Financial Management Question Bank 2021
Financial Management Question Bank 2021
Financial
Management
Question Bank
For exams in 2021
icaew.com
Financial Management
The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ISBN: 978-1-5097-3315-6
Previous ISBN: 978-1-5097-2782-7
eISBN: 978-1-5097-3270-8
First edition 2007
Fourteenth edition 2020
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a
retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, graphic, electronic or
mechanical including photocopying, recording, scanning or otherwise, without the
prior written permission of the publisher.
The content of this publication is intended to prepare students for the ICAEW
examinations, and should not be used as professional advice.
British Library Cataloguing-in-Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library.
Contains public sector information licensed under the Open Government Licence
v3.0.
Originally printed in the United Kingdom on paper obtained from traceable,
sustainable sources.
© ICAEW 2020
Contents
The following questions are exam-standard. They are not the original questions from the exams. The
marking guides provided with the answers are illustrative to help students understand how marks
may be allocated in the exam and to identify gaps in their answers.
22 Loxwood 45 60 35 208
Risk management
Appendices
CAPM 1i 13,14,15,16,19,35,38,41,47, 3, 6
53,55,68,71
Cryptocurrency 2d 26,29,69 10
Ethics 1c 19,22,23,24,32,34,39,40,43, 1, 4
46,50,52,55,59,61,65,67,72
Gearing 1h 24,53,65,68 6
Loan covenants 1e 16 4
Risk 3d 4,7,8,19,47,64,70 2, 3
The Financial Management exam requires you to attempt three questions (one from each syllabus
area) in 2.5 hours. Managing financial risk will be assessed as a discrete topic. The other two
questions will assess financing options and investment decisions and valuation either as discrete or
integrated topics. Being disciplined, reading both the scenario and the requirement carefully, and
keeping track of time will mean that you work effectively within time constraints, which will offer you
the best chance of passing. It is important that you use your time efficiently to make sure you
understand the business or situation presented in the question and identify the information that is
relevant to each of the individual requirements.
A key aspect to this skill is in ensuring that you have an accurate understanding of the precise
meaning of each requirement within a question, and do not make the common mistake of
reproducing answers to previous exam questions that were similar, but different, to the question
being answered. This is especially important in discussion questions.
Each scenario will be different, so you need to practise a wide variety of questions in order to be able
to identify and accurately apply relevant technical knowledge and skills to analyse a specific
problem. This will help you to demonstrate the skill of being able to structure information from
various sources into suitable formats for analysis and provide pragmatic solutions in a business
environment.
Often the required technique will be specified but questions may also require you to identify the
technique that needs to be applied.
In the Financial Management exam, you are often asked to provide advice to the board. To be able to
do this successfully you need to demonstrate that you can apply your technical knowledge, skills and
experience to support reason-based conclusions and formulate advice based on valid evidence.
Examples of this include:
• ensuring that advice relates to the question scenario wherever possible; and
• demonstrating an understanding of the meaning and relevance of any financial calculations on
which the recommendations are based.
The ability to communicate clearly in a manner suitable for the recipient is also important.
Units
Year to 31 March 20X4 65,000
Year to 31 March 20X5 110,000
Year to 31 March 20X6 55,000
Year to 31 March 20X7 15,000
As a result of these estimates SGS’s directors are concerned about the riskiness of the proposal and
so wish to appraise the investment in Inca speakers over a three-year period only (ie, to 31 March
20X6).
Costs
The estimated variable costs (at 31 March 20X3 prices) of manufacturing one Inca unit are:
£
Raw materials 43
Variable overheads 45
Skilled labour (£9/hour) 18
Because of a lack of skilled labour, SGS will have to transfer all of the skilled production hours
required to manufacture the Inca away from the manufacture of another, lower specification speaker,
the Boom-Boom. Thus a proportion of the Boom-Boom production would have to cease. Current
production details for the Boom-Boom (at 31 March 20X3 prices) are shown below:
Per unit
£
Selling price 99
Raw materials 28
Variable overheads 35
Skilled labour (£9/hour) 9
SGS’s directors estimate that the company’s total fixed overheads are unlikely to change as a result of
manufacturing the Inca, but will nonetheless apportion a share of SGS’s existing fixed costs at a rate
of £27 per Inca unit (at 31 March 20X3 prices). However this does not include the depreciation
2 Profitis plc
Profitis plc has a continuing need for a machine. At the level of intensity of use by the company, after
four years from new the machine is not capable of efficient working. It has been the company’s
practice to replace it every four years. The production manager has pointed out that in the fourth
year the machine needs additional maintenance to keep it working at normal efficiency. The question
has therefore arisen as to whether to replace it after three years instead of the usual four years.
3 Horton plc
3.1 The objective of the directors of Horton plc (Horton) is the maximisation of shareholder wealth.
The directors are currently considering Horton’s capital investment strategy for 20Y0. Five
potential investment projects have been identified, each one having an expected life of four
years. However, at this stage the directors are uncertain of the precise financial situation the
company will be in on 31 December 20X9 when it will actually make its chosen investments.
The company accountant has already undertaken net present value calculations for each of the
five potential investment projects as follows:
Whilst these net present value calculations include the impact of corporation tax, which the
company pays at 17%, they do not include the effect of capital allowances. Project 3 is the only
project that will attract capital allowances and these allowances will apply just to the initial £3
million investment. The allowances will be at a rate of 18% per annum on a reducing balance
basis, commencing in the year of initial investment, with either a balancing charge or
T0 T1 T2 T3 T4
Project 1 (2,400,000) (750,000) 300,000 4,200,000 3,450,000
Project 2 (2,250,000) (750,000) 1,800,000 900,000 450,000
Project 3 (3,000,000) (1,500,000) 3,750,000 3,750,000 3,750,000
Project 4 (2,630,000) 750,000 1,650,000 2,100,000 1,500,000
Project 5 (3,750,000) 1,050,000 1,350,000 1,950,000 250,000
Project 3’s T4 cashflow of £3.75 million includes disposal proceeds of £1 million relating to the
assets originally purchased on 31 December 20X9 for £3 million.
To reflect the uncertainty regarding Horton’s financial position at the end of 20X9, four
potential scenarios have been identified for consideration:
Scenario 1: Horton will face no capital rationing and the five projects will be independent and
divisible.
Scenario 2: Horton’s available capital for investment at T0 will be limited to £4.5 million; the five
projects will be independent and divisible and none of the projects can be delayed.
Scenario 3: Horton’s available capital for investment at T0 will not be limited, but its available
capital for investment at T1 will be limited to £0.3 million; the five projects will be independent
and divisible and none of the projects can be delayed.
Scenario 4: Horton’s available capital for investment at T0 will be limited to £5.25 million, and
whilst the five projects will be independent and none of the projects can be delayed, they will
be indivisible.
One director has indicated that he wishes to discuss the possibility of leasing some of the
assets that would be required as a result of these investment projects in preference to outright
purchase of the assets.
Requirement
(a) Calculate the revised net present value of Project 3 at 31.12.X9 taking account of the
capital allowances attributable to that project.
(4 marks)
(b) For each of the four scenarios, prepare calculations which show the proportion of each
project that should be undertaken.
(12 marks)
(c) Discuss the potential attractions of lease finance over outright purchase of an asset.
(3 marks)
3.2 The managing director of one of Horton’s subsidiary companies has approached Horton’s
finance director for advice. On 31 December 20X9 the subsidiary company will be replacing its
three existing company cars with brand new vehicles. The managing director wishes to know
whether to replace these new vehicles every one, two or three years from now on. He has
provided the following background information:
(1) Each new car will cost £11,000.
(2) Resale values for each car (assumed to be received in cash on the last day of the year to
which they relate) are estimated to be £7,000 after one year, £4,200 after two years and
£1,800 after three years.
(3) Annual running costs for each car (assumed to be paid on the last day of the year to which
they relate) are estimated at £6,600 in the first year of ownership, £7,600 in the second
year and £9,200 in the third year.
(b) Outline the limitations of the method used in answering 3.2(a) above.
(6 marks)
Total: 30 marks
4 ProBuild plc
ProBuild plc (ProBuild) runs a network of builders’ merchants in northern England. The company has
a small subsidiary, Cabin Ltd (Cabin) that hires out various types of portable cabin used on building
sites. In recent years, Cabin’s performance (relative to that of ProBuild’s core business) has been
disappointing and the directors of ProBuild have decided that they should focus resources on their
core operations and dispose of Cabin.
Having advertised the business for sale, ProBuild has now been approached by the directors of
Brixham plc (Brixham) with an offer to buy Cabin on 31 December 20X3. Brixham has agreed, in
principle, to pay ProBuild the net present value (as at 31 December 20X3) of the projected
incremental net cash flows of Cabin over the four-year period to 31 December 20X7.
You have been asked by Brixham’s directors to calculate an appropriate purchase price using the
following information which has been provided by ProBuild and verified by independent
accountants:
(1) All cash flows can be assumed to occur at the end of the relevant year unless otherwise stated.
(2) Inflation is expected to average 2% pa for all costs and revenues.
(3) The real discount rates applicable to the appraisal of this investment are:
20X4: 5%
20X5: 6%
20X6: 7%
20X7: 7%
(4) During the past five years, Cabin’s annual revenue (at 31 December 20X3 prices) has been
extremely volatile, having peaked at £2 million in one year, whilst falling to a low of £1.2 million
in another year.
(5) During the past five years, Cabin’s variable costs have been similarly volatile, being as low as
25% of annual revenue in one year, whilst having been as high as 30% of annual revenue in
another year. There has been no direct correlation between annual revenue and variable costs
during the past five years.
(6) It has been estimated that under Brixham’s ownership, annual fixed costs will be £0.6 million (at
31 December 20X3 prices), including a share of Brixham’s existing head office costs equal to
£0.25 million.
(7) Working capital equal to 8% of Cabin’s annual revenue for that year must be in place by the start
of the year concerned and, for the purposes of the calculation of a purchase price, it can be
assumed to be released in full on 31 December 20X7.
(8) Cabin has an existing commitment (which Brixham would have to honour as a condition of its
purchase of Cabin) to make a substantial investment of £1.5 million in new plant and equipment
on 31 December 20X3. This equipment is expected to have a useful working life of four years, at
which time it is estimated that it will be disposed of for a sum of £100,000 (at 31 December 20X7
prices).
To: A Newman
From: Diana Marshall
Date: Friday, 5 September
As you are aware, our chief accountant, John Smith, left Frome Lee earlier this week following a
disagreement over company policy.
As a result we desperately need financial advice from you. We are considering the purchase of
capital equipment for the manufacture of a new radio, The Pink ‘Un. Our marketing team feels that
we would have a competitive advantage with this new radio for three years. Mr Smith had
prepared some estimated figures which we were going to consider at our next meeting on
Monday and he left some of them behind. You will find my summary of them (with some of my
notes) in the Appendix below. We would want to purchase the equipment at the end of our
financial year on 30 September, commence production very soon after and sell the equipment at
the end of September 20Y1.
The board would like to consider a complete set of figures and your recommendations over the
weekend so that we can reach a prompt decision on Monday. Apologies for giving you so little
time, but we don’t want to miss what could be a valuable investment opportunity for the company.
Diana Marshall
Notes
(1) As you can see, I don’t know the estimated sales figures, but we always make sure that we have
sufficient working capital, based on 10% of the annual sales, in place at the beginning of the
relevant year. All working capital will be recovered at the end of September 20Y1. We need to
know the missing figures for (a) annual sales (for 20X9–20Y1) and (b) working capital (for 20X9)
from this information.
(2) We always estimate labour costs at 50% of material costs.
(3) When discounting, we use a real cost of capital figure of 5% and make adjustments for inflation
when necessary. The figures in the appendix above are all in money terms and I’d like you to use
the following annual rates of general price inflation when working out the present values of the
estimated cash flows:
%
Year to 30 September 20X9 3
Year to 30 September 20Y0 3
Year to 30 September 20Y1 4
I’m not sure how accurate our cost of capital is, but I did read the other day that if a business uses the
wrong cost of capital figure ‘it destroys shareholder value’.
Capital allowances
The equipment would attract capital allowances, but would be excluded from the general pool.
Assume that this means that it attracts 18% (reducing balance) tax allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year. In the
final year, the difference between the equipment’s written down value for tax purposes and its
disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either as a:
• balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; orb
• balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
The corporation tax rate can be assumed to be 17% over the next three years.
Requirements
5.1 Calculate the net present value at 30 September 20X8 of proceeding with production of The
Pink ‘Un and advise the board as to whether it should purchase the equipment.
(15 marks)
5.2 Explain your approach to the effects of inflation in your calculation in 5.1 above.
(3 marks)
5.3 In response to Diana Marshall’s Note (3), discuss the view that a business, by using the wrong
cost of capital figure, ‘destroys shareholder value’.
Pessimistic Optimistic
Annual demand
(units) Probability Annual demand (units) Probability
6,000 25% 10,000 25%
10,000 50% 14,000 37.5%
14,000 25% 20,000 37.5%
Demand in each subsequent year of the project’s life would remain at the first year’s expected level.
Financial information about the new machinery and NBL 1114 is shown here in Table 2:
Table 2
NBL 1114’s period of competitive advantage (1 April 20X1 to 31 March 20X4) 3 years
Maximum annual output of new machinery (units of NBL 1114) 12,800
Cost of new machinery (payable on 31 March 20X1) £480,000
Scrap value of new machinery (at end of three-year period, ie, 31 March 20X4) £nil
NBL 1114’s contribution per unit (based on a selling price per unit of £65) £33
Additional annual fixed costs incurred (including annual depreciation charge of
£160,000) £300,000
Extra working capital required at 31 March 20X1 (recoverable in full on 31 March
20X4) £50,000
Working capital
The working capital requirement for each year must be in place at the start of the relevant year.
Capital allowances
NBL’s machinery and equipment attracts capital allowances, but is and will be excluded from the
general pool. The equipment attracts 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year. In the
final year, the difference between the equipment’s written down value for tax purposes and its
disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either as a:
• balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; or
• balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
7 Newmarket plc
Newmarket plc (Newmarket), a listed company, has recently developed a new lawnmower, the
NL500. Development of the NL500 was supported by market research which was undertaken by an
external agency who agreed that their £10,000 fee would only be payable if the NL500 was actually
launched, with payment due at the end of the NL500’s first year on the market.
Newmarket’s directors estimate that the market life of the NL500 will be five years but they would be
willing to launch the NL500 only if they were satisfied that the required investment would generate a
net present value of at least £300,000, using a discount factor of 10% pa.
Production and sale of the NL500 would commence on 1 July 20X3 and would require investment by
Newmarket in new production equipment costing £750,000, payable on 30 June 20X3. On 30 June
20X8 it is expected that this equipment could be sold back to the original vendor for £50,000.
Newmarket depreciates plant and equipment in equal annual instalments over its useful life.
The company’s directors would like to assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the
foreseeable future, and it can be assumed that tax payments would occur at the end of the
accounting year to which they relate. The directors are also assuming that the new production
facilities would attract capital allowances of 18% pa on a reducing balance basis commencing in the
year of purchase and continuing throughout the company’s ownership of the equipment. A
balancing charge or allowance would arise on disposal of the equipment on 30 June 20X8. It can be
assumed that sufficient profits would be available for Newmarket to claim all such tax allowances in
the year they arise.
Purchase of the new production equipment would be financed by a five-year fixed rate bank loan
which will be drawn down on 30 June 20X3 at an interest rate of 6% pa. Interest on the loan would
be payable annually, with repayment of the capital being made in full on 30 June 20X8.
Newmarket’s marketing director has estimated annual demand for the NL500 to be 2,000 units and
on that basis the finance department has estimated the unit cost of the NL500 as follows:
If the NL500 is launched, a manager already employed by Newmarket would be moved from his
present position to manage production and sale of the NL500. This existing manager’s position
would consequently have to be filled by a new recruit, specifically employed to replace him, on a
five-year contract at a fixed annual salary of £35,000. The launch of the NL500 would have a
negligible impact on both Newmarket’s working capital requirements and on its fixed costs.
Newmarket’s accounting year end is 30 June and it can be assumed that all cash flows would occur at
the end of the year to which they relate.
Requirements
7.1 Calculate (to the nearest £) the minimum price per unit that Newmarket should charge for the
NL500 if a net present value of at least £300,000 is to be achieved.
(15 marks)
7.2 Identify and describe two quantitative techniques that Newmarket could use to assess and
adjust for the various risks to which launching the NL500 would expose the company.
(6 marks)
7.3 Distinguish between systematic risk and non-systematic risk and explain, using examples, how
each of these types of risk might apply to the launch of the NL500.
(6 marks)
7.4 Identify and explain, in the context of the proposed investment in the NL500, the nature and
importance of the real options available to Newmarket.
(8 marks)
Total: 35 marks
31 December
20X2 20X3 20X4 20X5
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Specialist machinery (Note 1) 30,000
Working capital (Note 2) 5,000
Materials and labour costs 7,000 8,000 9,000
Notes
1 GMI will need to purchase specialist machinery for the construction of the dam. This will have an
estimated resale value at the end of the construction period of £5 million (at 31 December 20X5
prices).
2 The initial working capital required will increase by £1 million pa (in 31 December 20X2 prices),
but will be fully recoverable on 31 December 20X5.
3 The overhead costs include a share of GMI head office costs which have been allocated to this
project at a rate of £1.5 million pa.
4 South America would be a new market for GMI and its directors are keen to win this contract. If
GMI were successful then it would be necessary to transfer resources from other projects –
typically service contracts for existing GMI dams in Europe and North America. The directors
estimate that this would result in a loss of contribution in each year of the construction period.
Inflation rates and cost of capital
GMI’s directors propose using the following inflation rates:
Materials, labour and overhead costs – 4% pa
Working capital – 4% pa
Lost contribution – 5% pa
GMI’s directors plan to use a money cost of capital of 8% when appraising this investment. However,
one of GMI’s directors has commented ‘I think that our hurdle rate may be wrong. Inflation rates may
actually be higher than those used in our estimates, which should be adjusted to take account of
this.’
Capital allowances
The specialist equipment attracts 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year. In the
final year, the difference between the plant and equipment’s written down value for tax purposes and
its disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either:
• as a balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; or
• as a balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
Contract price
GMI’s board is keen that the contract price is not too high and has tendered a price of £95 million.
£10 million would be receivable on 31 December 20X2 when the specialist equipment is purchased.
The second instalment of £85 million (in 31 December 20X5 prices) would be receivable on
completion of the dam.
Taxation
GMI’s directors wish to assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the foreseeable future
and that tax flows arise in the same year as the cash flows which gave rise to them.
Maintenance contract
The South American government has also proposed that, were GMI to build the dam, then GMI
should also provide annual maintenance in perpetuity from completion of the dam on 31 December
20X5. GMI’s directors estimate that this would cost GMI £3 million pa (in 31 December 20X5 prices)
and feel that it would be reasonable to charge a price of £5 million pa (in 31 December 20X5 prices).
Costs and revenues for the maintenance contract are expected to rise by 3% pa after 31 December
20X5. However, they are concerned about such a long-term commitment and would like to
investigate the price at which GMI could sell this maintenance contract to another company.
9 Wicklow plc
Wicklow plc (Wicklow) is a manufacturer of prestige cast iron cookers, having a long-standing
reputation for selling distinctive high price, high quality cookers to an increasingly global market. In
the face of growing competition from firms offering slightly more modern style cookers at much
lower prices, Wicklow’s recent strategy has been to introduce a ‘Heritage’ version of some of its
major product lines. The aim has been to emphasise the original design features of the brand and to
differentiate itself further from its competitors.
Wicklow is currently considering the introduction of a ‘Heritage’ version of its existing ‘Duo’ product,
a standard two-oven cooker. Wicklow has recently spent £375,000 developing the new version of the
product, to be known as the Duo Heritage (DH).
Production of the DH would require Wicklow to invest £2 million in new machinery and equipment
on 31 December 20X8. Based on past experience, the directors are assuming that this machinery
and equipment will have a disposal value on 31 December 20Y2 of £200,000.
Sales of the DH would be expected to commence during the year ending 31 December 20X9. Based
on a unit selling price of £7,000, Wicklow’s marketing director has estimated that unit sales in 20X9
will be either 1,500 (0.65 probability) or 2,000 (0.35 probability). In view of the uncertainty of unit
demand in the first year of production, the marketing director has also forecast that if 20X9 sales
were to be 1,500 units, then 20Y0 sales would be estimated at either 1,800 units (0.7 probability) or
2,000 units (0.3 probability). However, if 20X9 sales were to be 2,000 units, 20Y0 sales would be
estimated at either 2,200 units (0.6 probability) or 2,500 units (0.4 probability). In 20Y1 and 20Y2 unit
sales would be 110% of the expected unit sales in 20Y0. In each year production will equal sales,
which can be assumed to occur on the last day of each year.
As with other similar ‘Heritage’ product launches, the company invariably experiences a consequent
loss of sales on the original product line. In this particular case, the expectation is that for every two
DHs sold, the sale of one standard Duo oven will be lost. This effect would be expected to continue
throughout the four years over which the directors have decided to appraise this potential project.
As a result, it can be assumed that sales of both cookers will not continue beyond 20Y2.
The unit selling price and cost structure of the standard Duo product are as follows:
Launch of the DH is not expected to impact on the company’s total fixed overheads.
The material cost per unit of the DH will be £3,800. Production of each DH will require eight hours of
labour. The reduced levels of production on the Duo product line would mean that part of this labour
requirement will be met from labour transferred from that product, but to the extent that this would
provide insufficient hours, additional labour will be recruited at the company’s standard labour rate
of £25 per hour.
Each major product line within Wicklow is currently managed by a dedicated team of managers.
However, should the DH be launched, one additional manager would need to be recruited to the
Duo team. Wicklow has identified this new manager. He is currently employed by the company and
had recently accepted voluntary redundancy but would now be asked to stay on until 31 December
20Y2. He was due to leave Wicklow on 31 December 20X8 and to receive a lump sum of £35,000 at
that time. He will be paid an annual salary of £40,000 together with a lump sum bonus of £20,000
payable on 31 December 20Y2.
Working capital to support production of the DH would be expected to run at a rate of 15% of sales
value, although this would be off-set to some extent by reduced working capital commitments in
respect of the standard Duo product which also requires working capital equal to 15% of sales value.
The working capital would need to be in place by the beginning of each year and can be assumed to
be released in full on 31 December 20Y2. The working capital flows will have no tax effects.
Regarding tax, the directors are assuming that if Wicklow buys the new machinery and equipment it
will attract capital allowances of 18% per annum on a reducing balance basis, commencing in the
year of acquisition, with either a balancing charge or allowance arising at the end of the equipment’s
useful life. The company can be assumed to be in a position to claim all tax allowances in full as soon
as they become available and to pay corporation tax at a rate of 17% per annum over the life of the
DH project. All tax is payable at the end of the year to which it relates.
At the present time the company is financed entirely by equity and it has been decided that this will
continue even if the DH is launched, with internal funds being used to finance the investment. The
decision on whether or not to introduce the DH is to be based on the expected net present value of
the relevant cash flows, discounted at the company’s cost of equity capital of 8%.
However, the finance director had argued strongly that if Wicklow did decide to introduce the DH,
then the company should partly finance the project with a four-year loan of £2 million (at an interest
rate of 5% per annum), which would be well within Wicklow’s current debt capacity.
Requirement
9.1 Calculate the expected net present value at 31 December 20X8 of the introduction of the DH
product and advise the directors whether or not Wicklow should proceed with its introduction.
(18 marks)
9.2 Calculate the sensitivity of the decision to invest in DH to changes in:
Requirement
(a) The DH selling price (for the purpose of this calculation, assume working capital does not
change)
(4 marks)
9.3 Calculate the adjusted present value of the introduction of the DH product if Wicklow had
decided to inject debt on the basis proposed by the finance director.
10 Daniels Ltd
Daniels Ltd (Daniels) is a large civil engineering company and it has a financial year end of 31 May.
Much of Daniels’ work involves long-term contracts for the railway industry. You work for Daniels and
have been asked for advice by the board on the following problems:
Problem 1
Daniels is considering a major investment involving five possible projects in the West of England and
South Wales which have been put out to tender. Daniels’ board of directors has prepared the
following estimated cash flows (and resultant net present values at 31 May 20X7) for the five projects:
You can assume that the net present values shown in the table above are accurate.
Due to financial constraints, the company, if successful with its tenders, would be unable to take on
all five projects. The board is prepared to release £8 million for initial investment (on 31 May 20X7)
into one or more of the projects, but might increase this figure to £9 million if there are grounds for
doing so. An alternative scenario which has been considered would be to make available sufficient
funds to start all five projects in May 20X7, but this would limit the capital available in the year to 31
May 20X8 to a maximum of only £500,000.
Problem 2
Daniels runs a fleet of vans to support its operations. Currently it replaces those vans every three
years, but the board is not sure whether this is in the company’s best interests. Vans cost, on average,
£12,400 each. Daniels’ transport manager has prepared the following schedule of costs and resale
values for the vans:
Maintenance and
running costs Resale value
£ £
In first year of van’s life 4,300 After one year 9,800
In second year of van’s life 4,800 After two years 7,000
In third year of van’s life 5,100 After three years 5,000
Problem 3
About a year ago (March 20X6) Daniels completed construction of a factory for Kithill Ltd (Kithill).
This cost Daniels £720,000 to construct and Kithill is paying £190,000 a year for eight years. Daniels
will, therefore, ultimately make a profit of £800,000, which gives a return on the investment of over
100%. When Kithill sent its first annual instalment last week, it indicated that rather than make annual
payments it would prefer to settle the outstanding balance by making a one-off payment of
(c) Assuming that the directors are prepared to make available sufficient funds to start all five
projects on 31 May 20X7, but only £500,000 on 31 May 20X8, advise them as to which
projects should be accepted.
(5 marks)
10.2 For Problem 1, assuming that none of the projects are divisible and that the directors are
prepared to spend a maximum of £9 million on 31 May 20X7, advise them as to which projects
should be accepted.
(4 marks)
10.3 For Problem 2, advise the directors as to the optimal replacement period for Daniels’ vans and
comment on the limitations of the approach used.
(6 marks)
10.4 For Problem 3, advise the directors as to whether they should accept Kithill’s proposal.
(5 marks)
Note: Ignore taxation.
Total: 25 marks
£
Selling price 155
Materials 53
Fixed costs are not expected to increase as a result of producing the JH143.
Skilled labour
Each JH143 will require one hour of skilled labour that is in short supply. Hawke will need to
transfer some of its skilled labour away from making another older vacuum cleaner (the
JH114), which requires half the skilled labour time per unit of the JH143. The current selling
price of the JH114 is £96 and its materials and unskilled labour costs total £74 per unit (in 31
December 20X4 prices). Hawke’s skilled labour is paid £8.80 per hour (in 31 December 20X4
prices).
Inflation
Revenues and costs are expected to inflate at a rate of 4% pa.
Sales volumes
Hawke commissioned market research at a cost of £55,000 for the JH143 project, half of which
remains unpaid and is due for settlement on 31 December 20X4. An extract from the results of
that market research is shown here:
Machinery
Specialised new production machinery will be required in order to make the new vacuum
cleaner. This machinery will cost £4.5 million to buy on 31 December 20X4 and will have an
estimated scrap value of £1 million on 31 December 20X7 (in 31 December 20X7 prices). If
production of the existing JH114 is reduced then some of Hawke’s older machinery could be
sold on 31 December 20X4. This machinery had a tax written down value of £80,000 on 1
January 20X4 and Hawke estimates that it could be sold for £220,000.
The machinery will attract 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year.
In the final year, the difference between the machinery’s written down value for tax purposes
and its disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either:
• as a balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value;
or
• as a balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
Corporation tax
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Working capital
Hawke will invest in working capital at a rate of 10% of the JH143’s annual sales revenue, to be
in place at the start of each year. It expects to recover the working capital in full on 31
December 20X7.
Cost of capital
Hawke uses a money cost of capital of 12% pa for investment appraisal purposes.
Requirement
(a) Using money cash flows, calculate the net present value on 31 December 20X4 of the
proposed development of the JH143 and advise the company’s board whether it should
proceed with the investment.
(16 marks)
11.2 Hawke’s board is also investigating the possibility of buying another company, Durram
Electricals Ltd (Durram) which is a successful retailer of electrical goods. The board has
obtained the following information about Durram:
Hawke’s board has no experience of buying another company and you have been invited to
the next board meeting to answer these questions:
(1) What range of values is reasonable for Durram on 31 August 20X4?
(2) Why do many acquisitions not benefit the bidding firm?
(3) Would it be better to pay for Durram in cash or with Hawke’s shares?
Requirement
Prepare calculations and notes that will enable you to answer these questions at the next board
meeting.
(12 marks)
Total: 35 marks
12 Alliance plc
You should assume that the current date is 31 December 20X5.
Alliance plc (Alliance) is a manufacturer of electronic devices. At a recent board meeting two agenda
items were discussed as follows:
(1) The possible development of an automatic watering system (Autowater) for indoor potted plants
in private houses and business premises. The sales director commented that there are similar
more expensive products on the market and it is likely that competitors will develop their
technology and bring down their prices in future. Therefore, it would be prudent to assume a life
cycle of four years for the Autowater.
(2) For other projects that have already been appraised using NPV analysis, the 20X6 capital
expenditure budget (excluding Autowater) should not exceed £350 million. The £350 million will
be allocated to projects, excluding Autowater, on the basis of maximising shareholder wealth.
The chairman of Alliance closed the meeting with the following statement:
“We will continue to see excellent opportunities to invest in profitable projects across our business
and we have no difficulty in raising finance. However we will be disciplined in our approach to
committing to capital expenditure. I would now like the finance director to evaluate the Autowater
project and to determine in which other projects the £350 million 20X6 capital expenditure budget is
going to be invested.”
The following information is available regarding the Autowater project:
Requirements
12.1 Using money cash flows, calculate the net present value of the Autowater project on 31
December 20X5 and advise the board whether it should accept the project.
(16 marks)
12.2 Ignoring the effects on working capital, calculate the sensitivity of the Autowater project to
changes in sales revenue and indicate whether there is a sufficient margin of safety for the
project to go ahead.
(4 marks)
12.3 Discuss the disadvantages of sensitivity analysis and explain how simulation might be a better
way to assess the risk of the project.
(6 marks)
12.4 With regard to the 20X6 capital expenditure budget of £350 million:
(b) Determine the combination of projects that will maximise shareholder wealth.
(4 marks)
Total: 35 marks
£m
Ordinary share capital (10p shares) 233
Retained earnings 5,030
5,263
6% Redeemable debentures at nominal value (redeemable 20X8) 1,900
Long term bank loans (interest rate 4%) 635
7,798
On 31 May 20X4 Turners’ ordinary shares had a market value of 276p (ex-div) and an equity beta of
0.60. For the year ended 31 May 20X4 the dividend yield was 4.2% and the earnings per share were
25p. The return on the market is expected to be 8% pa and the risk-free rate 2% pa.
Turners’ debentures had a market value of £108 (ex-interest) per £100 nominal value on 31 May
20X4 and they are redeemable at par on 31 May 20X8.
Companies operating solely in the holiday travel industry have an average equity beta of 1.40 and an
average debt: equity ratio (by market values) of 3:5. It has been estimated that if the project goes
ahead the overall equity beta of Turners will be made up of 90% food retailing and 10% holiday
travel shops.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
13.1 Ignoring the project, calculate the current WACC of Turners using:
(a) The CAPM
(8 marks)
14 Middleham plc
Middleham plc (Middleham) is a company involved in the production of printing inks used in a wide
range of applications in the food packaging industry. The directors of Middleham are currently
considering a £2 million investment in new production facilities. At the present time, the company’s
finance director is seeking to establish an appropriate cost of capital figure for use in the appraisal of
the proposed investment. Extracts from Middleham’s most recent financial statements for the year
ended 31 March 20X3 are shown below:
£’000
Ordinary share capital (50p shares) 3,200
5% irredeemable preference share capital (50p shares) 1,400
Reserves 7,000
11,600
7% debentures (at nominal value) 1,500
13,100
Current liabilities 3,700
Total equity and liabilities 16,800
The market prices for the company’s shares and debentures on 31 March 20X3 were:
(1) Ordinary shares: £1.42 each (cum-div)
(2) 5% irredeemable preference shares: £0.20 each (ex-div)
(3) 7% debentures: £105.00 (per £100 nominal)
The ordinary dividend for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is due to be paid shortly. This is the first
dividend paid since the year ended 31 March 20W9, when the dividend payout ratio was 40% and
the earnings per share were £0.35. Middleham’s directors expect future dividends to grow at the
(b) Explain two key assumptions that would underpin the use of this cost of equity in the
calculation of the weighted average cost of capital.
(2 marks)
14.4 Making reference to relevant theories, comment on the views expressed by Middleham’s chief
executive.
(5 marks)
14.5 Explain, with reference to the efficient market hypothesis, when news of the proposed
investment in the new production facilities would be reflected in Middleham’s share price on
the London Stock Exchange.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
£m
Ordinary shares (50p each) 82.5
Retained earnings 391.5
474.0
8% debentures (at nominal value; redeemable at par in 20Y4) 340.0
814.0
Notes
1 There have been no changes in the number of issued shares over the period 20X6–20Y0. Better
Deal’s annual dividend payments have risen steadily since 20X6.
2 Better Deal’s management is considering diversifying its product range and opening petrol
outlets at a number of its stores. The finance for this capital investment would be raised in such a
way as not to alter the current gearing ratio of Better Deal (measured by market values). The debt
element of the finance raised will come from a new issue at par of 9% irredeemable debentures.
3 Better Deal’s finance team has undertaken research into the company’s competitors in the UK
petroleum market and has calculated that the equity beta for this market is 1.5 and companies in
that market have, on average, long term funds in the ratio of 64:31 for equity:debt by market
value.
4 You should assume that the corporation tax rate is 17% pa and is payable in the same year as
profits are earned.
Requirements
15.1 Calculate Better Deal’s current weighted average cost of capital based on:
(a) The dividend growth model
(8 marks)
15.2 Calculate the cost of capital that Better Deal should use when appraising the proposed
investment in petrol outlets and explain the reasoning for your approach.
(11 marks)
15.3 Compare and contrast multiple factor models with the CAPM model as a means of dealing
with risk.
(8 marks)
15.4 Making reference to relevant theories, advise Better Deal’s management as to what extent the
company’s dividend policy will affect the market value of its shares.
(6 marks)
Total: 35 marks
16 Puerto plc
You should assume that it is now 1 December 20X3.
Puerto plc (Puerto) is listed on the UK stock market and operates in the vehicle leasing industry.
During a period of expansion from 20W3 to 20W7 the company funded growth by way of
£’000
Operating profit 2,280
Interest (2,460)
Profit/(loss) before tax (180)
Taxation 0
Profit/(loss) after tax (180)
The board of Puerto is now considering a further restructuring that includes the purchase on 1
December 20X3 of another vehicle leasing business that in the last financial year achieved a pre-tax
operating profit of £3 million. The purchase price for this business is £24 million. The board is
confident it will be able to raise the additional borrowings required for this purchase on 1 December
20X3, particularly as SMC, as part of the restructuring, has agreed to exercise its option to convert its
convertible loans into equity on that date in order to participate in Puerto’s future growth potential.
The board and SMC believe that Puerto’s share price will increase immediately on 1 December 20X3
by 35% as a result of the restructuring.
Additional information:
• The SMC convertible loans amount to £68 million and the rate of interest on these loans is 3% pa.
The market value of these loans, on 30 November 20X3, is equal to their nominal value of £68
million.
• SMC has the option to convert its loans into thirty ordinary shares for every £4 of loan.
• Puerto also has non-convertible secured bank loans amounting to £6 million that carry an interest
rate of 7% pa.
• On 30 November 20X3 Puerto had 492 million ordinary shares in issue.
• £24 million of new secured borrowings at an interest rate of 6% pa will be raised from Risky Bank
plc (Risky) to finance the purchase of the vehicle leasing business. A covenant attached to this
loan requires that the gearing (debt/equity by market values) immediately after the restructuring
is not more than the industry average of 25%.
• Corporation tax is 17% pa on current year profits.
• Puerto has an equity beta of 2.13 which reflects Puerto’s gearing on 30 November 20X3.
• The risk free rate is 2.8% pa.
• An appropriate market risk premium is 5% pa.
Requirements
16.1 Prepare Puerto’s forecast income statement for the year ended 30 November 20X4 assuming
that the restructuring goes ahead and that both the existing and newly-acquired leasing
businesses earn similar operating profits to those in the year to 30 November 20X3.
