Yatharth IAS internship Assignment 1 Part 2

Topic: 100 MCQ’s GS Prelims

Intern: Aishwarya Patole

Q1. The Union Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan launched India’s first indigenously
developed vaccine against pneumonia named?
a. Pneumosil
b. Pneumocol
c. Pneumolysis
d. Pneumovac
Correct answer: a. Pneumosil
Explanation: The Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) named “Pneumosil” has been
developed by Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII) in collaboration with the Bill and
Melinda Gates Foundation and PATH, an international, nonprofit global health organization
based in Seattle. The vaccine will provide protection against 10 variants of pneumococcus
bacteria that causes pneumonia, meningitis, ear, and blood infections in children.
Pneumococcal disease is the largest contributor to underfive mortality rate worldwide.
Q2. Natural gas pipeline network built under “One Nation One Gas Grid” scheme of the
central government was recently established covering districts of which two states?
a. Gujarat to Uttar Pradesh
b. Kerala to Karnataka
c. Maharashtra to Karnataka
d. Kerala to Tamil Nadu
Correct answer: b. Kerala to Karnataka
Explanation: The pipeline will carry natural gas from Kochi in Kerala through Ernakulam,
Thrissur, Palakkad, Malappuram, Kozhikode, Kannur and Kasargod districts to Mangaluru in
Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. It has been built by GAIL (India) Limited. It will
carry natural gas from the LNG Regasification Terminal at Kochi. The pipeline will supply
environment-friendly PNG. The pipeline grid will help improve clean energy access as well
as also aid in the development of city gas projects.
Q3. Which State is the first in India to have two expressway airstrips?
a. Gujarat
b. Maharashtra
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Kerala
Correct answer: c. Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: U.P has two expressway strips: one on Lucknow-Agra Expressway while the
other on Purvanchal Expressway. Airstrips are designed to facilitate emergency landing and
take-off of fighter planes.
Q4. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has found promising concentrations of vanadium
in which of the following states?
a. Manipur
b. West Bengal
c. Punjab
d. Arunanchal Pradesh
Correct answer: d. Arunanchal Pradesh.

Explanation: Geological Survey of India (GSI) has found concentration of vanadium in the
palaeo-proterozoic carbonaceous phyllite rocks in the Depo and Tamang areas of Arunachal
Pradesh’s Papum Pare district. The largest deposits of vanadium are found in China, followed
by Russia and South Africa. India is a significant consumer of vanadium but is not a primary
producer of the strategic metal. India consumed 4% of about 84,000 metric tonnes of
vanadium produced across the globe in 2017. China, which produces 57% of the world’s
vanadium, consumed 44% of the metal.

Q5. Which State has topped the India Innovation Index 2020 among major states?

a. Maharashtra
b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Uttar Pradesh

Correct answer: b. Karnataka

Explanation: The index demonstrates the government’s continued commitment towards

transforming the country into an innovation-driven economy. The report examines the
innovation capabilities and performance of the states and union territories. The innovation
index ranking is based on five enabler parameters:  Human Capital  Investment 
Knowledge Workers  Business Environment  Safety and Legal Environment.

Q6. Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) tightened oversight on funds received by
non-governmental organisations (NGOs). Constitutionally NGOs are backed by which list?

a. Union List
b. State list
c. Concurrent list

Correct answer: c. Concurrent list

Explanation: NGO is defined by the World Bank as a not-for-profit organization that pursue
activities to relieve suffering, promote the interests of the poor, protect the environment,
provide basic social services, or undertake community development. These organisations are
not a part of the government, but have a legal status and are registered as Trust, Society or
Private Limited Non-Profit Company. Concurrent List mentions charitable institutions,
charitable and religious institutions.

