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La Ex Geography Previous Year Questions

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
228 views199 pages

La Ex Geography Previous Year Questions

Uploaded by

Prasann Katiyar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Geography Previous Year

Questions

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Geography Previous Year
Questions

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Geography UPSC Previous Year Questions


INDEX
No. of Page No.
SL.No. Topic
Qns From To
I. World Geography
01. Astronomy 21 1 9
02. Geomorphology 22 9 18
03. Oceanography 12 19 25
04. Climatology 50 25 48
05. World Physical Features 66 48 72
II. Indian Geography
01. Indian Physiography 50 73 93
02. Rivers 32 93 108
03. Indian Climate 10 108 112
04. Soil 8 113 116
05. Minerals 20 116 125
06. Energy 13 125 130
07. Forest 27 131 143
08. Agriculture 36 143 161
09. Industry 11 161 166
10. Transport 18 166 172
III.Demography
01. World Demography 9 173 176
02. Language 6 176 178
03. Population 31 178 190
04. Tribes 12 190 195
Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

4. In order of their distances from the Sun,


I. World Geography
which of the following planets lie
1. Astronomy between Mars & Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
1. On 21st June, the Sun
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(a) Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic
(c) Saturn and Earth
Circle
(d) Saturn and Neptune
(b) Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic
Circle 5. What is the average distance

(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the (approximate) between the Sun & the

Equator Earth?

(d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of (a) 70 x 105 km

Capricorn (b) 100 x 105


(c) 110 x 106 km
2. What is the difference between asteroids
(d) 150 x 106 km
and comets?
1) Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while 6. (Assertion): To orbit around the Sun, the
comets are formed of frozen gases held planet Mars takes lesser time than the time
together by rocky and metallic material taken by the Earth
2) Asteroids are found mostly between the (Reason): The diameter of the planet Mars
orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are is less than that of the Earth
found mostly between Venus & Mercury (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
3) Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, explanation of A
while asteroids do not (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Which of the statements given above is/are explanation of A
correct? (c) A is true but R is false
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) A is false but R is true
(b) 1 and 3 only 7. (Assertion): The same face of the Moon is
(c) 3 only always presented to the Earth
(d) 1,2 and 3 only (Reason): The Moon rotates about its own
3. Which one of the following planets has axis in 231/2 days which is about the same
largest number of natural satellites or time that it takes to orbit the Earth
moons? (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
(a) Jupiter explanation of A
(b) Mars (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) Saturn explanation of A
(d) Venus (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

8. (Assertion): Existence of human life on 12. A “Black Hole “is a body in space which
Venus is highly improbable does not allow any radiation to come out.
(Reason): Venus has extremely high level of This property is due to its
carbon di oxide in its atmosphere (a) Very small size
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct (b) Very large size
explanation of A (c) Very high density
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (d) Very low density
explanation of A
13. At which one of the following positions
(c) A is true but R is false
shown in the diagram will the height of
(d) A is false but R is true
the ocean tide be maximum?
9. Among the following which planet takes
maximum time for one revolution around
the Sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Venus

10. Which one of the following statements is


(a) M1
correct with reference to our solar
(b) M2
system?
(c) M3
(a) The Earth is the densest of all the planets in
(d) M4
our solar system
(b) The predominant element in the 14. One Astronomical Unit is the average
composition of Earth is silicon distance between
(c) The Sun contains 75 percent of the mass of (a) Earth and the Sun
the solar system (b) Earth and the Moon
(d) The diameter of the Sun is 190 times that of (c) Jupiter and the Sun
the Earth (d) Pluto and the Sun

11. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular 15. Consider the following statements
to the horizon by an observer, he is regarding asteroids:
located on the 1) Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes
(a) Equator orbiting the Sun
(b) Tropic of Cancer 2) Most of the Asteroids are small but some
(c) South Pole have diameter as large as 1000 km
(d) North Pole

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

3) The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits 18. A person stood alone in a desert on a
of Jupiter & Saturn dark night and wanted to reach his
Which of the statements given above is/are village which was situated 5 km east of
correct? the point where he was standing. He had
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct no instruments to find the direction but
(b) 2 and 3 are correct he located the polestar. The most
(c) 1 and 2 are correct convenient way now to reach his village
(d) 1 and 3 are correct is to walk in the
(a) direction facing the polestar
16. Match List-I with List II and select the
(b) direction opposite to the polestar
correct answer using the codes given
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
below the lists:
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right
List-I (Special List-II (Name
Characteristics) of the Planet) 19. What is the approximate mean velocity
A. Smallest planet of the 1. Mercury with which the Earth moves round the
Solar System Sun in its orbit?
B. Largest planet of the 2. Venus (a) 20km/s
Solar System (b) 30km/s
C. Planet second from the 3. Jupiter (c) 40km/s
Sun in the solar system (d) 50km/s
D. Planet nearest to the Sun 4. Pluto 20. Which one of the following scholars
5. Saturn suggests the earth's origin is from gases
Codes: and dust particles?
(a) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-1 (a) James Jeans
(b) A-3; B-5; C-1; D-2 (b) H Alfven
(c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (c) F Hoyle
(d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (d) O Schmidit
17. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 21. Sun's halo is produced by the refraction
'String Theory and Standard Model' are of light in
sometimes seen in the news in the (a) Water vapour in Stratus clouds
context of (b) Ice crystals in Cirro-Cumulus clouds
(a) Observation and understanding of the (c) Ice crystals in Cirrus clouds
Universe (d) Dust particles in Stratus clouds
(b) Study of the solar and the 1lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on
the Earth

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Previous Year Questions

comets. The new asteroids are being discovered


1. Key and Explanation
continuously.
1. Key: A Comets: Comets are the most exciting heavenly
bodies and have ever been the objects of man’s
Explanation: The day 21 June is known as
summer solstice. The rays of the sun fall curiosity as well as fear. The word Comet is
vertically at the tropic of cancer (23½º N). The derived from the Greek word Aster Kometes
North Pole is inclined or tilted towards the sun. meaning ‘Long Haired Star’. They are made up
of small ice particles and meteoric fragments.
It, therefore, experiences complete light for 24
hours. The South Pole is tilted away from the They revolve around the Sun. But their orbits
sun so it is in complete darkness for 24 hours. It are irregular. Sometimes they get very close
(Perihelion) to the sun and in other times they go
is summer in the northern hemisphere and
far away (Aphelion) from the sun.
winter in the southern hemisphere. In the
Northern hemisphere, the days are longer than Educational Objective: Understanding
the nights. Asteroids and Comets.
Position of the earth on 22 December- the South 3. Key: A
Pole is inclined towards the sun and the North Explanation: Jupiter has large number of
Pole is away from it. The rays of the sun fall natural satellites, which has 67 natural
vertically at the tropic of Capricorn (23½º S). The satellites. Mars has 2 natural satellites. Saturn
greater part of the southern hemisphere gets the has 53 natural satellites. Venus and Mercury
direct rays of the sun so the days are long and don’t have any natural satellite.
the nights are short here. In the northern Educational Objective: Understanding our
hemisphere the nights are longer than the days solar system.
at this time. The southern hemisphere has
4. Key: B
summer. The northern hemisphere has winter.
Explanation: Saturn and Jupiter planets are
This day (22 December), when the sun’s rays fall
placed between Mars and Uranus. Jupiter and
vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn, is known
Saturn are 778.6 million kilometer (mkm),
as winter solstice.
1433.5mkm from Sun respectively.
Educational Objective: Understanding solstices
and equinoxes Mer- Ven- Ear Jup Sat Ura Nep
Planet Mars
Cury us th iter urn nus tune
2. Key: B
Average
Explanation: Asteroids: Asteroids are a small distanc
rocky celestial body that revolves around the e 57.9 108.2 149.6 227.9 778.6 1433.5 2872.5 4495.1
from
Sun, like other planets. They are also called the sun
‘Minor Planets’ or planetoids. There are lots of
asteroids in the solar system. These are found in Mer- Ven- Ear Jup Sat Ura Nep
Planet Mars
Cury us th iter urn nus tune
between the planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt
Natural
is known as ‘Asteroid belt’. The diameter of the Satellit 0 0 1 2 67 53 27 13
asteroids varies from100 km to a size of a e
pebble. The asteroids may be the fragments of a
planet exploded in the past or some parts of

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

The Jupiter: Jupiter is the largest planet in the one rotation on its own axis. The Earth takes
solar System. It is made primarily of gases and 365.25 days to complete one revolution around
is therefore known as ‘Giant Gas planet’. It the Sun. Earth’s surface temperature varies
takes 9 hours 55 minutes to complete one from – 88q to 58qC and it is the densest planet
rotation on its axis and it takes 11.86 years to in the solar system. The Earth is a unique planet
complete one revolution. Jupiter has the because of its distance from the sun, its
shortest day in the solar system. Jupiter has a motions, atmosphere with oxygen, presence of
faint ring system around it. They are mostly water and moderate temperature. The earth is
comprised of dust particles. Jupiter has 67 neither too close nor too far from the sun. It is
confirmed satellites orbiting the planet. the only known planet to support life. It is also
Ganymede, the satellite of Jupiter, is the largest known as the ‘Blue Planet’ because of the
natural satellite in the solar system (even bigger presence of water. Earth has only one natural
than the planet Mercury). satellite called the Moon. The sun light takes
about 8.3 minutes to reach the earth.
The Saturn: Saturn is the sixth planet from the
Educational Objective: Understanding our
sun and the second largest planet in the solar
Solar system
system. Saturn is called as the Ringed Planet. It
is because of large, beautiful and extensive ring 6. Key: D
systems that encircles the planet. These rings Explanation: To orbit around the Sun, the
are mostly made from the chunks of ice and Planet Mars takes 687 days but earth takes
carbonaceous dust. Saturn is the only planet in 365.25 days. The diameter of planet earth is
our solar system whose average density is less 6794km. Earth diameter is 12756km.
than water. The Saturn has 30 rings and Mer
Planets Venus Earth Mars Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune
53confirmed natural satellites. The Saturn takes cury
10 hours 34 minutes to complete one rotation Dia
4879 12,104 12,756 6,794 1,42,984 1,20,536 51,118 49,528
on its axis and it takes 29.4 years to complete meter(km)
one revolution around the sun Educational Objective: Understanding Solar
Educational Objective: Understanding our System
Solar system
7. Key: C
5. Key: D Explanation: The moon is located at a distance
Explanation: The average distance between of 8,84,401 km from the earth the moon revolves
Earth and Sun is 150 million kilometre around the earth. The moon takes 27 days and 7
The Earth: Earth is the third nearest planet to hours and 43 minutes for both its rotation and
the sun. It is the fifth largest planet in the solar revolution around the earth. Hence, the
system. The Earth’s orbit lies between the orbits observers on the earth can see only one side of
of Venus and Mars. It takes 23 hours 56 the moon. The moon is the fifth largest natural
minutes and 4 seconds for the earth to complete satellite in the solar system. The moon was likely

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

to be formed after a Mars sized body collided Mars, Venus takes 365.25 days, 4331days,
with Earth. There are many craters, high and 224.7days respectively.
steep mountains of different sizes which cast Educational Objective: Understanding solar
shadows on the Moon’s surface. The light which system
is reflected by the Moon will reach the Earth in
10. Key: A
just one and a quarter seconds. Since the moon
Explanation:
is smaller than the earth, it has 1/6 of the
Merc Ve Ear Mar Jupite Satur Uranu Neptu
gravitational pull of the earth. So, man weighs 6 Planets
ury nus th s r n s ne
times less on the moon than the earth.
Educational Objective: Understanding Earths Orbital
period in 88 224 365 687 4,331 10747 30,589 59,800
natural satellite-moon.
days
8. Key: A
The Sun: The Sun is at the centre of our solar
Explanation: The Venus: ‘Venus’ is the second
system. It is a yellow dwarf star, with a hot ball
nearest planet to the sun. It is also called as
of glowing gases. Its gravity holds the solar
‘Earth’s Sister’ planet due to its similar size
system together and it keeps everything from the
and mass as that of our Earth.
biggest planets to the smallest particles of debris
Its atmosphere mainly consists of carbon dioxide
in its orbit. Electric currents in the Sun generate
with clouds of sulphuric acid, and only traces
a magnetic field that is carried out through the
amounts of water. The atmosphere is heavier
solar system by the solar wind.
than that of any other planet, leading to a
surface pressure that's over 90 times that of Structure of the Sun: By mass, the Sun is
Earth — similar to the pressure that exists made up of about 70.6% hydrogen and 27.4%
helium. The Sun's enormous mass is held
3,300 feet (1,000 meters) deep in the ocean. It is
together the lower region of the solaratmosphere
also the hottest planet in the solar system and is called the chromospheres. Its name is derived
experiences a mean surface temperature of from the Greek word chroma (meaning colour),
462’C due to green house effect. for it appears bright red when viewed during a
solar eclipse. A thintransition region,
It is popularly known as “Morning star and wheretemperature risessharply, separates the
Evening star” It is seen in the east sky before chromospheres fromthe vast corona above. The
sunrise (dawn) in the morning and in the west upper mostportion of the Sun's atmosphere is
calledthe corona, and is surprisingly much
sky after the sunset (twilight).It rotates clockwise
hotterthan the Sun's surface (photosphere)
i.e. east to west direction on its own axis. theupper corona gradually turns into the
Educational objective: Understanding solar solarwind. Solar wind is a flow of plasma
thatmoves outward through our solar
system
systeminto interstellar space.
9. Key: B
The Earth: Earth is the third nearest planet to
Explanation: Jupiter takes 10,747 days to
the sun. It is the fifth largest planet in the solar
complete one revolution around sun. Earth,
system. The Earth’s orbit lies between the orbits

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

of Venus and Mars. It takes 23 hours 56 north celestial pole moves closer to the zenith as
minutes and 4 seconds for the earth to complete the observer moves towards the North and the
one rotation on its own axis. The Earth takes two coincide at the North Pole. Similarly as the
365.25 daysto complete one revolution around observer moves south, the south celestial pole
the Sun. Earth’s surface temperature varies moves closer to the zenith and the two coincide
from – 880 to 580C and it is the densest planet at the South Pole.
in the solar system. The Earth is a unique Educational Objective: Understanding
planet because of its distance from the sun, its positions of stars with respect to earth.
motions, atmosphere with oxygen, presence of
12. Key: C
water and moderate temperature. The earth is
Explanation: A black hole is an object in space
neither too close nor too far from the sun. It is
that is so dense and has such strong gravity
the only known planet to support life. It is also
that no matter or light can escape its pull.
known as the ‘BluePlanet’ because of the
Because no light can escape, it is black and
presence of water. Earth has only one natural
invisible. There’s a boundary at the edge of a
satellite called the Moon. The sun light takes
black hole called the event horizon, which is the
about 8.3minutes to reach the earth.
point of no return — any light or matter that
Educational objective: understanding Earth
crosses that boundary is sucked into the black
and Sun
hole. It would need to travel faster than the
11. Key: A speed of light to escape, which is impossible.
Explanation: The celestial equator is an Anything that crosses the event horizon is
imaginary circle that goes around the sky destined to fall to the very centre of the black
directly above the equator. All the stars rotate in hole and be squished into a single point with
a path parallel to the equator that is always 90 infinite density, called the singularity.
degrees from the North and South Poles. In Educational Objective: to understand Black
astronomy the celestial sphere refers to an holes
imaginary sphere with the Earth at the center of 13. Key: D
the sphere. Though the sky extends infinitely in Explanation: Tide is caused by the rotation of
all directions stars are assumed to lie on the the earth apart from the gravitational pull of the
surface of the celestial sphere from different sun and the moon. The rhythmic rise and fall of
locations on the surface of the Earth the the sea water due to gravitational pull of the
visibility of stars changes. The zenith refers to a moon and the sun is called a Tide. Isaac Newton
point directly above the observer, which is (1642–1727) was the first person to explain tides
defined by the line from the center of the Earth, scientifically. The rise of seawater towards the
and perpendicular to the horizon. land is known as High tide or flow tide. The fall
If the observer is at the Earth's equator, the of seawater more towards sea is known as ‘Low
celestial equator passes though the zenith. The tide water’ or ebb tide. On any day there will be

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

two high tides and two low tides. The highest Educational Objective: Solar system.
high tide occurs on full moon day and new moon
17. Key: A
day. It is known as spring tide Spring tide
Explanation: In astrophysics, an event
happens when the sun, earth and moon aligned
horizon is a boundary beyond which events
in straight line. The lowest low tide is known as
cannot affect an observer. The initial
neap tide. It happens when the sun, earth and
singularity is a gravitational
moon are positioned at right angles.
singularity predicted by general relativity to have
Educational Objective: Tides and types of tides
existed before the Big Bang and thought to have
14. Key: A contained all the mass and space-time of
Explanation: One astronomical Unit (AU) is the the Universe. string theory is a theoretical
average distance from the Sun to Earth, or framework in which the point-like
about 150 million kilometres. particles of particle physics are replaced by one-
Educational Objective: Understanding dimensional objects called strings. It describes
Astronomy how these strings propagate through space and
interact with each other. On distance scales
15. Key: C
larger than the string scale, a string looks just
Explanation: Asteroids: Asteroids are small
like an ordinary particle, with its mass, charge,
rocky celestial bodies.That revolves around the
and other properties determined by
Sun, like other planets. They are also called
the vibrational state of the string The Standard
‘Minor Planets’. There are lots of asteroids in the
Model of particle physics is the theory
solar system. Larger asteroids are called
describing three of the four known fundamental
Planetoids. These are found in between the
forces (the electromagnetic, weak,
planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt is known as
and strong interactions, and not including
‘Asteroid belt’. The diameter of the asteroids
the gravitational force) in the universe, as well as
varies from100 km to a size of a pebble. The
classifying all known elementary particles
asteroids may be the fragments of a planet
Educational Objective: Current Astronomy
exploded in the past or some parts of comets.
The new asteroids are being discovered 18. Key: C
continuously. Explanation: The pole star or Polaris is the
Educational Objective: Asteroids brightest star in the constellation of Ursa Minor
which is located in the North direction always.
16. Key: D
Explanation: Smallest planet of the solar
system is Pluto.
Largest planet of the solar system is Saturn.
Planet second from the Sun in the solar system
is Venus.
Planet nearest to the Sun is Mercury.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

 As pole star is to the north and he has to


2. Geomorphology
move to east to reach his village pole star
will lay on his left as he moves providing 1. Consider the following statements:
him correct direction to reach there. 1) The Earth's magnetic field has reversed
Educational Objective: To know about location every few hundred thousand years.
of important objects in space and their 2) When the Earth was created more than
importance for navigation and various other 4000 million years ago, there was 54%
purposes. oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3) When living organisms originated, they
19. Key: B
modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Explanation: The mean velocity of earth which
Which of the statements given above is/are
moves around the sun is calculated by
correct?
Speed of Revolution = Distance/Time =
(a) 1 only
942,000,000 km / 8766 hr = 107,000 km/hr =
(b) 2 and 3 only
30 km/sec.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Educational Objective: Planetary physics
(d) 1,2 and 3
20. Key: D
2. Which of the following phenomena might
Explanation: Schmidt suggests that the earth's
have influenced the evolution of
origin is from gases and dust particles. O.
organisms?
Schmidt in 1943 gave Inter-Stellar Dust
1) Continental drift
Hypothesis for the origin of the earth and solar
2) Glacial cycles
system.
Select the correct answer using the code
Educational Objective: formation of earth
given below.
21. Key: C (a) 1 only
Explanation: Sun’s halo is also known is also (b) 2 and 3 only
known as 22 degree halo. It is produced by the (c) Both 1 and 2
refraction of light in ice crystals in Circus clouds (d) 1, 2 and 3
within the Earth’s Atmosphere. A halo ring is a
3. On the planet earth, most of the
ring or light that forms around the Sun or Moon
freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers.
as the Sun’s or Moon’s light refracts off the ice
Out of the remaining freshwater, the
crystals present in a thin veil of cirrus clouds.
largest proportion
Educational Objective: Understanding Sun and
(a) Is found in atmosphere as moisture and
the concept of halo formation.
clouds
(b) Is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) Exists as groundwater
(d) Exists as soil moisture

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Geography UPSC
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4. Consider the following: Which of the statements given above is/ are
1. Electromagnetic radiation correct?
2. Geothermal energy (a) 1 only
3. Gravitational force (b) 2 only
4. Plate movements (c) Both 1 and 2
5. Rotation of the earth (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Revolution of the earth 7. In the structure of planet Earth, below
Which of the above are responsible for the mantle, the core is mainly made up
bringing dynamic changes on the surface of of which one of the following?
the earth? (a) Aluminium
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Chromium
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) Iron
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) Silicon
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
8. Match List I with List II and select the
5. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong correct answer using the code given
rivers originate in Tibet and flow through below the lists:
narrow and parallel mountain ranges in List-I (Geographic List-II (Country)
their upper reaches. Of these rivers,
feature)
Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its
A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia
course to flow into India. This "U" turn is
B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
due to
C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
D. Southern Alps 4. USA
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young
Codes:
Himalayas
(a) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary
(b) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
folded mountain chains
(c) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
6. Consider the following statements:
9. Consider the following statements:
1) On the planet Earth, the fresh water
1) The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and
available for use amounts to about less than
so an increase of 1 magnitude unit
1 % of the total water found.
represents a factor of 10 times in amplitude.
2) Of the total fresh water found on the planet
2) Each integer reading of the Richter scale
Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps
has energy 100 times that of the previous
and glaciers
integer reading.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the statements given above is/are 2) The formation of sedimentary rocks involves
correct? the weathering of pre-existing rocks
(a) 1 only 3) Sedimentary rocks contain fossils
(b) 2 only 4) Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of these statements are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
10. Consider the following geological
(c) 2,3 and 4
phenomena:
1) Development of a fault (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2) Movement along a fault 13. Quartzite is metamorphosed from


3) Impact produced by a volcanic eruption (a) Limestone
4) Folding of rocks (b) Obsidian
Which of the above cause earthquakes? (c) Sandstone
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Shale
(b) 2 and 4
14. Which one of the following pairs is
(c) 1, 3 and 4
correctly matched?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Geographical Feature Region
11. Consider the following statements: (a) Abyssinian Plateau Arabia
1) Most magmas are a combination of liquid, (b) Atlas Mountains North-Western
solid and gas Africa
2) Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the (c) Guiana Highlands South-Western
principal gases dissolved in a magma
Africa
3) Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic
magma (d) Okavango Basin Patagonia
4) The magma solidified between sedimentary
15. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount
rocks in a horizontal position is known as
St Helens located?
dyke
Which of these statements are correct? (a) Chile
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Japan
(b) 1 and 4 (c) Philippines
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) United States of America
(d) 1, 2 and 4 16. Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the
12. Consider the following statements made (a) Baltic Sea
about the sedimentary rocks: (b) Black Sea
1) Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth's (c) Caribbean Sea
surface by the hydrological system (d) Caspian Sea

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the 3. Maximum percentage of Earth's water is in
correct answer using the codes given the Pacific Ocean.
below the lists: Which of the statements given above is/are
List-I List II (Country) correct?
(Volcanic Mountain) (a) 1 and 2
A. Mt. Rainier 1. Italy (b) 2 and 3
B. Etna 2. Mexico (c) 1 only
C. Paricutin 3. Philippines (d) 3 only
D. Taal 4. USA 20. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. The axis of the earth's magnetic field is
a. A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 inclined at 23 to the geographic axis of the
b. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 earth.
c. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 2 The earth's magnetic pole in the northern
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in
d. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
northern Canada
18.Consider the following statements 3. Earth's magnetic equator passes through
regarding the earthquakes: Thumba in South India.
1) The intensity of earthquake is measured on Which of the statements given above is/are

Mercalli Scale correct?

2) The magnitude of an earthquake is a (a) 1,2 and 3

measure of energy release (b) 2 and 3

3) Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct (c) 2 only

measurements of the amplitude of seismic (d) 3 only

waves 21. Assertion: The weight of a body decreases


4) In the Richter Scale, each whole number with the increase latitude on earth.
demonstrates a hundred fold increase in the Reason: The earth is not a perfect sphere.
amount of energy released (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
Which of these statements are correct? explanation of A
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 explanation of A
(c) l and 4 (c) A is true but R is false
(d) 1 and 3 (d) A is false but R is true

19. Consider the following statements: 22. Assertion: The amount of moisture in the
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately atmosphere is related to latitude.
1475 lakh square kilometres. Reason: The capacity to hold moisture in
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is the form of water vapour is related to
approximately 1:4 temperature.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct may easily bring about new ones or makes some
explanation of A species go into extinction.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct Since Environmental changes act as the motor
explanation of A of evolution Glacial cycles also have influenced
(c) A is true but R is false the evolution of organisms.
(d) A is false but R is true Educational Objective: To study about the
different stages of evolution of earth and the
2. Key and Explanation
factors that were responsible for the evolution
1. Key: C 3. Key: C
Explanation: According to Scientist the Earth's Explanation: Distribution of the water on Earth
magnetic field has reversed every few hundred is as follows:
thousand years, but there is no apparent Ocean water : 97.2 percent
periodicity to the occurrence. The reversal of Glaciers and other ice : 2.15 percent
polarity is a random event. Groundwater : 0.61 percent
At the time when earth was created there was no Fresh water lakes : 0.009 percent
atmosphere. Thus statement 2 is wrong. Inland seas : 0.008 percent
Initially life might have started anaerobic Soil Moisture : 0.005 percent
respiration. later on the process of Atmosphere : 0.001 percent
photosynthesis and other process slowly Rivers : 0.0001 percent
modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. From this we can tell that among the given
Thus statement 3 is correct. options, groundwater has most of the earth’s
Educational Objective: To learn about the fresh water
interior of the earth and the processes that are Educational Objective: To learn about the
undergoing. Also have knowledge about the water table and it’s distribution on the Earth
evolution of the earth
4. Key: D
2. Key: C Explanation: Among the given forces, we know
Explanation: According to the theory of plate that plate movements obviously cause dynamic
tectonics, the tectonic plates drift around the changes as explained in Plate Tectonics
globe, either toward or away from each other. In Theory.
this process, the continents seem to "drift" Rotation and Revolution of the earth causes
around Earth from one climatic region to variation in day and night and seasons
another, over a span of millions of years. respectively.
The Continental drift has a major impact on Hence, they too change the surface of earth as
evolution of life, because of climate change that variation in seasons can cause floods or
occurs during continental drift. This process droughts.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Gravitational force causes tides which affects glaciers, and just over 30 percent is found in
coastal areas. Geothermal energy leads to hot ground water.
springs that would also change the surface of Due to climate change and increase in global
earth. Hence, option D is correct warming, the glaciers and the ice caps are
Educational Objective: To have knowledge melting at very high rate.
about the different forces existing in the interior Educational Objective: To know about the
of the earth and also exterior of the Earth. Also percentage of water on the earth. Also about the
have to learn their effects on the surface of the fresh water percentage and ocean water.And
earth also about the forms that the water takes like
river water, ocean water, glaciers, water vapor
5. Key: D
etc.
Explanation: The Indian lithospheric plate
started drifting toward the present location 200 7. Key: C
million years ago , The collision of Indian plate Explanation: Earth is divided in to multiple
with Eurasian plate resulted in series of folding, layers such as crust, Mantle and Core.
faults and upliftments, which resulted in The Earth's crust is made up of several elements
upliftment of Himalayan ranges. like oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, sodium,
The Syntaxial bent was created along the potassium, and magnesium.
Himalaya due to the impact of collision. as result Whereas the mantle under the crust is
of this bent the Brahmaputra river takes a U composed mostly of silicate rocks rich in
turn on reaching the Namcha Barwa peak and magnesium and iron.
enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a The centre of the Earth is the core , both inner
gorge. and outer core combined accounts for one third
Educational Objective: To know about the of earth mass, It is mainly composed of a nickel-
important rivers in India and their pattern of iron (85% of mixture is iron) alloy . Thus
flow. And also the physical features that they statement 3 is correct.
form while flowing. Educational Objective: To have knowledge
6. Key: A about the structure of the interior of the earth.
Explanation: Even though 71 percent of the And also about various layers and their
Earth's surface is covered by water. More than composition.
99 percent of it (Earth's water) is unusable by 8. Key: B
humans and many other living things . Only Explanation: The Great Victoria Desert is found
about 0.3 percent of our fresh water is found in in the south western region of the Australia.
the surface water of lakes, rivers and swamps The Grand Canyon is a steep-sided canyon
are useable. carved by the Colorado River in the state of
Over 68 percent of the fresh water available on Arizona, United States of America.
the Earth surface is found in icecaps and

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Lake Winnipeg is a large and shallow fresh water on the surface of the Earth directly above a
lake located in the province of Manitoba, hypocentre or focus.
Canada. Earthquakes are mainly caused by rupture of
The Southern Alps are the mountain range geological faults but also by other events such
found in New Zealand. The Southern Alps run as Impact produced by a volcanic activity,
approximately 500 km in northeast to southwest landslides, mine blasts, and nuclear tests.
direction. The tallest peak in Southern Alps is When the epicentre of an earthquake is located
Aoraki / Mount Cook, which is also the highest offshore, the displacement of seabed may result
point in New Zealand. in a tsunami.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge Educational Objective: To know about the
about the salient geographical features across causes and effects of the earth quake
the world and also in India
11. Key: A
9. Key: C Explanation: Magma is extremely hot liquid and
Explanation: Richter scale is used in semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface.
quantitative measure of an earthquake’s The magma that erupts onto the Earth's surface
magnitude. The earthquake’s magnitude is is known as lava. Like solid rock magma is also
determined using the logarithm of the amplitude a mixture of many minerals.
of the largest seismic wave calibrated to a scale The magma also contains small amounts of
by a seismograph. dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon
The each increase of 1 unit on the scale dioxide, and sulphur.
represents a 10-fold increase in the magnitude Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
of an earthquake. That is each integer reading of Basaltic magma is rich in iron, magnesium, and
the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that calcium but has very low percentage of
of the previous integer reading. potassium and sodium. The temperature of
Each increase of one unit also represents the Basaltic magma ranges from about 1000oC to
release of about 31 times more energy 1200oC.
Educational Objective: To know about the Dikes are the volcanic landforms, When the
earthquakes and the scales used to measure the magma is injected vertically as narrow walls of
earth quake magnitude. And also the difference igneous rocks within the sedimentary layer are
between Richter scale and mercalli scale termed as dykes.
Educational Objective: To know about the
10. Key: D
formation of Magma and their chemical
Explanation: An earthquake is the
composition.
vibration/shaking experienced on surface of the
Earth resulting from a sudden release of energy 12. Key: D
in the Earth's lithosphere that creates seismic Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are created
waves. In seismology the epicentre is the point from the sediments accumulated over a long

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

period of time at earth's surface by the 14. Key: B


hydrological system. Explanation: Abyssinian Plateau is a plateau in
The sedimentary rocks are usually formed in Ethiopia It is located at an elevation of 1,388
layer and are often termed as stratified rocks meters above sea level.
and these strata may vary from few centimetres Atlas Mountains are the series of mountain
to many feets. ranges in northwestern Africa, running generally
The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the southwest to northeast these mountain ranges
weathering of pre-existing rocks. separates the Mediterranean and Atlantic
The Sedimentary rocks can in any form, fine coastlines from the Sahara Desert.
grained, coarse, hard or soft. Sedimentary rocks Guiana Highlands or plateau is a region in
often contain fossils of plants, Animals and South America located north of the Amazon river
micro organisms. and south of the Orinoco River.
Educational Objective: To know about the The Okavango Basin is found in southwestern
various types of rocks and their formation. Also Africa, River Okavango is the chief stream in the
about the chemical composition of sedimentary basin, The basin extends across portions of
rocks, igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks Angola, Botswana, Namibia and Zimbabwe.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
13. Key: C
about the salient geographical features across
Explanation: Under the great temperature and
the world and also in India
pressure any rock can undergo change, such
rock are known as metamorphic rock. The 15. Key: D
character and the appearance of the Explanation: On Earth surface, A volcano is a
metamorphosed rock is greatly different from the vent or fissure in the earth's crust through
parent rock. which hot molten lava, ash and gases erupt. A
Ex: Clay can be metamorphosed in to Slate volcanic mountain is formed by the
Sandstone can be metamorphosed in to in accumulation of this eruptive pyroclastic
Quartzite. material over the years.
Lime stone can be metamorphosed in to Marble. Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano, it is
Shale can be metamorphosed in to Schist. located in Skamania County, Washington, in the
Educational Objective: To know about the Pacific Northwest region of the United States of
various types of rocks and their formation. Also America.
about the chemical composition of sedimentary A Stratovolcanoes is also called as composite
rocks, igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks volcanoes, because they are built of layers of
alternating lava flow, ash and sometimes blocks
of unmelted stone.
Educational Objective: To know about the
various hotspots of volcano on the earth crust.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Also the locations of various volcanic mountains Taal Volcano is a large caldera filled by water
and the type of volcano forming Taal Lake on the Luzon Island in the
16. Key: A Philippines
Explanation: According to the theory of plate Educational Objective: To know about the
tectonics, the earth's lithosphere is broken in to various hotspots of volcano on the earth crust.
major and minor plates. These tectonic plates Also the locations of various volcanic mountains
drift around the globe, either toward or away and the type of volcano
from each other. 18. Key: A
Volcanos usually occur at the edge of these plate Explanation: An earthquake is the
boundaries. But in case of Baltic sea, the Baltic vibration/shaking experienced on surface of the
sea does not lie at the edge of these tectonic Earth resulting from a sudden release of energy
plates but instead the basaltic rocks which in the Earth's lithosphere that creates seismic
found in Baltic sea is transported by glacier. waves.
Thus the possibility of volcanos in the Baltic Sea The intensity of earthquake is measured on
is very less. Mercalli Scale where as the magnitude of an
Educational Objective: To know about the earthquake is a measured on Richter Scale.
locations where volcanic eruptions occur and the The earthquake’s magnitude is determined using
oceans or seas they are bordering with. the logarithm of the amplitude of the largest
17. Key: B seismic wave calibrated to a scale by a
Explanation: On Earth surface, A volcano is a seismograph.
vent or fissure in the earth's crust through The each increase of 1 unit on the scale
which hot molten lava, ash and gases erupt. A represents a 10-fold increase in the magnitude
volcanic mountain is formed by the of an earthquake. That is each integer reading of
accumulation of this eruptive pyroclastic the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that
material over the years. of the previous integer reading.
Mount Rainier is a large active stratovolcano and Educational Objective: To know about the
It is the tallest mountain in Washington and the earthquakes and the scales used to measure the
Cascade, in Mount Rainier National Park, USA. earth quake magnitude. And also the difference
(A Stratovolcanoes is also called as composite between Richter scale and mercalli scale
volcanoes, because they are built of layers of 19. Key: D
alternating lava flow, ash and sometimes blocks Explanation: Total land area of earth is around
of unmelted stone) 500 million square kilometres. Statement 1 is
Ema Volcano in Italy is a active volcano. incorrect.
Whereas the Paricutin is a cinder cone volcano Ratio of land to water of Earth is 1 : 2 and not
located in the Mexico. 1: 4. Statement 2 is also incorrect.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

We know that world's largest ocean is Pacific 21. Key: D


and hence maximum percentage of water will be Explanation: Weight of a body is the force
in Pacific Ocean. Statement 3 is correct. experienced by the body due to gravity.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge W =mg
about the area of the land and water on earth. The weight of a body decreases with increase

20. Key: D in distance from the earth's surface because


weight is inversely proportional to the distance
Explanation: Magnetic dip, dip angle, or
of body from the surface of earth. The decrease
magnetic inclination is the angle made with
is not with respect to latitude. Hence, assertion
the horizontal by the Earth’s magnetic field
is false
lines.Magnetic dip at the magnetic equator is
0֯, and at the magnetic poles, it is 90֯.Hence, The earth is not a perfect sphere. We know that,

statement 1 is wrong the shape of the earth is Geoid. It is bulge at


equator and flat at poles. Hence, reason is true
Educational Objective: To learn about the
variation of weight with respect to latitude and
longitude. Also have basic knowledge about the
Earth's shape, structure etc.
22. Key: A
Explanation: The amount of moisture
(humidity) in the atmosphere decreases as we
move from equator to poles. This is because of
the temperature starts decreasing. Hence,
Statement is correct and reason is the correct
explanation of statement
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
The North Magnetic Pole (86֯ N, 172֯ W) lie to the about the interrelationship between the
north of Ellesmere temperature, latitude, humidity etc.
Island in northern Canada and is rapidly
drifting towards Siberia. It is not in the
peninsula of Canada. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect
Earth’s magnetic equator passes through
Thumba is correct.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
about the Earth’s magnetic field and related
information like the magnetic inclination,
declination, current location etc.,

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

3) The survival of some animals that have


3. Oceanography
phoplanktonic larvae will be adversely
1. Consider the following statements: affected.
1) Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical 4) The cloud seeding and formation of clouds
waters. will be adversely affected.
2) More than one-third of the world's coral Which of the statements given above is/are
reefs are located in the territories of correct?
Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. (a) 1,2 and 3 only
3) Coral reefs host far more number of animal (b) 2 only
phyla than those hosted by tropical (c) 1 and 3 only
rainforests. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize
correct?
that mangroves can serve as a reliable
(a) 1 and 2 only
safety hedge against coastal calamities.
(b) 3 only
How do mangroves function as a safety
(c) 1 and 3 only
hedge?
(d) 1,2 and 3
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human
2. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to settlements from the sea by a wide zone in
which among the following? which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and
1) Gravitational force of the Sun
medicines which people are in need of after
2) Gravitational force of the Moon any natural disaster
3) Centrifugal force of the Earth (c) The mangrove, trees are tall with dense
Select the correct answer using the code canopies and serve as an excellent shelter
given below. during a cyclone or tsunami
(a) 1 only (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by
storms and tides because of their extensive
(b) 2 and 3 only
roots
(c) 1 and 3 only
5. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1) Ocean currents are the slow-surface
3. The acidification of oceans is increasing. movement of water in the ocean
Why is this phenomenon a cause of 2) Ocean currents assist in maintaining the
concern? Earth's heat balance
1) The growth and survival of calcareous 3) Ocean current are set in motion primarily
phytoplankton will be adversely affected. by prevailing winds
2) The growth and survival of coral reefs will 4) Ocean current are affected by the
be adversely affected. configuration of the ocean

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of these statements are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2


(a) 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2,3 &4
9. The largest coral reef in the world is
(c) 1,3 & 4 found near the coast of which one of the
(d) 1,2,3 & 4 following countries?
6. Assertion: During the Neap Tides, the high (a) Australia
tide is lower and the low tide is higher than (b) Cuba
usual. (c) Ghana
Reason: The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring
(d) Philippines
Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on
the Full Moon. 10. In which one of the following oceans is
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct Diamantina Trench situated?
explanation of A (a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (b) Atlantic Ocean
explanation of A (c) Indian Ocean
(c) A is true but R is false (d) Arctic Ocean
(d) A is false but R is true
11. Match the following and select the
7. The most important fishing grounds of correct answer using the codes given
the world are found in the regions where below:
(a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet Oceanic Trench Location
(b) Rivers drain out large amounts of A. Aleutian 1. Indian Ocean
freshwater into the sea B. Kermadec 2.North Pacific Ocean
(c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet C. Sunda 3.South Pacific Ocean
(d) Continental shelf is undulating D. S Sandwich 4.SouthAtlanticOcean
8. Between India and East Asia, the Codes:
navigation-time and distance can be (a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
greatly reduced by which of the (b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
following? (c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
1) Deepening the Malacca straits between (d) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
Malaysia and Indonesia.
2) Opening a new canal across the Kra 12. In the given map, which one of the
isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and following pairs of ocean currents is
Andaman Sea. shown?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Explanation: The periodical rise and fall of the


sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the
attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a
tide.
Factors
 The moon’s gravitational pull to a great
(a) Benguela and Falkland extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s
(b) Canary and Humboldt gravitational pull, are the major causes for
(c) Agulhas and Guinea the occurrence of tides.
(d) Benguela and Guinea  Another factor is centrifugal force which
acts opposite to gravitational pull of earth.
3. Key and Explanation
 Together, the gravitational pull and the
1. Key: D centrifugal force are responsible for creating
Explanation: Corals are living animals, and are the two major tidal bulges on the earth.
in a symbiotic relation with microscopic algae Hence all the three options are correct.
called Zooxanthellae.
There are two types of corals, hard coral and soft
coral. Only hard coral build the reefs.
Most of the world's coral reefs are found in
tropical waters, Where the water is warm and
clear. Coral reef are highly sensitive to
temperature change and live within a relatively
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
narrow temperature range (20 to 25 degree).
about how tides are formed the factors that help
Coral reefs are one of the most productive
in formation of tides and also about neap tide
coastal ecosystem in the world with very high
and spring tide conditions.
biological activity. Thy host reefs host far more
number of animal phyla than those hosted by 3. Key: D

tropical rainforests. Explanation: Ocean acidification is the ongoing


decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans, caused
Some of the major reasons for coral bleaching
by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the
are- Temperature change, Solar Irradiance,
atmosphere.
Sedimentation, Variation in salinity, Subareial
exposure and Anthrogenic causes etc Effects

Educational Objective: To have comprehensive  Increasing acidity depresses metabolic rates

knowledge about the corals as they are in and immune responses in some organisms.

critically endangered category in the IUCN list  Seawater absorbs CO2 to produce carbonic
acid, bicarbonate and carbonate ions.
2. Key: D

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

 The decrease in the amount of carbonate Educational Objective: To have thorough


ions available makes it more difficult for knowledge about the mangroves. Also know its
marine calcifying organisms, such as coral utilities to mankind.
(calcareous corals) and some plankton
5. Key: D
(calcareous plankton), to form biogenic
Explanation: Ocean current is a continuous,
calcium carbonate. Hence option 1,2,3 are
directed movement of sea water generated by a
correct
number of forces acting upon the water. Only
 Ocean acidification affects the formation of
surface water is displaced and hence, statement
dimethyl sulfide (DMS) produced by
1 is correct.
phytoplankton.
Ocean currents deflect back the uneven solar
This DMS enters the atmosphere to form
radiation from the sun and hence, help in heat
aerosols which in turn help in the cloud
balance. Hence, statement 2 is correct
formation. Hence it is also adversely
The winds pull surface water with them,
affected. Hence option 4 is also correct
creating currents. Hence, statement 3 is
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
correct.
about various environmental issues like ocean
The factors that can modify the currents are
acidification, ozone depletion etc and also about
direction and shape of coastlines. Hence,
their effects on living beings.
statement 4 is also correct
4. Key: D Educational Objective: To have complete
Explanation: Mangroves reduce the height and knowledge about the ocean currents, factors
energy of wind and swell waves passing responsible for its origin and their influence on
through them, reducing their ability to erode the Earth.
sediments and to cause damage to structures
6. Key: C
such as dikes and sea walls. This is because of
Explanation: There is a seven day
their strong and intertwined roots. The roots of
interval between the spring tides and neap
mangroves are called as Stilt or prop roots.
tides. Sun and moon are at right angles to
Hence, option D is correct
each other and the forces of the sun and
Option A is incorrect for the reason that
moon tend to counteract one another. Hence,
mangroves don’t separate any zone. They are the
high tide is lower and low tide is higher than
transition between aquatic and land ecosystem
usual. Hence, assertion is correct
Option B says that mangroves provide food and
Spring tides occur twice a month, one on full
medicine after natural disaster which is
moon period and another during new moon
incorrect as mangroves always provide them.
period. This makes the reason false.
Not only after disaster
Mangroves are not tall trees. Hence, Option C
is incorrect

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Explanation: Malacca Strait, between


Indonesia and Malaysia reduces the travel time
to East Asia from India. See figure.
Kra canal is proposed to be built near isthmus
of kra. It is near Thailand. Once this canal
becomes operative, it connects Gulf of Thailand
with Andaman Sea

Educational Objective: To learn about the


tides, their formation, factors responsible for
their formation and the effects.