(3 marks)
16.2 Calculate Puerto’s gearing ratio (debt/equity) by market values on 30 November 20X3 and on
1 December 20X3 immediately after the restructuring.
(5 marks)
17 Abydos plc
Abydos plc is considering a large strategic investment in a significantly different line of business to its
existing operations. This will involve constructing its very first brewery that will focus on producing
and selling a new type of craft beer. The scale of the new venture is such that a significant injection of
£12.5 million of new capital will be required. There is some uncertainty over the expected operating
cash flows generated by the new brewery, therefore the directors of Abydos are keen to use data
analytics to help improve forecasting.
The current gearing of Abydos is 80% equity and 20% debt by market value.
The new project will require outlays immediately as follows:
£’000
Plant and equipment (purchased on first day of financial year) 10,000
Working capital 1,500
Equity issue costs (not tax allowable) 700
Debt issue costs (not tax allowable) 300
12,500
• The directors have examined similar quoted companies operating in the same sector as the new
investment and have determined that a suitable equity beta is 1.4, using average industry gearing
of 60% equity, 40% debt by market values.
• The risk free rate is 5% and the market return 12%.
• £5 million of debt (an 8% fixed rate debenture) will be raised to fund part of the investment. The
remainder will be equity.
• Capital allowances are at 18% per year on a reducing balance basis.
• Tax is payable at 17% in the year that the taxable cash flow arises.
£m
The debentures are redeemable in 20X7. BL’s earnings for the year to 29 February 20X2 were £32.4
million and are expected to remain at this level for the foreseeable future. Retained earnings at 29
February 20X2 were £73.2 million.
On 30 November 20X5 BBB’s ordinary shares each had a market value of 360p (cum-div) and an
equity beta of 1.10. For the year ended 30 November 20X5, the dividend declared was 10p per
ordinary share and the earnings yield (earnings per share divided by ex-div share price) was 7%.
BBB’s debentures had a market value at 30 November 20X5 of £99 (cum-interest) per £100 nominal
value and are redeemable at par on 30 November 20X9.
The market return is expected to be 7% pa and the risk free rate 2% pa.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
19.1 Ignoring the Climbhigh project, calculate the WACC of BBB at 30 November 20X5 using:
(a) The CAPM
(8 marks)
19.2 Using the CAPM, calculate a WACC that is suitable for appraising the Climbhigh project and
explain the rationale for using this as the discount rate for the project.
(6 marks)
19.3 By calculating an overall equity beta and using the CAPM, estimate the overall WACC of BBB
assuming that the Climbhigh project goes ahead and comment upon the implications for the
value of BBB of any change from the WACC that you have calculated in 19.1(a) above.
(6 marks)
19.4 Advise BBB on how political risk could potentially affect the value of the Climbhigh project and
how it might limit its effects where such risk exists.
(6 marks)
19.5 Explain the ethical issues for the finance director in relation to the email received from the
contractor who wishes to tender for building one of the climbing walls, and briefly outline the
action that he should take.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
£
Profit before interest and tax 1,080,000
Interest (180,000)
Profit before tax 900,000
Tax (17%) (153,000)
Profit after tax 747,000
£ £
Non-current assets
Intangibles 900,000
Freehold land and property 1,800,000
Plant and equipment 3,600,000
Investments 900,000
7,200,000
Current assets
Inventory 540,000
Receivables 1,080,000
Cash 180,000
1,800,000
Current liabilities (1,080,000)
720,000
7,920,000
Equity and non-current liabilities
Ordinary share capital (£1 shares) 3,600,000
6% Preference shares (£1 shares) 720,000
Retained earnings 1,800,000
(a) Using the available information, calculate the minimum price per ordinary share that the
shareholders of Cern should be willing to accept from Fenton using each of the following
methods of valuation:
• Net assets
• Dividend yield
• P/E ratio
(13 marks)
(b) Comment on the values you have calculated and any issues you think should be brought
to the attention of Cern’s directors.
(4 marks)
(c) Identify the motives that might lie behind Fenton’s possible acquisition of Cern.
(4 marks)
20.2 Cern has an annual cost of capital of 10%. One of its most successful products is Hadtone, a
mortar colouring agent. Hadtone is made using a single processing machine which mixes the
raw ingredients and dispenses the completed product into five-litre cartons.
A five-litre carton of Hadtone sells for £12.00 and estimated maximum annual demand at this
price is 300,000 cartons. At this level of demand, Cern can justify the operation of only one
21 Wexford plc
Wexford plc (Wexford) is a listed manufacturer of dairy products. In recent years the company has
experienced only modest levels of growth, but following the recent retirement of the chief executive,
his replacement is keen to expand Wexford’s operations and to improve Wexford’s approach to
investment appraisal.
It is currently December 20X8 and the board of directors has recently agreed to support a proposal
by the new chief executive that the company purchase new manufacturing equipment to enable it to
expand its range of yoghurt-based products. The new equipment will use artificial intelligence and
automated processes to reduce the need for human intervention. It will also provide management
with new information through the visualisation of data and key performance indicators that will help
to improve decision making in the future. The new equipment will cost £25 million and the company
is seeking to raise new finance to fund the expenditure in full. However, the board of directors is
undecided as to how the new finance is to be raised. The directors are considering either a 1 for 5
rights issue at a price of 250p per share or a floating rate loan of £25 million at an initial interest rate
of 8% per annum. The company’s bank has agreed to provide the £25 million loan. The loan would
be for a term of five years, with interest paid annually in arrears and with the capital being repaid in
full at maturity. The loan would be secured against the company’s freehold land and buildings.
You are employed by Wexford as a company accountant and have been able to obtain the following
additional information:
• As a result of the investment in the new machinery, the directors aim to increase the company’s
revenue by 15% per annum for the foreseeable future.
• It is expected that direct costs, other than depreciation, will, on average, increase by 18% during
the year ending 30 November 20X9 due to the ‘learning curve’ effects associated with the new
machinery.
• Indirect costs are expected to increase by £10 million in the year to 30 November 20X9.
• The ratios of receivables to sales and payables to direct costs (excluding depreciation) will remain
the same as in the year to 30 November 20X8.
£’000
Revenue 270,000
Direct costs (Note) 171,000
Indirect costs 40,000
Operating profit 59,000
Interest 5,000
Profit before tax 54,000
Taxation 9,180
Profit after tax 44,820
£’000 £’000
Non-current assets (carrying amount) 152,590
Current assets
Inventory 35,000
Trade receivables 49,000
Cash at bank 10,500
94,500
247,090
Capital and reserves
£1 Ordinary shares 50,000
Retained earnings 81,410
131,410
Non-current liabilities
10% Debentures (repayable 20Y5) 50,000
Current liabilities
Trade payables 43,000
Requirements
21.1 For each of the financing alternatives being considered, prepare a forecast income statement
for the year ending 30 November 20X9 and a forecast Balance sheet at 30 November 20X9.
Note: Transaction costs on the issuing of new capital and returns on surplus cash invested in
the short term can both be ignored.
(16 marks)
21.2 Write a report (including appropriate calculations) to Wexford’s board of directors that fully
evaluates the two potential methods of financing the company’s expansion plans.
(14 marks)
21.3 Explain the advantages and disadvantages to Wexford of using prescriptive analytics in its
decision making.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
22 Loxwood
Loxwood is a firm of ICAEW Chartered Accountants. You work in its Business Valuations Unit (BVU)
which advises clients wishing either (a) to sell their own business or (b) to purchase a new business.
You are currently advising three of Loxwood’s clients:
Client one
Walton plc (Walton) is considering making takeover bids for two of its competitors, Hampton plc
(Hampton) and Richmond Ltd (Richmond). Loxwood has been asked to advise Walton as to what
value it should place on these target companies. You have obtained the following financial data:
Notes
1 These assets have been professionally valued on 28 February 20X4 as follows:
Hampton Richmond
£m £m
Non-current assets 45.2 24.1
Current assets 25.1 35.2
2 The non-current liabilities are all debentures, redeemable within the next six years, with
coupon rates as follows: Walton 7%, Hampton, 7%; Richmond, 8%. The debentures are currently
trading at: Walton £125, Hampton £110, Richmond £80.
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
Client Two
Jackie Wight has run a very successful fashion business, Regent Spark Ltd, for many years and is now
considering selling it and taking early retirement. She has read a recent article in the financial press
and is concerned that she won’t get a fair price for her company. As a result she has contacted
Loxwood for guidance. The following is an extract from the article:
‘Angel Ventures (AV) recently bid for biometrics company Praed Bio (PB), offering PB’s shareholders
£5.20 a share. Maida Money (MM), a hedge fund that owns PB shares, disliked the deal and sought a
court’s opinion on fair value. MM wanted £10.25 a share. AV countered with £5.10. In court, the
judge, using shareholder value analysis (SVA), settled on £5.80 but said there were problems in
estimating future cash flows and in calculating the value of the cash flows after the competitive
advantage period (the residual value).’
Client Three
Doug Williams owns 60 acres of agricultural land in south west England and is considering accepting
an offer from So Lah Energy Ltd (SLE) to install solar panels on his land. SLE would pay Doug £1,000
per acre pa (in 28 February 20X4 prices) at the end of each of the next 10 years for the use of his
land, after which time it would revert back to agricultural use. To take account of the general rate of
inflation, SLE will increase this payment by 3% pa (compound). One of Doug’s neighbours, Bill
Etheridge, is very unhappy at the prospect of this solar farm and is prepared to buy Doug’s land from
him for £500,000 in order to stop it being built. The land has a market value of £120,000 in
agricultural use on 28 February 20X4 and this is expected to rise in line with the general rate of
inflation, ie, 3% pa. Doug could invest Bill’s money in a bank account bearing interest at 4% pa, but
he is unsure whether he should accept Bill’s offer.
Client Four
Kaz Technologies (KT) is an intelligent software provider. KT combines artificial intelligence and
machine learning to create a smart platform which helps in data collection, processing, analysis and
monitoring. KT has developed unique business models which streamline the entire business data
management process and helps businesses to improve sales forecasting, interpret customer data
and predict customer needs. KT is currently loss-making but anticipates rapid sales growth in future
years.
23 Sennen plc
You should assume that the current date is 31 May 20X4.
Sennen plc (Sennen) is a UK listed company in the chemical industry. Morgan plc (Morgan) is a UK
listed company that has a policy of expanding by way of acquisition. As a result of financing its
acquisitions with borrowings, Morgan’s gearing is high compared to its competitors.
Morgan has identified Sennen as a potential takeover target and intends to make an offer for all of
the ordinary shares of the company. The finance director of Morgan wishes to value Sennen’s
ordinary shares including any synergistic benefits that may arise following the acquisition. He is also
considering the advantages and disadvantages of the different methods that can be used to pay for
the ordinary shares. The intended offer for Sennen is not public knowledge.
The Finance Director of Morgan has asked North West Corporate Finance (NWCF) to give him advice
regarding the intended offer for the ordinary shares of Sennen. You work for NWCF and a partner in
the firm has asked you to prepare a report for a meeting that he is due to attend with the board of
Morgan. You have established the following data relating to Sennen:
Sales revenue for the year ended 31 May 20X4 £20 million
Competitive advantage period 3 years
Estimated sales revenue growth for the next three years 5% pa
Estimated sales revenue growth thereafter in perpetuity 2% pa
Operating profit margin 15%
Additional working capital investment at the start of each year 1% of that year’s sales revenue
Additional non-current asset investment at the end of each year 2% of that year’s sales revenue
2.5% of that year’s sales
After tax synergies at the end of each year revenue
Number of ordinary shares in issue 17,000,000
Current share price 160p
Appropriate weighted average cost of capital 7% pa
You may assume that replacement non-current asset expenditure equals depreciation in each year.
On 31 May 20X4 Sennen had short-term investments with a market value of £2 million currently
yielding 3% pa and irredeemable debt with a market value of £10 million. The current gross yield on
Sennen’s debt is 5% pa.
Assume that corporation tax will be 17% of operating profits for the foreseeable future and that there
are no other tax issues that need to be considered.
The management team of Sennen, which includes a member of the ICAEW, has been preparing a
business plan to present to potential financial backers of a management buyout (MBO) that they
intend to launch for the ordinary shares of the company. The intended MBO is not public knowledge.
23.1 Prepare a report for the partner in NWCF which includes:
Requirements
(a) The estimated value of the ordinary shares of Sennen calculated using Shareholder Value
Analysis (SVA) and an explanation of the strengths and weaknesses of this valuation
method.
(13 marks)
(b) The sensitivity of the total value of Sennen (debt plus the value of equity calculated in (a)
above) to a change in the after tax synergies.
(3 marks)
(c) The value of the ordinary shares of Sennen using the p/e method and an explanation of
the strengths and weaknesses of this valuation method.
(5 marks)
(d) A discussion of whether Morgan should offer the shareholders of Sennen a premium over
its current share price given the valuations calculated in parts (a) and (c).
(3 marks)
(e) Advice on the suitability of each of the following methods that Morgan could use to pay
for the ordinary shares of Sennen:
• Cash
• A share for share exchange
• A loan stock for share exchange
• Part cash and part share for share exchange
(8 marks)
23.2 Identify and briefly discuss the ethical issues faced by the MBO team should Morgan make an
offer for the ordinary shares of Sennen.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
The market values of Tower’s long-term finance on 31 August 20X4 are shown below:
£1 ordinary share capital £4.20/share
6% £1 preference shares £0.80/share
5% debentures £110%
Extracts from the minutes of Tower’s board meeting, 1 September 20X4
AB (Production Director) once again raised the issue of Tower’s ‘gearing problem’ and said that
gearing was now over 50%. DB (Marketing Director) and WR (Sales Director) concurred. All three felt
that gearing should be reduced as a matter of urgency, otherwise, according to AB, it’s very risky and
the company’s share price (and cost of capital) will be adversely affected which will make new
projects difficult to justify.
It was agreed to investigate the implications of using a rights issue to address the gearing problem.
The rights issue would enable ordinary shareholders to significantly increase their investment and so
reward them for their loyalty. It was proposed that a one for two rights issue would be made, but
concerns were raised that this would reduce the company’s earnings per share figure by more than
10%.
WR raised the point that dividends have increased 3% pa on average over the past five years. He
suggested that rather than raising more capital the company could change its dividend policy. As a
result it would retain more of its profits for re-investment. He thought this would not be popular with
shareholders, but that, if they did react badly to the change then Tower could always pay a one-off
special dividend to make up for any shortfall.
As a result of these discussions the board decided to explore the implications of making a 1 for 2
rights issue which would raise sufficient funds to purchase and cancel 60% of Tower’s debentures by
market value.
In advance of the next board meeting, you have been asked by your manager, Luke Cleeve, to
prepare calculations and advice for Tower’s directors. Luke pointed out to you that you should ‘be
careful with this information as it’s potentially price sensitive and not in the public domain.’
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% pa for the foreseeable future.
25 Brennan plc
Brennan plc is a family run business, which obtained a stock market listing around three years ago.
The board is comprised of 75% of members of the founding family. Brennan plc has a current stock
market capitalisation of £250 million and the board owns 45% of the issued shares. The net book
value of assets held by Brennan plc is £300 million.
Brennan currently enjoys competitive advantage through being a low cost producer and the board
feels that this competitive advantage is likely to continue for the next six years. The following
information relating to Brennan and the period of competitive advantage is available.
Following the end of the period of competitive advantage, cash flows are expected to remain
constant for the foreseeable future.
Brennan plc currently has no long-term debt and holds short-term investments worth £2.5 million.
The corporation tax rate is expected to be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Brennan plc has an equity beta of 0.75, the risk free rate of interest is 3% and the return on the
market portfolio is 11%.
Brennan plc has a policy of paying out 10% of its post-tax earnings as dividends.
Deposit Borrowing
UK 1.15% 2.40%
Eurozone 0.75% 1.60%
Requirement
(a) Calculate the net sterling receipt that Fratton can expect in three months’ time if it hedges
its foreign exchange exposure using:
• the forward market
• the money market
• the options market, assuming the spot exchange rate in three months is:
– €1.1185 – 1.1200/£
– €1.1985 – 1.2000/£
(10 marks)
(b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using futures contracts as opposed to
forward contracts when hedging foreign currency exposure.
(7 marks)
26.2 You should assume that the current date is 31 January 20X1
One of Fratton’s customers is suggesting the use of Bitcoin to make a payment in 2 months’
time and has proposed a payment of 50 Bitcoins on 31st March 20X1.
The directors are worried about the volatility of the Bitcoin price and are considering using a
forward contract to hedge the risk.
The following rates are relevant:
Spot rate: 1 Bitcoin = £7,500 - £7,600
Forward rate: 1 Bitcoin = £7,550 - £7,650
Requirement
(a) Calculate the sterling receipt that Fratton can expect in two months’ time if it hedges its
Bitcoin exposure using the forward market.
(1 mark)
(b) Discuss the key problems associated with using cryptocurrencies to settle international
transactions.
(3 marks)
(b) Explain how Fratton could use sterling interest rate futures to hedge its exposure to
interest rate risk and show the effect if, in three months’ time, the spot rate of interest is 3%
pa and the price of the interest rate futures contract has fallen to 97.
(5 marks)
Total: 30 marks
27 Sunwin plc
27.1 The finance director of Sunwin plc (Sunwin) is a trustee of the firm’s employee pension fund.
The vast majority of the fund’s assets are currently invested in a portfolio of FTSE 100 shares. It
is 1 December 20X2 and the trustees are concerned that FTSE 100 share prices will fall over
the next month and they wish to hedge against this possibility by using FTSE index options.
The current market value of the pension fund’s portfolio of shares is £5.6 million. The FTSE 100
index stands at 5,000 on 1 December 20X2 and the directors wish to protect the current value
of the portfolio. The trustees have obtained the following information as at 1 December 20X2:
FTSE 100 INDEX OPTIONS: £10 per full index point (points per contract)
Call Put Call Put Call Put Call Put Call Put
January 214 94 184 114 154 134 124 159 104 189
February 275 135 245 155 220 180 190 200 165 225
Requirements
Demonstrate how FTSE 100 index options can be used by the trustees to hedge the pension
fund’s exposure to falling share prices and show the outcome if, on 31 December 20X2, the
portfolio’s value:
(a) Rises to £6.608 million and the FTSE index rises to 5,900
(4 marks)
(b) Falls to £4.592 million and the FTSE index falls to 4,100
(4 marks)
27.2 It is 1 December 20X2 and Sunwin’s board of directors has recently agreed to purchase
machinery from a UK supplier on 28 February 20X3. The firm’s cash flow forecasts reveal that
the firm will need to borrow £4 million on 28 February 20X3 for a period of nine months. The
directors are concerned that short-term sterling interest rates may rise between now and the
end of February and are considering the use of either sterling short-term interest rate futures
Calls Puts
(b) Demonstrate how traded interest rate options on futures can be used by Sunwin to hedge
against the interest rate rising above 3.75% pa and show the effective loan rate achieved
if, on 28 February 20X3:
(1) The spot price is 4.4% pa and the futures price is 95.31.
(2) The spot price is 2.1% pa and the futures price is 97.75.
(9 marks)
(c) Identify three factors that will affect the time value of an option.
(3 marks)
Total: 26 marks
Task 2
On 1 April 20X3 Padd borrowed £8.5 million over a four-year period at LIBOR + 1% pa to finance an
expansion of its production capacity and the refurbishment of a number of its larger stores. Padd’s
board is now investigating whether it should hedge against adverse interest rate movements over
the next 12 months. Its bank has offered either (a) an option at 4% pa plus a premium of 0.75% of the
sum borrowed or (b) a Forward Rate Agreement (FRA) at 4.5% pa.
Requirements
28.1 Calculate Padd’s sterling receipt from the sale to DS if it:
(a) Does not hedge the receipt and the Indian rupee weakens by 1% by 30 June 20X4
(2 marks)
(b) Uses an OTC currency option
(2.5 marks)
(c) Uses a forward contract
(2.5 marks)
(d) Uses a money market hedge
(3 marks)
28.2 With reference to your calculations in 28.1 above, advise Padd’s board whether it is worth
hedging the DS receipt.
(8 marks)
28.3 Advise Padd’s board as to the risks, other than currency risk, that should be considered if the
company is to continue to trade abroad in future.
(5 marks)
28.4 By preparing suitable interest payment calculations, recommend to Padd’s board whether it is
worth hedging against interest rate movements over the next 12 months if LIBOR is either (a)
3% pa or (b) 6% pa.
(7 marks)
Total: 30 marks
29 Lambourn plc
Throughout all parts of this question you should assume that today’s date is 30 June 20X2.
29.1 Lambourn plc (Lambourn) is a UK company that trades in a range of pharmaceutical products.
It buys and sells these products in the UK and also in the USA, where it trades with three
companies – Biotron Inc., Hope Inc. and USMed Inc.
In the past, the relatively low level of trading with US companies has meant that Lambourn has
not hedged its foreign currency exposure. However, due to increases in the level of trade
Sterling currency options (standard contract size £10,000) are currently priced as follows (with
premiums, payable up front, quoted in cents per £):
Calls Puts
Sterling currency futures (standard contract size £62,500) are currently priced as follows:
September $1.6555/£
December $1.6496/£
Annual borrowing and deposit interest rates at the present time are as follows:
Requirements
Assuming the spot rate in six months’ time will be $1.6400 – 1.6454/£, calculate Lambourn’s
net foreign currency exposure, and the outcome achieved, using:
(a) A forward market hedge
(4 marks)
(b) Exchange-traded currency options (hedging to the nearest whole number of contracts) so
as to guarantee no worse an exchange rate than the current spot rate
(6 marks)
(c) Currency futures contracts (hedging to the nearest whole number of contracts) and
assuming the relevant futures contract is trading at $1.6400 in six months’ time
29.2 As an additional transaction to those noted in 29.1 above, Lambourn has sold a new range of
pharmaceutical products to US Med Inc and is expecting to receive payment in 2 months’ time.
US Med Inc has stated that it will be making the payment using Bitcoin and has agreed to pay
50 Bitcoins on 30th August 20X2.
The directors are worried about the volatility of the Bitcoin price and are considering using the
futures market to hedge the risk.
The current (spot) value of a Bitcoin is £8,500 and Bitcoin futures (standard contract size 5
Bitcoins) are currently priced as follows:
July £8,450
August £8,344
September £8,100
Requirement
Assuming that the market value (and futures value) for Bitcoin on 30th August is £6,500, explain
how Bitcoin futures could be used to manage the price risk of Bitcoins and calculate the
outcome from the Bitcoin futures hedge.
(5 marks)
29.3 In six months’ time (ie, in December 20X2), Lambourn will need to borrow £1.5 million for a
period of six months at a fixed rate of interest. The company’s finance director is keen to
ensure that the interest rate on the loan does not exceed 3.75% pa. The spot rate of interest is
currently 3% pa. The finance director intends to use three-month sterling traded interest rate
options on futures to hedge the company’s interest rate exposure.
The current schedule of prices (premiums are in annual % terms) for these contracts (standard
contract size £500,000) is as follows:
Calls Puts
Requirement
(a) Calculate the outcome of the hedge and the effective annual rate of interest achieved if
prices in December 20X2, when Lambourn negotiates the six-month fixed rate loan with
its bank, are either:
• a spot interest rate of 4.4% pa and a futures price of 95.31; or
• a spot interest rate of 2.1% pa and a futures price of 97.75.
(10 marks)
(b) Explain why a hedge using futures contracts may be less than 100% efficient.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Calls Puts
(2) BE currently uses forward rate agreements (FRAs) and interest rate futures to hedge its interest
rate risk. David is now considering the use of traded interest rate options. BE needs to take out a
loan of £20 million on 31 July 20X6 for a period of seven months and David has agreed with BE’s
bank that the loan will have an interest rate of LIBOR + 4% pa.
LIBOR on 31 December 20X5 is 0.62% pa and David wishes to hedge against any increase in this
rate between 31 December 20X5 and 31 July 20X6.
The following information is available:
At 31 December 20X5 the following traded interest rate options on three month interest rate
futures with a contract size of £500,000 are available (option premiums are in annual % terms):
Calls Puts
Assume that the options in (1) and (2) above expire at the end of the relevant month and that
premiums are payable on 31 December 20X5. The interest implications of paying the premium on 31
December 20X5 can be ignored.
You have been asked to prepare briefing notes for the presentation on options to be given to the
board of BE.
Notes
(1) New equipment required for the production of AP525 will cost £1,150,000 on 31 March 20X6
and will be sold on 31 March 20X9 for an agreed price of £100,000 (in 31 March 20X9 prices).
AP depreciates its equipment on a straight-line basis. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the
year of purchase and none in the year of sale.
If this new equipment is purchased, existing equipment, which originally cost £120,000 many
years ago and has a tax written down value of zero, will be sold on 31 March 20X6 for £70,000.
The new equipment will attract 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year. In
the final year, the difference between the equipment’s written down value for tax purposes and
its disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either as a:
– balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; or
– balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
(2) The new equipment will take up extra space, which will have to be rented for three years. The
rent would be at a fixed annual amount of £80,000, payable in advance, with the first payment
due on 31 March 20X6.
(3) £130,000 of these fixed costs per annum are existing head office costs that will be allocated to
the project.
(4) The purchase of the new equipment would be funded from an issue of debt and this represents
the interest cost on that debt.
(5) Unless otherwise stated, all of the above figures are in 31 March 20X6 prices. The following
inflation rates are expected for the years ended 31 March 20X7–20X9:
– Sales: 2% pa
– Variable and fixed costs and working capital: 3% pa
(b) Assuming that the AP525 product goes ahead, explain how these conflicts might arise in
AP in relation to:
• debt levels
• short-term versus long-term performance appraisal
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Total market
Par Value Market Value value
£m (ex-div/ex-int) £m
Ordinary share capital 96 £1.70/share 326.4
Preference share capital 28 £1.80/share 50.4
3.5% debentures (redeemable at par in 20X9) 160 £105% 168.0
Notes
(1) OW’s retained earnings at 29 February 20X6 were £43.8 million.
(2) OW’s earnings for the year to 29 February 20X6 were £21.12 million. Earnings are not expected
to change significantly in the next two years.
(3) OW’s ordinary dividend for the year to 29 February 20X6 was £0.09 per share.
You are an ICAEW Chartered Accountant and the managing director of OW. The following comments
were made at OW’s most recent board meeting:
32.4 Calculate, and comment upon, the actual price of an ordinary OW share after the rights issue is
made, assuming that OW’s current P/E (price/earnings) ratio remains unchanged.
(7 marks)
32.5 Making reference to relevant theories, discuss whether the marketing director is correct that a
reduction in OW’s ordinary dividend would affect the price of its ordinary shares.
(7 marks)
32.6 Comment on the ethical implications of the production director’s suggestion for you as an
ICAEW Chartered Accountant.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Requirement
(a) Calculate the sterling cost of TC’s payment to GSL on 31 May 20X6 if it uses the following
to hedge its exchange rate risk:
• A forward contract
• A money market hedge
• An OTC currency option
(8 marks)
(b) With reference to your calculations in (a) above and the spot exchange rates provided,
advise TC’s board whether to hedge the payment to GSL.
(9 marks)
(c) Explain, with relevant workings, why the three-month forward rate is expressed at a
discount to the spot rate on 29 February 20X6.
(5 marks)
33.2 TC borrowed £18.5 million last year at a fixed rate of 5.2% pa and this loan is repayable in
March 20X9. Anticipating a fall in interest rates, TC’s board has asked its finance team to
investigate the possibility of arranging an interest rate swap. TC’s bank has offered the
company a variable rate loan at LIBOR plus 1.2% pa.
Saunders Southgate Media (SSM), a company with a similar sized loan to TC (at a variable rate
of LIBOR plus 1.6% pa), is keen to swap its loan for one at a fixed rate. SSM has been offered a
fixed rate of 6.4% pa by its bank. LIBOR is currently 3.5% pa.
On 31 May 20X6 Ross’s ordinary shares each had a market value of 576p (cum-div) and an equity
beta of 0.65. For the year ended 31 May 20X6, the dividend declared was 11p per ordinary share
and the earnings yield (earnings per share divided by the ex-div share price) was 6%.
Ross’s 6% coupon debentures had a market value on 31 May 20X6 of £111 (cum-interest) per £100
nominal value and are redeemable at par on 31 May 20Y0.
Requirements
35.1 Ignoring the Happytours project, calculate the WACC of Ross at 31 May 20X6 using:
(a) The Gordon growth model
(12 marks)
(b) The CAPM
(2 marks)
35.2 Explain the limitations of the Gordon growth model.
(3 marks)
35.3 Using the CAPM, calculate a WACC that is suitable for appraising the Happytours project and
explain your rationale.
(6 marks)
35.4 Assuming that £75 million is raised from the new 4% coupon debentures issued on 1 June
20X6, calculate the issue price per £100 nominal value and the total nominal value that will
have to be issued. Comment on the issue terms for these new debentures.
(7 marks)
35.5 Explain what is meant by a convertible debenture and outline the advantages and
disadvantages for Ross in raising finance using this type of debt.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
(a) Assuming that the spot exchange rate on 30 September 20X6 will be $/£1.5315 – 1.5325
and that the sterling currency futures price will be $1.5320/£, calculate Orchid’s net
sterling receipt if it uses the following to hedge its foreign exchange rate risk:
• A forward contract
• Currency futures contracts
• An over-the-counter currency option
(11 marks)
(b) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each hedging technique and advise
Orchid on which would be most beneficial for hedging its foreign exchange rate risk.
(9 marks)
36.2 Sheldon holds a portfolio of FTSE 100 shares and the current market value on 31 May 20X6 is
£9,657,000. The managers at Sheldon are worried that over the next three months the FTSE
100 will fall in value due to economic uncertainty in Europe and Asia. The managers at Sheldon
do not want to sell the company’s portfolio and wish to protect its current value against a
potential fall in the FTSE 100.
The FTSE 100 index is 6,525 on 31 May 20X6 and you have the following information available
to you regarding traded index option premiums:
FTSE 100 INDEX OPTIONS: £10 per full index point (points per contract)
36.3 Sheldon’s managers would like an explanation regarding the time value of the FTSE 100 index
options.
Requirement
Explain the three factors that will affect the time value of the FTSE 100 index options in 36.2
above.
(3 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Requirements
37.1 Assuming that on 31 March 20X7 LIBOR will be:
• 5% pa
• 7% pa
prepare suitable interest payment calculations for each eventuality and recommend to
Northern’s board whether it should hedge against interest rate movements using a FRA, an
option or an interest rate swap.
(9 marks)
37.3 With reference to your calculations in 37.2 above, explain to Northern’s board the implications
of hedging or not hedging the payment to ACT.
(8 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Roper’s most recent dividend payments and the interest payments due in the near future are shown
below:
Notes
(1) These are redeemable at par on 31 August 20X9.
(2) Ordinary and preference dividends are paid once a year. Ordinary dividend payments have
increased at a steady annual rate since August 20X2 at which time the ordinary dividend per
share was £0.201. There have been no issues of ordinary shares since August 20X2.
Additional information at 31 August 20X6
Roper equity beta – 1.2
Risk free rate (pa) – 1.9%
Market return (pa) – 9.5%
Fracking industry – market data at 31 August 20X6
Average equity beta – 1.9
Ratio of long–term funds (equity:debt) by market values – 90:25
Assume that corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future and tax will
be payable in the same year as the cash flows to which it relates.
Requirements
38.1 Ignoring the investment in fracking services, calculate Roper’s WACC at 31 August 20X6 using:
(a) The dividend growth model; and
(11 marks)
38.2 Ignoring the investment in fracking services, advise Roper’s board, giving reasons, whether it
should continue using 7% as its hurdle rate when appraising large-scale investments.
(3 marks)
38.3 Explain the underlying logic for using the CAPM when calculating a company’s WACC.
(5 marks)
38.4 Calculate the WACC that Roper should use when appraising its proposed investment in
fracking and explain the reasoning behind your approach.
(10 marks)
38.5 With reference to the information provided, explain the circumstances in which it would be
appropriate to use the adjusted present value approach to investment appraisal.
(4 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Email attachment:
Income statement for the year ended 31 August 20X6
£’000
Revenue 9,390
Working assumptions
£’000
Freehold land and buildings 3,150
Equipment 3,370
These revalued amounts have not been recognised in the balance sheet at 31 August 20X6.
(2) The average price/earnings ratio for listed businesses in Darlo’s industrial sector is 10 and the
average dividend yield is 8%.
(3) A discount rate of 12% pa appropriately reflects the risk of Darlo’s cash flows.
(4) Darlo’s pre-tax net cash inflows (after interest) for the next three years are estimated to be:
£’000
Year to 31 August 20X7 2,900
Year to 31 August 20X8 3,000
Year to 31 August 20X9 3,100
Projecting forward from 31 August 20X9 and taking a prudent view, our estimated net cash inflows
(after interest, capital asset replacement and all necessary tax adjustments) will be £2 million pa.
(5) On 31 August 20X6 Darlo’s equipment had a tax written down value of £920,000. Assume that
we will scrap it (ie, dispose of it for zero income) on 31 August 20X9. The equipment attracts 18%
(reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of expenditure and in every subsequent year of
ownership by the company, except the final year. In the final year, the difference between the
equipment’s written down value for tax purposes and its disposal proceeds will be treated by the
company either as a:
– balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; or
– balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value
(6) Corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future and that tax will be
payable in the same year as the cash flows to which it relates.
Requirements
39.1 Prepare a report for Darlo’s board which:
(a) Calculates the value of one share in Darlo based on each of these methods:
• Net asset basis (historic cost)
• Net asset basis (revalued)
• Price/earnings ratio
• Dividend yield
• Present value of future cash flows
(10 marks)
(b) Explains, with reference to your calculations and the information provided, the advantages
and disadvantages of using each of the five valuation methods in (a) above.
(10 marks)
39.2 Explain how the SVA approach works and whether the information provided by Jackie Tann is
sufficient to value Darlo using SVA (calculations are not required).
(8 marks)
40.3 Identify and discuss two real options available to Ribble in relation to the Ribbleboard project.
(5 marks)
40.4 Discuss the ethical issues that the CEO should consider regarding the suggestion by some
directors that only the Ribflyer hoverboard should continue to be manufactured.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
£m
Operating profit 25.00
Taxation at 17% (4.25)
Profit after tax 20.75
Additional information:
• Middleton has an equity beta of 1.1
• The risk free rate is expected to be 3% pa
• The market return is expected to be 8% pa
• Middleton’s current share price is £5 per share ex-div
• Middleton has 40 million ordinary shares in issue
Requirements
(a) Calculate, using the CAPM, Middleton’s cost of capital on 31 December 20X6.
(1 mark)
(d) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of the two alternative sources for raising the
£70 million, discuss the concerns of the board regarding the debenture issue (using the
gearing and interest cover information provided by the finance director) and advise
Middleton’s board on which source of finance should be used.
(12 marks)
(b) The possible exit routes for the financiers that contribute to the funding of the MBO.
(c) The content of the financial information section of the business plan.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
42 Orion plc
You should assume that the current date is 30 November 20X6.
Orion plc (Orion) is a UK company that manufactures nutrition products which it exports to the USA
and receives payment in dollars. Orion imports raw materials from a number of countries located in
Europe and makes payments to suppliers in euros.
At a recent board meeting of Orion concern was expressed about several aspects of the company’s
foreign exchange rate risk (forex) hedging strategy. Below is an extract from the minutes of the
meeting:
Managing director: “We have always hedged our forex and we should continue to do so. But I am
worried that because we import our raw materials and export our finished products, we are subject
to economic risk.”
Production director: “We use derivative instruments to hedge forex and I think they are too
complicated. How do the banks calculate forward rates for example? Also can someone explain to
me what economic risk is?”
It was decided that at the next board meeting the finance director should make a presentation to the
board on the subject of forex. The finance director has asked you to prepare some information for his
presentation including an example of how receipts are hedged using different hedging techniques.
You have the following information available to you at the close of business on 30 November 20X6:
Orion currently has substantial sterling funds on deposit.
Receipts due from USA customers on 31 March 20X7 are $5,000,000.
Exchange rates:
Spot rate ($/£) 1.4336 – 1.4340
Four month forward discount ($/£) 0.0086 – 0.0090
March currency futures price (standard contract size £62,500) $1.4410/£
Over-the-counter (OTC) currency option
A March put option to sell $ is available with an exercise price of $1.4390/£. The premium is £0.03
per $ and is payable on 30 November 20X6.
Annual borrowing and depositing interest rates (%)
Dollar 5.20 – 4.80
Sterling 3.30 – 3.00
42.2 An explanation of the advantages and disadvantages of the three hedging techniques used in
42.1 above and, using your results from 42.1 above, advice on which hedging technique Orion
should use.
