DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

for
NEET - 2024

Set - 11
PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY
[ Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. ] TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 11 [NEET] 2024 [ Max. Marks : 720 ]

INSTRUCTIONS
(i) This Paper has 200 questions. Each subject will consist of two sections.
Section-A will consist of 35 Questions and Section-B will have 15 Questions.
Out of 15 Questions of Section-B, candidates can choose to attempt any
10 Questions. So, the total number of questions and utilization of time will
remain the same.

(ii) The maximum marks for each question is 4.

(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.

(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trigonometric tables is NOT
PERMITTED.

Name of the Candidate : .........................................................................

Roll No. : .........................................................................

Centre Code : .........................................................................

Centre Town : .........................................................................

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DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2024 [SET - 11]
[Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.] Full Marks : 720

04. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted

PHYSICS and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its
new resistance will be :
SECTION-A
(All questions are compulsory) R R
(1) 2 (2) nR (3) (4) n2R
01. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis n n
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 05. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed
is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in in air and then in a medium other than air. It is
between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies
angle 45° with that of P 1 . The intensity of where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive
transmitted light tbhrough P2 is : index of the medium is nearly :
(1) 1.78 (2) 1.25 (3) 1.59 (4) 1.69
I0 I0 I I0
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4) 06. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron
16 2 4 8 differ slightly. One of them is –e, the other is
02. Two block A and B of masses 3m and m (e + e). If the net of electrostatic force and
respectively are connected by a massless and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms
in exte nsible strin g. The w hole system is placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic
suspended by a massless spring as shown in size) apart is zero, then e is of the order of [Given
figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10–27kg]
B immediately after the string is cut, are (1) 10–47 C (2) 10–20 C
respectively : (3) 10–23 C (4) 10–37 C
07. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
g g g
(1) , (2) g, radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius
3 3 3 were halved and the temperature doubled, the
A 3m power radiated in watt would be :
g (1) 1800 (2) 225 (3) 450 (4) 1000
(3) , g (4) g, g
3 B m 08. Assertion : Th e basic differen ce betwe en
03. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the various types of electromagnetic
following diagram. waves lies in their wavelength or
frequencies.
P Reason : El ectromag ne ti c wave s travel
i IV f through vacuum with the same
speed.
I III (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
II 700 K
f 500 K the Reason is the correct explanation of the
f 300 K Assertion.
V (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but the
Match the following : Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Column-I Column-II
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(P) Process I (a) Adiabatic (4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
(Q) Process II (b) Isobaric 09. One end of string of length l is connected to a
(R) Process III (c) Isochoric particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the
(S) Process IV (d) Isothermal
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net
(1) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c force on the particle (directed towards center) will
(2) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b be (T represents the tension in the string)
(3) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b mv2
(1) Zero (2) T (3) T  (4) T + mv2
(4) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a l
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10. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal 14. Preeti reached the metro station and found that
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature the escalator was not working. She walked up the
T (Kelvin) and mass m, is : stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if
she remains stationary on the moving escalator,
2h h then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The
(1) (2)
mkT mkT time taken by her to walk up on the moving
escalator will be :
h 2h
(3) (4) t1  t 2 t1t2 t1t2
3mkT 3mkT (1) t1 – t2 (2) (3) t  t (4) t  t
2 2 1 2 1
11. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length
15. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about
e2 their regular axis passing through centre and
that can be formed out of c, G and is [c is
4  0 perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocity of light, G is universal constant of velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact
gravitation and e is charge] : face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
expression for loss of energy during this process is:
1
1 e2 1  e2  2
I I
(1) G (2) 2  G  (1) (1  2 )2 (2) I(1  2 )2
c 4 0 c  4  0  8 8

I
1 1
(3) I(1  2 )2 (4) I(1 – 2)2
2
 e2  2
1  e2  2
4
(3) c G  (4) 2  
 4 0  c  G4 0  16. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying
12. The net external torque on a system of particle
same current ‘I’ along the same direction is
about an axis is zero.
shown in Fig. Magnitude of force per unit length
(a) The forces may be acting radially from a point on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by :
on the axis.
(b) The forces may be acting on the axis of B d C
rotation. 90°
(c) The forces may be acting parallel to the axis d
of rotation.
(d) The torque caused by some forces may be A
equal and opposite to that caused by other
forces. 0 i2 0 i 2 20 i2 20 i2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Choose the correct option, based on above 2d 2d d d
statements.
17. Two water droplets of radii 0.1 cm. and 0.2 cm.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a) and (d) only collapse into one single drop. What amount of
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) energy is released ? The surface tension of water
1
13. Which of the following statements are correct ? T = 7.2 × 10-2 N m–1. (3 3  1.44)
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with
(1) 4 × 10–8 J (2) 3 × 10–9 J
the centre of gravity of the body.
(3) 6 × 10–7 J (4) 8 × 10–6 J
(b) Centre of gravity of a body is the point at which
the total gravitational torque on the body is 18. Which one of the following represents forward bias
zero. diode ?
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational 3V R 5V
(1)
and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one (2) 0V R –2V
means that small effort can be used to lift a
R
large load. (3) –4V –3V
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
R
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (c) (4) –2V +2V