7. Key: C
Explanation: World’s best fishing grounds are
Educational Objective: To have thorough
found where the warm and cold oceanic currents
meet. This is for the reason that the region knowledge about the various straits in news.
provides optimal conditions for the growth of Also have complete knowledge about the South
planktons. Fishes that rely on these planktons East Asian region
breed in the region. Hence, option C is correct 9. Key: A
Warm and cold atmospheric currents have
Explanation: The builders of coral reefs are tiny
influence on the landform and has nothing to do
marine animals called Polyps. Only hard coral
with oceans. Hence, option A is wrong.
If rivers drain out large amount of freshwater, build the reefs. These corals by them self are not
the water body reduces it’s salinity and doesn’t a colourful, instead they are white these corals
influence the breeding of fishes. Hence, option are in a symbiotic relation with microscopic
B is incorrect algae called Zooxanthellae, by which these
The undulating continental shelf is not suitable
corals gets coloration.
for planktons as they rise and fall. Hence, not a
The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is the world's
good place for fish breeding. Hence, option D is
incorrect. largest coral reef system. And it is composed of
Educational Objective: To study about the over 2,900 individual reefs.
ocean currents, their meeting points and their The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is also the
effects on the adjoining areas world's biggest single structure made by living
8. Key: B

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

organisms and was selected as a World Heritage It is one of the deepest oceanic trenche of the
Site in 1981. Earth, reaching a depth of 10,047 metres. It is
Increase in Golbal warming has resulted in formed by the subduction of the Pacific Plate
increase in ocean water temperature which in under the Indo-Australian Plate
turn increased the coral bleaching. The coral Sunda Trench: The Sunda Trench, also known
bleaching in northern parts of the Great Barrier as the Java Trench is an oceanic trench located
Reef of Australia is more widespread. in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra
Educational Objective: To know about the coral South Sandwich Trench: The South Sandwich
reefs, their locations, conditions required for the Trench is a deep oceanic trench located in the
growth coral reefs South Atlantic Ocean to the east of the South
Sandwich Islands.
10. Key: C
Educational Objective: To know about the
Explanation: Deep-sea trench, also called
various oceanic features like trenches, ridges etc
oceanic trench are the deepest parts of the
and their locations.
ocean floor, relatively narrow in width, but very
long. 12. Key: D
Oceanic trenches are a distinctive feature of Explanation: Guinea Current: The Guinea
convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic Current is a warm water slow moving current
plate move towards each other and one tectonic that flows to the east along the Guinea coast of
plate subducts under another (Except West Africa. The Guinea current similar to the
continental-continental plate convergent). Equatorial Counter Current in the Indian and
Diamantina Trench is situated in south-eastern Pacific Oceans.
Indian Ocean seafloor and it’s a part of The Benguela Current: The Benguela Current is
Diamantina Fracture Zone. cold ocean current flowing from roughly Cape
Educational Objective: To know about the Point in the south to the Angola-Benguela.
trenches and the ocean that they are in. Falkland Current: Falkland Current is a cold
water current and it is a branch of the Antarctic
11. Key: B
Circumpolar Current in the Southern
Explanation: Aleutian Trench: The Aleutian
Hemisphere.
Trench also known as Aleutian Trough is an
It flows northward in the South Atlantic Ocean
deep oceanic trench in the North Pacific Ocean,
along the east coast of Argentina where it meet
along a convergent plate boundary which runs
the southward-flowing Brazil Current and get
along the southern coastline of Alaska and the
deflected eastward.
Aleutian islands.
Canary Current: The Canary Current is a wind-
Kermadec Trench: The Kermadec trench
driven, south flowing cold water current along
located in South Pacific Ocean,, it runs parallel
the North West Africa and it is part of the North
with and to the east of the Kermadec Ridge and
Atlantic Gyre.
island arc.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Agulhas Current: The Agulhas Current is the (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom
warm water carrying western boundary current occurs
of the southwest Indian Ocean. Along the (c) Coriolis force is too weak
southeast coast of Mozambique and the coast of (d) Absence of land in those regions
South Africa before turning eastward to join the
4. What explains the eastward flow of the
flow towards Australia.
equatorial counter-current?
Educational Objective: To know about all the
(a) The Earth's rotation on its axis
ocean currents and their locations/ place of
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
origin on map.
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the
4. Climatology
equator
1. Why are dewdrops not formed on a
5. The seasonal reversal of winds is the
cloudy night?
typical characteristic of
(a) the Earth's surface.
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) The Earth's surface would have low
(c) Monsoon climate
temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) All of the above climates
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground
level. 6. Variations in the length of daytime and
night-time from season to season are due
2. Each day is more or less the same, the
to
morning is clear and bright with a sea
breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, (a) The earth's rotation on its axis
heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then (b) The earth's revolution round the sun in an
rain comes with thunder and lightning. elliptical manner
But rain is soon over." Which of the (c) Latitudinal position of the place
following regions is described in the
(d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
above passage?
(a) Savannah 7. The annual range of temperature in the
(b) Equatorial interior of the continents is high as
(c) Monsoon compared to coastal areas. What is/are
(d) Mediterranean the reason/reasons?
1) Thermal difference between land and water
3. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern
2) Variation in altitude between continents and
Pacific regions in tropical latitudes,
oceans
cyclone does not originate. What is the
3) Presence of strong winds in the interior
reason?
4) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
coasts

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer using the codes 2) There is more moisture in the upper
given below. atmosphere
(a) 1 only 3) The air is less dense in the upper
(b) 1 and 2 only atmosphere
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 given below
(a) 1 only
8. During the thunderstorm, the thunder in
(b) 2 and 3 only
the skies is produced by the
(c) 1 and 3 only
1) Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky (d) 1,2 and 3
2) Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds 11. Which one of the following is the
3) Violent upward movement of air and water characteristic climate of the Tropical
particles Savannah Region?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) Rainfall throughout the year
given below. (b) Rainfall in winter, only
(a) 1 only (c) An extremely short dry season
(b) 2 and 3 (d) A definite dry and wet season

(c) 1 and 3 12. La Nina is suspected to have caused

(d) None of the above produces the thunder recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina
different from EI Nino?
9. Consider the following factors:
1) La Nina is characterised by unusually cold
1) Rotation of the Earth ocean temperature in equatorial Indian
2) Air pressure and wind Ocean whereas EI Nino is characterised by
3) Density of ocean water unusually warm ocean temperature in the
4) Revolution of the Earth equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2) EI Nino has adverse effect on south-west
Which of the above factors influence the
monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect
ocean current
on monsoon climate.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1,2 and 3 correct?
(c) 1 and 4 (a) 1 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 (b) 2 only
10. Normally, the temperature decreases with (c) Both 1 and 2
the increase in height from the Earth's (d) Neither 1 nor 2
surface, because 13. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are
1) The atmosphere can be heated upwards stronger persistent than in northern
only from the Earth’s surface. hemisphere. Why?
1) Southern hemisphere has less landmass as
compared to northern hemisphere.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

2) Coriolis force is higher in southern 16. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and
hemisphere as compared to northern smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What
hemisphere could be the appropriate explanation?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1) There are no clouds or water vapour in the
correct? lower stratosphere.
(a) 1 only 2) There are no vertical winds in the lower
(b) 2 only stratosphere.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/ are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
14. A layer in the Earth's atmosphere called
(b) 2 only
ionosphere facilitates radio
(c) Both 1 and 2
communication Why?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1) The presence of ozone causes the reflection
of radio waves to Earth, 17. A new type of El Nino called El Nino
2) Radio waves have a very long wavelength. Modoki appeared in the news. In this
Which of the statements given above is/ are context, consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) 1 only 1) Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific
(b) 2 only ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in
(c) Both 1 and 2
Eastern Pacific ocean
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Normal EI Nino results in diminished
15. What could be the main reason /reasons hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean but El
for the formation of African and Eurasian Nino Modoki results in a greater number of
desert belt? hurricanes with greater frequency
1) It is located in the sub-tropical high Which of the statements given above is/are
pressure cells. correct?
2) It is under the influence of warm ocean (a) I only
currents. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is / are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct in this context? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

18. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 21. Consider the following which can be
meters has following characteristics found in the ambient atmosphere:
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D 1) Soot
Average 2) Sulphur hexafluoride
Maximum 31 31 31 31 30 30 29 28 29 29 30 31
Temp.C 3) Water vapour
Average Which of the above contribute to the
Minimum 21 21 21 21 21 21 20 20 20 20 20 20
Temp.C warming up of the atmosphere?
Rainfall (a) 1 and 2 only
51 85 188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198 86
(mm)
(b) 3 only
If this geographic area were to have a natural
(c) 2 and 3 only
forest, which one of the following would it
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
most likely be?
(a) Moist temperate Coniferous forest 22. Consider the following statements:

(b) Montane sub-tropical forest 1) In the world, the tropical deserts occur

(c) Temperate forest along the western margins of continents


within the trade wind belt.
(d) Tropical rain forest
2) In India, the East Himalayan region gets
19. A geographic region has the following
high rainfall from north-east winds.
distinct characteristics:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1) Warm and dry climate
correct?
2) Mild and wet winter
(a) 1 only
3) Evergreen oak trees
(b) 2 only
The above features are the distinct
(c) Both 1 and 2
characteristics of which one of the following
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
regions?
(a) Mediterranean 23. Consider the following statements:

(b) Eastern China 1) The albedo of an object determines its visual


(c) Central Asia brightness when viewed with reflected light.

(d) Atlantic coast of North America 2) The albedo of Mercury is much greater than
the albedo of the Earth.
20. What causes wind to deflect toward left
Which of the statements given above is/are
in the Southern hemisphere?
correct
(a) Temperature
(a) 1 only
(b) Magnetic field
(b) 2 only
(c) Rotation of the earth
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Pressure
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

24. Consider the following statements: 27. Which one of the following statements is
1) Either of the two belts over the oceans at correct?
about 30° N to 35° N and S Latitudes is (a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
known as Horse Latitude (b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have
2) Horse latitudes are low pressure belts. the appearance of rising domes
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and
correct? form delicate patches and give a fibrous and
(a) 1 only feathery appearance
(b) 2 only (d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high
(c) Both 1 and 2 clouds
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Assertion: The thickness of the atmosphere
25. Consider the following statements: is maximum over the Equator.
1) The annual range of temperature is greater Reason: High insolation and strong
in the Pacific Ocean than that in the convection currents occur over the Equator.
Atlantic Ocean (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
2) The annual range of temperature is greater explanation of A
in the Northern Hemisphere than that in (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
the Southern explanation of A
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) A is true but R is false
correct? (d) A is false but R is true
(a) 1 only
29. Assertion: Areas lying within five to eight
(b) 2 only degrees latitude on either side of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Reason: High temperature and high
26. Assertion: Wind patterns are clockwise in humidity cause convectional rain to fall
the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise mostly in the afternoons near the equator
in the southern hemisphere. (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
Reasons: The directions of wind patterns in explanation of A
the northern and the southern hemisphere (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
are governed by the Coriolis effect. explanation of A
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct (c) A is true but R is false
explanation of A (d) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 30. Consider the following statements:
explanation of A
1) In equatorial regions, the year is divided
(c) A is true but R is false into four main seasons
(d) A is false but R is true

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

2) In Mediterranean region, summer receives witnesses heavy torrential short duration


more rain rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms?
3) In China type climate, rainfall occurs
throughout the year
4) Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation
of different climates
Which of these statements are correct? (a) A
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) B
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) C
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) D
(d) 3 and 4
34. Consider the following climatic and
31. Assertion: 60°-65° latitudes in both the geographical phenomena
hemispheres have a low pressure belt 1) Condensation
instead of high pressure. 2) High temperature and humidity
Reason: The low pressure areas are 3) Orography
permanent over oceans rather than on land. 4) Vertical wind
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct Thunder Cloud development is due to which
explanation of A of these phenomena?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (a) 1 and 2
explanation of A (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) A is true but R is false (c) 1,2 and 4
(d) A is false but R is true (d) 1,2, 3 and 4

32. Assertion: The surface winds spiral inwards 35. For short-term climatic predictions,
upon the centre of the cyclone which one of the following events, detected
Reason: Air descends in the centre of the in the last decade, is associated with
cyclone occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct sub-continent?
explanation of A (a) La Nina
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (b) Movement of Jet Streams
explanation of A (c) El Nino and Southern Oscillations
(c) A is true but R is false (d) Greenhouse effect on global level
(d) A is false but R is true

33. Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C


and D in the given figure of the cyclone,

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the (b) Monsoon region
correct answer using the codes given (c) Steppe region
below the lists. (d) N.W. European region
List-I (Local Wind) List-II (Region)
40. Consider the following climatic
A. Fohn 1. Argentina
conditions (Northern Hemisphere):
B. Samun 2. Kurdistan
Temperature Rainfall
C. Santa Ana 3. California Month
C Cm
D. Zonda 4. Alps
Jan 3.9 4.7
Codes:
Feb 4.4 5.7
(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
Mar 8.3 8.2
(b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
Apr 14.4 9.2
(c) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
(d) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 May 20.0 9.2
Jun 23.3 17.7
37. Cloudy nights are warmer compared to
Jul 27.8 14.5
clear cloudless nights, because clouds
Aug 27.8 14.0
(a) Prevent cold waves from the sky from
Sep 22.3 12.7
descending
Oct 18.3 7.0
(b) Reflect back the heat given off by earth
Nov 12.2 5.0
(c) Produce heat and radiate it towards earth
Dec 6.7 3.5
(d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere and send
it towards earth These are most likely to be found in the
natural regions of
38. Which one of the following weather
(a) China type
conditions is indicated by a sudden fall
(b) Equatorial type
in barometer reading?
(c) Hot desert type
(a) Stormy weather
(d) Monsoon type
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather 41. Consider the following temperature and
(d) Hot and sunny weather rainfall data:

39. The temperature and rainfall of a Rainfall


Month Temp C
meteorological station are given below: cm

Average temperature: 12.8° C Jan 6.7 14.0

Average Rainfall: 54.9 cm per annum Feb 6.7 13.2

Identify the region having the above climatic Mar 7.2 11.4
pattern from amongst the following Apr 8.9 9.4
(a) Mediterranean region May 11.1 8.1

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Jun 13.9 8.1 44. Along which one of the following


Jul 15.0 9.6 meridians did India experience the first
Aug 15.0 12.2 light of the sunrise of the new
Sep 13.9 10.4 millennium?
Oct 11.1 14.4 (a) 200 300W
Nov 8.9 14.0 (b) 820 300E
Dec 7.8 16.8 (c) 920 300W
The climate to which this data pertains is. (d) 920 300E
(a) St Lawrence type 45. Most of the explosions in mines occur
(b) China type due to the mixing of
(c) West European type (a) Hydrogen with oxygen
(d) Mediterranean type (b) Oxygen with acetylene
42. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty (c) Methane with air
and the people used to be nomadic (d) Carbon dioxide with ethane
herders." 46. Which one of the following reflects back
The above statements best describes which more sunlight as compared to other
of the following regions? three?
(a) African Savannah (a) Sand desert
(b) Central Asian Steppe (b) Paddy crop land
(c) North American Prairie (c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) Siberian Tundra (d) Prairie land

43. Consider the following statements about 47. A ship sailing from the eastern extremity
the 'Roaring Forties': of the Aleutian Islands to Dutch harbour
1) They blow uninterrupted in the Northern crosses 1800 meridian at 23:30 hrs on
and Southern Hemispheres January 1, 1999, What time and date will
2) They blow with great strength and be recorded by the captain of the ship in
constancy his diary after one-hour journey from the
3) Their direction is generally from North West point of crossing of the meridian?
to East in the Southern Hemisphere (a) January 1,00:30 hrs
4) Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are (b) January 2,00:30 hrs
generally associated with them (c) January 3,00:30 hrs
Which of these statements are correct? (d) January 4,00:30 hrs
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

48. Which one of the following straits is condensed into water. Clouds act as a blanket
nearest to the International Date Line? for the surface of the earth. They check the
a. Malacca Strait radiation so that the it does not radiate the heat
b. Bering Strait thoroughly. Hence, dew is not formed on cloudy
c. Strait of Florida nights. Hence, option B is correct.
d. Strait of Gibraltar

49. When there is noon at I.S.T meridian


people at another place of the earth are
taking their 6 O' clock morning tea. The
longitude of the place is:
Option A is not correct since it is given that
a. 17° 30'E
the cloud absorbs radiation from Earth’s
b. 7°30’ W
surface. When clouds absorb radiation, the
c. 172°39’E
condition favours the dew formation.
d. 90°W
Option C and D is incorrect due to the fact
50. What are the possible limitations of
that on cloudy night, the temperature is a little
India in mitigating the global warming at
higher than the clear nights, as the radiations
present and in the immediate future?
from the earth is reflected back. Hence, the
1) Appropriate alternate technologies are not
chances of wind formation is low.
sufficiently available
Educational Objective: To learn about the
2) India cannot invest huge funds in research
clouds, their formation and the weather
and development
conditions favourable for the formation of dew,
3) Many developed countries have already set
frost etc.,
up their polluting industries in India
Which of the statements given above is/ are 2. Key: B

correct? Explanation: The given description is about the

a. 1 and 2 only. equatorial region and Hence option B is

b. 2 only correct. In this region as the coriolis force is

c. 1 and 3 only nil or near zero, the atmospheric oscillations are


low and hence great uniformity in Temperature
d. 1, 2 and 3
is seen. The rainfall that occurs is because of
4. Key and Explanation convection and this related to position of ITCZ.
Option A is incorrect as Savannah region is
1. Key: B
region with alternate dry and wet seasons. Rain
Explanation: Dew is formed when objects
occurs only in summer. It has considerably less
radiate heat thoroughly, so that the moist air
annual rainfall. Days are hot and nights are
coming into contact with them may be
cold.
sufficiently cooled and the water vapour is

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Option C is incorrect for the reason that the Option D is not correct for the reason that the
monsoon climate depends on the position of the region has sufficient landmass
ITCZ along with other factors like the Educational objective: To study about the
Temperature. Annual Temperature is very low cyclones, their formation, favourable factors for
and annual rainfall is high. The rainfall is not the formation etc.,
uniform throughout the year. It occurs only in a 4. Key: B
particular season. Explanation: There are two equatorial currents
Option D is incorrect as Mediterranean climate flowing from east towards west. In-between
receives rainfall only in winter which is unique these there flows the counter equatorial current
to this. The climate is favourable for viticulture. from West towards east. The piling up of waters
Educational objective: To know about all the in the area near Brazil due to the convergence
climatic conditions along with their features, of the two equatorial currents creates the
flora and fauna. counter current. Hence option B is correct.
3. Key: B Although the rotation of Earth has a role in the
Explanation: The south Atlantic and South- flow of counter equatorial current, the main
Eastern Pacific region in Tropical latitudesgets reason for it is the convergence of 2 equatorial
few tropical cyclones are that the tropospheric currents.Hence option A is incorrect.
vertical wind shear is strong and there is Option C is not correct because the salinity
typically no ITCZ over the ocean Without ITCZ has no role to play, as the counter current is
to provide synoptic vorticity and convergence formed as a result of piling up of water.
having strong shear, it is difficult to have genesis Option D is incorrect
of tropical cyclones. Hence option B is correct. Educational Objective: To have knowledge
Though these regions have low surface about the currents all over the earth. Also to
temperature, the main reason is because of the know about their location, type(warm or cold)
high wind shear. Hence option A is incorrect. and the reason for their formation.

5. Key: C
Explanation: Monsoon climate is the only
climate that has seasonal reversal of winds.
Hence option C is correct.

Option C is in correct as Coriolis force is not


weak in the region

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Equatorial climate has no seasonal reversal of 7. Key: A


wind. Hence option A and D are incorrect Explanation: The temperature in the interiors of
Mediterranean climate doesn’t experience Continents is high when compared to the coastal
seasonal reversal of winds and this makes areas. This is for the reason that Water
option B incorrect. Maintains Temperature. Interiors of the
Educational Objective: To learn about the continent being away from the sea are out of
world climates and their features. reach of its influence. On the other hand, the
coastal areas being closer to water bodies are
6. Key: D
much influenced by them and the temperature
Explanation: Rotation of Earth results in day
fluctuations are less. Hence statement A is
and night and not the length of day and night.
correct.
Hence option A in incorrect.
Altitude has little role to play in annual range of
Revolution of the earth around the sun results
temperature in interiors and coastal areas.
in seasons and not day and night. This makes
Oceans in the higher latitude are warmer than
option B as incorrect.
the continents. The interiors too experience
much lower temperature leading to low annual
range of temperature. Hence statement 2
incorrect.
By elimination we can arrive at the answer.
Statement 3 is incorrect because winds in the
interior reduces the temperature which in turn
leads to reduction in annual range of
temperature
Heavy rain also reduces the temperature. Hence
Option C is incorrect as latitudinal position of
statement 4 is also incorrect
place has role in the intensity of the sunlight
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
received. And has no role in the variation of
about the effects of various factors like
length of day and night from season to season.
temperature, pressure, rainfall etc., in different
The correct answer is option D as the tilt of the
regions.
earth on its own axis causes the variation in the
intensity of sun's rays falling at a place over the 8. Key: D
span of a year leading to variation in day and Explanation: Thunder is the sound caused by a
night. lightning discharge. Lightning heats the air in its
Educational objective: To learn about the earth path and causes a large over-pressure of the air
movements and it’s effects within its channel. The channel expands
supersonically into the surrounding air as a
shock wave and creates an acoustic signal that

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

is heard as thunder. Hence option D is 10. Key: C


correct. Explanation: The temperature of the earth
Educational objective: To have knowledge depends on the amount of insolation received
about the events occurring in the different and the albedo of the earth. This is called the
spheres of Earth like atmosphere, lithosphere heat budget.
etc., The atmosphere is heated by infrared radiation
9. Key: B emitted by earth not by the ultraviolet radiation

Explanation: Ocean currents are like river flow of sun. Hence statement 1 is correct. As we

in oceans. They have definite path and direction. move upwards the temperature reduces at a rate

Factors influencing the ocean currents are; of 6degree per km. This is known as normal

 Winds – winds on the surface pushes the lapse rate.

water to move. And these winds are


permanent winds that blow from one
pressure belt to the other.
 Temperature - The differential heating of
the Sun at the equator and the poles causes
a difference in the temperature of ocean
water. Thereby giving rise to ocean currents. Statement 2 is incorrect as the moisture
 Earth's rotation - According to Ferrel’s content in more in lower atmosphere because of
law- Coriolis forces deflect winds and freely the warmer temperature.
moving objects to the right in the northern Statement 3 is correct as the air is less dense,
hemisphere and to the left in the southern it can hold less heat and hence temperature is
hemisphere. Therefore, the movement of low.
ocean currents in the northern hemisphere Educational Objective: To study the heat
is in the clockwise and in the southern budget and its effect. Also learn about the
hemisphere it is in the anti-clockwise temperature variations.
direction.
11. Key: D
 Other factors are salinity, density, pressure
Explanation: These places are located near the
gradient and melting of ice, precipitation.
equator, and they lie between the Southern and
From the above information it is clear that
the Northern Tropics. Climate has alternate wet
revolution of the earth does not have my
and dry seasons similar to monsoon climate but
effect on ocean currents.
has considerably less annual rainfall. Also,
Hence B is correct.
there is no distinct rainy season like in
Educational Objective: To learn about the
monsoon climate.
ocean currents and related details.
Hence option D is correct

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To have thorough communication becomes possible. It is not due


knowledge of all the climatic conditions, their to ozone as it present in Stratosphere. Hence
features, flora, fauna and related information. statement 1 is wrong
Radio waves lie in the extreme of the spectrum
12. Key: D
as shown in the figure. Hence it has long
Explanation: El Nino and LaNina are opposite of
wavelength. Statement 2 is correct for this
each other. Warm current in El Nino, cold
reason.
current in LaNina but both happen in Pacific.
Therefore answer is option B
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
As they are opposite if ElNino affects monsoons
adversely, LaNina would affect monsoon
positively. Both depends on Indian Ocean dipole.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore the answer is D
Educational Objective: To learn about
monsoons, factors affecting monsoon, El Nino,
La Nina, Indian Ocean dipole and their effects.

13. Key: A
Explanation: The southern hemisphere has less
Educational Objective: To learn about the
landmass and this helps in stronger westerlies
different layers of atmosphere and their
as there is less friction. Hence statement 1 is
characteristics. Also learn about the
correct
electromagnetic waves that are present or has
Statement 2 is incorrect as Coriolis force
effect on these layers.
depends on the latitude and not on
hemisphere. 15. Key: A

Therefore the answer is option A Explanation: Both the regions are under the
influence of cold current and not warm
Educational objective: To have knowledge a
currents. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
out the wind patterns and factors affecting
them. Also learn about the Coriolis force and its The factors facilitating desert formation are cold

effects in different latitudes currents, temperature, precipitation among


others. Sub tropical region has sufficient high
14. Key: B
temperature. Desserts are formed in regions of
Explanation: Earth's atmosphere has 4 layers
permanent high pressure areas. Hence
and all of them has unique properties helping
statement 1 is correct.
the organisms on earth.
Therefore answer is option A.
Ionosphere is a sub layer in the thermosphere
Educational Objective: To learn about the
that contains charged particles due to which
various deserts in different latitudes. Also have
electromagnetic radio waves gets reflected and

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

knowledge about the factors influencing their 150cm. This is the characteristic feature of rain
formation. forest. Hence option D is correct.
Moist Temperate Coniferous forest will have
16. Key: C
average temperature of -40 to 20 degree Celsius.
Explanation: The jet aircrafts need no
Hence option A is incorrect
disturbance in their flying that could create
Montane sub tropical forest – average
turbulence. Lower stratosphere has less air
temperature of 17-21 degree Celsius and average
turbulence and hence suitable for flying of jet
rainfall of 125cm.Hence option B is incorrect
aircrafts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Temperate forest – average temperature is 10
The temperature in lower stratosphere has a
degree Celsius and average rainfall is 75-150cm.
temperature similar to troposphere. Though the
Hence option C is incorrect.
temperature increases in stratosphere, it is
largely constant. This makes the little convection Educational Objective: To have knowledge

or the vertical wind. Hence statement 2 is also about the different climatic conditions and their

correct. features.

Therefore answer is option C 19. Key: A


Educational Objective: To have knowledge Explanation: From statement 2 it is clear that
about the layers of atmosphere, their the given climate is Mediterranean as wet
characteristics and functions. winters are characteristic feature of this
climate. Evergreen oak trees are found here.
17. Key: B
This climate is found on the western margins of
Explanation: El Nino is formed in South-
the countries in sub tropical region. Hence the
Eastern Pacific Ocean, next to South America.
answer is option A.
Here the cold Humboldt current is replaced by
Eastern China climate is characterised by warm
the warm current sourced from Australia.
moist summer and a cool, dry winter. Hence
Whereas, El Nino Modoki is formed in Central
option B is incorrect.
Pacific Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Central Asia climate is dry and continental,
Statement 2 is correct as the El Nino Modoki
with hot summers and cool to cold winters,
formed in Central Pacific causes greater number
with occasional snowfall. Hence option C is
of hurricanes.
wrong
Hence the answer is option B
Atlantic coast of North America - mild
Educational Objective: To study about the
and moderate climate because ocean water has
different phenomena like El Nino, La Nina, El
a balancing effect on temperatures. Hence
Nino Modoki and their effects.
option D is incorrect
18. Key: D Educational Objective: To have knowledge
Explanation: From the table, it can be observed about the world Climates and their features.
that the average temperature is above 20 degree
Celsius and the average rainfall is around

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

20. Key: C extremely potent greenhouse gas, and an


Explanation: Earth's rotation produces a force excellent electrical insulator.
on all bodies moving relative to the Earth. Due Water vapor is transparent, like most
to Earth's approximately spherical shape, this constituents of the atmosphere. It is less dense
force is greatest at the poles and least at the than most of the other constituents of air and
Equator. The force, called the "Coriolis effect," triggers convection currents that can lead to
causes the direction of winds and ocean clouds. Water vapor is the most
currents to be deflected. In the Northern potent greenhouse gas owing to the presence of
Hemisphere, wind and currents are deflected the hydroxyl bond which strongly absorbs in
toward the right, in the Southern Hemisphere the infra-red region of the light spectrum.
they are deflected to the left.Hence option C is Hence the answer is option D.
correct. Educational Objective: To learn about the
types of pollution, Pollutants, their sources and
effects.

22. Key: A
Explanation: Most of the deserts are on the
western sides of the continents in the subtropics
because of the prevailing easterly winds of the
tropics, which are the trade winds. The trade
winds prevail in the lower portion of the earth’s
atmosphere, in the lower section of the
troposphere.
These winds become dry when they reach the
western sides of the continents, and hence
don’t bring any rain with them. As these regions
become devoid of moisture, deserts are formed.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge Hence statement 1 is correct.
about the wind systems of the world. Eastern Himalayas receive rain from north east
monsoon predominantly and not North east
21. Key: D
winds. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation: Soot is a mass of
Therefore the answer is option A
impure carbon particles resulting from the
Educational Objective: To have complete
incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. It
knowledge about the monsoon pattern. Also the
increases air Pollution and leads to global
pattern of all types of winds and their effects are
warming. It causes cancer.
to be studied.
Sulphur hexafluoride is an inorganic, colorless,
odorless, non-flammable, non-toxic but

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

23. Key: A Statement 2 is incorrect as it seen from the


Explanation: Albedo is the fraction of the figure that it is a high pressure region.
incident sunlight that is reflected. When an Educational Objective: To learn about the
object reflects most of the light that hits it wind systems and the pressure belts of Earth
and looks bright then it has high albedo. along with the prevailing weather conditions.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
25. Key: B
The lower an object's albedo is, the better it is at
Explanation: Bigger the size of Ocean lesser is
absorbing light, which means the higher
the annual range of temperature, as water
the albedo, the less sunlight actually gets
maintains temperature. That’s why, Atlantic
absorbed. Mercury being the hottest planet in
Ocean records higher annual range of
the solar system has lower albedo than other
temperature than the Pacific Ocean because the
planets and turns out to be similar to the Moon
size of Atlantic is smaller than that of Pacific.
at 0.119. This means that earth has higher
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
albedo than Mercury. Hence statement 2 is
Statement 2 correct because northern
incorrect.
hemisphere has more landmass. As the land
Educational Objective: To study about the
heats up fast and takes longer time to cool, the
solar system, planets and the albedo of planets
annual range of temperature will be greater.
with respect to earth.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
24. Key: A about the pattern of temperature around world
Explanation: The pressure belts of the earth are over Oceans and Continents. A comparative
as shown in the figure. The latitudes from 30° to study is needed in the subject.
35° in both the hemispheres are called horse 26. Key: A
latitudes. Explanation: Due to the earth’s rotation, the air
These latitudes have diverging winds are the mass curves relative to the earth’s surface. In
result of an area of high pressure, which is the Northern Hemisphere this effect causes the
characterized by calm winds, sunny skies, and air to deflect to the right of the direction of
little or no precipitation. Hence statement 1 the air movement and in the Southern
is correct. Hemisphere the deflection of the air is to the
left of the direction of air movement. This is
called the Coriolis effect.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Therefore, the winds in the northern hemisphere 28. Key: A


has clockwise direction whereas winds in the Explanation: The atmosphere has different
southern hemisphere is anti clockwise. layers troposphere being the inner most.
Hence, the reason is the correct explanation Troposphere has different thickness at the
of the assertion. Equator and the poles. This is because of the
Educational Objective: To have knowledge strong rising convection near the equator which
about the forces generated due to earth's pushes the troposphere upwards.
rotation and their effects. The strong convection over the equator is
because of the high insolation the region
27. Key: A
receives.
Explanation: The characteristics of cirrus
Hence reason given is the correct explanation
clouds are;
of the statement.
Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes of
8,000 – 12,000m. Hence, they are high
altitudinal clouds. This makes Option D
incorrect.
Cirrus clouds are detached thin clouds. They
have a feathery appearance. They are always
white in colour.This makes option C
incorrect.
Cirrus clouds have doesn’t have proper flat base
and their appearance is feathery. Hence option
B is incorrect. (cumulusclouds have flat base Educational Objective: To study thoroughly the
layers of atmosphere and their characteristics.
Also to study about the causes and effects and
conduction, convection and radiation in the
atmosphere.
29. Key: A
Explanation: Equatorial region lies between 5°
to 10° on either side of the equator. This region
has strong rising convection because of high
with rising dome structure) insolation. This high insolation leads to hot and
Option A is correct as cirrus clouds are formed humid climate. Hence, it receives rain almost
of ice crystals that originate from the freezing of everyday. This rain is known as 4’o’ clock
super cooled water droplets. shower. Therefore it can be said that the
reason explains the given statement.
Educational Objective: To know about the
Educational Objective: To have thorough
different types of clouds and their characteristics
knowledge of the equatorial region and the
processes occurring in the region.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

30. Key: D Educational Objective: To study about all the


Explanation: The equatorial region climatic conditions of the world along with their
experiences high sun position throughout the unique features.
year and hence receives almost same amount of
31. Key: B
insolation. Season cycle is because of the tilt of
the axis and the direction and amount of Explanation: We know that the earth is divided
sunlight received. As the sun is always high, into different pressure zones. The latitudes from
there is no season cycle in the region. Hence 60°-65° in both the hemispheres are known as
statement 1 is wrong. Circum-Polar Low Pressure Belts. Low
Mediterranean region is well known for its
pressure is produced in this area because the
winter rain, a unique characteristic of it. The
surface air spreads outward from this zone due
region is dry in summer. The reason for it is the
to rotation of the earth. Hence, assertion
direction of the westerlies. Statement 2 also
stands right. Reason is not the correct
stands incorrect.
explanation for it.
By elimination we can arrive at the answer as D
The statement in reason is correct as the water
maintains temperature, the pressure developed
also lasts long which can be said to be
permanent. On the other hand on the land the
temperature keeps fluctuating and the pressure
too varies.
Therefore, both the statements are correct
independently. But, reason is not the correct
China type of climate - Rainfall is more than explanation for the assertion.
moderate, anything from 25 inches to 60 inches. Educational Objective: To learn about the
Important feature is the fairly uniform various pressure belts and their characteristics
distribution of rainfall throughout the year. including their origin.
There is rain every month, except in the 32. Key: C
interior of central China, where there is a Explanation: The cyclones are formed when the
distinct dry season. Rain comes either from surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre
convectional sources or as orographic rain in creating a low pressure. Hence assertion is
summer, or from depressions in prolonged correct.
showers in winter. Statement 3 is correct. The winds of the cyclone blow in a circular
Statement 4 is correct and can be explained manner and the flow of air is convergent.
through the figure shown. Consequently, the air rises in the central part
Hence correct answer is option D and it results in heavy rain. Hence, reason
statement is wrong

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Therefore, the answer is assertion is true but The water droplets inside the cumulus cloud
the reason is false starts growing. The growing droplets that make
Educational Objective: To study the origin, up the cloud become heavy. Raindrops start to
formation and structure of cyclones thoroughly. fall through the cloud when the rising air can no
longer hold them up. Meanwhile, cool dry air
33. Key: B
flows downward in the cloud, called a
Explanation: Cyclones have strong winds.
downdraft, pulling water downward as rain.
Accompanying these strong winds are torrential
This means condensation. Hence statement 1
rains and a devastating phenomenon known as
is correct.
the storm surge, an elevation of the sea surface
Therefore, the answer is D
that can reach 6 metres (20 feet) above normal
Educational Objective: To have knowledge
levels.
about the clouds, their formation and lifecycle
along with features.

