RM.G4 CODED ___Comorate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES tine: 1rs.20min (for NEET-2023) Test -2 ‘ae, ft Re “Sea A ese, aah rater we pH aff, Siar aes cer ara ray, wat 8 aT Ge-B 15 wat ha eat saa Re mysae 3 ar eT oe‘afamt af +2) +6k Ta 21+2]+6k wr The vectors ai+2j+6k and 2+2j+6k are ‘equal vectors. The value of ais m2 23 @4 @e Can the resultant of two vectors be zero. (1) Yes, when two vectors are of same magnitude and along same directions (2) Yes, when two vectors are of same magnitude bbut opposite in sense (3) Yes, when two vectors are of same magnitude making sn are 2 win ech ote (4) No, never possible Consider following two statements. a, Component of a vector can have a magnitude greater than magnitude of the vector itself. . vector can be divided by anot The correct statement(s) isfare (1) (@) only (2) (b)only (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Netther (a) nor (b) For two vectors A: \A+al=lAl=lal, (1) 90° Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Fortnightly Tost.2 (RMG4_Code-0) 6 ag TA me eA er Hae, sega en as 0.2 aft get Ar ae eet ae I EA we aac Fare at eon 1 ea eT Regular Medical-2023 7. Ablock of mass 6 kg is kept on a rough horizontal | 7. ‘surface of coefficient of friction 0.2 as shown in the faure. The horizontal force F applied to the block The acceleration of the block has magnitude 1 N. is (= 10 ms") (g= 10 mis*) ekg |S F=1N 2 (1) 0.167 ms? (2) 1.83 ms? «) chemi Ce @) 2m? (4) Zero (9) 2s Oy ce fates Ree ge TC ae FE, 4 et re afte areas a eee, a For a man standing on a weighing machine in a moving elevator, the apparent weight would be more than true weight of the man if the elevator is 8 ‘fee (1) “aoe oh te ter ae et TB (1) Moving up and slowing down (2) Moving down and speeding up (a) trae sentir tr rag we al aang eee (3) Moving up and speeding up (4) Moving down with constant speed sag ate nite am (31+2]) mis (¢ = 0-7) TAT @. A particle has initial velocity | (at “=#°0)) f (iv2]) me and acceleration (/&]) mi Ty Bee sim velocity of the particle at f= 10 s will De (2) (137+2j) ms Js (2) (131+2]) mis (1) (137+22)) mis (4) (214133) mis (3) (7+10)) mis i +13)] a “ oon = ast 20 m Ft safer Sra ge a 10. A ee ee aa waft ie ah Prt iro Se oe 2) 10m (4) 40m (3) 5m 41. A particle moving along circular path with constant (2) 10/3 mis (4) ZeroFortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) 13. Equation of a projectie's trajectory X99 age of poten (nthe horizontal) is (1) 45° (3) 60" A particle starts from origin at ¢ = 0's with ‘of 10] mis and moves in x-y plane with constant ‘acceleration of (8i + 2j)m/s®. The y coordinate of the particle when x coordinate is 16 m, (1) 16m (2) 28m (3) 24m (4) 32m For a particle projected obliquely from the gro the graph between horizontal component of velocity and time is (1) Ellipse (2) Parabola (3) Hyperbola (4) Straight line . A force (4/+37)N acts on a particle fol (2) 90° (4) 30° particle will be (1) 20N-s (3) 10N-s The reading of spring balance as shown is [g = 10 mis?) Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Regular Medical-2023 19. The maximum speed with which a car can 2 21 22. . A man can swim with speed of 4 kr negotiate @ curve of radius 10 m on an unbanked horizontal road of coefficient of friction 1 is (g = 10 ms?) (1) 10. mis (2) 20 mis (3) 40 mis (4) Sms ‘Two block A and B each of mass 10 kg placed on smooth horizontal surface. If a horizontal force F = 100 N applied on block A as shown in the figure. Then normal reaction between the blocks will be F=10ON TE ae (1) 25N (2) 40N (3) 100N (4) SON The x and y coordinates of a particle varies as x = 2tand y= 4t + ® (where x and y are in mand t is ins). The acceleration of partide at t=2sis (1) 4 mis? @imsfe (3) 2mis? (4) Zero | uma For which of the following pairs les projections, the horizontal range wo (Consider speed of projection is same) (1) 37°, 57° (2) 41°, 49° (3) 