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to regulation of Big Tech Companies:
 1. Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 governs all activities related to the use of
computer resources and covers all ‘intermediaries’ who play a role in the use of
computer resources and electronic records.
2. Competition Commission of India (CCI) determines whether a tech entity has abused
its dominant position.
3. Enforcement Directorate looks into FDI case in business-to-consumer (B2C)
enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
Correct answer: c. 1,2 and 3
Explanation: The regulatory mechanism for big tech companies in India includes the
Information Technology (IT) Act, Competition Commission of India (CCI), Enforcement
Directorate. India’s current regulatory framework is built around offline understandings of
market share, which limits the regulation of digital business models of big tech companies. o
Section 79-II of the Information Technology Act, 2000, currently exempts online
intermediaries from liability for any third-party content shared on their platform.
Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014:
a. Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 provides protection from harassment to persons
making disclosure of corruption, willful misuse of power or arbitrary use of discretion
of any power by any public servant, besides keeping the identity of the whistle-
blowers secure.
b. It does not apply to the armed forces of the Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. both 1 and 2
Explanation: Whistleblowing is the act of drawing attention to an authority figure or public,
to perceived wrongdoing, misconduct, Corruption, fraud unethical activity within public,
private or third-sector organisations. It provides a broad definition of a whistle blower that
goes beyond government officials and includes any other person or non-governmental
organisation.
Q9. India officially began as a non-permanent member of UNSC for the 2021-22 period for
its:
a. 5th term
b. 7th term
c. 8th term
d. 10th term
Correct answer: c. 8th term
Explanation: India was elected to the UN Security Council in June along with Norway,
Mexico, Ireland and Kenya. India will also chair the crucial Taliban and Libya sanctions
committees and the Counter-Terrorism Committee of the UN Security Council during its
tenure as non-permanent member.
Q10. The major focus of Economic Survey 2020-2021 was:
a. Impact of covid-19
b. Fiscal deficits
c. Long-term investments
d. FDI
Correct answer: a. Impact of covid-19
Explanation: The survey provided an assessment of how the Indian economy has been
impacted by the deadly COVID-19 virus and how it is improving. It also projected India’s
gross domestic product growth for 2021-22.
Q11. The theme of Economic Survey 2020-21 was:
1. #savinglives&livelihoods
2. #VshapedRecovery
3. #growthwithInfrastructure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2 and 3
Correct answer: c. 1 and 2
Explanation: According to the Economic Survey 2020-21, the GDP of the country is
projected to decrease by 7.7% in the fiscal year 2020-21. It includes a sharp 15.7% decline in
the first half and a 0.1% decreases in the second half. V-shaped economic recovery was seen
due to COVID-19 Vaccination Drive, recovery in the services sector, and growth in
consumption and investment.
Q12. The 5G network has been first demonstrated by which telecom company in India?
a. Bharti Airtel
b. Reliance Jio
c. Idea
d. Vodafone
Correct answer: a. Bharati Airtel
Explanation: Bharti Airtel used the art dynamic spectrum sharing so as to operate both 4G
and 5G networks in the same spectrum block.
Q13. India created history on January 19, 2021 by defeating Australia for the first time in 32
years at which venue?
a. Melbourne Cricket Ground
 b. Lord’s Cricket Ground
c. The Oval
d. The Gabba
Correct answer: d. The Gabba
Explanation: The Indian cricket team achieved a historic win in the 4th Test against Australia
at the Gabba in Brisbane to win the series 2-1 and retain the Border-Gavaskar Trophy.
Chasing a target of 328, India were given a start by Shubman Gill who top scored with 91
runs to help the visitors get off on the right foot on the final day.
Q14. India’s first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched in:
a. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
b. Bandipur tiger reserve
c. Corbett tiger reserve
d. Ranthambore tiger reserve
Correct answer: a. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Explanation: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve, Madhya Pradesh is the first in India to launch The
Hot Air Balloon Safari for tourists. The Hot air balloon safari by Sky Waltz Ballooning
commenced in January, 2021, takes off from the buffer zone of the national park and lands in
the exterior of the buffer zone. The hot air balloon has the capacity of maximum nine
passengers per ride and is loaded with necessary safety equipment.
Q15. “Mandu” festival is celebrated in which of the following state of India?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Assam
d. West Bengal
Correct answer: a. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: The three-day famous “Mandu Festival” is celebrated in the historic town of
Mandu in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh on February 13, 2021. The festival culminates on
February 15, 2021. The festival is organised by the state government of Madhya Pradesh to
showcase each and every aspect of the ancient Mandu city, ranging from food, music, history
& heritage, art & craft etc.
Q16. Khajuraho Dance Festival is celebrated by which state of India?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Meghalaya
c. West Bengal
d. Madhya Pradesh
Correct answer: d. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: In 2021, the 47th Khajuraho Dance Festival began in Khajuraho, Madhya
Pradesh which is based on the Indian classical dance tradition. Khajuraho Temples come
alive with splendour, beams, and the hustlebustle of art lovers at the Festival. The first-day
event is dedicated to Bharatanatyam performance by Geeta Chandran and her troupe and
Kathak performance by Deepak Maharaj.
Q17. Which is the first state or Union Territory in India to launch a mobile application to
assess the carbon footprint of an individual?
a. Delhi
b. Chandigarh
c. Puducherry
d. Ladakh
Correct answer: b. Chandigarh
Explanation: Chandigarh became the first state or Union Territory in India to launch Carbon
Watch, a mobile application to assess the carbon footprint of an individual. Although the app
can be accessed by everyone, it has specific options for the residents of Chandigarh to
compile a detailed study. The application can be downloaded through a QR code in Android
supported smart cell phones.
Q18. India’s first-ever geothermal power project will be implemented by state-owned Oil and
Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) in?
a. Ladakh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Sikkim
Correct answer: a. Ladakh
Explanation: India’s first-ever geothermal power project will be implemented by state-owned
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) at Puga village of eastern Ladakh. The project,
known as Geothermal Field Development Project, will be implemented in three phases and is
planned to commission by the end of 2022.
Q19. Consider the following statements with respect to India’s Draft Arctic Policy:
1. It refers to the region above the Arctic Circle, north of latitude 66° 34’ N, which
includes Arctic Ocean with North Pole at its centre.
2. Much of this Ocean falls within the jurisdiction of five Arctic littoral states— Canada,
Denmark (Greenland), Norway, Russia and USA (Alaska).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. both 1 and 2
Explanation: Draft policy seeks to achieve India’s Arctic mission that aims to: • Contribute to
international efforts to enhance humankind’s understanding of the Arctic region in India’s
capacity as an Observer State to the Arctic Council. • Enhance sustainable and mutually
beneficial cooperation between India and the Arctic. • Strengthen efforts against global
warming. • Better understand the scientific and climate related linkages between the Arctic
and the Indian monsoons. • Harmonise polar research with the third pole—the Himalayas. •
Advance the study and understanding of the Arctic within India.
Q20. Consider the following statements with respect to Electricity (Rights of Consumers)
Rules, 2020:
a. These rules are framed under the Electricity Act, 2003, which has a consumer charter
b. It lay down rights that make distribution companies (DISCOMs) more accountable to
consumers.
c. These rights empower consumers of electricity in rural areas only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2 and 3
Correct answer: c. 1 and 2
Explanation: Ministry of Power releases the Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules, 2020
which gives rights to consumers to get the reliable services and quality electricity. These
rights ensure savings for the consumer. Direct savings to consumers come from lower energy
cost and reactive power tariffs. Indirect savings are gained by avoiding circumstances such as
damage and premature aging of equipment, loss of production or loss of data and work.
Q21. Which bank is the first in the industry to introduce an instant EMI facility on its internet
banking platform called "EMI @ Internet Banking"?
a. IDBI BANK
b. ICICI BANK
c. SBI
d. AXIS BANK
Correct answer: b. ICICI BANK
Explanation: ICICI Bank is the first in the industry to introduce an instant EMI facility on its
internet banking platform. The Bank has tied up with BillDesk and Razorpay, leading online
payment gateway companies to offer this facility. Presently, the ‘EMI @ Internet Banking’
has been enabled for over 1000 merchants in categories like online shopping portals,
insurance, travel, education- school fees and electronic chains.
Q22. After merger, what is the new name of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha TV?
a. Rajyalok
b. Sansad TV
c. SabhaTv
d. ParishadTv
Correct answer: b. Sansad TV
Explanation: The merger of the Lok Sabha TV and the Rajya Sabha TV has been finalised
and will be replaced by a single entity Sansad TV. On March 1, 2021, retired IAS officer
Ravi Capoor was appointed the Chief Executive Officer of the channel.
Q23. The world happiness report is issued by?
a. The UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
b. World Bank
 c. IMF
d. UNESCO
Correct answer: a. The UN Sustainable development solutions network.
Explanation: To rank countries by how happy their citizens perceive themselves to be. The
countries of the world are ranked on the basis of questions from the Gallup World Poll. The
results are then correlated with other factors, like gross domestic product per person, healthy
life expectancy and the opinions of residents.
Q24. Consider the following statements with respect to Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP):
a. It aims at blending ethanol with petrol, thereby bringing it under the category of
biofuels and saving millions of dollars by cutting fuel imports and decreasing carbon
emissions.
b. The target is to achieve 20% blending of ethanol by 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: In 2021, the Department of Food & Public Distribution notified a modified
scheme for extending financial assistance for producing 1st Generation (1G) ethanol. The aim
is to achieve blending targets of ethanol with petrol (Ethanol Blending Programme).
Q25. Consider the following statements with respect to Intelligence Bureau (IB):
a. It is authoritatively controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
b. The government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence
Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme
Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Intelligence Bureau (IB) is a reputed and established intelligence agency. It can
also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the collegium’s choices, but if the
collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench
judgments, to appoint them as judges.
Q26. Strait of Hormuz connects which of the following water bodies?
a. Red Sea & Persian Gulf
b. Persian Gulf & Gulf of Aden
c. Persian Gulf & Gulf of Oman
d. Red Sea & Gulf of Aden
Correct answer: c. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Omar
Explanation: The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important strait or narrow strip of water
that links the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman. The strait is only 21
to 60 miles (33 to 95 km) wide throughout its length. The Strait of Hormuz is important
because it is a geographic chokepoint and a main artery for the transport of oil from the
Middle East. Iran and Oman are the countries nearest to the Strait of Hormuz and share
territorial rights over the waters. Due to its importance, Iran has threatened to close the Strait
of Hormuz several times in recent history.
Q27. Which of the following ministry is responsible for releasing the “Digital Payment
Scorecard”?
a. Ministry of Trade and Commerce
b. Ministry of Information and Technology
c. NITI Aayog
d. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Correct answer: d. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation: The Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) has released
the list of “Digital Payment Scorecard”. In the list, the State Bank of India (SBI) has topped
for the third consecutive months. The digital payment scorecard tracks the performance of the
Commercial Banks on several digital parameters. SBI maintained the top remitter bank by
recording the highest UPI transaction volume which accounted for nearly Rupees 640
million.
Q28. El Salvador is bordered by which water body?
a. Pacific Ocean
b. Arctic Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
d. Atlantic Ocean
Correct answer: a. Pacific Ocean
Explanation: El Salvador officially known as the Republic of El Salvador is a country in
Central America. It is bordered on the northeast by Honduras on the northwest by Guatemala,
and on the south by the Pacific Ocean. El Salvador's capital and largest city is San Salvador.
The country's population in 2021 is estimated to be 6.8 million.
Q30. Consider the following statements with respect to Dedicated Freight Corridor project:
a. The Eastern DFC connects the states J&K and West Bengal
b. The Western DFC connects the states of Haryana and Maharashtra
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: b. 2 only
Explanation: The Eastern DFC connects the states Haryana and West Bengal. The Ministry of
Railways, under the direction of the Indian Government, had taken up the dedicated freight
corridor (DFC) project. The project involves the construction of six freight corridors
traversing the entire country. The purpose of the project is to provide a safe and efficient
freight transportation system. The combined length of the Western and Eastern DFCs is
approximately 2,843km.
Q31. The Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of the Ecosystem Services (NCAVES)
project is implemented by which of the following organizations?
a. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
b. United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD)
c. Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 3 only
Correct answer: c. 1,2 and 3
Explanation: The project “Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of Ecosystem
Services” (NCAVES) was launched in 2017 with an aim to advance both the knowledge
agenda and the development of policy-applications of environmental-economic accounting,
and in particular for ecosystem accounting. The NCAVES project was funded by the
European Union via a Partnership Instrument and has been jointly implemented by the
United Nations Statistics Division and the United Nations Environment Programme, in
collaboration with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
Q31. With reference to Lumpy Skin Disease, consider the following statements:
1. It is a poxviral disease of cattle only
2. It was originated in Africa.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: b. 2 only.
Explanation: Lumpy skin disease is primarily a disease of cattle, but clinical cases have also
been reported in Asian water buffalo (Bubalus bubalis). Lumpy skin disease was confined to
Africa at one time, but it has now become endemic in parts of the Middle East, and the virus
is continuing to spread. Recent outbreaks were reported as far north as Russia, Armenia,
Azerbaijan, Turkey and southern and eastern Europe.
Q32. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) consider the following
statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of government under the One nation-one scheme theme.
2. PMFBY is complusory for the farmers who have not availed institutional credit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: Annual Commercial / Annual Horticultural crops, oilseeds, and food crops
(Cereals, Millets, and Pulses) are covered under the scheme. PMFBY is optional for the
farmers who have not availed institutional credit, while all the farmers who have borrowed
institutional loans from banks are covered under the scheme mandatorily. (This was modified
and enrolment was made voluntary post-Kharif season 2020. The scheme is administered by
the Ministry of Agriculture.