35. Key: C
Explanation: Southern Oscillation
(SO): Normally when the tropical eastern south
Pacific Ocean experiences high pressure, the
tropical eastern Indian Ocean experiences low
pressure. But in certain years, there is a reversal
In the given figure point B lies between two in the pressure conditions and the eastern
cyclones A and D. hence point B would be Pacific has lower pressure in comparison to
accompanied by heavy torrential short duration the eastern Indian Ocean. This periodic change
rain. in pressure conditions is known as the SO.
Educational Objective: to have complete
knowledge about the cyclones including their
structure, origin, formation and effects.

34. Key: D
Explanation: Thunder clouds are formed from
the cumulus clouds. As the cumulus clouds
grows it gives rise to Thunder clouds. The
growing of cumulus cloud is facilitated by the
upward draft. Sometimes air is forced up the
side of a mountain. Air is also forced upward at
weather fronts, where warm and cool air masses
collide. Hence, orography is also important
factor for the air is to rise.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

El Nino is also a condition where the Indian Zonda is wind in Argentina. The name is the
Ocean develops high pressure as the Pacific regional term for Foehn. It descends from slopes
Ocean becomes warmer and low pressure region. of Andes. It is a dry wind.
As wind blows from high pressure region to low Educational Objective: To study the different
pressure region, there is weak monsoon in India. types of local winds, their source and
Hence, option C stands right. destination regionand their effects on the region
La Nina is a phenomenon where the Indian
37. Key: B
Ocean will have low pressure and hence the
Explanation: Clouds being made up of water
wind is sourced towards India leading to
vapouract as large blankets over the Earth's
stronger monsoon. Option A is incorrect.
surface which keep the heat trapped inside
Movement of Jetstream affects only
and let very little out. This is what keeps the
northwestern part of India. And it has no effect
temperature warmer when compare to clear
on the mosoon rains. This checks the frost in
nights. They check the radiation so that the it
winter. It facilitates winter precipitation in the
does not radiate the heat thoroughly. Hence,
region. Hence, option B is incorrect
option B is correct as clouds reflect back the
Greenhouse effect and global warming affects
heat radiated by earth.
monsoons indirectly by causing excess rains,
A cloud does not produce any heat. They reflect
floods or drought. Hence, option D stands
back the radiated heat of Earth. Hence, option
incorrect
C is incorrect.
Educational Objective: To study about the
Option D is incorrect because if clouds absorb
different phenomena and their effect on Indian
heat, dew drops should form which lowers the
sub continent.
temperature making the nights cooler. But this
36. Key: B does not happen.
Explanation: Foehn is a local wind in Europe Educational Objective: To have knowledge
near the Alps Mountains. This is favourable about the effects of radiation, convection and
wind. By this, option A and C is eliminated. conduction. Also learn how the formation of
Santa Ana is a descending wind in California. It clouds influences the atmospheric conditions.
is unfavourable for the region as it makes the 38. Key: A
region more dry.In the given options C is to be Explanation: Barometer is a device that
matched with 3. Hence, option B is correct. measures atmospheric pressure. A slow downfall
Samunis a local wind in Kurdistan. It so also in this indicates a low pressure region nearby. A
called as simoom. This blows in Egypt and small amount of rain may occur.
adjoining parts of west asia. It has no moisture A sudden fall in it indicates a storm. This is
and makes the place of destination drier. because, as the storm rises, the temperature
and hence pressure reduces suddenly. Hence
option A is correct.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Calm weather will have a slowly rising Option C is also wrong as hot desert will have
movement. This makes Option B incorrect. high range of temperature around 45°C. But, the
Cold and dry weather means barometer table shows the temperature around 25°C
indicates a high pressure i.e., rise in the reading Monsoon type of climate though has
and not fall. Therefore, option C is incorrect. temperature range of about 25° - 27° C, the
Option D is also incorrect for the fact that the rainfall is around 125cm per year. Hence,
hot and sunny weather will not have a low option D is ruled out.
pressure and the barometer doesn’t fall China type of climate - average January
suddenly. temperature is below -10 °C (14 °F), and even
Educational Objective: To learn about the below -20 °C (-4 °F) in the northern part. Cold
devices that are used for measuring atmospheric records are around -40 °C (-40 °F). The
conditions. temperature is around 25°C in July. Hence,
39. Key: A option A is correct.
Explanation: Educational Objective: To know about the
AverageRai different climatic conditions and their features
Region Average
Temp nfall like temperature, rainfall, flora and fauna.

Monsoon 27°C 125cm 41. Key: C


Steppe 21°C-23°C 25-50cm Explanation: St. Lawrence type of climate - The
North West Cool Temperate Eastern Margin climate is also
10°C-21°C 50-75cm
European
known as the Laurentian climate. It is the
Mediterranean 18° C 50-55cm
intermediate between the British and Siberian
From the table it is clear that option A is
type of climates. The climate of this type has
correct
cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers.
Educational Objective: To know about the
Summers are as warm as the tropics (~25 °C).
different climatic conditions and their features
Rainfall is around 125cm Option A is incorrect
like temperature, rainfall, flora and fauna.
based on these details
40. Key: A China type - average January temperature is
Explanation: Equatorial region has no season. below -10 °C (14 °F), and even below -20 °C (-4
It is hot and humid. The annual range of °F) in the northern part. Cold records are around
temperature is low as the rainfall is well -40 °C (-40 °F). The temperature is around 25°C
distributed throughout the region. The rainfall is in July. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
around 200 cm per year. In the given table, Mediterranean region has wet winters. Mean
rainfall and temperature both are low and annual precipitation ranges from 35 – 90 cm.
hence, option B is incorrect. Temperature of warmest month greater than or
equal to 10⁰ C. Temperature of coldest month is

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

less than 180C but greater than –30C. By this below freezing. Summers are relatively warmer.
information option D is incorrect. Precipitation is mainly in the form of snow and
West European type of climate - This climate is sleet. Human activities of the tundra are largely
characterized by cool summer and mild winters. confined to the coast. People live a semi-
Average temperature during summer season nomadic life. Hence, option D is incorrect.
ranges between 15°C and 21°C. The regional Educational Objective: To know about the
distribution of precipitation is highly controlled different climatic conditions and their features
by topographic factor. Hence, option C is like temperature, rainfall, flora and fauna.
correct.
43. Key: B
Educational Objective: To know about the
Explanation: Westerlies has different names as
different climatic conditions and their features
it crosses different latitudes. It is roaring forties
like temperature, rainfall, flora and fauna.
in 40° latitudes, furious fifties in 50° and
42. Key: B shrieking sixties in 60° latitude.
Explanation: African Savannah –extended Westerlies blow from the sub-tropical high-
periods of wet and dry climate. The savanna pressure regions to the sub-polar low-pressure
climate has a temperature range of 18° – 30° regions in both the hemispheres. They
C. Rainfall is around 100cm. As rainfall is not interrupted in between by the trade winds.
scanty and the climate is not extreme, option Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
A is not the answer. By elimination, the answer is B.
Central Asian steppe - The summers are hot and In the northern hemisphere, land masses cause
the winters are cold. Temperatures vary a lot of disruption and so the winds become
greatly in summer and winter making the weak. In the southern hemisphere, between the
climate extreme. The average rainfall may be latitudes 40° S and 60° S there is a continuous
taken as about 45 cm which is scanty. Because expanse of ocean and the Westerlies gain
of such extreme climate people followed considerable strength and persistence.
nomadic herding and are known as Kirgiz. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option B is correct. In the northern hemisphere they blow from the
North American prairie – they are also temperate south-west to the north-east and in the
grassland like the steppes. Thought the southern hemisphere they blow from the north-
temperature and rainfall is nearly same, west to the south-east. Hence, statement 3 is
nomadic herding is not practices here. People correct.
here practice mechanised farming. Hence, They bring plenty of rain most of the year
Option C is incorrect because having originated in the warmer regions
Siberian Tundra –is a polar type of climate. these winds bears plenty of moisture. Hence,
very low mean annual temperature. In mid- statement 4 is also correct.
winter temperatures are as low as 40 – 50 °C

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To have knowledge 46. Key: C


about the wind systems and their region of Explanation: Land covered with fresh snow
effectivity along with their characteristics. reflects back more sunlight as compared to other
three. Fresh snow and ice reflect 80 - 85% of
44. Key: D
the sunlight. Therefore, the skin of skiers is
Explanation: The common known phenomenon
irradiated by sunlight from all sides, since the
is that the sun rises is the east and set’s in the
snow does not take up the light but reflects it
west but actually it’s is the earth’s rotation on
and remains cold. Hence, option C is correct.
it’s own axis which is responsible for day and
Sand deserts absorb the sunlight and hence are
night on the earth. Earth rotates from west to
very hot. Hence, option A is incorrect.
east that places on the east receive the first of
sun i.e., countries to the west of 180 degree Paddy crop land and Prairies have plants over

meridian receive the first sunlight. Thus the them and plants absorb some sunlight for

92’30’ E Meridian which lies nearer to the west photosynthesis. Hence, option B and D are

of 180 degree receives the first sun light. incorrect.

Educational objective: to know about rotation Educational Objective: To know about the

and revolution and understand how they are albedo of the earth at different places.

responsible for day and night and seasons. 47. Key: C

45. Key: C Explanation: The earth is divided into 24 time

Explanation: Methane explosions occur in zone based on the longitudes with 15 degree

mines when a build up of methane gas, a by longitude at every 1 hour. And as one moves

product of coal, comes into contact with a heat from 0 degree longitude one loose time as he
moves left and gains time as the moves right
source, and there is not enough air to dilute
the gas to levels below its explosion point. respectively of 1 hour for every . At 180 degree

Hence, option C is correct. longitude or International Date Line there is


total difference of 24 hours.
Hydrogen and oxygen when combined forms
water which is not explosive. Hence, option A is Thus when one moves from west to east of

incorrect. International date line one gains 24 hours and if


he crosses it from east to west he looses 24
Oxygen with acetylene is usually used in welding
hours.
of metals. Therefore option B rules out.
Aleutian islands is situated to west of IDL and
Carbon di oxide with ethane leads to
Dutch to east thus there is movement from west
dehydrogenation of ethane forming ethylene.
to east and hence 24 hours are added and hence
Hence option D is also incorrect. as he is seeing time after 1 hour the current
Educational Objective: To learn about basic answer is option C 0:30 HOURS Jan 3
chemical reactions occurring in atmosphere. Educational Objective: To understand concept
of International Date Line and how it’s
responsible for date changes confusingly.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

48. Key: B activity such as the burning of fossil fuel and


Explanation: The International Date Line, deforestation. Climate change mitigation is the
established in 1884, passes through the mid- action to decrease the potential effects of global
Pacific Ocean and roughly follows a 180 degrees
warming. At the present time, rate of mitigation
longitude north-south line on the Earth.
is less in India because appropriate technologies
Straits of Malacca is a narrowstretch of water
between the Malay Peninsula and the are limited and costly. Moreover India doesn’t
Indonesian island of Sumatra. have huge funds required for research and
The Bering Strait is a strait of the Pacific, which development in that area. So, Statement 1 and 2
separates Russia and the United States (Alaska) are correct.
slightly south of the Arctic Circle. International
Statement 3 is wrong as setting up of polluting
Date Line passes through it. Hence B option is
industries in India by developed countries
the correct answer.
Florida Strait is a strait located south-southeast cannot be considered as a limitation of India in
of the North American mainland, between the mitigating the global warming challenge.
Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean. Educational Objective: Learning about global
Educational Objective: To know the Location of warming and India’s planning to tackle it.
International date Line and straits all over the
5. World Physical Features
world.

49. Key:D 1. Consider the following pairs:

Explanation: The IST is the Green which Sea Bordering country

meridian near London which represent 0 degree 1) Adriatic Sea Albania


longitude and Places east of it are advance in 2) Black Sea Croatia
time by 1 hour for every fifteen degree and 3) Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
similarly places west of it are back ward in time 4) Mediterranean Sea Morocco
by 1 hour for every 15 degree. Thus when it is 5) Red Sea Syria
12 pm at 0 degree meridian midway between o Which of the pairs given above are correctly
degree and 180 w is the place where it will be matched?
morning 6 am . (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Thus option D is the correct answer (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Educational Objective: To understand concept (c) 2 and 5 only
of International Date line and how it’s (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
responsible for date changes confusingly. 2. Which of the following has/have shrunk
50. Key: A immensely/dried up in the recent past
Explanation: Global warming is the increase in due to human activities?
the average temperature of Earth's near-surface 1) Aral Sea
air and oceans by increasing concentrations of 2) Black Sea
greenhouse gases, which result from human 3) Lake Baikal

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer using the code 5. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of
given below: the following countries?
(a) 1 only 1) Jordan
(b) 2 & 3 2) Iraq
(c) 2 only 3) Lebanon
(d) 1 & 3 4) Syria
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Consider the following pairs:
given below:
Town sometimes Country
(a) 1, 2 & 3 only
mentioned in news
(b) 2 & 3 only
1) Aleppo Syria
(c) 3 & 4 only
2) Kirkuk Yemen
(d) 1 ,3 & 4 only
3) Mosul Palestine
4) Mazar- i- Sharif Afghanistan 6. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly Community In the affairs of
matched? sometimes mentioned in the news
(a) 1 & 2 1) Kurd Bangladesh

(b) 1 & 4 2) Madhesi Nepal

(c) 2&3 3) Rohingya Myanmar

(d) 3 & 4 Which of the pairs given above is/are


correctly matched?
4. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2
Regions sometimes Country
(b) 2 only
mentioned in news
(c) 2 and 3
1) Catalonia Spain
(d) 3 only
2) Crimea Hungary
3) Mindanao Philippines 7. The area known as 'Golan Heights'
sometimes appears in the news in the
4) Oromia Nigeria
context of the events related to
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) Central Asia
matched?
(b) Middle East
(a) 1, 2 &3
(c) South-East Asia
(b) 3 &4 only
(d) Central Africa
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 2 & 4 only 8. Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

3) Roland Garros The Netherlands


9. What is the correct sequence of
Which of the pairs given above is/are
occurrence of the following cities in
South-East Asia as one proceeds from correctly matched?

south to north? (a) 1 only

1) Bangkok (b) 1 and 2 only

2) Hanoi (c) 2 and 3 only

3) Jakarta (d) 1, 2 and 3

4) Singapore 13. Which one of the following is the


Select the correct answer using the code country's administrative capital/new
given below federal administrative centre of
(a) 4-2-1-3 Malaysia?
(b) 3-2-4-1 (a) Kota Bharu
(c) 3-4-1-2 (b) Kuala Terengganu
(d) 4-3-2-1 (c) Putrajaya
(d) Taiping
10. Which one of the following can one
comes across if one travels through the 14. Elephant pass, which is frequently in the
news, is mentioned in the context of the
Strait of Malacca?
affairs of which one of the following?
(a) Bali
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Brunei
(b) India
(c) Java
(c) Nepal
(d) Singapore
(d) Sri Lanka
11. Consider the following regions:
15. Consider the following countries:
1) Eastern Himalayas 1) Australia
2) Eastern Mediterranean region 2) Namibia
3) North-western Australia 3) Brazil
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity 4) Chile
Hotspot(s)? Through which of the above does the Tropic
(a) 1 only of Capricorn pass?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following pairs: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Famous Place Country


1) Cannes France
2) Davos Denmark

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

16. Which one of the following pairs is not (c) 1 & 3 only
correctly matched? (d) 1, 2 & 3
City River 21. Consider the following statements:
(a) Berlin Rhine 1) Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the
(b) London Thames UAE.
(c) New York Hudson 2) Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to
(d) Vienna Danube join the UAE
17. Cape Canaveral, the site from which Which of the statements given above is/are
space shuttles are launched is located on correct?
the coast of (a) 1 only
(a) Florida
(b) 2 only
(b) Virginia
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) North Carolina
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) South Carolina
22. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
18. In which one of the following is Malta (a) Buenos Aires
located?
(b) Hawaiian Islands
(a) Baltic Sea
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(d) Valletta
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea 23. Match List I with List II and select the
19. Which of the following cities is nearest to correct answer using the code given
the equator? below the list:

(a) Colombo List-I (City) List-II (River)


(b) Jakarta A. Bangkok 1. Irrawaddy
(c) Manila B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong

(d) Singapore C. Hanoi 3. Menam (Chao


Phraya)
20. Which of the following countries share
D. Yangon 4. Red River
borders with Moldova?
Codes:
1) Ukraine
(a) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
2) Romania
(b) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
3) Belarus
(c) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

24. Through which one of the following 28. Claims to the historical Macedonian
Straits, does a tunnel connect the United territory have been a bone of contention
Kingdom and France? between which of the following
(a) Davis Strait countries?

(b) Denmark Strait (a) Portugal and Spain


(b) Bulgaria and Greece
(c) Strait of Dover
(c) Romania and Bulgaria
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
(d) Portugal and Greece
25. Other than India and China, which of the
29. Huangpu River flows through which one
following groups of countries border
of the following cities?
Myanmar?
(a) Beijing
(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
(b) Ho Chi Minh City
(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
(c) Shanghai
(c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
(d) Manila
(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh
30. Bermuda triangle extends up to which of
26. Through which one of the following
the following places?
groups of countries does the Equator
1) Southern Florida
pass?
2) Puerto Rico
(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia
3) Hawaii Islands
(b) Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia
given below:
(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia
(a) 1,2 & 3
27. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 & 2 only
1) Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than
(c) 2 & 3 only
that of a nautical mile.
2) Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East (d) 1 & 3 only
African Coast 31. Which one of the following countries
3) Greece and Albania form a part of the does not border Lithuania?
Iberian Peninsula
(a) Poland
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Ukraine
correct?
(c) Belarus
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Latvia
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 32. Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(d) 1 only (a) Mediterranean Sea
(b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) North Sea

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

America
33. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) Africa-North America-Europe-South
sequence of the given towns of Pakistan
while moving from the North towards the America

South? 37. For which one of the following countries,


(a) Islamabad Gujranwala-Peshawar-Multan is Spanish not an official language?
(b) Peshawar-Gujranwala-Multan-Islamabad (a) Chile
(c) Peshawar-Islamabad-Gujranwala-Multan (b) Colombia
(d) Islamabad-Multan-Peshawar-Gujranwala (c) Republic of Congo

34. Which one of the following pairs is not (d) Cuba

correctly matched? 38. Which one of the following pairs is not


(a) Bahamas Nassau correctly matched?
(b) Costa Rica San Jose (a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan (b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo (c) Appalachian Trail: United States of America

35. Match List-I (City) with List II (River) and (d) Rogun Dam: Tajikistan

select the correct answer using the code 39. Which one of the following cities is not a
given below the lists: former capital of the given country
List-I (City) List-II (River) (Country given in the brackets)?
A. Washington D C 1. River Manzanares (a) Karachi (Pakistan)
B. Berlin 2. River Seine (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
C. Paris 3. River Spree (c) Kyoto (Japan)
D. Madrid 4. River Potomac (d) Brisbane (Australia)
Codes:
40. Itaipu Dam built on the River Parana is
(a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
one of the largest dams in the world.
(b) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
Which of the following two countries
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
have this as a joint project?
(d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(a) Brazil and Peru
36. Which one of the following is the correct (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
sequence of the given Continents in the (c) Brazil and Paraguay
decreasing order of their percentage of (d) Colombia and Paraguay
Earth's land?
(a) NorthAmerica-Africa-South America-Europe
(b) Africa-North-America-South-America-
Europe
(c) North America-Africa-Europe-South

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

41. Which one of the following pairs is not B. Bavaria 2. UK


correctly matched? C. Gibraltar 3. Canada
Current name Old Name D. Rhode Island 4. Germany
(a) Harare Salisbury 5.Denmark
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia Codes:
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana (a) A-1; B-2; C-5; D-3
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville (b) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

42. Consider the following statements: (c) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3

1) Great Britain comprises England, Wales, (d) A-3; B-2; C-5; D-1
Scotland and Northern Ireland. 46. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country)
2) England covers less than 60% of the total and select the correct answer using the
area of the United Kingdom
codes given below the Lists:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct: List-I List-II
(a) 1 only A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
(b) 2 only B. Red Sea 2. China
(c) Both 1 and2 C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan
Codes:
43. The great Asian river Mekong does not
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
run through
(b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
(a) China
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(b) Malaysia
(d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos 47. Which one of the following does not
border Panama?
44. Latvia does not share its borders with
(a) Costa Rica
which one of the following countries?
(a) Russia (b) Pacific Ocean

(b) Estonia (c) Colombia

(c) Lithuania (d) Venezuela

(d) Poland 48. The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with


the river
45. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas
(a) Amazon
Territory) with List-II (Country) and
(b) Missouri
select the correct answer using the codes
(c) St. Lawrence
given below the lists:
(d) Zambeji
List-I List-II
A. British Colombia 1. USA

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

49. Which one of the following countries 53. Consider the following countries:
does NOT border the Caspian Sea? 1) Albania
(a) Armenia 2) Bosnia Herzegovina
(b) Azerbaijan 3) Croatia
(c) Kazakhstan 4) Macedonia
(d) Turkmenistan Which of these countries has/have Adriatic
Sea as a boundary?
50. Israel has common borders with:
(a) 1 and 2
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) 4 only
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
(d) 3 and 4
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

51. Which one of the following countries is 54. The given map shows four towns of
landlocked: Central Asian region marked as 1, 2, 3

(a) Bolivia and 4. Identify these from the following

(b) Peru list and select the correct answer using

(c) Surinam the codes given below:

(d) Uruguay A. Bishkek


B. Ashkhabad
52. In the map given below four islands of
C. Tashkent
Indian Ocean region i.e., (A) Seychelles,
D. Dushanbe
(B) Chagos, (C) Mauritius and (D) Socotra
are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Match them and select the correct answer


from the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(b) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
Codes:
(a) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

55. At which one of the cities labelled as A, (c) A is true but R is false
B, C and D on the given map of Europe (d) A is false but R is true
was the historic treaty between NATO
59. Match the drainage basins labelled as A,
and Warsaw Pact countries signed in
B, C and D with the names listed below
1998?
and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the names of the
drainage basins.
1. Ganga-Brahmaputra
2. Indus
3. Parana
4. Zambezi
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

56. Which one of the following is known as


the 'Coffee Port’ of the world?
Codes:
(a) Sao Paulo
(a) A-3; B-1;C-2; D-4
(b) Santos
(b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(c) Rio de Janerio
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) Buenos Aires
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
57. Which one of the following lakes forms as
international boundary between Tanzania 60. Which one of the following port cities in
and Uganda. Venezuela been developed as an oil port?
(a) Chad (a) Caracas
(b) Malawi (b) Maracaibo
(c) Victoria (c) Maracay
(d) Zambezi (d) Carupano

58. Assertion: In Australia, Cattle rearing is 61. Assertion: Chile continues to be an


done more for meat than for milk. important producer of copper in the world.
Reason: Australians are traditionally non- Reason: Chile is endowed with the world's
vegetarians. largest deposit of porphyry copper.
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct (a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A explanation of A

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(c) A is true but R is false 64. The physical regions marked as 1, 2, 3


(d) A is false but R is true and 4 on the given map are respectively

62. Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D


in the given map with the names of cities
and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the names of cities

(a) Andes, Brazilian Shield, Guyana Highlands


and Amazon Basin
Names of Cities (b) Andes, Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield
1. Darwin and Amazon Basin
2. Kuala Lumpur (c) Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands, Brazilian
3. Lagos Shield and Andes
4. Nairobi (d) Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield, Andes
5. Singapore and Amazon Basin
Codes: 65. Which one of the following pairs is not
(a) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 correctly matched?
(b) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (a) Solvenia Bratislava
(c) A-1;B-4; C-5; D-2 (b) Seychelles Victoria
(d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2 (c) Sierra Leone Freetown
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the (d) Uzbekistan Tashkent
correct answer using the codes given
66. Which one of the following countries of
below the lists:
South-West Asia does not open out to the
List-I (Timber) List-II (Country)
Mediterranean Sea?
A. Cedar 1. Myanmar
(a) Syria
B. Douglas Fir 2. Canada
(b) Jordan
C. Mahogany 3. Mexico
(c) Lebanon
D. Teak 4. Honduras
(d) Israel
Codes:
(a) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
5. Key and Explanation
(b) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
(c) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 1. Key: B
(d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 Explanation: The capsian Sea is a landlocked
body of water between Europe and Asia i.e., Five

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Countries Russia, Kazakhistan, Turkmenistan, Shrinking in various lakes of world: Lake


Iran, and Azerbaijan. Thus 3 is correctly Poopó – Bolivia: Lake Poopó was a large saline
matched. lake located in the Altiplano in Bolivia. Glacial
 The countries with coasts on the Adriatic melting and the diversion of the lake’s
are Albania, Bosnia tributaries contributed to its decline and now
&Herzegovina,Croatia, Italy, Montenegro a the lake is almost dry.
ndSlovenia. The southern boundary of the Dead Sea – Jordan, Israel, Palestine: The Dead
sea ends in the Strait of Otranto Sea, the lowest point on Earth, has been
betweenAlbaniaandItaly'sSalento shrinking at a rate of around one metre each
Peninsula, thus 1 is correctly matched. So year, for the last 50 years. One of the main
option b is right. reasons behind this depletion is that some of the
 The countries surrounding water sources it relied on were diverted in the
the Mediterranean in clockwise order are 1960s.
Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Aral Sea – Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan: The Aral
Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Sea has been shrinking steadily since the 1960s
Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, after its tributaries were diverted by Soviet
Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, irrigation projects. By 2007, the lake had
Algeria, and Morocco declined to 10% of its original size and had split
 Black sea is bordered by Ukraine to the into four separate lakes. The eastern basin of
north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the former South Aral Sea has now completely
the east, Turkey to the south, dried up and is called the Aralkum Desert.
and Bulgaria and Romania to the west. Poyang Lake – China: China’s largest freshwater
Educational Objective:To know about the lake has been shrinking dramatically since the
important places, around the world which start of the century. At one point, the lake
are in news due to clashes between covered 4,500 square kilometres but its surface
countries, conflict, etc has been recently recorded as low as 200 square
kilometres. The main reasons for this dramatic
2. Key: D
decrease are diversions from the Yangtze River, a
Explanation: The Aral sea in central Asia used
prolonged dry season, and industrial activities.
to be the fourth largest lake in the world after
Hulun Lake – Mongolian Plateau: The Mongolian
the Caspian sea, and Superior and Victoria. Now
Plateau has seen dramatic shrinkage of its lakes
barely 10% of it is left. While Lake Baikal has
over the last few decades, mainly due to
been crippled by a series of phenomenon like
intensive human activities and climate change.
rapid growth of putrid algae and the death of
One of the biggest lakes on the plateau, Hulun,
endemic species of sponges across its vast 3.2
has lost 291 square kilometres of surface area.
ml hectare area.
The smaller lake of Xinkai to the east of Hulun
Lake had dried out completely by 2010.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Lake Chad – Chad, Niger, Nigeria, Cameroon: independence but the voter turnout was only
Once one of Africa’s largest bodies of fresh 43%.It was alleged that Spanish National Police
water, Lake Chad is now a ghost of its former tried to stop people from voting which led to
self. According to a study by University of widespread violence. However, the referendum
Wisconsin-Madison researchers, the lake is now was declared illegal by Spain’s central
one 20th of the size it was 35 years ago. Massive government as it was marred by wide scale
irrigation projects, an increasingly dry climate, violence. The referendum has thrown the
and declining rainfall have all contributed to its country into its worst constitutional crisis.
decline.  Ukraine was one of the republics within the
Educational Objective:To know about the USSR during the cold war days, and has
important places sea which are in news due to remained a strong ally of Russia ever since,
ecological importance. till 2013. While it was planning to sing an

3. Key: B association agreement with the European

Explanation: Aleppo is in Syria, it was in news Union in 2013, Russia sternly objected to it,

due to Syrian conflict, Mazar-i-Sharif is in leading to tensions. Russia subsequently

Afganistan where 140 soldiers were killed in annexed “Crimea” (Russian speaking

terror attack, our Prime minister condemned province in Ukraine) by force and declared

this act. its sovereignty over it with people’s


support.
Kirkuk is in Iraq, which was in news due to ISIS
controlled territory.  Marawi City, is the capital and the largest

Thus option B is right. city of the province of Lanao del Sur on the

Some of important places in Syria island of Mindanao in the Philippines.


Marawi siege started in May 2017 when
Philippine government security forces began
to take on heavily armed militants linked to
the Islamic State.
Educational Objective: to know about the
important places, around the world which
are in news due to clashes between

Educational Objective:To know about the countries, conflict, etc

important places, around the world which are in 5. Key: C


news due to clashes between countries, conflict, Explanation: The countries surrounding
etc the Mediterranean in clockwise order are

4. Key: C Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia,

Explanation: Referendum was held in October Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina,

2017 in which 90% of Catalonian voted for Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria,

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, 7. Key: B


Algeria, and Morocco; Malta and Cyprus are Explanation: The Golan Heights is a rocky
island countries in the sea. plateau with an area of 1,800km² on the border
between Israel and Syria in south-western Syria.
Dispute Israel occupied the Golan Heights, West
Bank, East Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip in the
1967 Six-Day War. An armistice line was
established and the region came under Israeli
military control.
Syria tried to retake the Golan Heights during
the 1973 Middle East war. Syria was defeated in
Educational Objective:To know about the its attempt. Both countries signed an armistice
countries around the sea, bordering in 1974 and a UN observer force has been in
countries, landlocked countries etc place on the ceasefire line since 1974.
6. Key: C In 1981, Israel permanently acquired the
Explanation: The Kurds are an ethnic group territory of the Golan Heights and East
native to a mountainous region of Western Asia Jerusalem in moves never recognized by most
known as Kurdistan, which spans southeastern countries. The international community regards
Turkey, northwestern Iran, northern Iraq, and as disputed territory occupied by Israel whose
northern Syria. There are also exclaves status should be determined by negotiations
of Kurds in central Anatolia and Khorasan. between Israel and Syria. Attempts by the
international community to bring Israel and
Syria for negotiations have failed.

The Madhesi are an ethnic group of Nepal.


Rohingya people are Muslims from the Rakhine
state of Mynmar.
Educational Objective:To know about the
important places, around the world which are in
news due to clashes between countries, conflict, Educational Objective: To know about the

etc important places, around the world which are in

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

news due to clashes between countries, conflict,


etc

8. Key: B
Explanation: Turkey is located between Black
Sea and Mediterranean Sea.

Educational Objective: To know about the


countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc

11. Key: A
Explanation: Eastern Himalayas and Eastern
Educational Objective: To know about the Mediterranean region are Biodiversity hotspots.
countries around the sea, bordering countries, South west part of Australia has hotspots.
landlocked countries etc  A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic
region that is both a significant reservoir
9. Key: C of biodiversity and is threatened with
Explanation: destruction. The term biodiversity
hotspot specifically refers to 25 biologically
rich areas around the world that have lost
at least 70 percent of their original habitat.
 India shares its territories into
three biodiversity hotspots viz. Eastern
Himalaya, Western Ghats and Indo-
Burma. Biodiversity Hotspots also work as
funding regions for Conservation
International for its Critical Ecosystem
Partnership Fund (CEPF)
Educational Objective: to know about the
important places sea which are in news due to
ecological importance.

12. Key: A
Educational Objective: to know about the Explanation: Davos is in Switzerland and
important places and their direction with respect Roland Garros is in England.
north and south. Educational Objective:To know about the

10. Key: D important places, around the world which are in

Explanation: news due to clashes between countries, conflict,


etc

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

13. Key: C
Explanation: The 3 federal territories were
formed for different purposes: Kuala Lumpur is
the national capital, Putrajaya is
the administrative centre of
the federal government, and Labuan serves as
an offshore financial centre.
Educational Objective:To know about the
important places and their direction with respect
Educational Objective:To know about the
north and south.
important places and their direction with respect
14. Key: D north and south. And countries which are in the
Explanation: Elephant Pass, Northern Province, places where important latitudes passes.
Sri Lanka is located in the gateway of Jaffna
16. Key: A
Peninsula. There are about 340km north from
Explanation: Berlin is located in north eastern
capital to here. It has an important military base
Germany on the banks of the rivers spree and
and used to be the island's largest salt field. It
Havel.
has regularly been the site of battles during the
Educational Objective: To know about the
civil war.
important places and their direction with respect
Educational Objective: To know about the
north and south cities located on the banks of
important places, around the world which are in
the rivers. The countries which are in the places
news due to clashes between countries, conflict,
where important latitudes passes through.
etc
17. Key: A
15. Key: D
Explanation: Launch operations for the Apollo,
Explanation: The Tropic of Capricorn passes
Skylab and Space Shuttle programs were
through a number of countries including
carried out from
Argentina, Australia, Botswana, Brazil, Chile,
Kennedy Space Centre Launch Complex 39 and
Madagascar, Mozambique, Namibia, and
managed by KSC. Located on the east coast of
Paraguay. If you consider its starting place to be
Florida, KSC is adjacent to Cape Canaveral Air
the Prime Meridian, it first makes landfall on the
Force Station (CCAFS).
coast of Namibia.
Educational Objective:To know about the
important places and their direction with respect
north and south cities located on the banks of
the rivers. The countries which are in the places
where important latitudes passes through.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

18. Key: B Educational Objective: To know about the


Explanation: The island-state of Malta countries around the sea, bordering countries,
is located in the Mediterranean Sea, south of landlocked countries and important cannels,
Sicily (Italy), it consists of three islands: Malta, straits etc
Gozo, and Comino, of which Malta is the largest
22. Key: C
island. In its history, the Maltese archipelago
Explanation: Copacabana located in the South
was always strategically significant for the
Zone of the city of Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It is
domination of the Mediterranean.
known for its 4 km (2.5 miles) balneario beach,
Educational Objective: To know about the
which is one of the most famous in the world.
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Educational Objective: To know about the
landlocked countries and important cannels,
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
straits etc
landlocked countries and important cannels,
19. Key: D straits etc
Explanation: Some of the cities that
23. Key: A
are near the equator include Bogota, Singapore,
Explanation:
and Nairobi.
Bangkok - Menam (Chao Phraya)
Educational Objective: To know about the
Phnom - Penh -Mekong
important places and their direction with respect
Hanoi - Red River
north and south cities located on the banks of
Yangon - Irrawaddy
the rivers. The important countries, places
Educational Objective: To know about the
where important latitudes passes through.
important places and their direction with respect
20. Key: A north and south cities located on the banks of
Explanation: Located in Eastern Europe, the rivers. The important countries, places
Moldova is bordered on the west and southwest where important latitudes passes through.
by Romania and on the north, south, and east
24. Key: C
by Ukraine.
Explanation: The Channel Tunnel or Chunnel
Educational Objective: To know about the
is a 50km-long undersea rail tunnel below the
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Strait of Dover in the English Channel. It
landlocked countries and important cannels,
is one of the longest underwater tunnels in the
straits etc
world and connects Folkestone in Kent, UK,
21. Key: C with Coquelles in Pas-de-Calais, France
Explanation: Ajman is one of the seven emirates Educational Objective: To know about the
constituting the United Arab Emirates with an countries around the sea, bordering countries,
area of 260 sq kilometer. Ras al-Khaimah was landlocked countries and important cannels,
the 7th and last Sheikhdom to join UAE in 1972. straits etc

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

25. Key: D the rivers. The important countries, places


Explanation: Other than India and China where important latitudes passes through.
Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh are countries
27. Key: D
bordering Myanmar.
Explanation: In statement 1st one nautical mile
is 1852 mtrs and one terrestrial mile is 1609
metres. So, statement '1' is correct. In statement
2nd Harmattan is a dry and dusty wind of West
Africa. So, statement '2' is wrong. In statement
'3' Iberian peninsula includes Portugal, Spain,
Andorra and Gibraltar. Greece and Albania are
not a part of Peninsula. So, statement '3' is
wrong.
Educational Objective: To know about the
Educational Objective: To know about the important places and their direction with respect
countries around the sea, bordering countries, north and south. cities located on the banks of
landlocked countries and important cannels, the rivers. The important countries, places
straits etc where important latitudes passes through.

26. Key: B 28. Key: B


Explanation: The equator passes Explanation: Macedonian territory is disputed
through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, between Bulgaria & Greece.
Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of Educational Objective: To know about the
the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, important places, around the world which are in
Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, news due to clashes between countries, conflict,
Indonesia and Kiribati. etc

29. Key: C
Explanation: The Huangpu river is the largest
river in Shanghai in China. It is 113.07 km long
400 metres wide and 9 metres deep. Shanghai
gets most of its drinking water from Huangpu.

