic substance

increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 4:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution:
At higher temperatures, the domain area of ferromagnetic substances decreases and fernomagnetic
substances behaves like paramagnet substance.
The correct option is (1)

Q. 8 A bullet of '4g' mass is fired from a gun of mass 4 kg. If the bullet moves with the muzzle
speed of , the impulse imparted to the gun and velocity of recoil of gun are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

A negative sign here implies that the direction of motion of the gun is opposite to the direction of the
bullet
Impulse imparted to the gun

The correct option is (2)

 Q. 9 Choose the correct option :

Option 1:
True dip is not mathematically related to apparent dip.

Option 2:
True dip is less than apparent dip.

Option 3:
True dip is always greater than the apparent dip.

Option 4:
True dip is always equal to apparent dip.

Correct Answer:
True dip is less than apparent dip.

Solution:
The correct answer is option (2)

Q. 10 Consider a situation in which a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down on the
same inclined plane without slipping. Assume that they start rolling from rest and having
identical diameter.
The correct statement for this situation is:-

Option 1:
The sphere has the greatest and the ring has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of
the inclined plane.

Option 2:
The ring has the greatest and the cylinder has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of
the inclined plane.

Option 3:
All of them will have same velocity.

Option 4:
The cylinder has the greatest and the sphere has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the
bottom of the inclined plane.

Correct Answer:
The sphere has the greatest and the ring has the least velocity of the centre of mass at the bottom of
the inclined plane.

Solution:
let the speed of the body rolling down the inclined plane from rest be

For ring,

For disc or solid cylinder ,

For solid sphere ,

The correct option is (1)

Q. 11 Consider a situation in which reverse biased current of a particular P-N junction increases
when it is exposed to a light of wavelength .
During this process, enhancement in carrier concentration takes place due to generation of
hole-electron pairs. The value of band gap is nearly.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Reversed biased current increases when the charge carriers in the depletion region increase by electron-
hole pair generation when exposed to light
The forbidden energy gap corresponds to the largest wavelength i.e

The correct option is (1)

Q. 12 A nucleus with mass number 184 initially at rest emits an . If the value of
the reaction is , calculate the kinetic energy of the .

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct ooption is (4)

Q. 13 An electron of mass and a proton of mass are accelerated through the same
potential difference. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron to
that with the proton is :-

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 14 Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

When Circuit behave as inductive

circirt behave as Capacitive

Circuit behare as pure resistive ckt (series resonance of LCR)

At resonant frequency, impedance is minimum and hence the current is maximum.
The correct option is (1)

Q. 15 What should be the height of transmitting antenna and the population covered if the
television telecast is to cover a radius of ? The average population density around
the tower is and the value of

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

The correct option is (1)

Q. 16 What will be the average value of energy for a monoatomic gas in thermal equilibrium at
temperature T ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
For monoatomic gas,
Average value of energy
The correct is option (3)

Q. 17 Intensity of sunlight is observed as at a point in free space. What will be the

peak value of magnetic field at that point ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 18 The motion of a mass on a spring, with spring constant K is as shown in figure.

The equation of motion is given by

Suppose that at time the position of mass is and velocity , then its
displacement can also be represented as , where are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4)

Q. 19 An electric dipole is placed on in proximity to a line charge of linear charge

density . Line charge is placed on and positive and negative
charge of dipole is at a distance of from the origin respectively. If
total force of is exerted on the dipole, find out the amount of positive or negative
charge of the dipole.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct answer is an option (4)

Q. 20 A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth with a velocity sufficient
enough to carry it to infinity. The time taken by it to reach height is__________S.
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Speed of projection

At height above the (pt. p) above the Earth surface, the gravitational force acting is
The correct option is (4)

Q. 21 In a given circuit diagram, a zener diode along with a series resistance is connected
across a power supply. The minimum value of the resistance required, if the maximum
zener current is will be_________
 Correct Answer:
500

Solution:

Q. 22 The position of the centre of mass of a uniform semi-circular wire of radius placed in
plane with its centre at the origin and the line joining its ends as is given by
.

Then, the value of is__________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
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 Q. 23 In an electric circuit, a call of certain emf provides a potential difference of across a
load resistance of . However, it provides a potential difference of across a load
resistance of .
The emf of the cell is given by . Then the value of is__________.

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:

When

When
 Q. 24 The total charge enclosed in an incremental volume of located at the origin
is_______ , if electric flux density of its field is found as

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

By Gauss law

Q. 25 Three particles are moving along the vectors

respectively. They strike on a point and
start to move in different directions. Now particle is moving normal to the plane which
contains vector . Similarly particle is moving normal to the plane which
contains vector . The angle between the direction of motion of
. Then the value of is___________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
 Unit vector normal to the plane containing ( along the motion of particle P)

Unit vector perpendicular to the plane containing vector (along the direction of motion of
particle Q.)

Q. 26 The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface moves with a speed . A particle on the rim
of the wheel at the same level as the centre will be moving at a speed . Then the value
of is___________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

For the pure rolling motion,

 Q. 27 A ray of light passing through a prism suffers minimum deviation. It is found
that the angle of incidence is double the angle of refraction within the prism. Then, the angle
of prism is ________ (in degrees)

Correct Answer:
60

Solution:

For minimum deviation,

 Q. 28 The area of cross-section of a railway track is . The temperature variation is .
Coefficient of linear expansion of material of track is . The energy stored per meter
in the track is____ .
(Young's modulus of material of track is )

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:

Q. 29 Three students perform an experiment for determining the acceleration

due to gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. They use different lengths of pendulum and
record time for different number of oscillations. The observations are as shown in the table.

(Least count of length

least count for time )
If are the percentage errors in for students 1,2 and 3 respectively, then
the minimum percentage error is obtained by student no.__________.

Correct Answer:
1
Solution:

is least among all.

Q. 30 In 5 minutes, a body cools from at room temperature of . The

temperature of body at the end of next 5 minutes is____________ .

Correct Answer:
57

Solution:
By Newton's law of cooling
 .

Chemistry
Q. 1 The water having more dissolved is :

Option 1:
Boiling water

Option 2:
Water at

Option 3:
Polluted water

Option 4:
Water at

Correct Answer:
Water at

Solution:
The solubility of gases in water decreases with the increase in temperature.

Thus, more dissolved will be present in water at

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4)

Q. 2 Which one of the following statements for D.I. Mendeleeff, is incorrect?

Option 1:
He authored the textbook - Principles of Chemistry.

Option 2:
At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of elements structure of atom was known.

Option 3:
Element with atomic number 101 is named after him.

Option 4:
He invented accurate barometer.
 Correct Answer:
At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of elements structure of atom was known.

Solution:
Mendeleev was a genius who proposed the periodic table before even the structure of atom was known.

He invented an accurate barometer ard also authored the text book - Principles of Chemistry.

His efforts were recognised and the element 101 was named Mendelivium.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 3 Which purification technique is used for high boiling organic liquid compound (decomposes
near its boiling point)?

Option 1:
Simple distillation

Option 2:
Steam distillation

Option 3:
Fractional distillation

Option 4:
Reduced pressure distillation

Correct Answer:
Reduced pressure distillation

Solution:
As we have learnt,

For organic compounds having higher boiling points which may decompose near boiling point, distillation
under reduced pressure or vacuum distillation is carried out.

Distilling under reduced pressure decreases the boiling point of the liquid.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).

Q. 4 Which of the following compounds will provide a tertiary alcohol on reaction with excess of
followed by hydrolysis?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
1) As we have learnt,
Esters react writh excess of Grignard regent to form tertiary alcohols.
Out of the given options, tertiary butyl alcohol will be obtained by the following substrate.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 5 Which of the following compounds does not exhibit resonance?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The compounds which can show resonance among the ones given are shown below.
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The compound unable to show resonance due to a lack of conjugation is

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 6 Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Elements) List-II (Properties)

(a) Ba (i) Organic solvent soluble compounds

(b) Ca (ii) Outer electronic configuration

(c) (iii) Oxalate insoluble in water

(d) (iv) Formation of very strong monoacidic base

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct matching is given below:

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 7

In the chemical reactions given above A and B respectively are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction sequence occurs as
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 8 Isotope(s) of hydrogen which emits low energy particles with value years is/are

Option 1:
Protium

Option 2:
Tritium

Option 3:
Deuterium

Option 4:
Deuterium and Tritium

Correct Answer:
Tritium

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Out of the isotopes of hydrogen, only Tritium is radioactive.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

 Q. 9 Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Species) List-II (Hybrid Orbitals)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The structures and hybridisation of the compounds are given below:
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 10 When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium iodide solution then the sol produced is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
When is added to KI solution, a sol of will be obtained.

On the surface of the sol particle, excess Iodide ions present in solution will get adsorbed to form the
fixed layer. It is represented as

Hence, the correct answer is Option(1)

Q. 11 Which of the following molecules does not show stereo isomerism ?

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Stereoisomerism is shown by compounds having capability of showing different orientations in space.

Can show cis/ trans isomerism

Can show optical isomerism

Cannot show stereoisomerism

Can show optical isomerism

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 12 Given below are the statements about diborane

(a) Diborane is prepared by the oxidation of

(b) Each boron atom is in hybridized state

(c) Diborane has one bridged 3 centre-2-electron bond

(d) Diborane is a planar molecule

The option with correct statement(s) is -

Option 1:
(c) and (d) only

Option 2:
(a) only

Option 3:
(c) only

Option 4:
(a) and (b) only

Correct Answer:
(a) only

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Diborane can be prepared by the reaction of with

The structure of diborane is given as

It has hybridised Boron atoms. It is non planar and has an tetrahedral arrangement of atoms.
It contains two bridged 3-centre-2-electron bonds.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 13 Which one of the following group- 15 hydride is the strongest reducing agent ?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

The reducing nature of hydrides of Group 15 increases down the group.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14 Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Chloroprene

(b) Neoprene

(c) Acrylonitrile

(d) Isoprene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct match is given below

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 15 The set having ions which are coloured and paramagnetic both is -

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The set of ions which are coloured and paramagnetic is

Species having or configuration are diamagnetic such as

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 16 Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known respectively as :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Vitamin is known as Thiamine while Vitamin is known as Pyridoxine.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4)

Q. 17 Sulphide ion is soft base and its ores are common for metals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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 Option 1:
(a) and (c) only

Option 2:
(a) and (d) only

Option 3:
(a) and (b) only

Option 4:
(c) and (d) only

Correct Answer:
(a) and (c) only

Solution:
Sulphide ores are common for Ag and Pb.

Their ores are named as Silver Glance (AgS) and Zinc Blende (Zns) or Sphalerite (Zns).

Hence, the correct answer is option is (1)

Q. 18 An organic compound gives dark green colouration with ferric chloride. On

treatment with and , followed by acidification gives compound B. Compound
B can also be obtained from compound on reaction with pyridinium chlorochromate
.

Identify

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction sequence is given as

Hence, the correct answer is Option(1)

Q. 19 Which one of the following reactions does not occur ?

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Lewis acids are not prefered with Aniline as the lone pairs of Nitrogen form a complex with Lewis acid
thereby deactivating the ring towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

All other reaction occurs as given in the Options

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 20 Which one of the following aqueous solutions has lowest freezing point?

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt ,

For equimolar solutions, the freezing point decreases as the van't Hoff factor increases.

Since, forms the greatest number of ions in solution, it has the greatest van't Hoff factor
and as a result, has the lowest freezing point.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 21 The total number of unpaired electrons present in

is

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Electronic configuration of is

Electronic configuration of is

Ammonia is a borderline strong ligand and causes pairing in as well as .

It is to be noted that a configuration exists as in a strong ligand field.

Thus, the electronic arrangement is given as.

Thus, there are a total of 1 unpaired electrons present in both the complexes.

Hence, the correct answer is (1)

Q. 22 Methylation of of Benzene gave of toluene. Calculate the percentage yield of

toluene _______. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
78

Solution:
The reaction is

Hence, the answer is (78)

Q. 23 The number of acyclic structural isomers (including geometrical isomers) for pentene
are_____

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
The possible acyclic isomers of pentene are
Thus, there are 6 stereoisomers possible for acyclic forms of pentene.

Hence, the correct answer is 6

Q. 24 Assume a cell with the following reaction

for the above reaction is_________ (Nearest integer)

[Given : ]

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
The reaction in the electrochemical cell is

Nernst equation gives the as

Hence, the answer is 3.

Q. 25 Value of for the equilibrium reaction

The for this reaction at same temperature is__________ (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
For the reaction ,

Relation between and is given as

Hence, the correct answer is 2

Q. 26 If the standard molar enthalpy change for combustion of graphite powder is

, the amount of heat generated on combustion of of graphite
powder is_______kJ. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
21
Solution:
Given,

, graphite

This means,

12 g Graphite produces 248 KJ heat

1 g Graphite produces

Hence, the correct answer is 21

Q. 27 A copper complex crystallising in a CCP lattice with a cell edge of has been
revealed by employing X-ray diffraction studies. The density of a copper complex is found to
be . The molar mass of copper complex is________ .
(Nearest integer)
[Given : ]

Correct Answer:
106

Solution:
Given ,

As we know,

Hence, the answer is 106.

Q. 28 Number of electrons that Vanadium (Z = 23) has in p-orbitals is equal to ______

Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is given as

Thus, there are 12 electrons in the p-orbitals of Vanadium.