Q33. Consider the following statements about Maghi Mela:

1. Guru Gobind Singh Ji chose Maghi as one of the three festivals to be celebrated by
Sikhs
2. It is celebrated in the month of Magh according to the lunar calendar.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: The Maghi fair is held to honour the memory of the forty Sikh warriors killed
during the Battle of Muktsar in 1705. People gather from all over Punjab, even other parts of
India to join the festival which is in fact spread over many days.

Q34. Consider the following statements in context of Bare Necessities Index (BNI):

a. BNI value has a range of 0 to 1.

b. BNI is prepared for rural households in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only
Explanation: The Finance Ministry in its Economic Survey for 2020-21 has introduced a new
metric to gauge progress on the quality of bare necessities available such as drinking water,
sanitation, shelter, electricity and LPG called the Bare Necessities Index. A BNI value has a
range of 0 to 1, with 0 being the least desirable and 1 being the most desirable score.
Q35. Consider the following statements in context of index released by Economist
Intelligence Unit (EIU): Inclusive Internet Index:
a. Inclusive Internet Index measures the extent to which the internet is available and
affordable by region.
b. Inclusive Internet Index is measured only for developed countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), in partnership with Facebook, has
released the Inclusive Internet Index 2021. India has been ranked at 49th spot globally. It
shares its rank with Thailand. This index measures the extent to which the internet is
available and affordable by region, and highlights additional insight into how people around
the world are using the web. The overall Index score is based on four parameters, which are:
Availability, Affordability, Relevance and Readiness categories. The Inclusive Internet Index
is commissioned by Facebook and developed by The Economist Intelligence Unit.

Q36. With reference to Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) consider the
following statements:

a. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) agreement is the world’s

largest free trade agreement led by China.
b. It is a proposed agreement between ASEAN and FTA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) aims to cover

trade in goods and services, intellectual property, etc. Member states of Asean and their FTA
partners are Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, China, Japan, India, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.
RCEP aims to create an integrated market with 16 countries, making it easier for products
and services of each of these countries to be available across this region.