Educational Objective: To know about the


important places and their direction with respect
north and south. Cities located on the banks of

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

31. Key: B
Explanation: Lithuania is situated on the
eastern shore of the Baltic Sea and
borders Latvia on the north, Belarus on the east
and south, and Poland and the Kaliningrad
region of Russia on the southwest.

Educational Objective: To know about the


important places and their direction with respect
north and south. cities located on the banks of
the rivers. The important countries, places
where important latitudes passes through.

30. Key: B
Explanation: Bermuda Triangle is a strange and
mysterious place in the southern Atlantic Ocean.
It is roughly the shape of a triangle. The triangle
extends upto south Florida, Pruto Rico and
Bermuda Island. Educational Objective: To know about the
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc

32. Key: A
Explanation: Balearic Islands are located in
Mediterrian sea. It is an autonomous division of
Spain and the North African Coast.
Educational Objective: To know about the
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Educational Objective: To know about the landlocked countries and important cannels,
important places and their direction with respect straits etc
north and south cities located on the banks of
33. Key: C
the rivers. The important countries, places
Explanation: While moving from the north to
where important latitudes passes through.
south the correct sequence of the towns is
Peshawar, Islamabad, Gujranwala, and Multan.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

36. Key: B
Explanation:
Percent of
Area in Square Miles Total Land
Continent
(Square Km) Area on
Earth
57,308,738 Sq. Miles
The World 100%
(148,429,000 Sq. Km)
Asia (including 17,212,000 Sq. Miles
30.0%
the Middle East) (44,579,000 Sq. Km)
11,608,000 Sq. Miles
Africa 20.3%
(30,065,000 Sq. Km)
9,365,000 Sq. Miles
Educational Objective: To know about the North America 16.3%
(24,256,000 Sq. Km)
important places and their direction with respect 6,880,000 Sq. Miles
South America 12.0%
north and south. cities located on the banks of (17,819,000 Sq. Km)
the rivers. The important countries, places 5,100,000 Sq. Miles
Antarctica 8.9%
(13,209,000 Sq. Km)
where important latitudes passes through.
3,837,000 Sq. Miles
Europe 6.7%
34. Key: C (9,938,000 Sq. Km)
Explanation: Managua is the capital of Australia (plus 2,968,000 Sq. Miles
5.2%
Oceania) (7,687,000 Sq. Km)
Nicaragua, not Balmopan. Balmopan is the
capital city of Balize. 37. Key: C
Educational Objective: To know about the Explanation: The official language of the
countries around the sea, bordering countries, Republic of Congo is French. Other languages
landlocked countries and important cannels, are mainly Bantu languages, and the two
straits etc national languages in the country
are Kituba and Lingala (13%).
35. Key: D
Educational Objective: To know about
Explanation:
languages of the world.
A. Washington D C 1. River Potomac
B. Berlin 2. River Spree 38. Key: A
C. Paris 3. River Seine Explanation: Seikan Rail Tunnel is world's
D. Madrid 4. River Manzanares longest tunnel with length of 34 miles is located
Educational Objective: To know about the in Japan. Seikan railway tunnel is Japan's
countries around the sea, bordering countries, 53.85 km long tunnel beneath the Tsugaru
landlocked countries and important cannels, Strait and connects the Aomori Prefecture on
straits etc Honshu Island and the Hokkaido Island. With
its track located 140m below the seabed, the
Seikan tunnel is the world's deepest and longest
railway tunnel.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about the Ghana Gold Coast


countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Harare Salisbury
landlocked countries and important cannels,
Indonesia Dutch East Indies
straits etc
Iran Persia/Mesopotamia
39. Key: D
Istanbul Constantinople/Byzaiu
Explanation: Karachi was the capital of
Pakistan from 1947 – 1959. Kyoto was the Jakarta Batavia

capital of Japan before Tokyo. Brisbane was the Japan Nippon


capital of Australia before Cannbera in 1842 – Malaysia Malaya
1859. Myanmar Burma
Educational Objective: To know about the
Sri Lanka Ceylon
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
St Petersburg Leningrad
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc Taiwan Formosa
Thailand Siam
40. Key: C
Explanation: The project is located on Togo Togoland
the Parana River, at the border between Brazil United Arab Republic Egypt
and Paraguay. Itaipu dam with an installed Zaire Congo
capacity of 14,000MW ranks as
Zambia Northern Rhodesia
the world's second largest hydropower plant.
Zimbabwe Southern Rhodesia
Educational Objective: To know about the
countries around the sea, bordering countries, Educational Objective: To know about the
landlocked countries and important cannels, countries around the sea, bordering countries,
straits etc landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc
41. Key: C
Explanation: Ghana and Dutch Guiana are 42. Key: B
different. Explanation: The total area of United Kingdom
Some of the country’s names and their earlier is 94, 226 sq miles (244, 044 sq km), where
names England covers 50, 344 sq miles (130, 365 sq
New Names Old Names km) i.e. less than 60 % of total land area of

Bangladesh East Pakistan United Kingdom. Great Britain donot comprise


of Northern Ireland.
Beijing Peking
Educational Objective: To know about the
Cambodia Kampuchea
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Ethiopia Abyssinia andlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

43. Key: B landlocked countries and important cannels,


Explanation: It runs through Yunan province, straits etc
China, forms the border between Myanmar and
46. Key: C
Laos and most of the border between Laos and
Explanation:
Thailand and flows across Cambodia and
A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
Southern Vietnam before emptying to South
B. Red Sea 2. Eritrea
China.
C. Yellow Sea 3. China
Educational Objective: To know about the
D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
Educational Objective: To know about the
landlocked countries and important cannels,
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
straits etc
landlocked countries and important cannels,
44. Key: D straits etc
Explanation: Latvia does not share its
47. Key: D
border with Poland because it is located between
Explanation: Panama shares its land
Estonia, Russia, Belarus, Lithuania, Gulf of Riga
boundaries with two nations of Costa
and Baltic Sea.
Rica and Colombia. Eastern side Caribean sea
and west side Pacific ocean

Educational Objective: To know about the


Educational Objective: To know about the
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc
straits etc
45. Key: B
48. Key: D
Explanation: British Columbia is western most
Explanation: The waterfall 'Victoria' is
provinces of Canada, Bavaria is a state of
associated with the river Zambeji. Victoria
Germany. Gibralter is the overseas territory of
Falls, spectacular waterfall located about
UK and Rhoda Island is the smallest state in
midway along the course of the Zambezi River,
USA.
at the border between Zambia to the north and
Educational Objective: To know about the
Zimbabwe to the south.
countries around the sea, bordering countries,

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about the landlocked countries and important cannels,
countries around the sea, bordering countries, straits etc
landlocked countries and important cannels,
51. Key: A
straits etc
Explanation: Bolivia is a land locked country, in
49. Key: A South America the surrounding countries are
Explanation: The Caspian Sea is a landlocked Peru, Chile, Argentina, Brezil, and Paruguay
body of water between Europe and Asia. Five
countries
Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and
Azerbaijan border the inland sea

Educational Objective: To know about the


countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc Educational Objective: To know about the

50. Key: A countries around the sea, bordering countries,

Explanation: Israel has borders with four landlocked countries and important cannels,

neighbouring countries: Lebanon on the straits etc

north, Syria and Jordan on the east side, 52. Key: D


and Egypt on the South side. Explanation: In the given figure, four islands of
Indian ocean region are Chagos, Socotra,
Sechyells and Mouritus.
Educational Objective: To know about islands
of Indian ocean.

53. Key: B
Explanation: Bosnia, Hercegovina, Albania,
Croatia have Adriatic sea as a boundary.
Educational Objective: To know about the
Macedonia is far from Adriatic sea.
countries around the sea, bordering countries,

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about the world. Lake Victoria is one of the African
countries around the sea, bordering countries, Great Lakes.
landlocked countries and important cannels, Educational Objective: To know about the
straits etc countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
54. Key: A
straits etc
Explanation:
1. Ashkhabad 58. Key: B
2. Tashkent Explanation: Assertion is correct, but reason is
3. Bishkek not the correct explanation of assertion but the
4. Dushanbe statement is true. In Australia farmers rear
Educational Objective: To know about the cattle for meat export, and most of the
countries around the sea, bordering countries, Australian people are non-vegetarian.
landlocked countries and important cannels, Educational Objective: To know about the
straits etc countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
55. Key: C
straits etc
Explanation: In the given figure of Europe the C
marked city is Brussels, where historic treaty 59. Key: D
between NATO and warsaw pact countries was Explanation:
signed in 1998. The Ganges basin is a part of the Ganges-
Educational Objective: To know about Brahmaputra basin draining 1,086,000 square
Brussels. kilometres in Tibet, Nepal, India and
Bangladesh. To the north, the Himalaya or lower
56. Key: B
parallel ranges beyond form the Ganges-
Explanation: The Port of Santos is located in
Brahmaputra divide. On the west the Ganges
the city of Santos, state of São Paulo, Brazil. It
Basin borders the Indus basin and then the
is the busiest container port in Latin America.
Aravalli ridge.
Educational Objective: To know about the
The Indus River Basin is one of the most
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
important water systems in the world. From its
landlocked countries and important cannels,
headwaters on the Tibetan Plateau, the Indus
straits etc
River flows for 3,200 km across northern India
57. Key: C and the length of Pakistan before emptying into
Explanation: Lake Victoria acts as the Arabian Sea.The second largest river in
the international boundary between Tanzania South America, the Parana River, originates at
and Uganda. It is the largest lake in Africa and the confluence of the Grande and Paranaiba
second widest fresh water body in the rivers in South Eastern Brazil.
The Zambezi River rises in the Kalene hills in

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

north-western Zambia and flows northwards for 63. Key: B


about 30 km. It then turns west and south to Explanation: Pseudotsuga menziesii is an
run over about 280 km through Angola and evergreen conifer species in the pine family,
reenters Zambia with an annual discharge of Pinaceae. It is native to western North America
nearly 18 km3. It then flows southwards and is known as Douglas fir
through marshy plains. Mahogany is a straight-grained, reddish-brown
Educational Objective: To learn about the timber of three tropical hardwood species of the
drainage basins of the rivers. genus Swietenia, indigenous to the Americas

60. Key: B Teak is a tropical hardwood tree species placed


in the flowering plant family Lamiaceae. Some
Explanation: Maracaibo is the oil-port of
forms of teak are known as Burmese teak,
Venezuela. Maracaibo is a city in northwestern
Central Province teak as well as Nagpur teak.
Venezuela and the capital of Zulia state, known
as the center of Venezuela’s oil industry. Its old Educational Objective: To learn about the type

town is marked by colonial buildings, including of timber and the country to which timber

the colorful houses lining Calle Carabobo. belongs to.

Educational Objective: To learn about the oil 64. Key: A


port and their locations. Explanation: Andes: The Andes Mountain

61. Key: A ranges South America are the longest


continental mountain range in the world. They
Explanation: Assertion and reason both are
form a continuous highland along the western
correct and reason is correct explanation of
edge of South America.
assertion. Chile is the largest copper producer in
the world. 35% of total global production is Brazilian Shield: Brazilian Shield is a part of

produced by Chile and the major deposit is Amazonian Craton, and it is found in north

poryphyry copper. western part of South America.

Educational Objective: To learn about the Guyana Highlands: Guiana Highlands or

largest copper producer Chile and its major plateau is a region in South America located

deposit. north of the Amazon river and south of the


Orinoco River.
62. Key: A
Amazon Basin: The Amazon basin is drained by
Explanation: ‘A’ marked city in map is Darwin
the Amazon River and its tributaries. It'sdrinage
in Australia. ‘B’ marked city in the given map is
basin is located in the countries of Bolivia,
Kualalumpur in Malayasia. ‘C’ marked city in
Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru,
map is Nairobi in Kenya. The city marked ‘D’ in
Suriname and Venezuela. The basin is covered
the map is Lagos in Nigeria.
by the evergreen rainforest called Amazon
Educational Objective: To learn about the map
Rainforest, also known as Amazonia.
location of major cities in the world.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To learn about the map


locations of mountains, basin and highlands.

65. Answer: A
Explanation: Bratislava is the capital of
Slovakia hence, (a) is not correctly matched. The
capital of Slovenia is Ljublijana.
Educational Objective: To know about the
countries around the sea, bordering countries,
landlocked countries and important cannels,
straits etc.
66. Key: B
Explanation: The following countries have a
coastline on the Mediterranean Sea: Northern
shore (from west to east): Spain, France,
Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece and
Turkey. Eastern shore (from north to south):
Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel. Southern shore
(from west to east): Morocco, Algeria, Tunisia,
Libya, Egypt. Island nations: Malta, Cyprus.

Educational Objective: To learn about


countries bordering Mediterranean sea.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

II. Indian Geography (a) Bhavnagar


(b) Bheemunipatnam
1. Indian Physiography (c) Chandipur

1. Consider the following statements: (d) Nagapattinam

1) The Barren Island volcano is an active 4. Consider the following pairs:


volcano located in the Indian territory. Famous Place Region
2) Barren Island lies about 140 km east of 1) Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
Great Nicobar. 2) Khajuraho Bundelkhand
3) The last time the Barren Island volcano 3) Shirdi Vidarbha
erupted was in 1991 and it has remained 4) Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
inactive since then. 5) Tirupati Rayalaseema
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the pairs given above are correctly
correct? matched?
(a) 1 only (a) 1,2& 4
(b) 2 & 3 (b) 2,3,4& 5
(c) 3 only (c) 2 & 5 only
(d) 1 & 3 (d) 1,3,4& 5
2. Consider the following statements: 5. Consider the following pairs:
1) In India, the Himalayas are spread over five Place of Pilgrimage Location
States only 1) Srisailam Nallamala Hills
2) Western Ghats are spread over five States
2) Omkareshwar Satmala Hills
only.
3) Pushkar Mahadeo Hills
3) Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Which of the statements given above is/are
matched?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1,2& 3
(d) 1 & 3 only
6. Which one of the following pairs of
3. At one of the places in India, if you stand
Islands is separated from each other by
on the seashore and watch the sea, you
the “Ten degree channel”?
will find that the sea water recedes from
(a) Andaman & Nicobar
the shore line a few kilometres and
(b) Nicobar & Sumatra
comes back to the shore, twice a day,
(c) Maldives & Lakshadweep
and you can actually walk on the sea
(d) Sumatra & Java
floor when the water recedes. This
unique phenomenon is seen at

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

7. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 only


Hills Region (b) 1 & 3 only
1) Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast (c) 2 & 3 only
2) Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast (d) 1,2& 3
3) Mahadeo Hills Central India 10. The latitudes that pas through Sikkim
4) Mikir Hills North-East India also pass through
Which of the above pairs are correctly (a) Rajasthan
matched? (b) Punjab
(a) 1 & 2 (c) Himachal Pradesh
(b) 2 & 3 (d) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) 3&4
11. In India which one of the following states
(d) 2 & 4
has the largest inland saline wetland?
8. A state in India has the following (a) Gujarat
characteristics: (b) Haryana
1) Its northern part is arid and semi-arid. (c) Madhya Pradesh
2) Its central part produces cotton. (d) Rajasthan
3) Cultivation of cash crops is predominant
12. Which of the following Hills are found
over food crops
where the Eastern Ghats & the Western
Which one of the following states has all of Ghats meet?
the above characteristics? (a) Anaimalai Hills
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Cardamom Hills
(b) Gujarat (c) Nilgiri Hills
(c) Karnataka (d) Shevoroy Hills
(d) Tamil Nadu
13. Which of the following pairs are correctly
9. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what matched?
would have been the most likely Waterfalls River
geographical impact on India? 1) Kapildhara Falls Godavari
1) Much of the country would experience the 2) Jog Falls Sharavati
cold waves from Siberia 3) Sivasamudram Falls Cauvery
2) Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such Select the correct answer using the code
extensive alluvial soils given below
3) The pattern of monsoon would be different Codes:
from what it is at present (a) 1 & 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/ are (b) 2 & 3 only
correct? (c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1,2& 3

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Nallamalai Hills
14. In India, how many states share the
coast line? (c) Nallamalai Hills-Javadi Hills- Nilgiri Hills
(a) 7 Anaimalai Hills
(b) 8 (d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills
(c) 9 Nallamalai Hills
(d) 10 19. Which one of the following statement is

15. Where are Shevaroy Hills located? not correct?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in
their northern region
(b) Karnataka
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the
(c) Kerala
Western Ghats
(d) Tamil Nadu (c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
16. In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak (d) The Narmada & the Tapi river valleys are

located? said to be old rift valleys.

(a) Rajasthan 20. Consider the following:


(b) Gujarat 1) Mahadeo Hills
(c) Madhya Pradesh 2) Sahyadri Parvat
(d) Maharashtra 3) Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above
17. Match List-I (Valley) with List-II (State)
from the north to the south?
and select the correct answer using the
(a) 1-2-3
code given below the lists:
(b) 2-1-3
List-I List-II (State)
(c) 1-3-2
A. Markha Valley 1. Sikkim
B. Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal Pradesh (d) 2-3-1
C. Sangla Valley 3. Jammu & Kashmir 21. Which one of the following statements is
D. Yumthang Valley 4. Nagaland
not correct?
Codes:
(a) Gulf with narrow fronts and wider rears
(a) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
experience high tides
(b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is
(c) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
connected with the open sea by a narrow
(d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
channel
18. Which one of the following is the correct (c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the
sequence of the given hills starting from
narrow and shallow estuary of a river
the north and going towards the south?
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river
(a) Nallamalai Hills- Nilgiri Hills-Javadi Hills
Hooghly is of crucial importance to Kolkata
Anaimalai Hills
as port
(b) Anaimalai Hills- Javadi Hills- Nilgiri Hills

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

22. Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List- 26. The approximate age of the Aravallis
II (States) and select the correct answer range is
using the codes given below the Lists: (a) 370 million years
List-I List-II (b) 470 million years
A. Gopnath Beach 1.Andhra Pradesh (c) 570 million years
B. Lawsons Bay Beach 2.Kerala (d) 670 million years
C. Devbagh Beach 3.Gujarat 27. Assertion: Ganga Plain is in the most
D. Sinquerim Beach 4.Goa densely populated part of India
5.Karnataka Reasoning: Ganga is the most harnessed
Codes: river of India.
(a) A-5; B-4; C-2; D-1 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) A-3; B-1; C-5; D-4 explanation of A.
(c) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(d) A-3; B-4; C-5; D-1 correct explanation of A.
23. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of (c) A is true but R is false.
(a) Assam Himalayas (d) A is false but R is true.
(b) Kumaon Himalayas
28. Assertion: The frequency of floods in North
(c) Nepal Himalayas
India plains has increased during the last
(d) Punjab Himalayas
couple of decades.
24. The sea coast of which one of the Reason: There has been reduction in the
following states has become as a nesting depth of river valleys due to deposition of
place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles silt.
from South America? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Goa explanation of A.
(b) Gujarat (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(c) Orissa correct explanation of A.
(d) Tamil Nadu (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
25. Which one of the following is not a
lagoon
29. Some people in Manipur live in houses
(a) Ashtamudi Lake built on floating islands of weeds and
(b) Chilka Lake
decaying vegetation held together by
(c) Periyar Lake
suspended slit. These islands are called:
(d) Pulicat Lake
(a) Tipis
(b) Barkhans
(c) Phumdi
(d) Izba

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

30. Among the following cities, which one Which one among the following States has all
lies on a longitude closest to that of the above characteristics?
Delhi? (a) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) Bengaluru (b) Assam
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Nagpur
(d) Uttarakhand
(d) Pune
35. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which
31. Which of the following is geographically
was recently in news, connects which of
closest to Great Nicobar?
the following?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo (a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar
(c) Java via Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka (b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via

32. If you travel by road from Kohima to Myanmar

Kottayam, what is the minimum number (c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via

of States within India through which you Bhutan

can travel, including the origin & the (d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand

destination? via Myanmar

(a) 6 36. Out of the four southern States: Andhra


(b) 7 Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
(c) 8 Nadu, which shares boundaries with the
(d) 9 maximum number of Indian States? (this

33. Which one of the following pairs of States question was asked before the formation

of India indicates the easternmost & of telangana. Hence answer has been

westernmost State? changed to Karnataka only)

(a) Assam and Rajasthan (a) Andhra Pradesh only

(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan (b) Karnataka only

(c) Assam and Gujarat (c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat (d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala

34. A particular State in India has the 37. Consider the following statements:
following characteristics: 1) Sikkim has the minimum area among the
1) It is located on the same latitude which 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not
passes through northern Rajasthan. included)
2) It has over 80% of its area under forest 2) Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate
cover. among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi and other
3) Over 12% of forest cover constituted
UnionTerritories.
Protected Area Network in this State.
3) Maharashtra has the highest population

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian 40. Among the following cities, which one is
States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included). at the highest altitude above mean sea
Which of the statements given above is/are level?
correct? (a) Bangalore
(a) 1 &2 (b) Delhi
(b) 2 &3 (c) Jodhpur
(c) 1 only (d) Nagpur
(d) 3 only 41. Consider the following statements:
38. Consider the following statements: 1) Longitude of Jabalpur's location is between
1) Assam shares a border with Bhutan and those of Indore and Bhopal
2) Latitude of Aurangabad's location is
Bangladesh.
between those of Vadodara and Pune
2) West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan
3) Bangalore is situated more southward than
and Nepal. Chennai
3) Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh Which of these statements is/are correct?
and Myanmar. (a) 1 & 3
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) 2&3
(a) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1,2& 3
(b) 2 and 3
42. Which one among the following states is
(c) 2 and 3 only
smallest in area?
(d) 3 only
(a) Andhra Pradesh
39. Which of the following States border (b) Gujarat
Uttar Pradesh? (c) Karnataka
1) Punjab (d) Tamil Nadu
2) Rajasthan
43. Among the following cities, which one is
3) Chhattisgarh
nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
4) Jharkhand
(a) Delhi
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Kolkata
given below:
(c) Jodhpur
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Nagpur
(b) 2, 3 and 4
44. Match List I with List II and select the
(c) 1 and 4
correct answer using the codes given
(d) 1 and 3
below the lists:
List-I (Resorts) List-II (States)
A. Chakrata 1. Assam

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Previous Year Questions

B. Haflong 2. West Bengal 47. Which one among the following major
C. Kalimpong 3. Uttar Pradesh Indian cities is most eastward located?
D. Kufri 4. Himachal Pradesh (a) Hyderabad
Codes: (b) Bhopal
(a) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (c) Lucknow
(b) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 (d) Bengaluru (Bangalore)
(c) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
48. For which one of the following items, is
(d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
Tirupur well-known as a huge exporter to
45. In the rough outline map of a part of many parts of the world.
Jammu and Kashmir shown in the figure, (a) Gems and Jewellery
places marked, A, B, C and D represent (b) Leather goods
respectively. (c) Knitted garments
(d) Handicrafts

49. Which one of the following cities does


not have the same clock time as that of
the other three cities at any given
instant?
(a) London (UK)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(a) Anantnag, Baramula, Srinagar & Kargil (c) Accra (Ghana)
(b) Baramula, Srinagar, Kargil & Anantnag (d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
(c) Baramula, Srinagar, Anantnag & Kargil
50. Which two countries follow China and
(d) Srinagar, Baramula, Kargil & Anantnag India in the decreasing order of their
46. The above map is the Union territory of populations?
(a) Brazil and USA
(b) USA and Indonesia
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(d) Russia and Nigeria

1. Key and Explanation

(a) Chandigarh 1. Key: A


(b) Daman and Diu Explanation: Barren Island is an island located
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Andaman Sea. This volcanic island stands
(d) Pondicherry in the midst of a volcanic belt on the edge of the
Indian and Burmese tectonic plates.

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Previous Year Questions

It is the only confirmed active volcano in South Pulicat lake spread over two states, Andhra
Asia and the only active volcano along a chain of Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Thus statement 3 is
volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar. Thus correct.
statement 1 is correct. Educational Objective: To learn about the
It is a part of the Indian Union Territory of geography of India and spread of important
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and lies about features like mountains, lakes and ghats.
138 km northeast of the territory's capital, Port
3. Key: C
Blair. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation: Chandipur, is a beach in Baleswar
The first recorded eruption of the volcano dates
District, Odisha, India. The beach is located on
back to 1787.After nearly one and half centuries
the shore of Bay of Bengal
of dormancy, the island had another eruption in
The beach is unique in a way that the water
1991 that lasted six months and caused
recedes up to 5 kilometers during the ebb tide.
considerable damage.
Due to its unique circumstances, the beach
The 1991 eruption was particularly harmful to
supports biodiversity.
the island's fauna. A team from the Geological
Chandipur is also the location of the Indian
Survey of India visited Barren Island on April
Strategic Forces Command's Integrated Test
1993 to assess the impact of the eruption on the
Range (ITR) at Abdul Kalam Island, formerly
distribution, habit, and abundance of animal
known as Wheeler Island.
species. A team from the National Institute of
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Oceanography spotted the volcano erupting on
important unique feature of Chandipur beach
23 January 2017
and its location.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Barren island volcano and its location. 4. Key: C
Explanation: Bodh Gaya is a religious site and
2. Key: B
place of pilgrimage associated with the
Explanation: The Indian Himalayan Region is
Mahabodhi Temple Complex in Gaya district in
spread over 10 states namely, Jammu &
the Indian state of Bihar. It is famous as it is
Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
the place where Gautama Buddha is said to
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
have attained Enlightenment (Pali: bodhi) under
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, and Tripura. Thus
what became known as the Bodhi Tree.
statement 1 is incorrect.
Mahabodhi Temple, located in Bodh Gaya is a
The Western Ghats in the Indian peninsula is
UNESCO World Heritage Site. Bodhgaya does
one of the eight hotspots of biological diversity in
not come under Baghelkhand region. Hence 1 is
the world and is spread across six states
wrongly matched.
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil
The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is a group
Nadu and Kerala. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
of Hindu temples and Jain temples in
Chhatarpur district, Madhya Pradesh, India. It

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

is part of Bundelkhand Region. Hence option 2


is correct. They are a UNESCO World Heritage
Site. The temples are famous for their nagara-
style architectural symbolism and their erotic
sculptures.
From the below maps it is clear that Shirdi is
not part of vidarbha plateau

While the fifth pair Tirupathi and Rayalaseema


are correct
Educational Objective: To know the
geographical locations of famous pilgrimage
centres in India.

5. Key: A
Explanation: Srisailam is a census town in
Kurnool district of the Indian state of Andhra
Pradesh. The town is famous for Mallikarjuna
Jyotirlinga Temple and is one of the holy
pilgrimage site for Saivism and Shaktism sects
of Hinduism. The town is classified as both
Jyotirlinga and Shakti Peetha. It is located in the
From the below two maps it is clear that nasik is Nallamala hills of Andra Pradesh. Hence option
not part of malwa plateau. 1 is correct.
Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple dedicated to
God Shiva. It is one of the 12 revered Jyotirlinga
shrines of Shiva. It is on an island called
Mandhata or Shivapuri in the Narmada river,
Madhya Pradesh. Hence it is not located on
any hills. Option 2 is wrong.
Pushkar is a city in the Ajmer district in the
Indian state of Rajasthan. It is a pilgrimage site
for Hindus and Sikhs. Pushkar has many
temples. Most of the temples and ghats in
Pushkar are from the 18th century and later,
because many temples were destroyed during

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Muslim conquests in the area. Pushkar is in India. They are part Western ghats. Hence 1st
centre-east part of Rajasthan, on the western pair is incorrect.
side of Aravalli Mountains. Hence option 3 is Kaimur Range is the eastern portion of the
wrong. Vindhya Range, extending from around Katangi
Educational Objective: To know the famous in Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh to
temples like 12 jyotirlingas and their around Sasaram in Rohtas district of Bihar.
geographical importance Hence 2ndpair is incorrect. Western coast along
Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra is known as
6. Key: A
Konkan coast.
Explanation:
The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in
Madhya Pradesh state of central India. The
hills are situated in the northern section of the
Satpura Range
Mikir Hills are a group of hills located to the
south of the Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
It is part of the Karbi Anglong Plateau.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
major hills and mountains along with their
locations.
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that
8. Key: B
separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar
Explanation: No effective barrier is there to
Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal.
block Southwest (SW) monsoon wind. SW
This channel is 150 kilometres (93 mi) wide from monsoon wind flows parallel to Aravalli range.
north to south, and approximately 10 kilometres So Northern part of Gujarat is arid and semi-
(6.2 mi) long from east to west. It is so named as arid.
it lies on the 10-degree line of latitude, north of
Large part of northwest plateau covered with
the equator.
black lava soil which is very suitable for growing
Educational Objective: To know about the
cotton. Central and south part of Gujarat
important islands in the territory of India and
covered with this black soil. Gujarat is the top
their geographical importance.
producer of groundnut and castor. More than
7. Key: C 30% of total cotton produced from India is
Explanation: Cardamom hills are mountain Gujarat. Gujarat plains lie east of Kachchh and
range of southern India and part of the southern Kathiawar. This plain is enough to support
Western Ghats located in southeast Kerala agriculture.
(Malabar coast) and southwest Tamil Nadu in Educational Objective: Gujarat state location,
physical geography, Economic geography

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9. Key: D
Explanation: The Himalayas is the highest
mountain range in the world, and has 9 out of
10 of the world’s highest peaks, including Mount
Everest. These mountains, referred to as the
Third Pole, are the source of some of Asia’s
major rivers and also help to regulate our
planet’s climate.They save us from cold waves
from Siberia.
The most characteristic features of the
Himalayas are their soaring heights, steep-sided
jagged peaks, river valley and alpine glaciers.
The topography of Himalayas are deeply cut by
erosion, resulting in deep river gorges and From the figure it is visible that the latitude that
deposition of such sediments in plains, Indo- passes through Sikkim also passes through
gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive Indian states of Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
alluvial soils without such erosion in upper Educational Objective: Learn about the
region of Himalayas . latitudes and longitudes passing through the
Complex geologic structure, and series of important cities.
elevational belts,compression and faults due to
11. Key: D
collision of Indian plate with Eurasian plate
Explanation: North of Luni River in Rajasthan
resulted in mighty parallel mountain ranges
there is inland drainage having several saline
which highly influences the monsoonal pattern.
lakes which is source of common salt. Some of
10. Key: A them are Sambhar, Didhwana, Degana,
Explanation: Kuchaman.
The largest is Sambhar Lake which is near to
Jaipur city.
Educational Objective: Rajasthan state
location, physical geography

12. Key: C
Explanation: The Nilgiri Mountains form part of
the Western Ghats in western Tamil Nadu of
Southern India. It is the meeting point of
Eastern and Western ghats. It is famous for
Nilikurinjiflower that blooms once in 12 years.
Nilgiri hills is home for Today tribes.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Three national parks border portions of the line of 7516km. (6100km of mainland and
Nilgiri mountains. Mudumalai National Park 1197km of island)
Lies in the northern part of the range where Maharashtra and Goa Konkan coast
Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu meet. Kerala and Karnataka Malabar coast
MukurthiNational Park lies in the southwest Tamilnadu Coromondal coast
part of the range, in Kerala, which includes Educational Objective: Places and location
intact sholagrassland mosaic, habitat for the 15. Key: D
Nilgiritahr. Silent Valley National Park lies Explanation: Shevaroy Hills, are a towering
just to the south and contiguous with those two mountain range (1620 m) near the city of Salem,
parks. in Tamil Nadu state, southern India.
Educational Objective: To learn about the Refer question no. 11 for map
Major hills ranges, their location, national parks Educational Objective: To learn about the
and tribes associated with it. major hills ranges, their location, national parks
13. Key: B and tribes associated with it.
Explanation: Kapil Dhara Waterfall: River 16. Key: A
Narmada plunge from a height of about 100 feet Explanation: Guru Shikhar Peak is located in
to form Kapil Dhara Waterfalls. It is located in Rajasthan--- Aravalli range, which is the oldest
the Amarkantak district of Madhya Pradesh. the fold mountain in India. They are aligned in
Waterfall gets its name from the famous sage northeast to southwest direction. At that
Kapil. southwest extreme the range rises to over
Jog Falls: Jog Falls is located in Siddapur in 1000m. Here mount Abu small hilly block is
Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka is created separated from the main range by the valley of
by the Sharavathi River. It is also known as flowers.
Gerusoppe falls. River Sharavathi, rises at Educational Objective: Places and location
Ambutirtha in the Thirthahalli taluk
17. Key: D
shivamogga.
Explanation: Markha Valley is in Ladakh Union
Shivanasamudra Falls: Shivanasamudra Falls
Territory. The Markha River, which flows
is located in the Chamarajanagar District in the
through the markha Valley, is a river in Ladakh,
state of Karnataka the falls is on the river Kaver.
India. It is a tributary of the Zanskar River.
Shivanasamudra Falls is one of the first hydro-
Dzukou Valley is a valley located in borders of
electric power stations in Asia
the state of Nagaland and Manipur in northeast
Educational Objective : To learn about the
India. This valley is well known for its natural
rivers and its waterfalls.
environment, seasonal flowers and flora and
14. Key: C fauna.
Explanation: In india 9 states and 4 union Sangla is a town in the Baspa Valley, also
territories share the coastal line. India has coast referred to as the Sangla valley, in the Kinnaur

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District of Himachal Pradesh, India, close to the the Western Ghats and span the border of
Tibetan border. Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern India.
Yumthang Valley or Sikkim Valley of Flowers Educational Objective: To learn about the
sanctuary, is a nature sanctuary with river, hot major hills ranges, their location, national parks
springs, yaks and grazing pasture on rolling and tribes associated with it. The north- south
meadows surrounded by the Himalayan order and the east- west order of such
mountains in the North Sikkim district of mountains are also important.
Sikkim state in India.
19. Key: A
Educational Objective: Places and location
Explanation: Western Ghat: The Western
18. Key: C Ghats in the Indian peninsula is one of the eight
Explanation: Nallamala hills situated in hotspots of biological diversity in the world and
Andhra Pradeshare a section of the Eastern is spread across six states Gujarat,
Ghats. They run in a nearly north-south Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and
alignment, parallel to the Coromandel Coast for Kerala.
close to 430 km between the rivers, Krishna and The Western Ghats are relatively lower in their
Pennar. northern region. The site’s high montane forest
The Javadhu Hills ( Rainfall clouds producing ecosystems influence the Indian monsoon
Hills For North Tamilnadu) ( Ooty of Vellore ) are weather pattern. Moderating the tropical climate
an extension of the Eastern Ghats spread of the region, the site presents one of the best
across parts of Vellore and Tiruvannamalai examples of the monsoon system on the planet.
districts in the northern part of the state of The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the
Tamil Nadu in southeastern India. Western Ghats
Narmada River: The Narmada River, also called
by the name Rewa rises from Amarkantak
Plateau. The river is known as "Life Line of
Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat".
Narmada is one of the only three major rivers in
peninsular India that run from east to west. It is
one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift
valley (between the Satpura and Vindhya
The Nilgiri Mountains form part of the Western ranges).
Ghats in western Tamil Nadu of Southern Geologically the Narmada Valley is a graben. It
India. occupies a linear rift valley sloping towards west.
The Anaimalai or Anamala Hills, also known as Tapti: Tapti is another west flowing river of
the Elephant Mountains, are the range of Madhya Pradesh. The Ukai Dam also known as
mountains that form the southern portion of Vallabh Sagar is constructed across the Tapi

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River is the second largest reservoir in Gujarat highest tides. (Example - Gulf of Mexico) Thus
after the Sardar Sarovar. statement 1 is correct.
Educational Objective: To learn about the A tidal bore is a tidal phenomenon in which the
Western Ghats and its highest peak. Also to leading edge of the incoming tide forms a wave
know about west flowing rivers. (or waves) of water that travels up a river or

20. Key: C narrow bay against the direction of the river or

Explanation: The Mahadeo Hills are a range of bay's current. Tidal bore occurs when a tide

hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river

The hills are situated in the northern section of Bores occur in relatively few locations

the Satpura Range. worldwide, usually in areas with a large tidal

Satpura ranges are towards the south of range. Tidal bores can be dangerous. On the

Mahadeo hills other hand, tidal bore-affected estuaries are rich


feeding zones and breeding grounds of several
forms of wildlife.
Educational Objective: To learn about the tides
and its tidal nature.

22. Key: B
Explanation: Gopnath Beach is a beach
situated in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat
state of India. It is located on the coast of the
Gulf of Kambhat.
Sahyadris is the other name for Western ghats, Lawsons Bay Beach is located in the city of
that runs through6 states; Gujarat, Visakhapatnam state of Andhra Pradesh, India.
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Devbagh Beach is in Karwar (formerly Carwar)
Nadu. which is a city in Uttara Kannada district in the
Educational Objective: To learn about the Indian state of Karnataka.
major hills ranges, their location, national parks Sinquerim Beach is located near Panaji in Goa.
and tribes associated with it. The north- south Educational Objective: Places and location
order and the east- west order of such
23. Key: B
mountains are also important.
Explanation: Nanda Devi is the second highest
21. Key: A mountain in India after Kangchenjunga and the
Explanation: Tides are the rise and fall of sea highest located entirely within the country.The
levels caused by the combined effects of the peak forms a part of Kumaon Himalayas.
gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the TheNanda Devi National Park is established in
Sun, and the rotation of the Earth. Gulfs with 1982. It is situated around the peak of Nanda
narrow fronts and wider rears would experience Devi (7816 m) in the state of Uttarakhand in

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northern India. It was tagged as a World Explanation: Ashtamudi Lake: Ashtamudi


Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988. Lake is located in the Kollam District in the state
of Kerala. For the conservation and sustainable
utilization of wetlands the Ashtamudi Wetland
was included in the Ramsar Convention. Kallada
River is a major river discharging into the
Ashtamudi Lake.
Chilika Lake: Chilika Lake is a brackish water
lagoon, It is the largest coastal lagoon in India
and the second largest brackish water lagoon in
the world situated in Odisha. The lake is at the
mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of
Educational Objective: To know about the Bengal. It has been listed as a UNESCO World
important peaks and the mountain ranges in Heritage site.
which they are situated. Chilika Lake is known for migratory birds on the
Indian sub-continent. In 1981, it was designated
24. Key: C
as the first Indian wetland of international
Explanation: The olive ridley sea turtle also
importance under the Ramsar Convention.
known commonly as the Pacific ridley sea turtle,
Periyar Lake: Periyar Lake is located in
is a species of turtle
Thekkady, Kerala. The Periyar Lake was formed
The species is the second smallest and most
during the construction of the dam across the
abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
Mullaperiyar river in the year 1895. The lake is
The olive ridley turtle has a circumtropical
the part of the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary in
distribution, living in tropical and warm waters
Kerala. It is fed by river.
of the Pacific and Indian OceansIn the Indian
Pulicat Lake: Pulicat Lagoon is the second
Ocean, the majority of olive ridleys nest in two or
largest brackish water lagoon in India, after
three large groups near Gahirmatha in Odisha.
Chilika Lake. The two rivers which feed the
Olive-ridleys face serious threats across their
lagoon are the Arani River at the southern tip
migratory route, habitat and nesting beaches,
and the Kalangi River from the northwest. The
due to human activities such as turtle
lake and its river basins are spread across the
unfriendly fishing practices, development and
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states. The
exploitation of nesting beaches for ports, and
lake also includes the Pulicat Lake Bird
tourist centres.
Sanctuary. The Buckingham Canal, a navigation
Educational Objective: To learn about the olive
channel, is part of the.
ridley turtles and its nesting locations.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
25. Key: C lagoons and their locations.