Hence, the correct answer is 12.

Q. 29

In the above first order reaction, the initial concentration of is

at 318 The concentration of after 1 hour was
The rate constant of the reaction at is _____
(Nearest integer)

[Given : ]

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:
The given first order reaction is

Now, for a first order reaction

Hence, the correct answer rounded off to the nearest integer is 7

 Q. 30 If the concentration of glucose in blood is , the molarity of glucose
in blood is ____ . (Nearest integer)

[Given : Atomic mass of ]

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
Given,

Concentration of Glucose

Thus, 1 litre glucose solution contains 0.72 g

Hence, the correct answer is 4

Maths
Q. 1 Let L be the line of intersection of planes
is the foot of
perpendicular on from the point then the value of is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Equation of planes are
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Let

P will lie on both planes.

and

Also

Solving (i), (ii) and (iii)

Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 2 Let Sn denote the sum of first n-terms of an arithmetic progression. If

, then is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference

Given,

and

So,

Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 3 Let be defined as
Then is increasing function in the interval

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

So is a continuous function

Now

For

For

(Using Wavy Curve method)

is increasing in

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 4 Let be the solution of the differential equation

. Then, the value of
is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

Now given that

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 5 Four dice are thrown simultaneously and the numbers shown on these dice are recorded in
matrices. The probability that such formed matrices have all different entries and are
non-singular, is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let matrix formed be

For non-singular matrix,

Finding combinations where

Such cases

Such cases

Total cases where a,b,c,d are distinct

So cases with

Hence option(4) is correct.

Q. 6 Let a vector be coplanar with vectors and is

perpendicular to , and . Then a possible value of
is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let vector

Now,
As

Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 7
If where is the greatest integer less than or

equal to , then the value of is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Now

is periodic with period

--------(i)

Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 8 Let three vectors be such that .

Then which one of the following is not true ?

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

are mutually perpendicular is parallel to

(i)

(ii)
Now,

Hence (iv) is false.

Q. 9 The values of such that the system of equations

has no solution, are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Only option (4) has

Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 10 If the shortest distance between the straight lines and

, is , then the integral value of is equal to :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Divide Line 1 by 6:

Divide Line 2 by 4:

Hence option (1) is correct.

Q. 11 Which of the following Boolean expressions is not a tautology ?

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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Similarly we can check for second & third options

Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 12 Let be a real matrix of order , such that , for

. Then, the sum of all the entries of the matrix is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
We can assume one such matrix

Sum of elements

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 13 Let denote the greatest integer less than or equal to . Then, the values of
satisfying the equation lie in the interval :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 14 Let the circle be such that it neither

intersects nor touches the co-ordinate axes. If the point of intersection of the lines,
lies inside the circle , then :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

As there is no real intercept

are not real

Point of intersection of
This lies inside the circle S.
Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 15 Let denote the number of solutions of the equation , where is a complex

number. Then the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let

From second equation,

If

are 2 solutions
If , then (i) gives
 are 2 solutions

Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 16 The number of solutions of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
We know that

and

Equality is possible only when,

So, 5 solutions

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

 Q. 17
If the domain of the function is the interval , then

is equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For domain

For,
Domain for

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 18 Let be defined as

If is continuous at , then is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For to be continuous at
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 19 Let a line be a tangent to the hyperbola If L is also a

tangent to the parabola , then is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Equation of tangent to is
It is tangent to

Equation of tangent to this parabola with is

Comparing ,

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 20
Let be another ellipse such that it touches the end
points of major axis of and the foci of are the end points of minor axis of
have same eccentricities, then its value is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As per the question ,

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 Let . Then the number of bijective functions such

that is equal to
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 Correct Answer:
720

Solution:

Only possible when are mapped to

So number of bijective functions are :

Hence, the answer is (720).

Q. 22 If the digits are not allowed to repeat in any number formed by using the digits ,
then the number of all numbers greater than 10,000 is equal to________.

Correct Answer:
96

Solution:
For number only 0 cannot be at first place.

Number of such numbers formed

Hence, the answer is (96).

Q. 23
Let . Then the number of matrices B with entries from the set

and satisfying is________.

Correct Answer:
3125

Solution:

Let matrix B be

Given
 i can take any value from

So matrix B is

So, we have to select only a,b,c,g,i from

Number of ways

Hence, the answer is (3125)

Q. 24 Consider the following frequency distribution :

If mean and median , then the value is equal to_______.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
Class
0-6 a 3 3a
6-12 b 9 9b
12-18 12 15 180
18-24 9 21 189
24-30 5 27 135

Solving we get

Hence, the answer is (4).

 Q. 25 The sum of all the elements in the set : H.C.F. of and 2040 is 1 } is
equal to__________.

Correct Answer:
1251

Solution:
As

So n should not be a multiple of 2,3,5 or 17.

Sum of such numbers

Hence, the answer is (1251).

Q. 26 The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curves
, in the upper half plane
is________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

Required area ,
Hence, the correct answer is (2).

Q. 27 Let be a function defined as

Let
If denote the number of points in where is not continuous and not
differentiable, respectively, then is equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

Clearly
Hence,the answer is (4).

Q. 28
If the constant term, in binomial expansion of , then is equal to

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
General term

For constant term and

r will be a whole number only for

But only satisfies

Hence, the answer is (8).

Q. 29 Let be the solution of the differential equation

. If the domain of is
an open interval , then is equal to_______.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
 Equation is

Domain,

Hence , the correct answer is (4).

Q. 30 The number of elements in the set

is_________.

Correct Answer:
96

Solution:
By hit and trial, does not satisfy it and satisfy it.

Also increases at faster rate than

So satisfy it.

Hence, the correct answer is (96).

 Online 25th July Morning Shift

Physics
Q. 1 For a gas in a state
are the temperatures in two different states respectively. Then

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Mayer's relation :
It is followed by the Ideal gas. If then the gas is not ideal i.e it is a real gas
At low temp. & high pressure gas behaves as ideal gas

The correct option is (4)

Q. 2 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as
Reason . Assertion A : Moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass and radius
about X, (passing through its plane) and Z-axis which is perpendicular to its plane
were found to be respectively. The respective radii of gyration about all the
three axes will be the same.
Reason : A rigid body making rotational motion has fixed mass and shape. In the light of
the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
Both are correct but is NOT the correct explanation of
 Option 2:
is not correct but is correct.

Option 3:
is correct but is not correct.

Option 4:
Both are correct and is the correct explanation of .

Correct Answer:
is not correct but is correct.

Solution:

The assertion statement is false.

A rigid body has a fixed shape and Size it does not undergo deformation
The reason statement is true
The correct option is (2)

Q. 3 What should be the order of arrangement of de-Broglie wavelength of electron an

and proton given that all have the same kinetic energy ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct answer is option (3)

Q. 4

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is 2

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 Q. 5 A particle of mass at rest disintegrates into two particles of mass
respectively having non zero velocities. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of particle of
mass to that of mass will be:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

OR

Negative sign implies that disintegrated particles are moving in the opposite direction.
De-Broglie wavelength,

The correct answer is an option (4)

Q. 6 Some nuclei of a radioactive material are undergoing radioactive decay. The time gap
between the instances when a quarter of the nuclei have decayed and when half of the
nuclei have decayed is given as :
(where is the decay constant)
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
When quarter of the nuclei is decayed

When half of the nuclei has decayed

The correct option is (4)

 Q. 7 Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

(matching with (iv))

(matching with (iii))

(matching with (i))

(matching with (ii))

The correct option is (2)

Q. 8 A parallel plate capacitor with plate area 'A' and distance of separation 'd' is filled with a
dielectric. What is the capacity of the capacitor when permittivity of the dielectric varies as :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Capacitance of element

For series
The correct option is (2)

Q. 9 A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a

frictionless piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature by
releasing the piston suddenly. If are the lengths of the gas column, before and
after the expansion respectively, then the value of will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let the area of the cross-section of the cylinder be A

For monoatomic gas,

For adiabatic process,
The correct option is (2)

Q. 10 A ray of laser of a wavelength is incident at an angle of at the diamond-air

interface. It is going from diamond to air. The refractive index of diamond is and that of
air is 1 . Choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Angle of refraction is

Option 2:
Angle of refraction is

Option 3:
Refraction is not possible

Option 4:
Angle of refraction is

Correct Answer:
Refraction is not possible

Solution:

Refraction is not possible

The correct option is (3)
 Q. 11 Two wires of same length and radius are joined end to end and loaded. The Young's modulii
of the materials of the two wires are The combination behaves as a single wire
then its Young's modulus is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Total length
We can take the analogy of wire as spring

For series combination,

The correct option is (2)

 Q. 12 The half-life of is 3 days. If atomic weight of then the activity
of is [in disintegration/second] :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (4)

 Q. 13 Two billiard balls of equal mass strike a rigid wall with same speed of (as
shown) but at different angles. If the balls get reflected with the same speed then the ratio
of the magnitude of impulses imparted to ball and ball by the wall along direction
is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For ball a,

For ball b,
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Impulse imported to ball b

The correct option is (2)

Q. 14 In the Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits varies in time as
where are constants. The difference between the
largest fringe width and the smallest fringe width obtained over time is given as :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 15 Two different metal bodies of equal mass are heated at a uniform rate under
similar conditions. The variation of temperature of the bodies is graphically represented as
shown in the figure. The ratio of specific heat capacities is :

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 16 A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave in vacuum is

is incident normally on a perfectly reflecting wall at . Choose the correct option

Option 1:
The wavelength is

Option 2:
The frequency of electromagnetic wave is

Option 3:
The transmitted wave will be
 Option 4:
The reflected wave will be

Correct Answer:
The reflected wave will be

Solution:

It is wave propagation along + z-axis after getting reflected from plane (z = a) i.e x-y plane it will travel
along -z-axis

The correct option is (4)

Q. 17 In the given figure, there is a circuit of potentiometer of length . The resistance

per unit length is per . Across a battery of emf and internal resistance is
connected. The maximum value of emf measured by this potentiometer is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Current in the primary circuit is

The maximum value of emf measured by this potentiometer

The current option is (1)

Q. 18 In amplitude modulation, the message signal volts and

Carrier signal volts
The modulated signal now contains the message signal with lower side band and upper side
band frequency, therefore the bandwidth of modulated signal is The value of is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
0

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (1)

Q. 19 Water droplets are coming from an open tap at a particular rate. The spacing between a
droplet observed at second after its fall to the next droplet is At what rate the
droplets are coming from the tap ? (Take )

Option 1:
3 drops / 2 seconds

Option 2:
2 drops / second

Option 3:
1 drop / second

Option 4:
1 drop / 7 seconds

Correct Answer:
1 drop / second

Solution:
Droplets are falling from open tap at after regular time interval, so this distance
Covered will be in Galiko's ratio
Drop 1 is faling in air for 46

But

t = ls
t time between two successive drops

Q. 20 The minimum and maximum distances of a planet revolving around the Sun are .
If the minimum speed of the planet on its trajectory is then its maximum speed will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

In a given orbit , L = mvr = constant

(the speed at aphelion)

(at perihelion )
The correct option is (4)

Q. 21 A body of mass moving with a speed of . makes an elastic collision with another
body at rest and continues to move in the original direction but with one fourth of its initial
speed. The speed of the two body centre of mass is . Then the value of is________.

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:

Collision is elastic ,
 Q. 22 Student A and Student B used two screw gauges of equal pitch and 100 equal circular
divisions to measure the radius of a given wire. The actual value of the radius of the wire is
. The absolute value of the difference between the final circular scale readings
observed by the students is__________.
[Figure shows position of reference when jaws of screw gauge are closed]
Given pitch

Correct Answer:
13

Solution:
pitch=
No.of circular divisions = 100

Actual value of the radius of the wire

Let the main scale reading be X

(i.e 5 divisions ahead of zero mark)

(i.e 8 CSD behind zero mark )

Reading corresponds to 13 circular scale division

The answer is 13

Q. 23 An inductor of is connected to a battery through a resistor of and a

switch. After a long time, when maximum current is set up in the circuit, the current is
switched off. The current in the circuit after is Then is equal to _______.

Correct Answer:
74

Solution:

After a long time

( Inductor will behave as short ckt or straight conducting wire)
As the switch is opened, there will be a decay of current

at

Q. 24 A circular conducting coil of radius is being heated by the change of magnetic field
passing perpendicular to the plane in which the coil is laid. The resistance of the coil is .
The magnetic field is slowly switched off such that its magnitude changes in time as

The energy dissipated by the coil before the magnetic field is switched off completely is
________
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 Correct Answer:
80

Solution:
Resistance of coil

Magnetic field is switched of at t =100 (B = 0)

Q. 25 In the reported figure, two bodies A and B masses are attached with the
system of springs. Springs are kept in a stretche position with some extension when the
system released. The horizontal surface is assumed to b frictionless. The angular frequency
will _________ when
 Correct Answer:
10

Solution:

(Two block system is replaced by one block with equivalent mass |)

for spring in series combination

Q. 26 The value of aluminium susceptibility is . The percentage increase in the

magnetic field if space within a current carrying toroid is filled with aluminium is . Then
the value of is___________.