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19. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer 25. Statement I: All circular motions are necessarily
series and the last line of Lyman series is : periodic motion.
(1) 0.5 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 4 Statement II: Simple pendulum is an example of
20. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it oscillatory motion.
is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fraction (1) Both Statement I and II are correct.
decrease in radius is : (2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
p p B 3p (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) (2) (3) 3p (4) incorrect.
3B B B
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is
21. A 250 – Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm at incorrect.
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA at
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. 26. In the given figure, the magnetic needle has
Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against magnetic moment 4 × 10–2 Am2 and moment of
the torq is : inertia I = 3 × 10–4 kg-m2. It performs 20 complete
oscillations in 15 s. The magnitude of the
(1) 1.15 µJ (2) 9.48 µJ magnetic field is :
(3) 4.55 µJ (4) 2.3 µJ
22. A rope is wound around a hollow cyclinder of mass 
3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled 

with a force of 30 N ? S
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 25 m/s2
(3) 0.25 rad/s2 (4) 25 rad/s2
(1) 0.53 T (2) 0.12 T
23. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere,
is partially filled with water. Oil, which is (3) 3.4 × 10–2 T (4) 7.3 × 10–2 T
immiscible with water, is poured into one side 27. The diagrams be low show reg ions of
until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the equipotentials.
water level on the other side. Meanwhile the
water rises by 65 mm from its original level 20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V
40 V
(see diagram). The density of the oil is : 20 V

A B A B A B A B
Pa Pa
F 10 V
A 10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V 30 V
10 mm (a) (b) (c) (d)
E
Final water level
65 mm A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
D diagram.
Oil Initial water level
(1) Maximum work is required to move q into
65 mm figure (b).
B C (2) Maximum work is required to move q into
figure (c).
Water (3) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
(4) Minimum work is required to move q into
figure (a).
(1) 928 kg m–3 (2) 650 kg m–3
28. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
(3) 425 kg m–3 (4) 800 kg m–3 removed and another identical uncharged
24. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time capacitor is connected in parallel. The total
are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where electrostatic energy of resulting system :
x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The (1) increases by a factor of 2
acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is :
(2) increases by a factor of 4
(1) –8 m/s2 (2) 0
(3) decreases by a factor of 2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) –4 m/s2
(4) remains the same
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29. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit 34. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1g
shown is : falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground
with speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a
16 24
val u e 10 m / s 2 . The work do ne by the (i)
gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of
V
air is :
(1) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J
24 16
(2) (i) –10 J (ii) –8.25 J
(3) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
10V
(4) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(1) 4 V (2) 1 V (3) 2 V (4) 0.5 V
35. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104
30. The acceleration due to gravity at a height
turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a
1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d
coil has 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed
below the surface of earth. Then :
with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis.
1
(1) d = 2 km (2) d  km The current of the solenoid reduces at a constant
2 rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of
3 the coil is 10 2; the total charge flowing through
(3) d = 1 km (4) d  km
2 the coil during the time is :
31. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free
(1) 16 µC (2) 32 µC (3) 16 µC (4) 32 µC
space after having lost contact with their
spaceship. The two will :
(1) will become stationary. PHYSICS
(2) keep floating at the same distance between
them. SECTION-B
(3) move towards each other. (Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(4) move away from each other 36. A beam of light from a source L is incident normal
on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x
32. Figure shows a circuit that contains three from the source. The beam is reflected back as a
identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, spot on scale placed just above the source L. When
two identical inductors with indudctance the mirror is rotated through a smal angle , the
L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf spot of the light is found to move through a
= 18 V. The current ‘i’ through the battery just distance y on the scale. The angle is given by :
after the swtich closed is :
x y y x
(1) 0 ampere (1) y (2) (3) (4) 2y
L R R 2x x
(2) 2 mA +
– 37. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver
(3) 4 A R L C is 3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron
(4) 2 A ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light
of wavelength 2536 × 10–10 m is :
33. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2
respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is (Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
moving with velocity v along X-axis. After collision (1)  0.3 × 106 ms–1 (2)  6 × 104 ms–1
B has a velocity v/3 in a direction perpendicular (3)  0.6 × 106 ms–1 (4)  0.3 × 103 ms–1
downward to the original direction. The mass A
38. Statement I: Each vibrational mode gives two
moves after collision in the direction
degrees of freedom.
1  2  Statement II: By law of equipartition of energy,
(1)   tan   to the X-axis
3 the energy for each degree of freedom in thermal
equilibrium is 2kB T.
1  2 
(2)   tan   to the X-axis (1) Both Statement I and II are correct.
 3 
(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
1  1 
(3)   tan   to the X-axis (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
3 incorrect.
1  1  (4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is
(4)   tan   to the X-axis incorrect.
 3 
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39. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded 45. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at
together as shown in figure. Their thermal one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the
conductivity of the composite rod will be : system ?
(1) 40 Hz (2) 10 Hz (3) 20 Hz (4) 30 Hz
A K1 46. The maximum resultant of two vectors is 26 unit
T1 T2
B K2 and minimum resultant is 16 unit, then the
magnitudes of vectors are :
d
(1) 21, 5 (2) 13, 13
K1  K 2 (3) 20, 6 (4) None of these
(1) 2(K1 + K2) (2)
2 47. Figure shows a uniform rod of mass 3 kg and
length 30 cm. The string shown in figure are
3(K1  K 2 ) pulled by constant forces 20 N and 32 N. The
(3) (4) K1 + K2
2 acceleration of the rod is :
40. Two solid sphere have same mass. Their materials 10cm 20cm
are of densities d 1 and d 2 . The ratio of their A B
moments of inertia about their diameters is:
2 2
 d2  3  d 3
(1)   (2)  1  20N 32N
 d1   d2 
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
d1 d2
(3) d (4) d (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 6 m/s2
2 1
48. A point charge q1 = 9.1C is held fixed at origin. A
41. The given electrical network is equivalent to : second point charge q2 = –0.42 C and a mass
3.2 × 10–4 kg is placed on the x-axis, 0.96 m from
A Y the origin. The second point charge is released
B at rest. What is its speed when it is 0.24 m from
the origin ?
(1) NOT gate (2) AND gate
(1) 14 m/s (2) 26 m/s
(3) OR gate (4) NOR gate
(3) 47 m/s (4) 68 m/s
42. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of
its ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series 49. A particle performs SHM about origin and at t = 0,
and their new force constant is k. Then they are x = 0 and time period = T, then
connected in parallel and force constant is k. Match the Column - I and Column - II.
Then k : k is : Column - I Column - II
(1) 1 : 14 (2) 1 : 6 (A) Max. positive displacement (i) 0
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 11 (B) Max. positive velocity (ii) T/2

43. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10 and 11 . Their (C) Max. negative acceleration (iii) T/4
5 B 5 B
respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 (D) Max. positive acceleration (iv) T
u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find (E) Zero displacement (v) 3T/4
the abundances of 10
and 11
. (1) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (iii), (D)  (v), (E)  (i)
5 B 5 B
(2) (A)  (i), (B)  (iv), (C)  (v), (D)  (iii), (E)  (ii)
(1) 19.9%, 80.1% (2) 11.4%, 88.6%
(3) (A)  (iii), (B)  (i), (iv), (C)  (iii), (D)  (v), (E) 
(3) 6.3%, 9.7% (4) 27.1%, 72.9% (i), (ii), (iv)
44. A pipe 40 cm long is closed at one end. Which (4) (A)  (i), (iii) (B)  (iii), (iv), (C)  (v), (D)  (i), (ii),
harmonic mode of the pipe is resonantly excited (E)  (v), (iv)
by a source of 1452.5 Hz ? (sound velocity in air =
332 ms–1) 50. For an object thrown at 45° to horizontal, the
maximum height (H) and horizontal range (R) are
(1) 7th harmonic (2) 3rd harmonic related as :
(3) 5th harmonic (4) 9th harmonic (1) R = 16H (2) R = 8H (3) R = 4H (4) R = 2H
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 58. Which one is the correct order of acidity ?
CHEMISTRY
(1) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CCH > CHCH
SECTION-A
(2) CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH=CH2 > CH3–CCH > CHCH
(All questions are compulsory)
(3) CHCH > CH3–CCH > CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH3
51. In the electrochemical cell :
(4) CHCH > CH2=CH2 > CH3–CCH > CH3–CH3
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4 (1.0 M)|Cu, the emf
of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration 59. Of the following, which is the product formed when
of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation
changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From followed by heating ?
the followings, which one is the relationship
O
RT
between E1 and E2 ? (Given, = 0.059)
F
(1) (2)
(1) E2 = 0  E1 (2) E1 = E2
(3) E1 < E2 (4) E1 > E2
O O OH
52. The heating phenyl-methyl ether with HI
produces.
(1) benzene (2) ethyl chlorides
(3) (4)
(3) iodobenzene (4) phenol
53. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass =
O OH
9.1 × 10–28 g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104
cm/s accurate upto 0.001% will be (use h/4  in 60. Match Column - I with Column - II
uncertainty expression where h = 6.626 × 10–27
Column - I Column - II
erg-second).
(A) Methanol (p) Conversion of phenol
(1) 1.93 cm (2) 3.84 cm (3) 5.76 cm (4) 7.68 cm
54. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated to o-hydroxybenzoic
container against a constant external pressure acid
of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a (B) Kolbe’s reaction (q) Wood spirit
final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal
energy U of the gas in joules will be : (C) Williamson’s (r) Heated copper at
(1) +505 J (2) 1136.25 J synthesis 573 K
(3) –500 J (4) –505 J (D) Conversion of 2° (s) Reaction of alkyl
55. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the alcohol to ketone halide with sodium
value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be : alkoxide
(1) unchanged (2) doubled (1) (A)  (s), (B)  (r), (C)  (q), (D)  (p)
(3) halved (4) tripled
(2) (A)  (q), (B)  (s), (C)  (p), (D)  (r)
56. The reason for greater range of oxidation states
(3) (A)  (q), (B)  (p), (C)  (s), (D)  (r)
in actinoids is attributed to :
(1) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies (4) (A)  (r), (B)  (q), (C)  (p), (D)  (s)
(2) the radioactive nature of actinoids 61. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
compound is :
(3) actinoid contraction
(1) Cobaltocene (2) Ruthenocen
(4) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable
energies (3) Grignard’s reagent (4) Ferrocene
57. The element Z = 114 belongs to which of the 62. Which of the following reactions is appropriate
fol lowi ng famil y/group and electron ic for converting acetamide to methanamine ?
configuration ? (1) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
(1) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(2) Carbylamine reaction
(2) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5
(3) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
(3) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2
(4) Stephens reaction
(4) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
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63. Concentration of the Ag + ions in a saturated H2O, H 2SO 4
H3C–C – CH intermediate product
solution of Ag 2C 2 O 4 is 2.2 × 10 –4 mol L –1 . HgSO4
(A) (B)
Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is :
(1) A : H3C – C – CH2 B : H3C – C – CH3
(1) 5.3 × 10–12 (2) 2.42 × 10–8
(3) 2.66 × 10–12 (4) 4.5 × 10–11 OH O
64. Identify A and predict the type of reaction (2) A : H3C – C – CH2 B : H3C – C – CH3