(8 marks)
42.3 A demonstration, with reference to theories and relevant workings, of why the forward rate is at
a discount to the spot rate at 30 November 20X6.
(5 marks)
42.4 An explanation of what economic risk is, a discussion of how it affects Orion and an outline of
how economic risk can be mitigated.
(6 marks)
Total: 30 marks
£’000
Sales 78,500
Variable costs (56,520)
Fixed costs (13,850)
Profit before interest 8,130
Debenture interest (1,421)
Profit before tax 6,709
Taxation at 17% (1,141)
Profit after tax 5,568
Dividends proposed (3,000)
Retained profit 2,568
£’000
Ordinary share capital (£1 shares) 12,500
Retained profits 11,286
23,786
7% debentures (redeemable July 20X9 to December 20Y0) 20,300
44,086
The market values of Sentry’s ordinary shares and debentures on 28 February 20X7 are:
Requirements
43.1 For both the rights issue and the debenture issue, prepare forecast income statements for
Sentry for the year to 28 February 20X8.
(6 marks)
43.2 For both the rights issue and the debenture issue, calculate Sentry’s forecast:
• EPS figure for the year to 28 February 20X8; and
• gearing ratio (book value of long-term borrowings/long-term funds) as at 28 February
20X8.
(6 marks)
43.3 For the rights issue only, calculate the increase in annual sales required for the year to 28
February 20X8 in order that Sentry’s EPS figure remains the same as in the current year.
(6 marks)
43.4 Making reference to your calculations in 43.1, 43.2 and 43.3 above, discuss the implications for
Sentry’s shareholders of the company using a rights issue or a debenture issue to fund its
proposed £20 million investment.
(8 marks)
43.5 Discuss Matthew Girvan’s proposal that dividends should be cut, making reference to relevant
theories.
(6 marks)
43.6 Discuss the ethical issues for Jenna Helier that would be caused by Roger Smyth’s suggestion.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
London Newcastle
factory factory
Estimated lipstick sales (all at 31 March 20X7 prices)
Year to 31 March 20X8 £7.2m £1.3m
Year to 31 March 20X9 £5.5m £1.5m
Contribution to sales ratio 60% 65%
Leases
The London factory lease costs £1.8 million pa and expires on 31 March 20X9. The annual
lease cost is fixed and is payable on 1 April. If the factory is closed on 31 March 20X7 then
White would pay a tax allowable cancellation charge of £3 million on that date to cancel the
lease. The Newcastle factory lease costs a fixed £0.8 million pa which is payable on 1 April.
Other fixed costs
London Newcastle
factory factory
Factory-wide fixed costs pa (at 31 March 20X7 prices) £1.4m £1.2m
Allocated head office costs pa (at 31 March 20X7 prices) £1.6m £1.3m
Working capital
The London factory has a working capital balance on 31 March 20X7 of £0.8 million. White’s
policy is that at the start of each financial year, there should be working capital in place that is
equivalent to 10% of the estimated sales for that year.
The factory machinery attracts 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of
expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year.
(a) Calculate the relevant money cash flows associated with closing the London factory on:
(1) 31 March 20X7
(2) 31 March 20X9
and use these to calculate the net present value at 31 March 20X7 of each of these
possible closure dates.
In both of these calculations you should ignore any opportunity cash flows associated with
the alternative closure date
(21 marks)
(b) Advise White’s directors as to the preferred closure date of the London factory.
(1 mark)
Project 1 2 3 4
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Investment required 6,000 4,500 4,700 3,850
Net Present Value 621 563 869 622
Requirement
Prepare calculations showing the combination of projects that will maximise White’s
shareholders’ wealth if the four projects are assumed to be either (1) divisible or (2) indivisible.
(6 marks)
44.3 White’s managing director has stated that once the London closure date and the Manchester
investment plans are announced to the stock market, White’s share price will adjust to reflect
this information accurately. However, the finance director has pointed out that there are
behavioural factors that may mean that this is not the case.
Requirement
Explain the key principles underlying the Efficient Market Hypothesis and how behavioural
factors question the validity of that hypothesis.
(7 marks)
Total: 35 marks
47 Easton plc
Easton plc (Easton) is a listed company and a specialist retailer of pet-related products and operates
stores throughout the UK. The company is considering diversifying by opening veterinary practices
(‘the project’), which will operate from dedicated space in all of its stores.
At a board meeting of Easton it was agreed to appraise the project using net present value analysis.
However, considerable debate took place regarding the discount factor to use and whether the
company should be diversifying at all. At the meeting the finance director said:
“I will have to calculate a weighted average cost of capital (WACC) that reflects the systematic risk of
the project. I also intend to raise the capital required for the project in such a way as to leave our
existing debt: equity ratio (by market values) unchanged following the diversification”.
Various comments made by the other attendees at the meeting were as follows:
“Why can’t we just use our current WACC?”
“I have read that the shareholders of listed companies should diversify away unsystematic risk. But I
am confused as to what systematic and unsystematic risks are.”
“I think that we should stick to what we know and not attempt to diversify. I am worried about the
stock market’s reaction to this diversification.”
“What happens if we can’t maintain our existing capital structure? How do we then appraise the
project?”
Extracts from Easton’s most recent management accounts are shown below:
Balance sheet at 31 May 20X7
£m
Ordinary share capital (1p shares) 5
Retained earnings 1,098
1,103
4% Redeemable debentures at nominal value (redeemable 20Y5) 200
1,303
48 Lake Ltd
Lake Ltd (Lake) is a UK company that has recently started exporting leather goods to the USA. Lake is
fully aware of its exposure to foreign exchange rate risk (‘forex risk’) and the need to hedge it.
However, Lake is concerned that there may be other overseas trading risks that it should be
protecting itself against.
You work for Lake and have been asked to advise the board on how to hedge the forex risk
associated with its US trading activities. You have the following information available to you at the
close of business on 30 June 20X7:
Lake is due to receive payments from its US customers in three months’ time totalling $1,300,000.
Lake currently has an overdraft.
Exchange rates
Notes
1 Coastal’s non-current assets originally cost £52.8 million. They were valued at £37.8 million
on 31 August 20X7 and its current assets were valued at £4.2 million on the same date.
Neither of these valuations is reflected in the balance sheet at 31 August 20X7.
2 Coastal’s debentures were trading at £110% on 31 August 20X7
3 Average figures for listed UK commercial radio companies:
Dividend yield 5%
Requirement
(a) Calculate the value of one Coastal share based on each of the following methods:
• Price earnings ratio
• Dividend yield
(b) Justify and advise the board of the price range within which it should make an offer for
Coastal’s shares. Refer to your calculations in part (a) above.
(8 marks)
Sales for the current year (to 31 August 20X7) £70.0 million
Annual depreciation
(equal to annual replacement non-current asset expenditure) £1.5 million
Par value of 6% debentures in issue (current market value £95%) £10.0 million
Short-term investments held £0.7 million
Corporation tax rate 17%
Current WACC 8%
Beyond
Year to 31 August (budgeted) 20X8 20X9 20Y0 20Y0
Sales growth 5% 3% 2% 0%
Operating profit margin 8% 9% 9% 9%
Incremental non-current asset investment (as
a % of sales increase) 6% 5% 2% 0%
Incremental working capital investment (as a
% of sales increase) 5% 5% 4% 0%
Requirement
(a) Calculate the value of Albion’s equity using SVA.
(12 marks)
(b) Outline the methods by which Albion’s directors might raise the funds necessary for the
proposed MBO of the company.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
You are Ramsey’s finance director and an ICAEW Chartered Accountant. At its 22 August 20X7
meeting, the board considered two proposed new investments. You were asked to prepare workings
and recommendations in advance of the next meeting regarding those two investments, details of
which are shown below:
Investment 1
Ramsey wishes to invest £9.5 million in a new computerised manufacturing system, making use of
robotic techniques. Half of this investment would be funded from Ramsey’s retained earnings and
the balance via a bank loan at an agreed rate of 7.5% pa. A report was presented by the production
director at the 22 August board meeting. It concluded that this new system would generate
efficiencies that would increase manufacturing profit by 6–8% pa. At the same meeting, one of
Ramsey’s other directors, Michael Bateman, said that “because the company should be striving for a
higher share price, any press releases regarding the new system should state that profits are
expected to increase by at least 15% pa.”
Investment 2
Ramsey’s board is considering a major change in strategy by investing in the development of
driverless cars. A driverless car is a vehicle that is capable of sensing its environment and navigating
without human input. The finance for this investment would be raised in such a way so as not to alter
Ramsey’s current gearing ratio (measured as debt: equity by market values). The debt element of the
finance will come from a new issue of 9% irredeemable debentures at par.
Ramsey’s directors want to establish a cost of capital that could be used to appraise the investment in
driverless cars. They are aware that such a diversification would be very risky and is likely to increase
Ramsey’s equity beta which is currently 1.25.
The following data, collected at 31 August 20X7, should be used when preparing your workings for
the next board meeting:
Driverless cars industry sector
In relation to the AZS contract, you are aware that at the next board meeting Jenson’s directors will
discuss (a) the implications of an increase in the value of sterling and (b) the foreign exchange
hedging techniques that Jenson might employ.
Issue 2 – Shareholding in Callella plc
Jenson owns 50,000 shares in Callella plc (Callella). The company has never used any hedging
techniques to protect it from a fall in the value of this investment and the board now wishes to
remedy that. As a first step, the directors will consider how traded options work at the next board
meeting.
The market price of one Callella share at 31 August 20X7 is 365p. Traded options on Callella shares
at the same date are available as follows (all figures are in pence):
Calls Puts
Exercise price September October September October
355 11.0 21.0 2.0 13.5
370 3.5 14.0 9.0 20.5
Requirements
51.1 For Issue 1, calculate Jenson’s sterling receipt from the AZS contract if it:
(a) Uses an OTC currency option
(3 marks)
(d) Does not hedge the Canadian dollar receipt and sterling strengthens by 5% by 30
November 20X7
(1 mark)
51.2 With reference to your calculations in part 51.1, advise Jenson’s board whether or not it should
hedge its Canadian dollar receipt from the AZS contract.
(7 marks)
51.3 Explain why Jenson’s imports and exports might expose the company to economic risk.
(3 marks)
51.4 Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using currency futures rather than a forward
contract to manage foreign exchange risk.
(4 marks)
51.5 For Issue 2, calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of each of the options on Callella’s
shares at 31 August 20X7.
(4 marks)
51.6 For Issue 2, explain briefly the three factors that affect the time value of the options on
Callella’s shares.
(3 marks)
Total: 30 marks
(b) Outline the disadvantages of sensitivity analysis for the head of the financial management
department and how simulation might be a better way to assess the risk of the Defender
project.
(4 marks)
(c) Describe two real options that are available at the end of the project on 31 December
20Y0 as an alternative to selling the rights to manufacture the Defender.
(4 marks)
(d) Identify and discuss the ethical issues in relation to the sale of the rights to manufacture
the Defender.
(3 marks)
A suitable cost of capital for evaluating the replacement policy is 15% pa.
Requirement
Calculate the optimal replacement policy for the delivery vans and advise the head of the
financial management department of the limitations of the approach used.
Note: Ignore inflation and taxation when determining the optimal replacement policy.
(8 marks)
Total: 35 marks
The number of shares in issue has not changed during the period from 1 December 20X2 to 30
November 20X7.
Additional information:
• The cum-div share price on 1 December 20X7 is £2.92 per ordinary share. The special dividend
was paid in June 20X7.
• The 7% debentures have a cum-interest market value of £111 per £100 nominal value.
• Peel has an equity beta of 1.3.
• A company that supplies domestic appliances has an equity beta of 1.1 and a debt:equity ratio of
40:60 by market values.
• The risk free rate is expected to be 3% pa.
• The market risk premium is expected to be 6% pa.
• Assume that the rate of corporation tax will be 17% for the foreseeable future.
• An analyst has calculated the gearing ratios (measured as debt/equity by market values) and
interest cover for companies that operate in Peel’s market sector as follows:
53.2 Explain and evaluate whether either of the WACC figures calculated in 53.1 above would be
appropriate for appraising Peel’s diversification into supplying domestic appliances.
(5 marks)
53.3 Determine whether the £200 million finance required should be raised from either debt or
equity sources. You should discuss the likely reaction of both shareholders and the financial
markets, and make reference to the gearing and interest cover data provided and give advice
to Debbie on which source of finance should be used.
(12 marks)
53.4 Assuming that Peel raises the £200 million finance required wholly from debt, identify the most
appropriate project appraisal methodology that could be used to appraise the diversification.
Also determine the project discount rate that should be used in these circumstances.
(3 marks)
53.5 Discuss whether Peel’s dividend policy over the last five years is appropriate for a listed
company.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
(b) Explain why the hedge in 54.2 (a) above will not be 100% efficient.
(2 marks)
54.3 Task Three: Jewel recently bought new premises and borrowed £50 million for a period of 10
years. The loan is at a floating rate of LIBOR + 4% pa. LIBOR is currently 0.36% pa. The finance
director of Jewel believes that interest rates are going to rise and he would like to protect the
company against interest rate risk.
The finance director of Jewel identified Nevis plc (Nevis), which is a company that would like to
swap £50 million of its 5% pa fixed rate loans to a floating rate. Jewel and Nevis agreed to
enter into an interest rate swap with any benefits from the swap being shared equally between
the two companies. Jewel can borrow at a fixed rate of 6.5% pa and Nevis can borrow at a
floating rate of LIBOR + 3.5% pa.
Requirement
(a) Demonstrate how the interest rate swap between Jewel and Nevis would be
implemented, with the floating rate leg of the swap set at LIBOR.
(4 marks)
(b) Calculate:
• the initial difference in annual interest rates for Jewel if it enters into the interest rate
swap with Nevis.
• the amount to which LIBOR would have to rise for the cost of Jewel’s floating rate
borrowing to equal the fixed rate achieved through the interest rate swap.
(2 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Notes
1 Wells will pay its ordinary dividend (£1.716 million) for the year to 31 March 20X8 in early April
20X8. Its annual dividend has been growing steadily every year since April 20X5, at which time
the dividend totalled £1.570 million.
2 The 4% debentures are redeemable at par in 20Y1.
CAPM data
Wells’ equity beta 1.25
Expected risk-free return 2.4% pa
Expected return on the market portfolio 10.8% pa
Average equity beta for bakery retailers 1.80
Ratio of long-term funds (equity:debt by market
values) for bakery retailers 77:23
Two days ago, Alison Hughes sent you an email about Wells’ proposed investment. An extract from
her email is shown below:
Assume that the corporation tax rate will be 17% for the foreseeable future.
Requirements
55.1 Ignoring the investment in retail bakery outlets, calculate Wells’ weighted average cost of
capital (WACC) at 31 March 20X8 using:
(a) The dividend growth model and
(14 marks)
55.2 Discuss the points raised by the three directors at the 27 February 20X8 board meeting.
(6 marks)
55.3 Calculate an appropriate WACC that Wells could use when appraising the £17 million
investment in retail bakery outlets and explain the reasoning behind your approach.
(10 marks)
55.4 Identify and explain the ethical implications of Alison Hughes’ email for you, as an ICAEW
Chartered Accountant.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Requirement
(a) Calculate the cost to Hunt of borrowing £4.5 million for six months if it uses traded sterling
interest rate futures to hedge its interest rate risk and if by 1 June 20X8:
• interest rates increase to 7.5% pa and the futures price moves to 92.2
• interest rates increase to 8.0% pa and the futures price moves to 91.8
(b) Calculate the cost to Hunt of borrowing £4.5 million for six months if it uses OTC interest
rate options to hedge its interest rate risk and if by 1 June 20X8:
• interest rates increase to 7.5% pa
• interest rates increase to 8.0% pa
• interest rates decrease to 5.5% pa
(3 marks)
(c) Based on your calculations in (a) and (b) above, advise Hunt’s board as to the preferred
method of hedging its interest rate risk.
(2 marks)
Requirement
(a) Calculate Hunt’s sterling payment if it:
• does not hedge the euro payment and sterling weakens by 5% by 30 June 20X8
• uses a forward contract
• uses a money market hedge
(7 marks)
(b) With reference to your calculations in (a) above, advise Hunt’s board whether it should
hedge its euro payment.
(7 marks)
(c) Identify the differences between traded currency options and OTC currency options.
(3 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Year to 31 March
20X9 20Y0 20Y1
Houses constructed in year 250 250 0
Houses sold in year 75 75 0
Houses rented in year 0 175 350
Income statement
for the year ended Balance sheet
31 May 20X8 as at 31 May 20X8
£’000 £’000
Sales 280,000 Non-current assets 53,000
Operating costs (270,000) Current assets 31,000
Depreciation (6,000) 84,000
Amortisation (500)
Share capital (£1 ordinary
Profit before interest 3,500 shares) 3,000
Interest (950) Retained earnings 12,000
Profit before tax 2,550 15,000
Taxation (at 17%) (434) Long term loans 41,000
Profit after tax 2,116 Current liabilities 28,000
84,000
Additional information:
(1) Evans’s current assets include cash balances and short-term investments, which total £7
million.
(2) The market value of Evans’s non-current assets at 31 May 20X8 was estimated to be £59
million.
(3) Average multiples for a sample of listed companies in the same market sector as Evans at
31 May 20X8 are:
– Enterprise value – 6.5
– Price earnings (P/E) ratio – 12.1
Requirement
(a) Calculate the value of one Evans ordinary share at 31 May 20X8 based on each of the
following methods:
• Enterprise value
• P/E ratio
• Net assets basis (historic)
• Net assets basis (re-valued)
(8 marks)
(c) Discuss whether Shareholder Value Analysis (SVA) might be a useful additional method, to
those in part (a) above, of valuing Evans’s ordinary shares.
(3 marks)
(b) Identify one advantage and one disadvantage for each of the three divestment proposals.
(6 marks)
(c) Advise the board of Huzzey as to which of the three divestment proposals should be
chosen
(4 marks)
Total: 35 marks
59 Blackstar plc
Assume that the current date is 30 June 20X8.
Mitchells is a firm of ICAEW Chartered Accountants. Mitchells has been asked to advise a listed
client, Blackstar plc (Blackstar), on the following two issues:
Issue 1: Blackstar intends to raise additional funds of £150 million to fund an expansion of its existing
operations.
Issue 2: Blackstar is concerned about its existing dividend policy.
59.1 Issue 1: Raising additional funds of £150 million
Blackstar has always maintained a policy of no gearing. Other companies in Blackstar’s market
sector have average gearing ratios (measured as debt/equity by market values) of 25%, with a
maximum of 35%, and an average interest cover of eight times, with a minimum of six. The
finance director of Blackstar is considering raising the £150 million by either a rights issue or
by the company now borrowing and issuing debentures.
The details of the alternative sources of finance are as follows:
Rights Issue: The £150 million would be raised by a 2 for 3 rights issue, priced at a discount on
the current market value of Blackstar’s ordinary shares.
Debt issue: The £150 million would be raised by an issue of 6% coupon debentures,
redeemable at par on 30 June 20Y5. The gross redemption yield would be based on the
current gross redemption yield of other debentures issued by companies in Blackstar’s market
sector. One such company is Blue plc (Blue). Details for Blue’s debentures are as follows:
• Coupon 5%
• The current market price on 30 June 20X8 is £109 cum interest
• Redemption at par on 30 June 20Y3
Further information regarding Blackstar:
• The forecast pre-tax operating profit for the year ending 30 June 20X8 is £50 million
• The corporation tax rate is 17%
• The current share price at 30 June 20X8 is £7.50 ex-div
• The number of ordinary shares in issue is 60 million
(c) Advise Blackstar’s finance director of the advantages and disadvantages of raising the
£150 million by debt or equity or a combination of the two.
You should also discuss the likely reaction of Blackstar’s shareholders and the stock market
(you should refer to the gearing and interest cover information provided).
(12 marks)
(b) Discuss whether Blackstar’s current dividend policy is appropriate for a listed company
and critically evaluate the alternatives suggested by Directors A and B.
(4 marks)
59.3 Mitchells is also advising Goldwing plc, which is considering making a takeover bid for
Blackstar.
Requirement
Identify the ethical issues for Mitchells regarding giving advice to both Goldwing plc and
Blackstar. Also advise Mitchells on what safeguards might be put in place.
(3 marks)
Total: 35 marks
Prepare notes for the finance director of Tarbena, which should include:
Requirements
60.1 A calculation of Tarbena’s net sterling payment if it uses the following to hedge its forex:
(1) A forward contract
(2) Currency futures
(3) An OTC currency option
assuming that the spot rate on 30 September 20X8 will be $/£1.3167 – 1.3175 and the
September futures price will be $/£1.3171.
(12 marks)
4.0 0.4
3.0 0.6
Sales in the year to 31 August 20Y1 will be £2.5 million. The expected value of annual sales is to be
used in the NPV calculation.
(2) Variable costs will be 30% of sales.
(3) Fixed costs (including depreciation of £600,000 pa) will be £1.7 million pa.
(4) Closure costs on 31 August 20Y1 will be £600,000.
(5) All of the figures in (1)–(4) above are in 31 August 20X8 prices. The inflation rate for sales and
costs is 2% pa.
(6) The tax written down value at 31 August 20X8 of Snowdog’s plant and machinery is £3.3 million.
It is estimated that this will have a scrap value of £1.5 million (in 31 August 20Y1 prices) on 31
£’000
Ordinary share capital (£1 shares) 6,300
Retained earnings (Note 1) 2,520
9% Preference share capital (£1 shares) 750
4% Redeemable debentures (Note 2) 680
5% Irredeemable debentures 1,240
11,490
Notes
1 Earnings for the year to 31 August 20X8 were £1,050,000 and an ordinary dividend of £630,000
for the year to 31 August 20X8 has been proposed.
2 These debentures are redeemable at par on 1 September 20Y1.
The market prices of Heath’s long-term finance on 1 September 20X8 are:
Ordinary shares – £3.45/share (cum div)
Preference shares – £1.62/share (cum div)
Redeemable debentures – £103% (cum interest)
Irredeemable debentures – £94% (ex interest)
Additional information
Heath’s equity beta – 1.4
Expected risk free rate – 3.35% pa
Expected return on the market – 8.25% pa
You should assume that corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future
and tax will be payable in the same year as the cash flows to which it relates.
(b) CAPM
(3 marks)
62.2 Compare and contrast Gordon’s growth model with the CAPM as alternative means of
calculating the cost of equity.
(5 marks)
62.3 Advise Heath’s directors whether they should use the existing WACC figure calculated in part
62.1 above when appraising the investment suggested by Janine Barrowland. Your advice
UK Eurozone
Sales 96% 4%
Purchases of raw materials 74% 26%
Recently, a very large US electrical wholesale company, Timba Inc (Timba), placed an order with
Eddyson worth $2.3 million. The goods will be exported to the US next week and Timba will pay for
them on 30 November 20X8.
Eddyson’s board is considering whether it is worth hedging the foreign exchange rate risk associated
with the sale to Timba. Four possible strategies have been proposed:
• Do not hedge
• Use a forward contract
• Use a money market hedge
• Use sterling traded currency options
You work in Eddyson’s finance team and have been asked to provide calculations and guidance for
the board. You have collected the following information at the close of business on 1 September
20X8:
Sterling traded currency options (standard contract size £10,000) are priced as follows on 1
September 20X8 (premiums are quoted in cents per £):
contracts contracts
Notes
1 The new machinery would be purchased on 31 October 20X9. Hodder charges a full years’
depreciation in the year of acquisition and disposal.
The machinery attracts 18% (reducing balance) capital allowances in the year of expenditure and
in every subsequent year of ownership by the company, except the final year. In the final year, the
difference between the machinery’s written down value for tax purposes and its disposal
proceeds will be treated by the company either as:
• a balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value, or
• a balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
2 The trade-in value of the new machinery on 31 October 20Y2 is expressed in 31 October 20Y2
prices.
3 This represents the interest cost on a loan to part-finance the purchase of the new machinery.
4 The figures for fixed costs, direct labour, materials and working capital are stated in 31 October
20X9 prices. The inflation rate applicable to these flows is 2% pa. The outstanding working capital
balance will be released on 31 October 20Y2.
Other information
DC has offered Hodder the choice of two contract prices:
• £550,000 pa on 31 October in each of the three years 20Y0–20Y2; or
64.2 Compare the strengths and weaknesses of sensitivity analysis and simulation as methods of
assessing the risk of the DC proposal.
(5 marks)
64.3 Explain what is meant by the term ‘real options’ and identify one real option that could apply to
the DC proposal.
(3 marks)
64.4 Outline the potential risks that Hodder could face were it to expand its operations into China
and India.
(5 marks)
Total: 35 marks
£’000
Sales 43,500
Variable costs (23,925)
Fixed costs (9,500)
Profit before interest and tax 10,075
Interest (805)
Profit before tax 9,270
Taxation (17%) (1,576)
Profit after tax 7,694
Dividends paid (2,400)
Retained profit
£’000
£1 ordinary shares 16,000
Retained earnings 8,750
24,750
7% Debentures (redeemable in 20Y1) 11,500
36,250
Jackett’s board is keen to explore the implications of expanding the company’s operations into South
East Asia and Australia. The demand for package holidays to these areas has grown steadily in the
past five years and this is expected to continue, but at a slower rate, for at least another five years.
The board commissioned market research and the key financial implications noted in the research
report are shown below:
Table
Initial cost of investment – £7 million
Impact on sales and variable costs – 20% increase pa
Impact on fixed costs – Increase by £1.5 million pa
Other information
Jackett’s board plans to maintain the dividend per share payout for at least another 12 months.
Corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future.
The board has decided that, were this investment to proceed, it would commence on 1 October
20X9 when the £7 million required for the initial investment would be raised via:
• a 1 for 4 rights issue of ordinary shares; or
• an issue of 5% debentures (redeemable in 20Y8) at par.
The current market values of Jackett’s shares and debentures are:
Ordinary shares – £2.58 (ex-div)
7% debentures – £105% (ex-int)
Emails
You have recently received emails from Jackett’s sales director, Michael Ayres and a colleague in the
finance team, Ann Baker. An extract from each email is shown below:
Michael Ayres:
“I’m an amateur investor and have been tracking the Jackett share price for about four years. Past
patterns suggest that it will decrease by about 25% in the next quarter, so we need to make sure that
we don’t overprice any rights issue.”
Ann Baker:
“I’m worried that Jackett’s share price will fall if debt is used to finance the expansion. Please let me
know what the board decide so I can sell my Jackett shares if necessary before the market finds out.”
Requirements
65.1 For both the 1 for 4 rights issue and the 5% debenture issue, prepare forecast income
statements for Jackett for the year to 30 September 20Y0.
(9 marks)
65.2 For both the 1 for 4 rights issue and the 5% debenture issue, calculate Jackett’s:
• Earnings per share for the year to 30 September 20Y0.
66.2 Task 2
Barratt has built up a portfolio of UK FTSE100 shares over a number of years. The portfolio is
worth £8,350,000 on 31 August 20X9. The company’s board is considering using FTSE100
index futures to hedge against a fall in the value of the portfolio over the next four months.
You have the following information available to you on 31 August 20X9:
• The FTSE100 index is 7,130
• The price for December 20X9 FTSE100 index futures is 7,115
• The face value of a FTSE100 index futures contract is £10 per index point
Requirement
(a) Calculate the outcome of hedging the portfolio using December 20X9 FTSE100 index
futures. Assume that on 31 December 20X9 both the FTSE100 index and the FTSE100
index futures price will be 7,055 and that the portfolio value changes exactly in line with
the change in the FTSE100 index.
(6 marks)
66.3 Task 3
Barratt is expanding its manufacturing and warehousing capacity and needs a bank loan to
finance this. Construction work will start in January 20Y0 and Barratt’s bank has agreed to lend
the company £12.5 million for a five-year period, commencing on 1 March 20Y0. The bank will
charge interest at LIBOR + 1.5% pa. The board wishes to explore whether it would be worth
taking out an interest rate option to hedge against increases in LIBOR. Barratt’s bank has
offered it an option at 5.3% pa plus a premium of 1% of the sum borrowed.
Requirement
Calculate the annual interest payment if Barratt takes out the interest rate option and advise
the board whether it should hedge against increases in LIBOR.
For your calculations, assume that on 1 March 20Y0 LIBOR will be:
3.5% pa; or
5.5% pa
(5 marks)
Total: 30 marks
68 Wizard plc
Assume that the current date is 31 December 20X9.
Wizard plc (Wizard) is listed on the London Stock Exchange and is an entertainments company
operating in the UK. The board of Wizard is considering diversifying by purchasing Merlin Ltd
(Merlin) which runs a chain of hotels. The cost of purchasing Merlin is estimated to be £735 million
and this will be financed entirely by new 5% coupon debentures issued at par.
Wizard’s board has asked you, the finance director, to make a presentation at the next board meeting
on:
• Why the purchase of Merlin should be evaluated using the Adjusted Present Value (APV)
technique.
• How the new debt finance raised would affect certain key financial ratios and the likely reaction of
shareholders and the capital markets.
• Wizard’s current dividend policy and whether this should be continued in future.
Extracts from Wizard’s most recent management accounts are shown below:
Income statement for the year ended 31 December 20X9
£m
Profit before interest and tax 395
Interest 55
340
Taxation @ 17% 58
Profit after tax 282
£m
Ordinary share capital (10p nominal value) 140
Retained earnings 2,100
2,240
4% Redeemable debentures at nominal value 1,375
3,615
On 31 December 20X9 Wizard’s ordinary shares each have a market value of £4.79 (ex-div). The 4%
debentures are redeemable at par (£100) in four years’ time and their current market price is £93 (ex-
interest).
Profit after tax and dividends for the 5 years to 31 December 20X9 are shown below:
£m £m
Requirements
68.1 Calculate Wizard’s compound annual dividend growth rate for the following periods and
discuss which of the rates is most appropriate for calculating the cost of equity in the dividend
valuation model:
(b) Explain the relative advantages and disadvantages of each of the hedging techniques in
78.1 (a) above and advise Sport’s board as to which technique would be the most
beneficial for hedging its forex risk.
(8 marks)
Requirements
(a) Calculate the gains or losses if the purchaser had paid in Bitcoins at 09.00 on 31
December 20X9 and those Bitcoins had then been sold for sterling at either 10.00 or
11.00.
(2 marks)
(b) Advise Sport on whether to accept the payment for the building in sterling or Bitcoins.
(2 marks)
(a) Calculate the interest cost of Sport borrowing £1,240,000 for 18 months if it does not
hedge its interest rate risk and LIBOR remains at 0.90% pa.
(1 mark)
(b) Calculate the interest cost of Sport borrowing £1,240,000 for 18 months if it uses traded
sterling interest rate futures to hedge its interest rate risk, if by 31 March 20Y0:
• LIBOR increases to 1.50% pa and the futures price moves to 98.30
• LIBOR decreases to 0.75% pa and the futures price moves to 99.00
(6 marks)
(c) Explain why the interest rate risk of Sport borrowing the £1,240,000 is not perfectly
hedged by the futures contracts in 3.3 (b) above.
(2 marks)
Total: 30 marks
Sterling traded currency options (standard contract size £10,000) are priced as follows on 1 April
20Y0 (premiums are quoted in cents per £ and are payable in advance):
Requirements
70.1 Calculate Engavon’s net sterling receipt for each of the three hedging methods listed in the
finance director’s email, assuming that on 30 June 20Y0 the spot exchange rate will be:
(1) A$/£ 1.8270 – 1.8345
(2) A$/£ 1.8730 – 1.8810
Note: Interest on option premiums should be ignored.
(14 marks)
£’000
£1 ordinary shares 20,500
6% £1 preference shares 4,300
4% irredeemable debentures 5,100
3% redeemable debentures (note 1) 6,800
Note 1
These debentures are redeemable at par on 31 March 20Y3.
The market values of AOS’s capital at 31 March 20Y0 are:
You should assume that corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future
and tax will be payable in the same year as the cash flows to which it relates.
Requirements
71.1 Calculate AOS’s WACC on 31 March 20Y0 using:
(a) The dividend valuation model
(16 marks)
(b) The CAPM
(2 marks)
71.2 Compare and contrast the dividend valuation model with the CAPM as alternative means of
calculating the cost of equity.
(5 marks)
71.3 Advise AOS’s directors whether they should use the WACC figure calculated in 71.1 when
appraising the Pentmarine purchase.
(4 marks)
71.4 Explain the adjusted present value (APV) technique and indicate whether it is applicable to the
Pentmarine purchase.
(4 marks)
71.5 Explain the portfolio effect and discuss the board member’s contention that AOS’s
development of a portfolio of investments would reduce the risks to its shareholders.
(4 marks)
Total: 35 marks
All figures in this table are in 31 March 20Y0 prices. Sales will not increase with inflation. The inflation
rate applicable to all costs in this table is 2% pa.
Additional estimates at 31 March
20Y1 20Y3
£’000 £’000
Factory selling price (note 1) 7,700 8,200
Plant and machinery disposal proceeds
(note 2) 900 780
Redundancy payments (note 3) 2,000 2,150
Note 1
The factory selling prices are stated in money terms. Greene’s board wishes to provide for a
corporation tax charge of 17% on the agreed selling price of the factory.
Note 2
The plant and machinery disposal proceeds are stated in money terms. The plant and machinery will
have a tax written down value of £740,000 on 1 April 20Y0. It attracts 18% (reducing balance) capital
allowances in the year of expenditure and in every subsequent year of ownership by the company,
except the final year.
In the final year, the difference between the plant and machinery’s written down value for tax
purposes and its disposal proceeds will be treated by the company either as:
• a balancing allowance, if the disposal proceeds are less than the tax written down value; or
• a balancing charge, if the disposal proceeds are more than the tax written down value.
Note 3
The redundancy payments are stated in money terms.
Other information
Unless indicated otherwise, assume that all cash flows occur at the end of the relevant financial year.
Corporation tax will be payable at the rate of 17% for the foreseeable future and tax will be payable
in the same year as the cash flows to which it relates.
Greene’s money cost of capital is 8% pa.
Requirements
72.1
(a) Calculate the relevant money cash flows associated with closing Hawten on:
(1) 31 March 20Y1
1.1 Machinery 1
Tax saving 2
Tax on income 1
Working capital investment 2
Discounting and NPV 1
Recommendation 1
No market research costs 1
No fixed costs 1
Selling price 1
Raw materials 1
Variable overheads 1
Loss of contribution 3
Labour costs ignored 1
Maximum 17
1.2 NPV 1
IRR 1
Advice on usefulness 4
Maximum 6
1.3 Relevant discussion 6
Maximum 6
1.4 Relevant discussion 6
Maximum 6
Total 35
As the NPV is positive SGS should proceed with the investment as this will enhance
shareholder wealth.
WORKINGS
(1)
(2)
March
20X3
Contribution/unit £
Selling price 190
Less: Raw materials (43)
Variable overheads (45)
Loss of Boom-Boom contribution ([£99 – £28 – £35] × 2) (72)
Contribution/unit 30
Examiner’s comments
This question was generally done very well and had the highest average mark on the paper.
2 Profitis plc
2.1 Calculations:
Time 0 1
Time 1 1
Time 2 1.5
Time 3 2.5
Time 4 1
PV 2
Equivalent annual cost 3
Conclusion 1
Maximum 13
2.2 1.5 marks per point 4
Maximum 4
Total 17
3 years 4 years
Time PV @ 15% PV @ 15%
£ £ £ £
0 Cost (80,000) (80,000)
Capital allowance (w) 2,448 2,448
(77,552) (77,552) (77,552) (77,552)
1 Capital allowance 2,007 2,007
WORKING
Time @ 17%
£ £
0 Cost 80,000
Writing-down allowance (18%) (14,400) 2,448
65,600
1 Writing-down allowance (18%) (11,808) 2,007
53,792
2 Writing-down allowance (18%) (9,683) 1,646
44,109
3 Proceeds (10,000)
34,109 5,799
or
3 Horton plc
3.1
(a) Project 3
Capital Allowances
Cost 3,000,000
Cost 3,000,000
540,000 91,800
20X9 WDA @ 18%
2,460,000
2,017,200
1,654,104
1,356,365
Proceeds 1,000,000
Year 0 1 2 3 4
(2,908,200) (1,424,724) 3,811,726 3,800,616 3,810,582
1 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683
PV (2,908,200) (1,295,074) 3,148,486 2,854,263 2,602,628
NPV £4,402,103
(b) Scenario 1:
With no capital rationing, all projects yielding a positive NPV should be accepted.
Therefore, accept 100% of Projects 1, 3 and 4.