Correct Answer:
22

Solution:
 Q. 27 A particle of mass and charge is lying at the mid-point of two stationary particles
kept at a distance when each is carrying same charge . If the free charged particle is
displaced from its equilibrium position through distance . The particle
executes SHM. Its angular frequency of oscillation will be_________

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

O- Equilibrium position

P- Displaced position

The net force acting on the charge q at the displaced position due to the other two charges is,
 Q. 28 An electric bulb rated as at is used in a circuit having supply. The
resistance ' R ' that must be put in series with the bulb so that the bulb delivers the same
power is ________

Correct Answer:
50

Solution:

200 W,100 V

For power across the bulb to be 200 W, the voltage drop must be 100 V
So, the remaining 100 v is across R
Since the current is the same through resistance R and Bulb

Q. 29 A pendulum bob has a speed of at its lowest position. The pendulum is long.
The speed of bob, when the length makes an angle of to the vertical will be
_________ .

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
From pt 1 to pt 2

Q. 30 A particle of mass ' ' is moving in time ' ' on a trajectory given by

Where are dimensional constants.

The angular momentum of the particle becomes the same as it was for at time
____Seconds.

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:

at t = 0,
Chemistry
Q. 1

is a repeating unit for :

Option 1:
Novolac

Option 2:
Buna-N

Option 3:
Acrilan

Option 4:
Neoprene

Correct Answer:
Novolac

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Novolac is a linear polymer of phenol and formaldehyde and has the following structure.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 2 Which one of the following species responds to an external magnetic field?

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Paramagnetic species respond to external magnetic field.

The electronic configuration of the metal ions in the presence of their respective ligands is given as

in weak octahedral field

in strong square planar field

in strong octahedral field

in string tetrahedral field

Hence, but of the given complexes, only is paramagnetic.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 3

Consider the above reaction, the major product 'P' is :

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Grignand reagent shows direct addition to the carbonyl group in -unsaturated carbonyl compounds.

Softer organometallic bases like Gilman's reagent or dialkyl cadmium shows conjugate addition to -
unsaturated carbonyl compounds.

Thus the reaction occurs as

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 4 Sodium stearate is an anionic surfactant which forms micelles

in oil. Choose the correct statement for it from the following :

Option 1:
It forms spherical micelles with group pointing towards the centre of sphere.

Option 2:
It forms non-spherical micelles with group pointing outwards on the surface.

Option 3:
It forms spherical micelles with group pointing outwards on the surface of sphere

Option 4:
It forms non-spherical micelles with group pointing towards the centre.

Correct Answer:
It forms spherical micelles with group pointing towards the centre of sphere.

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Sodium stearate is a sodium salt of falty acid which forms a micelle as shown below .
The micelle contains the hydhrophobic fails pointing toward the centre of the sphere while the
hydrophilic head points outwards towards the surface.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 5 The water soluble protein is :

Option 1:
Fibrin

Option 2:
Albumin

Option 3:
Myosin

Option 4:
Collagen

Correct Answer:
Albumin

Solution:
As we have learnt ,

On the basis of their molecular shape, Proteins can be classified into two types viz. Fibrous and Globular
proteins.

Fibrous proteins contains polypeptide chains running parallel to each other forming fibre like structure.
These proteins are insoluble in water eg. Keratin , Myosin , Fibrin , Collagen.

Globular proteins on the other hand have a spherical shape due to coiling of polypeptide chains. These
are water soluble eg.Insulin and Albumin.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 6 At , the relationship between enthalpy of bond dissociation for

hydrogen and its isotope, deuterium , is best described by:

Option 1:

Option 2:
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 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Heavier isotopes form stronger bonds.

Hence, the bond energy for deuterium will be greater than that of hydrogen .

Numerically, these values are given as

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 7

Consider the given reaction, the product 'X' is :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction sequence occurs as
Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 8

The given reaction can occur in the presence of :

(a) Bromine water (b)
(c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Phenol on reaction with Bromine water forms 2,4,6-Tribromophenol.

This is attributed to the polarity of water which facilitates the formation of Phenoxide ion which is highly
activated toward Electrophilic Substitution.

Monobromination can be carried out using non-polar solvents like or and solvents with
low dielectric constant

It Is to be noted that Lewis acids are not prefered in the reaction because Phenol itself forms a complex
with lewis acids and gets deactivated towards electrophilic substitution.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 9 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary
amines.

Reason (R) : Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Option 2:
(A) is false but (R) is true.

Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
 Option 4:
(A) is true but (R) is false.

Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
As we have learnt,

In Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, there is an attack from the N atom of phthalimide on the halide
which after hydrolysis yields a Primary amine.

Aniline cannot be prepared using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis because the aryl halide cannot undergo
nucleophilic substitution due to the partial double bond character between the halogen and the Benzene
ring

Thus, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A)

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 10 For the following graphs,

(e)

Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is :
 Option 1:
(b) zero order (c) and (e) First order

Option 2:
(a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order

Option 3:
(b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order

Option 4:
(a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

Correct Answer:
(a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order

Solution:
The given graph can be related to their order as

(a) - Zero order

(b) - Zero order
(c) - incorrect representation of a first order reaction as the initial concentration is infinite
(d) - no reaction occurs
(e) - First order

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 11 Which one of the products of the following reactions does not react with Hinsberg reagent
to form sulphonamide?

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Nitriles are converted to aldehyde on reaction with which do not react with Hinsberg
reagent to form sulphonamide.

All other reactions yield primary amines from Nitriles which respond to the Hinsberg test.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 12 The ionic radii of are in the order :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we know ,

are isoelectronic species and their radii can be arranged as .

Also, is a larger ion than

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 13 Which one of the following compounds of Group-14 elements is not known?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Out of the given complexes, does not exist due to steric reason.

Si and Cl belong to the same period and it is not possible to arrange 6 chloride ligands around the silicon
centre.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 14 Which one among the following resonating structures is not correct?

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given structures in the options are resonating structures of the following species:

All given resonating structures are correct except

This is highly unstable because of the like charges being together due to incorrect polarisation of the
double bond.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 15 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : None of the alkaline earth metal hydroxides dissolve in alkali.

Statement II : Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides in water increases down the
group.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Option 3:
Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

Option 4:
Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

Correct Answer:
Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

Solution:
As we learnt,

Hydroxides of Alkaline earth metals are basic in nature and do not dissolve in Alkali.

Be is not classified as an Alkaline earth metal because its oxide and hydroxide are amphoteric in nature.
Hence , statement is correct.

Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxide increases down the group because lattice energy dominates
the hydration energy for their hydroxides. Hence, statement is correct .

Thus, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 16 The correct order of following metal oxides, according to their oxidation numbers is :

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The oxidation state of the metal ions are

Thus, the correct order of oxidation states of the central atom in the given compounds is

Hence,the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 17 Which one of the following chemical agent is not being used for dry–cleaning of clothes?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reagents used for dry cleaning are
 was used as a cleaning fluid and degreasing agent until 1960. It is not used any more due to its
carcinogenic property.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Which one of the following compounds will liberate , when treated with ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The most acidic compound among the given species is trimethylammonium chloride which is capable
liberating with

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 19 In the leaching of alumina from bauxite, the ore expected to leach out in the process by
reacting with is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
Alumina majorly contains as an impurity which is acidic in nature.

Silica can thus be leached out using owing to the formation of sodium silicate as given below:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 20 An organic compound on treatment with yields compound

Compound 'A' also yields compound 'B' on Ozonolysis. Compound 'A' is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The compound (A) is 2-Methylpropene as evident from the reactions given below

Since, the same compound is obtained due to vigorous oxidation and on ozonolysis, it has to be a ketone.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

 Q. 21
The number of sigma bonds in is _______________.

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
The compound given can be represented as

There are a total of 10 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds present in the molecule

Hence, the correct answer is 10

Q. 22 Three moles of get precipitated when one mole of an octahedral co-ordination

compound with empirical formula reacts with excess of silver nitrate.
The number of chloride ions satisfying the secondary valency of the metal ion is__________

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
Given,

The complex produces 3 moles of when 1 mole of the complex is treated

with excess .

This means that all 3 chloride ions are present outside the co-ordination sphere and satisfy only the
primary valency. The given complex is therefore,

Thus, no chloride ion satisfies the secondary valency (co-ordination number)

Hence, the correct answer is 0

 Q. 23 A source of monochromatic radiation of wavelength provides of energy in
10 seconds. When this radiation falls on the surface of sodium, electrons are
ejected per second. Assume that wavelength is sufficient for ejection of electron
from the surface of sodium metal. The value of x is ________(Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
Given,

Hence, the correct answer is 2

Q. 24 gas is bubbled through water during a soft drink manufacturing process at

exerts a partial pressure of bar then would
dissolve in of water. The value of is__________. (Nearest integer)

(Henry's law constant for at 298 K is bar )

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:
As we have learnt,
Thus, mole fraction of dissolved

Hence, the answer is 25

Q. 25 For the reaction , the value of equilibrium constant is 100 at .

If the initial concentration of all the three species is each, then the equilibrium
concentration of . The value of is ___________. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
The reaction is given as

Now, from expression of , we have

Hence, the correct answer is 25

 Q. 26 Consider the cell at

The fraction of total iron present as ion at the cell potential of

The value of is __________ (Nearest integer)

(Given : )

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
In the given Galvanic cell,

The cell reaction can be written as

Now,

From Nernst equation, we have

Hence, the correct answer is 24

 Q. 27 At , the enthalpy of fusion of a solid (X) is and the enthalpy of
vaporisation of the liquid is . The enthalpy of sublimation of the
substance is__________. (in nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
101

Solution:
Given,

Now, enthalpy of sublimation is defined as the enthalpy change when 1 mole of a solid is converted to its
gaseous state

Hence, the answer is 101

Q. 28 A home owner uses of methane gas, (assume is an ideal gas)

in a year to heat his home. Under the pressure of mass of gas used
is .

The value of is_________ (Nearest integer)

(Given )

Correct Answer:
26

Solution:
Given,

Now, applyimg the ideal gas equation .

Hence, the answer is 26.

Q. 29 When of an aqueous solution of ions was titrated in the presence of dil.

using diphenylamine indicator, solution of was
required to get the end point. The molarity of the solution containing
.

The value of is _____(Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
18

Solution:
The reaction occurs as

From law of equivalence,

Hence, the answer is 18.

Q. 30 Consider the complete combustion of butane, the amount of butane utilized to produce
of water is________ . (in nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
464

Solution:
The combustion of Butane is given as

Now, moles of present in 72 g = 4

Hence, the answer is 464

Maths
Q. 1 A spherical gas balloon of radius 16 meter subtends an angle at the eye of the observer
A while the angle of elevation of its center from the eye of . Then the height (in
meter) of the top most point of the balloon from the level of the observer's eye is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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 Q. 2 Let . Then, is :

Option 1:
Increasing in

Option 2:
Decreasing in

Option 3:
Increasing in

Option 4:
Decreasing in

Correct Answer:
Decreasing in

Solution:
 Q. 3 Let be the sum of the first terms of an arithmetic progression. If , then
the value of is :

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
Let first term be a and common difference d

Ans (1)

Q. 4 The locus of the centroid of the triangle formed by any point on the hyperbola
and its foci is

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Given equation of hyperbola can be modified into

Let point on hyperbola

As (p,q) satisfies equation of hyperbola,

Q. 5 Let the vectors

be co-planar. Then which of the following

is true?

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For coplanar vectors, box product = 0

Q. 6 Let be defined as

where is the greatest integer less than or equal to is continuous at

is equal
to :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:
1

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Contineous at x =2

So,

Q. 7
The value of the definite integral is

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Adding (i) & (ii)

Q. 8 If is very small as compared to the value of a, so that the cube and other higher powers of
can be neglected in the identity

then the value of

is

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

so, = coefficent of in this expression

Q. 9 Let be the solution of the differential equation

then, the minimum value of
is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Differentiate

Minimum value from (i)

 Q. 10 The Boolean expression
is equivalent to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 11 The area (in sq. units) of the region, given by the set
is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 12 The sum of all values of , for which is

equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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or

or

So, sum of solutions

Q. 13 Let be defined as

Then which of the following statements is true ?

Option 1:
There exists an onto function such that fog

Option 2:
There exists a one-one function such that

Option 3:

Option 4:
There exists a function

Correct Answer:
There exists an onto function such that fog

Solution:

is a function for which and

So option (A) is true

Q. 14 Let be defined as

where is the greatest integer less than or equal to . Which of the following is true?
 Option 1:
is continuous at every point in and differentiable except at the integer points.

Option 2:
is both continuous and differentiable except at the integer points in

Option 3:
is continuous everywhere except at the integer points in

Option 4:
is differentiable at every point in

Correct Answer:
is continuous at every point in and differentiable except at the integer points.

Solution:

Differentiating w.r.t x using Newton Leibnig Rule

Clearly exists at each value of domain, so it is continuous

But for

at integral value of x

at integral values of x

So, is continuous for and is differentiable except at Z

Q. 15 The values of for which the system of equations

has no solution, are

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For no solution

Q. 16 Let 9 distinct balls be distributed among 4 boxes, . If the probability

that contains exactly 3 balls is lies in the set

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 17 Let a parabola P be such that its vertex and focus lie on the positive at a distance
2 and 4 units from the origin, respectively. If tangents are drawn from to the
parabola which meet then the area (in sq. units) of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

So y axis is directrix and thus Rs should pass through focus

Q. 18 The number of real roots of the equation is

Option 1:
2
 Option 2:
4

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

&
&

has one positive root t = 1 & has one positive root (say t1)
&
So 2 solutions

Q. 19
Let an ellipse passes through and has eccentricity

. If a circle, centered at focus and radius , intersects at two

points then is equal to

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 20 Let the foot of perpendicular from a point to the straight line

. Let a line be drawn from P parallel to the plane
which meets at point . If is the acute angle between the lines
then is equal to__________.