OCH3 SO4 O

(3) A : H3C – C – CH2 B : H3C – C – CH2

NaNH 2
A OH SO4
Br (4) A : H3C – C – CH3 B : H3C – C  CH

OCH3 O
68. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the
valence shell to participate in bonding that :
(1) and cine substitution reaction
(1) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
(2) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
(3) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
OCH3
(4) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
69. The polarity of the covalent bond among the following
(2) and substitution reaction is maximum in :
NH2 (1) F – F (1) O – F (3) N – F (4) C – F
70. The species, having bond angles of 120° is :
OCH3 (1) BCl3 (2) PH3
NH2 (3) ClF3 (4) NCl3
(3) and elimination addition 71. Pick out the correct statement with respect to
[Mn(CN)6]3– :
(1) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
OCH3 (2) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Br (3) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
(4) and cine substitution reaction (4) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
72. The compound that reacts the fastest with sodium
methoxide is :
65. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
Cl Cl
X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :
NO2
(i) X2  X + X (fast) (1) (2)
(ii) X + Y2 XY + Y (slow)
(iii) X + Y  XY (fast) NO2 NO2
The overall order of the reaction will be : Cl Cl
(1) 1.5 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 0 (3) (4)
66. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing is depen dent on NO2
temperature ? 73. Which one of the following pairs of species have
(1) Weight percentage (2) Molality the same bond order ?
(3) Molarity (4) Mole fraction (1) N2 , O2 (2) CO, NO
67. Predict the correct intermediate and product in
the following reaction : (3) O2, NO+ (4) CN–, CO
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74. Assertion : [Ti (H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ i s co lou red whi le 79. What is the amount of chlorine evolved when
[Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless. 2 amperes of current is passed for 30 minutes in
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in an aqueous solution of NaCl ?
[Sc(H2O)6]3+. (1) 66 g (2) 1.32 g
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (3) 33 g (4) 99 g
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
80. The equilibrium constants of the following are:
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but N2  3 H2  2 NH3 K1
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. N2  O2  2 NO K2

(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 1

incorrect. H2  O2  H2O K3
2
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction :
correct.
K
75. The correct increasing order of basic strength for 
2NH3  5 2 O2 
 2 NO  3 H2O , will be :
the following compounds is :
(1) K 32 K 3 /K1 (2) K1 K 33 /K 2
NH2 NH2 NH2
(3) K 2 K33 /K1 (4) K2 K3/K1
81. In which pair of ions both the species contain
S—S bond ?

NO2 CH3 (1) S4 O62  , S2O72  (2) S2O72  , S2O32 

(I) (II) (III)
(3) S4 O62  , S2O32  (4) S2O72  , S2O82 
(1) II < I < III (2) II < III < I 82. Given
(3) III < I < II (4) III < II < I Ka
HF  H2O   H3O  F 
76. Name the gas that can readily decolourise
acidified to KMnO4 solution : Kb
F   H2O   HF  OH
(1) P2O5 (2) CO2
Which of the following relation is correct
(3) SO2 (4) N2O5
77. Ozo noly sis products of 2-pe ntyn e after 1
(1) Kb = Kw (2) K b  K
decomposition of ozonide with water and w
subsequent oxidation are :
Ka
(1) Ethanoic acid and propanoic acid (3) Ka × Kb = Kw (4)  Kw
Kb
(2) Ethanoic acid and propanone
(3) Ethanoic acid – Base
83. HO + N2 Cl X is :
(4) Formic acid and glyoxal
78. The IUPAC name of the compound is _______ .
(1) N== N OH
O O
C
H
is _________ . (2) O

(1) 3–keto–2-methylhex-5-enal (3)

(2) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(3) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(4) OH
(4) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
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84. Which one is the wrong statement ? OH
(1) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy OH
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.