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Previous Year Questions

26. Key: D As result of shallow river flood plains the north


Explanation: Aravalli Range is an eroded stub of Indian rivers are very prone to flash floods.
ancient mountains, is the oldest range of Fold Especially in the year of excessive rainfall these
Mountains in northern India (670 million years), rivers overflow above their banks and creat huge
running northeasterly for 350 miles (560 km) economic loss.
through Rajasthan state. Educational Objective: To understand why
The Aravalli Range starts near Delhi, passing north Indian rivers are very prone to flash
through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and floods.
ending in Gujarat.
29. Key: C
Mount Guru Shikhar, the highest peak in the
Explanation: Phumdi—Heterogeneous mass of
Aravalli Range.
vegetation, soil, and organic matter at various
Educational Objective: To learn about the
stages of decomposition. Loktak lake largest
Aravalli range and its spread.
fresh water in Northeast India and it is famous
27. Key: C for phumdis floating over it. Keibul lamjao
Explanation: The Ganga Plain of northern India National park is the only floating national park
region is drained by Ganga and many other in the world. The park is famous for endangered
prominent rivers. Which has mainly made of Sangai— Manipur state animal. It plays an
fertile alluvial soil which has resulted in important role for Manipur economy by
increased agricultural activities. generating hydropower, irrigation, drinking
The fertile soil, presence of many rivers, water supply, and fishing. This lake is
favourable climate and the availability of flat designated as wetland of international
terrain have made this region one of the most importance under Ramsar Convention and
densely populated areas of the world. Thus Montreux record.
statement 1 is correct. Educational Objective: Manipur location and
The river Kaveri in southern India is the most economic geography of India and plant
harnessed river in India not the river Ganga vegetation
thus statement 2 is incorrect.
30. Key: A
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Explanation: From the map it is clear that the
Ganga river and the reasons why Ganga region
city that lies on a longitude closest to that of
has got densely population.
Delhi is Bangalore.
28. Key: A Delhi – 77.08” E longitude
Explanation: In The north Indian rivers systems
such as Indus and Ganga, the rivers carry huge
volume of water for a very long distance. Due to
the excessive siltation in the river course there
has been reduction in the depth of river valleys.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Explanation: To travel by road from Kohima to


Kottayam one needs to cross Nagaland (origin),
Assam, WB, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and then
either through Tamilnadu to Kerala (Kottayam),
or through AP to Karnataka to Kerala. In either
way a person needs to travel through 7 states.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
states and its locations in Indian map.

Bangalore – 77.56” E longitude


Hyderabad – 78.27” E longitude
Nagpur – 79.10” E longitude
Pune – 73.86” E longitude
Educational Objective: Learn about the
latitudes and longitudes passing through the
important cities.

31. Key: A
Explanation: Sumatra is the western most 33. Key: D
island among the Indonesian islands. It is the Explanation: Vijaynagar in Changlang district of
largest island that is entirely governed by Arunachal Pradesh is the eastern-most
Indonesia and the sixth-largest island in the inhabited locality of the country. The famous
world. It is nearest to the Great Nicobar. Namdapha National Park lies at the
international border between India and
Myanmar in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
The westernmost point of India is the small
inhabited village of Ghuar Moti, located in the
Kutch District of Gujarat
Thus Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat are the
eastern most and western most states of the
county respectively.

Educational Objective: To know about the Educational Objective: To learn about the

neighbouring countries of India along with their states and its locations in Indian map.

location. 34. Key: A

32. Key: B Explanation: Arunachal pradesh is located on


the same latitude which passes through

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Previous Year Questions

northern Rajasthan. It has over 80% of its area Andhra Pradesh is bordered by Tamil Nadu,
under forest cover. Karnataka, Telangana and Odisha.
The state has also got vast network of Protected Karnataka shares borders with Tamil Nadu,
Areas. Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Educational Objective: States and location. Maharashtra and Goa.
Educational Objective: To know about the
35. Key: B
states and their bordering states.
Explanation: Stilwell Road, original name Ledo
Road, highway 478 mi (769 km) long that links 37. Key: D
northeastern India with the Burma Road , which Explanation:
runs from Burma to China (Ledo in India and Goa area — 3702sqkm
Kunming in China via Myanmar). Sikkim — 7096sqkm
During World War II the Stilwell Road was a Tripura — 10,486sqkm
strategic military route. U.S. Army engineers Nagaland — 16,579sqkm
began construction of the highway in December
According to census 2011, Kerala has highest
1942 to link the railheads of Ledo (Assam, now
literacy rate 93.91%.
in Arunachal Pradesh, India) and Mogaung
(Burma), and Chinese troops later aided in the Literacy rate Puducherry>>Chandigarh>>Delhi.
project. Population According to census 2011 report:
Initially called the Ledo Road, it was named after Uttar Pradesh — 19.09crore
the American general Joseph Stilwell who Maharashtra — 11.2crore
oversaw its construction.
Bihar — 10.4crore
Educational Objective: To learn about the
West Bengal — 9.10crore
Stilwell road and its strategic importance.
Educational Objective: Economic geography of
36. Key: B India.
Explanation:
38. Key: A
Explanation: Assam has land frontier with
Bhutan and Bangladesh

Kerala being the southernmost state, shares


borders with only Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. West Bengal bordered with Bangladesh and
Tamil Nadu shares borders with Karnataka, Nepal.
Kerala and Andhra Pradesh.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Mizoram has border with Bangladesh and 41. Key: C


Myanmar. Explanation: From the below map it is clear
Other Northeastern states that shares border that the Jabalpur's longitude is not between the
with foreign countries are; Arunachal Pradesh – Bhopal and Indore. Hence statement 1 is
with China, Bhutan and Myanmar. Nagaland wrong.
and Manipur– with Myanmar. Tripura – with From the below two maps it is clear that
Bangladesh and Myanmar. Aurangabad is between Pune and Vadodara.
Educational Objective: To learn about the Hence 2 is correct.
international frontiers of India and the states And also the option 3 is correct, as Bengaluru is
that shares border with them. more southward than Chennai

39. Key: B
Explanation: Punjab lies on northwestern part
of India. Uttar Pradesh is situated in North
Central India. Hence, only Rajasthan,
Chattisgarh, Delhi, Haryana, Jharkhand,
Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
shares borders with UP.

Educational Objective: To know about the


important cities, their longitude and the
surrounding cities.

42. Key: D
Explanation:

Educational Objective: To learn about the Gujarat - 196,024sqkm

borders of each state. Karnataka - 191,791sqkm


Andhra Pradesh - 162,970sqkm
40. Key: A
Tamil nadu - 130,058sqkm
Explanation: Bangalore lies in the Deccan
Educational Objective: Physical Geography of
plateau area and hence among the given
India
options, Bangalore is correct. 921m above sea
level. 43. Key: B
Delhi-216m above sea level; Jodhpur –395m Explanation: From the map it is visible that
above sea level; Nagpur –310.5m above sea level. among the given options, Kolkata is nearest to
Educational Objective: To learn about the Tropic of Cancer.
important feature of Indian cities.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know in detail about


the Tropic of cancer and it’s relation with the Educational Objective: To have idea about
important cities. geographical locations of major cities in India.
44. Key: C 46. Key: C
Explanation: The places mentioned are all Explanation: Dadra and Nagar Haveliis
famous hill stations composed of two separate geographical entities:
Chakrata is a cantonment town in Dehradun Nagar Haveli, wedged between Maharashtra and
district in the state of Uttarakhand, India. It is Gujarat. The union territory was merged with,
between the Tons and Yamuna rivers, at an Daman and Diu to form new union territory of
elevation of 2118 m. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu on
Haflong is a town and headquarters of Dima 26 January 2020.
Hasao district in the state of Assam in India. It
is the only hill station in Assam. Haflong is a
Dimasa word meaning ant hill.
Kalimpong is an east Indian hill town in the
Himalayan foothills of West Bengal. Perched on
a ridge above the Teesta River, it’s home to
colonial-era buildings.
Kufri is a small hill station in Shimla district of
Himachal Pradesh state in India.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Educational Objective: Places and location
union territories, as new union territories have
45. Key: C been formed.
Explanation: From the below map it is clear
that, point A is Baramula, point B is Srinagar,
point C is Anantnag and Point D is Kargil.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

47. Key: C 50. Key: B


Explanation: Lucknow is the most eastward city Explanation: USA(28,23,38,631) and
among Hyderabad, Bhopal, Lucknow and Indonesia(21,38,29,469) are the two countries
Bengaluru. that follow China and India in the decreasing
order of their populations.
Educational Objective: The top ten countries
with the highest population.

2. Rivers

1. Which one among the following rivers is


the longest
a. Amazon
b. Amur
c. Congo
d. Lena

Educational Objective: To know about major 2. Consider the following pairs:

Indian cities and their locations Famous Place River


1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
48. Key: C
2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
Explanation: Tirupur located in Tamil Nadu is
3. Hampi Malaprabha
the garment hub that makes exports worth Rs
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
26,000 crore annually of knitted wear products.
matched?
Educational Objective: To know about Tirupur,
a. 1 and 2 only
Global exporter of knitted garments.
b. 2 and 3 only
49. Key: D c. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The clock time of any location on d. 1, 2 and 3
the earth depends on the location of the place of
3. Consider the following pairs:
longitude i.e., places located on same longitude
Glacier River
have same time and thus London, Lisbon and
1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
Accra have a same longitude passing through
2. Bara Shigri Chenab
them i.e., 51.5 N AND 0.1278 W. Thus they
3. Milam Mandakini
have same clock time and not local time which
4. Siachen Nubra
depends on country’s standard time.
5. Zemu Manas
Educational Objective: To study latitudes and
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
longitudes and understand their importance in
matched?
finding the exact location of a place on earth.
a. 1,2 and 4

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

b. 1,3 and 4 a. 1 only


c. 2 and 5 b. 2 & 3 only
d. 3 and 5 c. 1 & 3 only
4. What is common to the places known as d. 1,2 & 3
Aliya, Isapur and Kangsabati? 8. Consider the following rivers:
a. Recently discovered uranium deposits 1. Vamsadhara
b. Tropical rain forests
2. Indravati
c. Underground cave systems
3. Pranahita
d. Water reservoirs
4. Pennar
5. Which one of the following is an artificial
Which of the above are tributaries of
lake?
Godavari?
a. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
a. 1,2 & 3
b. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
b. 2,3 & 4
c. Nainital (Uttarakhand)
c. 1,2 & 4
d. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
d. 2 & 3 only
6. With reference to river Teesta, consider 9. The Narmada river flows to the west,
the following statements: while most other large peninsular rivers
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as flow to the east. Why?
that of Brahmaputra but it flows through
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
Sikkim.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is
Satpuras.
a tributary of river Teesta.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the
India
border of India and Bangladesh.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the following statements given
given below.
above is / are correct?
a. 1 only
a. 1 & 3 only
b. 2& 3
b. 2 only
c. 1&3
c. 2 & 3 only
d. None
d. 1,2 & 3
10. When you travel in Himalayas, you will
7. Which of the following is/are tributary/
see the following
tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Deep gorges
1. Dibang
2. U-turn river courses
2. Kameng
3. Parallel mountain ranges
3. Lohit
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the above can be said to be the Dam/Lake River


evidences for Himalayas being young fold a. Govind Sagar Satluj
mountains? b. Kolleru Lake Krishna
a. 1 & 2 only c. Ukaireservoir Tapi
b. 1, 2 & 4 only d. Wular Lake Jhelum
c. 3 & 4 only
15. Which one of the following rivers does
d. 1,2,3 & 4
not originate in India?
11. Two important rivers one with its source a. Beas
in Jharkhand (and known by a different b. Chenab
name in Odisha), and another, with its
c. Ravi
source in Odisha -merge at a place only a
short distance from the coast of Bay of d. Sutlej
Bengal before flow into the sea. This is an 16. At which one of the following places do
important site of wildlife and biodiversity two important rivers of India originate;
and a protected area. Which one of while one of them flows towards north
following could be this? and merges with another important
a. Bhitarkanika rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the
b. Chandipur-on-sea other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
c. Gopalpur-on-sea a. Amarkantak
d. Simlipal b. Badrinath
c. Mahabaleshwar
12. Rivers that pass through Himachal
d. Nasik
Pradesh are
a. Beas & Chenab only 17. Consider the following statements:
b. Beas &Ravi only 1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
c. Chenab, Ravi & Satluj only 2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya
Pradesh.
d. Beas, Chenab, Ravi , Satluj & Yamuna
Which of the statements given above is/are
13. With reference to the river Luni, which correct?
one of the following statements is a. 1 only
correct?
b. 2 only
a. It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
c. Both 1 & 2
b. It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh
d. Neither 1 nor 2
c. It flows into Pakistan & merges with a
tributary of Indus 18. Consider the following pairs:
d. It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Tributary River Main River
Kuchchh 1. Chambal Narmada
2. Sone Yamuna
14. Which one of the following pairs is not
3. Manas Brahmaputra
correctly matched?

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the pairs given is/are correctly d. Tapi


matched?
22. Match List I with List II and select the
a. 1,2 & 3
correct answer using the code
b. 1 & 2 only
List-I (Town) List-II (River Nearer to it)
c. 2 & 3 only
A. Betul 1. Indravati
d. 3 only
B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
19. Which of the following pairs are correctly C. Jabalpur 3. Shipra
matched? D. Ujjain 4. Tapti
Irrigation Project State Codes:
1. Damanganga Gujarat a. A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
2. Gima Maharashtra b. A-4; B-1; C-2;D-3
3. Pamba Kerala c. A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
Select the correct answer using the code d. A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
given below
23. From north towards south, which one of
Codes:
the following is the correct sequence of
a. 1 & 2 only
the given rivers in India?
b. 2 & 3 only
a. Shyok -Spiti-Zaskar-Satluj
c. 1 & 3 only
b. Shyok-Zaskar--Spiti-Satluj
d. 1,2 & 3
c. Zaskar-Shyok-Satluj-Spiti
20. Assertion: River Kalinadi is an east-flowing d. Zaskar-Satluj-Shyok-Spiti
river in the southern part of India. 24. Which one of the following statements is
Reason: The Deccan Plateau is higher along not correct
its western edge and gently slopes towards a. Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh
the Bay of Bengal in the east. b. Godavari River rises in Maharashtra
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct c. Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh
explanation of A. d. Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
25. What is the correct sequence of the
correct explanation of A.
rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and
c. A is true but R is false.
Tapi in the descending or their lengths?
d. A is false but R is true.
a. Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
21. Which one of the following rivers b. Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
originates at Amarkantak? c. Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
a. Damador d. Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
b. Mahanadi
26. Assertion: West-flowing rivers of Peninsular
c. Narmada
India have no deltas.

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Previous Year Questions

Reason: These rivers do not carry any a. Bharatpur


alluvial sediments. b. Jaipur
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct c. Jodhpur
explanation of A. d. Udaipur
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
31. In the given figure, the site of the Tehri
correct explanation of A.
dam has been labelled as
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

27. The correct sequence of the eastward


flowing rivers of the penisular India from
north to south is
a. Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari,
Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vaigai
b. Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna,
Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Pennar a. A

c. Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, b. B

Krishna,Cauvery, Pennar and Vaigai c. C

d. Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, d. D

Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Pennar 32. Match List I with List II and select the

28. Which one of the following statements is correct answer using the codes given

not true? below the lists:

a. Ghaggar's water is utilized in the Indira List-I (Rivers) List-II (Dams)

Gandhi Canal A. Cauvery 1. Alamatti

b. Narmada raised from Amarkantak region B. Krishna 2. Mettur

c. Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra river C. Narmada 3. Gandhi Sagar

d. Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari D. Chambal 4. Sardar Sarovar


Codes:
29. Which one of the following east flowing
a. A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
rivers of India has rift valley due to down
b. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
warping
c. A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
a. Damodar
d. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
b. Mahanadi
c. Sone
d. Yamuna

30. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of


the following cities of Rajasthan?

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Hampi is recognised as UNESCO World Heritage


2. Key and Explanation
Site.
1. Key: A Educational Objective: Famous places and
Explanation: The Amazon River in South rivers.
America is the largest river by discharge volume
3. Key: A
of water in the world, covers about 40% of South
Explanation: Bandarpunch: Bandarpunch
Americaand it is the second longest river in the
Glacier is located in the Garhwal division of the
world, after the Nile River.The Amazon basin is
Himalayas, in the state of Uttarakhand. The
the largest drainage basin in the world, with an
Bandarpunch glacier acts as major watershed
area of approximately 7,050,000 square
for the headwaters of the Yamuna River, whose
kilometers. It finally discharges into the Atlantic
source lies above Yamnotri.
Ocean.It drains from west to east, from Iquitos
Bara Shigri: Bara Shigri located in the state of
in Peru, across Brazil to the Atlantic.The Atlantic
Himachal Pradesh is one of the largest glacier in
has sufficient wave and tidal energy to carry
Himalayas. The glacier feeds the River Chenab.
most of the Amazon's sediments out to sea, thus
Milam: Milam Glacier is one of the major glacier
the Amazon does not form a true delta.
of the Kumaon Himalaya, in the Pithoragarh
Morethan one-third of all known species in the
district of Uttarakhand. The glacier is the source
world live in the Amazon rainforest
of the River Goriganga.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Siachen: The Siachen Glacier is the longest
Amazon river and its basin.
glacier in the Karakoram range in the
2. Key: B Himalayas. It is located just northeast of the
Explanation: Pandharpu: Pandharpur in point NJ9842 where the LOC (Line of Control)
Solapur district of Maharashtra is a well known between India and Pakistan ends. The melting
pilgrimage town on the banks of River Bhima waters of Siachen glacier's are the main source
(Chandrabhaga). The principal deity is lord of the Nubra River.
Vithoba temple. Zemu: Zemu Glacier is one of the largest glacier
Tiruchirappalli: Tiruchirappalli also called in the Eastern Himalaya. The glacier is the
Trichy (City of heaven), is a major city in the source of water for the Teesta River.
state of Tamil Nadu, on the bank of river Educational Objective: To learn about the
Cauvery. The Cauvery Delta begins west of the glaciers and rivers.
city where the Kaveri river splits into two,
4. Key: D
forming the island of Srirangam.
Explanation: Aliyar Reservoir: Aliyar Reservoir
Hampi: Hampi is a small town in Ballari district,
across the Aliyar river, located in Aliyar village
Karnataka, on the banks of the Tungabhadra
near Pollachi town in Coimbatore District of
River. It was the capital of Vijayanagara Empire
Tamil Nadu. The dam was constructed mainly
in the 14th century. The Group of Monuments at
for irrigation purposes.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Isapur Dam is an earthfill dam near Kalamnuri It joins the Jamuna River at Fulchhari in
in the state of Maharashtra. built across the Bangladesh and enters in to the Bay of Bengal.
River Penganga. The Teesta River is known for changing its
Educational Objective: To learn about the course. And the river has remained a subject of
water reservoirs and their locations. conflict for almost 35 years between India and
Bangladesh, over the appropriate allocation of
5. Key: A
its water resource and development on the river.
Explanation: Kodaikanal Lake: Kodai Lake,
Educational Objective: To learn about the
also known as Kodaikanal Lake is one of the
Teesta river and its origin along with its course
manmade (Artifical) lake located in the
of flow.
Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in the state
of Tamil Nadu.The Palani Hills range to 7. Key: D
northwest of lake, is the main watershed for the Explanation:
lake Explanation: The River Brahmaputra has its
Kolleru: Kolleru Lake is one of the largest origin in the Manasarovar Lake. It is a trans-
freshwater natural lakes in India located in state boundary river which flows through China, India
of Andhra Pradesh and it is also the largest and Bangladesh. It is called Yarlung Tsangpo in
shallow freshwater lake in Asia it is located Tibet and Dihang River in Arunachal Pradesh.
between Krishna and Godavari deltas. It merges with the Padma (River Ganges is
Nainital: Nainital Lake is one of the natural popularly known by the name Padma in
freshwater lake, located in the township of Bangladesh) and from here it is called as
Nainital in Uttarakhand, The lake istectonic in Meghna. It flows as Meghna river before
origin. emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
Renuka: Renuka lake is located in the Sirmaur The River Brahmaputra is a classic example of a
district of Himachal. It is the largest lake in braided river channel.
Himachal Pradesh. And It is designated as Majuli is a river island created by the
Ramsar site since November 2005. Brahmaputra River in Assam and it became the
Educational Objective: To learn about the first island to be made a district in India in
artificial and natural lakes. 2016.
Dibang, Kameng, Lohit, Manas River, Subansiri
6. Key: B
River, Teesta River and Kopili River are the
Explanation: The Teesta River originates from
tributaries of Brahmaputra.
the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier in
Educational Objective: To learn about the river
Himalaya's. It is one of the longest river that
Brahmaputra and its important tributaries.
rises in the eastern Himalayas.
It flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and 8. Key: D
West Bengal, and it forms the border between Explanation: The Godavari is east flowing
these two states for some distance. peninsular river originates in the Western Ghats

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at Triambakeshwar in Maharashtra. It is India's Educational Objective: To learn about the


second longest river after the Ganga. Narmada river and understand its course of
It has its drainage basin in the states of flow.
Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
10. Key: D
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, ultimately emptying into
Explanation: The Himalayas is the highest
the Bay of Bengal.
mountain range in the world, and has 9 out of
The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal governs
10 of the world’s highest peaks, including Mount
the water allocation from the river among the
Everest. These mountains, referred to as the
riparian states the Purna, Pranhita, Indravati
Third Pole, are the source of some of Asia’s
and Sabari River are the left bank tributaries
major rivers and also help to regulate our
whereas the Pravara, Manjira, Manair are the
planet’s climate.
right bank tributaries.
The most characteristic features of the
Polavaram Project: in Andhra Pradesh a multi-
Himalayas are their soaring heights, steep-sided
purpose National project on the Godavari River
jagged peaks, river valley and alpine glaciers.
is under construction in the name of Polavaram
The topography of Himalayas are deeply cut by
Project in the West Godavari District and East
erosion, resulting in deep river gorges, complex
Godavari Districts.
geologic structure, and series of elevation belts,
Educational Objective: To learn about the river
compression and faults due to collision of Indian
Godavari and its important tributaries.
plate with Eurasian plate resulted in parallel
9. Key: A mountain ranges
Explanation: The Narmada River, also called by Educational Objective: To learn about the
the name Rewa rises from Amarkantak Plateau. important characteristic features of young fold
The river is known as "Life Line of Madhya mountains.
Pradesh and Gujarat". 11. Key: A
Narmada is one of the only three major rivers in Explanation: The Brahmani is a major seasonal
peninsular India that run from east to west. It is river in the state of Odisha. The Brahmani is
one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift formed by the confluence of the rivers South
valley (between the Satpura and Vindhya Koel and Sankh near the major industrial town
ranges). of Rourkela. Whereas the Baitarani is one of six
Geologically the Narmada Valley is a graben. It major rivers of Odisha.
occupies a linear rift valley sloping towards west. Together with the river Baitarani, river
Sardar Sarovar Dam: The Sardar Sarovar Dam Brahmani forms a large delta before emptying
is a gravity dam built across Narmada river near into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.
Navagam in Gujarat. Bhitarkanika National Park is a large national
park in northeast Kendrapara district in Odisha.

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The Bhitarkanika National Park is home to Hydroelectric Plant, Ropar barrage, Nathpa
Saltwater crocodile. Jhakri Dam.
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves is a mangrove The Yamuna is the second largest tributary river
wetland in Odisha, India, covering an area of of the Ganges, Originating from the Yamunotri
650 km in the Brahmani and Baitarani river Glacier
deltasIt was designated as Ramsar site. Educational Objective: To learn about the
Educational Objective: To learn about the rivers that passes through Himachal Pradesh.
presence of river flow in the important sites such
13. Key: D
as National parks/wildlife sanctuaries.
Explanation: Luni River originates in the
12. Key: D Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer,
Explanation: Beas, Chenab, Ravi and Satluj Rajasthan. Luni is largest river which flows
rivers are the tributaries of Indus river where as through the Thar Desert.
the Yamuna is the tributary of Ganga. Its major tributaries are the Sukri, Mithri River,
Beas River rises in the Himalayan ranges, in the Bandi, Khari, Jawai, Guhiya and Sagi from the
state Himachal Pradesh and merges to the Sutlej left, and the Jojari from the right.
River in Punjab. Beas river is home to some The river flows in the southwest direction
isolated population of the Indus dolphin through the hills and plains of the Marwar and
Chenab River is one of the major transboundary enters the Thar Desert before dissipating into
river that flows between India and Pakistan. The the Rann of Kutch.
river is formed by the confluence of two rivers, Educational Objective: To learn about the river
Chandra and BhagaIt rises in the upper Luni and its origin and flow.
Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti district of
14. Key: B
Himachal Pradesh.
Explanation: Gobind Sagar Lake: Gobind Sagar
The Ravi is one of the major transboundary river
Lake is a Reservoir located in the Una and
that flows between India and Pakistan, under
Bilaspur Districts of Himachal Pradesh. The
the Indus Water Treaty the waters of the Ravi
Reservoir is formed by the Bhakra Dam on the
are allocated to India
River Sutlej. It is one of the world's highest
The Sutlej River is one of the longest tributary of
gravity
Indus. The source of the Sutlej is west of
Kolleru lake: Kolleru Lake is one of the largest
catchment area of the Lake Rakshastal in Tibet.
freshwater natural lakes in India located in state
It enters Indian state of Himachal Pradesh
of Andhra Pradesh and it is also the largest
through the Shipki La pass under the Indus
shallow freshwater lake in Asia.it is located
Waters Treaty between India and Pakistan the
between Krishna and Godavari deltas.
waters of the Sutlej are allocated to India. Some
The lake is fed directly by water from the
of the major hydroelectric projects on the Sutlej,
seasonal Budameru and Tammileru rivers, and
including Bhakra Dam, Karcham Wangtoo
it is also connected to the Krishna and Godavari

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irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor Educational Objective: To learn about the
irrigation canals. source/origination of rivers.
Ukai Dam: The Ukai Dam also known as
16. Key: A
Vallabh Sagar is constructed across the Tapi
Explanation: Amarkantak is a pilgrim
River is the second largest reservoir in Gujarat
town in Madhya Pradesh, India. The
after the Sardar Sarovar.
Amarkantak region is a unique natural
Wular Lake: Wular Lake in Bandipora district in
heritage area and is the meeting point of
Jammu and Kashmir is one of the largest fresh
the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges, with
water lakes in Asia. The lake basin was formed
the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum. This is where
as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the
the Narmada River, the Son River and Johila
River Jhelum, which is a tributary of Indus.
River emerge.
Educational Objective: To learn about the river
and its dams.

15. Key: D
Explanation: Beas, Chenab, Ravi and Satluj
rivers are the tributaries of Indus River.
Beas River: Beas River rises in the Himalayan
ranges, in the state Himachal Pradesh and
merges to the Sutlej River in Punjab. Beas river
is home to some isolated population of the Indus
dolphin
Chenab River: Chenab River is one of the major
transboundary river that flows between India
and Pakistan. The river is formed by the
confluence of two rivers, Chandra and Bhaga. It
rises in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and
Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. Educational Objective: To know about the
Ravi River: The Ravi is one of the major rivers and their origin points along with the
transboundary rivers that flows between India states they flow.
and Pakistan, under the Indus Water Treaty the 17. Key: D
waters of the Ravi are allocated to India Explanation: Narmada is one of the only three
Sutlej River: The Sutlej River is one of the major rivers in peninsular India that run from
longest tributary of Indus. The source of the east to west. The river is known as "Life Line of
Sutlej is west of catchment area of the Lake Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat".
Rakshastal in Tibet. It enters Indian state of Tapti is another west flowing river of Madhya
Himachal Pradesh through the Shipki La pass. Pradesh. The Ukai Dam also known as Vallabh

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Sagar is constructed across the Tapi River is the in Vaitarna basin. Daman Ganga also called
second largest reservoir in Gujarat after the Dawan River is a river in western India. The
Sardar Sarovar. river's headwaters are on the western slope of
In Kerala there are more than 44 major rivers of the Western Ghats range, and it flows west into
which 3 are east flowing. Kabani, Paampar and the Arabian Sea. The river flows through
Bhavani are the east flowing rivers. Periyar is Maharashtra and Gujarat states.
the longest west flowing river in Kerala followed Gima irrigation project in Maharashtra.
by Bharathapuzha and Pampa. Pamba Irrigation scheme in Pattanamthitta
Educational Objective: To learn about the east district aims at the utilization of the tail race
and west flowing rivers. water of Sabarigiri Hydro Electric project for
irrigation purpose. The tail race water is let into
18. Key: D
the river Kakkad and is picked up at Maniyar by
Explanation: The River Chambal is a tributary
a barrage. The water thus collected is diverted
of River Yamuna and thus forms part of
through a canal on the left bank of the river.
Gangetic drainage system. The Chambal
Educational Objective: Places and location
originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near
Indore. Gandhisagar Dam, the Rana Pratap 20. Key: D
Sagar Dam, the Jawahar Sagar Dam, Kota Explanation: Kali River: The Kali River flows
Barrage are some of the major projects on through Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka
Chambal River. The Kali River has its origin in the Western
The Son River originates near Amarkantak in Ghats and flows eastwards into the Supa Dam
Anuppur district of Madhya PradeshSon River of Reservoir. The river flows entirely through the
central India is the second largest tributary of district of Uttara Kannada and finally joins the
the Ganges' southern tributaries after Yamuna Arabian Sea near the town of Karwar.
River. Deccan Plateau: The Deccan Plateau is a large
Manas River is a transboundary river between plateau located in between the Western Ghats
Bhutan and India. Manas River passes through and the Eastern Ghats, while its northern
Manas National Park, a UNESCO Natural World extremity is the Vindhya Range. The average
Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant elevation of Deccan plateau is about 2,000 feet
reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India. sloping gentally eastward.
Educational Objective: To learn about the river The Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri are the
and its tributaries. principal rivers which flows from the Western
Ghats toward the Bay of Benga. Tiruvannamalai
19. Key: D
in Tamil Nadu is often regarded as the Southern
Explanation: Damanganga-Pinjal river linking
gateway of Deccan plateau.
project proposes to divert excess water from
Educational Objective: To learn about the Kali
reservoirs in the Damanganga basin to Mumbai
river and Deccan plateu.
through the Pinjal dam, built on the Pinjal river

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21. Key: C Educational Objective: To learn about the


Explanation: Amarkantak (Amarkantak Plateau) rivers and towns nearer to it.
in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh is a major pilgrim
23. Key: B
town and place of origin of two important rivers
Explanation: Shyok River: The Shyok River
Narmada & the Son River.
Shyok River originates at the Rimo Glacier, one
The Narmada River, also called by the name
of the tongues of Siachen Glacier.It is a tributary
Rewa rises from Amarkantak Plateau. The river
of the Indus River that flows through northern
is known as "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and
Ladakh in India,the river joins the Indus at
Gujarat".
Keris.
Narmada is one of the only three major rivers in
Zanskar River: The Zanskar River is a north-
peninsular India that run from east to west.It is
flowing one of the major tributaries of the Indus
one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift
river. Zanskar River is formed by the confluence
valley (between the Satpura and Vindhya
of Doda River and Lungnak River the Zanskar
ranges).
river meets Indus river at Nimmu village in
Educational Objective: To learn about the Ladakh, and the place is popularly known as
rivers which originate at Amarkantak. Sangam.
22. Key: B Spiti River: Spiti River is a tributary of Sutlej
Explanation: Betul: Betul is a district in the river.It originates from the Kunzum Range of the
state of Madhya Pradesh. the city is located on Himalayas. The Spiti River flows through the
the bank of river Tapti. valleys of Lahaul-Spiti district of Himachal
Jagdalpur: Jagdalpur is a city in Bastar district Pradesh.
in the state of Chhattisgarh. The city is located Sutlej River: The Sutlej River is one of the
on the bank of river Indravati. Nagarnar Steel longest tributary of Indus. The source of the
Plant, being set up at its outskirts of the city. Sutlej is west of catchment area of the Lake
Jabalpur: Jabalpur city in the state of Madhya Rakshastal in Tibet. It enters Indian state of
Pradesh is located on the bank of river Narmada. Himachal Pradesh through the Shipki La pass
Jabalpur is also known for the Dhuandhar Falls Educational Objective: To learn about the map
and the white Marble Rocks at Bhedaghat. locations of rivers.
Ujjain: Ujjain district in the state of Madhya 24. Key: C
Pradesh is a famous Hindu pilgrimage centre. Explanation: Mahanadi: Mahanadi rises as a
The Kumbh Mela is held in Ujjain every 12 combination of many mountain streams however
years. As an ancient city it is situated on the its farthest headwaters lie from Sihawa in
eastern bank of the Kshipra River. Historically It Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh. River
was the capital of the ancient Avanti kingdom, Seonath, Jonk and Hasdeo are the major
one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas. tributaries of Mahanadi. The largest earthen

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dam in the world, the Hirakud Dam is built Western Ghats at Triambakeshwar in
across the river Mahanadi. Maharashtra. it is India's second longest river
Kaveri: River Kaveri originates in a place called after the Ganga.
Talakaveri. In the Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu, It has its drainage basin in the states of
flowing through the states of Karnataka and Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
Tamil Nadu. It is the third largest river in Chhattisgarh, Odisha, ultimately emptying into
peninsular India after Godavari and Krishna. the Bay of Bengal.
The Kaveri is also one of the seven holy rivers of The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal governs
India. Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha and the water allocation from the river among the
Arkavathy are its left bank tributaries where as riparian states.
Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, Narmada: The Narmada River, also called by the
Amaravati and Moyar are its right bank name Rewa rises from Amarkantak Plateau. The
tributaries. river is known as "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh
River Kaveri forms two islands in Mandya and Gujarat".
district's Srirangapatna and Shivanasamudra. Narmada is one of the only three major rivers in
Godavari: The Godavari is east flowing peninsular India that run from east to west.It is
peninsular river originates in the Western Ghats one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift
at Triambakeshwar in Maharashtra. It is India's valley (between the Satpura and Vindhya
second longest river after the Ganga. ranges).
It has its drainage basin in the states of Mahanadi: Mahanadi rises as a combination of
Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, many mountain streams However its farthest
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, ultimately emptying into headwaters lie from Sihawa in Dhamtari district
the Bay of Bengal. of Chhattisgarh River Seonath, Jonk and Hasdeo
The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal governs are the major tributaries of Mahanadi. The
the water allocation from the river among the largest earthen dam in the world, the Hirakud
riparian states. Dam is built across the river Mahanadi.
Tapti: Tapti is a west flowing river of Madhya Tapti: Tapti is a west flowing river of Madhya
Pradesh. The Ukai Dam also known as Vallabh Pradesh. The Ukai Dam also known as Vallabh
Sagar is constructed across the Tapi River, is the Sagar is constructed across the Tapi River is the
second largest reservoir in Gujarat after the second largest reservoir in Gujarat after the
Sardar Sarovar. Sardar Sarovar.
Educational Objective: To learn about the river Educational Objective: To learn about the
and location of its origin. length of the rivers in order.

25. Key: B 26. Key: C


Explanation: Godavari: The Godavari is east Explanation: West-flowing rivers of Peninsular
flowing peninsular river originates in the India have no large deltas because most of the

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Previous Year Questions

Western flowing rivers originate in Western ghat It has its drainage basin in the states of
so the rivers flow from very high gradient and Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
the rivers travel for very short distance to carry Chhattisgarh, Odisha, ultimately emptying into
any large amount of sediments. the Bay of Bengal.
The most active South-west monsoons create a The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal governs
very high waves which carry or wash away the the water allocation from the river among the
whatever little sediments brought by the rivers. riparian states.
Educational Objective: To learn about the west Kaveri: River Kaveri originates in a place called
flowing rivers of peninsular India. Talakaveri. In the Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu,
flowing through the state of Karnataka and
27. Key: A
Tamil Nadu. It is the third largest river in
Explanation: Subarnarekha: The River
peninsular India after Godavari and Krishna.
Subarnarekha originates at a village named
The Kaveri is also one of the seven holy rivers of
piska near Ranchi in Chota Nagpur Plateau. And
India. Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha and
it flows through the states of Jharkhand, West
Arkavathy are its left bank tributaries where as
Bengal and Odisha. It is majorly a rain-fed river
Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal,
Mahanadi: Mahanadi rises as a combination of
Amaravati and Moyar are its right bank
many mountain streams. However its farthest
tributaries.
headwaters lie from Sihawa in Dhamtari district
River Kaveri forms two islands in Mandya
of Chhattisgarh. River Seonath, Jonk and
district's Srirangapatna and Shivanasamudra.
Hasdeo are the major tributaries of Mahanadi.
Educational Objective: To learn about the map
The largest earthen dam in the world, the
locations/sequence of the eastward flowing
Hirakud Dam is built across the river Mahanadi.
rivers.
Krishna River: The River Krishna originates in
the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar, in the 28. Key: A
state of Maharashtra. It is the fourth-biggest Explanation: Indira Gandhi Canal: The Indira
river in terms of water inflows and river basin Gandhi Canal is the longest canal of India. It
area in India. Its basin spread across starts from the Harike Barrage at Harike, Punjab
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra a few kilometers below the confluence of the
Pradesh.The largest tributary of the Krishna Satluj and Beas rivers and the canal terminates
River is the Tungabhadra River where as the in the Thar Desert in the north west of
longest tributary is the Bhima River Rajasthan state.
Godavari: The Godavari is east flowing Narmada: The Narmada River, also called by the
peninsular river originates in the Western Ghats name Rewa rises from Amarkantak Plateau. The
at Triambakeshwar in Maharashtra. it is India's river is known as "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh
second longest river after the Ganga. and Gujarat".

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Nizam Sagar Dam: Nizam Sagar Dam located in


Telanganais a reservoir constructed across the
Manjira River. Manjira River is a tributary of the
Godavari River.
Educational Objective: To learn important facts
about rivers.