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 21 Let be solution of the following differential equation

If , then is equal to__________.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

Integrating by parts

Q. 22 If the value of

is , then is equal to__________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
Subtracting

Q. 23 Consider the following frequency distribution :

If the sum of all frequencies is 584 and median is 45 , then is equal to___________.

Correct Answer:
164

Solution:
Sum of frequencies =

Also median = 45 median class is (40 - 50)

Q. 24 Let be two vectors.

If a vector is perpendicular to each of the vectors
, and is equal to_____
 Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Q. 25 The ratio of the coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of and the sum of
the coefficients of two middle terms in expansion of is_________.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Middle term in has coefficent

Coefficient of middle terms in is &

Q. 26
Let

Define is set of all

integers. Then the number of is equal to_______.

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:

Possible when (i) ad = 9, bc = -6

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Also when ad = 6, bc = -3
Here also we will have 8 cases

Total cases = 8+ 8 = 16

Q. 27 There are 5 students in class 10, 6 students in class 11 and 8 students in class 12 . If the
number of ways, in which 10 students can be selected from them so as to include at least 2
students from each class and at most 5 students from the total 11 students of class 10 and
11 is then is equal to_________

Correct Answer:
238

Solution:
Possible combination of students of class 10,11 and 12th are (2,3,5),(3,2,5),(2,2,6)

So, number of ways

Q. 28 If are roots of the equation for

each positive integer then the value of is equal to__________

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
 Q. 29
The term independent of in the expansion of ,

where is equal to__________.

Correct Answer:
210

Solution:

Q. 30 Let

where . Then the number of 2 -digit numbers in the set is__________.

Correct Answer:
11

Solution:
Values of n = 8,16,24,------,96
Number of values of n(2-digit) = 11
 Online 25th July Evening Shift

Physics
Q. 1 The relation between time and distance for a moving body is given as ,
where are constants. The retardation of the motion is : (When stands for
velocity)

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

differentiating throughout w.r.t x

differentiating throughout w.r.t x

The correct option is (1)

 Q. 2 In a simple harmonic oscillation, what fraction of total mechanical energy is in the form of
kinetic energy, when the particle is midway between mean and extreme position.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
In simple harmonic oscillation,

The correct option is (2)

Q. 3 A force acts on a body of mass . If the body starts from rest, its
position vector , will be :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 4 A prism of refractive index and angle of prism A is placed in the position of minimum
angle of deviation. If minimum angle of deviation is also , then in terms of refractive index

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

At a minimum angle of deviation,

During the first refraction

The correct option is 1

Q. 5
A heat engine has an efficiency of . When the temperature of sink is reduced by , its
efficiency get doubled. The temperature of the source is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 6 In the given potentiometer circuit arrangement, the balancing length is measured to be

. When the galvanometer connection is shifted from point (1) to point (2) in the
given diagram, the balancing length becomes . The ratio of the emf of two cells,
is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
When the galvanometer is connected to the point (1)

When the galvanometer is connected to point (2)

&

The correct option is (1)

Q. 7 Two ions having same mass have charges in the ratio . They are projected normally in a
uniform magnetic field with their speeds in the ratio . The ratio of the radii of their
circular trajectories is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 8 A resistance is connected across AC supply. The time taken by the

current to change from its maximum value to the rms value is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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 the time taken by the current to change from its maximum value to the rms value

The correct option is (1)

Q. 9 A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform velocity of . An object of finite mass is
dropped from the balloon when it was at a height of from the ground level. The
height of the balloon from the ground when object strikes the ground was around:
(takes the value of )

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

mass dropped will have same velocity as that of balloon

t = 5s
After 5s the mass will hit the ground
Height of the balloon at that instant will be

The correct option is (3)

Q. 10 If is the free charge on the capacitor plates and is the bound charge on the dielectric
slab of dielectric constant placed between the capacitor plates, then the bound charge
can be expressed as :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Net electric field inside dielectric slab

The correct option is (2)

Q. 11 Consider a planet in some solar system which has a mass double the mass of earth and
density equal to the average density of earth. If the weight of an object on earth is W, the
weight of the same object on that planet will be :
 Option 1:
2W

Option 2:
W

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

 Q. 12 Two ideal electric dipoles , having their dipole moment respectively
are placed on a plane with their centres at as shown in the figure. At point on the axis
of dipole the resultant electric field is making an angle of with the axis. The ratio of
the dipole moment of and is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

pt.c is at the axial position for dipole and equational position for
The correct option is (3)

Q. 13 Two spherical soap bubbles of radii in vacuum combine under isothermal

conditions. The resulting bubble has a radius equal to :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
under isothermal conditions,

The correct option is (3)

Q. 14 The force is given in terms of time and displacement by the equation

The dimensional formula of is :

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 15 The given potentiometer has its wire of resistance . When the sliding contact is in the
middle of the potentiometer wire, the potential drop across resistor is :

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 16 An electron moving with speed and a photon moving with speed c, have same D-Broglie
wavelength. The ratio of kinetic energy of electron to that of photon is :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 17 The instantaneous velocity of a particle moving in a straight line is given as ,

where are constants. The distance travelled by the particle between
is :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 18
A ray of light entering from air into a denser medium of refractive index , as shown in
figure. The light ray suffers total internal reflection at the adjacent surface as shown. The
maximum value of angle should be equal to :
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 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For the maximum value of , is maximum and consequently is the minimum for TIR,

from Eqn (1)

The correct option is (1)

Q. 19 When radiation of wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential of

ejected photoelectrons is . If the same surface is illuminated by radiation of double
the previous wavelength, then the stopping potential becomes The threshold
wavelength of the metal is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

from eq (1) & (3)

 Q. 20 Two vectors have equal magnitude. The magnitude of is times the
magnitude of . The angle between is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (2)

Q. 21 A system consists of two types of gas molecules and having same number density
. The diameter of respectively. They suffer
collision at room temperature. The ratio of average distance covered by the molecule to
that of between two successive collision is _________

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:

The average distance covered by molecule A to that of B between two successive collisions.

Q. 22 A light beam of wavelength is incident on a metal having work function of

placed in a magnetic field of intensity B. The electrons emitted perpendicular to the
magnetic field , with maximum kinetic energy are bent into circular arc of radius .
The value of is _________

Given , mass of electron

Correct Answer:
125

Solution:
 Q. 23 A message signal of frequency and peak voltage of 20 volt is used to modulate a
carrier wave of frequency and peak voltage of 20 volt. The modulation index will be :

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

Q. 24 A wire is bend to form a square loop. A supply having internal resistance of is

connected across one of its sides. The potential drop across the diagonals of the square
loop is ________

Correct Answer:
45

Solution:
Each side will be of resistance

image

Q. 25 Two circuits are shown in the figure (a) \& (b). At a frequency of ______ the average
power dissipated in one cycle will be same in both the circuits.
 Correct Answer:
500

Solution:

For 1st circuit (figure a)

For 2nd circuit (figure b)

where

From eqn (1),(2) & (3)

Q. 26 From the given data, the amount of energy required to break the nucleus of aluminium
is __________
Mass of neutron
Mass of proton
Mass of Aluminium nucleus
(Assume corresponds to of energy)
(Round off to the nearest integer)
 Correct Answer:
27

Solution:

14 mass corresponds to J energy

mass say corresponds to the energy E

Q. 27 A force of acts on a particle. The workdone by this force when the

particle is moved from is ______

Correct Answer:
450

Solution:

Q. 28 A solid disc of radius and mass is rotating with an angular velocity of

, about an axis normal to its circular plane and passing through its centre of mass.
The retarding torque required to bring the disc at rest in is ______

Correct Answer:
4
Solution:

Q. 29 In a semiconductor, the number density of intrinsic charge carriers at is

. If the semiconductor is doped with impurity atom, the hole density
increases to . The electron density in the doped semiconductor is ________

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:

We know that,
Intrinsic change carrier density= ni =
 Q. 30
The nuclear activity of a radioactive element becomes of its initial value in 30 years.

The half-life of radioactive element is _______ years.

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:

t = 30 year

Chemistry
Q. 1 In the following, the correct bond order sequence is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt,

Bond order of

Bond order of
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Bond order of

Bond order of

Thus, the correct order of Bond order is

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 2 A biodegradable polyamide can be made from:

Option 1:
Glycine and isoprene

Option 2:
Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

Option 3:
Glycine and aminocaproic acid

Option 4:
Styrene and caproic acid

Correct Answer:
Glycine and aminocaproic acid

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Nylon 2 -Nylon 6 is a biodegradable polymer. It Is a polyamide made from the condensation of Glycine
and Aminocapraoic Acid.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 3 Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct match of the s-Block element aloy with their properties is given below .

(a) Li - (iv) Carbonate salt decomposes on heating

(b) Na - (iii) bicarbonate salt is used as fire extinguisher

(c) K- (ii) Most abundant element in cell fluid

(d) Cs - (i) Poor solubility of Iodide salt.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 4 Which one of the following metal complexes is most stable?

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Stability of composes increase with the oxidation state of the central metal ion and also with the strenth
of the ligand.

Chelation also imparts additional stability to complexes. Thus, the most stable complex among the given
ones is

Hence , the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 5 Match List I with List II : (Both having metallurgical terms)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct matching of the metallurgical terms given in list I and list II is given below :

(a) Concentration of Ag ore - (iii) Leaching with dilute NaCN solution

(b) Blast furnace - (ii) Pig iron

(c) Blister copper - (i) Reverberatory furnace

(d) Froth floatation method -(iv) sulphide ores

Hence,the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 6 The ionic radii of respectively are while the covalent radius

of .

The correct statement for the ionic radius of from the following is :

Option 1:
It is smaller than

Option 2:
It is bigger than

Option 3:
It is bigger than but smaller than of

Option 4:
It is smaller than , but bigger than of

Correct Answer:
It is bigger than

Solution:
As we have learnt,

For isoelectronic species , the size of the ion increases with the increase in the negative
charge on the ion .

Thus , the order of radius ofthe given species is

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

 Q. 7 The correct decreasing order of densities of the following compounds is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Density of haloarenes increases with the molar mass.

Thus , the correct order of density is

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 8

Consider the above reaction, the Product "P" is :

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction occurs as

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 9 A reaction of benzonitrile with one equivalent followed by hydrolysis produces

a yellow liquid "P". The compound "P" will give positive________.
 Option 1:
Iodoform test

Option 2:
Schiff's test

Option 3:
Ninhydrin's test

Option 4:
Tollen's test

Correct Answer:
Iodoform test

Solution:
The reaction occurs as

The compond (P) is Benzophenone and it responds to the Iodoform test .

It is to be noted that Schiff's Test and Totten 's test is given positive by Aldehydes while Ninhydrin test is
given positive by proteins.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

 Q. 10 The spin only magnetic moments (in BM) for free and ions respectively are

(At.No. Sc : 21, Ti : 22, V : 23)

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The electronic configurations of the ions and their spin only magnetic moments are given as

Hence, the correct answer is (2)

Q. 11 Which one of the following is correct structure for cytosine?

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Fact Based .

The structure of cytosine is

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 12 Identify the species having one -bond and maximum number of canonical forms from the
following :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Among the given species, The one having only one bond and maximum number
of canonical forms is .

Hence , the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 13 Which one of the following metals forms interstitial hydride easily ?

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Among the d-block elements, elements of Group 7,8 and 9 do not form hydrides.

Among the Group 6 elements, only Cr forms the interstitial hydride.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 14

Maleic anhydride

Maleic anhydride can be prepared by :

Option 1:
Heating trans-but-2-enedioic acid

Option 2:
Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid

Option 3:
Treating cis-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol and acid

Option 4:
Treating trans-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol and acid

Correct Answer:
Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid
Solution:
Maleic anhydride can be obtained by heating of Maleic acid. The IUPAC name of Maleic Acid is cis-But-2-
enedioic acid.

The reaction is given as

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 15 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Chlorofluoro carbons breakdown by radiation in the visible energy region and
release chlorine gas in the atmosphere which then reacts with stratospheric ozone.

Statement II : Atmospheric ozone reacts with nitric oxide to give nitrogen and oxygen
gases, which add to the atmosphere. For the above statements choose the correct answer
from the options given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Option 2:
Both statement I and II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is correct but statement II is false

Option 4:
Both statement I and II are correct

Correct Answer:
Both statement I and II are false

Solution:
Chlorofluorocarbons yield chlorine radical on exposure to Ultraviolet radiation.

This chlorine radical then reacts with Ozone.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

Next, Nitric oxide ( NO) reacts with ozone to form Nitrogen dioxide and Dioxygen.

Hence, statement II is also incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 16

[where ]

Consider the above reaction sequence, Product "A" and Product "B" formed respectively are:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given reaction occures as
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 17 Match List I with List II:

List-I List-II

Example of colloids Classification

(a) Cheese (i) dispersion of liquid in liquid

(b) Pumice stone (ii) dispersion of liquid in gas

(c) Hair cream (iii) dispersion of gas in solid

(d) Cloud (iv) dispersion of liquid in solid

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct match of colloids with their composition is given below

(a) Cheese : (iv) Liquid in solid

(b) Pumice stone : (iii) Gas in solid

(c) Hair Cream : (i) liquid in liquid

(d) Cloud : (ii) liquid in Gas

Hence,the correct answer is Option (4)

Q. 18 What is the major product "P" of the following reaction ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Reaction of primary amines with followed by yields alcohols.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 19 Identify the process in which change in the oxidation state is five :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The change in the onidation states in the reactions is

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 20 Which among the following is the strongest acid?