h (3) (4)
(2) de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by   ,
mv
where m = mass of the particle, v = group NO2
velocity of the particle. 88. For a given reaction, H = 35.53 kJ mol–1 and
S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous
(3) The uncertainty principle is E  t  h 4
at : (Assume that H and S do not vary with
(4) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater temperature)
stability due to greater exchange energy, (1) T > 298 K (2) T < 425 K
gre ater symmetry an d mo re balan ced
(3) T > 425 K (4) all temperatures
arrangement.
89. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate
85. The correct statement regarding electrophile is :
of 10–2 sec–1. How much time will it take for
(1) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g ?
charged species and can form a bond by
(1) 693.0 sec (2) 238.6 sec
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(3) 138.6 sec (4) 346.5 sec
(2) Electrophile is a negatively charged species
and can form a bond by accepting a pair of 90. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which
electrons from a nucleophile the following statements is true ?
(3) Electrophile is a negatively charged species (1) Both bond angles and bond length remain
and can form a bond by accepting a pair of same.
electrons from another electrophile (2) Bond angle remains same but bond length
(4) Electrophiles are generally neutral species changes.
and can form a bond by accepting a pair of (3) Bond angle changes but bond length remain
electrons from a nucleophile same
(4) Both bond angle and bond length change
CHEMISTRY 91. The maximum number of molecules are present
in :
SECTION-B
(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP (2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas (4) 10 g of O2 gas
86. Match the laws given in the Column - I with
92. Which of the following pairs of compound is
expression given in Column - II.
isoelectronic and isostructural ?
Column - I Column - II
(1) IF3, XeF2 (2) BeCl2, XeF2
(A) Henry’s law (p) Tf = Kfm
(B) Elevation of boiling point (q)  = CRT (3) TeI2, XeF2 (4) IBr2 , XeF2
(C) Depression in freezing point (r) Tb = Kbm 93. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I
(D) Osmotic pressure (s) P = KHx with the geometry in column II and assign the
correct code. [X is halogen]
(1) (A)  (s), (B)  (r), (C)  (p), (D)  (q)
Column I Column II
(2) (A)  (q), (B)  (r), (C)  (q), (D)  (s)
(a) XX (i) T-shape
(3) (A)  (p), (B)  (s), (C)  (r), (D)  (q)
(4) (A)  (s), (B)  (p), (C)  (q), (D)  (r) (b) XX'3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
87. Which one is the most acidic compound ? (c) XX'5 (iii) Linear
(d) XX'7 (iv) Square-Pyramidal
OH OH
(v) Tetrahedral
O2N NO2
(1) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-i)
(1) (2) (2) (a-iii); (b-iv); (c-i); (d-ii)
(3) (a-iii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-ii)
NO2 CH3 (4) (a-v); (b-iv); (c-iii); (d-ii)
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94. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
BOTANY
(1) Steam distillation (2) Sublimation SECTION-A
(3) Chromatography (4) Crystallisation (All questions are compulsory)
95. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl 101. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
formed with AgNO3 in excess is treated with the indicates :
complex es : CoCl 3  6NH 3 , Co Cl 3  5NH 3 , (1) The DNA double helix is exposed.
CoCl3  4NH3 respectively is :
(2) Transcription is occuring.
(1) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(3) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(4) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
(3) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
102. An example of colonial alga is :
(4) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(1) Spirogyra (2) Chlorella
96. The incorrect statement about conformations :
(3) Volvox (4) Ulothrix
(1) Al kane s have i nfi nite number of
103. Coconut fruit is a :
conformations.
(1) Capsule(2) Drupe (3) Berry (4) Nut
(2) Rotation around a “C—C” single bond is
completely free. 104. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia
enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called :
(3) Repulsive interaction between adjacent bonds
is known as torsional strain. (1) Scutellum (2) Coleoptile
(4) All of these. (3) Coleorhiza (4) Epiblast
105. Which of the following components provides sticky
character to the bacterial cell ?
97. The radiacal, CH2 is aromatic
(1) Glycocalyx (2) Cell wall
(3) Nuclear membrane (4) Plasma membrane
because it has
106. Mycorrhizae are the example of :
(1) 7 p-prbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(1) Mutualism (2) Fungistasis
(2) 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(3) Amensalism (4) Antibiosis
(3) 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
107. Segregation of mendelian factor occurs in which
(4) 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons.
stage :
98. IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon (A) is
(1) Prophase I (2) Anaphase I
CH3 (3) Metaphase I (4) Telophase I
108. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
(1) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no
C2H5 chloroplasts.
(1) 2 – ethyl-5-methylhexane (2) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large
(2) 5-ethyl-2-methylhexane number of chloroplasts.
(3) 2,5 - dimethylheptane (3) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several
chloroplasts.
(4) 2, 5 - dimethyl-5-ethylpentane
(4) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
99. The enthalpies of formation of all elements in
few chloroplasts
their standard states are
109. At asymptote stage, the population is :
(1) unity
(2) zero (1) Stabilised (2) Increasing
(3) < 0 (3) Extinct (4) Decreasing
(4) different for each element 110. Which of the following is made up of dead cells ?
100. Kb for trimethylamine is 6.5 × 10–5. Calculate Ka (1) Phloem parenchyma
for trimethyl ammonium ion (CH3)3NH+. (2) Xylem parenchyma
(1) 1 × 10–14 (2) 1.54 × 10–10 (3) Collenchyma
(3) 7.5 × 10 –5 (4) 7.5 × 10–14 (4) Phellem
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111. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Mycobacteria (2) Archaebacteria
(3) Eubacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
112. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea ?
(1) Pod - Inflated or Constricted
(2) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
(3) Trichomes - Glandular or non-glandular
(4) Seed - Green or Yellow
113. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ?
(1) Lake ecosystem
(2) Forest ecosystem
(3) Grassland ecosystem
(4) Pond ecosystem
114. In the give n co lumn s, column-I contain
complexes and column-II contain their alternative Which of the following option shows the correct
names. Select the correct match from the option labelling of P, Q and R ?
given below. P Q R
Column-I Column-II (1) C3 acid Reduction C4 acid