Q37. Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana
Yojana:

1. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is

implemented in rural districts of the country.
 2. It is implemented in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act,
2013.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: b. 2 only.

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is a Maternity Benefit Programme not
just for rural areas/districts but for all districts of the country. The objectives of this
programme are: Providing partial compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentive s
so that the woman can take adequate res t before and after delivery of the first living child;
The cash incentive provided would lead to improved health seeking behaviour amongst the
Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW& LM).

Q38. With reference to MGNREGA scheme consider the following statements:

1. MGNREGA scheme is implemented mainly by Gram Panchayats.
2. This scheme aims to guarantee the “right to work”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Implementation of the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA (MGNREGA) involves roles
and responsibilities of a large number of stakeholders from the village to the national level.
The key stakeholders are: wage seekers, Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat, Panchayati Raj
Institutions, District Programme Coordinator (DCP), State Government etc.
Q39. Consider the following pairs:
River Dam
1. Krishna Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
2. Bhagirathi Hirakud dam
3. Mahanadi Tehri Dam
4. Sutlej Bhakra Nangal Dam
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer: a. 1 and 4 only
Explanation: Bhakra Nangal Dam is a gravity dam across the Sutlej river Himachal Pradesh.
Bhakra is the largest dam in India, with a height of 226 meters and second largest Dam in
Asia. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is the world’s largest masonry dam with a height of 124 meters,
built across Krishna River in Telangana. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is certainly the pride of India-
considered one of the largest man-made lake in the world.
Q40. Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of which of the following crops:
1. Tomato
2. Oilseeds
3. Onion
4. Potato
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 1,3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer: b. 1,3 and 4 only
Explanation: Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato
(TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year
without price volatility. The scheme was extended during June 2020 to cover all fruits &
vegetables (TOTAL) for a period of six months on pilot basis as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat
Abhiyan.
Q41. Consider the following statements with respect to National Agriculture Co-operative
Marketing Federation of India ltd. (NAFED):
1. NAFED, an apex Organisation under the Ministry of Agriculture
2. It is the nodal agency for implementing the price stabilization scheme under
Operation Greens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED

is registered under the Cooperative Societies Act and is one of the largest procurers as well as
marketing agency of agricultural products in India. Its functions include: To facilitate the
marketing and trading of agricultural commodities, to facilitate the procurement of inputs for
agriculture such as seeds, fertilisers, implements etc, to provide warehousing facilities for the
agricultural produce generated.

Q42. Consider the following statements with respect to Food Corporation of India:

1. FCI deals with procurement and distribution of rice, wheat and coarse grains only.
2. FCI is responsible for distribution of food-grains in rural areas for Public Distribution
System (PDS)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: The Food Corporation of India or the FCI was set up on 14 January 1965 having
its first District Office at Thanjavur – rice bowl of Tamil Nadu – and headquarters
at Chennai (later shifted to Delhi) under the Food Corporations Act 1964. FCI is responsible
for distribution of food-grains throughout the country for Public Distribution System (PDS).

Q43. Pohela Boishakh is the traditional New Year day of which community?

a. Maharashtrian Community
b. Bengali Community
c. Parsi Community
d. Tribal community

Correct answer: b. Bengali Community

Explanation: Pohela Boishakh, also known as Bengali New Year, is the traditional New Year
day of the Bengali people. The festival date is set according to the lunisolar Bengali calendar
as the first day of its first month Baishakh. However, the festival falls on April 14 or April 15
every year in India.

Q44. Consider the following statements with respect to Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary:

1. India’s first bat species with disk-shaped sticky feet is discovered at Lailad close to
Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Ri Bhoi district of Meghalaya has

been found to be the best protected area (PA) in the North East, according to a management
effectiveness evaluation (MEE) report of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Q45. Consider the following statements:

 1. Register of Indigenous Inhabitants of Nagaland (RIIN) is to protect the indigenous
people and their traditional life and culture.
2. Indigenous Land Use Agreement ILUA is a voluntary agreement between native title
parties and other people or bodies about the use and management of areas of land
and/or waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The main purpose of RIIN is to identify the citizens who settled in Nagaland
prior to December 1, 1963, the day the mountainous region became a full-fledged state. An
ILUA can be about any native title matter agreed by the parties, including settlement or
exercise of native title rights and interests, surrender of native title to governments, land
management, future development, mining, cultural heritage, coexistence of native title rights
with other rights, access to an area, and compensation for loss or impairment of native title.

Q46. Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann
Yojana:

a. Provision of free food grains to migrants and poor.

b. This scheme is applicable to families belonging to the Below Poverty Line.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Government of India announced that it will provide five kilo grams of free
food grains under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana till June 2021. More than
81.35 crore people will be provided 5 kg free wheat/rice per person / month along with 1 kg
free whole chana to each family per month.

Q47. With reference to Temples of Kancheepuram:

1. It is a famous temple city in the Indian state of Kerala

2. It served as the capital city of the Pallava Kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: b. 2 only
Explanation: It is a famous temple city in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is also known by
its former names Kanchiampathi, Conjeevaram, and the nickname "The City of Thousand
Temples”. Kānchipuram is considered one of the seven holiest cities to the Hindus of India.

Q48. Consider the following statements:

1. Hire Benkal is a Megalithic site

2. Hire Benkal is located in Karnataka
3. Unique feature of Hire Benkal is prehistoric rock paintings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
Correct answer: c. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: In Hire Benkal so far 11 rock shelters have been discovered. However a few
painting from Mesolithic period have also been reported in the form of intricate labyrinthine
designs composed of rhombic meanders or honeycomb patters in human depiction, which is
exclusive in Mesolithic Art. Hire Benkal do not just represent mortuary landscape but
represents a masterpiece of human creative genius of the Iron Age- Megalithic period.

Q49. Consider the following statements:

1. Bhedaghat Lametaghat of Chambal Valley is located in Madhya Pradesh

2. It is often referred to as the Grand Canyon of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: b. 2 only

Explanation: Bhedaghat Lametaghat is located in Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh. It is

added in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites. It is known for its marble rocks and their
various morphological forms on either side of the Narmada River which flows through the
gorge states. It has also been observed that the magical marble mountains assume different
colours and even shapes of animals and other living forms as one moves through them.