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Among the given species ,the strongest acid is cyctopentadiene . The conjugate base is stable due to
aromaticity .

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 21 A system does of work and at the same time absorbs of heat. The magnitude
of the change in internal energy is_______ (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
50

Solution:
Given,
As we have learnt in First Law of Thermodynamics,

Hence, the answer is 50

Q. 22 An accelerated electron has a speed of with an uncertainty of The

uncertainty in finding its location while in motion is . The value of is _________.
(Nearest integer)

[Use mass of electron

Correct Answer:
58

Solution:
Given,

From Heisenberg 's uncertainty principle,

Hence, the correct answer is 58

Q. 23 Number of electrons present in orbital of ion is __________ . (Given Atomic No. of Ho

= 67)
 Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
The electronic configuration of ion is .

Hence, the correct anser is 10 .

Q. 24

Consider the above chemical reaction. The total number of stereoisomers possible for
Product 'P' is __________ .

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Cis Alkene undergoes anti addition to form a racemic mixture.

Hence, the answer is 2

Q. 25 For a chemical reaction it was found that concentration of is increased by

in

The average rate of the reaction is _________ (in nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
According to the given information,
Hence,the correct answer is 4

Q. 26 The number of significant figures in 0.00340 is __________ .

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Zeroes at the end of a number are significant only when they are present at the right hand side of the
decimal place.

Zeroes at the start of a number are not significant.

Thus, 0.00340 has 3 significant figures.

Hence, the answer is 3.

Q. 27 Assuming that is completely ionised in aqueous solution under the given

conditions, the concentration of aqueous solution of
is ______ . (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Gievn, is completely ionised under aqueous solution.

Hence, the answer is 1

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 Q. 28 of an organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of
nitrogen. If the percentage of nitrogen in the compound was found to be , then
_______ would have been neutralized by the ammonia evolved during
the analysis.

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
Given,

Nitrogen in the compond is 42 .

Now, from law of equivalence

Hence, the correct answer is 12

Q. 29 When of a substance is dissolved in , it raises the boiling point by

. The molar mass of the substance is ________ . (Nearest integer).

[Given ]

Correct Answer:
250

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Thus, molarity
This means, 1 kg of solvent contains 0.12 moles

100 g of solvent contains 0.012 moles

Hence, the answer is 250

Q. 30 An LPG cylinder contains gas at a pressure of 300 . The cylinder can withstand
the pressure of . The room in which the cylinder is kept catches fire. The
minimum temperature at which the bursting of cylinder will take place is_____ . (Nearest
integer)

Correct Answer:
927

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Hence, the answer is 927

Maths
Q. 1 The sum of all those terms which are rational numbers in the expansion of
is:

Option 1:
89

Option 2:
27

Option 3:
35
 Option 4:
43

Correct Answer:
43

Solution:

For rational term , r should be a multiple of 3 and 4 a multiple of 12

Q. 2 The first of the two samples in a group has 100 items with mean 15 and standard deviation 3
. If the whole group has 250 items with mean 15.6 and standard deviation , then the
standard deviation of the second sample is:

Option 1:
8

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
 Q. 3
If , then

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

So f(x) is continuous at x =2
LHD at x = 2 : 5
RhD at x = 2 : x+4 = 2+4 = 6.
So f(x) is not differentiable at x = 2

Q. 4 If the greatest value of the term independent of in the expansion of

is , then the value of is equal to
 Option 1:
-1

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
-2

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

For term independent of x

Comparing with given max value

Q. 5 Consider the statement "The match will be played only if the weather is good and ground is
not wet". Select the correct negation from the following:

Option 1:
The match will not be played and weather is not good and ground is wet.

Option 2:
If the match will not be played, then either weather is not good or ground is wet.

Option 3:
The match will be played and weather is not good or ground is wet.

Option 4:
The match will not be played or weather is good and ground is not wet.

Correct Answer:
The match will be played and weather is not good or ground is wet.

Solution:
p: match is played
q: weather is good
r : Ground is wet

Given statement is

Its negation is

Match is played and weather is not good or ground is wet

Q. 6 The value of is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

From (i)
 Q. 7
The lowest integer which is greater than is ___________

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Q. 8
The value of the integral is :

Option 1:
2

Option 2:
0
 Option 3:
-1

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:

so f(x) is an add function

Q. 9 Let be distinct positive numbers. If the vectors

are co-planar, then is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As box product = 0 for coplaner vector
 Q. 10
If be the greatest integer less than or equal to then is equal to:

Option 1:
0

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
-2

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

Q. 11 The number of distinct real roots of

is

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
1
 Option 3:
2

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Expanding the determinant

Q. 12 If is equal to

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
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 Q. 13 The number of real solutions of the equation, is:

Option 1:
2

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

Q. 14 Consider function
exists, then

Option 1:
both are one-one

Option 2:
and both are onto

Option 3:
is one-one and is onto
 Option 4:
is onto and is one-one

Correct Answer:
is one-one and is onto

Solution:

to exist
As
So all elements of C need an image, so all elements of C should be image of some element in B under
. So g(x) must be onto.
Also must be one-one

Q. 15
If is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Using this pattern

Q. 16 Let be a random variable such that the probability function of a distribution is given by

Then the mean of the distribution and is positive and even) respectively are

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Subtracting
Now,

Q. 17 If a tangent to the ellipse meets the tangents at the extremities of its major
axis at and , then the circle with as diameter passes through the point

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Let point of Ellipse be

Equation of tangent : T = 0

For point C, put x = 2 in this equation

Cheking options, 1st option satisfies it

Q. 18 Let the equation of the pair of lines, , can be written as

. Then the equation of the pair of the angle bisectors of the lines
is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Equation of bisectors is

Q. 19 If , then the value of is equal to

Option 1:
1
 Option 2:
4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

Putting this in (i)

Q. 20 Let be the solution of the differential equation

, then is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 21 Let denote the greatest integer less than or equal to . If the sum of
, then
is equal to_________

Correct Answer:
98

Solution:
 Q. 22
Consider the function

Where is a polynomial such that is always a constant and . If is

continuous at , then is equal to__________

Correct Answer:
39

Solution:

Given is contineous at

From (i) & (ii), a = 2, b = 3

Q. 23 The equation of a circle is , where .

A line which passes through the center of the given circle and the vertex of the parabola,
has equal to__________

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Centre : (-1,0)

Equation of line through (-1,0) & (3,4)

y-intercept = 1

Q. 24 If a rectangle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side length as shown in the

figure, then the square of the largest area of such a rectangle is__________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Let height of rectangle = x

 Q. 25 If is perpendicular to is perpendicular to ,
then the angle between and (in degrees) is__________

Correct Answer:
60

Solution:

and

Subtracting

Putting this in (i)

Q. 26
Let a curve pass through the point and have slope for all
positive real value of . Then the value of is equal to__________

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
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 Q. 27 If , then the value of is
equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
13

Solution:

and

Putting this result in (i)

Q. 28 A fair coin is tossed n-times such that the probability of getting at least one head is at least
0.9. Then the minimum value of n is _______

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
Using hit and trial

Q. 29 If the co-efficient of in the expansion of are equal, then the value of

is equal to________

Correct Answer:
55

Solution:

Q. 30
If the lines are co-planar, then
the value of is_______

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

For co-planer lines

 Online 27th July Morning Shift

Physics
Q. 1 In the given figure, a battery of emf is connected across a conductor PQ of length
different area of cross-sections having radii .

Choose the correct option as one moves from

Option 1:
Drift velocity of electron increases.

Option 2:
Electric field decreases.

Option 3:
Electron current decreases.

Option 4:
All of these

Correct Answer:
Drift velocity of electron increases.

Solution:
Let I be the current through conductor PQ

Q. 2 The number of molecules in one litre of an ideal gas at and 2 atmospheric pressure
with mean kinetic energy per molecules is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3)

Q. 3 The relative permittivity of distilled water is 81 . The velocity of light in it will be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3).

 Q. 4
List-I List-II

(a) MI of the rod (length L,Mass M,about an axis to the rod (i)
passing through the midpoint)

(b) MI of the rod (length L, Mass 2M, about an axis to the (ii)
rod passing through one of its end)

(c) MI of the rod (length 2L, Mass M, about an axis to the (iii)
rod passing through its midpoint)

(d) MI of the rod (Length 2L, Mass 2M, about an axis to the (iv)
rod passing through one of its end)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
For rod of mass M and length L

For rod of mass M and length 2 L

For the rod of mass 2M and length L

For the rod of mass 2M and length of 2L

The correct option is (3).

Q. 5 Three objects are kept in a straight line on a frictionless horizontal surface.

The masses of respectively. moves towards B with
a speed of and makes an elastic collision with it. Thereafter B makes a completely
inelastic collision with C. All motions occur along same straight line. The final speed of is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Elastic collision of A and B

Completely inelastic collision between B and C

The correct option is (4).

Q. 6

A capacitor of capacitance is suddenly connected to a battery of 100 volt through

a resistance The time taken for the capacitor to be charged to get 50 V is :

[Take In 2=0.69]

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3).

Q. 7 In the reported figure, a capacitor is formed by placing a compound dielectric between the
plates of parallel plate capacitor. The expression for the capacity of the said capacitor will be
: (Given area of plate = A)

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For capacitor in series connection,

The correct option is (1).

Q. 8 The figure shows two solid discs with radius R and r respectively. If mass per unit area is
same for both, what is the ratio of MI of bigger disc around axis AB (Which is to the plane
of the disc and passing through its centre) of MI of smaller disc around one of its diameters
lying on its plane? Given 'M' is the mass of the larger disc. (MI stands for moment of inertia)

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Moment of inertia of larger disc about AB

Moment of inertia of smaller disc around one of its diameter.

The correct option is (4).

Q. 9 In Young's double slit experiment, if the source of light changes from orange to blue then :

Option 1:
The central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.

Option 2:
The distance between consecutive fringes will decrease.

Option 3:
The distance between consecutive fringes will increase.
 Option 4:
The intensity of the minima will increase.

Correct Answer:
The distance between consecutive fringes will decrease.

Solution:
The source of light changes from orange to blue

Fringe width decreases

The correct option is (2).

Q. 10 In the reported figure, there is a cyclic process ABCDA on a sample of 1 mol of a diatomic
gas. The temperature of the gas during the process A B and C D are
respectively.

Choose the correct option out of the following for work done if processes BC and DA are
adiabatic.

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2).

 Q. 11 Assertion A : If A , B, C, D are four points on a semi-circular arc with centre at 'O' such that

Reason R : Polygon law of vector addition yields

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

Option 1:
A is correct but R is not correct.

Option 2:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Option 3:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Option 4:
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Solution:

Assertion :
Reason : LHS :

By polyon law,

The reason is not correct for the assertion but both the statements are true.

The correct option is (4)

Q. 12 A light cylindrical vessel is kept on a horizontal surface. Area of base is A. A hole of cross-
sectional area 'a' is made just at its bottom side. The minimum coefficient of friction
necessary to prevent sliding the vessel due to the impact force of the emerging liquid is (a <
< A) :

Option 1:

Option 2:
None of these

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Reaction force due to the ejection of liquid

To just prevent the sliding of the vessel

The correct option is (3)

Q. 13 A particle starts executing simple harmonic motion (SHM) of amplitude 'a' and total energy
E. At any instant, its kinetic energy is then its displacement 'y' is given by

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (4)

Q. 14 If denotes the ratio of the number of nuclei decayed (Nd) to the number of nuclei at
then for a collection of radioactive nuclei, the rate of change of with respect
to time is given as : [ is the radioactive decay constant]

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3).

Q. 15 Two capacitors of capacities 2C and C are joined in parallel and charged up to potential V.
The battery is removed and the capacitor of capacity C is filled completely with a medium of
dielectric constant K. The potential difference across the capacitors will now be :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Initial :
Final :

For selected node, by charge conservation.

the common potential of both the capacitors.

The correct option is (3).

Q. 16 A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity so that it reaches a height Find the ratio of the
two different times of the ball reaching in both the directions.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Let at time the ball reaches height h/3.

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The correct option is (3).

Q. 17 A inductor and a resistor are connected in series to a ac source.

The approximate current in the circuit and the phase angle between current and source
voltage are respectively. [Take as ]

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (1)

Q. 18 Two identical tennis balls each having mass and charge are suspended from a fixed
point by threads of length . What is the equilibrium separation when each thread makes a
small angle with the vertical ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 19 Assertion A : If in five complete rotations of the circular scale, the distance travelled on
main scale of the screw gauge is 5 mm and there are 50 total divisions on circular scale, then
least count is 0.001 cm.

Reason R :

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
 Option 1:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Option 2:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Option 3:
A is correct but R is not correct.

Option 4:
Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Solution:
Distance travelled on the main scale in one rotation is equal to pitch.