Scenario 2:
With capital rationing of £4.5 million at T0 and divisible projects, the NPV per £ invested
needs to be calculated for each project:
Project 1: 2,676,600/2,400,000 = £1.12 (Rank 2)
Project 2: (461,700)/2,250,000 = Negative
Project 3: 4,402,103/3,000,000 = £1.47 (Rank 1)
Project 4: 2,016,250/2,630,000 = £0.77 (Rank 3)
Project 5: (45,250)/3,750,000 = Negative
So with £4.5 million to invest, accept 100% of Project 3 (£3m) and 62.5% of Project 1
(£1.5m).
Scenario 3:
Under this scenario, Project 2 will never be accepted as it yields a negative NPV and
consumes funds in the year of capital rationing. However, Project 4 will always be
accepted as it yields a positive NPV and generates funds in the year of capital rationing.
Of the remaining projects:
Project 1: 2,676,600/750,000 = £3.57 (Rank 1)
Project 3: 4,402,103/1,500,000 = £2.93 (Rank 2)
Project 5: Negative NPV
With indivisible projects, the potential portfolios of investments possible with capital of
£5.25 million are as follows: Project 1 or Project 3 or Project 4 or Projects 1 and 4.
The NPVs generated by these four possibilities are:
Project 1: 2,676,600
Project 3: 4,402,103
Project 4: 2,016,250
Projects 1 and 4: 4,692,850
Therefore, the projects that should be undertaken are Projects 1 and 4.
Note: 99.9% of candidates attempting this question proceeded on the basis set out
above, which takes account of the revised NPV for Project 3 calculated in part 3.1(a) –
£4,402,103 – but which retains the original Project 3 cash outlays as (£3m) in T0 and
(£1.5m) in T1, thereby reflecting the practical reality that Horton would have to spend these
sums before receiving the benefit of the capital allowances calculated in part 3.1(a).
Note: However, it should be noted that full credit was given to any candidate who used
the revised Project 3 cash outlays of £2,908,200in T0 and £1,424,724 in T1.
Note: Taking this approach would have the following impact on the calculations:
Note: In Scenario 1, no impact.
Note: In Scenario 2, Project 3 would now yield an NPV per £ invested of £1.51 (still Rank 1)
and 66.3% of Project 1 could now be undertaken (up from 62.5%).
Note: In Scenario 3, Project 3 would now yield an NPV per £ invested of £3.09 (still Rank
2); without Project 5, 21.1% of Project 3 could now be undertaken (up from 20%); and this
would now yield an overall NPV of £5,621,694; with Project 5, 94.8% of Project 3 could
now be undertaken and this would now yield an overall NPV of £8,820,794.
(c) The reasons why leasing might be a preferred source of finance are as follows:
(1) Tax: The tax effects of owning an asset compared to using one under a lease are
different and can lead to a preference for leasing as a source of finance.
(2) Capital rationing: Firms, in particular small firms, who may encounter difficulties
raising conventional loan finance, are effectively able to use the asset acquired as
security to overcome such potential funding problems.
(3) Cash flow: Leasing means avoiding the large cash outlay at the outset. Lease
payments will be predictable which aids business planning.
(4) Cost of capital: The implicit cost of borrowing in the lease can be lower than that in a
conventional bank loan.
(5) Flexibility: Examples such as ease of arrangement; lower payments in early stages;
combining other elements into overall package – service, insurance, secondary lease
terms.
(a) Calculation of NPVs of each potential replacement cycle:
1-year cycle:
(11,000) + {7,000 × 0.909} + {(6,600) × 0.909} = £(10,636)
Examiner’s comments
Candidates generally coped well with the calculation of capital allowances in the opening section of
part 3.1 and it was a rare script that failed to pick up full marks (where this did happen, it was most
commonly due only to arithmetical slips of the pen). With the four capital rationing scenarios most
candidates were able to identify the correct projects to pursue in scenario 1. However, in scenario 2
there were weaker candidates who simply failed to use the ranking methodology based on NPV per
£ invested. Weaker candidates also found scenario 3 rather challenging, overlooking the need to
consider Project 5 in spite of its negative NPV in view of the cash released in the second period. Most
candidates coped well with scenario 4. Most candidates picked up high marks on the technical
knowledge part of the lease discussion, but scored less strongly on the whole in discussing the
relative merits of leasing over outright purchase. Another notable feature was that some candidates
tended to answer the question with their ‘financial reporting’ hat on rather than their ‘financial
management’ hat – the examination is a test of candidates’ knowledge of the financial management
learning materials.
Most candidates found little to trouble them in the standard replacement analysis question in part
3.2.
4 ProBuild plc
NPV £2,042,260
4.2 Decisions are usually said to be subject to uncertainty if the possible outcomes of a decision
are known but the probabilities attaching to each possible outcome are unknown.
Decisions are usually said to be subject to risk if, although there are several possible outcomes
of a decision, these outcomes as well as the respective probabilities attaching to each of these
possible outcomes are known.
The calculations undertaken in part 4.1 have been made under conditions of uncertainty as the
directors do not have details of the probabilities attaching to the two scenarios. So they need
to establish such probabilities and then calculate expected values for each variable (the
arithmetic mean of possible outcomes weighted by the probability of each outcome).
4.3 The concept of ‘real options’ relates to the strategic implications attaching to undertaking a
particular project – the value of such ‘real options’ would not ordinarily be included in a
traditional NPV calculation.
Two obvious ‘real options’ applicable to Brixham’s acquisition of Cabin are as follows:
(1) Follow-on option: For example, the opportunity to add further acquisitions in due course
to gain the benefits of increased economies of scale/market share.
(2) Growth option: For example, the opportunity to broaden the range of services on offer in
due course.
Examiner’s comments
The first question on the paper was a standard investment appraisal question, supplemented by tests
of technical knowledge and its practical application. For the most part, candidates scored strongly on
the first part of the question, the majority clearly being well-drilled in the quantitative techniques
involved in this part of the question. Equally apparent was that the majority of candidates were ill-
equipped in terms of simple technical knowledge to pick up full or even high marks in the second
and third parts of the question, with many scripts scoring zero or at most very low marks on both
parts.
In the first part of the question, probably the most common error was inaccurate calculation of the
inflation-adjusted discount factors. However, there were many instances of full marks.
The second part of the question was a straightforward test of knowledge of elements from the
learning materials, but many candidates were completely unacquainted with them and consequently
there was much waffling and little accuracy and substance to many of the candidates’ responses. In
the final part of the question, many candidates were completely unaware of what a ‘real option’ was
in an investment decision-making context, with many candidates incorrectly interpreting ‘real’ as
meaning after taking account of the effects of inflation, thereby betraying their lack of study of the
learning materials. The last part of the question was of a different character to the second part in that
it was not merely looking for technical knowledge, but also the application of that knowledge to the
T0 T1 T2 T3
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Plant (400.000) 60.000
Tax saved (W1) 12.240 10.037 8.230 27.293
Working capital (W2) (32.000) (5.000) (3.000) 40.000
Sales (W2) 320.000 370.000 400.000
Materials (52.000) (64.000) (70.000)
Labour (26.000) (32.000) (35.000)
Other variable costs (12.000) (14.000) (16.000)
Fixed overheads (11.000) (11.800) (12.700)
Tax on profit (W3) (37.230) (42.194) (45.271)
Total Cash Flows (419.760) 186.807 211.236 348.322
Discount factor (W4) 1.000 0.925 0.855 0.783
PV (419.760) 172.796 180.607 272.736
NPV 206.379
Comments:
The NPV is positive and so Frome should proceed with the investment as shareholder value is
enhanced.
(2)
(3)
(4)
5.2 Inflation has to be taken properly into account so that the correct NPV is calculated. Inflation
will have a negative effect on the real value of money and an investor will need to be
compensated for that loss of value. As a result it is important to match real cash flows with real
interest/discount rate. This method can be problematic and so it is preferable, if possible, to
match money (nominal) cash flows, ie, actual cash flows, with an inflated discount rate. This
discount rate is calculated as follows: (1 + m) = (1 + r) × (1 + i), where m = money rate, r = real
rate and i = inflation rate.
5.3 The cost of capital is the cost of funds that a company raises and uses, and the return that
investors expect to be paid (commensurate with the risk exposure) for putting funds into the
company and therefore is the minimum return that a company must make on its own
investments, to earn the cash flows out of which investors can be paid their return.
If a company calculates its cost of capital at too high a figure then it is likely to reject
investment opportunities that it should be taking on (ie, would provide a positive NPV).
In contrast if it sets the cost of capital at too low a level then it is likely to take on investment
opportunities that it shouldn’t be taking on (ie, those with negative NPVs).
Both of these outcomes would be detrimental to shareholder value.
5.4 Follow-on
Examiner’s comments
This question scored the highest average mark for the paper and was done very well.
The first part was relatively straightforward and most candidates scored high marks. The main errors
were candidates inflating the cash flows (unnecessarily) or getting the discount factor to t2 and t3
incorrect.
The second part was done reasonably well, but too few candidates were able to adequately explain
the reasons for their approach to inflation.
Most candidates failed to explain the meaning of the cost of capital in part 5.3. Otherwise it was
done well.
Part four was generally done well and those candidates who scored well here explained the real
options in the context of the question.
6.1 Net present value of the NBL 1114 project at 31 March 20X1
EITHER
Pessimistic
t0
t1 t2 t3
20X1 20X2 20X3 20X4
£ £ £ £
Machine (480,000) 0
Tax saved on m/c (W1) 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
Contribution (W2) 320,100 320,100 320,100
Fixed costs (W3) (140,000) (140,000) (140,000)
Tax on extra profit (W4) (30,617) (30,617) (30,617)
Working capital (50,000) 50,000
Total cash flows (515,312) 161,527 159,359 244,475
Discount factor 10% 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751
PV (515,312) 146,828 131,631 183,601
NPV (53,252)
Optimistic
t1
t0 t2 t3
20X1 20X2 20X3 20X4
£ £ £ £
Machine (480,000) 0
Tax saved on m/c 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
Contribution (W5) 399,300 399,300 399,300
Fixed costs (140,000) (140,000) (140,000)
Tax on extra profit (W6) (44,081) (44,081) (44,081)
Working capital (50,000) 50,000
Total cash flows (515,312) 227,263 225,095 310,4211
Discount factor 10% 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751
PV (515,312) 206,582 185,928 232,968
t0 t1 t2 t3
20X1 20X2 20X3 20X4
£ £ £ £
Machine (480,000) 0
Tax saved on
m/c 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
Contribution
(@33) 359,700 359,700 359,700
Fixed costs (140,000) (140,000) (140,000)
Tax on extra
profit (W7) (37,349) (37,349) (37,349)
Working capital 50,000
Total cash flows 194,395 192,227 227,343
Discount factor
10% 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751
WORKINGS
(1) WORKINGS
t0 t1 t2 t3
£ £ £ £
Cost/WDV 480,000 393,600 322,752 264,657
WDA @ 18% (86,400) (70,848) (58,095) (264,657)
WDV 393,600 322,752 264,657 0
Tax @ 17% 14,688 12,044 9,876 44,992
t1 t2 t3 Total
‘Real’ cash flow (W2) £320,100 £320,100 £320,100
‘Real’ discount factor (10%) (1/1.10) (1/1.102) (1/1.103)
‘Real’ Present Value £291,000 £264,545 £240,496 £796,041
t1 t2 t3 Total
‘Money’ cash flow (inflated) £336,105 £352,910 £370,556
‘Money’ discount factor (1/1.155) (1/1.1552) (1/1.1553)
‘Money’ Present Value £291,000 £264,545 £240,496 £796,041
NPV difference 0
(2) Working capital – the NPV will be affected by the impact of inflation on the working capital
investment as there will be incremental increases to the working capital in the three years
of the project and there will be an inflated working capital figure at the end of the project.
t0 t1 t2 t3 Total
‘Real’ cash flow [see (a)] (50,000) 0 0 50,000 0
So the total impact of 5% annual inflation on contribution and working capital will be an NPV
figure that is £5,921 lower.
Examiner’s comments
This question had the highest average mark on the paper and most candidates scored high marks.
7 Newmarket plc
0 1 2 3 4 5
Cost (750,000) 50,000
Fee (10,000)
Inc. Costs (170,000) (170,000) (170,000) (170,000) (170,000)
Salary (35,000) (35,000) (35,000) (35,000) (35,000)
Tax 36,550 34,850 34,850 34,850 34,850
WDA 22,950 18,819 15,432 12,654 10,376 38,769
Net (727,050) (159,631) (154,718) (157,496) (159,774) (81,381)
10% 1 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621
PV (727,050) (145,105) (127,797) (118,279) (109,126) (50,538)
Tax effect @
Year end 17% Year
£ £
30 June 20X2 Purchase 750,000
WDA @ 18% (135,000) 22,950 0
615,000
30 June 20X3 WDA @ 18% (110,700) 18,819 1
504,300
30 June 20X4 WDA @ 18% (90,774) 15,432 2
413,526
30 June 20X5 WDA @ 18% (74,435) 12,654 3
339,091
30 June 20X6 WDA @ 18% (61,036) 10,376 4
278,055
30 June 20X7 Sale proceeds 50,000
Balancing allowance 228,055 38,769 5
7.2
(1) Sensitivity analysis:
– A way of incorporating alternative forecasts into project evaluation
– Involves taking each uncertain forecast and calculating the change in the variable
necessary for the NPV of the project to fall to zero
– Formula: Sensitivity = NPV of project/PV of cash-flows subject to uncertainty × 100
(2) Simulation (scenario analysis):
– Allows the effect of more than one variable changing simultaneously to be assessed
– Monte Carlo simulation, for example, makes use of random numbers and probability
statistics to evaluate projects armed with a more detailed insight into the nature of risks
and returns
(Reference to expected values would also be rewarded with up to three marks.)
7.3 Systematic risk:
Examiner’s comments
Rather surprisingly, this was the lowest scoring question on the paper, which is not something we
normally associate with the investment appraisal question, albeit on a paper with a relatively high
pass rate of 88%. The final stage of the first part of the question proved beyond many candidates,
who up until that point had generally coped well with the standard demands of the question. Parts
two and three proved relatively straightforward for well-prepared candidates, but the failure of many
weak candidates to complement their learning of technique with the acquisition of basic knowledge
led to many of them often sacrificing all 12 of the marks available on these parts of the question.
Overall, the performance in the first part of the question was strong, although where errors were
made the most common ones related to the inclusion and timing of the fee payment, the inclusion of
irrelevant costs and an inability to use the net present value calculation to accurately address the final
stage of the question.
For the most part, well-prepared candidates scored full marks in the second part, but there were still
a surprising number of scripts that missed the opportunity to score strongly, often veering off course
into other areas of the syllabus, notably derivatives, which were not relevant to the precise
requirements of the question.
Although the third part covers an element of the syllabus that is tested relatively infrequently, the
majority of candidates coped well with it, although there were still a significant number of weaker
scripts that displayed a complete misunderstanding of the terms and that were, consequently,
unable to apply them meaningfully to the scenario in the question.
As the NPV is positive GMI should proceed with the investment as this will enhance
shareholder wealth.
WORKINGS
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
8.2 For NPV to fall to zero then the second instalment will need to fall by:
£
£5,972,000/0.794/0.83 = (9,061,940)
Estimated second instalment = 85,000,000
Minimum value of the second instalment 75,938,060
8.3 GMI’s money cost of capital already takes into account GMI’s estimated inflation rate. So if the
cash flows are inflated at the same rate then the correct NPV will be calculated.
If the South American inflation rates are higher than predicted then inflate further the money
cost of capital and the estimated cash flows. NPV will not be affected.
However, for the WDA, equipment resale and the second instalment, the NPV will fall as the
money discount rate rises. These are in money terms already.
8.4 Calculations:
£’000
Annual income from 20X6 (Year 4) 5,000
Annual costs from 20X6 (3,000)
Annual surplus from 20X6 2,000
Less tax @ 17% (340)
1,660
Perpetuity factor (1.08/1.03) 4.85%
PV of future cash flows at Year 3 [end 20X5] (£1,660/4.85%) 34,227
Discount to PV (from Year 3 [end 20X5]) × 0.794
PV of future cash flows (minimum selling price of the maintenance contract) 27,176
8.5 Political risk is the risk that political action will affect the position and value of a company.
Candidates’ discussion should be based on the following possible risks:
• Quotas/tariffs/barriers imposed by the overseas government
• Nationalisation of assets by the overseas government
• Stability of the overseas government
• Political and business ethics
• Economic stability/inflation
• Remittance restrictions
Examiner’s comments
This question was a good discriminator between those students who have learned the calculations
and underlying theory by rote and those who really understand the topic.
In general, in the first part, a fairly standard NPV calculation, most candidates scored high marks. The
most common errors were made with regard to working capital investment and the corporation tax
flows.
The second part was done reasonably, but a surprising number of candidates forgot to take taxation
into account in their calculations.
The discursive nature of the third part caught out many candidates – they failed to adequately explain
the impact of using an erroneous inflation rate and therefore to demonstrate that they fully
understood this part of the syllabus. A common error made by candidates was to forget that revenue
from the project was fixed.
The final part was done poorly and too few candidates were able to adequately deal with the
discounting techniques required.
9 Wicklow plc
NPV £6,925,011
The recommendation to the directors should, therefore, be to proceed with the ‘Heritage’
version of the Duo cooker.
WORKINGS
(1) Capital Allowances
(2) DH Revenue
20X9: 1,500 (0.65) + 2,000 (0.35) = 1,675 × £7,000 = £11,725,000
20Y0: 1,800 (0.65 × 0.7) + 2,000 (0.65 × 0.3) + 2,200 (0.35 × 0.6) + 2,500 (0.35 × 0.4) =
2,021 × £7,000 = £14,147,000
20Y1 and 20Y2: 110% × 2,021 = 2,223 × £7,000 = £15,561,000 pa
Next year’s
sales value 15%
DH:
20X8 11,725,000 (1,758,750)
20X9 14,147,000 (2,122,050)
20Y0 15,561,000 (2,334,150)
20Y1 15,561,000 (2,334,150)
20Y2 0 0
Duo:
20X8 (5,447,000) 817,050
20X9 (6,571,500) 985,725
20Y0 (7,228,000) 1,084,200
20Y1 (7,228,000) 1,084,200
20Y2 0 0
Net effect:
20X8 (941,700)
20X9 (194,625)
20Y0 (113,625)
20Y1 0
20Y2 1,249,950
(a) To calculate the sensitivity of changes in sales price, it is assumed sales quantity is fixed
and then the relevant cash flows from part 9.1 are considered.
NPV = £5,413,661
IRR for this project = 8 + (6,925,011/(6,925,011 – 5,413,661))(15 – 8) = 40.1%
The cost of equity would need to increase to 40.1% (an increase of almost 400% from its
current level) before the investment decision would change.
9.2 The NPV calculated in 10.1 at £6,925,011 is for an ungeared firm.
The PV of the tax shield (interest = £2m × 0.05 = £0.1m) is calculated as follows:
Examiner’s comments
Most candidates found the first part of the question to their liking. The initial calculation of expected
values proved largely unproblematic, but common errors among weaker candidates were incorrect
calculation of the lost contribution from the existing product and an inability to calculate accurately
the net working capital impact of the project. In this latter regard, a surprising number of candidates
correctly calculated the impact of the new product, but then failed to deduct the off-setting impact of
the existing product. It was also apparent that a significant number of candidates appear to believe
that it is an effective time-saving tactic not to bother with the calculation of discount factors and/or
the actual discounting of cash flows and simply to say that if the resultant NPV was positive their
recommendation would be to accept the project (or vice versa). Given that marks were explicitly
10 Daniels Ltd
10.1
(a) No capital rationing, so choose all projects with a positive NPV, ie:
NPV
£’000
Bristol 577
Swansea 2,856
Tiverton 1,664
Total 5,097
(b) Capital rationing of £8 million on 31/5/X7 (t0). Rank according to NPV/£ invested:
Therefore choose all of Swansea (£5m investment) and 65.2% (£3,000/£4,600) of Tiverton:
NPV
£’000
Swansea (100%) 2,856
Tiverton (65.2%) 1,085
Total 3,941
If Gloucester is ignored, because it has a negative NPV, then there is £1,790,000 (£500,000
+ 1,290,000 [Tiverton]) available at t1.
Thus choose Swansea (higher ranking than Bristol) and do 68.6% (£1,790/£2,610) of it.
Thus the total NPV would be:
£’000
Tiverton 1,664
Swansea (68.6% × £2,856,000) 1,959
3,623
Alternatively, if Gloucester is considered and its positive t1 cash flow utilised then there is
£3,560,000 capital available (£1,790,000 + £1,770,000) at t1.
Based on the same ranking, for t1 choose 100% Swansea and use the balance (£950,000)
to fund Bristol, ie, (higher ranking than Bristol) and do 73.6% (£950/£1,290) of it. Thus the
total NPV would be:
£’000
Tiverton 1,664
Swansea (100%) 2,856
Bristol (73.6% × £577,000) 425
Gloucester (632)
4,313
Thus it is preferable if the Gloucester project is taken on as this produces the higher total
NPV.
10.2 Capital rationing of £9 million in t0, but projects not divisible:
Eq. Ann
PV factor PV PV factor Cost
£ £ £ £
Replace vans after
one year
t0 Cost of van (12,400) 1.000 (12,400)
t1 Maintenance costs (4,300)
Resale value 9,800
5,500 0.909 5,000
(7,400) 0.909 (8,140)
Replace vans after
two years
t0 Cost of van (12,400) 1.000 (12,400)
t1 Maintenance costs (4,300) 0.909 (3,909)
t2 Maintenance costs (4,800)
Resale value 7,000
2,200 0.826 1,818
(14,491) 1.735 (8,352)
Replace vans after three years
t0 Cost of van (12,400) 1.000 (12,400)
t1 Maintenance costs (4,300) 0.909 (3,909)
t2 Maintenance costs (4,800) 0.826 (3,965)
t3 Maintenance costs (5,100)
Resale value 5,000
(100) 0.751 (75)
(20,349) 2.486 (8,185)
Thus the cheapest option for Daniels is to replace the vans every year as this produces the
lowest Equivalent Annual Cost (EAC). However it should be noted that this is by no means a
clear decision, as a three-year cycle produces only a slightly higher EAC.
Limitations
• Changing technology, leading to obsolescence, changes in design
• Inflation – affecting estimates and the replacement cycles
• How far ahead can estimates be made and with what certainty?
Note: A further limitation is the ignoring of taxation, which the candidates were told to do.
10.4 The PV of the two investments should be considered:
840,82
Year 1–7 190,000 4.868 925,000 Year 1 925,000 0.909 5
The NPV is higher if Daniels maintains the current cash flow profile and so is better off not
accepting Kithill’s proposal. The IRR might be higher by accepting, but the NPV is the key
measure and should be followed.
Examiner’s comments
This question was based on (a) investment appraisal with capital rationing and (b) replacement
analysis. Both of these elements, whilst comprehensive and technical, were straightforward and most
candidates did well. In addition there was a small final part to the question which required
candidates to compare, in effect, net present value and internal rate of return.
As expected most candidates scored full marks for part (a) of the first requirement.
Part (b) of the first requirement was also done well, and most candidates demonstrated how to rank
the projects on the basis of NPV/£ invested.
Part (c) of the first requirement was answered satisfactorily and a good number of scripts
demonstrated how to deal with capital rationing in the second year of the projects.
The second part was answered well, and most students were able to make the right decision.
The third part was also answered well and a good number of students scored full marks for it.
In the final part of the question a majority of candidates gave the correct advice, although few were
able to produce the exact relevant cash flow.
11.1
(a) Net present value on 31 December 20X4
Y0 Y1 Y2 Y3
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
New machine (4,500.000) 1,000.000
Tax relief (W1) 137.700 112.914 92.589 251.797
Old machine 220.000
Tax due (W2) (23.800)
Sales (W3) 8,060.000 15,926.560 7,845.926
Materials (W4) (2,756.000) (5,445.856) (2,682.801)
Unskilled labour (W5) (1,456.000) (2,877.056) (1,417.329)
Lost contribution (W6) (2,288.000) (4,521.088) (2,227.231)
Tax on extra profits (W7) (265.200) (524.035) (258.156)
Working capital (W8) (806.000) (786.656) 808.063 784.593
Total cash flows (4,972.1) 621.058 3,459.177 3,296.799
12% discount factor 1.000 0.893 0.797 0.712
PV (4,972.1) 554.605 2,756.964 2,347.321
NPV 686.790
The NPV is positive and so the investment should go ahead as it will enhance shareholder
wealth.
The market research fee is not a relevant cash flow as it is sunk/committed (candidates
needed to state this to get the mark and not just ignore).
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(b) Calculations:
= 3.25%
Examiner’s comments
This question had the highest average mark on the paper. Candidate performance was very good.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
and valuation element of the syllabus.
In the scenario a UK manufacturer of household appliances was planning (1) the development of a
new product and (2) the possible purchase of an electrical goods retailer. Part (a) of the first
requirement, for 16 marks, required candidates to advise the company’s board, based on an NPV
calculation, whether the proposed product manufacture should proceed. Candidates were required
to deal with relevant cash flows, tax allowances and costs, inflation and working capital. In part 1(b) of
the first requirement, for seven marks, they had to calculate the sensitivity of their calculations to
changes in the proposed selling price and estimated sales volumes. The second part was worth 12
marks and required candidates to calculate a range of values for the target retailer and then provide
guidance for the board on the inherent dangers of buying another company and the best method
with which to pay for it, ie, cash or shares.
In part (a) of requirement 1 most candidates scored well. The main weakness evident was the
opportunity cost calculation, which was either completely ignored (by the weakest candidates) or
halved instead of doubling the lost volume. Also many candidates included calculations regarding
skilled labour, which was not a relevant cost. A number of candidates failed to calculate the
balancing charge arising on the sale of the old machinery.
Part (b) of requirement 1 was generally done well, but a disappointing number of candidates used
contribution rather than sales revenue in their first set of sensitivity calculations.
In the second requirement candidates coped well, as expected, with the book value and P/E
methods of valuation, but many were unsure of themselves (as in previous papers) when valuing the
company based on discounted cash flows. A high proportion of candidates struggled with the
reasons for the failure of acquisitions, but in general the cohort was stronger when explaining the
implications of buying in cash or shares.
12 Alliance plc
0 1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m £m
Contribution 34.56 41.73 39.44 37.27
NPV 35.37
The project has a positive NPV, and therefore Alliance should accept it.
The contribution per unit = £800 × 0.40 = £320.
The annual sales in units in year one = 9,000 × 12 = 108,000 units.
The total contribution per year =
Year 1: 108,000 × £320 = £34.56m
Year 2: £34.56m × 1.15 × 1.05 = £41.73m
Year 3: £41.73m × 0.90 × 1.05 = £39.44m
Year 4: £39.44m × 0.90 × 1.05 = £37.27m
Working capital:
Year 1: 2.00 × 1.15 × 1.05 = £2.42m. Increment 2.00 – 2.42 = £(0.42)m
Year 2: 2.42 × 0.90 × 1.05 = £2.29m. Increment 2.42 – 2.29 = £0.13m
Year 3: 2.29 × 0.90 × 1.05 = £2.16m. Increment 2.29 – 2.16 = £0.13m
Year 4: Release of working capital £2.16m.
Capital allowances and the tax saved:
Cost/WDV CA Tax
0 60.00 10.80 1.84
1 49.20 8.86 1.51
2 40.34 7.26 1.23
3 33.08 5.95 1.01
4 27.13
Sale –5.00 22.13 3.76
Examiner’s comments
This was a four-part question, which tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario was that a UK company was considering launching a
new product on the market, and also planning additional investment into other projects.
The first part was well answered by many candidates; common errors that weaker candidates made
were failing to calculate annual demand from monthly data, inflating cash flows which had already
been inflated because of price increases, deducting contribution from sales, treating WDAs as
outflows rather than inflows, failing to put rent in advance and using real discount rate for money
flows. All easy things, where errors should have been avoided. The hardest part was WC flows (as
expected). The second part was not well answered by the majority of candidates, with weaker
candidates using sales instead of contribution. Responses to part 3 were mixed and often lacked
detail or included irrelevant material (eg, advantages of sensitivity). In the final part (a) was well
answered by many students; however weaker candidates thought that hard versus soft capital
13.1 (a) Ke 1
Kd 3
Loans 1
WACC 3
Marks Available 8
Maximum 8
(b) Retentions rate 2
Shareholders’ return 1.5
Growth .5
Ke 1
WACC 1
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
13.2 Degearing equity beta 1.5
Regear asset beta 1.5
Ke 1
State discount rate should reflect systematic risk 1
State discount rate should reflect financial risk 1
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
13.3 Weighted average beta of enlarged group 1
Ke 1
WACC of enlarged group 1
Implications 3
Capital structure theory 2
Marks Available 8
Maximum 6
13.4 Diversification plans 5
EMH 3
Marks Available 8
Maximum 5
13.5 Project appraisal methodology and discount rate 4
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
Total 35
13.1
(a) The current WACC using CAPM is calculated as follows: Ke = 2 + 0.60 (8 – 2) = 5.6%
Calculation of Kd
The cost of the debentures – the cost can be calculated using linear interpolation
Market values:
Examiner’s comments
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company was considering
diversifying its activities. The diversification was to be financed in such a way that the gearing of the
company remained unchanged. The first part of the question required candidates to calculate the
current WACC of the company using CAPM and also the Gordon growth model. The second part of
the question required candidates to calculate, using CAPM, the cost of equity to be included in the
WACC that should have been used to appraise the new project. The third part of the question
required candidates to calculate the overall WACC of the company after the diversification. The
fourth part of the question required candidates to discuss whether the company should diversify its
operations. The fifth part of the question required candidates to discuss how the project should have
been appraised assuming that there was a major change in financial gearing of the company. Also
candidates were required to calculate a discount rate that should have been used in these
circumstances.
Part (a) of the first requirement was designed to give a basic eight marks to build on and was set at a
textbook level with no tricks or complications. However, weaker candidates lost many of these marks
by: completely ignoring the cost of a bank loan (two marks) or not deducting tax (one mark);
incorrect calculation of the cost of the redeemable debentures, incorrect interpolation calculations,
incorrect coupon and timing (three marks), correct interpolation but no tax adjustment (one mark);
incorrect equity beta or correct beta but error in computation (one mark).
Part (b) of the first requirement was a discriminator as expected, however many candidates
demonstrated poor knowledge of what a dividend yield is, many students multiplying earnings by
the dividend yield.
In the second part again many basic errors were made: eg, degearing using market values but
regearing using book values, even though the formulae sheet states market values on the key to the
formulae and despite the examiner’s comments regarding March 2014, omitting tax completely from
the computations and poor mathematical ability using beta equations. Also no explanation of what
candidates were doing threw away two marks in this part.
The third part was well answered by many candidates. However in the discursive part of their answers
some candidates mainly discussed capital structure theory.
The fourth part had very mixed responses but flexible marking allowed candidates to pick up two to
three marks.
In the fifth part most candidates mentioned APV but many did not calculate the discount rate
needed.
14.2 If this weighted average cost of capital of 16.8% is used in the appraisal of the proposed
investment then the following assumptions must be recognised and if these assumptions do
not hold then the WACC figure has serious limitations if used as a discount factor:
• Historical proportions of debt and equity are to remain unchanged.
• Business risk is to remain unchanged.
• The finance raised is not project specific.
• The project is small in size relative to the size of the company.
Other factors are as follows:
• Is the dividend growth rate sustainable given the lack of track record?
• There could be other sources of finance that have not been considered.
• Future tax rate changes will affect the cost of debt and so the WACC.
• Will the redeemable debentures be replaced by similar funds in 10 years?
14.3
(a) Ungear the equity beta of the industry
1.3= ßa(1 + (1(1 – 0.17)/1))
ßa=0.7104
regear using Middleham’s gearing from part 19.1 (prefs are treated as debt)
ße=0.7104(1 + (2,135(1 – 0.17)/8,000))
ße=0.868
Examiner’s comments
A generally very well answered question which was the second highest scoring question on the
paper.
A very common error on this relatively straightforward cost of capital question was a failure to follow
the instructions in the question – many candidates chose to use the Gordon growth model rather
than the dividend growth model – an easy way to lose marks. Other common errors were an inability
to accurately calculate the dividend growth rate from the data provided, errors in calculating market
values in the final WACC calculation and in calculating the cost of debt a number of candidates
betrayed basic misunderstanding by firstly applying one discount rate that produced a negative NPV
and then choosing a larger rather than smaller discount rate for their second choice.
The second to fifth parts were generally well answered.
£m
333.200
Examiner’s comments
Most candidates scored well on this question and it had the highest average mark in the paper.
It was based on a supermarket operation and covered the topics of cost of capital and dividend
policy. The first part was worth 10 marks and required candidates to calculate the company’s WACC
based on (a) the dividend growth model and then (b) the CAPM model.
The second part was worth 11 marks and tested the candidates’ understanding of geared and
ungeared betas and required them to calculate the relevant cost of capital for the company to use if
it diversified its operations into a new product range. The fourth part made up six marks and
candidates had to explain the relationship between a company’s dividend policy and the value of its
shares.
Part (a) of the first requirement was pretty straightforward and candidates generally did well.
However, a number of them were unable to calculate the rate of dividend growth correctly and a
disappointing number of candidates calculated the cost of redeemable debentures as if they were
irredeemable.
As expected, most candidates scored full marks for the calculation in part (b) of the first requirement.
The second requirement was more difficult, but many candidates scored well here. However, key
errors made were (1) book values rather than market values were used when re-gearing beta and (2)
too few candidates calculated the new WACC figure as required.
The final requirement was done well and candidates who produced a well-rounded answer will have
scored high marks.
16 Puerto plc
£’000
Operating profit (2,280 + 3,000) 5,280
Interest (24,000 × 6% + 6,000 × 7%) (1,860)
Profit before tax 3,420
Taxation @ 17% (581)
Profit after tax 2,839
Examiner’s comments
The scenario of this question was that a company had been in difficulty and was considering a
reconstruction, whereby debt would be converted to equity. The company would then purchase an
additional business opportunity, which would be financed by new borrowings.
The first part, for three marks, required candidates to restate the income statement in 12 months’
time assuming that the reconstruction went ahead. The second part, for five marks, required
candidates to calculate the gearing ratio, by market values, both before and immediately after the
reconstruction. Part three, for five marks required candidates to comment upon the financial health of
the company both before and after the reconstruction. Also candidates had to consider a covenant
imposed by the providers of the finance for the new business. Part four, for 10 marks, required
candidates to calculate, using the CAPM, the WACC of the company both before and after the
reconstruction. This involved adjusting the equity beta for gearing and consideration of taxation. The
fifth part, for six marks, required candidates to consider, with reference to relevant theories, how the
reconstruction would affect the WACC in the long term. The final part, for six marks, required
candidates to consider the likely reaction to the reconstruction of various stakeholders in the
company.
The first part was well answered by the majority of candidates. However it was disappointing to see
that some candidates did not really demonstrate a full understanding of the scenario and also
included the interest in the income statement for the loan which had been converted to equity.
The majority of candidates answered part two well, however some candidates failed to understand
the scenario and showed gearing increasing rather than decreasing, whereas a correct interpretation
of the facts would show a substantial decrease.
Part three was reasonably well answered, however those who had misinterpreted the question
scored poorly.
In part four many candidates did not take account of the fact that the company was not paying tax
until after the reconstruction. When taking into account the effect of the change in gearing on the
equity beta, weaker candidates showed that they need to practise gearing adjustments.
In part five a lot of candidates gave a generic answer and did not relate to the scenario of the
question.
The final part was well answered and many students identified a sufficient number of stakeholders.
17 Abydos plc
E
E + D(1−t)
ßa= ße
0.6
0.6 + 0.4(1−0.17)
= 1.4 × = 0.901
The ungeared cost of equity can now be estimated using the CAPM:
Keu = 5 + 0.901(12 – 5)
= 11.31% (say, approximately 11%)
Capital allowances
These are on the £10 million part of the investment that is non-current assets (not working
capital or issue costs).
Year 0 1 2 3 4
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Pre-tax operating cash flows 3,000 3,400 3,800 4,300
Tax @ 17% (510) (578) (646) (731)
Tax savings from capital
allowances 306 251 206 169
( ( ) = 3.312)
1 1
1−
0.08 1.084
£’000
Adjusted present value
Base case NPV 1,069
Tax relief on debt interest 225
Issue costs (1,000)
294
Reduction in EPS 1
Relevant discussion 3
10
18.4 Amended EPS 1
Ordinary shares required 1
Number of shares in rights issue 1
Rights issue price 1
Relevant discussion on rights issue success 2
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
18.5 1–2 marks per relevant point made 6
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
Total 35
Traditional view
Loan finance is cheap because (a) it is low risk to lenders and (b) loan interest is tax deductible.