Q50. Which among the following is world's first country to ban all synthetic cannabinoid
substances?

a. USA
b. Japan
c. Afghanistan
d. China
Correct answer: d. China

Explanation: China will become the world's first country to ban all synthetic cannabinoid
substances. The move comes as China tries to curb the manufacturing & trafficking of the
drug. The synthetic cannabinoids are highly camouflaged, as some are found in ecigarette oil,
and some are found in cut tobacco made from various flower petals, or plant stems and
leaves. In Xinjiang, it has a commonly known nickname of "Natasha."
Q51. The National Startup Awards 2021 is an initiative of which of the following?
a. NITI Aayog
b. Ministry of Skills Development and Entrepreneurship
c. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Correct Answer: a and c

Explanation:- The National Startup Awards is designed by the Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It aims to recognize
Startups which are building innovative products.

Q52. Consider the following statements:

1. The rare earth minerals are called rare because they are very scarcely available on earth.
2. China has a global domination in the production of rare earth metals.
3. India has the world’s second-largest reserves of rare earth elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: c. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: - Rare earth metals are called 'rare earth' because earlier it was difficult to
extract them from their oxides forms technologically. China has over time acquired global
domination of rare earths, even at one point, it produced 90% of the rare earths the world
needs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q53. With reference to 'Open data week', consider the following statements:

1. It is initiated by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India).

2. The aim is to encourage the adoption of open data and promote innovation across India’s
urban ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b. 2 Only
Explanation: Recently, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has announced
the initiation of the Open Data Week to encourage the adoption of open data and promote
innovation across India’s urban ecosystem. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It is being conducted during the third week of January, i.e., from 17 th January 2022 to 21st
January 2022. The idea is to provide a platform that offers ample opportunities on how to
continue creating and promoting the use of data that addresses complex urban issues, such as
the ongoing Covid-19 pandemic.

Q54. Consider the following statements:

1. It has gravitational attraction.

2. It does not seem to interact with light.
3. It may provide an explanation for anomalies in the laws of gravity.

The above description most appropriately is related to which of the following concepts
related to space?

a. Dark Matter
b. Red Giant
c. Supernova
d. Heliosphere
Correct Answer: a. Dark Matter
Explanation: Dark matter, though never detected, is believed to be present in the entire
universe. It is presumed that black holes are a source of dark matter. It was proposed by
Professor Stephen Hawking. It is believed that combined with dark energy, it makes up more
than 95% of the universe. Its gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying
apart. Laws of gravity expect us to see stars closer to the center of galaxies rotating faster
than the stars on the edge.
However, in most galaxies, the stars closer to the center and the stars at the edge of the
galaxies take almost the same time to make one revolution.
The material is considered to be a ‘matter’ since it has gravitational attraction and it is ‘dark’
because it does not seem to interact with light (or any part of the electromagnetic spectrum).

Q55. The Davos Summit is associated with which of the following?

a. United Nations Development Programme
b. World Economic Forum
c. United Nations Environment Programme
d. G20 Countries
Correct Answer: b. World Economic Forum
Explanation: Recently, the Prime Minister addressed the World Economic Forum’s (WEF)
Davos Dialogue via video conferencing. The WEF annual meeting in Davos
(Switzerland) engages the world's top leaders to shape global, regional and industry agendas.
The Davos Dialogues agenda marks the launch of the WEF’s Great Reset Initiative in the
post Covid world.

Q56. Which of the following countries are the members of the Commonwealth War Graves
Commission?

1. India
2. New Zealand
3. France
4. Australia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: d. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: - CWGC is an intergovernmental organization of six member-states
(Australia, Canada, India, New Zealand, South Africa, United Kingdom) who ensure the
men and women who died in the wars will never be forgotten. It was formed in 1917 as the
Imperial War Graves Commission. However the present name was given in 1960.Its
headquarters is situated in Maidenhead, UK.

Q.57. Consider the following statements:

1. The recognised national or state parties are allowed to have 40 “star campaigners”
whereas the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have 20 “star campaigners”.
2. The travel expenses of the star campaigners from recognised parties are included in the
election expenditure of the candidates of their parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: - b. 2 only
Explanation: The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of
elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll
performance. The other parties are simply declared as registered unrecognized parties.

Q58. Which of the following acts is also known as the Saint Helena Act?
A. Regulating Act, 1773
B. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
 C. Government of India Act, 1858
D. Charter Act, 1833
Correct Answer: D. Charter Act, 1833
Explanation: The Charter Act, 1833 is also known as the Saint Helena Act 1833 or
Government of India Act 1833. Control of the island of Saint Helena was transferred from
the East India Company to the Crown.

Q.59. Consider the following statements:

1. Eastern swamp deer are found in the Kaziranga wildlife sanctuary only.
2. Eastern swamp deer are listed as endangered in IUCN Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: - d. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: - There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent.
The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) found in Nepal. Southern swamp deer/Hard
Ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) found in central and north India.
Eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga (Assam) and
Dudhwa National Parks (Uttar Pradesh).
IUCN has listed deer swamp as endangered in Red List.
Q60. Consider the following statements:

1. Srivilliputhur Megamalai is the 51st Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu.

2. The St. Petersburg Declaration is related to tiger conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C. both 1 and 2
Explanation: - Srivilliputhur Megamalai is the 51st Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu. India has
achieved the remarkable feat of doubling the tiger population in 2018 itself, 4 years ahead
of the targeted year 2022 of the St. Petersburg Declaration on tiger conservation.
Q61. Consider the following statements regarding 'India State of Forest Report-2021':

1. The forest cover in the tiger reserve has been added for the first time in 2021.
2. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country in terms of Area.
3. Panna Tiger Reserve has the highest forest cover in India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) released the India State of Forest Report-2021. It is an assessment of India’s
forest and tree cover, published every two years by the Forest Survey of India. It has for
the first time assessed forest cover in tiger reserves, tiger corridors and the Gir
forest which houses the Asiatic lion. Area-wise: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest
cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
Maharashtra.Pakke Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh has the highest forest cover, at
nearly 97%. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q62. The launch of which of the following missions can be counted as an achievement of the
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?

1. Rohini
2. Amazonia -1
3. UNITYsat

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d. 1,2 and 3

Explanation: - The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the pioneer space
exploration agency of India, headquartered at Bengaluru.The year 1980 marked the launch of
Rohini, which was the first satellite to be successfully placed in orbit by SLV-3, an Indian
made launch vehicle. The PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into
polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites
into geostationary orbits. Amazonia-1: The 53rd flight of PSLV-C51 marked the first
dedicated mission for New Space India Ltd (NSIL), the commercial arm of ISRO. UNITYsat
(three satellites): They have been deployed to provide Radio relay services. Hence, option D
is correct.