The correct option is (1)

Q. 20 A body takes . to cool from . If the temperature of the surroundings is

, the time taken by the body to cool from is:

Option 1:
4 min

Option 2:
3 min

Option 3:
8 min

Option 4:
6 min

Correct Answer:
6 min
Solution:
By Newton's law of cooling ,

The correct option is (4)

Q. 21 Consider an electrical circuit containing a two way switch 'S'. Initially is open and then is
connected to . As the current in attains a maximum value of steady state level,
is disconnected from and immediately connected to . Potential drop across
resistor immediately after is connected to _______ is . (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
a) When is connected to (after long time i.e. steady state)

Inductor will behave as straight conducting wine.

b) When is connected to .

The current will start decaying as per

at (immediately after connecting)

The potential drop across the resistance

Q. 22 Suppose two planets (spherical in shape) of radii and but mass

respectively have a centre to centre separation as shown in the figure. A satellite of
mass is projected from the surface of the planet of mass directly towards the centre
of the second planet. The minimum speed required for the satellite to reach the surface
of the second planet is then the value of is________.

[Given : The two planets are fixed in their position]

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

Pt . P is a point where the net gravitational force is zero i.e force due to sphere of mass M and 9M are
cancelling each other.
 For the minimum speed of projection, Speed at point P must be zero.

By energy conservation,

Q. 23 In Bohr's atomic model, the electron is assumed to revolve in a circular orbit of radius
If the speed of electron is then the current associated with the electron will
be______ [Take ]

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 24 A radioactive sample has an average life of 30 ms and is decaying. A capacitor of capacitance
200 is first charged and later connected with resistor If the ratio of charge on
capacitor to the activity of radioactive sample is fixed with respect to time then the value of
'R' should be ______ .

Correct Answer:
150

Solution:

Let be the initial change on the capacitor

Discharging of capacitor condition.

Activity after time t

 Q. 25 A particle of mass travels in a medium with a speed of and a photon
of a radiation of linear momentum travels in vacuum. The wavelength of
photon is _______ times the wavelength of the particle.

Correct Answer:
910

Solution:
 Q. 26 A prism of refractive index and another prism of refractive index are stuck together
(as shown in the figure). depend on the wavelength of light, according to the
relation

The wavelength for which rays incident at any angle on the interface BC pass through
without bending at that interface will be ______nm.

Correct Answer:
600

Solution:
If the rays incident at any angle on the interface BC passes through without bending at the interface.

Q. 27 A stone of mass 20 g is projected from a rubber catapult of length 0.1 m and area of cross
section stretched by an amount 0.04 m. The velocity of the projected stone is
__________ m/s. (Young's modulus of rubber )

Correct Answer:
20

Solution:
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Energy stored is providing initial KE to store

Q. 28 A transistor is connected in common emitter circuit configuration, the collector supply

voltage is 10 V and the voltage drop across a resistor of in the collector circuit is 0.6
V. If the current gain factor is 24, then the base current is _______ . (Round off to the
Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 29 The amplitude of upper and lower side bands of A.M. wave where a carrier signal with
frequency , peak voltage is amplitude modulated by a sine wave
of amplitude are respectively. Then the value of is______
 Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

Q. 30 In a uniform magnetic field, the magnetic needle has a magnetic moment

and moment of inertia . If it performs 10 complete
oscillations in 5 seconds then the magnitude of the magnetic field is ______ . [Take
]

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which one of the following compounds will give orange precipitate when treated with 2,4-
dinitrophenyl hydrazine?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

2,4 - Dinitrophenylhydrazine reacts with carbonyl compound (Aldehydes and Ketones) to form a yellow to
orange precipitate.
Thus, the compound that gives positive 2,4- DNP test is Benzophenone.

Hence the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 2 The product obtained from the electrolytic oxidation of acidified sulphate solutions, is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Electrolytic oxidation of acidified sulphate solution form peroxydisulphuric acid.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 3 The parameters of the unit cell of a substance are

The crystal system of the substance is :

 Option 1:
Hexagonal

Option 2:
Orthorhombic

Option 3:
Monoclinic

Option 4:
Triclinic

Correct Answer:
Monoclinic

Solution:
In the given Crystal system,

This is characteristic of the monoclinic crystal system.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 4 The oxidation states of respectively, are :

Option 1:
7,5 and 6

Option 2:
5,4 and 3

Option 3:
5,3 and 4

Option 4:
6,4 and 5

Correct Answer:
5,3 and 4

Solution:
The oxidation states of P in the given acids are

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 5 For a reaction of order n, the unit of the rate constant is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Dealing in terms of the units, we have

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 6 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Aniline is less basic than acetamide.

Statement II : In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom is delocalised over
benzene ring due to resonance and hence less available to a proton.

Choose the most appropriate option

Option 1:
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

Option 2:
Statement I is false but statement II is true.
 Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are true.

Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are false.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Solution:
Aniline is more basic than Acetamide

This is because of a greater extent of resonance of lone pairs of N atom with the carbonyl group which
causes a lessening of the electron cloud density on N.

Aniline also shows resonance with the lone pairs over N being delocalised on the Benzene ring. However,
the extent of this resonance is less due to aromatic nature of Benzene ring.

Thus, statement I is false while statement II is true

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 7 The type of hybridisation and magnetic property of the complex , respectively,

are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The complex contains ion in a weak ligand field. The electronic arrangement is shown
below :

Thus, the complex is hybridised with a paramagnetic nature.

Hence, the correct arswer is option (4)

Q. 8 The number of geometrical isomers found in the metal complexes

respectively, are :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The complexes along with their geometrical isomers are given below:

(a) : Square planar

(b) : tetrahedral complex.

Does not show Geometrical isomerism.

(c) : Octahedral
(d) : Octahedral

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 9 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

Option 1:
Eutrophication indicates that water body is polluted

Option 2:
The dissolved oxygen concentration below 6 ppm inhibits fish growth

Option 3:
Eutrophication leads to increase in the oxygen level in water

Option 4:
Eutrophication leads to anaerobic conditions

Correct Answer:
Eutrophication leads to increase in the oxygen level in water

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Eutrophication refers to a condition in which there is a dense plant population on the surface of water.

This leads to a lessening of the oxygen concentration in water and subsequent anaerobic corcentration.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

 Q. 10 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Rutherford's gold foil experiment cannot explain the line spectrum of hydrogen
atom.

Statement II : Bohr's model of hydrogen atom contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty

principle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Option 2:
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are false.

Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are true.

Correct Answer:
Both statement I and statement II are true.

Solution:
As we have learnt,

(I) Rutherfords's gold foil experiment cannot explain the line spectrum of Hydrogen.

(II) Bohr's model contradicts the Heisenberg's uncertainity principle as it predicts the radius as well as the
speed of the electron simultaneously without any error.

Thus, both statements are true.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 11 Presence of which reagent will affect the reversibility of the following reaction, and change it
to a irreversible reaction:

Option 1:
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 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Iodination of Alkanes by the free radical mechanism is reversible and the equilibrium is shifted towards
the product side by addition of Oxidising agent which oxidises the HI obtained to form .

Among the given compounds, is an oxidising agent which comproportionates with to form as
given below:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 12 Which one among the following chemical tests is used to distinguish monosaccharide from
disaccharide?

Option 1:
Seliwanoff's test

Option 2:
Iodine test

Option 3:
Barfoed test

Option 4:
Tollen's test

Correct Answer:
Barfoed test

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Barfoed's test is used to distinguish between Monosaccharide and Disaccharide.

The regent used is cupric acetate in acetic acid and produces a brick red precipitate of copper (I) oxide.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 13 Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Drug) List-II (Class of Drug)

(a) Furacin (i) Antibiotic

(b) (ii) Tranquilizers

Arsphenamine

(c) Dimetone (iii) Antiseptic

(d) Valium (iv) Synthetic

antihistamines

Choose the most appropriate match :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct match of the drugs with their class is given below:

(a) Furacin: (iii) Antiseptic

(b) Arsephenamine: (i) Antibiotic

(c) Dimetore: (iv) Synthetic Anti histamine

(d) Valium: (ii) Tranquiliser

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 14 The statement that is INCORRECT about Ellingham diagram is

Option 1:
Provides idea about the reaction rate.

Option 2:
Provides idea about free energy change.

Option 3:
Provides idea about changes in the phases during the reaction.

Option 4:
Provides idea about reduction of metal oxide.

Correct Answer:
Provides idea about the reaction rate.

Solution:
As we have learnt,
Ellingham diagram is plotted for of metal oxide per mole of

It tells us about the reduction of metal oxide and the free energies involved in using different reducing
agents.

The slope of the curve is related to and sharp kinks in the curve tell us about phase change during
the course of reduction.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 15

Consider the above reaction and identify the Product P :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reaction occurs as,

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 16

The compound 'A' is a complementary base of _________ in DNA stands

 Option 1:
Uracil

Option 2:
Guanine

Option 3:
Adenine

Option 4:
Cytosine

Correct Answer:
Adenine

Solution:
The given compound 'A' is Thymine

It is a complementary base of Adenine in DNA strands

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 17 Staggered and eclipsed conformers of ethane are :

Option 1:
Polymers

Option 2:
Rotamers

Option 3:
Enantiomers

Option 4:
Mirror images

Correct Answer:
Rotamers
Solution:
As we have learnt,

Conformational isomers are called as Rotamers as they can be converted into each other by rotation
about a single bond.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

Q. 18 Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II

(i) Acidic

(ii) Basic

(iii) Amphoteric

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct match between the hydroxides and their nature is given below.
Hence, the correct answer is option(2)

Q. 19

The correct order of stability of given carbocation is:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given carbocations can be arranged in order of their stability as

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

 Q. 20 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A : Lithium halides are some what covalent in nature.

Reason R : Lithium possess high polarisation capability.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
A is true but R is false

Option 2:
A is false but R is true

Option 3:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Option 4:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Lithium halides are somewhat covalent in nature. This is because of the high polarisation power of
cation due to its high charge density.

Thus, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are both correct and (R) correctly explains (A) .

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 21 The density of solution is . The molality of this solution is _______ .

(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
[Use : Atomic masses :
Density of ]

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Given,
Let 1 litre of solution be taken

Assuming 1 litre of solution containing 1 litre of water.

Hence, the correct answer is 5.

Q. 22 gas adsorbs on charcoal following Freundlich adsorption isotherm. For a given amount
of charcoal, the mass of adsorbed becomes 64 times when the pressure of is
doubled.

The value of in the Freundlich isotherm equation is __________ . (Round off to the
Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
17

Solution:
Freundlich isotherm is given as

Other factors remaining constant, the mass of adsorbent can be related to pressure as

16.67 will be rounded off to 17

Hence, the correct answer is 17.

 Q. 23 The conductivity of a weak acid HA of concentration
if , the
ionization constant of HA is equal to_________
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
Given,

As we know,

Hence, the answer is 12

Q. 24 1.46 g of a biopolymer dissolved in a 100mL water at 300 K exerted an osmotic pressure of

The molar mass of the biopolymer is_____ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer) .
[Use : ]

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
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As we have learnt,

Now,

Putting these values in the formula, we have

Hence, the correct answer is 15.

Q. 25 An organic compound is subjected to chlorination to get compound of

chlorine. When of compound A is reacted with [Carius Method], the
percentage of chlorine in compound is_____ when it forms of . (Round off
to the Nearest Integer)
(Atomic masses of respectively)

Correct Answer:
19

Solution:
Given,

Hence, the correct answer is 19.

 Q. 26 The number of geometrical isomers possible in triamminetrinitrocobalt (III) is and in
trioxalatochromate (III) is . Then the value of is_______.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

is of type . It has two geometrical isomers - facial and meridional

is of type and it has no geometric isomer as bidentate ligands

can only attach through cis - positions.

Thus,

Hence, the correct answer is (2).

Q. 27 In gaseous triethyl amine the bond angle is ________degree.

Correct Answer:
108

Solution:
The structure of Triethyl amine is given as
The C-N-C bond angle is close to

Hence, the correct answer is 108

Q. 28 For water at and 1 bar, .

(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
[Use : ]
[Assume volume of is much smaller than volume of . Assume
treated as an ideal gas]

Correct Answer:
31

Solution:
The process is

The and are related as

Hence, the correct answer is 31.

Q. 29

3.0 moles of is introduced in a closed reaction vessel at The number of

moles of at equilibrium is _________
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
1400

Solution:
On solving,

Hence, the correct answer is 1400.

Q. 30 The difference between bond orders of and is where x = _________.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
The bond order of is 3 while that of is also 3.

Hence, the correct answer is 0.

Maths
Q. 1
If the mean and variance of the following data: and
respectively, then is equal to:
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

_______(i)

........(ii)

Q. 2
The value of is equal to
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (4) is the correct answer

Q. 3 Let and Then the vector product

is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence Option (2) is correct answer

Q. 4 The value of the definite integral

is equal to:

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (2) is correct.

Q. 5 Let be the set of all complex numbers. Let

Then the number of elements in is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
Infinite

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Circle with centre

Let

line & region to the right of it

Common part is only (5,4)

Hence option (1) is correct

Q. 6 If the area of the bounded region

is, , then the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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Hence option (2) is correct answer

Q. 7 A ray of light through is reflected at a point on the and then passes

through the point . If this reflected ray is the directrix of an ellipse with eccentricity

and the distance of the nearer focus from this directrix is then the equation of the
other directrix can be:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Equation of reflected line

Other directrix will be parallel to it, so let that be

Given distance between derectrix and focus

Distance between 2 directrices

Hence option (3) is correct

Q. 8 If the coefficients of are equal, then

the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
General term for first binomial

For second binomial, general term is

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 9 The compound statement is equivalent to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

So option (1), (2) & (3) are wrong

Option (4) must be correct.