A. Complex I I. Cytochrome bc1 complex (2) Fixation C4 acid Regeneration

(3) C4 acid Decarboxylation C3 acid
B. Complex II II. NADH dehydrogenase
(4) Carboxylation C3 acid Reduction
C. Complex III III. ATP synthetase
119. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
D. Complex IV IV. FADH2 dehydrogenase
(1) Leaf (2) Stipules
V. Cytochrome c oxidase (3) Adventitious root (4) Axillary bud
(1) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV 120. Sharp-pointed structures of Bougainvillea are :
(2) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – IV (1) Modified leaves
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V (2) Modified axillary buds
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – V (3) Called stipular spine
115. Viroids differ from viruses in having : (4) Superficial outgrowth of stem
(1) RNA molecules without protein coat 121. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(2) DNA molecules with protein coat (1) Cleistogamy (2) Anemophily
(3) Entomophily (4) Hydrophily
(3) DNA molecules without protein coat
122. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and
(4) RNA molecules with protein coat are packed into inflorescence are usually
116. Which among the following are the smallest living pollinated by :
cells, known without a definite cell wall, (1) Bat (2) Water (3) Bee (4) Wind
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can 123. Statement I : Peptide bonds are present is
survive without oxygen ? polysaccharide.
(1) Nostoc (2) Bacillus Statement II : Glycosidic bonds are present in
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Mycoplasma protein.
117. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
prevented by the application of : incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Gibberellic acid (2) Cytokinins
incorrect.
(3) Ethylene (4) Auxins (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
118. The given figure sh ows the diag ramatic correct.
representation of the Hatch & Slack pathway few (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
labelling are marked as P, Q and R. correct.
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124. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 (3) Plasto quinones
acceptor in : (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) C3 and C4 plants (2) C3 plants 133. Two cytokinins are kinetin and Zeatin. What is
(3) C4 plants (4) C2 plants the difference between the two ?
125. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both : (1) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin
(1) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (2) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin
(2) Autogamy and xenogamy (3) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and kinetin is
(3) Autogamy and geitonogamy naturally occuring
(4) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (4) Zeatin is a naturally occuring plant cytokinin,
kinetin is not
126. Natural auxins are :
134. Match the Columns.
(1) IAA (2) IBA
Column I Column II
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) 2, 4-D
(a) Condensation of (i) Prophase
127. Double fertilization is exhibited by : chromatin
(1) Angiosperms (2) Gymnosperms (b) Disintegration of (ii) Telophase
(3) Algae (4) Fungi spindle fibres
128. Coralloid roots of _____ have symbiotic association (c) Synaptonemal (iii) Zygotene
with N2-fixing cyanobacteria complex formation
(1) Pinus (2) Cedrus (d) Recombinase (iv)Pachytene
enzyme activity
(3) Cycas (4) Ginkgo
(1) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)
129. Mycorrhizal roots of ______ are associated with
some fungal symbionts (2) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iv), (d-iii)
(3) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv)
(1) Pinus (2) Cedrus
(4) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)
(3) Cycas (4) Ginkgo
135. In non-cyclic photo phosphorylation, the last
130. Read the following statements and choose the
electron acceptor is :
correct option.
(1) NADP+ (2) NAD+ (3) ADP (4) H2O
A. Main axis continues to grow, flowers are born
laterally in a basipetal order.
B. Main axis terminates into a flower, flowers are BOTANY
borne in a acropetal manner.
(1) A is true for Racemose SECTION-B
(2) B is true for cymose (Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(3) A is true for cymose 136. With reference to factors affecting the rate
photosynthesis, which of the following statement
(4) Both the statements are incorrect is not correct ?
131. Assertion (A) : Class is more general as compared (1) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can grown
to kingdom.
in CO2-enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
Reason (R) : Phylum is less general as compared
(2) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs 10%
to order.
of full sunlight.
(1) If both A and R is correct and R is the correct
explanation of A. (3) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up
to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(2) If both A and R is correct but R is not correct
explanation of A. (4) C3 plants respond to higher temperature with
(3) If A is correct but R is incorrect. enhanced photosynthesis when C4 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(4) If both A and R is incorrect.
137. Select the mismatch :
132. Which one of the following structures between
two adjacent cells is an effective transport (1) Equisetum — Homosporous
pathway ? (2) Pinus — dioecious
(1) Plasmalemma (3) Cycas — Dioecious
(2) Plasmodesmata (4) Salvinia — Heterosporous
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138. Match the following : 144. If both parents are carriers for thalassaemia,
which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what
are the chances of preganancy resulting in an
affected child ?
(1) 25% (2) 100%
(3) No chance (4) 50%

145. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(A) (B) (C)
(1) Meristematic activity
(2) Maturation
(1) (A) – Tobacco mosaic virus, (B) – coccus,
(3) Elongation
(C) – Bacillus
(4) Root cap
(2) (A) – Coccus, (B) – Bacillus, (C) – Tabacco mosaic
virus 146. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
from the experiments of :
(3) (A) – Bacillus, (B) – Coccus, (C) – Tobacco mosaic
(1) Hargobind Khorana
virus
(2) Griffith
(4) (A) – Coccus, (B) – Tobacco mosaic virus,
(C) – Bacillus (3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
139. Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross
pri mary pro ductivity mi nus 147. What is the codon for threonine amino acids ?
respiratory loss. (1) ACU (2) ACG
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced (3) ACC (4) All of the above
by heterotrophs. 148. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but conservation of threatened animals and plants?
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) Himalayan region
Assertion. (2) Wildlife Safari parks
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct. (3) Biodiversity hot spots
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct. (4) Amazon rainforest
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 149. Many membrane bound minute vesicles are
Reason is the correct explanation of the called ________ .
Assertion. (1) Inclusion bodies (2) Ribosomes
140. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first (3) Microbodies (4) All of the above
time:
150. Which one from those given below is the period
(1) Population Growth equation for Mendel’s hybridization experiments ?
(2) Ecological Biodiversity (1) 1870 – 1877 (2) 1856 – 1863
(3) Laws of limiting factor (3) 1840 – 1850 (4) 1857 – 1869
(4) Species area relationships
141. Identify the given floral formula :
ZOOLOGY
 O K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)
+
SECTION-A
(1) Mustard (2) Trifolium
(All questions are compulsory)
(3) Lupin (4) Tulip
151. Assertion : Heart failure is not the same as
142. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel cardiac arrest or heart attack.
can be visualised after staining with :
Reason : Normal activities of the heart are
(1) Ethidium bromide (2) Bromophenol blue
autoregulated by specialised muscle.
(3) Acetocarmine (4) Aniline blue
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
143. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
position 901 is deleted such that the length of
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons with
altered ? (3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(1) 333 (2) 1 (3) 11 (4) 33 (4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
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152. The function of copper ions in copper releasing (2) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
IUD’s is : chain synthesis.
(1) They inhibit ovulation. (3) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
(2) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising chain synthesis.
capacity of sperms. (4) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
(3) They inhibit gametogenesis. molecules.
(4) Th ey make uterus unsu itable for 159. The chemical substances released by activated
implantation. spermatazoa that acts on the ground substance
of follicle cells is known as :
153. Mushroom gland is/are :
(1) progesterone (2) Relaxin
I. Present in 6th – 7th thoracic segment
II. Present in 6th – 7th abdominal segment (3) Hyaluronidase (4) Gonadotropin