56°, 38° (4) 45°, 60° is projected with a speed 10 mis at an | the horizontal, If the horizontal range 10 is (g = 10 mis?) (2) 60" Samsung Triple Camera ST TTaN LM NACL tLe) Fortnighity Test2 (RMG4_Code-b) Bar TC MO eT 4 ae a; raf Arar ergn ae 10 im Pear 35 ea a Reef saftraram carer a ore wx wart 82g = 10 mis?) (1) 10 mis (2) 20 mis (3) 40 mis (4) Smis 20, AAT RETA 10 kg & a eat A maT B a Pera fest eae Tea AT Rl aR a A oe Pera ala saga fet set F = 100 Ni saree fear aren &, ear zat reg safiterrat sfafaean eft (2) 40N (4) 50N (1) 25N (3) 100 N Ua aT a x ay STI x = 2teMT y = 4+ OH BTA anata aa 8 el xay, masa SH t= 25% ee a8 Be 3 aoa dear 8 wa S em IG ae, ae ree lg & aa atte igFortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) 26. Choose the correct statement about a particle undergoing uniform circular motion (1) Velocity remains constant (2) Speed remains constant (3) Acceleration remains constant (4) Acceleration is zero 27. A particle is projected with some angle from a planet. The motion of the particle is described by equation x= tand y= t= #2, Regular Medical-2o9 = ‘gta nit ae eo aH ae ae a fie] (1) ar rare tear (2) ser race (3) eae Fae cea ® (4) ere ve amr By we me Bf a a aR Pea Te am Ata at atta x = ¢3iity = t= e ara Prefer ‘fear ara ®t ea Now match the columns from following table, e a Frrafertias arcoft & ater ar Fras [A. [velocity otproecton [P| 4 ey = a } A | savor z B. | Time of fight a ge | a a 1 ot bi C. | Maximum height |. a | attained 2 | ©. | Acceleration of the] S. | yg = 2 {| particle (1) AQ, BP, CR, D-S (2) AS, BPIC-Q, DR S) AP.BS.C-O.DR (4) AS, 80, CR.DR || 28. Two monkeys of masses 10 kg and are moving along a vertical rope as ‘shown. former climbing up with an acceleration Of 2°mis? while ler coming down with uniform velocity of mis. The tension in the rope at fixed su (String is light and inextensibie) 10 kg 18.2 mis* 8kg 4 ms 4 (1) 196.4.N (2) 3124N (3) 232.4N (4) 134.5. 29. Ona body, a variable force F acts as shown in the following force-time graph. The change in ‘momentum of the body from t= 0's to t= 6 sis FIN) 10N 3 kg oUHTT & a} slat um Seater vet a ATA TRAP 81 TET aee 2 mis? eaUT a Se 10ko 19 t 2 mvs? 8kg hla ms (1) 196.4N @) 312.4N (3) 232.4N (4) 134.5N.Reo Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) 30. A monkey slides down a rope with breaking | 30. Ua at ua cet qc At ft afte Reereren &, forecast strength equal to half of the weight of the monkey. ‘ore eae mit wre area Bay ae Fat A minimum acceleration with The minimum acceleration with which the monkey an S 9 < (2) g (4) oF |. A plumb line is suspended from ceiling of a car which is accelerating horizontally with acceleration The angle of incination with the vertical is (1) tar"(4) (2) tan-(1/4) (3) tan-(1/2) (4) tan-(2) ; Le . Which of the following operations for any A and integer n? mA (2) 0A n (@) WA (4) 04+ . A body starts its motion. from rest. fr with an acceleration 3. mis? 4 mis? along y-axis. (1) 10m Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Regular meuwereves Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-) : Saal ae 35. To keep the block A of mass 5 kg in equilibrium, | 35. § kg Fe ae a aod ie the man pulls the rope by a force F as shown in fay, w anf aha the figure. The magnitude of force (F) is fea ht (F) RTT Fis (g= 10 mis?) (g= 10 mss?) Lyle G a) 9 O [Bag] ALB ka] (1) 25N (2) 50N (1) 25N @) SON (3) 100N (4) 15N (3) 100N (4) 15N SECTIONS BER F The driver of three-wheeler moving at speed of | 5, 40 mis sees a child standing in middle. of-a.road 3 10 and brings the vehicle to rest in 3 s@cond just in S x time to save child, What is average retarding force on vehicle? (Mass of three-wheeler and driver is 465 kg) XE (1) 1265N (2) 1550 N € N (2) 1550 N (3) 1765N (4) 1162.5N 4 765N (4) 1162.5N 37. For an object thrown at 30° with the horizontal, th WCbA ng eH ag & fey, afta Sarg maximum height (H) and horizontal rang cae (R) fare am aaa 22 related as (1) R=4H R=4\3H H @ RF 38. Among the following, the way to reduce friction is (1) Lubrication (2) Using ball bearings (3) Increasing mass (4) Both (1) and (2) 39. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (3m,3m)att=0 (4m,4m)at (m,1m)att=25 The average velocity between t= 0 and t= 2s is JOO}4]) mis (2) (j-3]) mis 3) Game r fot le (halFortnightly Tost-2 (RMG4_ Code-D) ular Medi 40. Path of projectile with respect to another proj 40, wae an we ves er (1) Cireular (2) Straight tine [sl sies Chol (3) Hyperbolic (4) Parabolic, (3) safrererae, (4) wearer 41. A bullet is fired with a speed 200 mis. If the ‘ua tte #1 200 m/s A carer ee are BI ae tet of bullet is 100 g and of gun is 2kg, then the recoll | apr am 100 gm mar ag TMA 2 kg , HE speed of gun is ae street 4 (1) 20 mis (2) 2mis (1) 20mis (3) 10 mis (4) Sms 42, A ball of mass m strikes @ rigid wall with speed v | 42, land gets reflected without any loss of speed as shown in the figure. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball by the walll is mass is 2 mis? along applied force. acceleration of 4 kg block? Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Regular Medical-2023 Fae ware a are & ree Pear ara +. A rocket is set for vertical fring. H exhaust speed | “> re ere arr 1200 mis & ac fe ke kona, 48 Ae is now much gas must be jected per] SUN as wae af wah fe thrust needed to overcome te Ee Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) second to supply weight of rocket, if rocket mass is oy kg? a (1) 49kg!s (2) 40.84 ko! a ae vate ere (3) 326 kgs (4) 6242 kols meee oleae a0 aT |A block placed on rough horizontal surface 1s | 47. fare gret Sra qa we xa ur yew ot Sst A ne cad on oh nt | ae horizontal. To move the block, the force F wars a FE (= Te HCE Hata aT oT) required is ( = Coefficient of friction between block and surface) (1) Fa 2g. (sino) Q --_ a (cos@ + sind) @ a a \ - econ) ws, roe ar) 48. Ona horizontal surface of a truck (1 = 0.6) a . 4 at Afr Ae, STATA 1 kg TH are mbtce nae (3) 3N (4) 5.88 x 3) 3N (4) 5.88N 49. The limiting friction depends on 49. atid aint Pat aca e $e i (1) Size of surfaces in contact (1) Boba fer aaa & sree (2) Masses of objects in contact (8) Normal reaction between the surfaces (4) Shape of objects in contact 50. A ball is released from window of a train moving along horizontal straight track with constant velocity. The path as observed (1) From ground is vertical straight line (2) From train will be parabolic (10)aE 51. Representative element among the following is (1) As (2) Mo @u (4) Se ‘Maximum covalency of Boron is ma Qs @2 at Which among the following is Lanthanoid? (1) La @) wu @) ur (4) lv rays? (1) These rays move from anode to cathode (2) These rays consist of positively charged particles called protons (3) Characteristics of these rays the nature of the gas present’ ray tube Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50= i ; Re co. Peat a & eregtort Haz A FR a 39. Which of the folowing transition in the hydrogen spectrum will give photon of maximum energy? frre a rer ee 7 (a neswon=? (1) n=3an=2 (2) n=4in=3 (1) n=30 @) n=3ton=1 (4) n=68n=5 60. Which of the following metals have low melting () n=3%ne4 c.f pe are = ser EH (309 K) Be (1) fer (2) tiem (4) n=6ton=5 Point (803 K)? (1) Gatium (2) Sodium (3) Thalium (4) Stronsium (3) foram (4) aha 61. IUPAC official name of element having atomic | 61, ete ates 101 Te eet TUPAC afi TH en : (1) sare (2) afer (1) Nobetium (2) Lawrencium (o) tte oa (3) Mendelevium (4) Dubnium 62. If the radius of Bohr’ first orbit of hydrogen atom | 62. af& wreghart wear, a mer aire want ht Psat r, ®, at ‘Sf, then the radius of Bohr's third orbit of Be™* Be™ arrera at get ate ara At rsa 9 @ oy 8) (4) 36r0 63. The de Broglie wavelength of a 0.02 kg moving with a velocity (b= 66 = 10 Js) (1) 165*10%m —(@) 66x10 (8) 66% 10m (4) 1.65 «101m (4) 1.65% 104m 