This means that as gearing increases, WACC decreases.
Shareholders and lenders are relatively unconcerned about increased risk at lower levels of
gearing.
As gearing increases, both groups start to be concerned – higher returns are demanded and
so WACC increases.
Thus, WACC decreases (value of equity increases) as gearing is introduced. It reaches a
minimum and then starts to increase again. This is the optimal level of gearing.
Modigliani and Miller (M&M) view
Shareholders immediately become concerned by the existence of any gearing.
Ignoring taxes, the cost of ‘cheap’ loan finance is precisely offset by the increasing cost of
equity, so WACC remains constant at all levels of gearing. There is no optimal level – managers
should not concern themselves with gearing questions. M&M ‘58 position Vg = Vu.
£m
Value of current ordinary shareholding 135m £2.65 357.750
Rights issue (135m/9) (£45m × 60%) 15m £1.80 27.000
Theoretical ex-rights values 150m £2.565 384.750
18.3
£m
Current earnings figure 32.400
Savings on debenture interest (£45m × 60% × 4%
× 83%) 0.896
The earnings per share figure will fall by 7.5% (from £0.240 to £0.222).
The proposed rights issue will, as the board suggests, cause a dilution of the EPS figure as the
additional shares issued have a greater negative impact than the interest saved from the
debenture redemption. Whilst in theory (TERP) the market price of BL’s ordinary shares will fall,
at least initially, it is very difficult to predict what will happen to the market value of the shares
This rights issue price is only £0.20 less than the current market value, ie, a 7.5% discount and
this is likely to be an insufficient inducement for shareholders. As a result the issue would fail to
raise the £27 million of funds required for the debenture redemption.
18.5 Issue costs are a significant part of a rights issue. They have been estimated at around 4% on
£2 million raised but, as many of the costs are fixed, the percentage falls as the sum raised
increases.
Shareholders may react badly to firms who continually make rights issues as they are forced
either to take up their rights or sell them, since doing nothing decreases their wealth. They may
sell their shares in the company, driving down the market price.
Unless large numbers of existing shareholders sell their rights to new shareholders there
should be little impact in terms of control of the business by existing shareholders.
Unlisted companies often find rights issues difficult to use, because shareholders unable to
raise sufficient funds to take up their rights may not have available the alternative of selling
them if the firm’s shares are not listed. This is less likely to be a concern for a listed company
like Biddaford Lundy.
Examiner’s comments
This question was, overall, done poorly and produced the weakest set of answers in the examination.
In general, the first part was not done well. The book value of equity often excluded retained
earnings. When calculating the market value, a majority of candidates included retained earnings in
the equity figure. Very few of them could calculate the gearing ratio correctly – far too many included
preference shares as equity. In the discursive part of the answer, some candidates made no reference
to the theories on capital structure at all and some referred to the ‘Modigliani and Miller traditional
theory’. Disappointingly, very few candidates made reference to the ratios that they had calculated
(high/low gearing level etc).
Answers to the second part were better and the most common mistake was to confuse the market
value and the book value of debt when calculating the redemption figure.
The third part was very poorly answered. The vast majority of candidates ignored the reduction in
interest post-redemption. Also, far too many candidates restricted their discussion to a consideration
of the impact of the rights issue on the shareholders’ wealth. This was not relevant to the question,
which was about gearing.
In the final part there were some good attempts, but often candidates’ answers just consisted of
identifying a 5% fall in EPS.
Maximum 3
Total 35
19.1
(a) The current WACC using CAPM.
Ke = 2 + (1.1 × (7 – 2)) = 7.5%
Kd = The ex-interest debenture price is £94 (99 – 5).
Factors at Factors at
Timing – years Cash Flow 5% PV 10% PV
£ £ £
0 (94) 1 (94) 1 (94)
1–4 5 3.546 17.73 3.170 15.85
4 100 0.823 82.30 0.683 68.30
6.03 (9.85)
Examiner’s comments
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company was considering
diversifying into a different industry sector. The diversification would have been in non-domestic
countries, some of which would be in developing countries.
Part (a) of the first requirement saw many basic errors, which really should not be occurring given
how many times this has been set. The errors included inability to calculate numbers correctly,
incorrect use of the CAPM equation, incorrectly calculating the number of shares in issue, not
calculating the ex-div share price and/or the ex-interest debenture price, for the cost of debt
calculating positive and negative values and interpolating outside the range calculated and no tax
adjustment for the cost of debt. Again there were many basic errors in part (b) of the first
requirement, despite very similar questions in the revision question bank, many had no idea at all.
However there were some good answers, but even those forgot to correctly calculate the retained
20.1
(a)
Less
Current liabilities 1,080,000
Preference shares 648,000
Debentures 1,980,000
8,442,000
Examiner’s comments
Whilst there were many strong responses to the valuation questions, less well-prepared candidates
were undoubtedly exposed by the question and were particularly weak in dealing with the
technicalities of both the dividend yield and price/earnings valuation techniques. In the second
section, whilst many candidates were able to list classic text-book commentary on the respective
valuation techniques, far fewer were able to augment this basic analysis with insightful commentary
on the relevance of the techniques to the specific scenario set out in the question. The third and final
section of the first part of the paper, on take-over motives, was, however, generally very well
answered across the board.
The second part of the question was, again, very well answered by the stronger candidates but
performance was somewhat polarised as those candidates who had clearly banked on there being a
traditional NPV question found their lack of a firm grasp of the replacement methodology exposed.
Even some candidates who scored well on the calculations themselves arrived at incorrect
conclusions as a result of treating the calculated figures as equivalent annual costs rather than net
revenues.
21 Wexford plc
£’000
Revenue (270 × 1.15) 310,500
Direct costs ((171 – 19) × 1.18) 179,360
£’000 £’000
Non-current assets (carrying amount) (152.59 + 25 – 23) 154,590
Current assets:
Inventory (35 + 10) 45,000
Receivables ((49/270) × 310.5) 56,350
Cash at bank (balancing figure) 45,316
146,666
301,256
Capital and reserves:
£1 Ordinary shares (50 + 10) 60,000
Share premium (25 – 10) 15,000
Retained earnings (81.41 + 21.787) 103,197
178,197
Non-current liabilities:
10% Debentures (repayable 20Y5) 50,000
Current liabilities:
Trade payables ((43/152) × 179.36) 50,740
Dividends payable 22,319
73,059
301,256
£’000
Revenue 310,500
Direct costs 179,360
Depreciation 23,000
Indirect costs 50,000
£’000 £’000
Non-current assets (carrying amount) 154,590
Current assets:
Inventory 45,000
Receivables 56,350
Cash at bank (balancing figure) 43,656 145,006
299,596
Capital and reserves:
£1 Ordinary shares 50,000
Retained earnings (81.41 + 20.967) 102,377
152,377
Non-current liabilities:
10% Debentures (repayable 20Y5) 50,000
Loan 25,000
75,000
Current liabilities:
Trade payables 50,740
Dividends payable 21,479
72,219
299,596
21.2 Reports
21.3 The new equipment will use artificial intelligence and automated processes to reduce the
need for human intervention. It will also provide management with new information through
the visualisation of data and key performance indicators that will help to improve decision
making in the future. By combining the statistical tools utilised in predictive analytics with
artificial intelligence and algorithms, prescriptive analytics software can be used to calculate
the optimum outcome from a variety of business decisions.
Advantages
Prescriptive models have the capability to identify optimum investment decisions whilst
considering the impact of multiple decisions and variables. Wexford would therefore be able
to consider the optimal product mix to produce to enable the company to improve profitability
and grow while managing its risk and its access to capital. It could model the impact of
different investment plans as it tries to expand in an ever changing environment, recognising
possible capital rationing issues and modelling how best to overcome them.
Limitations
Creating reliable prescriptive models is complex and requires specialist data science skills,
which may be outside the scope of Wexford’s managers.
The reliability of such models depends on the reliability of the data that they use and the
ability to predict future outcomes accurately from past data. Given that Wexford has only
experienced modest growth in recent years, it is likely that the use of past data only will be
inappropriate.
Examiner’s comments
A question which most candidates found to their liking, with many scoring very strongly in the
numerical first section. The second section once again served to polarise performance between
stronger and weaker candidates.
For the most part, candidates performed well on the first section of the question, although there
were some common errors among weaker candidates, most notably the incorrect treatment of both
the cash and dividend figures. Weaker candidates completely overlooked the fact that cash was the
22 Loxwood
Maximum 3
Total 45
22.1
Hampton Richmond
Total asset value (historic) £21.7m £22.7m
Value per share (£21.7m/17.6m) £1.23 (£22.7m/9.8m) £2.32
d1
ke−g
(1.140 × 1.075) (1.216 × 1.09)
(9%−7.5%) (10.5%−9%)
Dividends (W1) £88.363m
£88.363m/9.8
Value per share £81.7m/17.6m £4.64 m £9.02
Earnings valuation (Earnings × P/E)
£3.258m ´ 15.2 £2.702m × 15.2 (Hampton)
£49.52m £41.07m
Value per share £49.52m/17.6m £2.81 £41.07m/9.8m £4.19
When it comes to valuation using an EV/EBITDA multiple, we can use the multiples of
Hampton and Walton (as listed companies) to estimate a value for Richmond.
Hampton
EV = £74.27m, being:
Market capitalisation = £2.81 ´ 17.6m shares (above) = £49.52m, plus
Market value of debentures = 1.10 ´ £22.5m = £24.75m
EBITDA of Hampton = £5.5m + £2.9m = £8.4m
EV/EBITDA multiple = £74.27m/£8.4m = 8.84
Walton
Need to calculate a market capitalisation, using earnings × P/E:
£m
PBIT 36.2
Less interest (£70m × 7%) (4.9)
Profit before tax 31.3
Tax at 17% (5.3)
Profit after tax / earnings 26.0
WORKING
£m £m
23 Sennen plc
Marks Available 13
Maximum 13
(b) Sensitivity to change in after tax synergies 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
(c) Operating profit .5
Interest .5
Investment income .5
Tax .5
Share price 1
Strengths and weaknesses 2
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
(d) Relevant discussion 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
(e) Advice on suitability of each method 8
Marks Available 8
Maximum 8
23.2 Ethical issues 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
23.1 REPORT
(a)
Year
0 1 2 3
£m £m £m £m
Sales revenue 21.00 22.0 23.15
Operating profit 3.15 3.31 3.47
Tax (17%) –0.54 –0.56 –0.59
After tax synergies 0.53 0.55 0.58
Working capital –0.21 –0.22 –0.23 –0.24
Additional CAPEX –0.42 –0.44 –0.46
Free cash flow –0.21 2.50 2.63 2.76
£m
Present value of free cash flow years 0–3 6.68
This methodology has the advantage of valuing the free cash flows of the company and is
not distorted by accounting policies which can affect other methods. However the
valuation is dominated by the terminal value. The methodology is also heavily dependent
upon the inputs to the model such as estimating cash flows and growth. For example,
reducing the estimated sales growth after the competitive advantage period to, say, 1%
would reduce the terminal value to (2.76(1 + 0.01)/(0.07 – 0.01)) × 0.816 = £37.91m, a
reduction of 47p per share.
(b) The sensitivity of the enterprise value to a change in the after tax synergies: PV of
synergies/total value:
1 2 3
£m £m £m
After tax synergies 0.53 0.55 0.58
PV @ 7% 0.5 0.48 0.47
£m
Present value years 1–3 1.45
Amount in terminal value (0.58(1 + 0.02)/(0.07 – 0.02)) × 0.816 9.65
Total present value of synergies 11.10
£11.10m/£54.62 = 20.3%.
Synergies represent 20.3% of the value of debt plus equity.
(c) The earnings per share has to be calculated:
£m
Operating profit £20m × 0.15 3
Less interest £10m × 0.05 (0.5)
Note: Credit any attempt to calculate prospective EPS rather than historic.
The share price using the p/e ratio for recent takeovers = 12.47p × 17 = 212p
The p/e ratio basis is a market measure and has the advantage of valuing the shares by
comparison to other takeovers. However we do not know how comparable to Sennen the
other companies are. Also the valuation is based on historic EPS and a more realistic
measure might be a prospective EPS.
(d) The range in values is 212p – 262p.
The free cash flow valuation can be considered as a maximum value, however the
valuation is quite sensitive at 20.3% to the synergistic savings which may or may not be
made and the growth rate of sales in perpetuity.
Both measures offer a premium to the current share price of 160p and the Board of
Morgan should feel comfortable offering the shareholders of Sennen a bid premium.
(e) Students should take into account that the company is highly geared and their answers
should reflect this. They should consider both the shareholders of Sennen and Morgan in
their answers. Some areas that they may mention and expand upon for each method are
as follows:
• The ability of Morgan to raise extra funds by borrowing and/or an issue of shares,
maybe a rights issue
• Does Morgan have any cash reserves
• Dilution of control
• The tax position of Sennen’s shareholders
• Risk
23.2 There is a serious conflict of interest with the management team who are party to the MBO also
considering making an offer for the company. The management team should be acting in the
interests of the shareholders of Sennen and be recommending to the shareholders the best
price for their shares. It would be highly unethical for any member of the management team
who are party to the MBO to take part in negotiations with Morgan or to make
recommendations to Sennen’s shareholders.
Examiner’s comments
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company had identified a takeover
target.
The acquirer has had a policy of expanding by acquisition and, as a result, is highly geared
compared to its peers. Also there is a potential bid from the management of the target in the form of
a management buyout (MBO). Part (a) of the first requirement required candidates to use
Shareholder Value Analysis (SVA) to value the target. The valuation included after tax synergies, also
candidates were required to state the strengths and weaknesses of the valuation method. Part (b) of
the first requirement needed candidates to calculate how sensitive the valuation using SVA was to a
change in the synergies. Part (c) of the first requirement required candidates to value the target using
p/e ratios and to state the strengths and weaknesses of the valuation method. Part (d) of requirement
one required candidates to discuss the range of values and whether the acquirer should have
offered the target company’s shareholders a bid premium. The final part of the first requirement
required candidates to discuss the methods that the acquirer could have used to pay for the shares
of the target. The second requirement of the question required candidates to discuss the ethical
position of the members of the MBO team.
Marks Available 9
Maximum 9
24.4 Dividend policy and share price 7
Impact of special dividend 2
Marks Available 9
Maximum 9
24.5 Impact of special dividend 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
£m
Funds to be raised by rights issue: 60% × £46,750 × 1.10 30.855
24.2
(a) Current earnings per share (£5.825m – £0.480m)/16.5m £0.324
£m
Current earnings figure (£5,825m – £0.480m) 5.345
plus: Debenture interest saved (£28.050m × 5%× 83%) 1.164
New earnings figure 6.509
(b) If EPS reduces by 10%, then new EPS is £0.324 × (1 – 10%) £0.2916
24.3
So gearing at MV is under 50%. Gearing would be a problem if it was causing WACC to rise
(tax advantage outweighed by debenture holders and shareholders wanting a higher return)
and MV to fall.
Gearing theory – Traditional view/Modigliani & Miller (MM) view/Modern view – balance
between tax benefits and bankruptcy costs.
24.4 Dividend policy and share price – Traditional view/MM and irrelevance theory/Modern view –
including signaling, clientele effect and agency theory.
Impact of special dividend – the market is not in favour of such dividends generally, ie, the
share price may well fall as a result, and so it seems to defeat the object of retaining profit for
investment.
24.5 Unpublished information of a price sensitive nature should remain confidential, not be
disclosed and not be used to obtain a personal advantage.
Examiner’s comments
This question had the second highest average mark on the paper and the majority of candidates did
well enough to ‘pass’ it.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus.
In the scenario the board of a UK manufacturer was concerned about the company’s gearing levels.
The board is considering either (a) a rights issue to buy back debt or (b) reducing future dividend
payments.
In the first part for three marks candidates were required to calculate the company’s theoretical ex-
rights price. The second requirement was worth 11 marks. Half of these were allocated to part (a)
which required candidates to calculate next year’s EPS figure (based on the fact that some of the
debt would have been repaid). In part (b) of this requirement candidates were required to calculate
and explain the implications for the rights issue of restricting the change in the company’s EPS to
10%. The third part for nine marks asked candidates to calculate the company’s current gearing
levels and then advise the board, with reference to their calculations and generally accepted theory,
whether or not the company had a gearing ‘problem’. The fourth part was a more discursive section
and candidates were asked to explain (again with reference to generally accepted theory) the
possible impact of a change in dividend policy on the company’s share price. Finally, for three marks,
the final part tested the candidates’ understanding of the ethical implications facing an ICAEW
Chartered Accountant when in possession of price-sensitive information.
In the first part most candidates scored full marks, but many failed to calculate correctly the market
value of the debt being redeemed via the rights issue.
Part (a) of the second requirement was reasonably well done, but many candidates struggled with (or
ignored) the calculation of the adjustment to the interest charge caused by the debenture
redemption. Also, as noted in previous papers, many candidates calculated, incorrectly, the earnings
figure before preference dividends.
Part (b) of the second requirement was also reasonably well done, but many candidates tried to
adjust the earnings figure rather than, as was required, the number of shares.
In the third part it was the calculation of gearing using market values that caused most problems
(again, as in previous papers). A disappointing number of candidates included retained earnings in
their market value of equity figure. Most candidates’ understanding of the theory of gearing and
market value were good, but, in general, there was too little application of this understanding to the
actual scenario.
The fourth part was mostly done well, but too few candidates gave a sufficient range of points
regarding the ‘real world’ impact of the dividend policy and most candidates ignored the special
dividend.
In general the final part was answered well.
25.1
Year
1 2 3 4 5 6
Sales (£m) (W1) 212.00 224.72 238.20 252.50 267.65 283.70
Op profit (15%) 31.80 33.71 35.73 37.87 40.15 42.56
Tax at 17% (5.41) (5.73) (6.07) (6.44) (6.83) (7.24)
Working capital
investment (W1) (0.84) (0.89) (0.94) (1.00) (1.06) (1.12)
Non-current asset
investment (W1) (1.44) (1.53) (1.62) (1.72) (1.82) (1.93)
Year
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Sales (increasing at 6%) 200.00 212.00 224.72 238.20 252.50 267.65 283.70
Increase in sales 12.00 12.72 13.48 14.29 15.15 16.06
Working capital (7%) 0.84 0.89 0.94 1.00 1.06 1.12
Non-current asset
investment (12%) 1.44 1.53 1.62 1.72 1.82 1.93
(2)
Discount factor = 3 + 0.75(11 – 3) = 9%
25.2 The current market capitalisation of Brennan is below its net assets value which suggests that
Brennan plc may be worth more if it was liquidated. However this assumes that the net book
value of assets matches the market value of the assets and this may not be the case in reality.
This does give a possible explanation for the low market capitalisation of Brennan, the market
may see no future in the company and is already valuing it on a break up basis.
There are other factors which may cause the market to place such an apparently low valuation
on Brennan.
The dividend policy offers a relatively low payout of 10%. If there are no plans to reinvest
retained earnings then cash balances will be substantial. This could also help to explain the
high net assets valuation.
The stock market may be suspicious of the level of control exercised by the founding family.
The founding family appears to control the board and also own a substantial number of shares
and as such they may be able to dominate the smaller shareholders. The market may view the
current management as less able than similar companies due to this family dominance and this
affects the valuation.
Brennan is currently all equity funded, which the market may think is inadvisable and does not
allow Brennan to exploit the advantage of debt being cheaper than equity due to the tax
shield.
Calculation of gain 1
Futures outcome 1
Payment in the spot market 1
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
Total 30
26.1
(a) Forward market
Bank sells £ at €1.1856/£
Forward rate = €1.1797 (1.1856 – 0.0059)
So €2,960,000/1.1797 = £2,509,112.49
Money market
To hedge a euro receivable, Fratton needs to create a euro liability which, with interest, will
exactly equal the receivable in three months’ time:
€2,960,000/1.004 = £2,948,207.17
Convert to £ at spot (1.1856) to give £2,486,679.46.
Which with three months’ interest at 0.2875% gives £2,493,828.66.
Options
Fratton should enter into a call option to buy £ at €1.18/£
Number of contracts = €2,960,000/1.18 = £2,508,475/10,000 = 250.85 = 250 contracts
The premium would be €60,000 (0.024 ×10,000 × 250)
Which at spot would cost £50,654.28 (60,000/1.1845)
Scenario 1
Spot on expiry €1.12/£ – Exercise price €1.18/£ – intrinsic value: nil – exercise? No
£ receipt at spot = €2,960,000/1.12 = £2,642,857.14 (net £2,592,202.86)
Scenario 2
Spot on expiry €1.20/£ – Exercise price €1.18/£ – intrinsic value: €0.02 per £ – exercise?
Yes
Gain on option of €50,000 (0.02 × 10,000 × 250)
Sell €3,010,000/1.20 = £2,508,333.33 (net £2,457,679.05)
(b) Advantages:
• Transaction costs of futures should be lower and they can be traded.
• The exact date of receipt or payment of the foreign currency does not need to be
known because the futures contract does not have to be closed out until the underlying
transaction takes place (subject only to the expiry date of the futures contract).
Disadvantages:
• The contracts cannot be tailored to the user’s exact requirements.
• Hedge inefficiencies are caused by standard contract sizes and basis.
• Only a limited number of currencies are available with futures contracts.
• The procedure for converting between two currencies neither of which is the $ is more
complex with futures compared to a forward contract.
26.2
(a) 50 Bitcoins x £7,550 = £377,500
Examiner’s comments
This four-part question combined the interest rate and exchange rate risk management elements of
the Financial Management syllabus and was generally well answered by the well-prepared
candidates. There is now significant evidence that candidate performance in this relatively new area
is increasing to the levels seen in other areas of the syllabus. The average mark achieved was 20.3/30
(67.6%).
The first part of the question required candidates to illustrate how they would hedge foreign
exchange risk in the scenario set out in the question using the forward market, the money market
and the options market. For the most part, this was well answered although weaker candidates often
made fundamental errors in the choice of exchange rate in the first part and then often chose the
wrong type of option to hedge the foreign exchange exposure.
Part (b) of the first requirement of the question required candidates to discuss the advantages and
disadvantages of using futures contracts as opposed to forward contracts to hedge foreign
exchange risk. For the most part this posed few problems for stronger candidates.
The second part of the question required candidates to illustrate the use of a forward rate agreement
to manage interest rate risk. Again, this was generally well answered and confirmed the continuing
improvement amongst most candidates in this area of the syllabus.
The final part of the question required candidates to illustrate the use of interest rate futures
contracts to manage interest rate risk. The vast majority of candidates scored well on this question,
although the most common omission was the identification of the actual interest rate achieved as a
result of the transaction.
27 Sunwin plc
27.1 Sunwin requires an option to sell – a December put option with an exercise price of 5,000.
Portfolio value = £5.6m Exercise price = 5,000
Value of one contract = 5,000 × £10 = £50,000
Number of contracts required = £5.6m/50,000 = 112 contracts
Premium: 70 points × £10 per point ×112 contracts = £78,400
(a) If the index rises to 5,900, the put option gives Sunwin the right to sell @ 5,000, so the
option would be abandoned (with zero value).
Overall position: £
Value of portfolio 6,608,000
(b) If the index falls to 4,100, the put option gives Sunwin the right to sell @ 5,000, so the
option would be exercised (value = £9,000 {900 × £10} × 112 contracts = £1,008,000).
Overall position: £
Value of portfolio 4,592,000
Gain on option 1,008,000
Less premium (78,400
5,521,600
27.2
(a) Sunwin needs to sell a three-month contract
Number of contracts = 4m/0.5m ×9/3 = 24 contracts
Futures outcome:
Selling at the opening rate of 96 and buying at the closing rate of 95 yields a gain of 1%
Therefore 1% × 0.5m × 3/12 × 24 = £30,000
Net outcome:
Spot market £4m × 4.5% × 9/12 = (£135,000) plus the futures receipt of £30,000 =
(£105,000)
Effective interest rate 105,000/4m × 12/9 = 3.5%
Hedge efficiency:
Increase in spot rate = 1.5% so increase in interest = £60,000 (1.5% × 4m) × 9/12 =
£45,000
So the hedge efficiency = 30,000/45,000 × 100 = 66.7%
(b) Traded interest rate options on futures:
Sunwin requires a March put option with a strike price of 96.25 (100 – 3.75)
The number of contracts required = 4m/0.5m × 9/3 = 24 contracts @ 0.18%
So the premium = 24 × 0.18% × 0.5m × 3/12 = £5,400
Case 1:
Case 2:
(c)
(1) The time period to expiry of the option – the longer the time to expiry, the more the
time value of the option will be.
(2) The volatility of the underlying security price – the more volatile, the greater the
chance of the option being ‘in the money’, which increases the time value of the
option.
(3) The general level of interest rates (the time value of money) – the time value of an
option reflects the present value of the exercise price.
Examiner’s comments
Following its introduction into the syllabus at the last review, this subject area was initially very
challenging for many candidates. However, at this sitting and in a reflection of an emerging trend on
the paper in more recent sittings, candidates’ grasp of the material appears to get stronger and
stronger, so much so that it was this question, rather than the traditional NPV question, that provided
many candidates with the basis of their pass on the paper.
Most candidates performed strongly on the first part of this question, although where errors were
made they primarily related to incorrect calculation of the number of contracts and the premium.
The only real areas of weakness in most candidates’ responses to the second requirement were in
their being unable to effectively calculate hedge efficiency (many candidates simply did not even
make an attempt to do so) and in the mis-calculation of time-period adjustments and, consequently,
premiums. However, overall candidate strength in this area of the syllabus is pleasing to see.
28.1
INR200,000,000
Sterling receipt at
95.4930
spot rate = £2,094,394
(a)
Sterling receipt if
INR200,000,000 INR200,000,000
rupee weakens by
(95.4930 × 1.01) 96.4479
1% £2,073,658
(b)
INR200,000,000
Option (@ exercise
95.5500
price) £2,093,145
Less cost (£8000)
£2,085,145
(c)
INR200,000,000 INR200,000,000
Forward
(95.4930 + 0.2265) 95.7195
contract £2,089,438
(£4,500)
(d)
Money Market
Hedge
INR200,000,000
1.012
Borrow in rupees INR 197,628,450
INR197,628,450
95.4930
Convert @ spot rate £2,069,560
Lend in sterling £2,069,560 × 1.008 £2,086,116
LIBOR + 1 4% 7%
Option
Exercise? Indifferent Yes
Rate (4%) (4%)
Premium (0.75%) (0.75%)
(4.75%) (4.75%)
Annual interest payment (on £8.5m) (£403,750) (£403,750)
FRA
Pay at LIBOR +1 (4%) (7%)
(Payment to)/receipt from bank (0.5%) 2.5%
No hedge
Pay at LIBOR + 1 (4%) (7%)
Annual interest payment (on £8.5m) (£340,000) (£595,000)
If LIBOR is 3% then it’s better not to hedge and at 6% the FRA seems to be the cheapest
option.
It also depends on the board’s attitude to risk.
The FRA eliminates down side risk (rates rising) as well as upside risk (rates falling).
Examiner’s comments
The average mark for this question was the highest in the paper, equated to a clear pass and so,
overall, was done well.
This was a four-part question that tested the financial risk element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based on a UK footwear manufacturer/exporter and included relevant exchange
rates and interest rates. The question tested (a) candidates’ understanding of foreign exchange risk
management, (b) the more general risks associated with trading overseas and (c) how to hedge
against interest rate movements.
The first requirement, for 10 marks, required candidates to calculate (a) the impact of a strengthening
of sterling on a proposed export contract and (b) the outcome of three possible hedging strategies
for that contract. The second requirement was worth eight marks and here candidates had to advise
the company’s board as to which hedging technique was preferable (if any), based on their
calculations in the first requirement. The third requirement, for five marks, asked candidates to advise
the company of the risks (non-currency) to consider when trading abroad. Finally, for seven marks,
candidates had to recommend whether or not the company, which has borrowed a large amount,
should hedge against the impact of interest rate movements on that loan.
The first requirement was very similar to past exam questions but despite this many candidates did
not get all of the calculation marks available. Typical errors were (a) using a call option rather than a
put and (b) ignoring contract costs.
The discussion in the second requirement was, in many cases, brief and very basic for eight marks.
The third requirement was, as expected, answered well.
The fourth requirement caused many students difficulty. Too few of them produced sufficient
workings to enable them to produce suitable recommendations.
29 Lambourn plc
29.1
(a) Lambourn’s net foreign currency exposure is the net $ payment due = $1,550,000.
The sterling payments and receipts can be ignored.
The forward rate would be 1.6666 – 0.0249 = $1.6417/£.
The cost of the payment would therefore be 1,550,000/1.6417 = £944,143.
(b) The current spot rate is $1.6666/£ so Lambourn should buy December put options on £
with a strike price of $1.67 as $1.65/£ and $1.63/£ are worse than current spot rate.
Number of contracts = $1,550,000/1.67/10,000 = 92.8 = 93 contracts
Premium = 93 × 10,000 × 0.0555 = $51,615 at spot ($1.6666) would cost £30,970
Outcome if the spot rate is $1.6400/£: Exercise the option
Option $1.67 Spot $1.64 so profit of ($0.03 × 93 × 10,000) = $27,900
Contract: December
Contract type: Put option
Strike price: 96.25 (to cap the interest rate at 3.75% pa)
Number of contracts: £1.5m/£0.5m × 6/3 = 6 contracts
Premium December put options at 96.25 = 0.96%
Therefore: 6 × 0.96% × £500,000 × 3/12 = £7,200
(b) Futures may give less than 100% efficiency because of:
• basis risk – the price of a future may differ from the spot price on a given date. Basis is
nil at expiry but before then the change in the spot rate is not matched by the change
in the futures price preventing a hedge from being 100% efficient.
• rounding – frequently the number of contracts has to be rounded as dealing in
fractional contracts is not possible. This can also cause inefficiency.
Examiner’s comments
This risk management question produced the highest average mark of the three questions. This
reflects the fact that a firm knowledge of the techniques involved provides candidates with a good
opportunity to score highly on such questions, particularly when (as many do) they benefit from the
application of the ‘follow-through’ principle when such questions are marked. As usual, however,
there was very little middle ground – the failing candidates on the paper overall had little or no grasp
of the techniques involved in this question and scored poorly.
The most common errors in the first part were a failure to correctly calculate the firm’s net transaction
exposure, often including the sterling amounts, incorrect identification of the correct type of option,
a failure to accurately calculate the number of contracts and the use of the wrong rate when
calculating the premium.
The second part was generally well answered.
Calls Puts
30.2 The three factors that affect the time value of the options on Stickle’s shares are:
• the time period to expiry of the option. The longer the time to expiry, the more the option is
worth.
• the volatility of the market price of Stickle’s shares. For example, if Sickle’s share price
becomes more volatile this will increase the probability of the options becoming either in
the money or, if they are already in the money, becoming deeper in the money. This would
increase the value of the options.
• the general level of interest rates. The exercising of the option will be at some point in the
future, and so the value of the option depends on the present value of the exercise price.
For example, for the call options on Stickle’s shares if interest rates rise the options will
become more valuable.
30.3 The factors that affect the intrinsic value of the options on Stickle’s shares are:
• The exercise price:
– For a call option: The lower the exercise price in relation to the share price the higher will
be the intrinsic value and this will make the option more valuable.
30.5 To hedge against a rise in LIBOR from 0.62% pa during the period from 31 December 20X5 to
31 July 20X6, Bridge will need to hold September put options with an exercise price of 99.38
(100 – 0.62).
Using options on three-month interest rate futures to hedge a seven-month period, the
number of contracts to be held is: (£20 m/£0.5 m) × (7/3) = 93.33; round to 93 contracts.
This leaves the company slightly under hedged.
The premium payable is: 93 × 0.52% × 0.5m × 3/12 = £60,450.
The results of the hedge on 31 July 20X6 are as follows:
(a) LIBOR is 0.80% pa and the futures price is 99.15.
Exercise the options? Yes, since the exercise price is 99.38 and more than the futures
price.
Gain on futures: 99.38 – 99.15 = 0.23%. 0.23% × 0.5m × 93 × 3/12 = £26,738.
Borrowing cost: 0.80 + 4.00 = 4.80% pa.
Total interest payable to the bank: 20m × 0.048 × 7/12 = £560,000
Net cost of the loan including the option premium:
560,000 + 60,450 – 26,738 = £593,712
The effective interest rate is: (593,712/20m) × (12/7) = 5.09% pa
Alternative: LIBOR + 4.00 – Gain on exercise + premium = 0.80 + 4.00 – 0.23 + 0.52 =
5.09% pa
(b) LIBOR is 0.40% pa and the futures price is 99.66
Examiner’s comments
This was a six-part question that tested candidates’ understanding of the risk management element
of the syllabus. The scenario was that a company had used derivative instruments to hedge risk that
locked the company into one rate or asset price. The finance director of the company wished to
know more about the use of financial options in risk management. Two risks in particular that the
finance director was concerned about were the risks associated with buying shares and the interest
rate risk associated with taking out loans.
There were many weak answers to the first part of the question, but there were some excellent
answers, which demonstrated a good understanding of the characteristics of options. The second
part was poorly answered, which is surprising since this has been examined before. However, again,
there were some excellent answers.
There were many weak answers to the third part of the question, however there were some excellent
answers, which demonstrated a good understanding of the characteristics of options. In the fourth
part, many students successfully applied the knowledge that they had acquired from their studies of
FTSE 100 index options. However, basic errors included using calls instead of puts and picking the
incorrect month of exercise. The fifth part has been examined before, yet there were many basic
errors which included using calls instead of puts, an incorrect number of contracts, the wrong date
for the contracts and an inability to calculate an effective interest rate.
The final part was well answered by the majority of candidates.
31.1
(2)
Equipment purchase/WDV 1,150,000 943,000 773,260 634,073
WDA @ 18%/Bal.allowance (207,000) (169,740) (139,187) (534,073)
WDV/sale 943,000 773,260 634,073 100,000
(4)
Variable cost 1,180,000 220,000
(March 20X6 prices)
Inflate at 3% pa × (1.03)2 × (1.03)3
“Money” variable cost 1,251,862 240,400
(5)
Fixed costs
(March 20X6 prices) 290,000 290,000 290,000
less: HO cost allocation (130,000) (130,000) (130,000)
160,000 160,000 160,000
Inflate at 3% pa × 1.03 × (1.03)2 × (1.03)3
“Money” fixed costs 164,800 169,744 174,836
(6)
Sales (W3) 2,705,040 742,846
Variable costs (W4) (1,251,862) (240,400)
Rent (80,000) (80,000) (80,000)
Fixed costs (W5) (164,800) (169,744) (174,836)
Trading profit/(loss) (80,000) (244,800) 1,203,434 327,610
(7)
Total working capital 0 260,000 70,000 0
× 1.03 × (1.03)2
“Money” total working capital 0 267,800 74,263 0
Examiner’s comments
This question had easily the highest percentage mark on the paper. Overall, the candidates’
performance was very good indeed.
32.1
32.2 The main theories of gearing and market value are the traditional view, M&M 1958 and 1963.
The modern view is that the optimum gearing level (where company value is maximised) is a
balance between the benefits of the tax shield and bankruptcy costs. The impact on OW’s
WACC (and value) depends on where its optimum gearing level is.
OW’s gearing at book value is over 57%; this is rather high and may depress OW’s market
value.
However, gearing at market value is 40%. This is much lower, which may have a positive effect
on the value of OW’s shares.
It is hard to say where OW’s optimal gearing level is likely to be, as there are no industry
comparisons.
If OW’s gearing level is currently above its optimal level, then a reduction in its gearing will
have a positive effect on its share price and vice versa.
32.3 Total funds needed for debenture redemption = £160m × 50% × £110.40/£100 = £88.32m
Shares
m £m
Currently 192.0 £1.70 326.400
Rights issue (2 for 5) 76.8 £1.15 88.320
268.8 £1.5429 414.72
TERP = £1.5429
Value of a right = £1.5429 – £1.15 = £0.3929
Current wealth 10,000 × £1.70 = 17,000
(a)
Take up rights £ £
10,000 × 7/5 ×
Investment ex-rights 1.5429 21,600
10,000 × 2/5 ×
Cost of extra shares £1.15 (4,600) 17,000
(b)
Sell rights £ £
Investment ex-rights 10,000 × 1.5429 15,429
10,000 × 2/5 ×
Sale of rights £0.39 1,571 17,000
(c)
Ignore rights £ £
Investment ex-rights 10,000 × 1.5429 15,429
Examiner’s comments
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates achieved a
“pass” standard in the question, however.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it. It was based
around a design company which was planning to restructure its balance sheet. This would be
achieved by financing the redemption of long-term debt via a rights issue of ordinary shares. The first
part of the question, for three marks, required candidates to calculate the current gearing levels of
the company, using both book and market values. In the second part, for six marks, they were asked
to discuss the impact of a change in the company’s gearing levels on its share price. Candidates were
expected to make reference to relevant theories and their calculations from the first part. The third
part, for nine marks, required the candidates to calculate the theoretical ex-rights price (TERP) of the
company and the impact of the proposed rights issue on the wealth of a shareholder holding 10,000
of the company’s shares. The fourth part (seven marks) tested candidates’ understanding of (a) the
company’s P/E figure and (b) the impact of the debt redemption on the company’s earnings figure.