III. Contains small & long tubules. 160. The genotypes of a Husband & Wife are IAIB an IAi.

IV. Storage site of sperm. Among the blood types of their children how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible
Choose the correct answer for given.
(1) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(1) I & II (2) II & III (3) III & IV (4) I & IV
(2) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
154. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(Column – I) w ith the ir causative age nt (3) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(Column – II) and select the correct option. (4) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
Column - I Column - II 161. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing cell org anel les is
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV responsible for extracting energy from
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria carbohydrates to form ATP ?
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema (1) Mitochondrion (2) Lysosome
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma (3) Ribosome (4) Chloroplast
-Virus 162. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body
is :
(1) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-i)
(1) Salivary gland (2) Pineal gland
(2) (a-ii); (b-iii); (c-iv); (d-i)
(3) (a-iii); (b-iv); (c-i); (d-ii) (3) Pancreas (4) Corpus luteum
(4) (a-iv); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-i) 163. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due
to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which
155. MALT constitutes about _________ percent of the
type of immune-response is responsible for such
lymphoid tissue in human body.
rejections ?
(1) 10% (2) 50% (3) 20% (4) 70%
(1) Physiological immune response
156. Which of the following is correctly matched for
the product produced by them ? (2) Autoimmune response
(1) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (3) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics (4) Hormonal immune response
(3) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid 164. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with
flagellated cells called :
(4) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(1) mesenchymal cells (2) ostia
157. DNA fragments are :
(1) Either positively or negatively charged (3) oscula (4) choanocytes
depending on their size 165. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) Positively charged (1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(3) Negatively charged permeable to electrolytes.
(4) Neutral (2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
158. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused
due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. (3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
Select the correct statement. impermeable to water.
(1) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative (4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
problem of globin molecules. permeable to water.
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166. The fleshy folds of tisue which extend down from 173. Match the following.
the mons pubis is : (a) Clitellum (i) 7 th stern um of
(1) Labia minora (2) Hymen cockroach.
(3) Labia majora (4) Myometrium (b) Boat shaped (ii) 14th to 16th segment.
167. Increase in bleeding time and delay in blood (c) Summer sleep (iii)Hibernation.
coagulation is due to the deficiency of which
(d) Winter sleep (iv) Aestivation.
hormone ?
(1) Adrenaline (2) Noradrenaline (1) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)

(3) Parathormone (4) Thyroxine (2) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)

168. Myelin sheath is produced by : (3) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iv), (d-iii)
(1) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes (4) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv)
(2) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes 174. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
reproduction, acts on :
(3) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
(4) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts (1) posterior pituitary gland and stimualte
secretion of LH and relaxin.
169. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs
are true ribs. Select the option that correctly (2) anterior pitui tary gland and stimulate
represents values of X and Y and provides their secretion of LH and oxytocin.
explanation : (3) anterior pitui tary gland and stimulate
(1) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally secretion of LH and FSH.
attache d to vertebral (4) posterior pituitary gland and stimulate
column but are free on secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
ventral side.
175. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
(2) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
dorsall y to vertebral
explanation for this feature ?
column and ventrally to
the sternum. (a) They do not need to reproduce
(3) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached (b) They are somatic cells
dorsall y to vertebral
(c) They do not metabolize
column and sternum on
the two ends. (d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
(4) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally transport
attache d to vertebral Options :
column but are free on
(1) (b) and (c) (2) Only (d)
ventral side.
170. All have evolved from “Sauropsids” except. (3) Only (a) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) Vipera (2) Balaenoptera
(3) Psittacula (4) Aptenodytes 176.
171. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) ADH A B C