64. Size and energy of the orbital is given by rt a fre ain we (1) Principal quantum number (2) Azimuthal quantum number (3) Magnetic quantum number (4) Spin quantum number 65. For n® shell, the possible values quantum number is given by (Qn (2) (3) 2n (4) 2ne+4 66. The maximum number of elements that can be ‘accommodated in the fourth period is 66. (1) 10 (2) 8 @) 6 (4) 14 67. The total number of radial nodes is given by Qn (21 (3) n-1 (4) n-1-4 ‘68. The electronic configuration of Cr is (2) [Arsatas? (4) (Ansie5s?Fs Tost-2 (RMG4_ 69. Us Gea H weien Heo n= 3, 1 = 4 are waged A quantum number in an atom aternsenhenin (6 (2) 0 (4) 10 Oe 20 @2 (4) 10 ). peter eet er arte wets Pret (2) ns®np'* (1) ns*2np™* (2) ns®np* ee (3) nsinp?-* (4) nsenp* Among the following, the element which has largest atomic size is 71, reefer & sere a ey repre at ag ao @P ao @)N @e Which of the following elements has the highest second ionization enthalpy? ms 2) Be @u @c In the modern periodic table, the element with | 73: ‘atomic number 33 belongs to (1) 5 period and 15" group (2) 3" period and 13" group (8) 4" period and 13” group (4) 4 period and 15" group Which of the following has a positive va electron gain enthalpy? (1) Hydrogen (8) Neon Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) 76. Consider the following statements regarding photoelectric effect. Statement: Kinetic energy of ejected electrons does not depends on the frequency of incident light. Statementl: There is no time lag between the striking of light and ejection of electrons. The correct option is (1) Both statement-! and statement-ll are correct (2) Both statement and statement-ll_are incorrect (3) Statement| is comect but statementll is incorrect (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement+ll_ is correct ‘The possible set of quantum numbers for the valence electron of K is ofifm am[sfofo {@lefofo | @/4]afo | j@fafafa l wavelength among the following is (1) Cosmic rays (3) Microwaves __ (4) Radio waves 79. Bohr theory is not applicable for (1) Lt (2) Het (3) Be* (4) He 80. The angular momentum of electron in p-orbital is equal to (1) Vn 2 3 (3) Zero (4) Bn 81. Which of the following orbitals will not have ‘lectron density along the axes? (CeVO) (2) px mc Regular Medicat-2025 76. weprer Fara sara ately farferfas weet ae Fae Afra awurt: seule vagal ot seat oma er 2A ri ae inate swore: rer oa a waa ee are ang eH ater et eT wei freer t (1) oe re a St (2) ere eer aa Seat era (3) err. ah 8 aes eH eA (4) er ere A a Ee Ka edge & fre son ei a aa ayer t 2 + nis nia | vis + ieul a {82 The fon which contains maximum number of | 82, Fafa i Fea area tara wz 6 tm unpaired electrons among the following is onan 2) Zn a ae (1) Mn (2) Zn (3) Fee (4) cu wnfigure of elements A, B, C and D fa ft * Etectronic configuration af elements A,B, Cand D| 4, CE on 5a are as follows A 1s*2st2p¢ B: 1s°2s%2p* C: 1s*2st2p"9s*Sp* —D:_1s*2s%2p" The most electronegative element among the following is Ma The species which is isoelectronic with CO is (1) Ne (2) Oz Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) Number of photons present in 6.6 J of energy having wavelength 10 nm is (h = 6.6 * 10 Js) (1) 33107 (2) 2x 10% (3) 83x 10% (4) 5.2* 107 92. The correct order of electron affinity Is (1) F>cl> Brat (2) I> Br> Cla F (3) Cl>F>Br>1 4) Cl> Br> Ft 91 93. Which among the following ion is of largest size? (1) Nav (2) NY (3) Mg” (4) ‘94. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in momentum is. 4 fh h mie of 2\n @ Qn 1 fh 1 fh a af if ont a 95. The energy of the stationary states of the Hike species is given by the expression 2 (1) E,=-2. vens0"(5) Jimol fo a -san 072) ol } w pt 4 @) E, ~-210000*(2) diatom (4) &, -210.10"(2] diate n 96. The number of stationary wa H-atom is (4 (2) 4 (2 (4) 3 97. The correct order of of ie eS PE A See is the ep ea (1) 3s<3p<3d<4s (2) 3s<3p<4s<3d (3) 38= 3p = 30< 4s (4) 38=3p=30>45 98. The electronic configuration 4s' 2s! Viol a ido (1) Aufbau principle = Fand's rule of maximum multiplicity 'S exclusion principle fats | Pilate) i=¥ Srs| paloiesn Regular Medical) |91. 