29. Key: A
Explanation: Damodar River: Damodar River
originates at Chota Nagpur Plateau in
Jharkhand.it flows across the Indian states of
Jharkhand and West Bengal. Damodar is a rift
valley river.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Earlier the river is known as the Sorrow of
major lakes and the cities around them.
Bengal because of its ravaging floods in the
plains of West Bengal. Barakar, Konar, Bokaro, 31. Key: C

are major tributaries a of Damodar river Explanation: The Tehri Dam is the highest

The Damodar valley is rich in coal. And it is dam in India and one of the highest in the world.

considered as the prime centre of coking coal in It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-

the country. The Damodar Valley is one of the fill embankment dam on the BhagirathiRiver

most industrialised parts of India. Thus it is near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. From the

called as “the Ruhr of India”. below map it is clear that point C is Theri Dam.

Other rift valley rivers india are Narmada,Tapi


and Mahi.
Educational Objective: To learn about the east
flowing rivers and rift valleys.

30. Key: B
Explanation: The Sambhar Salt Lake, India's
largest inland salt lake, is located 80 km
(50 mi) southwest of the city of Jaipur and
Educational Objective: To have idea about the
64 km (40 mi)northeast of Ajmer, Rajasthan.
important dams built in India, the rivers that
they are built on and their geographical
locations

32. Key: B
Explanation: Chambal: The River Chambal is a
tributary of River Yamuna and thus forms part

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Previous Year Questions

of Gangetic drainage system. The Chambal 1) IOD phenomenon is characterised by a


originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near difference in sea surface temperature
Indore. Gandhisagar Dam, the Rana Pratap between tropical Western Indian Ocean and
Sagar Dam, the Jawahar Sagar Dam, Kota tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
Barrage are some of the major projects on 2) An IOD phenomenon can influence an El
Chambal River. Nino's impact on the monsoon’
Krishna River: The River Krishna originates in Select the correct answer using the code
the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar, in the given below:
state of Maharashtra. It is the fourth-biggest (a) 1 only
river in terms of water inflows and river basin (b) 2 only
area in India. Its basin spread across (c) Both 1 & 2
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Pradesh. Alamatti dam is located on the krishna
2. Consider the following statements:
river in Karnataka.
1. The winds which blow between 30°N and
Narmada: The Narmada River, also called by the 60°S latitudes throughout the year are
name Rewa rises from Amarkantak Plateau. The known as westerlies
river is known as "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh 2. The moist air masses that cause winter
and Gujarat". Sardar Sarovar Dam is the larges rains in North-Western region of India are
part of westerlies.
dam in India built on Narmada.
Which of the statements given above is / are
Kaveri: River Kaveri originates in a place called
correct?
Talakaveri. In the Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu,
(a) 1 only
flowing through the states of Karnataka and
(b) 2 only
Tamil Nadu. It is the third largest river in
(c) Both 1 & 2
peninsular India after Godavari and Krishna.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
KRS and Mettur Reservoirs are built on this
river. 3. Consider the following statements:
Educational Objective: To learn about the river 1. The duration of the monsoon decreases
and its dams. from Southern India to Northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the
3. Indian Climate Northern plains of India decreases from east
to west.
1. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole
Which of the statements given above is/are
(IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news
correct?
while forecasting Indian monsoon, which
(a) 1 only
of the following statements is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(b) The dominant source of irrigation in the


4. Which one of the following is the correct
country is wells
sequence of the given Indian cities in the
decreasing order of their normal annual (c) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil

rainfall? in the northern plains of the country

(a) Kochi-Kolkata-Delhi-Patna (d) The mountain areas account for about


thirty percent of the surface area of the
(b) Kolkata-Kochi-Patna-Delhi
country
(c) Kochi-Kolkata-Patna-Delhi
(d) Kolkata-Kochi-Delhi-Patna 8. In the shaded area of the map given
below the mean temperature for the
5. Assertion: Bangalore receives much higher
month of July varies between
average annual rainfall than that of
Mangalore.
Reason: Bangalore has the benefit of
receiving rainfall both from south-west and
north-east monsoons.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. (a) 22.5°C-25.0C
6. The average annual temperature of a (b) 25.0°C-27.5"C
meteorological station is 26 C, its (c) 27.5 C-30.0'C
average annual rainfall is 63cm and the (d) 30.0°C-32.5 C
annual range of temperature is 9°C. The 9. Assertion: Anti cyclonic conditions are
station in question is formed in winter season when atmospheric
(a) Allahabad pressure is high and air temperatures are
(b) Chennai low.
(c) Cherrapunji Reason: Winter rainfall in Northern India
(d) Kolkata cause development of anti cyclonic
7. With reference to India, which one of the conditions.
following statements is not correct? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) About one-third of the area of the country explanation of A.
records more than 750 millimetres of (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
annual rainfall correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.

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(d) A is false but R is true. negative IOD and El Nino can cooperatively
produced efficient rainfall. Hence, statement 2 is
10. Consider the following statements
correct.
regarding environmental issues of India:
Educational Objective: To learn about Indian
1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere
Ocean Dipole and its impact on Indian monsoon.
reserves
2. The Gangs Action Plan, phase II has been 2. Key: B
merged with the National River Explanation: The winds are described as
Conservation Plan. Westerlies or Easterlies based on the direction
3. At New Delhi imparts non-formal education from which they are moving.
in environment and conservation The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°N
4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) latitudes and between 30°S and 60°S are known
acts as a decentralized information network as westerlies, Thus statement 1 is wrong.
for environmental information A extratropical cyclones/storm originating in the
Which of these statements are correct? Mediterranean region move towards east under
(a) 1, 2 & 4 the influence of westerlies and brings sudden
(b) 1,2,3 &4 winter rain to the north western parts of the
(c) 2&3 Indian. They are also known as Western
(d) 1, 3 & 4 Disturbance. Thus statement 2 is correct.
Educational Objective: To know about the
3. Key and Explanation
difference between easterlies and westerlies,
1. Key: B their direction of movements and understand
Explanation: The Indian Ocean Dipole is about western disturbances.
characterised by a difference in sea surface 3. Key: C
temperature between tropical western Indian Explanation: The rain bearing monsoonal
ocean and tropical eastern Indian ocean. Hence, clouds come in two main branches the Arabian
statement 1 is wrong. A positive IOD occurs sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch. The
when sea surface temperature is higher than Arabian sea branch hits the Kerala coast by the
normal in the Arabian Sea and less than normal first week of June, where as the it reaches the
in the tropical eastern Indian Ocean. The north Indian plains at the end of second week,
opposite is true in case of a negative IOD. and covers whole north India by the first of July.
An IOD can either aggravate or weaken the But the retreat of monsoon begins in the north
impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon. If there is India by the second week of September and by
a positive IOD, it can bring good rains to India the December it retreaths from whole Indian
despite of an El Nino year. Similarly, During a subcontinent thus the duration of the monsoon
decreases from Southern India to Northern India

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

The rain bearing monsoonal clouds with high eastern or retreating monsoons. thus Statement
humidity hits southern part of India first. The 2 is correct.
amount of rainfall decreases from east to west Educational Objective: To learn about Indian
owing to the progressive decrease in humidity of monsoons and understand retreating monsoons.
the winds.
6. Key: A
Educational Objective: To learn about Indian
Explanation: Allahabad is a city in the Indian
monsoons and retreat of monsoons.
state of Uttar Pradesh. Allahabad has a humid
4. Key: C subtropical climate with the annual mean
Explanation: The rain bearing monsoonal temperature is 26.1 °C with maximum
clouds come in two main branches the Arabian temperature experienced in summer the annual
sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch. range of temperature is 90C its average annual
The Arabian sea branch hits the Kerala coast rainfall is 63 cm.
(Kochi) by the early first week of June with Chennai being a coastal city in Tamil Nadu has
maximum intensity. very less annual temperature range. And it gets
The Bay of Bengal branch reaches the north its maximum rainfall from North Eastern
eastern India including West Bengal (Kolkata) by Monsoon rather than south western monsoon.
the end of first week of June and the amount of Cherrapunji in the state Meghalaya experience
rainfall in Kolkata is less compared to Kochin. heavy rainfall during monsoonal season from the
The amount of rainfall decreases from east to Bay of Bengal branch of south west mansoonal
west owing to the progressive decrease in winds. The funal shape of the Kasi hills lock the
humidity of the winds in the Patna and Delhi rain bearing clouds from moving out which
experience even less rainfall. results in excessive rainfall.
Educational Objective: To learn about Indian The Bay of Bengal branch of south west
monsoons and important/main branches of monsoon reaches the north eastern India
monsoons. including West Bengal (Kolkata) by the end of
first week of June and the amount of rainfall in
5. Key: D
Kolkata is less compared to Kochin.
Explanation: Mangalore being located in the
Educational Objective: To understand the
coastal Karnataka and to the west of Western
raining patterns in some of the important cities
Ghats it gets rainfall from the Arabian sea
in India.
branch monsoonal winds with full intensity.
Whereas the Bangalore is located in the rain 7. Key: A
shadow region of Western Ghats it get very less Explanation: Average annual rainfall in India is
rainfall compared to Mangalore. Thus statement 650 millimetres. One-third of the area of the
1 is wrong country does not records more than 750
Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall millimetres of annual rainfall. Thus statement 1
both from south-west monsoon and north- is wrong.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

In India various types of irrigation systems are Winter rainfall in Northern India does not create
practiced in different parts of India. Such as anti cyclonic condition. Thus statement 2 is
wells irrigation, tanks irrigation, canals, wrong.
perennial canal, multi-purpose river valley Educational Objective: To learn about the
projects. But the dominant source of irrigation differences between the cyclonic and anti-
in the country is wells. The predominant type of cyclonic conditions.
soil in the northern plains of India is Alluvial
10. Key: B
soil.
Explanation: In Gulf of Mannar is a Biosphere
Near thirty percent of the geographical area of reserve and is one of the eighteen biosphere
country is covered by mountains reserves in India under the UNESCO’s Man and
Educational Objective: To learn about Indian Biosphere (MAB) Programme. It is located
monsoons and types of irrigation systems which between Indian part of Gulf of Mannar between
(Tamil Nadu) India and Sri Lanka. Hence,
are practised in india.
statement 1 is correct.
8. Key: B The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase – I was
Explanation: The Inflow of the south westerly aimed at preventing the pollution of river Ganga
monsoons in to India brings about total change was started in 1985.Ganga Action Plan Phase –
II was launched in 1993 to include Yamuna and
in the weather condition. The very hot
Gomati rivers.
temperature experienced in summer due to National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) was
intense heating of land suddenly drops by the launched in 1995 to reduce the pollution in
inflow of the south westerly monsoons. But the rivers improving and improve water quality.
humidity of the also increases due to the inflow After launching of NRCP in 1995, it was decided
south westerly monsoons. to merge GAP II with NRCP. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
Statement-3: Environment Information System
changes in weather condition after the inflow of (ENVIS) is central sector Scheme of the
the south western monsoons. MOEFCC implemented since 1982. It acts as
9. Key: B Decentralized information network for
environmental information collection, storage,
Explanation: In the winter seasons due to low
collation, retrieval and dissemination. Hence,
temperature subsidence of air takes place thus
statement 4 is correct.
create a high pressure condition or a Anti Educational Objective: To know about Gulf of
cyclonic condition. Mannar Biosphere reserve, National River
Where as in the summer due to to the excessive Conservation Plan, Ganga action plan phase II
heating of land a low pressure is created and ENVIS - Environment Information System.
(upliftment of air takes place) thus create
cyclonic conditions. Thus statement 1 is correct.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

4) Wind breaks
4. Soil
Which of the above are considered
1. In India, the problem of soil erosion is appropriate methods for soil conservation in
associated with which of the following? India?
1) Terrace cultivation (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2) Deforestation (b) 2 and 4 only
3) Tropical climate (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
given below.
5. With reference to agricultural soils,
(a) 1 and 2 only
consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. A high content of organic matter in soil
(c) 1 and 3 only
drastically reduces its water holding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
capacity.
2. Identify the correct order of the 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur
processes of soil-erosion from the cycle.
following 3. Irrigation over a period of time can
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, contribute to the salinization of some
Gully erosion agricultural lands.
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully Which of the statements given above is/are
erosion, Rill erosion correct?
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, (a) 1 & 2 only
Splash erosion (b) 3 only
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, (c) 1 & 3 only
Splash erosion (d) 1,2 & 3

3. Contour bunding is a method of soil 6. When you travel in certain parts of India,
conservation used in you will notice red soil. What is the main
(a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action reason for this colour?
(b) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, (a) Abundance of magnesium
liable to flooding
(b) Accumulated humus
(c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
(d) None of the above
(d) Abundance of phosphates
4. With reference to soil conservation,
consider the following practices: 7. Which of the following statements
1) Crop rotation regarding laterite soils of India are
2) Sand fences correct?
3) Terracing 1) They are generally red in colour

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

2) They are rich in nitrogen and potash. grow crops. They can reduce surface run-off and
3) They are well-developed in Rajasthan and soil erosion. Hence, 1st option is wrong
UP. The type of climate doesn’t really affect the rate
4) Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these of erosion as much the other factors like rainfall.
soils. Hence, 3rd option is wrong.
Select the correct answer using the codes Educational Objective: To learn about the
given below. problems/causes of soil erosion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 2. Key: A
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: Splash Erosion: The erosion due
(c) 1 and 4 to the impact of falling raindrops on soil surface
(d) 2 and 3 only. leading to the destruction of the crumb
8. Which one of the following is the structure is known as the raindrop or splash
appropriate reason for considering the erosion. It is also called Rain drop erosion.
Gondwana rocks as most important of Sheet Erosion: The detachment and
rock systems of India? transportation of soil particles by flowing
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of rainwater is called sheet or wash off erosion.
India are found in them Rill erosion: It occurs mostly during heavy rain.
(b) More than 90% of India's coal reserves are In rill erosion finger like rills appear on the
found in them cultivated land after it has undergone sheet
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils erosion. When rills increase in size, they are
are spread over them called gullies.
(d) None of the reasons given above is Gully Erosion refers to the cutting of narrow
appropriate in this context channels called gullies. It cuts deep and removes
the surface soil as well as deeper soil that may
4. Key and Explanation still have substantial amounts of total nutrients
but less compared to the surface soil.
1. Key: B Hence, the correct order is Splash erosion, Sheet
Explanation: The Roots of trees and plants in a erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion (1st option)
area bind the soil particles and regulate the flow Educational Objective: To learn about the
of water, thus saving soil from erosion. process /stages of soil erosion
Deforestation (Removal of trees) makes soil
3. Key: D
vulnerable to wind and water erosion. Hence, 2nd
Explanation: In Contour Bunding, a series of
option is correct.
checks are put in place across the slope of a
In terrace cultivation, a number of terraces are
hilly surface.
cut along the hill slope. These are made on the
steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

The bunds divide the entire slope into numerous percent of its weight in water. It therefore
smaller segments which help in reducing the increases Water-Holding Capacity of the soil.
runoff along the slopes, ensure greater Hence, statement 1 is wrong
absorption of rainwater on the slopes thus The sulphur reservoir is in the soil and
controlling soil erosion. sediments where it is locked in organic (coal, oil
Sometimes, the bunds can be in the form of and peat) and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock
retaining walls. and sulphur rock) in the form of sulphates,
Educational Objective: To learn about contour sulphides and organic sulphur.
bounding method of soil conservation It is released by weathering of rocks, erosional
runoff and decomposition of organic matter and
4. Key: D
is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems
Explanation: Crop rotation is a practice in
in salt solution. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
which different crops are grown every year, on
Salinity from irrigation can occur over time
the basis of rotation. This helps to conserve soil
wherever irrigation occurs, since water contains
fertility as different crops require different
some dissolved salts. When the plants use the
nutrients from the soil. Crop rotation will
water, the salts are left behind in the soil and
provide enough time to restore lost nutrients.
eventually begin to accumulate leading to
Sand fences are barriers made of small, evenly
salinization of Agricultural lands. Hence,
spaced wooden slats or fabric. They are erected
statement 3 is correct
to reduce wind velocity and to trap blowing
Educational Objective: To know about impact
sand. Sand fences can be used as perimeter
of organic matter, sulphur cycle, Irrigation on
controls around open construction sites to keep
soil
sediments from being blown offsite by the wind.
Terracing: On hilly slopes, terraces act as 6. Key: C
bunds and prevent the soil from being washed Explanation: Red soils are red in colour due to
away. Farming is done on a unique step like presence offerric oxides. The lower layer is
structure and the force of water running off is reddish yellow or yellow.
slowed down These soils mostly occur in the regions of low
Windbreaks are the rows of trees planted to rainfall. They occupy about 3.5 lakh sq km (10.6
check the wind movement to protect soil cover. per cent) of the total area of the country. They
They are generally found in coastal and dry are poor in lime, magnesia, phosphates, nitrogen
regions. and humus. They are rich in potash and
Educational Objective: To learn about various potassium.
soil conservation methods Educational Objective: To know about

5. Key: B characteristics of red soil

Explanation: Organic matter acts like a sponge,


with the ability to absorb and hold up to 90

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

7. Key: C
Explanation: Laterite soil occurs in the areas of 5. Minerals
high temperature and high rainfall. They are
formed as a result of high leaching and Red 1. Which among the following has the
colour due to iron oxide.Hence, statement 1 is world's largest reserves of Uranium?
correct. (a) Australia
They are very poor in lime, magnesia, potash (b) Canada
and nitrogen. Hence, statement 2 is wrong (c) Russian Federation
Distribution: They are well developed in south (d) USA
Maharashtra, parts of Karnataka etc. and are 2. Which one of the following countries is
widely scattered in other regions. UP has alluvial the leading producer of uranium?
soils where as Rajasthan has desert soil, Hence, (a) United States of America
statement 3 is wrong. (b) Canada
Laterite soils lack fertility due to intensive (c) Germany
leaching, so are not fit for agricultural crops. (d) Zambia
Plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber,
3. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Major
cinchona, coconut, arecanut, etc. Can be grown.
producer) and Select the correct answer
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
using the codes given below the lists:
Educational Objectives: To learn the
List-I List-II
characteristics of laterite soils
(a) Mineral Oil 1. Zambia
8. Key: B (b) Copper 2. Guyana
Explanation: Gondwana rock system is named after the (c) Manganese 3. Venezuela
huge carbon deposits contained within them. They (d) Bauxite 4. Gabon
contain up to 98 percent of our coal deposits, Hence, are
Codes:
the largest source of coal in India,
(a) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
They are mainly found in Ranigunj, Jharia regions of
(b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
Jharkhand, Damodar valley, Pench valley in Chhattisgarh
(c) A-1; B-3;C-2; D-4
and Madhya Pradesh, Godavari valley in Telangana and
(d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
the Rajmahal hills of West Bengal.
4. Which of the following substances are
They are named after the Gond tribe (indigenous people
found in the beach sands of many parts
mainly found in the Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
of Kerala?
regions). These are sedimentary deposits which were
1. Ilmenite
accumulated in the synclinal troughs on an older plateau
2. Zircon
surface.
3. Sillimanite
Educational Objective: To learn about the
4. Tungsten
Gondwana rock system.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only


given below: (c) 2&3
(a) 1,2,3 &4 (d) None
(b) 1,2 & 3 only
8. With reference to the mineral resources
(c) 3 & 4 only
of India, consider the following pairs:
(d) 1 & 2 only
Mineral 90% Natural sources in
5. Consider the following statements: (a) Copper Jharkhand
1. In India, State Governments do not have the (b) Nickel Orissa
power to auction non- coal mines. (c) Tungsten Kerala
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not Which of the pairs given above is/are
have gold mines.
correctly matched?
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (b) 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 9. In which of the following states are


(d) 3 only Namchik – Namphuk Coalfields located
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
6. Which of the following is/are the
characteristic/ characteristics of Indian (b) Meghalaya

coal? (c) Manipur

1. High ash content (d) Mizoram

2. Low sulphur content 10. Which of the following minerals found in


3. Low ash fusion temperature a natural way in the state of
Select the correct answer using the codes Chhattisgarh?
given below. 1) Bauxite
(a) 1 & 2 only 2) Dolomite
(b) 2 only 3) Iron ore
(c) 1 & 3 only 4) Tin
(d) 1, 2 & 3 Select the correct answer using code given

7. Consider the following statements: below codes


1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds. (a) 1,2 and 3 only
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. (b) 1 and 3 only.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. (c) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1,2 3 and 4
correct?
(a) 1 & 2

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

11. In which one of the following districts, (b) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
have large reserves of diamond-bearing (c) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
kimberlite been discovered in the recent (d) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
past?
15. HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located
(a) Hoshangabad
at Renukut owes its site basically to
(b) Raipur
(a) Proximity of raw materials
(c) Sambalpur
(b) Abundant supply of power
(d) Warangal
(c) Proximity to the network
12. Consider the following statements: (d) Proximity to the market
1. Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
16. In the map black marks show the
2. Majhgawan is known for its manganese
distributions of
deposits
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of


Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006
because of which one of the following? (a) Asbestos
(a) Finding high quality gas reserves (b) Gypsum
(b) Finding uranium deposits (c) Limestone
(c) Finding zinc deposits (d) Mica
(d) Installation of wind power units 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the
14. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II correct answer using the codes given
(Location) and select the correct answer below the list
using the codes given below the Lists: Lists-I (Minerals) List-II (Mining area)
List-I (Minerals) List-II (Location) A. Graphite 1. Bellary
A. Coal 1. Giridih B. Lead 2. Didwana
B. Copper 2. Jayankondam C. Salt 3. Rampa
C. Manganese 3. Alwar D. Silver 4. Zawar
D. Lignite 4. Dharwar Codes:
Codes: (a) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
(a) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 (b) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(c) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 3. Lowering of the water-table


(d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 Select the correct answer using the code

18. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of given below:

specialised towns have been developed. a. 1 only


Match the lists and select the correct b. 2 & 3 only
answer using the codes c. 1 & 3 only
List-I (Towns) List-II (Specialisation) d. 1,2 & 3
A. Alibag 1. Fishing centre
B. Balapur 2. Holiday resort
5. Key and Explanation
C. Nhava Sheva 3.Petro-chemical 1. Key: A
complex Explanation: Uranium is radioactive metal
D. Ratnagiri 4. Port (silvery-gray metal) used as nuclear fuel to
Codes: generate electricity in nuclear power stations.
(a) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4  Uranium occurs naturally in several mineral
(b) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 forms such as uraninite, brannerite and
(c) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 carnotite. It is also found in phosphate rock
(d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 and monazite sands.
19. Commercial production of mineral oil has  The purified oxide of uranium is also known
started recently in which one of the areas as yellow-cake.
of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the  Australia has the world's largest reserve of
rough map given below: Uranium. it possesses around 30% of the
(a) 1 world's known recoverable uranium
(b) 2 reserves.
(c) 3  Australia is followed by Kazakhstan. It
(d) 4 contains about 13% of the world's
recoverable uranium reserve.
 Russia, with about 9% of the world's
uranium possesses the third largest
uranium reserve in the world. While Canada
has the fourth largest reserve of Uranium.
 Uranium deposits in India can be found in
Singhbhum and Hazaribagh districts of
20. Which of the following is/are the
Jharkhand, Gaya district of Bihar, and in
possible consequences of heavy sand
Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh (In the
mining in riverbeds?
sedimentary rock). While the largest
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

concentration of monazite sand is found on Copper: Zambia- the Republic of Zambia is a


the Kerala coast (Malabar Coast). landlocked country in Southern-Central Africa,
Educational Objective: To learn about the The Zambian economy has historically been
reserves of uranium. based on the copper mining industry. In India
Rajasthan (50%)
2. Key: B
Madhya Pradesh (24%)
Explanation: Uranium is radioactive metal
Jharkhand (19%)
(silvery-gray metal) used as nuclear fuel to
generate electricity in nuclear power stations. Are the leading producers of Copper.

Uranium occurs naturally in several mineral Manganese: Gabon- Gabon is a world leader in

forms such as uraninite, brannerite and manganese. It has high-grade manganese

carnotite. It is also found in phosphate rock and deposits. Reserves were estimated at 250 million

monazite sands. tons with a metal content of 48%–52%.


In India, Odisha, Karnataka and Madhya
 Canada has the fourth largest reserve of
Pradesh are the leading producers of
Uranium in the world. And it is the world's
manganese.
second largest producer of uranium, with
Bauxite: Guyana- Guyana was known to have a
approximately 15% of global production
350-million-ton bauxite reserve, one of the
(2017).
world's highest concentrations. Bauxite mining
 In Canada uranium is currently mined from
was concentrated in northeast Guyana.
the McArthur River, Cigar Lake and Rabbit
In India, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat are
Lake (Eagle Point) mines in northern
the leading producers of bauxite ore. Odisha
Saskatchewan.
alone accounts for 52 per cent.
 The world’s largest and Canada’s only
Educational Objective: To learn about the
uranium refinery is located at Blind River,
minerals and its major producers.
Ontario. And approximately 85 percent of
Canada’s uranium production is exported. 4. Key: B
 Even though the uranium deposits are also Explanation: Heavy-mineral concentrates
found in the United States of America and known as “Black sands” occur in layers and
Germany, But their production rate is not patches all along the Kerala beaches.
much.  The Heavy Mineral Sand deposits in Kerala
Educational Objective: To learn about the contain an assemblage of Ilmenite, Rutile,
uranium producing countries. Leucoxene, Monazite, Zircon and
Sillimanite.
3. Key: A
 The State possesses one of the world class
Explanation: Mineral Oil: Venezuela- The
deposits of mineral sands in the coastal
proven oil reserves in Venezuela are recognized
tracts.
as the largest in the world.

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Previous Year Questions

 These deposits are commonly known as the peninsular India and younger Tertiary
Chavara deposit, The Chavara barrier beach formations of north-eastern region.
portion contains concentration of heavy  Jharkhand accounts for largest reserve of
minerals above 60%. coal deposits in India followed by Odisha,
 The Kerala state also owns mineral deposits Chhattisgarh and West Bengal.
like placers, china clay (kaolin), limestone,  Hard coal deposits spread over 27 major
lime shell, silica sand, bauxite, graphite, coalfields, are mainly confined to eastern
iron ore, granite etc. and south central parts of the country.
Educational Objective: To learn about the  The lignite reserves stand at a level around
heavy mineral sands and its deposits. 36 billion tonnes, of which 90 % occur in

5. Key: D the southern State of Tamil Nadu.

Explanation: As per the new Mines and  Most of the Indian coals contain a higher

Minerals (Development and Regulation) percentage of inorganic impurities.

Amendment Act, 2015. The non-coal mines have  Indian coals like any other gondwana coals
to be auctioned by the respective state are of high ash content.
governments. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.  Indian coals also has very low sulphur
● Gold in its purest form is a bright, slightly content
reddish yellow, dense, soft malleable and Educational Objective: To learn about the
ductile metal. In India both Andhra characteristics of Indian coal.
Pradesh and Jharkhand have gold mines 7. Key: B
[Andhra Pradesh (3%), Jharkhand (2 %)]. Explanation: The Coal resources are found in
Other States with gold reserves are Bihar Gondwana Formations not Natural gas. Thus
(44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), statement 1 is incorrect.
Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%). But In Koderma district in Jharkhand is rich in
terms of metal content, Karnataka remained minerals. The Koderma district and the Lokai-
on top followed by Rajasthan, Andhra Indarwa area covers the southern part of the
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, etc. Thus Great Mica-Belt of Jharkhand and Bihar India.
statement 2 is incorrect. Thus statement 2 is correct.
● Rajasthan has iron ore deposits in Jaipur, Dharwars formation are famous for Iron ore
Bhilwara, Udaipur, Sikar and Dausa. deposits and not for petroleum. Thus statement
Educational Objective: To learn about the coal, 3 is incorrect.
non-coal and iron ore mines. Educational Objective: To learn about the
6. Key: A resources and its place of occurrence.

Explanation: The Coal resources of India are


available in older Gondwana Formations of

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Previous Year Questions

8. Key: B  The lignite reserves stand at a level around


Explanation: In India Rajasthan (50%), Madhya 36 billion tonnes, of which 90 % occur in
Pradesh (24%), Jharkhand (19%) are the leading the southern State of Tamil Nadu.
producers of Copper. Educational Objective: To learn about the
Nickel is a lustrous, silvery-white metal having a Coal fields and its locations.
high melting point of 1455oC. It exhibits high
10. Key: D
resistance to corrosion and oxidation, excellent
Explanation: Chhattisgarh is one of the
strength and toughness. Nickel occurs
foremost mineral rich States in the country.
principally as oxides, sulphides and silicates in
Twenty-Eight known varieties of minerals are
India. Orissa has the highest amount of Nickel
found in the State including precious stones &
Ore resources.
diamonds, iron ore, coal, limestone, dolomite, tin
The deposits of wolfram, the chief ore of
ore, bauxite and gold.
Tungsten, are found in Chendpathar in Bankura
 Chhattisgarh possesses India’s only active
district of West Bengal and Degana near Rawat
tin mine (in Bastar district), and one of
Hills in Rajasthan.
world’s best quality of iron ore deposits in
Educational Objective: To learn about the
the world (at Bailadila in Dantewada
minerals and its natural sources/locations.
district).
9. Key: A  The State has high potential for mining good
 Explanation: Namchik-Namphuk coalfields quality of diamonds.
are located in the state of Arunachal Educational Objective: To learn about the
Pradesh. The mining rights of Namchik - minerals found naturally in Chattisgarh.
Namphuk coalfield has been given to the
11. Key: B
Arunachal Pradesh Mineral Development
Explanation: Chhattisgarh has one of the
and Trading Corporation Ltd (APMDTCL).
biggest diamond mines in the country.
 The Coal resources of India are available in
Chhattisgarh's diamond reserve are found at
older Gondwana Formations of peninsular
Raipur and Devbhog region of Maoist-hit
India and younger Tertiary formations of
Gariyaband district.
north-eastern region.
● Chhattisgarh has an estimated 13 lakh
 Jharkhand accounts for the largest reserve
carat diamonds in its reserves which is
of coal deposits in India followed by Odisha,
28.26 percent of total 46 lakh carat
Chhattisgarh and West Bengal.
diamond reserves in India.
 Hard coal deposits spread over 27 major ● The diamond mine is located about 130
coalfields, are mainly confined to eastern kilometres from Gariyaband headquarter
and south central parts of the country. towards the border of Odisha
● Hoshangabad is one of the diamond mines
in the country. A total reserve of 976.05

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thousand carats has been estimated in the experiment has started to ascertain exact
Panna district. quantity oil in those wells.
Educational Objective: To learn about the Educational Objective: To learn about the
reserves of diamond in India. natural gas reserves in India.

12. Key: D 14. Key: C


Explanation: Balaghat of Madhya Pradesh is Explanation: Giridih Coalfield is located in
known for its manganese mines. State is Giridih district in the Indian state of Jharkhand.
enriched with good deposits of manganese ore The Coal resources of India are available in older
mainly spread over in the Balaghat, Chhindwara Gondwana Formations of peninsular India and
and Jhabua districts. younger Tertiary formations of north-eastern
 The "Bharveli manganese mine" in Balaghat region.
district is the largest underground mine  Copper mineralization from the Alwar basin
operating in Asian subcontinent. in Rajasthan (of the north Delhi fold belt)
 Majhgawan is a town located in Satna found. The tentative resource of copper is
District, Madhya Pradesh is famous for its about 11 million tones.
diamond mines. NMDC is the only organised  Dharwar rocks have been formed as a result
producer of diamonds in India from its of the erosion and sedimentation of the
Majhgawan mine at Panna, Madhya rocks of the Archaean system. The
Pradesh. prominent metallic minerals found in these
Educational Objective: To learn about the rocks are iron, gold, manganese etc.
locations of diamond and manganese mines.  Lignite is found in Jayankondam in

13. Key: A Tamilnadu.

Explanation: Natural gas consists primarily of Educational Objective: To learn about the

methane. Natural gas is often found dissolved in minerals and its sources/locations.

oil or as a gas cap above the oil reserves. 15. Key: B


 Natural gas is the cleanest fossil fuels Explanation: HINDALCO is the world’s largest
among the available fossil fuels. aluminium rolling company and one of Asia’s
 KG basin, Assam, Gulf of Khambhat, biggest producers of primary aluminium.
Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu, Barmer in  HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at
Rajasthan are the major natural gas fields Renukut owes its site basically to Abundant
in India. supply of power from nearby thermal Power
 Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer new gas Stations (National Thermal Power Station,
reserves had found. Rihand).
 According to officials. The gas reserve was  Rihand Super Thermal Power Project is
discovered at 3,465 metres depth and is located at Renukut, Sonebhadra in
stretched up to five km area. Study and Sonbhadra district in Indian state of Uttar

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Pradesh. The power plant is one of the coal Educational Objective: To learn about the
based power plants of NTPC Limited. minerals and its mining areas.
 Thus statement 2 is correct. 18. Key: B
Educational Objective: To learn about the Explanation: Alibag is a coastal town and a
location of aluminium factories in India. municipal council in Raigad District of
16. Key: C Maharashtra, India. It is the headquarters
Explanation: Distribution of MICA in India of the Raigad district and is south of the city
Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand. Hence of Mumbai. Alibag is part of Mumbai
the above map does not relate to Mica Metropolitan Region and is situated at a
Distribution. Option D is wrong. distance of about 96km from Mumbai and it
 Gypsum is mainly produced majorly in is known for Holiday resorts.
Rajasthan (nearly 99% of the production)  The Thane – Belapur region is one of the
hence option B is wrong. largest industrial regions in India. Belapur
 Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh are the only is known for its Petro-chemical complex.
states that produce most of the Asbestos.  Jawaharlal Nehru Port, also known as
Hence option A is wrong. Nhava Sheva, is the largest container port in
 Distribution of limestone in India Madhya India. Located east of Mumbai (previously
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, known as 'Bombay') in Navi Mumbai,
Gujarat, and Chhattisgarh Option C relates Maharashtra.
to the above Map. Hence option C is  Ratnagiri is a port city on the Arabian Sea
correct. coast in Ratnagiri District in the
Educational Objective: To learn about the southwestern part of Maharashtra, India.
distribution of mica, gypsum, limestone and Fishing is done throughout all the coasts of
asbestos in India. Ratnagiri.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
17. Key: B
important towns in Maharashtra and its
Explanation: Zawar is a settlement located in
specialisation areas.
Udaipur district, Rajasthan, is known for lead
mining. Zawar is a township created by mining 19. Key: C
company Hindustan Zinc Limited, for extraction Explanation: In Cauvery on-shore basin in
of zinc and lead. Tamil Nadu the commercial production of
 Didwana is a town in Nagaur district of mineral oil has started.
Rajasthan in India, in the Thar Desert.is  Petroleum or Mineral oil is obtained from
known for salt pans. sedimentary rocks of the earth
 Rampa (Rampachodavaram) is a census  India has 26 sedimentary basins covering
town in East Godavari district of the Indian an area of 3.14 million square kilometres.
state of Andhra Pradesh. The sedimentary basins of India, on land

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and offshore up to the 400m isobath, have


an aerial extent of about 1.84 million sq.
6. Energy
km. 1. The dulhasti power station is based on
 The on-shore Oil Production In India which one of the following rivers?
includes. (a) Beas
 Cauvery on-shore basin in Tamil Nadu. (b) Chenab
 Gujarat coast in western India. (c) Ravi
 Brahmaputra valley of north-east India. (d) Sutlej
 Barmer area of Rajasthan.
2. Consider the following statements
 Andhra Pradesh has both on-shore and 1) India does not have any deposits of
offshore oil reserves. thorium (2.009)
Educational Objective: To learn about the 2) Kerala's monazite sands contain Uranium
locations of mineral oil production. Which of the statements given above is/are
20. Key: B correct?
Explanation: Depletion of sand in the (a) 1 only
streambed and along coastal areas causes the (b) 2 only
deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the (c) Both 1 and 2
enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from
3. Which of the following pairs in respect of
the nearby sea. Thus there will be increased
current power generation in India is/are
salinity in the river. Hence statement 1 is
correctly matched? (Rounded Figure)
wrong.
1) Installed electricity 100000 MW Generation
Sand mining transforms the riverbeds into large
capacity
and deep pits; as a result, the groundwater
2) Electricity generation 660 billion kWh
table drops leaving the drinking water wells on
Select the correct answer using the code
the embankments of these rivers dry.
given below:
Bed degradation from in-stream mining lowers
Codes:
the elevation of stream flow and the floodplain
(a) 1 only
water table which in turn can eliminate water
(b) 2 only
table-dependent woody vegetation in riparian
(c) Both 1 and 2
areas, and decrease wetted periods in riparian
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
wetlands. Hence statement 2 and 3 are
correct. 4. With which one of the following rivers is

Educational Objective: To learn about the the Omkareshwar Project associated?

possible consequences of heavy sand mining (a) Chambal

in riverbeds. (b) Narmada

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(c) Tapi (c) Hydro-electric plant


(d) Bhima (d) Nuclear power plant

5. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is 10. Match List I (Atomic Power Plants/Heavy
located in: Water Plants) with List II (State) and
(a) Bihar select the correct answer using the code
(b) Chhattisgarh given below the lists:
(c) Jharkhand List-I (Atomic Power Plants/ Heavy Water
(d) Orissa Plants) List-II (State)
A. Thal 1. Andhra Pradesh
6. In which of the following regions of India
B. Manuguru 2. Gujarat
are shale gas resources found?
C. Kakrapar 3. Maharashtra
1) Cambay Basin
D. Kaiga 4. Rajasthan
2) Cauvery Basin
5. Karnataka
3) Krishna-Godavari Basin
Codes:
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-5
given below.
(b) A-3; B-5; C-2; D-1
(a) 1 & 2 only
(c) A-2; B-5; C-4; D-1
(b) 3 only
(d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-5
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3 11. Match items in the List I (Power Station)
with those in the List II (State) and select
7. On which one of the following rivers is
the correct answer using the code given
the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
below the lists:
(a) Alaknanda
List-I List-II (State)
(b) Bhagirathi
(Power Station)
(c) Dhauliganga
A. Kothagudem 1. Andhra Pradesh
(d) Mandakini
B. Raichur 2. Gujarat
8. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh C. Mettur 3. Karnataka
Hydroelectric Project located? D. Wanakbori 4. Tamil Nadu
(a) Madhya Pradesh Codes:
(b) Uttar Pradesh (a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
(c) Uttarakhand (b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(d) Rajasthan (c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
9. For which one of the following, is Satara (d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
well-known? 12. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one
(a) Thermal power plant of the following?
(b) Wind energy plant

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(a) Chambal Project


(b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project
(d) Bhakra Nangal Project

13. In the given figure shows a portion of


Southern India. The proposed site
(Koodankulam) for the construction of The Chenab river has rich power generation
two 1000 MW nuclear power plants has potential in India. Following are the power
been labelled in the map as projects related to Chenab river.
● Salal Dam
● Tarbela Dam
● DulHasti Hydroelectric Plant
● Pakal Dul DamRatle Hydroelectric Plant
● Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project
● Kwar Hydroelectric Power Project
Educational Objective: To know about run of
river project.
(a) A
(b) B 2. Key: D

(c) C Explanation: There are two sets of estimates

(d) D that define world thorium reserves, one set by


the United States Geological Survey (USGS) and
the other supported by reports from the OECD
6. Key and Explanation
and the International Atomic Energy Agency (the

1. Key: B IAEA). Under the USGS estimate, India, the

Explanation: DulHasti is a 390 MW United States, and Australia have particularly

hydroelectric power plant in Kishtwar district of large reserves of thorium. India and Australia

Jammu and Kashmir, India built by NHPC. are believed to possess about 300,000 tonnes

The power plant is a run-of-the-river type on each; i.e. each has 25% of the world's thorium

Chandra River, a tributary of Chenab River, in reserves. Hence statement 1 is wrong.

the Kishtwar region, a rugged, mountainous The minerals found in the Monazite sands of

section of the Himalayas, and several hundred Kerala is Thorium. Hence statement 2 is also

kilometers from larger cities wrong.