The fifth part, again for seven marks, required candidates to apply their understanding of dividend
policy theory to the scenario. Finally, for three marks, the final part required candidates to comment
as an ICAEW Chartered Accountant on the ethical implications of issuing misleading information to
shareholders.
Many candidates’ answers to the first part were disappointingly weak. Typical errors were: (a) not
including preference shares as debt (contra to the Workbook and past questions) and (b) ignoring
retained earnings in their book value calculations, but including it in their market value calculations.
In the second part, many candidates only scored three marks by focusing just on the theory of
gearing and company value. Those scoring higher marks noted that there was a lack of industry
30
33.1
(a) Forward contract
R145.6m R145.6m
Payment in sterling would
(78.81 + 0.55) (79.36)
be (£1,834,677)
plus: arrangement fee 145.6 × £40 (£5,824)
(£1,840,501)
R145.6m R145.6m
Payment in sterling would R143,589,740
(1 + 5.6%/4)) 1.014
be lent
R143,589,740
78.81
Converted at spot rate (£1,821,973)
£1,821,974 ×
Borrowed at 3.6% p.a. (3.6%/4) (£16,398)
(£1,838,371)
R145.6m
79.85
Payment in sterling would be (£1,823,419)
plus: Option premium 145.6 × £90 (£13,104)
(£1,836,523)
(b)
R145.6m
Sterling payment at a spot
78.81 (£1,847,481)
rate
R145.6m
Comparative payment at
78.81 (£1,832,599)
earlier dates 31/12/X4
R145.6m
78.81 (£1,903,019)
31/12/X5
Stronger sterling gives the lowest payment, and weaker sterling the highest.
The forward contract discount suggests a weakening of the rouble. It has weakened from
December 20X5 to February 20X6, so this may be a trend.
The option gives the best outcome (it has a slightly lower cost than the money market
hedge and the forward contract). However, if the rouble continued to weaken then the
sterling cost would fall further. For example, a 1% increase in the spot value of sterling
over the next three months would make this the lowest sterling payment (145.6mR/(78.81
× 1.01) = £1,829,146.
An option gives flexibility (the ability to abandon, or to take advantage of any upside)
unlike the money market hedge or forward contract (which are both fixed, binding, and
have no upside/downside).
The directors’ attitude to risk is important, as is a consideration of issues such as the
potential for political risk associated with operations in Russia.
(c)
The rouble interest rates are higher than those of sterling. Using the interest rate parity
(IRP) equation above, the value of sterling against the rouble will rise. The rouble’s loss of
value is called a discount.
Average UK rate 3.25% pa or 0.8125% per 3 months
Average Russian rate 6.1% pa or 1.525% per 3 months
Average spot = (90.62 – 78.81)/2) + 78.81 = 84.715
Forward = 84.715 × (1.01525/1.008125) = 85.31 ie, a discount of 0.6
Average discount given = 0.59, so IRP is working
33.2
TC SSM Difference
Fixed 5.2% 6.4% 1.2%
Variable LIBOR + 1.2 LIBOR + 1.6 0.4%
Difference between differences 0.8%
This potential gain can be split evenly, ie, 0.4% to each party. This means that TC would pay
LIBOR + 0.8% (LIBOR + [1.2% – 0.4%] and SSM would pay fixed 6.0% (6.4% – 0.4%).
The interest rate swap would look like this:
TC SSM
Currently pays (5.2%) (LIBOR + 1.6)
TC pays SSM (LIBOR) LIBOR
SSM pays TC (balancing figure) 4.4% (4.4)
New net payment (LIBOR + 0.8) (6.0%)
TC and SSM would both pay at less (0.4% in each case) than their available fixed and variable
rates.
TC SSM
New net interest rate (LIBOR + 0.8) 4.3% pa 6.0% pa
£’000 £’000
Alternatively
Examiner’s comments
The average mark for this question was very good and most candidates demonstrated a good
understanding of this area of the syllabus.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. In the scenario a construction company was investigating firstly how it might
manage its exposure to foreign exchange rate risk and then whether a proposed interest rate swap
on borrowed funds was worthwhile. Part (a) of the first requirement, for eight marks, required
candidates to calculate the sterling cost arising from a range of hedging techniques applied to a
large Russian purchase contract. In part (b), for nine marks, candidates were required to advise the
company’s board whether it should hedge the Russian (rouble) payments. Part (c), for five marks
required candidates to explain, with relevant workings, the concept of interest rate parity (IRP). In the
second part, for eight marks, the company was planning to swap its borrowings from a fixed rate to a
variable rate of interest and candidates were asked to provide workings for the board demonstrating
how the swap would work and calculating the resultant annual interest payments.
Most candidates’ answers to part (a) of the first requirement were very good, but the most common
error noted was that a minority of candidates used the wrong approach with regard to the call
option. Answers to part (b) were not as good as hoped. Too many candidates discussed recent spot
movements or forward contract versus money market hedge versus option, rather than both. In part
(c) the concept of IRP was, in most cases, answered well, but many candidates used 12-month rather
than three-month figures. A minority of candidates did not mention IRP, and so scored zero.
In the second requirement, the interest rate swap was done very well and most candidates scored
maximum marks. The weakest area was with the initial overall saving on interest cost (0.8%), which a
small percentage of candidates did not calculate correctly.
34.1
0 1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m £m
Gross profit 111.21 133.85 161.10 193.90
Selling and administration (73.50) (77.18) (81.04) (85.09)
Operating cash flows 37.71 56.67 80.06 108.81
Tax 17% (6.41) (9.63) (13.61) (18.50)
After tax operating cash flows 31.30 47.04 66.45 90.31
New equipment (10.00)
Tax saved on CA’s 0.31 0.25 0.21 0.17 0.77
Working capital (26.00) (5.29) (6.37) (7.67) 45.33
Continuing value 1,013.48
Net cash flows (35.69) 26.26 40.88 58.95 1,149.89
PV factors at 10% 1.00 0.91 0.83 0.75 0.68
Present value (35.69) 23.90 33.93 44.21 781.93
NPV 848.28
Cost/WDV CA Tax
£m £m £m
0 10.00 1.80 0.31
1 8.20 1.48 0.25
2 6.72 1.21 0.21
3 5.51 0.99 0.17
4 4.52 4.52 0.77
Total Increment
£m £m
0 (26.00) (26.00)
1 (31.29) (5.29)
2 (37.66) (6.37)
3 (45.33) (7.67)
4 45.33
Examiner’s comments
This was a seven-part question, which tested candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company is divesting itself of a
division by offering it to the public through an Initial Public Offering.
The first part was well answered by many candidates. Common errors that weaker candidates made
were: including operating cash flows in time zero; incorrect calculation of the continuing value;
adding the 18% growth and 2% price increase figures together instead of compounding them;
omitting to explain why certain inputs were not to be included in the cash flows; applying a non-
marketability discount to the final valuation.
The second part was also well answered by the majority of candidates. However, many candidates
applied a non-marketability discount to the p/e ratio, which was inappropriate for the valuation of an
IPO. Responses to the third part were mixed and often did not relate to the scenario of the question
despite the requirement specifically asking for this. Very few students submitted correct answers to
the fourth part of the question, and often made up definitions.
Responses to the fifth part were mixed, with a lot of candidates showing that they did not understand
what underwriting means. Responses to the sixth part were good, although often candidates did not
consider the scenario of the question. The final part was well answered by the majority of candidates.
However, as in previous sittings, a number of candidates did not use the language of ethics.
35.1
(a) WACC using the Gordon growth model:
The growth rate = g = r × b
Where r = the current accounting rate of return
b = the proportion of profits after tax retained
The profits after tax = the current ex-div share price × the earnings yield × the number of
shares in issue.
The ex-div share price = 565p (576p – 11p)
The number of shares in issue = 640m (£32m/£0.05)
The total earnings = £216.96m (565p × 0.06 × 640m)
Total dividends = £70.40m (11p × 640m)
Examiner’s comments
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company is expanding its operations
into a different sector of its market.
There were many basic errors in the first part which really should not be occurring given how many
times this has been set. The errors included the inability to calculate numbers correctly; incorrectly
calculating the number of shares in issue; not calculating the ex-div share price and/or the ex-interest
debenture price; for the cost of debt calculating positive and negative values and interpolating
outside of the range calculated; no tax adjustment for the cost of debt and using book values for the
WACC calculation. In the second requirement part (b) it was disappointing to see that many
candidates were deducting the risk free rate from the market risk premium. Also a number of
candidates were using the 1.3 equity beta from the sightseeing tour sector rather than Ross’s existing
equity beta of 0.65.
The second part was well answered by the majority of candidates. Answers to the third part were
mixed and often there were no reality checks made, with some candidates clearly demonstrating that
they have a very shallow knowledge of the topic. Errors included calculating unrealistic equity betas
(over 300 in one script); degearing using Ross’s market values and regearing the gearing ratio of the
holiday and sightseeing tour sector; regearing using book values despite the formulae sheet stating
market values; degearing and regearing with the same debt/equity ratio and ending up with a
different figure from the start; when regearing changing the gearing ratio, even though the question
states that this will not change; very brief or non-existent explanations of the rationale.
Despite the fourth part being set before, and with a very similar detailed example in the Workbook,
most candidates made a poor attempt. Few candidates used the redemption yield of the existing
debentures, which they had calculated in the first part; there were only brief or no explanations of the
terms of the debenture issue.
The fifth part was well answered by the majority of candidates, but some answers gave explanations
of Modigliani and Miller, which was not relevant to this question.
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 30
36.1
(a) Forward contract:
The appropriate forward rate = $/£ 1.5392 (1.5402 – 0.0010)
This will result in a sterling receipt of = £1,624,220 ($2,500,000/$1.5392)
Currency futures:
Orchid will buy September futures to hedge the dollar receipt.
The number of contracts = ($2,500,000/$1.5379)/£62,500 = 26.01 (round to 26 contracts)
The futures contracts will be closed out on 30 September 20X6 resulting in a loss of:
$9,588 ((1.5379 – 1.5320) × 26 × £62,500).
The sterling receipt will be: £1,625,065 (($2,500,000 – $9,588)/£1.5325))
OTC currency options:
Orchid will use a call option to buy sterling with an exercise price of $1,5300.
The premium will cost: £75,000 ($2,500,000 × £0.03)
The cost including interest lost on surplus cash deposits = £75,900 (£75,000 × (1+ 0.36 ×
4/12))
If the spot rate for buying sterling on 30 September 20X6 is $/£1.5325, Orchid will
exercise the options and buy sterling at $/£1.5300.
The sterling receipt will be = £1,633,987 ($2,500,000/$1.5300)
The net receipt after taking the option premium and lost interest into account =
£1,558,087 (£1,633,987 – £75,900)
(b) The sterling receipt for each of the three hedging techniques:
Forward contract £1,624,220
Currency futures £1,625,065
OTC currency option £1,558,087
The forward contract and futures contracts both lock Orchid into an exchange rate and do
not allow for the upside potential of the dollar strengthening against sterling more than
expected.
The options however protect Orchid against the downside risk of sterling strengthening
against the dollar and allow for the upside potential of the dollar strengthening against
sterling; however, the option premium is expensive.
In addition to the above some specific advantages and disadvantages include the
following.
Forwards:
• Tailored specifically for Orchid
• However there is no secondary market should the customers not pay Orchid
Currency futures:
• Not tailored so one has to round the number of contracts
• Requires a margin to be deposited at the exchange
• Need for liquidity if margin calls are made
• However there is a secondary market
Overall position £
Portfolio value 10,471,000
Less option premium (235,320)
10,235,680
(b) Sheldon should exercise the options since the index has fallen to 5,875, which is below the
put option exercise price.
The gain on exercising the options = £962,000 ((6,525 – 5,875) × £10 × 148)
Overall position £
Portfolio 8,695,000
Gain on options 962,000
Original value 9,657,000
Less option premium (235,320)
9,421,680
36.3 The three factors that affect the time value of the FTSE 100 options are:
• Time to maturity – For example: The longer the time to maturity the more chance there is
that the option will be in the money at expiry. Also there will be a greater interest element in
the option value.
• The risk free rate – For example: The level of the risk free rate will affect the interest element
in the options value. The higher it is the more interest element.
• Volatility – For example: Higher volatility will increase the option value since there is more
chance of the option being in the money, or deeper in the money, at expiry.
Examiner’s comments
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a risk management company is giving
advice to two clients: to one client, on hedging foreign exchange rate risk and to the second on
hedging the fall in the value of a portfolio of FTSE 100 shares.
The first requirement was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors
demonstrated by weaker candidates included calculating the number of futures contracts using the
spot rate rather than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold; treating
an over the counter option like a traded option; confusing puts and calls. There were average
responses from a lot of candidates to part (b), often without any reference to the numbers calculated
in part (a); however there were some excellent answers. There were some excellent answers to the
second part from the majority of candidates. Weaker candidates confused calls and puts and
37.1 FRA 2
Option 2
No hedge 1
Interest rate swap not applicable 1
Appropriate commentary 3
Marks Available 9
Maximum 9
37.2 (a) Currency futures contracts 5
Maximum 5
(b) OTC currency option 3
Maximum 3
(c) Forward contract 2
Maximum 2
(d) Money market hedge 3
Maximum 3
37.3 Spot rate calculations 2
Appropriate commentary – 1 mark per point 6
Marks Available 8
Maximum 8
Total 30
37.1
An interest rate swap would not be appropriate here as it is short-term and would in all
likelihood be very difficult to arrange.
If LIBOR is 5% then it would be best not to hedge. If LIBOR is 7% the FRA gives the lowest
interest figure. The figures are not conclusive, and the board’s attitude to risk will be important.
The FRA eliminates downside risk (rates rising) as well as upside risk (rates falling).
37.2
(a) Currency futures contracts
Dollars will be purchased. Therefore sell £ on futures exchange.
Contracts to be sold = £4.8m/1.5095/£62,500 = 50.9, (round to 51 [or 50])
$
Cost of consignment (4,800,000)
Profit on futures 47,813
Net cost (4,752,187)
Net cost at spot rate
(31/1/X7) ($4,752,187)/1.4895 (£3,190,458)
$4.8m
1.502
Receipt in sterling would be (£3,195,739)
plus: Option premium 4.8m × £0.011 (£52,800)
(£3,248,539)
$4.8m $4.8m
Payment in
(1.5150−0.0112) 1.5038
sterling (£3,191,913)
plus:
Arrangement
fee 4.8m×£0.004 (£19,200)
(£3,211,113)
Payment in
$4.8m $4.8m
sterling would
[1 + (3.6%/3)] 1.012
be $4,743,083 lent
Converted at (£3,130,748)
Borrowed at £3,130,748 ×
6.9% p.a. (6.9%/3) (72,007)
(£3,202,755)
37.3
$4.8m
1.5150 (£3,168,317)
Sterling payment at spot rate 30/9/X6
$4.8m
1.4895 (£3,222,558)
Sterling payment at spot rate 31/1/X7
The forward contract premium suggests a strengthening of the $. A weaker £ means a higher
payment, and vice versa for a stronger £.
Order (cheapest first)
Thus three of the four hedging results lie between the two spot rates.
The futures contracts give gives best outcome (lower than the MMH, FC and OTC). However, if
the dollar were to weaken by January 20X7 (against expectations) then it might be best to not
hedge at all.
Option gives flexibility (abandon, upside) unlike MMH or FC (fixed, binding, no
upside/downside). Futures contracts can be cheaper (lower transaction costs), but contracts
cannot be tailored to user’s exact requirements.
The directors’ attitude to risk is also important in deciding which strategy to pursue.
Examiner’s comments
This question had easily the highest percentage mark on the paper. Overall, the candidates’
performance was very good. This was a three-part question which tested the candidates’
understanding of the risk management element of the syllabus. In the scenario a UK electricity
generator was considering hedging (1) the interest costs of a large loan and (2) its exposure to
foreign exchange rate risk on a planned purchase from an American supplier. In the first part, for nine
marks, candidates were required to calculate the interest payments that would arise on its planned
loan were it to make use of an FRA, an option or a swap. Two different rates of LIBOR were given to
the candidates. Candidates were then required to recommend which of the hedging techniques the
company should choose at each of the LIBOR rates. The second requirement was worth 13 marks
and asked candidates to calculate the sterling cost arising from a range of hedging techniques
applied to the American purchase. Finally the third part, for eight marks, required candidates to
advise the company’s board whether it should hedge the American (dollar) payments.
The first part was answered well by many candidates. However, common errors made were:
• candidates based their calculations on a borrowing period of six months rather than 12 (the
loan was to be taken out for 12 months, starting in six months’ time).
38.1
(a) Ordinary dividend per share in 20X6 (£3,797,500/15,500,000) 24.5 pence
Ordinary dividend growth rate = £0.201/£0.245, which over four years 5% p.a.
(d1) + g
Cost of equity (£0.245 × 1.05)
+ 5%
MV £5.20
(ke) = 9.95%
Cost of d=
d £0.06
preference = (£540,000/9m)
MV £1.08
shares (kp) = £0.06 5.55%
WACC
Total MV’s
£’000 Cost × weightingWACC
Equity 15.5m×£5.20 80,600 9.95% × 80,600/106,615 7.52%
Pref.shares 9m×£1.08 9,720 5.55% × 9,720/106,615 0.51%
£6.5m ×
Red. debt 103/100 6,695 2.44% × 6,695/106,615 0.15%
£10.0m ×
Irred. debt 96/100 9,600 4.32% × 9,600/106,615 0.39%
26,015 1.05%
Total market
value 106,615 8.57%
(b)
Cost of equity (1.2 × (9.5% – 1.9%)) + 1.9 = 11.02%
Weighted cost of equity 11.02% × 80,600/106,615 8.33%
Weighted cost of debt (as
above) 1.05%
WACC
38.2 Roper is using 7% as its hurdle rate. In fact a more accurate figure would be 8.57% (say 9%) or
9.38% (say 10%). This means it could be making poor investment decisions. If it takes on a
project with an IRR of 8% this will be destroying shareholder value as the IRR is less than the
company’s cost of capital.
38.3 CAPM theory:
Systematic vs unsystematic risk, and portfolio theory
Beta – a measure of systematic risk against market average
CAPM gives an alternative cost of equity which is used to calculate the WACC
38.4 New market geared beta = 1.9
Examiner’s comments
This question had, marginally, the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates
achieved a ‘pass’ standard in the question, however.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. It was based around a UK engineering company which was planning to
diversify into the UK fracking industry. As a result various calculations regarding its current and future
cost of capital were deemed necessary. The first part of the question, for 13 marks, required
candidates to calculate the current weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of the company using
(1) the dividend growth model and (2) the CAPM. In the second part, for three marks, candidates
were asked to explain whether the company should continue to use its existing hurdle rate for its
decisions on large-scale investments. The third part, for five marks, required candidates to explain
Maximum 4
39.4 Ethical issues around confidentiality 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
39.1
(a)
Per share
£4,998
Net Assets
500
(historic cost) £10.00
(£740/8%) £9,250
500 500
Dividend yield £18.50
Less (say) 30% for lack of marketability of
shares
PV of future cash
flows y/e 20X7 y/e 20X8 y/e 20X9 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Pre-tax cash profits 2,900 3,000 3,100
Tax at 17% (W2) (465) (487) (422)
Net cash flow 2,435 2,513 2,678
× × ×
12% factor 0.893 0.797 0.712
PV 2,174 2,003 1,907 6,084
Post 20X9 net cash
inflows 2,000
× 1/12%
Discounted to
16,667
infinity
Discounted to PV
from 20X9 ×0.712
11,867
£17,951/50
0 £35.90
WORKINGS
(1)
(2)
(b) Net assets (historic cost) – tends towards low historic values, so an undervaluation.
Intangibles are ignored. Earnings potential and future earnings are ignored.
Net assets (revalued) – as above, except that the asset values used are current.
P/E ratio – Looks at earnings. Will it be a majority stake? If so, then control will be gained,
so shares for this controlling stake should cost more. In this scenario it gives a much higher
value than assets. However, are these earnings stable into the future? Is the company over-
reliant on the two successful games from 20X3? Future earnings – are there new games
planned? Will they be successful?
Dividend yield – this is based on dividend income and is applicable where it’s to be a
minority stake. Are these dividends stable? Will there be dividend growth?
PV of future cash flows – considers cash flows not profits and estimates forwards. These are
large estimates, especially the terminal value. Is it over-reliant on the two successful games
(as above)?
Overall – a value close to £30/share should be a minimum price.
39.2 SVA is an alternative method of calculating the value of a company, based on future cash flows
and seven “value drivers”. These value drivers can, in most cases, be managed by the company
and so the influence of company strategy will be evident.
39.3
Asset The asset method is not easy to apply because the value of
capital in terms of tangible assets for a company like Darlo
may not be high. Most of the investment is likely to be in
people, digital assets, and/or intellectual rights that are not
capitalised as assets. A game has a typical lifespan of three to
five years and therefore Darlo’s success is dependent on the
ability of its employees to develop and produce new
successful games.
Value could be assessed by estimating how much it would
cost for an investor to create the assets of the company from
scratch. However, such approaches would not capture the
value resulting from the potential future growth, which is likely
to represent the main part of Darlo’s value.
DCF Despite the problems with estimating future cash flows, the
DCF approach is likely to be the most valid approach for
Darlo.
Revenue growth prospects and margins could be estimated
through the use of predictive analytics or by comparing
companies that have a similar business model (eg, Epic
Games). Different scenarios can be created and analysed
using techniques such as simulation.
Cash flows should be discounted 12% which reflects Darlo’s
risk profile.
39.4 An ICAEW Chartered Accountant should assume that all unpublished information about a
prospective, current or previous client’s or employer’s affairs, however gained, is confidential.
That information should then:
• be kept confidential;
• not be disclosed, even inadvertently such as in a social environment; and
• not be used to obtain personal advantage.
Examiner’s comments
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it. In the scenario
a software development company was considering investing in a company that designs games for
use on computers and mobile phones. Candidates were given financial information relating to the
target company.
In the first requirement, part (a) was worth 14 marks and required candidates to calculate the value of
one share in the target company using five different valuation methods. Whilst in part (b), for 10
40.1
0 1 2 3 4
Units million 0.096 0.115 0.098 0.083
Selling price £ 299.00 299.00 299.00 299.00
Variable costs per unit £ –164.45 –172.67 –181.3 –190.37
Contribution per unit £ 134.55 126.33 117.7 108.63
NPV 8.59
The NPV is positive and Ribble should therefore accept the project to increase shareholder
wealth.
Marks are awarded for not including the research and development costs of £100,000 and
allocated fixed overheads, since they are sunk costs and allocated costs respectively.
Units:
• 8,000 × 12 = 96,000
• 96,000 × 1.2 = 115,200
• 112,200 × (1 – 0.15) = 97,920
• 97,920 × (1 – 0.15) = 83,232
Lost contribution:
• (96,000 units/10) × £25 = £240,000
• (115,200 units/10) × £25 = £288,000
• (97,920 units/10) × £25 = £244,800
• (83,232 units/10) × £25 = £208,080
Working capital
cumulative Increment
0 –1 –1
1 –1.2 –0.2
2 –1.02 0.18
3 –0.87 0.15
4 0 0.87
40.2
(a) Sensitivity to sales revenue:
1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m
Contribution 12.92 14.53 11.53 9.02
Contribution lost –0.24 –0.29 –0.25 –0.21
Total 12.68 14.24 11.28 8.81
Total ´ (1 – 0.17) 10.52 11.82 9.36 7.31
Discount factor @ 10% 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683
PV 9.56 9.76 7.77 4.99
Total PV = 32.08
Sensitivity NPV/PV
(8.59/32.08) 27%
Given the risky nature of this project, the board of Ribble might consider the project to be
too sensitive to changes in the sales revenue.
(b) Sensitivity to the residual value of equipment:
£m
Maximum loss of scrap value 4
Increase in the balancing charge × 17% –0.68
Net cash flows 3.32
Although this represents 26% (2.27/8.59) of the overall NPV, the project is insensitive to
the residual value, since there would be a substantial NPV even if the value fell to zero.
40.3 Ribble has:
The option to delay the project for one year to see whether the competitor launches their
hoverboard onto the market.
The option to abandon the project should sales levels be below those estimated eg, if the rival
company’s hoverboard is launched and proves to be more popular than the Ribbleboard.
There is a follow on option in that Ribble could expand if the competitor’s product fails and/or
sales of the Ribbleboard are better than expected.
Candidates might also state growth or flexibility options.
Examiner’s comments
This was a four-part question, which tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment
decisions element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a company is considering
launching on to the market a new version of an existing product.
The first part was well answered by many candidates, but the following were common errors:
incorrect calculation of sales and variable costs; timing errors for cash flows; only taking account of
half of the relevant costs; not stating that research and development costs should be ignored; not
stating that allocated overheads should not be included in the NPV computations. Responses to the
second part were mixed, with many candidates not taking into account all the relevant cash flows and
many ignoring taxation. There were few candidates who made meaningful comments regarding the
sensitivity of the project to changes in the inputs. Responses to the third part were good, although
some candidates wasted time by mentioning more than the required two real options.
Responses to the fourth part of the question were also mixed, and many did not relate to ethical
issues, instead discussing commercial issues. Where the ethical issues were discussed, a number of
candidates did not use the language of ethics.
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
(b) Sources/forms of finance – 0.5 mark each point 2
Marks Available 2
Maximum 2
(c) Financial information – 0.5–1 mark each point 5
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
Total 35
41.1
(a) The cost of capital = Ke = 3 + (1.1 × (8 – 3)) = 8.5%
(b) A 1 for 2 rights issue will require 40/2 = 20 million new shares to be issued.
The price per share = £70 million/20 million = £3.50
A discount on the current market price of: (5.00 – 3.50)/5.00 = 30% (or £1.50)
The theoretical ex-rights price is:
Examiner’s comments
This was a seven-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that a corporate finance firm is giving
advice to two clients. Client one (requirement 1) is a company seeking to raise additional funds and
client two (requirement 2) is a management buyout team.
Part (a) of the first requirement of the question was well answered by the majority of candidates.
However, in the CAPM equation a surprising number did not deduct the risk free rate from the
market return.
Part (b) of the first requirement was also well answered by the majority of candidates. However,
considering that the area has been examined many times before some basic errors were made which
included: incorrectly calculating the number of new shares to be issued; not calculating the discount
that the rights price represents on the current share price of the company (despite this being
specifically asked for).
Also, many candidates were unable to comment on whether and why the actual share price might
not be equal to the theoretical ex-rights share price after the rights issue.
Responses to part (c) of the first requirement were mixed and, since the topic has been examined
many times before, rather disappointing. Candidates were asked to calculate the yield to redemption
(YTR) of debentures that a similar company to the client company already had in issue. They then had
to use the YTR that they had calculated to price a new debenture issue, and to calculate the total
nominal value of the new issue. Common errors included: using the cum-interest debenture price in
the YTR computation; attempting to calculate the YTR on the new issue; deducting tax from the YTR;
incorrectly calculating the total nominal value of the new issue; many mathematical errors in the YTR
computations; calculating, and using, the interest yield of the debentures rather than the YTR for the
new issue, using the coupon rate to calculate the issue price (and not arriving back at the par value!);
for the new issue, using the cost of equity to calculate the issue price.
Also, comments on whether the YTR of the similar company was appropriate to use for the client
company were poor.
Responses to part (d) of the first requirement were extremely disappointing considering that similar
questions have been asked before. In the scenario the candidates were provided with average and
42 Orion plc
Marks Available 8
Maximum 8
42.3 Explanation of interest rate parity 2
Calculation of forward rate and explanation of discount 3
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
42.4 Explanation of economic risk 2
Application to Orion 2
Risk mitigation – 0.5 mark each for identifying and explanation 2
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
Total 30
42.1
(a) The forward rate is: $/£ 1.4430 (1.4340 + 0.0090)
This results in a sterling receipt of £3,465,003 ($5,000,000/$1.4430)
(b) Orion should buy March sterling futures (ie, to buy £ with $).
The number of contracts to buy is: ($5,000,000/$1,4410)/£62,500 = 55.52 contracts.
Round to 56 contracts. Slightly over hedged. (Full marks given if 55 contracts used.)
On 31 March the futures will be closed out and sold at $1.4487. This will result in a profit
of: ($1.4487 – $1.4410) × (£62,500 × 56) = $26,950
Sterling will be purchased on the spot market and the total receipt will be: ($5,000,000 +
$26,950)/$1.4490 = $3,469,255
(c) Over the counter option:
The option premium is $5,000,000 × 3p = £150,000.
The premium with interest lost is £150,000 × (1 + 0.03 × 4/12) = £151,500
If the spot price on 31 March is $/£1.4490 Orion will exercise the options.
The sterling receipt will be ($5,000,000/$1.4390) – £151,500 = £3,323,135
42.2 The forward contract and futures contracts both lock Orion into an exchange rate and do not
allow for upside potential.
Forwards:
• Tailored specifically for Orion
• No secondary market
Currency futures:
• Not tailored, so need to round the number of contracts
• Requires a margin to be deposited at the exchange
• Need for liquidity if margin calls are made
• Secondary market
OTC currency options:
• The options are expensive
• No secondary market
• However, the options allow Orion to exploit upside potential and protect downside risk
Advice:
Without hedging, the sterling receipt would be £3,450,656 (5,000,000/1.4490)
Examiner’s comments
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that of a company reviewing its foreign
exchange rate risk hedging strategy.
The first part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated by
weaker candidates included: calculating the number of futures contracts using the spot rate rather
than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold rather than bought;
calculating the futures gain in £ rather than $; treating an over the counter option like a traded
option; calculating the option premium in $ rather than £; omitting interest on the option premium.
There were a lot of average responses to the second part, some without any reference to the
numbers calculated in the first part. Many candidates did not give a firm conclusion. However there
were some excellent answers.
Responses to the third part were mixed, with many candidates demonstrating a lack of
understanding of interest rate parity. Very often computations did not make sense and were very
difficult to follow.
Few candidates gave adequate answers to the fourth part, and showed little knowledge of what
economic risk is. However again there were some excellent answers.
43.1 Sales .5
Variable costs 1
Fixed costs .5
Interest 1.5
Tax .5
Dividends 1.5
Retained earnings .5
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
43.2 Earnings per share 2
Gearing calculation 4
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
43.3 Current EPS .5
Target profit before tax 1.5
Interest added back 1
Fixed costs added back 1
Contribution/sales ratio 1
Target sales figure 1
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
43.4 Rights issue v debenture issue
1 mark per valid point up to a maximum of 8 8
Marks Available 8
Maximum 8
43.5 Explanation of dividend policy theory 6
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
43.6 Explanation of dividend policy theory 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
43.1
WORKING
43.2
43.3
43.4 Sentry’s current earnings per share figure is 44.5p. The predicted EPS are 36.9p (rights issue)
and 49.8p (debt issue). So the rights issue leads to a lower EPS whilst the debt issue increases
EPS and may, for this reason, be favoured by shareholders.
Rights issue:
As would be expected, the level of gearing is much lower than under the debenture issue
option (30.4% compared to 59.9%). It’s also lower than Sentry’s current level of gearing (46.0%
[£20,300/44.086]).
However if one takes the market value into account then the current gearing figure (34.5%) is
much lower. Current MV of equity = 40.000m (£3.20 × 12.5m). Current MV of debt = £21.112
million (1.04 × £20.3m). (£21.112/[£21.112 + £40.000]) = 34.5%
The interest cover ratio of 7.4 is higher than that for the debenture issue (3.5) and the existing
figure (5.7).
The rights issue (£20m) represents 50% of Sentry’s current market capitalisation (£3.20 ×
12.500 = £40m). This could deter current shareholders from investing and so there might be a
dilution of shareholders (and control).
Debenture issue:
This creates a very high level of gearing (59.9%) and the interest cover is 3.5 (compared to the
current cover figure of 5.7). So the extra financial risk taken on might concern the shareholders.
It would need sales to increase by 29% for the EPS under the rights issue to remain at its
current level – is this achievable? Roger Smyth’s comments suggest otherwise.
Other issues to consider:
The current debentures are due to be repaid in 20X9–20Y0. This will create additional financial
pressure.
Issue costs – the cost of issuing debentures is likely to be cheaper.
Tax shield – the debenture issue would give Sentry more chance to take advantage of the tax
shield and its WACC may fall accordingly, unless the gearing level was then deemed by
investors to be too high.
43.5 Reference to main dividend policy theory:
M&M theory – share value is determined by future earnings and the level of risk. The amount
of dividends paid will not affect shareholder wealth, providing the retained earnings are
invested in profitable investment opportunities (ie, those with positive NPV’s). Any loss in
dividend income will be offset by the gains in share price.
Traditional theory – shareholders would prefer dividends today rather than dividends or
capital gains in future. Cash now is more certain than in the future.
Supplementing these main theories:
• Impact of signalling
• Clientele effect
Examiner’s comments
This question was generally answered well and most candidates achieved a ‘pass’ standard.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it.
In the scenario, a listed UK drinks manufacturer planned to raise £20 million to finance a major
change in the company’s trading strategy. This additional funding would be raised either via a rights
issue or a debenture issue. In the first part, for six marks, candidates were required to prepare a
forecast income statement for both of these methods of funding. The second part was also worth six
marks and asked candidates to calculate (a) the EPS and (b) the gearing ratio for both methods of
funding. The third part, for six marks, tested sensitivity analysis – what level of sales would be
necessary to maintain the EPS at its current level. The fourth part was worth eight marks. It brought
together the three parts above and required candidates to discuss the implications for the
shareholders of the two funding methods. The fifth part, for six marks, tested candidates’
understanding of dividend theory. Finally, in the sixth part, for three marks, candidates had to explain
the ethical issues arising for an ICAEW Chartered Accountant who is aware of a plan to overstate the
company’s forecast sales figures.
The third part was a good discriminator and, whilst many candidates were able to work backwards to
a forecast sales figure, a large minority scored very poorly here.
Most candidates did very well in the first part and the majority scored full marks. The most common
errors occurred with the estimated variable costs, interest charges and dividend payments. A small
minority of candidates were unable to calculate the number of new shares issued via the rights issue
and used, erroneously, a 1 for 1 issue (rather than dividing £20 million by the issue price of £2.50).
The second part was generally well answered, but a number of candidates were unable to identify
the earnings figure from the income statement and used the retained profit figure instead. A
significant number of candidates were unable to calculate the correct gearing ratios. Typical errors
here were: (a) calculating debt/equity instead of debt/debt + equity, despite instructions to the
contrary, (b) omission of forecast retained profits, (c) addition of par value of new shares rather than
sum raised and (d) using market values rather than book values, again contrary to the instruction
given.
Overall the answers to the fourth part were disappointing. Too many candidates said little beyond
the fact that EPS and gearing would move up/down, depending on the funding method chosen. Very
few considered the impact on interest cover or the required size of the equity issue. The discussion of
financial risk was, generally, limited and too many candidates spent too much time on M&M theories.
The fifth part was, overall, answered very well, although some candidates discussed capital structure
theory here. The sixth part was, in general, answered very well.
London sales 1
London variable costs 1
London fixed costs 1
Tax on profit .5
Factory closure .5
Tax on closure .5
Lease payments .5
Tax saved on lease .5
Machinery sale .5
Tax saving 1.5
London working capital 1.5
Discount factor 1
Marks Available 21
Maximum 21
(b) Advice 1
Marks Available 1
Maximum 1
44.2 Project rankings 2
NPV with divisible projects 2
NPV with indivisible projects 2
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
44.3 Explanation of EMH – levels of efficiency 4
Examples of irrational behaviour 4
Maximum available 7
Marks Available 15
Maximum 7
Total 35
44.1
(a)
WORKINGS
(1) W1
(2) W2
Newcastle contribution
(sales × 65%) 861.900 1,024.339
(3) W3
WDV 3,100.000
Balancing Allowance (1,400.000)
Sale 1,700.000
Tax saved (17% × £1,400,000) 238.000
(4) W4
(5) W1
(6) W2
(7) W3
(8) W4
(9) W5
(b) White should choose March 20X9 for closure of the London factory as it has the higher
NPV and will enhance shareholder wealth the most.