Q63. Consider the following statements:

1. National Educational Alliance for Technology (NEAT 3.0) is based on a Public-

Private Partnership model between the Government and the Education Technology (Ed-
Tech) companies of India.
2. Under the NEAT 3.0 initiative, the government plans to distribute free coupons for an
array of courses offered by ed-tech companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: - Recently, the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) has
announced a new National Educational Alliance for Technology (NEAT 3.0) to use
technology for better learning outcomes in Higher Education.
Model of NEAT Scheme: It is based on a Public-Private Partnership model between
the Government and the Education Technology (Ed-Tech) companies of India. Hence
Statement 1 is correct.
Under this, the government plans to distribute free coupons for an array of courses offered
by ed-tech companies. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Q64. Consider the following statements:

1. SafaiMitra Suraksha Challenge (SSC) is a week-long awareness campaign launched

as part of the ‘World Toilet Day’ celebrations.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A. 1 only
Explanation: - SafaiMitra Suraksha Challenge (SSC) is a week-long awareness
campaign launched as part of the ‘World Toilet Day’ celebrations, to run up to the ‘Swachh
Amrit Diwas’. It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) on
19th November 2020 on the occasion of World Toilet Day.

Q65. Consider the following statements:

1. The Collegium System was introduced in the Third Judges Case (1998).
2. The government plays no role regarding the appointment of judges in a High Court
Collegium.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: - A Collegium System is the system of appointment and transfer of judges.
The Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system, holding that
“consultation” really meant “concurrence”. Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only
through the collegium system and the government has a role only after names have been
decided by the collegium. The government is responsible for getting an inquiry conducted
by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the
Supreme Court. It can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the collegium’s
choices, but if the collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under
Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them as judges. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q66. With reference to Pochampally, consider the following statements:

1. It is referred to as the silk city of India.

2. Ikat, a unique style of weaving sarees in this village, has received the GI status.
3. The United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO) has selected it as one of
the best tourism villages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Correct Answer: C. 1,2 and 3
Explanation: Recently, Pochampally village in Telangana was selected as one of the Best
Tourism Villages by United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Hence,
statement 3 is correct. Pochampally in Nalgonda district is often referred to as the silk city of
India for the exquisite sarees that are woven through a unique style called Ikat. Hence,
statement 1 is correct. This style, Pochampally Ikat, received a Geographical Indicator (GI
Status) in 2004. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q67. With reference to Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following
statements:

1. His tenure is for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years.

2. He audits financial accounts of both the levels–the Centre and the state.
3. He can be removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same manner as a
judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements can be correct?

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D. 1,2 and 3 only
Explanation: - About CAG:Head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department - created in
1753.He is the Guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the
country at both the levels – the Centre and the state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The accountability of the executive (i.e. Council of Ministers) to the Parliament in the sphere
of financial administration is secured through audit reports of the CAG. Tenure: A period
of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Removal: CAG can be removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same
manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. He does not hold his office till the pleasure of the
President. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q68. Build Back Better World (B3W) has been recently in the news. Which of the following
statements most appropriately describes it?
a. UN-Habitat initiative for sustainable Urbanisation
b. Russia development project in Central Asia.
c. Normalisation between Israel and Gulf Countries.
d. Development Project of G7 countries.

Correct answer: - d. development project of g7 countries.

Explanation: - The Build Back Better World (B3W) is an international infrastructure
investment initiative announced by the Group of Seven (G-7) richest democracies in June
2021. The B3W initiative is being seen as the US' initiative to counter China's Belt and
Road Initiative (BRI). The Build Back Better Plan is a Covid-19 relief, future economic,
and infrastructure package proposed by G-7 countries for developing and lower-income
countries. Hence, option D is correct.

Q69. Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Lapse Policy:

1. It was an annexation policy followed widely by Lord Dalhousie.

2. Under this policy the princely state that was under the direct or indirect control of the
East India Company where the ruler did not have a legal male heir would be annexed
by the company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c. both 1 and 2
Explanation: - It was an annexation policy followed widely by Lord Dalhousie when he was
India's Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to this, any princely state that was under the direct or indirect control of the East
India Company where the ruler did not have a legal male heir would be annexed by the
company.Thus, any adopted son of the Indian ruler would not be proclaimed as heir to the
kingdom. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q70. Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has launched a new mobile app for
students and parents known as:
a. Dost for life
b. Saarthi
 c. Shikhsha
d. Padhai

Correct answer: a. Dost for Life.

Explanation: - The new app ‘Dost for Life’ is an exclusive psychological counselling app for
students and parents of CBSE-affiliated schools. The new App will simultaneously cater to
students and parents from CBSE-affiliated schools in different geographies across the world.

Q71. “ Prohibition is the act or practice of forbidding something by law; More particularly
the term refers to the banning of the manufacture, storage (whether in barrels or in bottles),
transportation, sale, possession, and consumption of alcoholic beverages”. The description
most appropriately relates to which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP)?

a. Article 46
b. Article 47
c. Article 48
d. Article 49

Correct Answer: b. Article 47

Explanation: - Article 47: The Directive Principle in the Constitution of India states that
“The state shall undertake rules to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for
medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health”.

Q72. With reference to the Good and Services Tax, consider the following statements:

1. It was introduced through the 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2016.

2. It subsumed many indirect taxes like excise duty and Value Added Tax (VAT).

Which of the above statements are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: - b. 2 only

Explanation: - GST was introduced through the 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The GST has subsumed indirect taxes like excise duty,
Value Added Tax (VAT), service tax, luxury tax etc.

Q73. Consider the following statements regarding the Bioenergy Crops:

1. Bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.
2. Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other crops are some of
the Bioenergy crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: - A new study has found that converting annual crops to perennial bioenergy
crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated. Crops from which
Biofuels are produced or manufactured are called Biofuel crops or Bioenergy Crops. “Energy
crops" is a term used to describe biofuel crops. Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils,
sugarcane, and other crops are among them.

Q74. With reference to the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the
following statements:

1. It introduced the 10% EWS (Economically Weaker Section) Quota.

2. It amended Article 15 and Article 16 of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: - The 10% EWS quota was introduced under the 103rd Constitution
(Amendment) Act, 2019 by amending Articles 15 and 16. It inserted Article 15 (6) and
Article 16 (6).

Q75. Consider the following statements:

1. The official language of the Indian Union shall be Hindi in the Brahmi script.
2. The Constitution recognizes English as the primary language of the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.