Thorium: Thorium is several times more
abundant in Earth’s crust than all isotopes of
uranium combined and thorium-232 is several

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hundred times more abundant than uranium- The dam was constructed between 2003 and
235. 2007 with the purpose of providing water for
Monazite – Rare Earth Metals: Monazite is a irrigation of 132,500 ha (327,000 acres). An
reddish-brown phosphate mineral containing associated hydroelectric power station located at
rare earth metals. Rare earths are a series of the base of the dam has an installed capacity of
chemical elements found in the Earth’s crust 520 MW.
that are vital to many modern technologies. Total Catchment Area at the Dam site is 64880
Educational Objective: To know about sq.km. Generation of power at Omkareshwar
thorium reserves Project is directly related to the regulated release
of water from Indira Sagar Project, hence it is
3. Key: D
one of the beneficiary project of Indira Sagar
Explanation: India is the world's third largest
Project.
producer and third largest consumer of
electricity. The national electric grid in India has Educational Objective: To know about hydro

an installed capacity of 368.79 GW as of 31 electric project.

December 2019. Renewable power plants, which 5. Key: C


also include large hydroelectric plants, Explanation: Bokaro Thermal Power Station is
constitute 34.86% of India's total installed located at Bokaro district in Jharkhand.
capacity. Hence statement 1 is wrong. Thermal Power Plants in India

During the 2018-19 fiscal year, the gross


electricity generated by utilities in India was
1,372 TWh and the total electricity generation
(utilities and non utilities) in the country was
1,547 TWh.
Hence statement 2 is wrong.
The gross electricity consumption in 2018-19
was 1,181 kWh per capita.In 2015-16, electric
energy consumption in agriculture was recorded
as being the highest (17.89%) worldwide. The BTPS has achieved a reputation of being the
Educational Objective: To know about energy first and the largest thermal power station in
consumption. Asia after its inauguration in 1953.
Educational Objective: To know about thermal
4. Key: B power plants of India.
Explanation: The Omkareshwar Dam is a
gravity dam on the Narmada River just
upstream of Mandhata in Khandwa district,
Madhya Pradesh, India. It is named after the
Omkareshwar temple located just downstream.

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6. Key: D 8. Key: C
Explanation: Explanation: The Tapovan-Vishnugad
Hydropower Plant is a 520 MW run-of-river
hydroelectric project being constructed
on Dhauliganga River in Chamoli District of
Uttarakhand, India. The plant is expected to
generate over 2.5k GWh of electricity annually.
Educational Objective: It is important to have a
To strengthen its hydrocarbon resource base, glance at new hydro-electricity projects in news
India has identified six basins as areas for shale
9. Key: B
gas exploration: Cambay (Gujarat), Assam-
Explanation: Satara well-known for Thermal
Arakan (North East), Gondwana (Central India),
power plant Hussain Sagar Thermal Power
Krishna Godavari onshore (East Coast), Cauvery
Station is the historic thermal power plant that
onshore, and Indo-Gangetic basins.
was located in Hyderabad, Telangana on the
Shale gas is an unconventional source of energy
banks of Hussain Sagar. It was India's first
found in non-porous rocks. It has become an
thermal power station, opened in 1920 by the
important source of natural gas in the US.
erstwhile seventh Nizam of Hyderabad.
Educational Objective: To know about hydro
Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station in the
carbon resources.
Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh, with an
7. Key: B installed capacity of 4,760MW, is currently the
Explanation: Tehri Hydropower is a multi- biggest thermal power plant in India. It is a coal-
purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam based power plant owned and operated by NTPC.
on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri Hussain Sagar Thermal Power Station,
in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of Telangana was India's first thermal power
the THDC India Ltd. and the Tehri hydroelectric station.
complex. Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station, Madhya
Pradesh is currently the biggest.
Educational Objective: To know about thermal
power project.

Educational Objective: It is important to have a


glance at new hydro-electricity projects in news.

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10. Key: D Plateau in Jharkhand.it flows across the Indian


Explanation: states of Jharkhand and West Bengal.Damodar
is a rift valley river
Bhakra and Nangal Project is on the river
Satluj.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
important river tributaries, geography of rivers
and riverine dam projects.

13. Key: B
As of March 2018,India has 22 nuclear
Explanation: Point B in the map is
reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants,
kudankulam, Tamil Nadu. Kudankulam Nuclear
with a total installed capacity of 6,780 MW.
Power Plant is the largest nuclear power station
Educational Objective: To know about nuclear
in India, situated in Koodankulam in the
power plant.
Tirunelveli district of the southern Indian state
11. Key: B of Tamil Nadu. Construction on the plant began
Explanation: Kothagudem power station is on 31 March 2002. It is built in collaboration
located in Andhra Pradesh. with Russia.s
 Raichur power station is a coal based power
plant, which is in karnataka.
 Mettur power station is located in Salem
district of Tamilnadu.
 Wanakbori power plant is in Gujarat, which
is on the bank of Mahi River.
Educational Objective: power station location
and economic geography of India

12. Key: A Educational Objective: To know the various


Explanation: The River Chambal is a tributary nuclear and atomic plants in India and their
of River Yamuna and thus forms part of locations.
Gangetic drainage system. The Chambal
originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near
Indore. Gandhisagar Dam, the Rana
PratapSagar Dam, the Jawahar Sagar Dam,
Kota Barrage are some of the major projects on
Chambal river.
Damodar Valley Project is on river Damodar.
Damodar River originates at Chota Nagpur

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(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain


7. Forest
forest
1. Which of the following is/are unique
4. Consider the following statements:
characteristic/ characteristics of
equatorial forests? 1) Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
1) Presence of tall closely set trees with crowns latitudes as compared to the higher
forming a continuous canopy latitudes.
2) Coexistence of a large number of species 2) Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
3) Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes is normally greater in the lower altitudes as
Select the correct answer using the codes compared to the higher altitudes.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. What is the difference between the
5. In India, which type of forest among the
antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
following occupies the largest area?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
and semi-desert areas of cold high
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
mountains
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas
Chiru is poached for its musk 6. From the point of view of evolution of
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas living organisms, which one of the
Chiru exists in north-east India only following is the correct sequence of
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given evolution?
above is correct (a) Otter –Tortoise- Shark
(b) Shark –Tortoise- Otter
3. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it
(c) Tortoise – Shark- Otter
does not regenerate quickly as compared
(d) Shark -Otter - Tortoise
to a tropical deciduous forest. This is
because 7. Assertion: Unlike temperate forests, the
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield
nutrients productive farmland that can support
(b) Propagules of the trees in a min forest have intensive agriculture for several years even
poor viability without chemical fertilizers.
(c) The rain forest species are slow growing

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Reason: The primary productivity of the (b) 2-3-4-1


tropical rain forest is very high when (c) 3-2-4-1
compared to that of temperate forests (d) 3-2-1-4
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
11. With reference to 'Red Sanders',
explanation of A
sometimes seen in the news, consider
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
the following statements:
explanation of A
1) It is a tree species found in a part of South
(c) A is true but R is false
India
(d) A is false but R is true
2) It is one of the most important trees in the
8. Consider the following eco systems: tropical rain forest areas of South India
1) Taiga Which of the statements given above is/are
2) Tropical evergreen correct?
3) Tropical deciduous (a) 1 only
4) Tundra (b) 2 only
The correct sequence in decreasing order of (c) Both 1 & 2
the albedo values of these ecosystems is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
12. Which one of the following is not
(b) 2, 3 and 4 essentially a species of the Himalayan
(c) 4, 1,3, 2 vegetation?
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 (a) Juniper
9. Which one among the following covers (b) Mahogany
the highest percentage of forest area in (c) Silver fir
the world? (d) Spruce
(a) Temperate coniferous forest
13. Which one of the following regions of
(b) Temperate deciduous forests India has a combination of mangrove
(c) Tropical monsoon forests forest, evergreen forest and deciduous
(d) Tropical rain forests forest?
10. Consider the following States: (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
1) Chhattisgarh (b) South-West Bengal
2) Madhya Pradesh (c) Southern Saurashtra
3) Maharashtra (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
4) Odisha 14. Consider the following States:
With reference to the States mentioned 1) Arunachal Pradesh
above, in terms of percentage of forest cover
to the total area of State, which one of the 2) Himachal Pradesh
following is the correct ascending order? 3) Mizoram
(a) 2-3-1-4

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In which of the above States do Tropical Wet (d) It has less human interference
Evergreen forest occur?
18. The approximate representation of land
(a) 1 only
use classification in India is
(b) 2 & 3 only
(a) Net area soon 25 %; forests 33%; other
(c) 1 & 3 only areas 42%
(d) 1,2 & 3 (b) Net area soon 58 %; forests 17%; other
15. In India, in which one of the following areas 25%
types of forests is teak a dominant tree (c) Net area soon 43 %; forests 29%; other
species? areas 28%
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest (d) Net area soon 47 %; forests 23%; other
(b) Tropical rain forest areas 30%
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest 19. Consider the following statements:
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands 1) In India, Red Panda is naturally found in
16. If you travel through the Himalayas, you the Western Himalayas only.
are likely to see which of the following 2) In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense
plants naturally growing there? forests of the North East.
1) 1. Oak Which of the statements given above is/are
2) 2. Rhododendron correct?
3) 3. Sandalwood (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below. (c) Both 1 & 2
(a) 1 & 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 3 only 20. Amongst the following Indian States
(c) 1 & 3 only which one has the minimum total forest
(d) 1,2 & 3 cover?
17. The Himalayan Range is very rich in (a) Sikkim
species diversity. Which one among the (b) Goa
following is the most appropriate reason (c) Haryana
for this phenomenon? (d) Kerala
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports 21. Open stunted forests with bushes and
luxuriant vegetative growth having long roots and sharp thorns or
(b) It is a confluence of different spines are commonly found in
biogeographical zones (a) Eastern Orissa
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been (b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu
introduced in this region
(c) Siwaliks and Terai regions

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(d) Western Andhra Pradesh they are seen in North Bengal, Assam and
a few other states." The animal 'X'
22. Match List-I (Mangrove) with List-II
referred to in this quotation is
(State) and select the correct answer:
(a) Lion
List-I List-II
(b) Elephant
1) Achra Ratnagiri Karnataka
(c) Tiger
2) Coondapur Kerala
(d) One-horned rhinoceros
3) Pichavaram Andhra Pradesh
4) Vembanad Maharashtra 25. Consider the following statements:
5) Tamil Nadu 1) The forest cover in India constitutes around
Codes: 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total
(a) A-2; B-1; C-5; D-4 forest cover, dense forest constitutes around
(b) A-4; B-5; C-3; D-2 40%.
(c) A-2; B-5; C-3; D-4 2) The National Forestry Action Programme
(d) A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2 aims at bringing one-third of the area of
India under tree forest cover.
23. The minimum land area recommended
Which of the statements given above is/are
for forest cover to maintain proper
correct?
ecological balance in India is
(a) 1 only
(a) 25%
(b) 2 only
(b) 33%
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 43%
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 53%
26. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3
24. "India has the largest population of the
and 4 in the rough outline map given:
Asian X. Today, there are just about
20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural
habitat spreading across the evergreen
forests, dry thorn forests, swamps and
grasslands. Their prime habitats are,
however, the moist deciduous forests.
The X population in India ranges from
North-West India where they are found in
the forest divisions of Dehradun, Bijnor
and Nainital districts of UP to the Among these, those which were threatened in
Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka 1997 by a serious epidemic include
and Kerala and in Tamil Nadu. In Central (a) Teak forests of 3 and 4
India, their population is distributed in (b) Oak forests of 1 and Sal forests of 2
southern Bihar and Orissa. In the East,

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(c) Sal forests of 3 They do not harm the trees and they do not get
(d) Sandalwood forests of 4 their nutrients from them. They only use the
27. Consider the following rivers : trees for physical support. Hence, statement 3 is
1) Barak correct
2) Lohit Educational Objective: To know about the
3) Subansiri
vegetation of Equatorial forest.
Which of the above flows / flow through
Arunachal Pradesh? 2. Key: A

(a) 1 only Explanation: Chiru


(b) 2 & 3 only Is also called as Tibetan goat, whose underfur is
(c) 1 & 3 only used for making the famous Shahtoosh shawls.
(d) 1,2 & 3 It is placed under ‘Near Threatened’ by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature
7. Key and Explanation
and is Endemic to the Tibetan Plateau, the
1. Key: D
Tibetan antelope inhabits open alpine and cold
Explanation: Large number of species of trees
steppe environments between 3,250 and 5,500
occurs in a particular area (trees do not occur in
m (10,660 and 18,040 ft) elevation. From
homogenous stands or pure stands). That is
Ladakh, the chiru's distribution extends 1600
why, countries in equatorial region import
km (990 mi) eastward across Tibet.
timber despite having dense forests. Hence,
Oryx: Oryx species prefer near-desert conditions
statement 2 is correct
and can survive without water for long periods.
The uppermost layer of rainforest is made up of
The horns are narrow, and straight mostly,
the crowns of the tallest trees with average
poaching is leading to their extinction. Hence,
height 45 – 60 meters are known as emergent,
statement 1 is correct
with their crowns exposed to the direct sunlight.
Educational Objective: To know about
The next layer is known as the canopy with an
antelopes – Oryx and Chiru.
average height of about 20 to 40 meters.The
3. Key: A
crowns of the trees in this layer are tightly
Explanation: In the tropical rain forests,
packed together forming a nearly unbroken
Torrential downpours wash out most of the top
cover for the forest floor. Hence, statement 1 is
soil nutrients and the fertility of top soil in
correct
rainforest regions is very poor. It takes decades
Some plants, known as epiphytes, grow on trees
to replenish the soil of lost nutrients. The
(their roots are not in the soil) for sunlight.

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Previous Year Questions

development of plant is also hindered due to Educational Objective: To learn about spread
little availability of sunlight. of various forests in India
Where as in tropical deciduous forests rainfall is 6. Key: B
comparatively lower and enough light reaches Self Explanatory
the ground to permit the growth of grass and
7. Key: D
climbers.
Explanation: The fertility of top soil in rainforest
Educational Objective: To learn about the
regions is very poor. Torrential downpours wash
tropical rain forests.
out most of the top soil nutrients. The soil
4. Key: C
deteriorates rapidly with subsequent soil erosion
Explanation: Biodiversity means number and
and soil impoverishment. It takes decades to
variety of plants and animals. As you move from
replenish the soil of lost nutrients. Hence,
equator towards the poles, biodiversity
Assertion is wrong.
decreases. Biodiversity is normally greater in the
In terrestrial ecosystems the order of
lower latitudes as compared to the higher
productivity in decreasing order is 1. Swamps,
latitudes. Hence, statement 1 is correct
marshes, tropical rain forests (most productive),
Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
2.Temperate forest, 3.Northern coniferous forest
altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
(taiga), 4. Savanna, 5.Agricultural land,
The higher the altitude, colder is the atmosphere
6.Woodland and shrub land, 7.Temperate
and resultant less biodiversity. Hence, statement
grassland, 8.Tundra (arctic and alpine), 9.Desert
2 is correct.
scrub, 10. Extreme desert (least productive).
Educational Objective: To know about
Hence, Reason is correct
biodiversity and its features
Educational Objective: To learn about the
5. Key: C productivity of Tropical rain forests and
Explanation: Forest Type in India. % of Total Temperate forests
Area
8. Key: C
Tropical Moist Deciduous 37
Explanation: Albedo is the portion of solar
Tropical Dry Deciduous 28
energy reflected from the surface of the Earth
Tropical Wet Evergreen. 8
back into space. It is a reflection coefficient and
Sub-Tropical Moist Hill. 6
has a value of less than one.
Tropical Semi-Evergreen 4
Rest below 4 %
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Table-1: Reflectivity Values of Various


9. Key: A
Surfaces
Explanation: Temperate Coniferous forests
Surface Details Albedo
cover the highest percentage of forest rate in the
Dark and Wet 0.05 world. Temperate coniferous forest is a
Soil
Light and dry 0.40 terrestrial biome found in temperate regions of
the world with warm summers and cool winters
Sand 0.15 – 0.45
and adequate rainfall to sustain a forest.
Long 0.16
Coniferous forests are of moderate density and
Gross
Short 0.26 are more uniform. The trees in coniferous forests

Crops 0.18 – 0.25 grow straight and tall. Almost all conifers are
evergreen. There is no annual replacement of
Tundra 0.18 – 0.25
new leaves as in deciduous trees.
Deciduous 0.15 – 0.20
Educational Objective: To know about
Forests
Coniferous 0.05 – 0.15 distribution of Forest types in the world.

Small zenith 10. Key: C


0.03 – 0.10
angle Explanation: Forest area refers to land area
Water
Large zenith covered by forests or forest canopy or open
0.10 – 1.0
angle woodland.
Among the given state Maharashtra has lowest
Old 0.40
Snow forest cover due to it’s urbanization and dry
Fresh 0.95
weather conditions which cannot support
Sea 0.30 – 0.45 luxuriant vegetation.
Ice
Glacier 0.20 – 0.40 Chhattisgarh and Odisha once supported
diverse vegetation but most of forests have been
Thick 0.60 – 0.90
Clouds cleared for mining as forest there represent rich
Think 0.30 – 0.50
source of coal and iron.
When the solar radiation passes through the
Madhya Pradesh has preserved its forests due to
atmosphere, a certain amount of it is scattered,
large tribal population and thus Madhya
reflected and absorbed. The reflected sum of
Pradesh has largest forest area under forests in
radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
India.
Educational Objective: To learn about the
albedo values of the ecosystem.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Total
State/Union Geographi Very Moderatel Open % change since
Forest %
Territory cal Area Dense y Dense Forest 2015
Area
Andaman & Nicobar
8,249 5,678 684 380 6,742 81.73 -0.11%
Islands
Andhra Pradesh 162,968 1,957 14,051 12,139 28,147 17.27 +1.31%
Arunachal Pradesh 83,743 20,721 30,955 15,288 66,964 79.96 -0.23%
Assam 78,438 2,797 10,192 15,116 28,105 35.83 +0.72%
Bihar 94,163 332 3,260 3,707 7,299 7.75 +0.05%
Chandigarh 114 1 14 6 22 18.91 -0.09%
Chhattisgarh 135,192 7,064 32,215 16,268 55,547 41.09 -0.01%
Dadra & Nagar Haveli 491 0 80 127 207 42.16 +0.20%
Daman & Diu 111 1 6 13 20 18.46 +0.79%
Delhi 1,483 7 56 129 192 12.97 +0.25%
Goa 3,702 538 576 1,115 2,229 60.21 +0.51%
Gujarat 196,244 378 5,200 9,179 14,757 7.52 +0.02%
Haryana 44,212 28 452 1,108 1,588 3.59 +0.02%
Himachal Pradesh 55,673 3,110 6,705 5,285 15,100 27.12 +0.71%
Jammu & Kashmir 222,236 4,075 8,579 10,587 23,241 10.46 +0.11%
Jharkhand 79,716 2,598 9,686 11,269 23,553 29.55 +0.04%
Karnataka 191791 4,502 20,444 12,604 37,550 19.58 +0.57%
Kerala 38,852 1,663 9,407 8,251 20,321 52.30 +2.68%
Lakshadweep 30 0 17 10 27 90.33 0.13%
Madhya Pradesh 308,252 6,563 34,571 36,280 77,414 25.11 -0.00%
Maharashtra 307,713 8,736 20,652 21,294 50,682 16.47 -0.01%
Manipur 22,327 908 6,510 9,928 17,346 77.69 +1.18%
Meghalaya 22,429 453 9,386 7,307 17,146 76.76 -0.52%
Mizoram 21,081 131 5,861 12,194 18,186 86.27 -2.52%
Nagaland 16,579 1,279 4,587 6,623 12,489 75.33 -2.71%
Odisha 155,707 6,967 21,370 23,008 51,345 32.98 +0.57%
Puducherry 490 0 18 36 54 10.95 -0.67%
Punjab 50,362 8 806 1,023 1,837 3.65 +0.13%
Rajasthan 342,239 78 4,340 12,154 16,572 4.84 +0.14%
Sikkim 7,096 1,081 1,575 688 3,344 47.13 -0.13
Tamil Nadu 130,060 3,672 10,979 11,630 26,281 20.21 +0.06%
Telangana 112,077 1,596 8,738 10,085 20,419 18.22 +0.50%
Tripura 10,486 656 5,246 1,824 7,726 73.68 -1.56%
Uttar Pradesh 240,928 2,617 4,069 7,993 14,679 6.09 +0.12%
Uttarakhand 53,483 4,969 12,884 6,442 24,295 45.43 +0.04%
West Bengal 88,752 2,994 4,147 9,706 16,847 18.98 +0.02%
Total 3,287,469 98,158 308,318 301,797 708,273 21.54 +0.21%

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Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know the South west Bengal also supports only deciduous
distribution of different forest and their location and mangrove forest and not ever green as it
and to achieve sustainable forest cover of 33% in also lacks moisture required for it sustainance.
all states Southern saurashtra is one of the driest parts of
peninsula which supports only scrub type of
11. Key: A
vegetation and few deciduous trees.
Explanation: Red sanders also called Rakth
Andaman and Nicobar Islands with it’s location
chandan is the tropical deciduous tree of south
near the equator provides the ideal conditions
Indian specillay known for it’s wood and
for all the three types of forest thus providing for
medicinal importance.
increase diversity of species.
Distribution: Seshachalam forest, palkonda rage
Hence D is the only correct option
and various range of eastern ghats.
Educational Objective: To study different
It is used as a herbal medicine for antipyretic,
geographical regions of India and their flora and
inflammatory, tonic, haemorrage, dysentery,
fauna.
aphrodisiac and diaphoretic porposes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct as Red 14. Key: C
sanders is endemic to deciduous forest of south Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram
India being located in the north east of India provide
Educational Objective: To known about the ideal condition for the development of moist
endemic plants species of different regions in evergreen forest due to ready availability of
India. moisture all around the year.
Some trees of wet evergreen forests are:
12. Key: B
Rhododendron, magnolia, cinnamomum etc
Explanation: Himalayan vegetation is mainly
Himachal Pradesh even though being located in
composed of coniferous species. They Occur in
the Himalayas cannot support wet ever green
the temperate zone of the Himalayas between
forests due to average moisture because of it’s
1500 and 3300 metres.Trees are 30 to 50 m
distance from the sea.
high. Eg.Pines, juniper, cedars, silver firs,
spruce, etc. are most important trees. Some dry evergreen trees of western Himalayas:
oaks, Quercus etc
Mahogany species is found in Indian Tropical
forests Hence option c is correct answer

Educational Objective: To know about the Educational Objective: To study different

Himalayan vegetation. geographical regions of India and their flora and


fauna.
13. Key: D
15. Key: A
Explanation: North coastal Andhra Pradesh
have only mangrove and deciduous forest and Explanation: Teak is one of the important

cannot support evergreen due to not enough species of moist deciduous forest of south India

moisture.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

in the state of Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu and deciduous forests. It provides diverse habitats
Karnataka. for a range of species including endangered ones
It has leather like smell when freshly milled and such as Hangul and Musk Deer. The
is valued for it’s durability and water resistance. transHimalaya zone includes high altitude cold
It is the commonly used wood for furniture and and arid mountain areas, including cold
Burma is largest producer of it. deserts.Thus, statement 2 is the most
Tropical rain forest do not support teak due to appropriate answer.
its heavy rainfall which is not feasible for it’s Educational Objective: To know about the
growth. diversity of Himalayan range and reason for it.
Tropical thorn and grasslands cannot support 18. Key: D
large trees like teak which can grow upto 70 feet Explanation: Net Sown Area is 47% of the total
due to their dry and scrub vegetation. geographic area because of extensive availability
Hence option a is the most feasible answer of flat terrain in India.
Educational Objective: To study different forest About 23% area of the country is under forest
types of India and the species that is supported cover.
by them. Barren and un-culturable waste land amounts
16. Key: A to about 8.5%.
Explanation: Himalayan region is known for its About 5.5% is under non-agricultural uses like
diverse landscape and beauty. Due to this houses, industries etc.
diverse it supports diversity of forests from Rest of the area is under tree crops, grooves,
tropical to Tundra vegetation as we scale the permanent pastures and grazing lands etc.
mountains until permanent snowline appears.
Rhododendron is one of the most important tree
of evergreen forests of Himalayas and oak is
distributed both as evergreen and deciduous
forests of Himalayas.
Sandal wood tree is completely absent in
Himalayas as it represent the tropical deciduous
forests of central India.
Educational Objective: To learn about the land
Educational Objective: To study different forest
use classification in India
types of India and the species that is supported
by them. 19. Key: B
Explanation: Red Panda
17. Key: B
The red panda is a small reddish-brown arboreal
Explanation: Himalayan range covers 6.4 % of
mammal.
the total geographical area and has alpine and
sub-alpine forests, grassy meadows and moist

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It is also the state animal of Sikkim and listed as


21. Key: D
Endangered in the IUCN red list of Threatened
Explanation: The western Andhra Pradesh
Species and under Schedule I of the Indian
region lies in the rain shadow region of both
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. As a result,
It is found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan
the Districts of Anantapur, kurnoolare
and the northern mountains of Myanmar and
characterized by tropical thorn forests.
southern China.
Characteristics of Tropical thorn forests
It thrives best at 2,200-4,800m, in mixed
Annual rainfall is less than 75 cm.
deciduous and conifer forests and present in
Humidity is less than 50 per cent.
Sikkim, western Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling
Mean temperature is 25°-30°C.
district of West Bengal and parts of Meghalaya.
The trees are low (6 to 10 metres maximum) and
Slow Lorises: Slow lorises are found in South
widely scattered. Mostly, open stunted forests
and Southeast Asia. Their collective range
with bushes and having long roots and sharp
stretches from Northeast India through
thorns or spines are commonly found.
Indochina, east to the Sulu Archipelago (the
Educational Objective: To know about Tropical
small, southern islands of the Philippines), and
thorn forests and their distribution.
south to the island of Java (including Borneo,
Sumatra, and many small nearby islands). 22. Key: D

Educational Objective: To learn about the Explanation:

habitats of Red panda and slow loris. List-I (Mangroves) List-II (States)
A. Achra Ratnagiri Maharashtra
20. Key: C
B. Coondapur Karnataka
Explanation: According to Indian state of Forest
C. Pichavaram Tamil Nadu
report, 2019
D. Vembanad Kerala
Haryana has Total forest cover is very low at
Mangroves— Tolerant to salt water and
3.62%
anaerobic condition. Littoral plants and
Total Forest cover of Goa is 60.44%
subtropical coastlines grow on tidal flats, deltas,
Total Forest cover of kerala is 54.42%
estuaries, bays, creeks and Barrier Island. It
Total forest cover of Sikkim 47.11%
produces pneumatophores to overcome
Largest forest cover in India: Madhya Pradesh >
respiration problem in the anaerobic soil
Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha >
condition. It can absorb freshwater from saline
Maharashtra
and brackish water. Mangroves exhibit viviparity
Forest cover as percentage of total geographical
modes of reproduction. Mangroves secrete salts
area: Mizoram (85.41%) > Arunachal Pradesh
through their leaves. In India all coastal states
(79.63%) > Meghalaya (76.33%) > Manipur
has mangroves.
(75.46%) > Nagaland (75.31%).
Educational Objective: Geography of India and
Educational Objective: Forest cover of India.
plant vegetation

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Previous Year Questions

Appendix I of the Convention on International


23. Key: B
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Explanation: Ecological balance is a term used
Flora (CITES) and Schedule I of the Wildlife
to describe the equilibrium between living
(Protection) Act, 1972.
organisms such as human being, plants, and
Educational Objective: To know about the
animals as well as their environment.
distribution of Asian Elephant.
At least 33% of the land area of a country should
be under the forest. This is the ideal balance for 25. Key: B
maintaining ecological balance in the Explanation: The total forest cover of the
environment. country is 7,12,249 sq km which is 21.67% of
If the balance is not maintained there is high the geographical area of the country. The Tree
chance of suffering from natural calamities like cover is 2.89% of the geographical area of the
irregular rain, drought, flood, and loss of flora country.
and fauna etc., All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and
Educational Objective: To know about the above are considered as Very Dense Forest. Out
concept of ecological balance of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes
around 3.02%. Hence, statement 1 is wrong.
24. Key: B
National Forestry Action Programme (NFAP) is a
Explanation: The X referred in the question is
comprehensive workplan for sustainable
Asian Elephant
development of forests in the country .to achieve
India is the natural home of the largest
the national goal of 33% geographic area of the
population of Asian elephants. It is also found in
country under the forest and tree cover as
Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Myanmar.
enshrined in the National Forest Policy, 1988.
It usually resides in shrublands,
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
artificial/terrestrial forests and grasslands.
Educational Objective: To learn about forest
cover, percentage of very dense forest and
National Forestry Action Programme.

26. Key: C
Explanation: In 1997 Sal forest were badly
affected by the insects which cause destruction
of Sal forest by turning the trees dry. Sal borer
attack began in 1995 and by 1997 it turned into
a serious epidemic affecting the Sal forests. This
majorly occurred in Madhya Pradesh.

It is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List


of threatened species. It is also listed in

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

8. Agriculture
1. Consider the following pairs:
Region Well-known for the
production of
1) Kinnaur A. Areca nut
2) Mewat B. Mango
3) Coromandel C. Soya bean
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
The map shows the Sal forest distribution in
2. Assertion: There are no tea plantations in
India
any African country.
Educational Objective: To be aware of serious
Reason: Tea plants need fertile soil with
environmental degradation issues, especially
high humus.
forests and water bodies in India and across the
(a) Both A are R are true R is the correct
world.
explanation of A
27. Key: B (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Explanation: Barak, Lohit and Subansiri are explanation of A
the tributaries of Brahmaputra river. Only Lohit (c) A is true but R is false
and Subansiri flows through the state of (d) A is false but R is true
Arunachal Pradesh.
3. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated
Whereas the Barak River flows through the
on hill slopes, there is some difference
states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and
between them regarding their cultivation.
Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via
In this context, consider the following
Bangladesh.
statements:
Dibang, Kameng, Lohit, Manas River, Subansiri
1) Coffee plant requires a hot and humid
River, Teesta River and Kopili River are the other
climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be
tributaries of Brahmaputra.
cultivated in both tropical and subtropical
Educational Objective: To learn about the
areas.
tributaries of Brahmaputra river and its flow in
2) Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is
Arunachal Pradesh.
propagated by stem cuttings only.

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Previous Year Questions

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1,2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements: 7. Why does the Government of India


1) Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar promote the use of “Neem- coated Urea”
production. in agriculture?
2) Mandya is well- known as a coffee (a) Release of Neem Oil in the soil increases
producing region. nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of
correct? dissolution of urea in the soil.
(a) 1 only (c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is
(b) 2 only not at all released into atmosphere by crop
(c) Both 1 and 2 fields.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a
fertilizer for particular crops.
5. Match List- I with –II and select the
correct answer using the code given 8. Which of the following is/ are the
below the lists: advantage/ advantages of practising drip
List-I (Board) List-II (Headquarters) irrigation?
A. Coffee Board 1. Bengaluru 1) Reduction in weed
B. Rubber Board 2. Guntur 2) Reduction in soil salinity
C. Tea Board 3. Kottayam 3) Reduction in soil erosion
D. Tobacco Board 4. Kolkata Select the correct answer using the code
Codes: given below
(a) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2 (b) 3 only
(c) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 (d) None of the above is an advantage of
practising drip irrigation
6. Which of the following practices can help
in water conservation in agriculture? 9. Consider the following statements:
1) Reduced or zero tillage of the land 1) Maize can be used for the production of
2) Applying gypsum before irrigating the field starch
3) Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

2) Oil extracted from maize can be feedstock (c) 1,2, and 3


for biodiesel (d) 2, 3 and 4
3) Alcoholic beverages can be produced by
12. Which of the following is the chief
using maize
characteristic of “mixed farming”?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops & food crops
correct?
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
(a) 1 only
field
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Rearing of animals & cultivation of crops
(c) 2 and 3 only
together
(d) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above
10. What are the significances of a practical
13. Consider the following crops of India.
approach to sugarcane production known
1) Groundnut.
as “Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative”?
2) Sesamum
1) Seed cost is very low in this compared to the
3) Pearl Millet
conventional method of cultivation
Which of the above is/ are predominantly
2) Drip irrigation can be practiced very
rainfed crop/crops?
effectively in this
(a) 1 and 2 only
3) There is no application of
(b) 2 and 3 only
chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this
(c) 3 only
4) The scope for intercropping is more in this
(d) 1,2 and 3
compared to the conventional method of
14. With reference to micro- irrigation,
cultivation.
which of the following statements is / are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
1) Fertilizer/Nutrient loss can be reduced
(a) 1 and 3 only
2) It is only means of irrigation in dry land
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
farming
(c) 2,3 and 4 only 3) In some areas of farming, receding of
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 ground water table can be checked
Select the correct answer using the codes
11. Consider the following crops:
given below:
1) Cotton
(a) 1 only
2) Groundnut
(b) 2 and 3 only
3) Rice
(c) 1 and 3 only
4) Wheat
(d) 1,2 and 3
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only

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Geography UPSC
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15. Salinization occurs when the irrigation (d) A is false but R is true
water accumulated in the soil evaporates,
19. Consider the following crops:
leaving behind salts & minerals. What are
the effects of salinization on the irrigated 1) Cotton
land? 2) Groundnut
(a) It greatly increases the crop production 3) Maize
(b) It makes some soils impermeable 4) Mustard
(c) It raises the water table Which of the above are Kharif crops?
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water (a) 1 and 2

16. In India, during the last decade the total (b) 1, 2 and 3

cultivated land for which one of the (c) 3 and 4

following crops has remained more or less (d) 1.2.3 and 4

stagnant? 20. Assertion: India does not export natural


(a) Rice rubber.
(b) Oil Seeds Reason: About 97% of India’s demand for
(c) Pulses natural rubber is met from domestic
(d) Sugarcane production
Choose the correct answer
17. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
sequence in the decreasing order of
explanation for A
production (in million tones) of the given
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not
food grains in India?
correct explanation for A
(a) Wheat- Rice- Pulses- Coarse Cereals
(c) A is true but R is false
(b) Rice- Wheat- Pulses- Coarse Cereals
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Wheat- Rice- Coarse Cereals-Pulses
(d) Rice- Wheat- Coarse Cereals- Pulses 21. Assertion: The Eastern Coast of India
produces more rice than the Western Coast.
18. Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown
Reason: The Eastern Coast receives more
area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is
rainfall than the Western Coast.
less as compared to that of West Bengal.
Choose the correct answer
Reason(R): The soil of most of Andhra
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
Pradesh is laterite.
explanation for A
Choose the correct answer
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
correct explanation for A
explanation for A
(c) A is true but R is false
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not
(d) A is false but R is true
correct explanation for A
(c) A is true but R is false

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22. Consider the following statements. (a) Maharashtra, U.P, Tamil Nadu, Andhra
1) India is the original home of the cotton plant Pradesh
2) India is the first country in the world to (b) U.P, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu. Andhra
develop hybrid cotton variety leading to Pradesh
increased production (c) Maharashtra, U.P, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
Which of these statements is/ are correct? Nadu
(a) Only 1 (d) U.P, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
(b) Only 2 Nadu
(c) Both 1 and 2 26. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1) Maharashtra has the highest acreage under
23. Consider the following high yielding Jawar in India
varieties of crops in India 2) Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut
1) Arjun in India.
2) Jaya 3) Rajasthan has the largest area of the
3) Padma cultivable waste lands in India
4) Sonalika 4) Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare
Which of these are Wheat? yield of maize in India
(a) 1 and 2 Which of these statements are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3

24. With reference to Indian agriculture, (d) 2 and 4

which one of the following statements is 27. Match List I with List II and select the
correct? correct answer using the codes given
(a) About 90% of the area under pulses in India below the lists:
is rainfed List-I List-II
(b) The share of pulses in the gross cropped A. Cotton 1. Rainfall 1000-1500mm:
area at the National level has doubled in the Temp.40 _60 C
last 2 decades B. Flax 2. Rainfall 1500-2000mm:
(c) India accounts for about 15 percent of the Temp, 25_35C
total area are under rice in the world C. Sugarbeet 3. Rainfall 600-800mm:
(d) Rice occupies about 34 percent of the gross Temp 5_ 18 C
cropped area in India. D. Jute 4. Rainfall 500-1000mm:

25. The correct sequence in decreasing Temp 18_22 C

order of the four sugarcane producing 5. Rainfall 500-600mm:


states in India is. Temp 18 _ 22 C

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Codes: 31. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised


(a) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2 by humid climate with high temperature
(b) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-4 throughout the year. Which one among
(c) A-4; B-5; C-2; D-1 the following pairs of crops is most
(d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2 suitable for this region?
(a) Paddy and Cotton
28. Which one of the following agricultural
(b) Wheat and Jute
practices is eco-friendly?
(c) Paddy and Jute
(a) Organic farming
(d) Wheat and cotton
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties 32. Consider the following statements:

(d) Growing plants in glass- houses 1) India is the only country in the world
producing all the five known commercial
29. Match List I with List II and select the
varieties of silk
correct answer using the codes given
2) India is the largest producer of sugar in the
below the lists:
world.
List-I List-II
Which of the statements given above is/are
A. Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
correct?
B. Gram 2. Gujarat
(a) 1 only
C. Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
(b) 2 only
D. Pineapple 4. Kerala
(c) Both 1 and 2
Codes:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
33. Among the following States, which one
(b) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
has the most suitable climatic conditions
(c) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
for the cultivation of a large variety of
(d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 orchids with minimum cost of
30. Consider the following crops of India: production, and can develop an export
oriented industry in this field?
1) Cowpea
(a) Andhra Pradesh
2) Green gram
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Pigeon pea
(c) Madhya Pradesh
Which of the above 1s/are used as pulse,
(d) Uttar Pradesh
fodder green manure?
(a) 1 &2 only 34. Dalbergia species is associated with
(b) 2 only which one of the following?
(c) 1 & 3 only (a) Cashew nut
(d) 1,2 &3 (b) Coffee
(c) Tea
(d) Rosewood

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Previous Year Questions

Mango:The main mango producing states in


35. Following are the characteristics of an
India are Uttar Pradesh (23.86%), Andhra
area in India:
Pradesh (22.14%), Karnataka, Bihar etc., not
1) Hot and humid climate
Mewat – Haryana. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
2) Annual rainfall 200 cm
Soyabean:Top two producers of soyabean are
3) Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra not
4) Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C
Coromandel (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu).
Which one among the following crops are you
Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
most likely to find in the area described
Educational Objective: To know about the well-
above?
known agricultural production areas of India
(a) Mustard
region wise.
(b) Cotton
(c) Pepper 2. Key: D
(d) Virginia tobacco Explanation: There are Tea Plantations in many
African countries such as Rwanda, South Africa,
36. What are the benefits of implementing
Uganda, Tanzania etc., Hence, Assessment is
the 'Integrated Watershed Development
false.
Programme'?
Required Conditions for Tea Growth:
1) Prevention of soil runoff
Climate: Tea is a tropical and sub-tropical plant
2) Linking the country's perennial rivers with
and grows well in hot and humid climate.
seasonal rivers
Soil: The most suitable soil for tea cultivation is
3) Rainwater harvesting and recharge of
slightly acidic soil (without Calcium) with porous
groundwater table
sub-soil which permits a free percolation of
4) Regeneration of natural vegetation
water with high fertility and humus content.
Select the correct answer using the code
Hence, Reasonis correct.
given below.
Temperature: The ideal temperature for its
(a) 1 & 2 only
growth is 20°-30°C and temperatures above
(b) 2, 3 & 4 only
35°C and below 10°C are harmful for the bush.
(c) 1, 3 & 4 only
Rainfall: It requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall
(d) 1,2,3 & 4
which should be well distributed throughout the
year.
8. Key and Explanation Educational Objective: To know about tea
cultivation conditions and its distribution in the
1. Key: D
world
Explanation: Arcea nut:
Areca nut Production is mostly confined to 3. Key: A
Karnataka, Kerala and Assam. Whereas Kinnaur Explanation: Coffee and tea are the most
Himachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. important beverage crops and also commercial

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crops which have huge demand in the world and also has one of the largest sugarcane mills
market. In India both crops are grown with in Karnataka.
Karnataka accounting for 70% of coffee Hence both the statements are incorrect
production and Assam accounting for 52% of Educational Objective: to know about different
total tea produced in India. crops cultivated in India and the important
Even though both are grown on hilly slopes are places associated with their cultivation.
is certain difference in distribution in India.
5. Key: B
Coffee is mostly concentrated in the southern
Explanation: The Coffee Board of India is an
states of Karnataka, TamilNadu and Kerala as it
organisation managed by the Ministry of
requires ample sunlight and also frequent
Commerce and Industry of the government of
rainfall with out any stagnation which is mostly
India to promote coffee production in India.
available in tropical areas.
Head Office is in Bangalore. Its tradition duties
Tea on other hand is cultivated both in tropical
included the promotion of the sale and
and sub-tropical areas due to it’s ability to with
consumption of coffee in India and abroad,
strand more low temperature as compared to
conducting coffee research, financial assistance
coffee. And aslo it requires heavy rainfall of 150
to establish small coffee growers, safeguarding
cm which is available in subtropical climates.
working conditions for labourers, and managing
Distribution: Karnataka, Assam, West Bengal.
the surplus pool of unsold coffee.
Hence statement 1 is correct
The Tea Board of India is a state agency of
Coffee is propagated by seed while tea can be the Government of India established to promote
propagated from both seed and stem cuttings. the cultivation, processing, and domestic trade
Hence statement 2 is incorrect. as well as export of tea from India. It was
Educational Objective: to know about various established by the enactment of the Tea Act in
commercial crops and their distribution and 1953 with its headquarters in Kolkata (formerly
their contribution to Indian agri exports. Calcutta). The Tea Board India is responsible for
4. Key: D the assignment of certification numbers to
Explanation: Chikmagalur one of the famous exports of certain tea merchants. This
hill station towns in Karnataka is known as land certification is intended to ensure the teas’
of coffee as it accounts for major production and origin, which in turn would reduce the amount
also coffee was first introduced here in the of fraudulent labelling on rare teas such as ones
Bababudangiri hills. Being located along the harvested in Darjeeling.
westernghats it provides ideal conditions for The Rubber Board is a statutory body
coffee production. constituted by the Government of India, under
Mandya known as sakkare nadu is one of the the Rubber Act 1947, for the overall
towns in southern Karnataka which is famous development of the rubber industry in the
for sugarcane cultivation and sugar industry country. Head Office is in Kottayam, Kerala.