44.2
Project 1 2 3 4 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Investment required (£m) 6,000 4,500 4,700 3,850 19,050
Net Present Value 621 563 869 622
NPV/£ invested £0.104 £0.125 £0.185 £0.162
Ranking 4 3 1 2
Indivisible projects
1 2 3 4 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Invested 6,000 4,700 3,850 14,550
NPV 621 869 622 2,112
1 2 3 4 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Invested 4,500 4,700 3,850 13,050
NPV 563 869 622 2,054
The highest NPV is achieved via the combination of projects 1, 3 and 4. This would generate an
NPV of £2,112,000.
44.3 The efficient markets hypothesis (EMH) holds that stock markets are considered in the main to
be efficient, ie, all share prices are ‘fair’. Investment returns are those expected for the risks
undertaken. Information is rapidly and accurately incorporated into share values. When share
prices at all times rationally reflect all available information, the market in which they are traded
is said to be efficient. In efficient markets investors cannot make consistently above-average
returns other than by chance.
An efficient market is one in which share prices reflect all of the information available. There
are three levels of efficiency:
Weak form – prices only change when new information about a company is made available.
There are no changes in anticipation of new information. Information arrives in a random
manner (the random walk theory) and so the chartist theory (technical analysis) will not hold up
here. The market is efficient in the weak form if past prices cannot be used to earn consistently
abnormal profits.
Semi strong form – prices reflect all information about past price movements and all
knowledge that is publicly available/anticipated. The market can anticipate price changes
before new information is formally announced. The market is efficient in the semi-strong form if
publicly available information (eg, historical share prices, dividend announcements) cannot be
used to earn consistently abnormal profits.
Strong form – share prices reflect all information about past price movements, all knowledge
that is publicly available/anticipated and from insider knowledge available to specialists or
experts. The market is efficient in the strong form if all information (private and public) cannot
be used to earn consistently abnormal profits.
Behavioural finance questions the validity of the EMH and posits that investors’ irrational
behaviour may affect share price movements. Examples of irrational behaviour are:
Examiner’s comments
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates achieved a
‘pass’ standard in the question, however.
45 ST Leonard Foods
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
Total 30
45.1
€1.1875 – €1.2745 –
OTC option 1.1960 1.2860
Call option
Exercise option Yes No
Rate 1.2540 1.2745
(£917,065) (£902,315)
plus: Premium cost
(€1,150k/€100 × £0.70) (8,050) (8,050)
Total cost (£925,115) (£910,365)
Forward contract
45.2 In summary
The forward rate suggests that the euro will strengthen (sterling will weaken) over the next
three months. STL would prefer sterling to be stronger (purchases are then cheaper).
With an exchange rate of €1.1875/£
Sterling is much weaker, and the MMH and forward contract produce the lowest sterling
payments.
With an exchange rate of €1.2745/£
Sterling is stronger, and the option and no hedge produce the lowest sterling payments. Once
the exchange rate exceeds €1.2577/£ (€1.150,000/£914,370) then the option produces a
lower payment than the MMH (and also, therefore, the forward contract).
Directors’ attitude to risk is also important in deciding which approach to take.
45.3
LIBOR 4% LIBOR 6%
At the lower LIBOR rate it is best not to hedge, but with LIBOR at 6% the option is slightly
cheaper than the FRA.
45.4 FRA’s allow lenders/borrowers to fix a rate of interest. The bank will pay/receive any difference
between the agreed rate and the actual rate paid/received (see workings in 45.3 above).
Interest rate futures are similar to FRA’s in that they are contracts on an interest rate, but the
terms, amounts and periods are standardised.
Entitlement to interest rate receipts is bought with futures and the promise to make to interest
rate payments is sold with futures.
The pricing of an interest rate futures contract is calculated as (100–r), so if the rate in a futures
contract is 5% then the contract will be priced at 95. Profits/losses on the buying and selling of
futures are offset against the moves in interest rates.
46.1 Contribution 3
Costs 1.5
Recognition of sunk costs .5
Rent forgone 1
Tax 1
New equipment/capital allowances 3
Working capital 2.5
Discount factor 1
NPV conclusion 1.5
Marks Available 15
Maximum 15
46.2 PV of contribution 2.5
Sensitivity % .5
Conclusion 1
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
46.3 Listing the seven value drivers 2
Application to the scenario 4
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
46.4 1 mark for each option, 1 mark for application 4
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
46.5 1.5 marks for each example 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
46.6 State and apply the relevant principles 3
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
46.1
0 1 2 3 4
£m £m £m £m £m
Contribution 2.97 3.18 2.92 2.68
Fixed overheads –0.10 –0.10 –0.11 –0.11
Selling and administration –0.50 –0.52 –0.53 –0.55
Rent forgone –0.40 –0.40 –0.40 –0.40
After tax operating cash flows –0.33 1.64 1.79 1.56 1.68
Cost/WDV CA Tax
0 8.00 1.44 0.24
1 6.56 1.18 0.20
2 5.38 0.97 0.16
3 4.41 0.79 0.13
4 3.62 3.62 0.62
Examiner’s comments
This was a six-part question, which tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was a company considering launching a new
product on to the market.
The first part was well answered by many candidates, however the following were common errors:
incorrect calculation of sales and variable costs; timing errors for cash flows; not stating that research
and development costs should be ignored because they are a sunk cost; not stating that allocated
fixed overheads should not be included in the NPV computations.
46.2
£m £m £m £m
Sensitivity:
Contribution × (1– 0.17) 2.47 2.64 2.42 2.22
PV factors 0.909 0.83 0.75 0.68
PV 2.25 2.18 1.82 1.52
Total PV 7.77
Sensitivity
– 2.28/7.77 = –29.3%
Sales revenue will have to increase by 29.3% to arrive at a zero NPV. The project is therefore
relatively insensitive to revenue changes.
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the second part were mixed, with many candidates basing calculations on sales rather
than contribution, and many ignoring taxation. There were few candidates who made meaningful
comments regarding the sensitivity of the project to changes in the inputs. Responses to the third
part were also mixed, with weaker candidates merely listing the seven drivers with no application to
the scenario.
46.3 SVA is the process of analysing the activities of a business to identify how they will result in
increasing shareholder wealth.
Answers should outline the seven drivers and relate them to the project and its negative
NPV:
Sales growth rate – can this be increased, are the estimates realistic.
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the fourth part were good, but some candidates listed all real options rather than just
stating two as per the requirement. Only the first two are marked. Responses to the fifth and sixth
part were also good.
46.5 The over-riding objective of companies is to create long-term wealth for shareholders.
However this can only be done if we consider the likely behaviour of other stakeholders. For
example (TWO only):
Employees – cutting employee benefits in pursuit of creating short-term profits could have
long-term detrimental effects on shareholder wealth, for example if the company has high staff
turnover which affects productivity or service levels.
Creditors – delaying payments to creditors could have repercussions for future supplies, which
could reduce longer- term shareholder wealth.
Managers – if managers and employees are not motivated adequately, the costs of
inefficiencies will be borne by shareholders.
46.6 The directors of Brighton should develop an ethical policy in respect to using overseas
manufacturers where labour is cheap and safety standards for employees may be low. This
should relate to not using suppliers who make use of child labour or slave labour, or who
employ people in dangerous working conditions. In relation to this, the principles of integrity,
objectivity and professional behaviour are relevant.
47 Easton plc
47.1 The current WACC using CAPM is calculated as follows: Ke = 2 + 0.45 (9 – 2) = 5.15%
Kd using linear interpolation:
The ex-interest debenture price is £105 (109 – 4).
47.2 The cost of equity should reflect the systematic risk of the project. An equity beta from a listed
company operating veterinary practices can be used as a surrogate in the CAPM. Since the
gearing ratio of the surrogate is materially different to Easton, gearing adjustments will have to
be made.
De gearing to find Ba: 0.80 = Ba (1 + (3 × 0.83)/7) Solving for Ba. Ba = 0.59
Gearing up to reflect the gearing ratio of Easton to find Be: Be = 0.59 (1 + (0.15 × 0.83)/0.85)
Solving for Be. Be = 0.68
The Ke to reflect the systematic risk of the project = 2 + 0.68 (9 – 2) = 6.76%
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the second part were disappointing, but there were some excellent answers.
Common mistakes were: de-gearing the company’s existing equity beta; de-gearing the correct beta
but re-gearing using book values rather than market values. Explanations of the rationale for
calculating the cost of equity for the project were poor.
47.3 The overall Be of Easton will reflect the systematic risk of both pet-related products and
veterinary practices.
The overall Be = (0.45 × 0.75) + (0.68 × 0.25) = 0.51
Ke = 2 + 0.51 (9 – 2) = 5.57%. The overall WACC = (5.57% × 0.85) + (2.86% × 0.15) = 5.16%
Easton’s WACC has increased to 5.16% from 4.81%. An increase in the WACC is associated
with a reduction in value, but assuming that the project has a positive NPV this could result in
an increase in value.
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the third part were mixed. A number of candidates did not calculate the overall equity
beta of the company, and used the equity beta from the second part. Explanations of the effect of a
rise in the overall WACC of the company were poor. Responses to the fourth part were poor, and
many candidates were confused about what the terms systematic and unsystematic risk mean. Often
students quoted incorrect examples of each risk.
47.4 Systematic risk is the type of risk that all companies are exposed to, no matter which market
sector they operate in. Systematic risk cannot be eliminated through diversification. Examples
of systematic risk include: interest rate changes, economic recession, oil price changes and
wars.
Unsystematic risk is the risk that affects a particular market sector or individual company. Most
of this risk can be diversified away by investing in a portfolio of randomly selected securities.
Examples of unsystematic risk include: the chairman resigning, strikes by the employees of a
company or changes in regulations that affects a particular market sector.
47.5 Portfolio theory shows that the only logical portfolio to hold is one which is fully diversified. The
reaction of each group might be:
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the fifth part were also mixed, with many candidates not able to demonstrate a good
grasp of the topic area. Few candidates mentioned that diversified companies often trade at a
conglomerate discount.
47.6 If the financing of the project results in a change in the capital structure of Easton, the
WACC/NPV should not be used. An alternative project appraisal technique is APV.
The project will be appraised as if it were only financed by equity, to arrive at a base case NPV.
The base case NPV is then adjusted for the present value of the costs and benefits of the actual
type of finance used, including the present value of the tax shield on interest paid.
The discount rate will be the all equity discount rate using the Ba for the project: 2 + 0.59 (9 – 2)
= 6.13%
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the sixth part were reasonable. Many candidates were able to identify APV and
describe the process. However, few candidates calculated the appropriate discount rate.
48 Lake Ltd
Examiner’s comments
This was a three-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was a company that has recently started
exporting to the US, and a member of staff is asked to give advice to the board on hedging FOREX,
and other risks associated with overseas trading activities.
The first part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated by
weaker candidates included: calculating the number of futures contracts using the spot rate rather
than the futures price; stating that currency futures should be initially sold rather than bought;
calculating the futures gain in £ rather than $; choosing put options rather than call options; treating
an over the counter option like a traded option; calculating the option premium in US$ rather than £;
omitting interest on the option premium
The forward contract, money market hedge and futures contracts all lock Lake into an
exchange rate. The options protect Heaton against the downside risk of the £ strengthening
against the $, and allow for the upside potential of the $ strengthening against the £.
However, the option premium is expensive.
In addition to the above some specific advantages and disadvantages include:
Forwards:
Tailored specifically for Lake.
However there is no secondary market should the customers not pay Lake.
Money market hedge:
The money market hedge is the same as a forward contract. However it is more difficult to
arrange and might use up Lake’s credit lines, on the other hand it does allow Lake to decrease
its overdraft immediately.
Currency futures:
Not tailored so one has to round the number of contracts.
Examiner’s comments
There were average answers to the second part from a lot of candidates, some without any reference
to the numbers calculated in the first part. Many candidates did not give a firm conclusion, but there
were some excellent answers.
48.3 Risks that students might identify and explain are (two only):
• physical risk – the risk of goods being lost or stolen in transit, or the documents
accompanying the goods being lost.
• credit risk – the possibility of payment default by the customer.
• trade risk – the risk of the customer refusing to accept the goods on delivery, or cancellation
of the order in transit.
• liquidity risk – the inability to finance the credit given to customers.
• other risks that would be given marks include political risk and cultural risk.
These risks may be mitigated with the help of banks, insurance companies, credit reference
agencies and government agencies such as the UK’s Export Credits Guarantee Department.
Other ways to reduce these risks include risk transfer. Lake might be able to agree a contract
obligating the courier to pay for losses in excess of its statutory liability.
Examiner’s comments
Responses to the third part were mixed, with many candidates demonstrating a lack of knowledge of
overseas trading risks. Even though the requirement stated that the risks identified should be other
than FOREX, a number of candidates quoted this as one of their two risks.
49.1
(a)
Value per
Total value share
£’000 £
P/E ratio £6,391,000 × 8.5 = 54,324 /3,500 15.52
Lower marketability
(25% discount, say) 11.64
Dividend yield £1,750,000/5% = 35,000 /3,500 10.00
Lower marketability
(25% discount, say) 7.50
Enterprise value £’000
(b) Asset valuations are the lowest. They are historic figures and balance sheet-based, with no
intangibles. Merikan is buying Coastal to run it, not to break it up.
P/E and enterprise value are the most relevant as they are forward-looking and based on
profits/earnings.
Using the dividend yield is acceptable, but it is a 100% purchase and the yield calculation
is only relevant for minority interests. Also, this method ignores growth. So a price range of
£12 to £16 per share looks reasonable.
49.2
(a)
Terminal
20X7 20X8 20X9 20Y0 value
£m £m £m £m £m
Sales 70.0 73.5 75.7 77.2 77.2
Operating margin 5.9 6.8 6.9 6.9
Tax (17%) (1.0) (1.2) (1.2) (1.2)
Depreciation 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5
Operating cash flows 6.4 7.2 7.3 7.3
Replacement non-current
assets (1.5) (1.5) (1.5) (1.5)
Examiner’s comments
This question was generally answered poorly and a very slim majority of candidates achieved a pass
standard. It was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of investment
decisions. In the scenario a UK-listed media group is planning to (1) purchase an unquoted
commercial radio company and (2) sell all of its shares in an unquoted newspaper company via a
Management Buy Out (MBO).
Many candidates did well in part (a) of the first requirement and some scored full marks. However,
overall this was not answered as well as expected. A considerable number of candidates were unable
to calculate the company’s net assets and/or earnings figures, which was very disappointing. The
enterprise value (EV) calculation was a recent addition to the syllabus. Overall this was answered
reasonably well, but many candidates did not attempt it at all. Part (b) of the first requirement was,
overall, done well, but to score high marks here candidates needed to consolidate valuation theory
with the figures that they had calculated.
For part (a) of the second requirement there was a wide range of answers. Some candidates did
really well here, whilst others produced very little. The figures themselves were not difficult, and a
methodical approach would have generated a good mark. There was evidence of time pressure, as
there were many incomplete answers. Part (b) of the second requirement was done well by most
candidates. A similar question to this was set recently, but many candidates did poorly because they
failed to concentrate their answers on the directors behind the MBO, rather than the company itself.
d £640
MV £10,800
Cost of preference shares (kp) = 5.93%
(£275 × 83%)
£6,000
Cost of irredeemable debt (kdi) = 3.80%
WACC
21,000 1.17%
Total market
value 86,600 9.91%
Examiner’s comments
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of financing options, with a
small ethics element. It was poorly done and had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. The
majority of candidates failed to reach a ‘pass’ standard. It was based around a UK-listed car
manufacturer that was considering investing in (1) a computerised manufacturing system and (2) the
development of driverless cars.
There were many very good answers to the first part, with candidates securing the full marks
available. The calculation of WACC has been examined frequently. However, in this exam candidates
were, not for the first time, given total figures, rather than unit figures, to work with. Many candidates,
when given the total nominal value and the nominal value per share or debenture, were incapable of
deducing the number of shares or debentures in issue. Also a significant number altered the share
and debt values to make them ex-div, despite the fact that the question stated that all dividends and
interest due for the year had already been paid.
The second part was a good test of candidates’ understanding of the market price and yield of
redeemable debt. Generally, it was answered very poorly. Many candidates commented that if the
redemption yield of the debt were to increase then so would the price of that debt, thus totally
misunderstanding the relationship between required return and value.
Candidates’ responses to the third part were also very disappointing. Too many candidates restricted
their answers to a discussion about the impact on the company’s gearing levels, without taking into
account the wider aspects of when to employ the current WACC figure. In the fifth part most
candidates scored well with the de-gearing and re-gearing calculations, but only a few were able to
work through to the end of the calculations.
The sixth part caught out the majority of candidates – they were unable to apply EMH theory to this
practical example. Responses that centred on the three forms of efficiency and/or behavioural
aspects scored poorly.
51.1
(a)
£5,200,000
1.6245
Put option 3,200,985
£5,200,000
= 52,000 ×
100 (39,000)
Cost £0.75 3,161,985
1.6385 + 0.0085 =
1.6470 3,157,256
£5,200,000
100 (18,200) 3,139,056
Fee = 52,000 × £0.35
(c)
£5,200,000
1.013
Borrow C$ £5,133,268
£5,133,268
1.013
Convert @ spot 3,132,907
3,132,907
Lend @ UK × 1.007 3,154,837
(d) Strengthening £
£5,200,000
1.6385 × 1.05
1.7204
= 1.7204 3,022,509
51.2
Calls Puts
Examiner’s comments
Most candidates demonstrated a reasonable understanding of this area of the syllabus and this
question had the highest average mark on the paper. It was a six-part question which tested the
candidates’ understanding of the risk management element of the syllabus.
The scenario was centred on a UK-based manufacturer of industrial pumps. The company was
considering hedging its exposure to (1) foreign exchange rate risk on a C$5.2 million receipt (three
months ahead) from a Canadian customer and (2) a fall in the value of a large quoted shareholding.
Foreign exchange risk is a regular topic in this examination, and the first part was generally answered
well. However, many candidates lost marks unnecessarily, eg, choosing a call rather than a put
option, failing to deal with fees correctly, or choosing the wrong interest rates for the MMH. Over half
of the candidates believed that strengthening sterling meant getting less foreign currency.
Generally the second part was answered adequately, but bearing in mind how frequently this is
examined, it was disappointing. Too few candidates went beyond only comparing the best outcome
at each rate. Answers here needed to demonstrate a deeper understanding of the issues involved.
Many candidates stated, wrongly, that interest rates indicated that sterling would weaken. Also too
few commented on the negative impact of a stronger pound on an exporter.
In the third part few candidates scored full marks. Those that did explained how a strengthening
pound when exporting and a weakening pound when importing would both be bad for the
company in question. The fourth part was generally answered well, but many candidates just listed
the advantages and disadvantages of currency futures and/or a forward contract, rather than
answering the question as set. The fifth part has been examined before, albeit rarely. A minority of
candidates answered it well and scored full marks, but most were unable to calculate the values
required. The sixth part was answered well and most candidates scored full marks.
52.1
(a) Units pa 30,000
0 1 2 3
Units 000’s
(×1.06) 30.00 31.80 33.71
Selling price £
(×1.03) 399.00 410.97 423.30
Contribution
per unit £ (see 159.6 164.39 169.32
0 1 2
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Contribution 4,788.00 5,227.60 5,707.78
Contribution lost (1,500.00) (1,637.70) (1,788.15)
Fixed overhead (500.00) (525.00) (551.25)
Taxable 0 2,788.00 3,064.90 3,368.38
Tax @ 17% 0 (473.96) (521.03) (572.62)
The Defender project has a positive NPV, which will increase shareholder wealth. The
project should therefore be accepted.
Working capital
£
Selling price 175
Materials and skilled labour (150)
Contribution 25
Contribution lost per unit of the defender (50)
Examiner’s comments
This was a five-part question, which tested candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus. The scenario of the question was that of a company launching a new product
onto the market, and also considering how often it should replace its fleet of delivery vans. Part (a) of
the first requirement was well answered by many candidates, but there were common errors:
incorrect calculation of contribution; timing errors for cash flows; incorrect calculations of the
contribution lost; incorrect calculations of the value of the rights at the end of the project and in
some cases ignoring it altogether; not explaining why the project should be accepted; not providing
workings so no marks could be awarded when the figure presented was incorrect. Responses to part
(b) of the first requirement were mixed, with many candidates not able to adequately explain the
disadvantages of sensitivity analysis. The question only asked for disadvantages, but many
candidates wasted time by stating advantages. The explanations of simulation as an alternative to
sensitivity analysis were poor. Responses to parts (c) and (d) of the first requirement were good.
However some candidates did not read the question and stated real options which did not apply at
the end of the project. Responses to the second question requirement were mixed.
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
53.3 Calculations (max 3 marks if no use made of historic information) 6
Discussion and advice 6
Marks Available 12
Maximum 12
53.4 Identification and explanation of APV 2
Calculation of discount rate 1
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
53.5 Identification of 50% payout ratio over time 2
Appropriate discussion 3
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
Total 35
53.1
(a) Growth can be estimated by ordinary dividend growth for the past four years, excluding
the special dividend as a one-off:
Growth = (25.2/19.80)(1/4) – 1 = 0.0621 or 6.21%
Shares in issue = 180m (90 × 2)
20X7 dividends per share = 14p (25.20/180)
Ex div share price = 278p (292 – 14)
Ke = (14(1.0621)/278) + 0.0621 = 0.1156 or 11.56%
Kd is calculated as the yield to maturity of the 7% debentures × (1 – t):
The ex-interest debenture price is £104 (111 – 7)
20X4 20X7
£m £m
EBIT 78.86 94.04
Interest 33.32 33.32
Interest cover 2.37 2.82
20X4 20X7
£m £m
EBIT 78.86 94.04
Interest 45.32 45.32
Interest cover 1.74 2.08
EPS (although not explicitly required, students may also calculate and comment on EPS)
Current:
20X4 37.8/180 = 21p
20X7 50.4/180 = 28p
Equity:
20X4 37.8/280 = 13.5p
20X7 50.4/280 = 18p
Debt:
20X4 (78.86 – 45.32)0.83/180 = 15.5p
20X7 (94.04 – 45.32)0.83/180 = 22.5p
The decision to raise the finance wholly by debt or equity will radically change Peel’s gearing
ratio and interest cover.
Note: Candidates are not required to calculate the payout ratio for all years, but a clear
identification of a 50% payout across the period given is required.
A listed company seeks to give ordinary shareholders a constant dividend with some growth.
This cannot be achieved by having a policy of maintaining a constant payout ratio, since
dividends rise and fall with profits. Peels current dividend policy is not usually considered
appropriate for a listed company and may lead to a fluctuating share price (this is known as the
signalling effect).
Examiner’s comments
This was a five-part question that tested understanding of financing options. The scenario of the
question was that of a company diversifying its operations and raising finance by either debt or
equity. Candidates were also asked to discuss the company’s dividend policy. Responses to the first
part were mixed. Many candidates did not consider whether their answers were reasonable, for
example using a cost of equity of 50% in their WACC computations. There were basic errors in many
calculations.
Maximum 4
(b) Calculations 2
Marks Available 2
Maximum 2
(c) Advantages – 1 mark per point 4
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
Total 30
54.1
(a) The forward rate is: $/£ 1.2526 (1.2492 + 0.0034)
This results in a sterling receipt of £6,386,716 ($8,000,000/$1.2526)
Over the counter option:
The option premium is $8,000,000 × 2p = £160,000.
The premium with interest lost is £160,000 × (1+0.03 × 4/12) = £161,600.
If the spot price on 31 March is $/£1.2700, Orion will exercise the options.
The sterling receipt will be ($8,000,000/$1.2400) – £161,600 = £6,290,013.
(b) The forward contract locks Jewel into an exchange rate and does not allow for upside
potential.
Forwards:
• Tailored specifically for Jewel.
• There is no secondary market.
OTC currency options:
• The options are expensive.
• There is no secondary market.
• However, the options allow Jewel to exploit upside potential and protect downside
risk.
Advice:
Without hedging, the sterling receipt would have been £6,299,213 ($8,000,000/$1.2700).
The currency option results in a sterling receipt of £6,290,013, which is marginally worse
than the spot rate on 31 March 20X8. However the forward contract results in a higher
sterling receipt of £6,386,716.
It is recommended that a forward contract is used to hedge any unanticipated fall in the
value of the dollar.
(c) Futures are possibly not appropriate, since they have the following disadvantages:
• Not tailored, so it is necessary to round the number of contracts
• Basis risk exists
• Require a margin to be deposited at the exchange
• A need for liquidity if margin calls are made
However, there is a secondary market and if the client decides not to invest it would be
possible to close out the position, which could result in a gain or loss on the futures trade
54.2
(a) The value of one contract = 7,195 × £10 = £71,950
March contracts will be sold.
The interest rates that can be achieved through the swap are:
Jewel Nevis
Fixed market rate 6.5% ——
Floating market rate —— LIBOR + 3.5%
Less the differential 0.5% 0.5%
Rates achieved through the swap 6.0% LIBOR + 3.0%
Cash flows would typically be: LIBOR from Nevis to Jewel and fixed of 2.0% from Jewel to
Nevis.
(b) Jewel is paying 4.36% (0.36 + 4) on its floating rate borrowings, and would be paying a
fixed rate of 6% through the swap. The initial difference in interest rates is 1.64% (6.00 –
4.36)
For the floating rate to equal the fixed rate of 6% achieved through the swap, LIBOR would
have to rise to 2% (1.64 + 0.36).
(c) The advantages to Jewel of an interest rate swap include the following:
• The arrangement costs are significantly less than terminating an existing loan and
taking out a new one.
• Interest rate savings are possible, either out of the counterparty or out of the loan
markets by using the principle of comparative advantage.
• They are available for longer periods than the short-term methods of hedging such as
FRAs, futures and options.
• They are flexible since they can be arranged for tailor-made amounts and periods.
They are also reversible.
• It is possible to obtain the type of interest rate, fixed or floating, that the company
wants.
• Swapping to a fixed interest rate assists in Jewel’s cash flow planning.
Examiner’s comments
This was an eight-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus.
55.1
(a) Cost of equity (ke)
£1.716m
£1.570m
Dividend growth rate = = 1.093 over 3 years, so 1.0931/3 – 1 = 3% pa
£1.716m
6.6m
Latest dividend (d0) = £0.26
Ex div market value per share = (£3.46 – £0.26) = £3.20
d1 £0.07
MV £1.34
Cost of preference shares (kp) 5.19%
Total MVs
Cost ×
£m £m weighting WACC
11.36% ×
Equity (6.6m × £3.20) 21.120 21.120/25.470 9.42%
5.19% ×
Pref. Shares (1m × £1.35) 1.350 1.35/25.470 0.28%
Irredeemable debt 4.70% ×
(£1.2m × 1.06) 1.272 1.272/25.470 0.23%
Redeemable debt (£1.8m 4.57% ×
× 0.96) 1.728 1.728/25.470 0.31%
4.350 0.82%
Total market value 25.470 10.24%
WACC
Total MVs
Cost ×
weightin
£m £m g WACC
12.90%
×
21.120/2
Equity (6.6m × £3.20) 21.120 5.470 10.70%
4.350 0.82%
Total market value 25.470 11.52%
55.2 Phil Turner – to use the cost of preference shares would be completely wrong, as it is only one
element of the firm’s total long-term finance and 7% is the coupon rate, not the current cost.
Alana Clarke and Alison Hughes – ordinary shares (cost of equity) should be taken into
account. It makes sense to use Wells’ current WACC figure for the investment appraisal if:
(1) the historical proportions of debt and equity will not change.
(2) the systematic business risk of the firm will not change.
(3) the new finance is not project-specific.
Regarding the above, the bank borrowing will not change the gearing as sufficient equity will
be raised to maintain the gearing at its current level. The systematic business risk of the firm is
likely to change as it is moving into a different market. The finance is not project-specific.
55.3 New market geared beta = 1.80
Examiner’s comments
This was a four-part question that tested candidates’ understanding of the financing options element
of the syllabus, and there was also a small section on ethics. In the scenario a UK-listed bakery
company was planning to open a number of retail outlets across the UK. This investment would cost
the company £17 million, which would be raised in such a way as to not alter its existing gearing
ratio. In the first part, for 16 marks, candidates were required to calculate the company’s current
WACC from the information given, based on (1) the dividend growth model and (2) the CAPM. The
majority of candidates did really well in part (a) of the first requirement and many scored full marks.
Typical errors made were (1) incorrect number of years used in the dividend growth calculation (2)
not adjusting the cum-div and cum-int market prices (3) forgetting the tax adjustment in the cost of
debt and (4) not using market values in the WACC calculation.
The second part was worth six marks and required candidates to respond to recent comments made
by three of the company’s directors about the best discount rate to use when appraising the £17
million investment. Overall, candidates’ answers to the second part were disappointing. The
comments made were rather general and so marks will have been lost. Too few scripts considered
the conditions that need to apply for the current WACC to be used, ie, gearing and systematic risk to
remain unchanged, and any new finance is not project-specific.
The third part, for 10 marks, tested the candidates’ understanding of (and the need for) de-gearing
and re-gearing beta within the CAPM calculation in the given scenario. It was good to see that the
numerical and discursive elements of the third part were both done well by a good number of
candidates. Where candidates scored badly, it was clear from their calculations that many did not
understand the logic of de-gearing and then re-gearing. Also many were unable to explain the
theory underpinning for those calculations. This is an area of the syllabus that has been examined
regularly recently. The fourth part was worth three marks, with particular reference to the issue of
confidentiality and it was answered well.
56.1
(a) Futures
Sell June futures
£4,500,00
£500,000
No of contracts: × 6/3 = 18
(b) Options
(c) If interest rates increase, then futures are less costly than options.
If rates fall, then options are lower cost.
56.2
(a) Sterling weakens by 5%
Spot rate = €1.1764 × 0.95 = €1.1176
€1,700,000/1.1176 (£1,521,144)
Forward contract
€
Spot rate 1.1764
plus: Forward contract discount 0.0059
1.1823
£
(£1,700,000)/1.1823 (1,437,875)
plus: Arrangement fee (4,600)
(£1,442,475)
(€1,700,000) (€1,700,00)
(1 + 8%/4) 1.02
Lend euros now (€1,666,667)
€1,666,667
1.1764
Convert at spot rate (£1,416,752)
Sterling borrowed at 6.6% pa (£1,416,752) × [1 + (6.6%/4)] (£1,440,128)
(b) In summary
The forward rate suggests that the euro will weaken (sterling will strengthen, rather than
weaken by 5%) over the next three months. This is good for UK importers such as Hunt, as
supplies would get cheaper.
Examiner’s comments
This question was based on a UK manufacturer of timber products. The first half of the scenario
considered the company’s need to borrow £4.5 million of short-term finance via a bank loan and its
plan to hedge the interest costs of that loan. In the second half of the question the company had
agreed to purchase €1.7 million of timber from a Finnish supplier. Candidates had to investigate the
foreign exchange risk implications of this contract for the company. In part (a) of the first requirement
of the question, for eight marks, candidates were required to calculate the cost to the company if it
used traded sterling interest rate futures to hedge its interest rate risk. Part (b) of the first
requirement, for three marks, required candidates to calculate the cost to the company if it used OTC
interest rate options to hedge the risk. Part (c) of the first requirement was worth two marks and
asked candidates to conclude, based on their calculations, which of the hedging methods should be
chosen. For the first requirement there were many very good answers with candidates demonstrating
a thorough understanding of the techniques involved. Those areas where candidates struggled
were: (1) a failure to identify that the company would sell interest rate futures (2) charging 12 months
interest rather than six (3) using six months, rather than three months, in the futures gain/loss
calculation and (4) a failure to calculate the option premium correctly (a very common error).
Part (a) of the second requirement, for seven marks, asked candidates to calculate the (sterling
equivalent) payment to the Finnish supplier if (1) there was a weakening of sterling and (2) two
hedging techniques were employed. In part (b) of the second requirement, also for seven marks,
candidates were required to advise the company’s board whether it should hedge the euro payment.
Finally, part (c) of the second requirement, for three marks, asked candidates to identify the
differences between traded currency options and OTC currency options. The second part was,
overall, done well. The calculations in part (a) were good, but typical errors included (1) choosing the
wrong exchange rate (2) strengthening rather than (as required) weakening sterling and (3)
subtracting the forward contract fee from the overall cost of the transaction. Foreign exchange risk
management is an area of the syllabus that is examined regularly and so candidates’ answers to the
discussion in part (b) were disappointing. There was a lack of depth to the candidates’ conclusions
and too many commented, erroneously, that a forward contract discount meant that sterling would
be weakening.
57.1
The development produces a positive NPV and so should be accepted as it will enhance
shareholder wealth.
WORKINGS
(1)
Rental income (Y2) = 175 × £5,940 = £1,039,500
Bad debts (Y2) = 1.5% × £1,039,500 = £15,592
Extra costs (Y2) = 3% × £1,039,500 = £31,185
Rental income (Y3) = × £5,940 = £2,079,000
Bad debts (Y3) = 1.5% × £2,079,000 = £31,185
Extra costs (Y3) = 3% × £2,079,000 = £62,370
(2)
(3)
(4)
57.2
Y1 Y2 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000
Sales 25,500 25,500
Tax (4,335) (4,335)
Total cash flows 21,165 21,165
6% factors 0.943 0.890
PV 19,967 18,837 38,804
1,436
38,804
Sensitivity = 3.7%
Minimum selling price = (£340,000 – 3.7%) £327,420
57.3
Y0 Y1 Y2 Total
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Incremental construction costs (35,000) 19,000 19,000
Tax on costs (£8.55m × 3/57 × 17%) (77) (76)
Total cash flows (35,000) 18,923 18,924
6% factors 1.000 0.943 0.890
PV (35,000) 17,844 16,842 (314)
The NPV would decrease by £314,000, and so it is less likely that Bishop’s board would
proceed with the development.
57.4 Sensitivity analysis advantages:
• It facilitates subjective judgment (by management for example).
• It identifies areas critical to the success of a project, eg, sales volume, materials price.
• It is relatively straightforward.
Sensitivity analysis disadvantages:
• It assumes that changes to variables can be made independently.
• It ignores probability.
• It does not point to a correct decision.
Examiner’s comments
The scenario was based around a UK property company that builds low-cost houses for sale and for
rent. The company had the opportunity to invest in a new development of 500 identical low-energy
houses on one of its vacant sites. The company planned to use a house-building firm to construct the
houses over a two year period. The first part was worth 18 marks and required candidates to make
use of the information given and calculate the NPV of the proposed investment. It was a difficult NPV
calculation and so it was good to see that, overall, candidates did well here. The main areas of
difficulty were: (1) the tax calculation for the allowable building costs (2) the timing of the cash flows
and (3) the need to include cash flows (and then discount them) for Years 4 to 20. The second and
third parts, for four marks and five marks respectively, tested candidates’ proficiency with, and
understanding, of sensitivity analysis. The second part was also done well, but some candidates used
the price per house figure rather than the total sales figure and so will have lost marks. The third part
was a more difficult proposition and candidates’ answers here were very variable. Those who
produced a set of calculations revised from the first part scored well, but too many produced a
discussion rather than calculations. The fourth part was worth four marks and here candidates were
asked to compare the strengths and weaknesses of sensitivity analysis with those of simulation. The
fourth part was, overall, done well and a majority of candidates scored full marks. In the fifth part,
again for four marks, candidates had to explain the concept of real options and to identify two real
options that could apply to the development in question. In the fifth part most candidates were able
to identify examples of real options from the scenario, but too few explained the more general issue
of real options, ie, that of turning a negative NPV into a positive one.
58.1
(a) Enterprise value
EBITDA = £10,000 (3,500 + 6,000 + 500)
Enterprise value = £65,000 (10,000 × 6.5)
Net debt = £34,000 (41,000 – 7,000)
Examiner’s comments
The scenario of the question was consideration of two tasks for a firm of corporate financiers:
Task 1 – The valuation of a company that is considering an IPO.
Task 2 – A quoted conglomerate is considering divesting itself of one of its subsidiaries.
The first part was well answered by many candidates, however the following were common errors:
for enterprise value: incorrect EBITDA; no deduction of debt and addition of cash to arrive at the
value of the shares; using the incorrect multiple; calculating a negative share price and making no
59 Blackstar plc
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
59.1
(a) The number of new shares to be issued = 40 million (60 × 2/3)
The price per share = £3.75 (150/40)
This represents a discount on the current share price of 50% or £3.75. (3.75/7.50)
The theoretical ex rights price is:
Examiner’s comments
The scenario of the question involves giving advice to a listed client on two issues:
Issue 1 - Whether to raise additional funding by debt or equity.