10 nm aie aTell 6.6 J Sat # anftan woes wear ® (h = 6.6 * 10- Js) (1) 3.3% 107 (2) 2x10 (3) 83% 10% (4) 5.2107 92, eg ayaa ae (1) F>Cl> Bret (2) 1> Br>CI>F (3) Cl>F> Bret (4) Cl> Br>F>1 93, Freafeafia a feet sara ar Ta Tae TST? (1) Nav (2) N= (3) Mg? (4) Fe af Reale er eae H onfatercrar ware 2, dt de sfafaraen (1) 97.50 nm (1) 450 nm (2) 750 - Foniuachy (1) srfrersifian (2) seat ¥ ‘octium 4) Unnilseptium (3) srorrsiifrer (4) sree a (aorany } . Zz col 101, see aftr ativan ras At attere arate att & (1) 90 fire (2) 2482 “ - Sen mec an (3) 90% (4) 24 fae 4 a lewoapt 5 Interphase of | 90. after ami frraferfare # & Pach orf sea ant wean eth 8? romatin mateflal (1) ater wend arate (2) ae sre ar fg (@) sagas vend eer (4) fered snare gfe The site of attachment of spindle fibres Orbs chromosome is 103. Feet ra ae a cig & agra a eae rae 1) Satellite (1), Beemee (2) Kinetochore (2) saerarere Telomere @) siete (4) Secondary constriction (4) Fete eestor 104. In quiescent phase of cell cycle, cells 104, afer am at i rea, aftr (1) Undergo rapid proliferation (1) aa ee 8 sraea eich & (2) Are metabolically active (2) saree en a aia er (3) Are in G: phase (3) Gy wae ee & (4) Continuously increase in size (4) reer Freer gis aac & 105. Choose the correctly matched pair 105, epeerer ape ar eer ATE, (1) Prophase — Final stage of mitotic (1) yatereen eet dc Prorat ifr karyokinesis rae (2) Diplotene - Terminalisation of chiasmata (fet ieee (Interphase — The most ramate ated CAN) a are — etre A oe ae (4) Zygotene — Formation of bivalents (4) gee = gretaFortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) ombinase enzyme is observed in 106, Activity ofr (2) Zygotene (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene If it takes 200 hours to complete the cell cycle of a cel, approximately for how much time duration its interphase lasts? (1) Leptotene 107. (1) 190 hours, (2) 15 hours (3) 100 hours (4) Thour 108. In equational division of a cell, how many stages are observed in nuclear division? (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four 109. Anaphase | differs from anaphase of mitosis as in the former (1) Separation of homologous chromosomes does not occur (2) Spliting of centromere occurs (3) Sister chromatids do not separate (4) Chromosomes cluster at the polés' 110. How many of the following events associated with S phase? (2) DNA replication (b) ATP synthesis (©) Duplication of mitochondria (2) Duplication of centrioles cry (1) One (2) Two, (3) Three (4) Fe 111. By the end of prophase, which ‘structures can be viewed under mi 7 (1) Nucleolus (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Chromosome (4) ER 112. ac beorkinenl bot fotowed by opines, it results in the (1) Entrance of the cell into Go phase (2) Formation of cell furrow (3) Reduction in number of chromosomes in the cell (4) Formation of syncytium 113. In which of the following stages, morphology of ai amosomes is studied most easly? (2) Metaphase feuCam msund 106, feemivavr vtsrest oft feet Pari ret are bp (1) AGIE (2) gre (3) Byers (4) fae 7, af fret ara aia ae % ET BH 200 wp ‘am 8, ager) steerer ere Pht aa Seat a, ar cect 82 (1) 190 8 (2) 15 8 (3) 100 92 (4) 4 82r 108, war afrenT ee fenara #, axa fama at Peer sere ore sre 87 (1) & (2) a a) (4) ae 109, were |, anaphora sere & at & selfs qa oraeer (1) eae re ar erect a (2) ora Factor thar (3) qua aa eae (4) eran 110. aeard § mrerea & elfen eh 8 ae par feo safes o @e @) ar rene ‘frafefad #8 fee doen st area Se at wera ty (1) Steer (2) tet sre @) TR es 112, a hap Ferm 3 aRegular Medical-2023 114. A cell has 10 tetrads during meiosis 1. How many | 14, FR ane -Proa het 10 pom ee chromatids will be observed in the cell during the Cockers