(2) Renin Identify the skull of adult Chimpanzee & adutl

(3) Atrial Natriuretic Factor modern human respectively
(4) Aldosterone (1) A & B (2) B & C
172. Choose the incorrect matching. (3) C & A (4) A & C
(1) Annelids & Mollusca — O pen circulatory 177. Which among these is the correct combination
system of aquatic mammals ?
(2) Land snail, Birds — Uricotelic animals (1) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(3) Cornea — Anterior portion of (2) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
sclera (3) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(4) Humoral immunity — B-lymphocyte. (4) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
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178. Choose the correct pair.
ZOOLOGY
(1) Out crossing — used for increasing
economic value. SECTION-B
(2) Cross breeding — used for commercial (Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
production 186. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are
(3) Interspecific — used for milk used to elongate :
hybridisation production (1) The lagging strand away from the replication
(4) None of the above fork.
179. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of: (2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(1) saddle joint (2) fibrous joint (3) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
(3) cartilaginous joint (4) synovial joint (4) All of the above
180. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present 187. Which of the following options gives the correct
on : sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) post-synaptic membrane (1) condensation  arrangement at equator 
(2) membranes of synaptic vesicles cen tromere divi sion  segregation 
(3) pre-synaptic membrane telophase
(4) tips of axons (2) con densatio n  nu clear me mbrane
disassembly  crossing over  segregation
181. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli.
 telophase
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of : (3) con densatio n  nu clear me mbrane
(1) Expiratory Reserve Volume disassembly  arrangement at equator 
cen tromere divi sion  segregation 
(2) Residual Volume telophase
(3) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (4) condensation  crossing over  nuclear
(4) Tidal Volume membran e di sassembl y  segre gati on
182. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from: telophase.
(1) Intestine (2) Heart 188. Which drug is used as medicine to help patients
(3) Hepatic (4) Kidneys cope with depression and insommia?
183. Assertion : All locomotions are movement but all (1) Morphine (2) Amphetamines
movement are not locomotions. (3) Barbiturate (4) Both (2) and (3)
Reason : Locomotions result in a change of place 189. Statement I: Curdiling of milk, LAB also improve
or location. its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Statement II: LAB, when present in human
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. stomach, check disease causing microbes.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but (1) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect. incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
184. Which produces butyric acid industrially ? correct.
(1) Trichoderma (4) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(2) Oscillatoris butylicum 190. Which one is natural contraceptive method?
(3) Botrylis butylicum
(1) Periodic abstinence
(4) Clostriderim butylicum
(2) Condom
185. Which among them is a characteristi c of
chordata? (3) Cu-T
(1) Dorsal heart (4) LNG-20
(2) Gut is dorsal to nerve cord 191. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of :
(3) Central nervous system is solid (1) Bacteria (2) Plants
(4) Post anal part (tail) is present (3) Fungi (4) Animals
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192. Wh at i s th e criterion for DNA fragmen ts 196. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an
movemen t on agarose gel during gel evidence in favour of
electrophoresis ? (1) Special creation
(1) Negatively charged fragments do not move (2) Biogeographical evolution
(2) The larger the fragment size, the farther (3) Retrogressive evolution
moves
(4) Evolution due to mutation
(3) The smaller the fragment size, the farther
moves 197. The process of separation and purification
expressed protein before marketing is called :
(4) Positively charged fragments move to farther
end (1) Postproduction processing
193. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle ? (2) Upstream processing
(1) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl (3) Downstream processing
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield (4) Bioprocessing
citric acid
198. Darwin’s Finches are an excellent example of :
(2) There are three points in the cycle where
NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ (1) Brood parasitism
(3) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is (2) Connecting links
reduced to FADH2 (3) Adaptive radiation
(4) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic (4) Seasonal migration
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
199. Choose the correct statement for anatomy of frog.
194. Which of the following RNAs should be most
(1) Oesophagus is short.
abundant in animal cell ?
(2) Chyme is partially digested food.
(1) mi-RNA (2) r-RNA (3) t-RNA (4) m-RNA
(3) Bilobed tongue is present.
195. Statement I: ‘Saheli’ is an oral pill which has
low contraception value and very high side (4) Forebrain include olfactory lobe, paired
effects. cerebral hemisphere and paired diencephalon.
Statement II: ‘Saheli’ was developed by scientists 200. Which of the following in sewage treatment
at CDRI in LUCKNOW. removes suspended solids ?
(1) Both Statement I and II are incorrect. (1) Sludge treatment
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) Tertiary treatment
incorrect. (3) Secondary treatment
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) Primary treatment
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct.

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 DPP FOR NEET- 2024 [SET - 11]
ANS. KEY
01. (4) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (1)
02. (3) 42. (4) 82. (3) 122. (4) 162. (4)
03. (3) 43. (1) 83. (1) 123. (1) 163. (3)
04. (4) 44. (1) 84. (1) 124. (3) 164. (4)
05. (1) 45. (3) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (2)
06. (4) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (3)
07. (1) 47. (3) 87. (1) 127. (1) 167. (3)
08. (1) 48. (2) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (2)
09. (2) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (1) 169. (2)
10. (3) 50. (3) 90. (1) 130. (4) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (4) 91. (1) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12. (4) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (2) 172. (1)
13. (2) 53. (1) 93. (3) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (4) 94. (1) 134. (1) 174. (3)
15. (3) 55. (1) 95. (4) 135. (1) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (4) 176. (3)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (2) 177. (4)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (2) 178. (2)
19. (4) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (1) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (3) 100. (2) 140. (4) 180. (1)
21. (2) 61. (3) 101. (4) 141. (1) 181. (2)
22. (4) 62. (3) 102. (3) 142. (1) 182. (1)
23. (1) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (4) 183. (1)
24. (4) 64. (2) 104. (2) 144. (1) 184. (4)
25. (4) 65. (1) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (1) 66. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (1)
27. (3) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (4) 187. (3)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (4) 109. (1) 149. (3) 189. (4)
30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (1)
31. (3) 71. (4) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (1)
32. (3) 72. (1) 112. (3) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (1) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (2)
35. (4) 75. (1) 115. (1) 155. (2) 195. (3)
36. (2) 76. (3) 116. (4) 156. (1) 196. (2)
37. (3) 77. (1) 117. (4) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (3) 158. (4) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (4) 159. (3) 199. (4)
40. (1) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (4) 200. (4)
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