Q. 10
If then
is equal to:

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 11
Let . If is a

identity matrix, then is equal to:

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (4) is correct answer

Q. 12 Let be defined as

If is continuous at , then the value of is equal to:

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (3) is correct

Q. 13
Let be the solution of the differential equation with

If , then the value of is equal to:

 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

........(i)

As

Hence option (1) is correct.

 Q. 14 Let the plane passing through the point and perpendicular to each of the
planes and be . Then the value
of a + b + c is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Normal to required plane is equal to

Equation of plane is

Hence option (4) is correct answer

Q. 15 Two tangents are drawn from the point to the circle

If these tangents touch the circle at points
is a point on the circle such that length of the segments
are equal, then the area of the triangle ABD is equal to

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Clearly, will be
Area of

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 16 Let be a function such that Then, the value of

is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:
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 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 17 Let be two distinct points on a circle which has center at and which
passes through origin . If is perpendicular to both the line segments
is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Radius

Let point

Now

Hence option (4) is correct.

Q. 18 Let be two roots of the equation . Then is

equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 19 The probability that a randomly selected 2-digit number belongs to the set
is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

This is divisible by 3 when is odd and not divisible by 3 when is even

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 20 Let

Then the minimum value of such that is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Farthest point on from

Farthest point on from

So, minimum larger of these 2 values

Hence option (3) is correct.

Q. 21 For real numbers consider the following system of linear equations:

If the system has infinite solutions, then is equal to_______

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
 Q. 22 Let and be three vectors such that
If the length of projection vector of the vector on the vector
then the value of is equal to_________

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
.......(i)
 Q. 23
If are in an arithmetic progression, then the value

of is equal to_________

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

But does not lie in the domain of

Q. 24 Let the domain of the function .

Then the value of the integral is equal to__________

 Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
For domain

Q. 25 Let

Then the maximum value of is equal to_________

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
 Q. 26 Let be a twice differentiable function on such that

If , then is equal to___________

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:
......(i)
 Q. 27 Let a plane P pass through the point and contain the line,
. If distance of the plane from the origin is , then is equal
to__________

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
Plane has point A(3, 7, -7)

lies on the line and thus it lies on plane .

is parallel to

Also is parallel to plane

So

Plane:

Distance from origin

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 Q. 28 Let Then the number of possible functions such that
for every is equal to________

Correct Answer:
490

Solution:

No new result

So f(2) can be 1 or 2
 .......

and

or

Number of functions =

Q. 29 If is the solution of the differential equation

is equal
to_________

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
 Q. 30 Let be defined by

where is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Let denote the set containing all
where is discontinuous, and denote the set containing all where
is not differentiable. Then the sum of number of elements in P and Q is equal to_______

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
No point of discontinuity

5 points of non-differentiability
 Online 27th July Evening Shift

Physics
Q. 1 An electron and proton are separated by a large distance. The electron starts approaching
the proton with energy The proton captures the electrons and forms a hydrogen atom
in second excited state. The resulting photon is incident on a photosensitive metal of
threshold wavelength . What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectron?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Energy lost by electron=Energy of emitted photon

By Einstein's photoelectric equation

The correct option is (2)

 Q. 2 The expected graphical representation of the variation of angle of deviation ' ' with angle of
incidence 'i' in a prism is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
First refraction,

Second refraction,

As increases, also increares which in tern reduces

Also when

at that point will be minimum

Hence,the correct option is (2)

Q. 3 A raindrop with radius falls from a cloud at a height above the

ground. Assume that the drop is spherical throughout its fall and the force of buoyance may
be neglected, then the terminal speed attained by the raindrop is : [Density of water
and Density of air Coefficient of viscosity
of air ]

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 4 One mole of an ideal gas is taken through an adiabatic process where the temperature rises
from 27°C to 37°C. If the ideal gas is composed of polyatomic molecule that has 4 vibrational
modes, which of the following is true?

Option 1:
Work done by the gas is close to 332 J
 Option 2:
Work done on the gas is close to 582 J

Option 3:
Work done by the gas is close to 582 J

Option 4:
Work done by the gas is close to 332 J

Correct Answer:
Work done on the gas is close to 582 J

Solution:

Total degree of freedom = 3 Translational +3 Rotational +8 vibrational mode

For each vibrational mode there are 2 degree of freedom

Negative work Work done on the gas.

The correct option is (2)

Q. 5 An object of mass is executing simple harmonic motion. It amplitude is and

time period (T) is What will be the potential energy of the object at an instant
starting from mean position. Assume that the initial phase of the oscillation is zero.

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Starting from the mean position Equation of displacement

The correct option is (1)

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 Q. 6 Match List I with List II.

List-I List-II

(a) Capacitance, C

(b) Permittivity of free space,

(c) Permeability of free space,

(d) Electric field, E

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (1)

Q. 7 Given below is the plot of a potential energy function U(x) for a system, in which a particle is
in one dimensional motion, while a conservative force F(x) acts on it. Suppose that
, the incorrect statement for this system is :

Option 1:
at is constant throughout the region.

Option 2:
at is smallest and the particle is moving at the slowest speed.

Option 3:
at is greatest and the particle is moving at the fastest speed.

Option 4:
at

Correct Answer:
at is smallest and the particle is moving at the slowest speed.

Solution:
The correct option is (2)

Q. 8 A resistance, a capacitor and an inductor are connected in series across a

supply at variable frequency. Calculate the value of inductance of inductor at which
resonance will occur. Given that the resonant frequency is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 .

Q. 9 A simple pendulum of mass length and charge suspended in the electric field
produced by two conducting parallel plates as shown. The value of deflection of pendulum
in equilibrium position will be

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

potential difference across the dielectric slab

The electric field in the pendulum region is

At equilibrium
Q. 10 Two Carnot engines A and B operate in series such that engine absorbs heat at and
rejects heat to a sink at temperature Engine absorbs half of the heat rejected by
Engine A and rejects heat to the sink at . When workdone in both the cases is equal, to
value of

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

For engine A,

For engine B,

From Carnot theorem,

The correct option is (4)

Q. 11 Find the truth table for the function represented in the following figure.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 12 Figure A and B shown two long straight wires of circular cross-section

carrying current I which is uniformly distributed across the cross-
section. The magnitude of magnetic field B varies with radius r and can be represented as :
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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(Uniformly distributed)

For inside point

For outside point

The correct option is 3

 Q. 13 Two identical particles of mass 1 kg each go round a circle of radius R, under the action of
their mutual gravitational attraction. The angular speed of each particle is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 14 Consider the following statements :

A. Atoms of each element emit characteristics spectrum.

B. According to Bohr's Postulate, an electron in a hydrogen atom, revolves in a certain

stationary orbit.

C. The density of nuclear matter depends on the size of the nucleus.

D. A free neutron is stable but a free proton decay is possible.

E. Radioactivity is an indication of the instability of nuclei.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A, B, C, D and E

Option 2:
A, B and E only

Option 3:
B and D only

Option 4:
A, C and E only

Correct Answer:
A, B and E only

Solution:
A free neutron is unstable
Density of nuclear matter is constant for all elements.
The correct option is (2)

Q. 15 What will be the magnitude of electric field at point as shown in figure? Each side of the
figure is and perpendicular to each other?
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Electric field due to charge at A&H will get cancelled

The correct option is (2)

Q. 16 A physical quantity is represented by the formula

If the percentage errors found in and p respectively,

then find the value of

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

Q. 17 An automobile of mass accelerates starting from origin and initially at rest, while the
engine supplies constant power P. The position is given as a function of time by :

Option 1:
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 18 The planet Mars has two moons, if one of them has a period 7 hours, 30 minutes and an
orbital radius of Find the mass of Mars.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 19 A particle of mass M originally at rest is subjected to a force whose direction is constant but
magnitude varies with time according to the relation

Where are constants. The force acts only for the time interval . The velocity
of the particle after time is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3)

Q. 20 The resistance of a conductor at . What will be the

temperature coefficient of resistance of the conductor?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (3)

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 Q. 21 In the given figure, two wheels P and Q are connected by a belt B. The radius of P is three
times as that of Q. In case of same rotational kinetic energy, the ratio of rotational inertias
will be The value of x will be _____.

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

Linear speed will be same at both the wheels

Q. 22 The difference in the number of waves when yellow light propagates through air and
vacuum columns of the same thickness is one. The thickness of the air column is ______ mm.
[Refractive index of air wavelength of yellow light in vacuum

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
 Q. 23 The maximum amplitude for an amplitude modulated wave is found to be while the
minimum amplitude is found to be . The modulation index is where is ______.

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 24 In the given figure the magnetic flux through the loop increases according to the relation
, where is in milliwebers and is in seconds.

The magnitude of current through

Correct Answer:
60

Solution:

Q. 25 A particle executes simple harmonic motion represented by displacement function as

If the position and velocity of the particle at

respectively, then its amplitude is where the value of is_________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
 Q. 26 A swimmer wants to cross a river from point to point . Line makes an angle of
with the flow of river. Magnitude of velocity of the swimmer is same as that of the river. The
angle with the line should be _______ swimmer reaches point

Correct Answer:
30

Solution:
 Q. 27 For the circuit shown, the value of current at time t = 3.2 s will be ______ A.

[Voltage distribution V(t) is shown by Fig. (1) and the circuit is shown in Fig. (2)]

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
 Q. 28 A small block slides down from the top of hemisphere of radius as shown in the
figure. The height at which the block will lose contact with the surface of the sphere is
____ (Assume there is no friction between the block and the hemisphere)

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
When block lose contact

By energy conservation
 Q. 29 The of molybdenum has wavelength . If the energy of a
molybdenum atoms with a electron knocked out is , the energy of this atom
when an L electron is knocked out will be ________ (Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:

Solution:
- Energy when an L shell-electron is knocked out
- Energy when a K shell-electron is knocked out

wavelength emitted during knocking out of L-electron

Q. 30 The water is filled upto height of in a tank having vertical sidewalls. A hole is made in
one of the walls at a depth below the water level. The value of for which the emerging
stream of water strikes the ground at the maximum range is_____ .

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which one of the following set of elements can be detected using sodium fusion extract ?

Option 1:
Sulfur, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Halogens

Option 2:
Phosphorous, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Halogens

Option 3:
Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Carbon, Sulfur

Option 4:
Halogens, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Sulfur

Correct Answer:
Sulfur, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Halogens

Solution:
As we have learnt,
Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogens and Phosphorus present in Organic compounds are detected by Lassaigne's
test using the sodium Fusion extract.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (1).
 Q. 2

Consider the above reaction, the major product "P" formed is :-

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
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Please note that the major product is obtained in which the alkene is more stable due to extra
hyperconjugation of the Methyl group.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

Q. 3 The number of neutrons and electrons, respectively, present in the radioactive isotope of
hydrogen is :-

Option 1:
1 and 1

Option 2:
3 and 1

Option 3:
2 and 1

Option 4:
2 and 2

Correct Answer:
2 and 1

Solution:
As we have learned,

The radioactive isotope of Hydrogen is Tritium .

It contains 1 proton, 2 Neutrons and 1 electron.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3).

 Q. 4 Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II

(a) Li (i) photoelectric cell

(b) Na (ii) absorbent of CO2

(c) K (iii) coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactor

(d) Cs (iv) treatment of cancer

(v) bearings for motor engines

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

Option 2:
(a) - (v), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Option 3:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Option 4:
(a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Correct Answer:
(a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Solution:
The correct match of S- Block elements and their uses is given below:

(a) Li ⇒ (v) Beasing for motor engine

(b) Na ⇒ (iii) coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactor.
(c) K ⇒ (ii) Absorbent of
(d) Cs ⇒ (i) Photoelectric cell

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).

 Q. 5 Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as
Reason

Assertion A : is adsorbed to a large extent than on activated charcoal.

Reason R : has a higher critical temperature than
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

Option 1:
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A

Option 2:
Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation for A

Option 3:
A is not correct but R is correct.

Option 4:
A is correct but R is not correct.

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation for A

Solution:
As we have learnt,

is adsorbed to a greater extent than on activated charcoal. This is because has a greater
value of critical temperature than .

Gases having greater values of critical temperature are adsorbed to a greater extent. This is because of
the greater intermolecular force of attraction.

Thus, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A).

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

Q. 6 The CORRECT order of first ionisation enthalpy is :

Option 1:
Mg < S < Al < P

Option 2:
Mg < Al < S < P

Option 3:
Al < Mg < S < P
 Option 4:
Mg < Al < P < S

Correct Answer:
Al < Mg < S < P

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Ionisation energy increases along a period on moving from left to right. However, species having fully-
filled or half-filled orbital configurations have greater ionisation energy than the element on their right.

So, Mg, Al, P and S can be arranged as

Al < Mg < S < P

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 7 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.

Statement II : Hyperconjugation in ethyl cation involves the overlapping of

bond with empty orbital of other carbon.

Choose the correct option :

Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are false

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Option 3:
Statement I is correct but statement II is false

Option 4:
Both Statement I and statement II are true.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is false

Solution:
Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.