area 6 dh tres tema airy Ms (2) 10 ms (3) 40 (4) 20 5. Read the following features (@) Taxonomic aid used for identification of plants and animals (b) Specific for each taxonomic category (©) Generally analytical in nature Identity the taxonomic aid on the basis of above ate information, (1) Key (2) Botanical garden (3) Museum (4) Zoological park » Each statement in the key which are based on the | 116. $aft Contrasting characters is called (1) Couplet (2) Lead Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy ASOorgy Test 2 FO, CoD) ; in Tai The stage whch lasts for orihs of Ys " oocyte of some vertebrates I called (1) 2ygotene (2) Leptotene (1) ts observed in plant cell (2) Grows centritugally (3) Leads to formation of middle lamella (4) ts observed in animal cell 123. Reduction in number of chromosomes oDours in a (2) Metaphase | 0 (4) Metaphase It 124, Interphase (1) Occurs after prophase (2) Is shorved stage (5) 1s followes by karyokine (4) Occurs after meiosis 1 125. Which of tee tcflowing Sieiaia Poales? (1) Potato (1) Contains information of any one taxon (2) Acts as quick source of = taxonomic studies ee (3) Is @ place of storing, pre 5Regular Medical-2023 Fe Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) 129. In which of the following organisms, reproduction 129, Firaferfia a aa it rar ater > is present? (1) Worker bees © rere (2) Amoeba Oe (3) Infertile human couples (8) sigteara cafe (4) Mute (4) rene 190. The lowest category ofthe taxonomical hierarchy | 130, afer ‘verge =r sift hea aersaroHt are with maximum number of similarities is Fresca (1) Genus (2) Family (ye aa 3) Speci (4) (3) Species (4) Kingdom @ sath (eee 131. All the given properties are exclusively present in living organisms, except ‘Frere 8 (2) Reproduction (1) af (3) Metabolism (4) Celular organisation 132. Choose the odd one w.tt. Binomi name of an organism (1) Is derived from Latin language (2) Start with the name of discoverer (3) Has two words, generic specific epithet (4) Is in italics when printed 133. The most obvious and te {feature of all living organ (1) Growth, Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50swear met Forrighty Test 2(RMG4_Code-D) ae neces SECTION -B =r 136, Fra separa eta #2 ; cae ee (1) safehr aia eet ta (2) Higher plants @ ae (3) Bacteria (3) sary (4) Animals 9 137. Best stage to study the shape of chromosomes is | 437, yuri #t Sepa a1 He aA A AAG Het sea 1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) qataea (2) sere (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) varae (4) siecrerear 138, Spincle fibres form the mitotic apparatus together | a cg Pe fora eet ere aaa with (1) Asters (2) Metaphasic plate 1D a 2 Soren (8) Centioles (4) Chromosomes (3) arena (4) RR 139. A meiocyte has 20 chromosomes and 16 pg DNA | 139, um ongany # G, sae @ geet 20 TURE aA 16 pg before the G: phase. Calculate the amount of NA @1 3a orehegamy & semnfeer cae ames afte DNA and number of chromosomes in @ gamete | Daa fara oe et a eee Bra call produced from the melocyte. Amount of NA No. of chromosomes Di weet (1) 16p9 10 a) 4 10 2) 8pg fo (2) 10 (3) 16p9 20 Jj @ 20 (4) 8pg 20. 20 140. Read the following statements and s aert at fee oft wet fiser ar aay correct option. 3 Statement A: Mitotic division in per , “ara ameph fase & ghmmerey a results in growth of plant throughot Suepi shard ghee a ‘Statement B: In contrast to : slegh-faurar 1 & faatta, 1 resembles @ normal mitosis. bt arnt aah fears & age Star 2) (1) Only A is incorrect (1) Har A teat (2) Only B is incorrect (2) Fa B mae (3) Both A and B are correct @) Astce aatwee . (4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) Aste dire 141. Interval between meiosis | and meiosis I! is called | 141. anegt furor | (1) Interkinesis (2) Interphase a : (3) Synthesis phase (4) M phase 142. To produce 64 cells from a single cell through 142. mitosis, how many generations of