Issue 2 - A review of dividend policy and also an ethical situation.
Responses to part (a) of the first requirement were quite good with many candidates scoring full
marks. Weaker candidates made some of the following mistakes: confusing a 2 for 3 rights issue for a
3 for 2 rights issue; not calculating the discount the rights issues represented on the current share
price; inadequate discussions on whether the actual share price is likely to be equal to the theoretical
ex-rights price.
Generally responses to part (b) of the first requirement were disappointing, but there were some
excellent responses. Poorer candidates made some of the following mistakes: using the new debt
issues terms to calculate the YTM rather than Blue’s; using the cum interest debenture price in YTM
computations; deducting tax from the YTM when calculating the issue price for the new debenture
issue; when interpolating arriving at two negative NPVs by discounting at 5% and 10%, then arriving
at a YTM of more than 5%; incorrect calculations when calculating the nominal value of the new
issue.
Responses to part (c) of first requirement were extremely disappointing despite almost identical
questions being asked in recent papers. The question gave industry gearing and interest cover
figures so that the candidates could perform analysis looking at the gearing and interest cover
should the company decide to borrow. It was very disappointing that a large number of candidates
did not use this information or calculated gearing in a different way to that specified. In addition
many candidates did not consider the likely reaction of the shareholders and markets to the finance
being raised by either debt or equity. Finally, a large number of candidates wasted time explaining
the theories of M & M, when theory was not asked for in the question.
Responses to part (a) of the second requirement were mixed, with a surprising number of candidates
not knowing what a special dividend is. Also the explanations of a share repurchase were poor.
Responses to part (b) of the second requirement were mixed, with many candidates not able to
demonstrate a good understanding of dividend policy. Many candidates did not identify that the
policy of maintaining a constant payout ratio means that dividends will rise and fall with profits.
Comments on the views of the two directors were often confused and hard to follow. However, again,
there were some excellent responses. The third part was well answered, but a large number of
candidates did not recognise that there was a conflict of interest for Mitchells.
60 Tarbena plc
Examiner’s comments
The scenario of the questions is that of a board wanting some clarification on forex issues. The first
part was well answered by most candidates. However some of the errors demonstrated by weaker
candidates included: using the incorrect spot rate; deducting the forward discount; incorrect
computation for the number of futures contracts; making the incorrect decision of whether to sell or
buy futures; assuming that the futures loss was in £; choosing the put option and not the call option;
Explain SVA 1
Advantage of SVA 1
Explain seven drivers of SVA 2
Disadvantage of predicting 1
Disadvantage of terminal value on SVA 1
Adjust SVA with short terms investments and debt 1
Marks Available 7
Maximum 5
Total 35
61.1
Y1 Y2 Y3
Year to 31/8/X9 31/8/Y0 31/8/Y1
£’000 £’000 £’000
Sales (W1) 6,375 4,411 2,653
VCs (30%) (1,913) (1,323) (796)
FCs (W2) (1,122) (1,144) (1,167)
Close down costs (W3) (637)
Tax (W4) (568) (330) (9)
P&M sale 1,500
P&M tax saving (W5) 101 83 122
Working capital 200 300 1,300
Net cash flows 3,073 1,997 2,966
11% factors 0.901 0.812 0.731
PV 2,769 1,622 2,168
Economic value 6,559
WORKINGS
(1)
Y1 Y2 Y3
£’000 £’000 £’000 £’000
Sales (£7m × 0.7) 4,900 (£5m × 0.6) 3,000 2,500
(£4.5m × 0.3) 1,350 (£4m × 0.4) 1,600 × (1.02)3
6,250 4,600 × 0.7 3,220 2,653
×1.02 (£4m × 0.4) 1,600
6,375 (£3m × 0.6) 1,800
3,400 × 0.3 1,020
4,240
(2)
£’000
Annual fixed cost cash flows = (£1.7m – £0.6m) £1.1m × 1.02 1,122 (Y1)
Depreciation excluded as not a cash flow £1.1m × (1.02)2 1,144 (Y2)
£1.1m × (1.02)3 1,167 (Y3)
(3)
Close down costs = £0.6m × (1.02)3
= £637,000
(4)
Y1 Y2 Y3
£’000 £’000 £’000
Sales 6,375 4,411 2,653
VCs (1,913) (1,323) (796)
FCs (1,122) (1,144) (1,167)
Close down costs (637)
Taxable profit 3,340 1,944 53
Tax payable @ 17% 568 330 9
(5)
Y1 Y2 Y3
£’000 £’000 £’000
WDV b/f 3,300 2,706 2,219
WDA @ 18%/Balancing Allowance (BA) (594) (487) (719)
WDV/sale 2,706 2,219 1,500
Tax saving (WDA/BA × 17%) 101 83 122
Examiner’s comments
This question had the highest percentage mark on the paper. The vast majority of candidates
achieved a ‘pass’ standard in this question.
This was a five-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based on a UK manufacturer of computer hardware. The company’s board has
decided to close down one of its subsidiary companies in three years’ time. This is due to the latter’s
recent poor performance. The board has learned that the subsidiary’s senior management would like
to investigate the possibility of a management buy-out (MBO). The board has decided that the
subsidiary’s buy-out price would be its current economic value, based on predicted trading results
for the next three years. The first part was worth 18 marks and required candidates to make use of
the information given and calculate the subsidiary’s economic value, based on discounted future
cash flows. The second part, for four marks, candidates were asked to re-work their figures from the
61.2
£’000
Scrap value = £1 million, therefore loss of cash = £1.5m – £1.0m 500
Tax rebate (balancing allowance) × 83%
Discounted to Y0 × 0.731
Economic value decreases by 303
New economic value = £6,559 – £303 6,256
61.3 An ICAEW member is being asked to falsify the economic value of Snowdog and thus mislead
potential buyers, ie, Snowdog’s directors. To do so would break the principles of the ICAEW
Ethical Guide which states, inter alia:
• A member should behave with integrity – ie, be honest and truthful. The member’s advice
and work should not be influenced by the interests of other parties, which would be the
case here were s/he to overvalue Snowdog.
• A member should strive for objectivity in all professional and business judgements – ie,
there should be no bias, conflict of interest or undue influence of others. The member has a
conflict of interest here. S/he is being asked to act with bias in favour of one party (Rumsey’s
directors) over another (Snowdog’s directors).
62.1
(a) ke Dividend growth (g = br)
WACC
(b)
62.2 Gordon’s Growth Model (GGM) is also known as Earnings Retention Model. Dividend growth
based on proportion of dividends that are retained and the rate of return on those retained
profits. Thus g = rb. The GGM is based on the premise that these profits are the only source of
Examiner’s comments
This question had the second highest percentage mark on the paper. A large majority of candidates
reached a ‘pass’ standard in the question.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates’ understanding of the financing options
element of the syllabus.
The question was centred on an online retailer of baby products which is based in the UK. The
company’s market share has been falling and its board is investigating the possibility of establishing
a small chain of shops across the UK, at a cost of £10 million. This expansion could be funded by a
bank loan, thereby taking advantage of current low interest rates. An alternative view within the
board is that the company should invest in a completely different type of business, in this case a
chain of care homes. In the first part, for 20 marks, candidates were required to calculate the
company’s current WACC figure, based on (a) Gordon’s Growth Model and (b) the CAPM. The
second part, for five marks, required candidates to compare and contrast the two valuation methods
above. In the third part (six marks) candidates were asked to advise the company’s board whether the
existing WACC figure (from the first part) should be used in when appraising the proposed
investment in shops. The candidates’ understanding of the APV technique was also tested here.
Finally, for four marks, candidates were required to explain the portfolio effect and discuss the
validity of the proposal to invest in a completely different type of business.
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
63.3 Interest rate parity:
State and explain interest rate parity 2
Average UK and US three-month rates 1
Average spot rate 1
Calculation of forward rate/average premium 1
Marks Available 5
Maximum 5
63.4 Economic risk:
96% UK sales so little exposure 1
Increase in economic risk as US sales increase 1
Weaker $ would be bad for Eddyson 1
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 30
63.1 No hedge
£1,722,846 £1,637,011
Option
Buying £s, so a November call option
Examiner’s comments
This question had the lowest average mark on the paper, but most candidates achieved a ‘pass’
standard.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus.
The scenario here involved a UK manufacturer of home and garden appliances. The company has
recently received a large order from an American customer. Its board is considering whether or not
to hedge the foreign exchange rate risk. The first part of the question, for 16 marks, required
candidates to calculate the net sterling receipt for each of four possible strategies. These were (a) no
hedge, (b) a forward contract, (c) a money market hedge and (d) sterling traded currency options.
The second part was worth six marks and required candidates to advise the company’s board, based
on their previous calculations. In the third part (five marks) candidates needed to demonstrate their
understanding of interest rate parity. The fourth part was worth three marks. Here, candidates were
asked to explain whether, taking into account the information provided, additional sales to the US
might expose the company to economic risk.
For most elements of the first part candidates scored well. Forward contracts (FC) and money market
hedges (MMH) are examined regularly and most candidates accrued full marks here. Candidates
need to make the best use of the spreadsheet provided in the examination. In a number of instances
candidates reduced their exchange rates to two decimal places, thus losing marks unnecessarily.
One common error amongst candidates was to add, rather than subtract, the forward contract fee. It
was disappointing to see that some candidates used the two future spot rates given to calculate
alternative sterling receipts for the FC and then also for the MMH. Both of these hedging techniques
produce one, fixed sterling figure each. As expected, candidates found the currency options element
of the question more difficult. Whilst many of them scored well, common errors noted were:
63.2
So with spot rate at 1.3350 (weakening £ and strengthening $) the best outcome for Eddyson
is not to hedge the dollar receipt.
With the spot rate at 1.4050 (strengthening £ and weakening $) the best outcome is to hedge
the dollar receipt via a money market hedge. The FC and the MMH both give a fixed sterling
receipt – the MMH produces a slightly higher figure. The FC and MMH are safest techniques to
use for a risk-averse board.
The £/$ interest rates and the forward contract premium indicate that the market is expecting
the dollar to strengthen (sterling to weaken). This would be good for Eddyson, an exporter, as
sterling receipts would be higher. The board’s attitude to risk will be important here.
63.3 Average spot rate × (1 + Average dollar interest rate (3 mos.))/(1 + Average sterling interest
rate (3 mos.)) = Average forward rate
The dollar interest rates are lower than those of sterling. Using the interest rate parity (IRP)
equation above (which shows that differences in interest rates cannot be exploited as forward
rate will adjust to offset any gains), the value of sterling against the dollar will fall. The dollar’s
gain in value is called a premium. So, using the data in the question:
• Average UK rate 5.10% pa or 1.01275% per three months.
• Average US rate 3.6% pa or 1.009% per three months.
• Average spot rate = 1.3715
• Forward rate = 1.3715 × 1.009/1.01275 = 1.3664 ie, a premium of $0.0051/£
• Average premium given = $0.0052/£ so IRP is working
63.4 Currently very little economic risk as the majority of Eddyson’s sales are in the UK (96%).
However, if more sales are to the US then economic risk would increase – $ sales and €
purchases.
A weakening $ and a strengthening € would both be bad for Eddyson.
Applying judgement
Clearly, when advising the board whether it should accept the proposal, you are going to
need to display sound logic that your recommendation follows on from the outcome of your
NPV calculation.
In requirement two you can use your judgement to criticise simulation and sensitivity analysis.
In requirement three you asked to identify one real option that could apply to the proposal,
make sure that you select an appropriate real option that is relevant to the information given
in the scenario (so not an option to abandon or delay).
64.1
(a)
Alternative presentation for Decision (b) with changes from original NPV:
Decision (b) – do not invest. NPV is still negative. Shareholder wealth would decline.
WORKINGS
(1) Tax saved via CA’s
Examiner’s comments
This question had the highest percentage mark on the paper. The vast majority of candidates
achieved a “pass” standard in this question.
This was a four-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus.
The scenario was based around a UK engineering company, which provides a powder-coating
service for UK customers in the consumer goods sector. This company was considering diversifying
its operations via a three-year contract with DCL, a UK car manufacturer. An alternative plan was to
expand its existing market into India and China. Candidates were cast as an employee in the
company’s finance team and were given relevant data. In the first part, for 22 marks, candidates were
required to prepare NPV calculations for the DCL proposal. This would enable them to advise the
company’s board whether it was worth proceeding with the contract. In the second part, for five
marks, candidates had to compare the strengths and weaknesses of sensitivity analysis and
simulation as methods of assessing the risk of the DCL proposal. In the third part, for three marks,
candidates were asked to explain real options and to identify a real option that could apply to the
DCL scenario. The final part, for five marks, asked candidates to outline the potential risks that the
company could face were it to expand its existing operations into China and India.
Most candidates scored well on the NPV calculation. Errors made by weaker candidates included
inflating sales figures already given in money terms and inflating costs a year too early/late. In
addition, many candidates included interest costs when they were covered by the WACC and
included depreciation which isn’t a cashflow. Regarding the tax charge, a common error made was
the taxing of capital and working capital flows. Some candidates started WDAs a year too late. The
working capital calculation was difficult, and many candidates inflated the working capital increments
rather than the balances. Finally, some candidates inflated the discount rate, which was already given
in money terms.
In part two, reasonable marks were earned by most candidates, as expected. Weaker candidates
were too brief and often excluded comments on probability.
In part three, it was observed that candidates continue to be poor at defining what is meant by ‘real
options’ despite the number of times this has been examined in recent exams. There was a clear
requirement for the identification of one option that could apply in the scenario. Weaker candidates
gave two or more or picked an inappropriate one such as abandonment or delay.
The final part was generally well done.
Applying judgement
In the exam you need to be able identify assumptions or faults in arguments and exercise
ethical judgment. These skills are important when answering the final two requirements of this
question. When addressing the sales director’s views on the company’s share price you
should make reference to the efficient market hypothesis and behavioural finance to support
your answer. In the final requirement you should use the ICAEW ethical framework to help you
to identify the legal and ethical issues arising from the scenario.
In requirement three you are asked to discuss the implications for Jackett’s shareholders from
choosing either debt or equity finance to fund the expansion. From the information provided
in the question it may not be initially obvious which source of finance is preferable. Look for
information in the scenario on areas such as shareholder reaction, issue costs, servicing costs
and impact on control. When discussing the implications for Jackett’s shareholders, it is also
important that you make reference to your calculations performed in the first two
requirements.
WORKINGS
(1) Interest
W1 Rights Debt
£’000 £’000
Current interest cost 805 805
Extra interest cost (£7m × 5%) 0 350
(2) Dividend
Rights Debt
W2 £’000 £’000
Current dividend (16m × £0.15) 2,400 2,400
Extra dividend ([16m/4] × £0.15) 600 0
Total dividend 3,000 2,400
65.2
Rights Debt
£’000 £’000
Earnings per share £9,699/20,000 £0.485
£9,408/16,000 £0.588
Current debt 11,500 11,500
Extra debt 0 7,000
New total debt 11,500 18,500
65.3
Reasons for differences between the theoretical and the actual ex-rights market price:
• The project NPV is not included in the ex-rights price
• Information released by Jackett regarding the use of funds raised
• Additional information re Jackett or the market
• Market expectations regarding the expansion
• Level of take up of rights issue
• General market conditions
• Events (macro) – eg, interest rates
• Events (micro) – eg, new managers at the company
• Events (industry) – eg, takeovers
• A rights issue might give a negative signal and a lowering of the market value
• Level of market efficiency
65.5 Michael Ayres is, wrongly, proposing a Chartist approach to share prices. He is assuming that
the market is not efficient at all and that prices follow pre-set patterns.
The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) posits that there are no patterns to share prices. Markets
have no memory. Past prices have no influence on future prices. Efficiency means that shares
cannot be bought cheaply and then sold quickly at a profit. Share prices are “fair” and
investment returns are those expected for the risks undertaken. When share prices, at all times,
rationally reflect all available information, the market in which they are traded is said to be
efficient. In efficient markets investors cannot make consistently above-average returns other
than by chance.
There are three levels of market efficiency: weak form, semi strong form and strong form.
Behavioural finance is an alternative view to the EMH. This considers investors’ irrational
tendencies, leading to a weakening of market efficiency.
65.6 Legal – this is insider trading so is illegal.
Ethics - you are an ICAEW Chartered Accountant. The ICAEW’s ethical guidance includes:
• A member should behave with integrity – ie, be honest and truthful. The member’s advice
and work should not be influenced by the interests of other parties.
• A member should strive for objectivity in all professional and business judgements – ie,
there should be no bias, conflict of interest or undue influence of others.
• A member should behave professionally – ie, avoid any action that discredits the
profession.
Ann Baker’s request would be counter to all three of these elements of the ethical guidance.
Examiner’s comments
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. A considerable proportion of
candidates scored less than a pass mark (55%) in this question.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus and there was also a small section with an ethics element to it.
In the scenario, the candidate (an ICAEW Chartered Accountant) was employed in the finance team
of Jackett, a UK-listed travel agency and tour operator. Currently, Jackett arranges flights and
package holidays in Europe and North America. The company’s board was keen to explore the
implications of expanding its operations into South East Asia and Australia. This would cost an initial
£7 million, to be raised via a rights issue or a debenture issue. Jackett’s board had commissioned a
market research report. Candidates were given the key financial implications noted in the report.
Applying judgement
Market rates change regularly, therefore the outcome predicted from a hedging strategy is
simply an estimate at a point in time and will change as underlying variables such as currency
and interest rates change. It is worth making this point when advising the board which
hedging strategy to use. Demonstrating the application of professional scepticism and critical
thinking by showing awareness of the drawbacks of the hedging techniques used will add
value to your answer.
66.1
(a) Forward contract (FC)
AP 22,400,000
46.98
46.85 + 0.13 = 46.98 £476,799
AP 22,400,000
AP 1,000,000
Fee = 22.4 × £260 (£5,824)
£470,975
AP 22,068,966
46.85
Convert @ spot = £471,056
Option
Selling AP’s, so a November put option
AP 22,400,000
46.05
Use option £486,428
AP 22,400,000
AP 1,000,000
Premium = 22.4 × £740 (£16,576)
£469,852
Futures position
Sell at 7,115
Buy at (7,055)
Change 60
×
No of contracts 117
×
£10
Gain on future 70,200
Net decrease in portfolio value (£17,633)
(a) (b)
LIBOR 3.5% 5.5%
plus 1.5% 1.5%
Total cost 5.0% 7.0%
Examiner’s comments
This question had the second highest percentage mark on the paper. The majority of candidates
achieved a “pass” standard in this question.
This was a five-part question which tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus.
In the scenario, the company (Barratt) is a UK-listed manufacturer of pharmaceuticals. Candidates,
again, were employed in the finance team and were asked to work through three tasks and advise
senior management accordingly. Part one considered the first task – foreign exchange hedging for a
large export contract. Part one (a) was worth eight marks and asked candidates to calculate the
sterling receipt for the export contract using three different hedging techniques. In part one (b), for
six marks, candidates were required to advise the board whether it should hedge against exchange
rate movements for the contract in question. Part one (c) asked candidates to compare forward
contracts and futures as hedging techniques. The second part was worth eight marks and considered
the second task – using FTSE100 index futures to hedge the value of Barratt’s investment in a
portfolio of UK shares. The third part, for five marks, considered the final task – the implications of
taking out an interest rate option. Barratt was borrowing a large amount from its bank at a variable
rate. Candidates had to prepare calculations of the costs of hedging the interest charges and advise
the board.
In part (a) of the first part most candidates scored well. Common errors were: adding, rather than
deducting, fees and premiums; using the wrong interest rates in an MMH; and, using a call rather
than a put.
In part (b) of the first part there were some very good answers, but many candidates asserted doing
nothing as using the current spot rate produced the highest income, despite the money not being
received for three months. The discussion section for weaker candidates was often very brief.
In part (c) of the first part most candidates produced satisfactory answers.
In the second part most candidates scored adequately on the index futures calculations. Common
errors were: using the wrong price to calculate the number of contracts; not specifying the need to
sell first; and, miscalculating the new portfolio value and the profit on the futures contracts. Most
candidates identified correctly why the hedge would be inefficient, but weaker candidates rolled the
two separate reasons into one.
In the final part there was much variation in the marks. This was due to many candidates not reading
the question carefully enough. It specified that the interest option had already been taken out,
whereas many candidates answered as if that decision was still to be made.
Conflict of interest 1
Explanation 2
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
Total 35
Applying judgement
In the fourth requirement you are asked to explain what is meant by real options and to
discuss one real option applicable to the project. Make sure that you select an appropriate
real option that is relevant to the information given in the scenario (ie, not abandon or delay
options).
67.1
0 1 2 3
£000s £000s £000s £000s
Sales (W1) 9,576.00 10,849.61 12,292.61
Cost of sales (6,703.20) (7,594.73) (8,604.82)
Contribution 30% 2,872.80 3,254.88 3,687.78
The project is positive and should be accepted which will improve s/h wealth.
The research and development costs and centrally allocated costs are a sunk costs and should
not be included.
WORKINGS
(1) Sales
T1 3 × 266 × 12 = 9576
T2 9576 × 1.10 × 1.03 = 10849.61
T3 10849.61 × 1.1 × 1.03 = 12292.61
(2) Working capital
Increment
£000s £000s
T0 (1,900.00) (1,900.00)
T1 (2,152.70) (252.70)
T2 (2,439.01) (286.31)
T3 2,439.01
1 2 3
£000s £000s £000s
Contribution 2,872.80 3,254.88 3,687.78
Price 7,375.56
Tax (488.38) (553.33) (1,880.77)
2,384.42 2,701.55 9,182.57
PV factors at 10% 0.909 0.826 0.751
PV 2,167.44 2,231.48 6,896.11
Total PV 11,295.03
Sensitivity 4899.56/11295.0 43%
68 Wizard plc
Maximum 5
68.5 Gearing ratio and interest cover
Gearing ratio and interest cover without the project 1
Gearing ratio and interest cover without the project 2
Marks Available 3
Maximum 3
68.6 Reaction of shareholders
Discussion of gearing ratio 2
Discussion of interest cover 2
Reaction of shareholders 3
Marks Available 7
Maximum 6
68.7 Dividend policy
Constant pay-out ratio 1
Growth is important 3
Dividend irrelevancy and practical issues 3
Marks Available 7
Maximum 5
Total 35
Applying judgement
In the exam you need to be able to identify assumptions or faults in arguments and exercise
ethical judgment. For example, in task 1 the use of a high dividend growth rate (11.7%) should
have been criticised for relating to an unrepresentative time period.
£ £ £
3.48 (12.02)
Marks Available 2
Maximum 2
(b) Advise on accepting Bitcoins
Volatility 1
Hedging 1
Marks Available 2
Maximum 2
69.3 (a) LIBOR Hedge:
Total cost 1
Marks Available 1
Maximum 1
(b) Sell March futures 1
Number of contracts 1
Futures outcome 2
Interest cost 1
Total cost 1
Marks Available 6
Maximum 6
(c) Explanation
Basis risk 1
Number of contracts 1
Marks Available 2
Maximum 2
Total 30
(1) Adjustments to be made to account for the premium on the forward contract
(2) Selecting and time apportioning the correct interest rates for the MMH
(3) Selecting the correct type of option and making an appropriate exercise or abandon decision
You might find it helpful to highlight the relevant data on your screen when working through
each hedging strategy.
Applying judgement
In the exam you are expected to be able to use critical thinking. This is particularly important
in task 1 as you are asked to explain the advantages and disadvantages of each hedging
technique and advise the board as to which technique is most beneficial. It is important that
you avoid simply stating the advantages and disadvantages, to display this skill effectively you
must explain the relative advantages and disadvantages of each technique to Moon Sport
Ltd. You need to analyse both the financial and non-financial data provided in the scenario
when giving your advice. The calculations in the first requirement are obviously important,
however you should also consider other features of each of the three hedging strategies and
how they apply to the foreign currency payment due in four months’ time. It is important that
you provide a valid recommendation based on your calculations and discussion.
69.1
(a) The forward rate is: $/£ 1.3097 (1.3156 – 0.0059)
This is result in a sterling payment of: $1,550,000/$1.3097 = £1,183,477
Using the money markets, Moon will invest in $, buy $ at the spot rate and borrow in £.
Invest $1,550,000/(1 + 0.027 × 4/12) = $1,536,174
Buy $ spot $1,536,174/$1.3156 = £1,167,660
Borrow in £ to give total cost £1,167,660 × (1 + 0.041 × 4/12) = £1,183,618
Over the counter option. Using a call option to buy $:
Exercise price $1.3200. If spot is $1.3080 exercise the option.
The option premium is $1,550,000 × £0.03 = £46,500.
The premium with interest is £46,500 × (1 + 0.041 × 4/12) = £47,136
The sterling payment will be ($1,550,000/$1.3200) + £47,136 = £1,221,378
(b) The forward contract = £1,183,477
The money market hedge = £1,183,618
(c) The interest cost of the loan if LIBOR remains constant is £91,140. In both cases where
LIBOR increase or decreases the interest cost is more at £92,925 and £92,100 respectively.
The reason why the hedge is not perfect is twofold namely:
• The number of contracts – Because the contracts are a standard size it is not possible to
hedge a perfect amount and the number of contracts will have to be rounded.
• Basis risk – The price of futures will normally be different from the spot price on any
given date. This difference is called the basis. The effect of basis is to prevent hedges
from being 100% efficient.
Examiner’s comments
Responses to part one (a) of the question were mainly good but common errors were: for the
forward contract using the incorrect exchange rate and adding instead of deducting the forward
premium; for the money market hedge choosing the incorrect interest rates, incorrect
apportionment of the annual interest and using the incorrect spot rate; for the OTC option choosing
the put rather than the call, picking the call and using the put premium; not taking account of the
interest on the option premium, treating the OTC option as a traded option and incorrect exercise or
abandon decisions.
Some good responses to part one (b) but some of the errors that poorer candidates made include:
just stating advantages and disadvantages; not showing the result of not hedging; not considering
the direction of currencies shown by the forward premium; no recommendation.
Part two was mostly fine but some candidates used £ × £ (price × rate), which was clearly incorrect.
In part three (a) it was disappointing to see that some candidates could not calculate 18 month’s
interest on a loan.
Part three (b) was generally ok but common errors included: Incorrect number of contracts, often 2 or
3 instead of 15; buying initially instead of selling; can not calculate 0.5% and 0.2% of the futures gain
or loss; can not calculate the interest cost ie, taking the full 18 months into account.
Part three (c) was generally ok.
A$
Spot rate 1.8585
plus: Forward contract discount 0.0117
1.8702
£
£1,521,636
A$2.9m A$2.9m
A$2,852,92
1 + (6.6%/4) 1.0165
Borrow A$ now 7
A$2,852,927/1.8
Convert at spot rate 585 £1,535,070
Traded Option
Engavon will buy £ so it is a June call option
A$2.9m 1,557,465
No of contracts 1.8620 10,000 156 contracts
156 × $.0274 ×
Cost of option 10,000 $42,744
$42,744
1.8495 £23,111
70.2
Spot rate at
Current spot 1/4/20 A$2.9m £1,560,39
A weakening £ would favour Engavon – an exporter. The best outcome is the 3-month spot
rate, ie, do nothing (the other 3-month spot rate gives a sterling receipt that is 2.5% lower). The
traded option (weak £) gives the best hedged outcome.
The forward contract (A$ discount) suggests that sterling will strengthen.
MMH and FC give fixed amounts - what is the management’s attitude to risk? Staff time and
costs will be incurred if Engavon hedges.
Other general points on the three hedging methods.
70.3
Av A$ rate (3mos)
= Av discount given in
Av sterling rate (3mos)
Av spot rate x Av f’wd rate qn.
1.01475
1.00875
=
1.8540 x 1.8650 0.01095 OK
Theory: Interest rate parity (IRP) links currency & money markets.
Money market interest rates explain difference between forward and spot rates
No gain can be made on interest rates of different currencies
70.4 Economic risk: Engavon’s value = PV future of future cash flows. These may be adversely
impacted by forex movements.
Asia Pacific exports eg, in A$
EU imports and exports – either net receipt or payment in €
So, currencies (A$ & €) could both move adversely against sterling – A$ weakens and, (if a net
payment in euros). € strengthens.
Examiner’s comments
This question had the lowest percentage mark on the paper. However, the majority of candidates
scored a “pass” mark (55%) in this question.
This was a four-part question which tested the candidates’ understanding of the risk management
element of the syllabus.
In Part one most candidates scored well on the forward contract (FC) and MMH calculations. Errors
made by weaker candidates included the wrong rate for the FC, subtracting, not adding, the FC
Conclusion 1
Marks Available 5
Maximum 4
71.4 APV
Explanation of APV 3
Applicable to purchase decision 2
Marks Available 5
Maximum 4
71.5 Portoflio effect
Spread risk 1
Investors normally fully diversified 1
Application to unlisted company 2
Marks Available 4
Maximum 4
Total 35
71.1
(a) Cost of equity (ke)
Latest dividend (d0) £5.125m/20.5m = £0.25
£5.125m
£4.428m
Dividend growth rate = = 1.1574 over 5 years so 1.15741/5–1 = 3% pa
Ex div market value per share = (£4.20 – £0.25) £3.95
d £0.06
Cost of preference
MV £1.33
shares (kp) 4.51%
Cost of
(i−t) (£4 × 83%)
irredeemable debt
MV £102
(kdi) 3.25%
(b)
WACC
Total MV’s
17.585 0.64%
98.56 9.29%
71.2 DVM – shareholders benefit from owning a share by (i) receiving dividends into the future and
(ii) a capital gain on the value of the shares. The PV of these benefits creates the current price
of the shares. This share price is determined by expected future dividends discounted at the
investor’s required rate of return (ke)
CAPM – specific/unsystematic risk can be diversified away by investors, so it’s assumed that
investors are rational and that they have a diversified portfolio. Systematic risk can’t be
diversified away – macro-economic factors. A company’s beta is calculated from the
performance of its share price against the market average and is taken as a measure of the
market’s view of the risk attached to the security in question. The higher the perceived risk,
then the higher the beta figure and thus the higher the equity return required by investors.
Examiner’s comments
This question had the highest percentage mark on the paper. A considerable majority of candidates
scored a “pass” mark (55%) in this question.
This was a six-part question that tested the candidates’ understanding of the investment decisions
element of the syllabus.
In part one (a) many candidates scored full marks. Errors were most common with the calculation of
(i) the dividend growth rate, (ii) the IRR for the cost of redeemable debt, (iii) using the par value of
shares/debt rather than market value.
In part one (b) most CAPM calculations scored full marks.
Part two was done poorly. Too few candidates were able to explain how the two models calculate the
cost of equity.
There were some very good, well-argued answers to part three. Weaker scripts, typically, only looked
at one aspect of the Pentmarine purchase, ie, systematic risk, and ignored the vast change in gearing.
Most candidates scored well in part four. Others were vague about the “base case” and having to use
keu, some subtracted the tax shield and many ignored issue costs.
Part five was reasonably answered. Weaker scripts, typically, only dealt with the reduction in
unsystematic risk.
72.1
(a)
Total Cash
Flows 0.000 5,630,800 288,676 307,892
8% discount
factor 1.000 0.926 0.857 0.794
Total Cash
Flows 0.000 22,644 279,032 6,009,276
8% discount
factor 1.000 0.926 0.857 0.794
The NPV is higher with a closure date of 31/3/Y1 and so this should be chosen. This will
lead to a greater increase in shareholders’ wealth.
WORKINGS
(1) Variable and fixed costs
20Y2 20Y3
£’000 £’000
CLOSE 20Y1
Sales (£’000) 1,280 1,360
VCs 45% 45%
VCs (£’000) (576.000) (612.000)
VCs Inflated (£’000) (599.270) (649.459)
FCs (£’000) (320.000) (320.000)
FCs Inflated (£’000) (332.928) (339.587)
CLOSE 20Y3 1,220 1,250
Sales (£’000) 55% 55%
VCs (671.000) (687.500)
VCs (£’000) (698.108) (729.581)
VCs Inflated (£’000) (200.000) (200.000)
FCs (£’000) (208.080) (212.242)
Tax on BC 27.200
Tax due on
profit (@17%) 340.000 (59.126) (63.062)
Tax due on
profit (@17%) 0 (53.348) 313.110
(b) The NPV is higher with a closure date of 31/3/Y1 and so this should be chosen. This will
lead to a greater increase in shareholders’ wealth.
72.2
72.3 NPV analysis only considers cash flows related directly to a project. However, a project with a
negative NPV could be accepted for strategic reasons. This is because of (real) options
associated with a project that outweigh the negative NPV. In other words, there is extra value in
a project that needs to be considered and evaluated.
Greene’s board could decide to abandon its plans to rationalise. For example, Brexit might
affect dairy prices and it could then be worth keeping the regional factories open. Greene has
a put option to sell the regional factories at a price known today. If Brexit pushes prices up
then the company could abandon its plans. If prices go down it can sell after one year or three.
The sale of the factory may cause a problem – is there a signed contract with Sharpe?
If candidates mention a delay option (eg, option to close in two years rather than one), they
should note that beyond 20Y3 would cause a problem with Sharpe.
72.4 Sensitivity analysis
It facilitates subjective judgment (by management for example)
It identifies areas critical to the success of a project, eg, sales volume, materials price
It is relatively straightforward
But
It assumes that changes to variables can be made independently
It ignores probability
It does not point to a correct decision
Simulation
More than one variable at a time can be changed
It takes probabilities into account
But
It is not a technique for making a decision
It can be time consuming and expensive
Certain assumptions that need to be made could be unreliable
72.5 You are employed by Greene and are party to confidential information which, if made public,
could influence the market price of Greene’s shares.
An ICAEW Chartered Accountant should assume that all unpublished information about a
prospective, current or previous client’s or employer’s affairs, however gained, is confidential.
That information should then:
• Be kept confidential
• Not disclosed, even inadvertently such as in a social environment
• Not be used to gain personal advantage
In addition an ICAEW Chartered Accountant should:
Examiner’s comments
This question had the second highest percentage mark on the paper. A good majority of candidates
scored a “pass” mark (55%) in this question.
Candidates, as expected, found part one very testing and it was good discriminator. There were
some really good answers. Quite a few candidates scored 100%, which was very impressive.
Common errors made were: (i) incorporating both closure dates into one NPV, (ii) only doing one
year of cash flows for the 20Y1 closure, (iii) inflating fixed costs, but not variable costs, (iv) ignoring
redundancy costs, (v) not taxing sales income and/or redundancy costs, (vi) inflating “money” cash
flows and/or the discount rate, (vii) adding £500,000 to the £8.2 million factory price.
Part two was another good discriminator. Many candidates scored full marks here, but the weakest
scripts failed to answer this section at all.
Responses to part three were, overall, disappointing. This topic has been examined regularly
recently, but there were too many poor definitions of real options. Also many candidates chose an
inappropriate option by not focussing on the board’s plans, ie, closure.
Part four was done well and a majority of candidates scored full marks.
Part five was done well and a majority of candidates scored full marks.
[1− ]
1 1
AF1 -n = r (1 + r)n
Do(1 + g)
ke = Po
+g
D(1−T)
β =β
(1 + E )
Where βe
e a
r n
[1− ]
1 1
r (1 + r)n
1% 1 0.990 0.990
2 0.980 1.970
3 0.971 2.941
4 0.961 3.902
5 0.951 4.853
6 0.942 5.795
7 0.933 6.728
8 0.923 7.652
9 0.914 8.566
10 0.905 9.471
5% 1 0.952 0.952
2 0.907 1.859
3 0.864 2.723
4 0.823 3.546
5 0.784 4.329
6 0.746 5.076
7 0.711 5.786
8 0.677 6.463
9 0.645 7.108
10 0.614 7.722
2 0.826 1.736
3 0.751 2.487
4 0.683 3.170
5 0.621 3.791
6 0.564 4.355
7 0.513 4.868
8 0.467 5.335
9 0.424 5.759
r n
[1− ]
1 1
r (1 + r)n
10 0.386 6.145
2 0.756 1.626
3 0.658 2.283
4 0.572 2.855
5 0.497 3.352
6 0.432 3.784
7 0.376 4.160
8 0.327 4.487
9 0.284 4.772
10 0.247 5.019
2 0.694 1.528
3 0.579 2.106
4 0.482 2.589
5 0.402 2.991
6 0.335 3.326
7 0.279 3.605
8 0.233 3.837
9 0.194 4.031
10 0.162 4.192