In the ethyl cation, hyperconjugation involves overlapping of orbital with vacant p-orbital of
the carbocation.
Thus, statement I is true while statement II is false.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 8 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : and are hybridised.
Statement II : and are paramagnetic and have 4 and 5 unpaired
electrons, respectively.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but statement II is false

Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are are true

Correct Answer:
Both statement I and statement II are are true

Solution:
The electronic configuration of is

In the presence of strong field cyanide ligands, there is pairing up of electrons.

Thus, is hybridised. On the other hand, does not cause pairing in and
the electronic arrangement is
Similarly, has a configuration of

In stroy field , it exists as

While in weak field , it exists as

Next, has a configuration in which the electrons get paired up due to chelating ligand like
oxalate ion.

Thus, statement I and II are both correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 9 To an aqueous solution containing ions such as

and was added followed by .
The total number of cations precipitated during this reaction is/are:

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
As we have learnt,

Elements of Group 2 basic radicals will be precipitated upon addition of in presence of .

Among the given cations, only will be precipitated.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)
 Q. 10 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Penicillin is a bacteriostatic type antibiotic.

Statement II : The general structure of Penicillin is -

Choose the correct option :

Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are false

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are true

Option 4:
Statement I is correct but statement II is false

Correct Answer:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Solution:
Penicillin is a bactericidal antibiotic.

Its structure is

Thus, the statement I is not correct while statement II is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 11 Compound A gives D-Galactose and D-Glucose on hydrolysis. The compound A is :

 Option 1:
Amylose

Option 2:
Sucrose

Option 3:
Maltose

Option 4:
Lactose

Correct Answer:
Lactose

Solution:
As we have learnt,
The monosaccharides are involved in the formation of the given sugars.
Amylose:

Sucrose :

Maltose :

Lactose :

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 12

Consider the above reaction and identify "Y"

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The reduction of nitriles with DIBAL-H followed by hydrolysis produces aldehydes.

Hence, the correct option is (3).

Q. 13

consider the above reaction, and choose the correct statement :

Option 1:
The reaction is not possible in acidic medium

Option 2:
Both compounds A and B are formed equally

Option 3:
Compound A will be the major product

Option 4:
Compound B will be the major product

Correct Answer:
Compound A will be the major product

Solution:
Acidic dehydration of the given substrate occurs as

The trans compound is obtained as a major product due to more stability over the Cis product.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

 Q. 14 Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II

(Compound) (effect/affected species)

(a) Carbon monoxide (i) Carcinogenic

(b) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Metabolized by Pyrus plants

(c) Polychlorinated biphenyls (iii) Haemoglobin

(d) Oxides of Nitrogen (iv) Stiffness of flower buds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Option 2:
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Option 3:
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Option 4:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Correct Answer:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Solution:
The correct match of the pollutant and the effect is given below :
(a) Carbon Monoxide ⇒ (iii) Haemoglobin
(b) Sulphur Dioxide ⇒ (IV) Stiffness of flower buds
(c) Polychlorinated Biphenyls ⇒ (i) Carcinogenic
(a) Oxides of Nitrogen ⇒ (ii) Metabolised by Pyrus plants.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)

Q. 15 If the Thompson model of the atom was correct, then the result of Rutherford's gold foil
experiment would have been :
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 Option 1:
All of the particles pass through the gold foil without decrease in speed.

Option 2:
Particles are deflected over a wide range of angles.

Option 3:
All particles get bounced back by

Option 4:
Particles pass through the gold foil deflected by small angles and with reduced speed.

Correct Answer:
Particles pass through the gold foil deflected by small angles and with reduced speed.

Solution:
Thompson's model is similar to a Plum pudding model in which the electrons are embedded in a
positively charged sphere.

If this model were correct, Rutherford's gold foil experiment would have observed the - particles pass
through the gold foil deflected by small angles and with reduced speed.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 Number of bonds in chlorous acid, chloric acid and perchloric acid respectively are :

Option 1:
3, 1 and 1

Option 2:
4, 1 and 0

Option 3:
1, 1 and 3

Option 4:
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer:
1, 2 and 3

Solution:
Chlorous, chloric and Perchloric acid are respectively .

Their structures are

Thus, the number of present in chlorous, Chloric and perchloric acid are 1,2 and 3 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 17 Select the correct statements.

(A) Crystalline solids have long range order.

(B) Crystalline solids are isotropic.

(C) Amorphous solid are sometimes called pseudo solids.

(D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of temperatures.

(E) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of fusion.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

Option 1:
(A), (B), (E) only

Option 2:
(B), (D) only

Option 3:
(C), (D) only

Option 4:
(A), (C), (D) only

Correct Answer:
(A), (C), (D) only

Solution:
As we have learnt,
(A) Crystalline solids have long-range order
(B) Crystalline solids are ANISOTROPIC.
(C) Amorphous solids are sometimes called Pseudo solids
(D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of temperatures
(E) Amorphous solids do not have definite heat of fusion.
Thus, statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).

Q. 18 What is A in the following reaction?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction is an example of Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 19 The correct sequence of correct reagents for the following transformation is :-

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The given conversion can be carried out as
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 20 The addition of silica during the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore :-

Option 1:
converts copper sulphide into copper silicate

Option 2:
converts iron oxide into iron silicate

Option 3:
reduces copper sulphide into metallic copper

Option 4:
reduces the melting point of the reaction mixture

Correct Answer:
converts iron oxide into iron silicate

Solution:
As we have learnt,
Copper ore contains iron oxides as impurity which is removed by adding silica as an acidic flux.

The flux slags of

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

 Q. 21 The equilibrium constant for the reaction
is . At equilibrium, the partial pressure of is
_____atm. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:
In the equilibrium,

Hence, the correct answer is 16.

Q. 22 When solution is mixed with

solution, the increase in temperature of the final solution is_______ . (Round off to
the nearest integer).

Specific heat of
density of
Assume no change in volume of solution on mixing.

Correct Answer:
82

Solution:

Thus, there will be a neutralisation of 60 meq of and .

And total volume of solution 1000 ml

Hence , the answer is 82.

Q. 23
The above reaction is carried out in a vessel starting with partial pressure
. When the reaction is
complete, the total pressure in the reaction vessel is _____m bar. (Round off of the nearest
integer).

Correct Answer:
875

Solution:
is the limiting reagent in the reaction and the amount of and finally in the reaction mixture
will be decided by .

Ans = 875

Q. 24 solution was consumed in a titration with of

given oxalic acid dihydrate solution. The strength of given oxalic acid solution is . . ....
.
(Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
1575

Solution:
reacts with oxalic acid and oxidises it to . it itself reduced to .

From law of equivalence,

Hence, the answer is 1575.

Q. 25 The total number of electrons in all bonding molecular orbitals of is ........ . (Round off to
the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
The orbital configuration of is

Thus, there are a total of 10 electrons present in the bonding molecular orbitals.
Hence, the answer is 10 .

Q. 26 3 moles of metal complex with formula gives 3 moles of silver chloride on

treatment with excess of silver nitrate. The secondary valency of CO in the complex is_______.
(Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
The given complex is and its primary valency is 3 and secondary valency is 6 .

Hence, the answer is 6.

Q. 27 In a solvent of an acid HA dimerizes and the rest dissociates. The van't Hoff factor of
the acid is_____
(Round off to the nearest integer)
 Correct Answer:
125

Solution:
The dissociation and association processes are given as

Given,

Thus, Vant Hoff factor

Hence, the correct answer is 125.

Q. 28 The dihedral angle in staggered form of Newman projection of

is ......... degree. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
60

Solution:
The staggered form of 1,1,1- Trichloroethane is given as

The dihedral angle is 60 degrees.

Hence, the answer is 60.

 Q. 29 For the first-order reaction A → 2B, 1 mole of reactant A gives 0.2 moles of B after 100
minutes. The half-life of the reaction is ...... min. (Round off to the nearest integer).
[ Use : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3, ln 9 =0.95
Properties of logarithms:

(Round off to the nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
600

Solution:
For the given first-order reaction,

Given,

Now, for a first-order reaction,

Hence, the correct answer is 600

Q. 30 For the cell

the cell potential

For the cell

the cell potential =_________ (Round off the Nearest Integer)

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 Correct Answer:
28

Solution:
Given,

Cell potential =0.3095 V for the reaction

From Nernst equation, we have

Now, for the reaction,

Applying the Nernst equation,

From (1) and (2), we have

Hence, the correct answer is 28.

Maths
Q. 1 The point undergoes the following three transformations successively:
(a) reflection about the line .
(b) translation through 2 units along the positive direction of
(c) rotation through angle about the origin in the anti-clockwise direction.

If the co-ordinates of the final position of the point then the value of
is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (2)

Q. 2 A possible value of for which the ninth term in the expansion of

in the increasing powers of
is equal to 180, is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (4)

Q. 3 For real numbers if the point of intersection of the straight lines

lies on the plane
is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Let point on first line be and on second line be

For point of intersection

.....(i)

.....(ii)

.....(iii)
So, point of intersection is

It lies in given plane, so

The option (4) is correct.

Q. 4
Let be defined as

Then, the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The option (3) is correct.

Q. 5 Let be the set of all complex numbers. Let and

Then, the maximum value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
:

Point is farthest from so it gives max value of

Q. 6 A student appeared in an examination consisting of 8 true-false type questions. The student

guesses the answers with equal probability. The smallest value of , so that the probability
of guessing at least correct answers is less than , is

Option 1:

Option 2:
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As per the question

Q. 7
If are in arithmetic progression and are

also in arithmetic progression, then is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3)

Q. 8 Let the mean and variance of the frequency distribution

respectively. If is changed
from 8 to 7, then the mean for the new data will be:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (3)

Q. 9 The area of the region bounded by and is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
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 Q. 10 Let be the solution of the differential equation
If then is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The correct option is (2)

Q. 11
The value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
 Q. 12 Two sides of a parallelogram are along the lines . If the
equation of one of the diagonals of the parallelogram is then other diagonal
passes through the point

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Clearly point of intersection

As diagonals bisect each other, so other diagonal passes through mid point of (i.e.E)

E is
It passes through

The option (2) is correct.

Q. 13 Let and
is a quadratic equation whose roots
are , then the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
The option (1) is correct.

Q. 14 Let be a function defined by

Then which of the following is true?

Option 1:
is continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point in

Option 2:
is differentiable everywhere in

Option 3:
is not continuous exactly at two points in

Option 4:
is continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at two points in

Correct Answer:
is differentiable everywhere in

Solution:
Clearly is differentiable everywhere in

The option (2) is correct.

Q. 15 Let be the set of natural numbers and a relation be defined by

Then the relation R is

Option 1:
Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive

Option 2:
Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive

Option 3:
Reflexive and symmetric, but not transitive

Option 4:
An equivalence relation

Correct Answer:
Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive

Solution:

As so relation is reflexive

Now as so not symmetric

Now

It is not transitive .

The correct option is (2)

Q. 16 Which of the following is the negation of the statement

?

Option 1:
There exists such that

Option 2:
There exists there exists

Option 3:
There exists there exists

Option 4:
There exists

Correct Answer:
There exists such that

Solution:
In negation, one type of quantifier converts to other type

So negation of given statement is

'There exist such that for all

The correct option is (1)

Q. 17 Consider a circle which touches the and cuts off an intercept

Then the radius of the circle is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Using Pythagoras Theorem

The correct option is (2)

Q. 18 Let be three vectors such that . If magnitudes of the

vectors and respectively and the angle between
then the value of is equal to

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

The correct option is (2)

Q. 19 Let be two real matrices such that is invertible matrix. If

then the value of the determinant of the matrix
is equal to:

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 20
Let be twice differentiable function such that for a

differentiable function . If has exactly five distinct roots in (a, b), then
has at least

Option 1:
Twelve roots in (a, b)

Option 2:
Five roots in (a,b)

Option 3:
Seven roots in (a,b)

Option 4:
Three roots in (a, b)

Correct Answer:
Seven roots in (a,b)

Solution:

Now has 5 roots in

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 has at least 4 roots in
has at least 3 roats in
So has at least 7 roots in

The correct option is (3)

Q. 21 Let and
are integers. If
is equal to______

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

......(ii)

Q. 22 The distance of the point from the point of intersection of the line joining the
points and the plane is equal
to_________.

Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Equation of line

Let point of intersection of with given plane be

It lies on plane

Q. 23
If the real part of the complex number is zero, then the
value of is equal to_____.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
 Q. 24 Let be an ellipse whose axes are parallel to the co-ordinates axes, having its center at
, one focus at and one vertex at . If is a
tangent to the ellipse then the value of is equal to__________.

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Any tangent to this ellipse is

Comparing it to given line

 Q. 25
If , then is equal to_________.

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
 Q. 26 The number of real roots of the equation is equal to
____________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
 Q. 27 Let be the solution of the differential equation If
and , then the value of is equal to_______.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

Q. 28 Let be a non-negative integer. Then the number of divisors of the form "4n+1" of the
number is equal to______

Correct Answer:
924

Solution:
Let a divisor be

"4n+1" cannot be even, so no factor of

Power of 5: any number from 0 to 10

Power of 13: any number from 0 to 13

Power of 11:

Total divisors

Q. 29 Let and
, then the sum of all the elements of the set is equal
to__________

Correct Answer:
832

Solution:

Q. 30
If then the sum of all the

elements of the matrix M is equal to________

 Correct Answer:
2020

Solution:

.....

.....

.....

Hence,
Sum of all entries
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