mitotic divisions (2) 6 (4) 32Regul pee 143. During the separation of homologous | 143, gaia & are aarmtq * Sinn hromosomes after recombination, ped | are, reg & quer strucures ee formed with ee called compare ee eit (1) sresiter (1) Chiasmata_ o (2) Tetrad = (3) qeritors sires (4) fee afin (3) Recombination nodule (4) Synaptonemal complex Daughter cells produced after meiosis Il are | 144, genetically (1) Identical to their parent cell (2) Identical to each other (3) Identical to each other as well as their parent cell (4) Neither identical to each other nor to their arent cell event associated with the stage of cell cycle ‘shown in the figure. Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Regular Medicay Fortnightly Test-2 (RMG4_Code-D) vaB, The taxonomical category higher than class fOr plants is (1) Phylum (2) Family (3) Division (4) Order lowing categories in descending 149. Arrange the folk | hierarchy and choose the order of taxonomical correct option. Class, Division, Species, Kingdom (1) Species + class — division — kingdom (2) Species + division > class > kingdom (3) Class + kingdom + species -> division '4) Kingdom — division + class > species 150. Read the following statements. A. All living organisms are classified into seven obligate categories. Genus serves as the basic and highest category in taxonomical hierarchy, In Mangifera indica, indica rept author citation, t nts. D. Solanaceae is a family. \ j Which of the above statement(s) is/are (1) Bande (2) A.Bandc (8) Donly (4) 8, CandD 6. ° 151. As per Chargaff's rule, the base constant for a species is (1) (A}=[G] and [7] = [C} (2) T+CIG+A (3) AtcrT+G (4) A*TiG+C 152. The metabolic pathway in which glucose degraded to lactic acid with eaaaitel egy ‘occurs in how many metabolic steps? (1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 11 (48 153. Enzymes involved in oxidoreduction reactions PANG to category of enzymes named ‘Hydrolases (2) Ligases msung |riple:Camer: 148. car fara emer aT ar (1) a (2) Ft (3) rT (4) arate sirit at afi erga & rate som carafe fre afte ert ere a =e) ca, a, sme, TA (1) sranfer—> arf > HT > SIT (2) safe —> set —> aH > ST (3) ahs sere sent > TT (4) ser so 9 at > mT, 150. Prraferftre sertt at ofa) A. anit ata a ara safe dant atigea aT rar Bi 149, ar sare atk Sea art Bh Sam & sar F sehr aaa era 8? @ apace (4) 8, cateD 151. are & Pag GAT, UH seer ear 87 (1) (l= 16) she = [¢)Regular Medical-2023 ion tows 154. Allof the following are true for celulose, except | 164, fume antrn atitign eh unme (1) Constituent of plant cell wall (1) 2 ieee fiber orm, mere (2) Paper made from plant pulp is cellulosic (2) 0 to tom st tet (3) "ion es waren (A) savin ra eave ee 155, Preston tit oy Sos 0 ath Gon ee Phim (3) Homopolymer of glucose (4) Gives red colour with iodine 155. Match the following columns and select the correct option, Column | Column it Lactose (@) Uracil RNA (b) Palmitic acid P-pleated sheets (c)_Disaccharide Saturated fatty acid (4) Secondary (1) (4), i-(b),i-(a), iv-(c) (2) He), i-(a), iid), iv-{b) (3) Ha), i), f-(c), vd) (4) He), li-(a), iti-(b), iv-(d) 186. How many deoxyribose sugar resid Present in @ B-DNA fragment, which long? (1) 306 (2) 180 (3) 160 (4) 90 187. Anucleoside upon hydrolysis cannot yield (1) Pentose sugar (2) Pt (3) Pyrimidine 158. Prosthetic group is usually (1) An organic co-factor tightly apoenzyme (2) An inorganic co-factor ‘apoenzyme P Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Fortnightly Test2 (RMG4_C i ntate obtained after straining the slurry | 160. bapa ee : be 160. The re made by grinding a living tissue in trichloroacetic ‘acid contains which set of compounds? 