Which of the above statement/s are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: b. 2 only

Explanation: - Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that the official language of
the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script. Article 348(1)(a) states that unless
Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every
High Court shall be conducted in English.Therefore, the Constitution recognizes English as
the primary language of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, with the caveat that when
some other language is used in the proceedings of High Courts, judgments of the High Courts
must be delivered in English. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q76. Consider the following statement regarding the Sea Dragon 22 exercise:

1. It is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics.

2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: - A. 1 only

Explanation: - Recently, the US Sea Dragon 22 exercise began along with the navies of India,
Australia, Canada, Japan and South Korea in the Pacific Ocean.
Sea Dragon is a US-led multinational exercise designed to practice and discuss Anti-
submarine warfare tactics to operate together in response to traditional and non-
traditional maritime security challenges in the Indo-Pacific region. It is an annual exercise.
Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct.

Q77. Consider the following pairs:

Storm Location
1. Typhoons China Sea
2. Tornados Guinea lands
3. Willy-willies South Africa
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: - B. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: - Typhoons are a kind of storm. The storms, depending on where they occur,
may be called hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones.
 Typhoons: In the China Sea and Pacific Ocean.
 Hurricanes: In the West Indian islands in the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean.
 Tornados: In the Guinea lands of West Africa and southern USA.
 Willy-willies: In north-western Australia and
 Tropical Cyclones: In the Indian Ocean Region.
Hence, option B is correct.
Q78. Cerrado is one of the world’s largest savannas, often called an “upside-down forest” and
is a major carbon sink that helps to stave off climate change. It is located in?
a. Mexico
b. Canada
c. Brazil
d. Argentina

Correct answer: c. Brazil

Explanation: - The Cerrado is spread across several states of Brazil and is one of the world’s
largest savannas, is often called an “upside-down forest” because of the deep roots its plants
sink into the ground to survive seasonal droughts and fires. Cerrado is a major carbon
sink that helps to stave off climate change. Deforestation in 2021 rose to the highest level
since 2015 in Brazil’s Cerrado, prompting scientists to raise alarm over the state of the
world’s most species-rich savanna.

Q79. Consider the following statements:

1. The Kali River in the Kalapani region demarcates the border between India and Nepal.
2. The Kali river is a tributary of Yamuna river.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: - Kalapani is a valley that is administered by India as a part of the Pithoragarh

district of Uttarakhand. It is situated on the Kailash Mansarovar route.
The Kali River in the Kalapani region demarcates the border between India and Nepal. River
Mahakali is also known as Sharda river or Kali Ganga in Uttarakhand. It joins Ghagra river in
Uttar Pradesh, which is a tributary of Ganga. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q80. Consider the following statements:

1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides a picture of the economy from the
demand side.
2. The Gross Value Added (GVA) provides a picture of the economy from the supply
side.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: - Gross Domestic Product (GDP) maps the economy from the expenditure (or
demand) side — that is by adding up all the expenditures.
GDP = private consumption + gross investment + government investment + government
spending + (exports-imports). Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Gross Value Added
(GVA) provides a picture of the economy from the supply side. GVA maps the “value-
added” by different sectors of the economy such as agriculture, industry and services.Gross
Value Added = GDP + subsidies on products - taxes on products. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

Q81. Consider the following statement regarding the SAMVAD initiative.

1. The program is aimed at mental health outreach for children who are abandoned and
orphaned, child survivors of trafficking, or in conflict with law.
2. The initiative is funded by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
3. It is led by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: - A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation: - Recently, the ministry of Women and Child Development launched the 2 nd
phase of the SAMVAD programme. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It is led by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Science (NIMHANS). The
NIMHANS is the apex center of mental heath and neuroscience education. It operates
autonomously under the ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
It is a national initiative and integrated resource that works in child protection, mental health,
and psychosocial care of children in different circumstances.

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Vanika Initiative by Kerala Forest and
Wildlife Department in Agasthyavanam Biological Park.
1. This initiative has enabled the tribals living in the Agasthyavanam Biological Park to
sell their agriculture and forest produce online.
2. The park is named after the mesmerizing Agasthyamalai Agasthyakoodam Peak that
can be seen at a distance.
3. The park is contiguous to Shendurney and Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: - A. 1 and 2 only

 Explanation: - The Agasthyavanam Biological Park was established in 1997 near
Thiruvananthpuram, Kerala. The park has been named after the mesmerizing
Agasthyamalai Agasthyakoodam Peak that can be seen at a distance. initiative has
enabled the tribals living in the Agasthyavanam Biological Park to sell their agriculture
and forest produce online.The park is contiguous to the Neyyar and Peppara Wildlife
Sanctuaries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

Q83. Which university press has recently declared “Anxiety” as the children’s word of the
year 2021 based on recent research?
A. London University Press
B. California University Press
C. Oxford University Press
D. Philippines University Press

Correct Answer: C. Oxford University Press

Explanation: - The Oxford University Press has picked up “Anxiety” as the Children’s word
of the year 2021, based on their recent research. Apart from Anxiety(21%), Challenging
(19%), Wellbeing(13%) were the children’s top words.

Q84. With reference to the Pinaka Missile, consider the following statements:

1. It was developed by DRDO in India.

2. It is supposed to be a inter-continental missile of highest range.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: - A. 1 only
Explanation: - The development of the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket systems was started by the
DRDO in the late 1980s, as an alternative to the Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher systems of
Russian make called the ‘Grad’, which are still used by some regiments. Hence, statement 1
is correct. The existing pinaka system, which is already in the army, has a range of up to 35-
37k.
Q85. The ‘Blue Heart Campaign’, often seen in the news, is related to?
1. Global awareness raising initiative to fight human trafficking
2. Awareness about the challenge the illicit drugs poses to society
3. Campaign to support the people living with HIV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: - B. 1 only
Explanation: - Blue Heart Campaign is a global awareness raising initiative to fight human
trafficking and its impact on society. It seeks to encourage involvement from governments,
civil society, the corporate sector and individuals alike, to inspire action and help prevent this
heinous crime.

Q86. With reference to the James Webb Space Telescope, consider the following statements:

1. It is considered a successor of the Kepler Mission and will extend and complement its
discoveries.
2. It is the result of an international collaboration between NASA, the European Space
Agency (ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: - b. 2 only

Explanation: The James Webb Space Telescope will find the first galaxies that formed in the
early universe and peer through dusty clouds to see stars forming planetary systems.