1) Proteins, minerals, lipids (2) Phosphate ions, sulphate ions, magnesium fons (3) Phosphate ions, sulphate ions, proteins (4) Proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides is that they (1) Are required for basic metabolic processes (2) Have identifiable functions (3) Do not take part in physiological processes (4) Include nucleic acids 162. Select the homopolymer of Possesses helical structure, (2) Celttose om (4) Chitin © (1) Starch (3) Glucagon 16 A : g 4 (1) A polymer of fructose (2) Not metabolised in human body (3) Not filtered through kidney (4) A storage polysaccharide 164. How many nitrogen atoms heterocyclic ring of adenine? (2 @3 165. Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four and hydro reba he Ing Tr L Qlucose that | 162. esha er ae ar aa fy Fr peter ayaa er 7 (1) sid, afte, fees (2) Bieke sre, wet ore, Sefer sare (3) Bebe orm, ae sre, TAT (4) stds, afters ane, veto The incorrect statement w.r.t primary metabolites | 161, yruftre srraast 3 dav if wer ae ae 8 fea (1) gt sree safieait & fore ore a (2) wa ard aaa e (3) arf wfiear a er ae ae (4) =a ore afta at ica et 8 ce Fem ata aera 3 fis eh GCA e(1) The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual is 5.2 mmol. ~7.1 mmol. (2) Living state is a non-eq to be able to perform work. (3) Without metabolism, there cannot be a living stat (4) The concentration of hormones in a normal healthy person is in nanograms/ml.. 168. Number of carbon atoms present in palmitic acid and arachidonic acid including carboxyl atom, are respectively (1) 14,20 (2) 18, 16 (3) 16,20 (4) 18, 20 169. Which among the following is a non-reducing disaccharide? (1) Sucrose (2) Lactose (3) Glucose (4) Galactose. 170. What is not common between suc (1) Both contain fructose (2) Both are carbohydrates (3) Both contain glycosidic linkages (4) Both contain glucose rium steady state A-B+H:0->A-H+B-OH (1) Transferases (2) Hyd (3) Isomerases 4) 172. Number of amino acids present in an oc Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy ASO 167, Mere a a a A (1) 8 a ee fis Heino ee tem 5:2 mmol. 7.4 mmol. & (2) sa ore wa ore eg stare He, Fatt ard a tra (3) ar soars tte rere sre et eee (4) Wa aria ere ney ereia AY aig AIL, Hertstemperature, enzymes perature enzymes remain the correct option for A 175, At high A__ while at low tomy in__B__ state, Select ‘and B respectively. (1) Inoperative , active (2) Inactivated , active (8) Denatured , inactive (4) Inactivated, hyperactive 178. Select the bond that is formed b phosphate and hydroxyl group of a sugar. (1) Ether bond Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy ASOBT (Ro set arr a Ta St Smet NH, eae ara sear aT at iret soya Frere era tes tat ek, eh Pree a eA (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the (1) @) ste (R) at Aer &, afte (R), (A) TBE ‘correct explanation of (A) waiter (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (2) (A) 3 (R) ait wea & afer (R), (A) TBE ‘Correct explanation of (A) ‘eater agi B) jis tue, (R)is false (3) (Ay were, (R) sree (4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) (a) ate (Rat sree J es 186. During inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase caused by malonate, which of the following is observed? (1) Decrease in Vmex and Kn. (2) No change in Ve and increase ft Kx, (9) Increase in Ves and no change in Ko. *} (4) Increase in Vinx and Kor \ 187. An incorrect statement for RNAs that B= (1) 1s mostly single stranded (2) Is of atleast three types Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy A50Fortnight Test-2 (RMG4_Code-b) = 190. Which one is an incorrect description of oe re Ue (2) svc spf eo ete ® (3) eter ar wer ea apoenzyme? itis ania (1) Organic compound (2) Proteinaceous nature (9) Part of holoenzyme (4) Complete enzyme 191. All of the following possess glycosidic bonds, except (1) Mattose 2) Lactose (3) chitin (4) Galactose 192. Select the incorrect match, (1) Receptor — Sensory reception (2) Rubber — Polymeric substances (3) Collagen Intraceltular ground substance (4) Antibody —— Fight infectious agents 193. Identify the compound given. Samsung Triple Camera Shot with my Galaxy ASO