Q87. Consider the following statements in context with National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD):
a. NABARD is a financial institution which promotes sustainable agriculture and rural
development in the country.
b. NABARD headquarters in located in Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a. 1 only

Explanation: NABARD-National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development headquarters

in located in Mumbai. NABARD is a financial institution that was set up by the Indian
government. The functions of NABARD include the propagation of technological
innovations, financial and non-financial solutions, and institutional development.

Q88. The National Bamboo Mission recently launched the Management Information System
is related to which of the following industries?

a. Furniture industry
b. Domestic Agarbatti Industry
c. Toothbrush Industry
d. Pharmaceutical Industry
Correct answer: b. Domestic Agarbatti Industry

Explanation: The National Bamboo Mission (NBM) has launched an MIS-based reporting
platform for agarbatti stick production to collate the locations of stick-making units,
availability of raw material, functioning of the units, production capacity, and marketing.

Q89. Consider the following statements in context with Bhimbetka Caves:

1. They are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh

2. They belong to the Palaeolithic period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka are in the foothills of the Vindhyan Mountains
on the southern edge of the central Indian plateau. Within massive sandstone outcrops, above
comparatively dense forest, are five clusters of natural rock shelters, displaying paintings that
appear to date from the Mesolithic Period right through to the historical period. The cultural
traditions of the inhabitants of the twenty-one villages adjacent to the site bear a strong
resemblance to those represented in the rock paintings.

Q90. What is India’s ranking according to the Global Skills Report 2021:

a. 50th
b. 66th
c. 67th
d. 45th

Correct answer: c. 67th

Explanation: As per the ‘Global Skills Report 2021’ released by Coursera, India has been
ranked 67th overall globally. The report reveals that, overall, India ranks 67th globally, with
38 per cent proficiency, with midrankings in each domain, 55th in business and 66th in both
technology and data science. Indian learners have high proficiency in digital skills like Cloud
Computing (83%) and Machine Learning (52%) & 54% in Mathematical skills. Improvement
is needed in digital skills because in Data Analysis and Statistical programming, ranked only
at 25% and 15% skills proficiency. But, Indians trail behind in data skills and need to focus
on that.

Q91. Which water body lies to the south of Yemen?

a. Pacific Ocean
b. Arabian Sea
c. Atlantic Ocean
d. Indian Ocean
Correct answer: b. Arabian Sea

Explanation: The history, culture, economy, and population of Yemen have all been
influenced by the country’s strategic location at the southern entrance of the Red Sea—a
crossroads of both ancient and modern trade and communications routes. In the ancient
world, the states that occupied the area known today as Yemen controlled the supply of such
important commodities as frankincense and myrrh and dominated the trade in many other
valuable items, such as the spices and aromatics of Asia.
Q92. International Yoga Day is celebrated by United Nations on:
a. 21 June
b. 3 March
c. 25 January
d. 11 December
Correct answer: a. 21 June

Explanation: United Nations celebrates International Day of Yoga globally on 21 June every
year to raise awareness worldwide of the many benefits of practising yoga. Yoga is an ancient
physical, mental and spiritual practice that originated in India. The word ‘yoga’ derives from
Sanskrit and means to join or to unite, symbolizing the union of body and consciousness.

Q93. The Harappan-era city which has become India's 40th UNESCO world heritage site is?

a. Kalibangan
b. Dholavira
c. Banawali
d. Mohanjadaro

Correct answer: b. Dholavira

Explanation: This is the second site to be included in the world heritage list this month after
the Ramappa Temple at Palampet in Telangana's Warangal.

Q94. India first National Dolphin Research Centre is located in which city?
a. Patna (Bihar)
b. Mumbai (Maharashtra)
c. Kolkata (West Bengal)
d. Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
Correct answer: a. Patna (Bihar)
Explanation: The National Dolphin Research Centre would boost conservation efforts for
river dolphins and would provide an opportunity for in-depth research on them. The much-
awaited National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC), a big step for the conservation of the
endangered Gangetic river dolphin.
Q95. Who is the current Attorney General of India?
a. K. K. Venugopal
 b. Tushar Mehta
c. Ranjit Kumar
d. Ram Nath Kovind
Correct answer: a. K. K. Venugopal
Explanation: Kottayan Katankot Venugopal (born 6 September 1931) is an Indian
constitutional lawyer and a senior advocate in the Supreme Court of India. On 1 July 2017, he
was appointed as the Attorney General of India.
Q96. Consider the following statements in context with Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary:
1. It is located in Rajasthan
2. It has been named as the fourth Tiger Reserve.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The tigers were believed to have disappeared from the sanctuary. The total area of
1,017 sq.km that has been identified as the reserve area compromising two forest blocks of
Bhilwara, territorial forest block of Bundi and Indargarh, which fall under buffer zone of
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve.
Q97. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) has how many non-permanent members?
a. 9
b. 19
c. 15
d. 10
Correct answer: d. 10
Explanation: Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United
Kingdom, and the United States, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms
by the General Assembly (with end of term year). They are: Albania, Brazil, Gabon, Ghana,
India, Ireland, Kenya, Ireland, Mexico, Norway, UAE.
Q98. Father of Modern Olympics:
a. Pierre De Coubertin
b. Michael Phelps
c. Yuzuru Hanyu
d. Katie Ledecky
Correct answer: a. Pierre De Coubertin
Explanation: Baron Pierre de Coubertin was the founder of the modern Olympic Games.
Inspired by the ancient Olympic Games held in Olympia, Greece, which ended in 393 AD,
Frenchman Pierre de Coubertin decided to pursue his project to revive the Olympic Games.
Q99. The Sahara Desert is located in?
 a. Morocco
b. Caira
c. Tunis
d. Giza
Correct answer: a. Morocco
Explanation: Morocco, mountainous country of western North Africa that lies directly across
the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain. It overlooks the Mediterranean Sea to the north and
the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and has land borders with Algeria to the east, and the disputed
territory of Western Sahara to the south.
Q100. Wang Yaping, the astronaut who became the first woman to walk in space on
November 7, 2021 belonged to which country?
a. Japan
b. China
c. Malaysia
d. USA
Correct answer: b. China
Explanation: Astronaut Wang Yaping became the first woman to walk in space after she took
part in Shenzhou-13 mission's first extravehicular activity with mission commander Zhai
Zhigang. China had launched the Shenzhou-13 spaceship on October 16, sending three
astronauts on a six-month mission to the under-construction space station which was
expected to be ready by next year.

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