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To promote by such measures as it thinks fit the required by the Central Government from
development of the rubber industry. time to time.
Without prejudice to the generality of the  The Tobbacco board is headquartered in
foregoing provision the measures referred to Guntur Andhra with aim to strive for the
therein may provide for: overall development of tobacco growers and
1. Undertaking, assisting or encouraging the Indian Tobacco Industry.
scientific, technological or economic Hence option B is right choice
research. Educational Objective: to know about different
2. Training students in improved methods of organizations and their importance in promoting
planting, cultivation, manuring and agri exports of commercial crops.
spraying.
6. Key: D
3. The supply of technical advice to rubber
Explanation: Zero tillage is a condition in which
growers
soil is not tilled before cultivated other crop after
4. Improving the marketing of rubber.
harvesting. Thus the soil is not disturbed and
5. The collection of statistics from owners of
also the residue prevents erosion and helps in
estates, dealers and manufacturers.
water conservation.
6. Securing better working conditions and the
Gypsum added to the soil decrease acidity of soil
provision and improvement of amenities and
and also changes the structure of soil by
incentives to workers.
breaking it increasing its water retention
7. Carrying out any other duties which may be
capacity and inturn promoting water saving.
vested with the Board as per rules made
Crop residue on the soil decrease run-off and
under this Act.
also prevents evaporation and also provides
It shall also be the duty of the Board:
shade help in reducing the water needed.
8. To advise the Central Government on all
Hence all the statements are correct
matters relating to the development of the
Educational Objective: to study and
rubber industry, including the import and
understand on how to increase irrigation
export of rubber.
efficiency in India and save the water as in India
9. To advise the Central Government with
Agriculture accounts for more than 80% of water
regard to participation in any international
consumption.
conference or scheme relating to rubber.
7. Key: B
10. To submit to the Central Government and
Explanation: Urea is one of the most used
such other authorities as may be prescribed,
fertilizers in India and due to its high subsidy
half yearly reports on its activities and the
and cheapness it is used more than needed
working of this Act, and
altering the standard natural nutrient
11. To prepare and furnish such other reports
distribution of soil making the soil unfit for
relating to the rubber industry as may be
cultivation.

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To address this issue government introduced Maize also forms important raw material for
neem coated urea which reduces the dissolution biodiesel production due to it’s high starch
of urea in the soil and also prevents frequent content and ease of conversion to ethanol.
usage of it by farmers and also prevents water Maize is also used for production of alcohol due
pollution due to excessive leaching of urea. it’s rich starch content and also ready and easy
Hence B is right choice fermentation process.
Educational Objective: to understand various Ex: Corn whiskey of USA
steps taken by the government to promote Hence all statements are correct answers
sustainable agriculture. Educational Objective: To understand the

8. Key: C importance of food grains in agriculture and


their diversified uses.
Explanation: Drip irrigation reduces the
appearance of weeds due to its limited water 10. Key: B
availability and also localized irrigation which Explanation: Sustainable Sugarcane
helps in growth of only the cultivated crop and Initiative is a method of sugarcane production
limiting the water for weed plants. which involves using less seeds, less water and
Drip irrigation has no direct affect on salinity optimum utilization of fertilizers and land to
reduction it helps in growing the crops in saline achieve more yields. Driven by farmers, SSI is an
soil by creating localized saline free zones near alternate to conventional seed, water and space
the crop area. intensive Sugarcane cultivation.
One of the most important benefits of drip The major principles include the following:
irrigation is to control soil erosion which is Raising nursery using single budded chips In
common phenomenon in traditional irrigation. the conventional method, 2-3 budded sugarcane
Due to drop by drop water from drip irrigation is setts are used for planting. However, in SSI, they
reduces the leaching of top soil due to its low use single budded chips from a healthy mother
intensity and thus reduce soil erosion. cane. This would give high percentage of
Hence only 1 and 3 are correct statements germination depending.
Educational Objective: To study about drip Water management is the key issue in SSI. It
irrigation it’s potential and benefits associated emphasizes that sufficient moisture is provided
with it. rather than inundating the field with water
because flooded condition will actually hinder
9. Key: D
the growth of the plant. SSI methods use furrow
Explanation: Maize is one of the staple food
/ alternate furrow / drip irrigation so that only
grains which is mainly used as animal food but
required quantity of water is given. Overall, SSI
it can be used as replacement for wheat flour to
saves around 40% of water.
make corn breads and various baked products
Although SSI does not put an end to use of
which are rich source of starch.
chemical fertilizers; yet it discourages high

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Previous Year Questions

application of chemical fertilizers and use of While mixed farming on the other hand involves
pesticides and eedicides. It promotes more use of rearing of plants and animals on same land so
organic manures, bio-fertilizers and follow that the mutual benefits of both of them are
biocontrol measures. However, it does not ask harnessed. It is one of the most familiar form of
for a sudden switch to organic cultivation. farming due to its diversity and increased
SI promotes intercropping in sugarcane with productivity.
crops like wheat, potato, cowpea, French bean, Advantages of mixed farming
Chickpea, water melon, brinjal etc. In addition Farmers can keep their fields under continuous
to effective utilization of land, this practice will production.
reduce the weed growth up to 60% and give It enhances the productivity of the farm land.
extra income to farmers. It increases the per capita profitability.
Thus only 1, 2 and 4 are correct Both farmings compliment each other.
Educational Objective: to learn and It enhances the productivity of the farmer also.
understand different methods of sustainable Reduce dependency on external inputs and
farming. costs.

11. Key: C Hence option C is most rational choice

Explanation: On the basis of cultivation crops Educational Objective: to study different types

can be divide into of farming and their benefits and issues.

Kharif crops: cultivated during the rainy season 13. Key: D


Ex: Rice, cotton, groundnut, jowar etc Explanation: Rainfed crops are those crops
Rabi crops: cultivated during post-monsoon which depend mainly on rain water for their
seson and harvested in early spring production and it provides most of the food
Ex: Wheat, mustard consumed by the poor people.
Zabi crops: short summer seasons crops The main rainfed crops are the millets which are
Ex: watermelon, cucumber etc important source of various nutrients like finger
Thus on 1, 2 and 3 are correct millet, pearl millet etc
Educational Objective: to have knowledge In India most of the oil seeds like ground nut,
about the seasonality of crops in India and mustard and sesamum are also rainfed which
necessary conditions for different crops. depend mainly on monsoon for their production.
This is why India unable to meet its oil
12. Key: C
demands.
Explanation: Cultivation of two or more crops
Hence all crops are rainfed crops
on the same field is called as mixed cropping
Educational Objective: to study about different
which is done to better utilize the potential of
crops in India and season of their cultivation
land also as security in case of price crash of
and their source of irrigation.
any one.

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14. Key: C water from the soil. The main point is that
Explanation: Micro irrigation is defined as the excess salinity in soil water can decrease
frequent application of small quantities of water plant available water and cause plant stress.
directly above and below the soil surface; Hence statement 1 is in correct and 2 is
usually as discrete drops, continuous drops or correct.
tiny streams through emitters placed along a Due to formation of impermeable layer it
water delivery line. prevents the infiltration of water reducing water
Due to low intensity of water in micro irrigation table and also hydraulic capacity of water to
the loss of nutrients as well as soil erosion is through the soil. Thus 3 and 4 are incorrect.
prevented. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Educational Objective: to study about salinity
Dryland farming is one in which crops mostly
depend on rainwater with some water irrigation and its role in soil degradation and various other
in case of stress. But micro irrigation is not the effects.
only method as other like sprinkler, drip can be
16. Key: A
used. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation: Pulses are edible seeds of plants
Due to slow application of water drop by drop
belonging to legume family which are most
near the crop itself micro irrigation reduces
important source of protein to people. But due to
water requirement and is seen as solution to being rainfed crop and skewed MSP policy the
address decreasing water table in India. Hence production of pulses has remained more or less
statement 3 is correct. constant making people depend on food grains
Educational Objective: To study different thus ultimately leading to protein deficiency.
Para TE 1973 (Period- TE 2008 (Period-
irrigation methods and verify their benefits and I II)
met Year
to adopt best so that irrigation efficiency can be er Orissa India Orissa India
increased. Area 6.6 125.8 6.7 122.6
mha (0.89) (0.15) (-0.34) (-0.13)
15. Key: B Producti 5.6 129.0 7.4 196.6
Food
on (mt) (2.46) (2.64) (0.69) (1.27)
Explanation: Salinity becomes a problem when
Yield 847 1024 1089 1603
enough salts accumulate in the root zone to (kg/ha) (1.57) (2.49) (1.02) (1.40)
negatively affect plant growth. Excess salts in Area 4.4 (- 39.6 4.5 (- 43.3
mha 0.42) (0.54) 0.05) (0.13)
the root zone hinder plant roots from
Padd Producti 4.2 52.3 6.0 83.6
withdrawing water from surrounding soil. This y on (mt) (1.50) (2.83) (0.78) (1.26)
lowers the amount of water available to the Yield 964 1312 1335 1940
(kg/ha) (1.92) (2.29) (0.82) (1.16)
plant, regardless of the amount of water actually
Area 1.6 22.9 1.8 (- 22.5 (-
in the root zone. For example, when plant mha (4.92) (0.16) 0.69) 0.10)
growth is compared in two identical soils with Puls Producti 0.8 11.6 0.8 (- 13.3
the same moisture levels, one soil receiving salty es on (mt) (6.02) (0.92) 2.14) (0.25)
Yield 503 504 441. (- 592
water and the other receiving salt-free water, (kg/ha) (1.10) (0.76) 1.45) (0.36)
plants are able to use more water from the soil Area 0.7 18.2 0.9 (- 25.3
receiving salt-free water. Although the water is mha (7.10) (1.37) 2.67) (0.04)
Oilse Producti 0.5 10.9 0.6 (- 22.2
not held tighter to the soil in saline ed on (mt) (8.09) (3.05) 3.38) (1.54)
environments, the presence of salt in the water Yield 683 595 669 (- 873
causes plants to exert more energy extracting (kg/ha) (0.99) (1.68) 0.72) (1.49)

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Previous Year Questions

Note: Figures in Parentheses are Annual


Compound Growth rate (%) in Period-I and
Period-II
Educational Objective: To study the trends and
cultivation of crops in India with time.

17. Key: D
Explanation: Rice is one of the most edible Educational Objective: To study the trends and
crops which occupies largest area under food cultivation of crops in India with time.
grains in India accounting for more than 140 18. Key: C
metric tons. Second largest in world after China. Explanation: The percentage net sown area of
Wheat is second largest produced food grain in Andhra Pradesh is 40% where as net sown area
India accounting for more than 100mt also of West Bengal is 60%. Hence statement 1 is
second in world after China. correct
Coarse cereals occupy third place in production The major soil of the Andhra Pradesh is laterite
due to rainfed nature and also displacement of it soil but it is not the sole reason for low net sown
by rice and wheat by green revolution reducing area. Because net sown area depends on various
area for coarse cereals. factors like urbanization, availability of
Pulses comes last as area under pulses irrigation, weather situation etc. Hence
remained stagnant since last decade due to statement 2 is correct but not reason for
skewed MSP policy which leads to preference of statement 1.
rice and wheat over pulses. Hence option B is right choice
Hence D is the correct choice. Educational Objective: To understand the
diversity of crops cultivated and various factors
affecting the net sown area in different parts of
the country.

19. Key: B
Explanation: On the basis of cultivation crops
can be divide into
Kharif crops: cultivated during the rainy season
Ex: Rice, cotton, groundnut, jowar, maize etc
Rabi crops: cultivated during post-monsoon
seson and harvested in early spring
Ex: Wheat, mustard
Zabi crops: short summer seasons crops
Ex: watermelon, cucumber etc

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Previous Year Questions

Thus on 1, 2 and 3 are correct West coast of India receives more rain than east
Educational Objective: To have knowledge due to influence of western ghats and also
about the seasonality of crops in India and coromandel coast on east coast remains dry
necessary conditions for different crops. during southwest monsoons.
Educational Objective: To understand the rice
20. Key: D
cultivation trends in India and also the area of
Explanation: The natural rubber production in
largest production.
India during 2019 was 7,30,000 tonnes but
consumption was 12 lakh tonnes. Thus because 22. Key: C
of it huge domestic consumption India even Explanation: Indian subcontinent is the home
though produces rubber in sufficient quantity for origin of cotton plant which can be seen from
and is 6th largest producer of rubber. But due to the Indus valley civilization. The Greeks called
its enormous domestic demand it is net importer Indus as Sindon which means cotton.
of natural rubber. India was the first country to develop hybrid
Thus statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. cotton way back in 1970s called H-4 variety and
also it has the highest area 1/3rd under hybrid
variety.
Educational Objective: To study about cotton
and it’s varieties

23. Key: C
Explanation: Jaya and Padma are important
varieties of hybrid rice crops cultivated in India
which greatly increased the rice production in
the country.
Arjun and Sonalika are the hybrid varieties of
wheat developed by ICAR to increase resistant to
Educational Objective: To study about different rust bowl and also to promote early maturity so
commercial crops and their contribution to that it could be harvested early.
Indian exports. Hence C is correct option
21. Key: C Educational Objective: To study about different
Explanation: East coast of India produces more types and hybrids of crops cultivated and their
rice than west coast due to presence of various advantages over traditional variety.
deltas on the west coast like sunderbans, 24. Key: A
Mahanadi and Godavari deltas which are the Explanation: More than 90% area under pulses
rice bowls of the country which provide ideal is under rainfed conditions which has made
condition for rice cultivation due to their wetland India net importer of pulses to meet its growing
nature. demand from the raising middle class.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

The share of pulses under cultivation has


remained stagnant since last decade due to
skewed nature of MSP increasing attraction
towards rice and wheat.
India accounts for more than 25% of rice area in
the world and is second largest producer of rice
after China.Rice occupies more than 25% of
gross cropped area under cultivation.

Educational Objective: To understand the


trends of sugar cultivation in India and various
issues associated with sugar Industry in India.

26. Key: B
Explanation: Maharashtra accounts for 52% of
production and 50% of area under Jowar
cultivation in India.
Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in
India followed by Andhrapradesh and India
second largest after China.

Educational Objective: To analyse the cropping


trends in Indian agriculture and various factors
affecting production of different crops.

25. Key: B
Explanation: Sugarcane is one of the most
important commercial crops in India after cotton
providing important raw material for sugar
industry and providing employment for lakhs Rajasthan has the largest area under cultural
indirectly. wasteland due to large area of state under
Uttarpradesh is the largest producer of desert.
sugarcane in India followed by Maharasthra Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka are largest
where as Maharashtra is largest producer of producers of maize in India but Andhra has the
sugar. highest yield among all states.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Sugar beet is a native of temperate climatic


regions with moist and mild winters and
moderate summer temperature and thus, in
wide contrast to sugarcane it grows in mid-
latitude regions. It is very sensitive to annual
ranges of rainfall which should necessarily be
around 60 to 65 cm.
Jute crop requires humid climate with
temperature fluctuating between 24 degree
Celsius and 38 degree Celsius. Minimum rainfall
Educational Objective: To analyse the cropping
required for jute cultivation is 1000 mm. New
trends in Indian agriculture and various factors
grey alluvial soil of good depth receiving silt
affecting production of different crops.
from annual floods is most suitable
27. Key: D forjutegrowth.
Explanation: Successful cultivation of cotton Educational Objective: to study the different
requires a long frost-free period, plenty of climatic requirements for different crops and
sunshine, and a moderate rainfall, usually from their distribution.
60 to 120 cm (24 to 47 in). Soils usually need to
28. Key: A
be fairly heavy, although the level
of nutrients does not need to be exceptional. In Explanation: Organic agriculture can be

general, these conditions are met within the defined as: an integrated farming system that

seasonally dry tropics and subtropics in the strives for sustainability, the enhancement of

Northern and Southern hemispheres, but a large soil fertility and biological diversity while, with

proportion of the cotton grown today is rare exceptions, prohibiting synthetic pesticides,

cultivated in areas with less rainfall that obtain antibiotics, synthetic fertilizers, genetically

the water from irrigation. modified organisms, and growth hormones.


Shifting cultivation is the practice of clearing
The soils most suitable for flax, besides
the alluvial kind, are deep loamscontaining a forests and cultivating crops until fertility is

large proportion of organic matter. Flax is often exhausted and moving to other allowing that to

found growing just above the waterline regain fertility. It is on of the main reasons for

in cranberry bogs. Heavy clays are unsuitable, soil erosion in India.

as are soils of a gravelly or dry sandy nature. Cultivation of high yielding varities requires

Farming flax requires large use of pesticides and insecticides for pest

few fertilizers or pesticides. Within eight weeks control hence is not eco-friendly.

of sowing, the plant can reach 10–15 cm (3.9– Growing plants in green houses also requires

5.9 in) in height, reaching 70–80 cm (28–31 in) large investment in pesticides and insecticides

within 50 days. hence also not friendly

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Hence organic farming is the most eco-friendly Educational Objective: To study about different
of all the four. legumes and their role in improving soil fertility.
Educational Objective: To study different
31. Key: C
agricultural practices and adopt the best one for
Explanation: Lower gangetic region occupying
sustainable development.
the ganga Yamuna doab is one of the fertile
29. Key: A regions of the country due to ready availability of
Explanation: Gujarat is one of the largest cotton water for irrigation and temperature of above 30
producers due to ideal environment condition degree.
and also presence of black cotton soil. The best suitable crops are paddy and jute
Madhya Pradesh due it’s rainfed agriculture is which require temperature of 30-35 degree and
most suitable for cultivation of various pulses as rainfall of 100-150cm which is readily available
it can withstrand some water stress. in lower gangetic plains.
Kerala due to it monsoon climate and hilly Even though wheat is grown here it is mostly in
terrain is suitable for production of various the western side where temperature is in range
spices like pepper, turmeric, cardamom etc of 20-25 degree and rainfall is 80-100 cm. wheat
Pineapple is mostly grown in warm and humid being temperate crop cannot with strand cannot
climate with temperature between 15-30 high temperatures of lower gangetic plains.
degrees. Hence best suitable location is north- Cotton is a tropical crop grown mostly grown in
east and West Bengal. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Gujarat. It
Hence the correct order is the option A requires 6 to 8 months of frost free season which
Educational Objective: To study the different is not available in middle gangetic plains.
climatic requirements for different crops and Hence option C is the better choice.
their distribution. Educational Objective: To study about different
agro-climatic zones and their major crops.
30. Key: D
Explanation: Pulses are the edible seeds which 32. Key: A
are rich source of protein to the human beings. Explanation: India is known for it uniquess of
The various pulses are gram, tur, pegion pea etc being the only country producing all the five
And also belonging to the legume family they varities of silk in world.
have the ability to absorb nitrogen directly from  Eri
the environment and thus help in mainting  Muga
nitrogen ratio of soil and prevents excessive use  Tasar
of urea. Thus these are used as green manure in  Mulberry
different parts of country before sowing the  Oak tasar
crops to enrich nitrogen naturally. India is the second largest producer of
Hence all being leguminous crops are used both sugarcane and Brazil is the largest producer.
as pulses and green manure.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

large deciduous tree, native to India, with a


slight crown. It is found in Himalayan foothills.
It is used as firewood, timber, poles, posts,
tool handles, fodder, erosion control and as a
windbreak. Oil is extracted from the seed and
tannin from the bark.
Current Status: India, with the help of
Bangladesh and Nepal, is trying to de-list
‘Dalbergia sissoo’, from the list of threatened
varieties (Appendix II of CITES) in order to
protect the livelihood of handicraft
manufacturers and farmers in the Sub-
continent.
Educational Objective: To study about different Educational Objective: To know about
varieties of various crops grown in India and Dalbergia species
place of India in world in their production.
35. Key: C
33. Key: B Explanation: The above are the climate
Explanation: Orchids is beautiful plant species requirements of pepper crop. It grows well in
which is divided into two types well in drained soil, It needs high rainfall of
1. Epiphytic Orchids—Plant growing in another more than 200cm and temperature range of
plant, which is found in tropical evergreen 15°C to 30°C.It grows in up to a height of 1500
forest. meters above sea level. In June – December
2. Terestial Orchids—Plant growing directly on season, high quality pepper crop is cultivated in
soil, which is found in temperate and alpine rainfed areas.
vegetation Educational Objective: To know about the
Arunachal Pradesh state has tropical evergreen climate requirements of pepper crop.
and semi evergreen and alpine vegetation,
36. Key: C
suitable for growing orchids. So Arunachal
Explanation: Integrated Watershed
Pradesh is called Orchid state of India
development Programme (IWDP) is
Educational Objective: Arunachal Pradesh
implemented by Department of Land Resources
location and economic geography of India and
of Ministry of Rural Development. The main
plant vegetation
objective of IWMP is to restore ecological balance
34. Key: D by harnessing, conserving and developing
Explanation: Dalbergia species is commonly degraded natural resources such as soil,
known Rosewood, Shisham and is a medium to vegetative cover and water.
Benefits of IWDP

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the above is/ are the correct


reasons?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
IWDP has no link with the inter-linking of rivers. 4. With reference to the steel industry in
Hence only 1, 3 and 4 are correct. India in the recent times, consider the
Educational Objective: To study different following statements:
programmes by government to revitalize Indian 1) Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared
Agriculture and also make farming a Mini Ratna.
remunerative and sustainable activity. 2) Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been
completed
9. Industry
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. In India, the steel production industry correct
requires the import of (a) 1 only
(a) Saltpetre (b) 2 only
(b) Rock phosphate (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) coking coal (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All of the above
5. Match List I with List II and select the
2. Which one among the following industries correct answer using the code given
is the maximum consumer of water in below the Lists:
India? List-I (Aluminium List-II(Location)
(a) Engineering Company)
(b) Paper and pulp A. BALCO 1. Hirakud
(c) Textiles B. HINDALCO 2. Korba
(d) Thermal power C. Indian Aluminium 3. Koraput
Company
3. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-
D. NALCO 4. Renukoot
made cotton yarn in the country. What
Codes:
could be the reason?
(a) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
1) Black cotton soil is the predominant type of
(b) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
soil in the State
(c) A-; B-4; C-1; D-2
2) Rich pool of skilled labour is available
(d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

6. Match List I with List II and select the Select the correct answer using the codes
correct answer using the codes given given below.
below the lists: (a) 1 only
List-I List-II (b) 2 & 3 only
(Industries) (Industrial Centres) (c) 1 & 3 only
A. Pearl fishing 1. Pune (d) 1,2 & 3
B. Automobiles 2. Tuticorin
9. Rawa offshore block with great potential
C. Ship building 3. Pinjore
of oil is located on
D. Engineering goods 4. Marmagao
(a) Krishna - Godavari basin
Codes: (b) Cauvery basin
(a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (c) Mahanadi basin
(b) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (d) Palar - Pennar basin
(c) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
10. Match List I with List II and select the
(d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
correct answer using the codes given
7. Which of the following places are known below the lists:
for paper manufacturing industry? List-I (Places) List-II (Industries)
1) Yamunanagar A. Jamnagar 1. Aluminium
2) Guwahati B. Hospet 2. Woolen Textile
3) Punjab C. Korba 3. Fertilizers
4) Ballarpur D. Haldia 4. Cement
Choose the correct answer using the codes 5. Iron and Steel
given below Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (b) A-2; B-5; C-1; D-3
(c) 1,3 and 4 (c) A-4; B-5; C-2; D-1
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
8. With reference to the usefulness of the 11. The rough outline map given shows
by-products of sugar industry, which of centres of cement Industry labelled 1, 2,
the following statements is/are correct? 3 and 4. Match these centres with the
1) Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for following sets of names:
the generation of energy.
2) Molasses can be used as one of the
feedstocks for the production of synthetic
chemical fertilizers.
3) Molasses can be used for the production of
ethanol.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(a) Katni Steel Making: Pig iron is further purified and


(b) Tirunelveli oxidises the impurities. Manganese, nickel,
(c) Sikka chromium added.
(d) Churk Educational Objective: To know about coking
Select the correct answer using the codes coal.
given below: 2. Key: D
Codes: Explanation: As of August 30, 2019, there were
(a) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 269 thermal power plants in India, according to
(b) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3 the Central Electricity Authority. Taken together,
(c) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 these plants consume 87.8% of the total
(d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 amount of water consumed by the industrial
sector, according to a study conducted by The
9. Key and Explanation Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
1. Key: C Thermal power plants in India use water for
Explanation: The coal found in India is mainly cooling purposes and the disposal of fly ash, a
of non-coking quality and hence coking coal has byproduct in combustion processes. This
to be imported. 70% of the steel produced excessive water use creates two interlinked
today uses coal. Coking coal is a vital problems: Thermal power plants affect water
ingredient in the steel making process. security and are, in turn, affected by the non-
India now ranks as the second-largest producer availability of water.
of crude steel after China. India's crude steel And according to the Central Electricity
production in 2018 was at 109.3 million tonnes, Authority, thermal power plants are already
up by 7.7 percent from 101.5 million tonnes in facing difficulties due to non-availability of
2017. This moved up to 111.2 million tonnes in water, particularly in coal-bearing states like
2019 Odisha, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.
Process of Steel Manufacturing Educational Objective: To know about Thermal
Transport of raw material to plant power plants.
Blast Furnace: Iron ore is melted. Lime stone is 3. Key: B
fluxing material which is added. Slag is removed. Explanation: Red soil is predominant in Tamil
Coke is burnt to heat the ore. Nadu. Hence statement 1 is wrong. Rich pool of
Pig Iron: Molten matter is poured into moulds skilled labour is available in Tamil Nadu and
called pigs. this labor force will help in producing mill made
Shaping Metal: Rolling, pressing, casting and cotton yarn in our country. Hence statement 2 is
forging. correct.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Miniratna, Navratna and Maharatna Status are


given to PSUs depending on their success.
The Department of Public Enterprises under the
Ministry of Heavy Industries & Public
Enterprises grants these statuses.
Educational Objective: To know about steel
based PSU.
India is known worldwide for its production of
textiles in general, and cotton in particular, both 5. Key: B
being major industries for the country. Indian Explanation: Bharat Aluminium Company
textile industry is the mother of all industries Ltd. (BALCO) is an Indian aluminium company.
and is among the world’s top producers of yarns BALCO was incorporated in 1965 as a Public
and fabrics. Sector Undertaking (PSU) and it was the Public
Educational Objective: To know about textile sector until 2001 and has its corporate office in
industry. New Delhi. Its main plant and facilities are
situated in Korba, Chhattisgarh.
4. Key: B
The Hindustan Aluminum Corporation
Explanation: RashtriyaIspat Nigam Ltd,
Limited was established in 1958 by the Aditya
(abbreviated as RINL), also known as Vizag Steel,
Birla Group. In 1962 the company began
is a Public steel producer based in
production inRenukoot in Uttar Pradesh
Visakhapatnam, India.RashtriyaIspat Nigam
making 20 thousand metric tons per year of
Limited (RINL) is the corporate entity of
aluminium metal and 40 thousand metric tons
Visakhapatnam Steel Plant (VSP), India's first
per year of alumina. In 1989 the company was
shore-based integrated Steel Plant built with
restructured and renamed Hindalco.
state-of-the-art technology.
The Indian Aluminium Company Ltd. (INDAL),
RINL was wholly owned by the Government of
Hirakud: It started production in 1938 as a
India. In November 2010, the company was
private company and was converted into a
granted the Navratna status by the Government
public company in 1944. It is an integrated
of India. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
plant having three units at five different places
The Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO), a
for the pro-duction of alumina and aluminium
100% subsidiary of Steel Authority of India
sheets.
Limited (SAIL) has been amalgamated with the
The National Aluminium Company Ltd.
parent company with effect from 16 February
(NALCO), Koraput: It is the largest aluminium
2006. The Ministry of Company Affairs (MoCA)
plant of the country, located at Koraput. It
issued the final order on 15 February 2006
obtains bauxite from the bauxite mines at
approving the scheme of IISCO’s amalgamation
Panchpatmali (District Koraput). It has an
with SAIL. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

installed capacity of 1.6 million tonnes of ingots 6. Kamalapuram, Warangal District, Telangana
per year. Educational Objective: To learn about the
Educational Objective: To know about locations of paper manufacturing industries in
aluminium industry. India.

6. Key: A 8. Key: D
Explanation: Explanation: Sugar industry is one of the
important agro-based industries in India
providing employment to large number of people
in India. It is a seasonal industry due to
seasonal availability of raw material and has to
be located close to the source of raw material
due to its weight loosing nature.
The Pearl Fishery Coast refers to a coastal area
The various by products of sugar industry and
of southern India, extending along the
it’s uses
Coromandel Coast from Tuticorin to Comorin
 Bagasse- solid fibrous material containing
ruled by Paravars.
cellouse
Mormugao is a seaport situated in the
 Used in paper and pulp industry
eponymous taluka of the district of South Goa,
 As feed
Goa state, India. It has a deep natural harbour
 Boiler fuel to produce steam and power
and is Goa's chief port.
 With tar it is used as leak proof material
Educational Objective: To know about
 Molasses
harbour.
 In fermentation industry
7. Key: B
 To produced denatured power alcohol and
Explanation: Ballarpur Industries Ltd was
potable alcohol
founded in 1945. The leading paper mill is
 Industry and automobile fuel
headquartered in Gurgaon, India. It is a leading
 Filter cake- used as fertilizer
manufacturer of writing and printing paper. It
Hence all the statements are correct.
has manufacturing units in different locations
Educational Objective: To study about sugar
including,
industry and it’s situation in India and crisis
1. Ashti, Gadchiroli, Maharashtra
associated with it.
2. Bhigwan, Pune District, Maharashtra
9. Key: A
3. Sewa, Jeypore, Orissa
Explanation: It was developed in partnership
4. Ballarpur or Ballarshah, Chandrapur
with Cairn India, ONGC, Videocon and Ravva Oil
District, Maharashtra
Singapore Private Limited, under a 25-year
5. Yamuna Nagar, Yamuna Nagar District,
production sharing contract (PSC) that expires
Haryana
in 2019

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Tirunelveli/ Tinnevelly, is a major city in the


Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Point 4 is
Tirunelveli. Sikka is a census town in
Jamnagar district in the Indian state of Gujarat.
Point 1 is Sikka. Churk Ghurma is a town and
a nagar panchayat in Sonbhadra district in the
state of Uttar Pradesh, India. Point 3 is Churk.
Option B matches with the above points
Educational Objective: to have knowledge
about various major industrial cities in India like
cement Industry, steel and iron factory etc.
Educational Objective: To have idea about
various oil producing blocks in India and their 10. Transport
locations 1. Consider the following pairs:
10. Key: D National Highway Cities connected
Explanation: Jamnagar is a city located on the 1) NH4 Chennai& Hyderabad
western coast of India in the state 2) NH6 Mumbai & Kolkata
of Gujarat in Saurashtra region. It is famous for 3) NH 15 Ahmedabad& Jodhpur
woolen textiles. Hence is matched with 2. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Option A and C are eliminated. matched?
Hosapete, also known as Hospet, is a city (a) 1 and 2 only
in Ballari District in central Karnataka, India. It (b) 3 only
is located on the Tungabhadra River, 12 km (c) 1,2 and 3
from Hampi. It is noted for noted for its iron ore (d) None
mining and steel plants. Hence option b is
2. Which one of the following National
correct. Highways passes through Maharashtra,
Korba is famous for aluminium industries and Chattisgarh and Orissa?
Haldia for cement Industries. (a) NH4
Educational Objective: To know about the (b) NH5
major industrial cities and their prominent (c) NH6
industry types (d) NH7

11. Key: B 3. Consider the following statements:


Explanation: Katni is a town on the banks of Among the Indian States
the Katni River in Madhya Pradesh, India. 1) Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
Hence point 2 is Katni. 2) Gujarat has the highest number of airports

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the codes
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 4,3,2,1
(b) 2 only (b) 4,3,1,2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3,4,1,2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3,4,2,1

4. Which among the following National 7. With reference to Indian transport


Highway routes is the longest? systems, consider the following
(a) Agra-Mumbai
statements:
(b) Chennai-Thane
1) Indian railway system is the largest in the
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
world
(d) Pune-Machilipatnam
2) National Highways cater to 45 percent of
5. What is the correct sequence of the
the total road transport demand
following Indian states in descending
3) Among the states, Kerala has the highest
order of their length of surface roads per
density of surface road
100 km2 of their area?
4) National Highway No.7 is the longest in the
1) Haryana
country
2) Maharashtra
Which of these statements are correct?
3) Punjab
(a) 1 and 2
4) Tamil Nadu
(b) 1 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 2 and 3
given below:
(d) 2 and 4
Codes:
8. Which one of the following statements is
(a) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
not true of the Konkan Railway?
(b) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
(a) The total length is about 760 km
(c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
(b) It runs through the states of Karnataka,
(d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
Goa, Maharashtra and Kerala
6. What is the correct sequence of the
(c) It is the only rail route that cuts across the
following Indian states in descending
Western Ghats
order of their length of surface roads per
(d) The Konkan Railway Construction Company
100 km of their area?
which came into being, raised money
1) Haryana
through Public Issues;
2) Maharashtra
9. The four railway junction shown by
3) Punjab
1,2,3,4 on the rough outline map of
4) Tamil Nadu
Gujrat are respectively

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(a) Palanpur,Mahesana,Ahmedabad & List (Ports of Pondicherry)


Vadodara 1) Karaikal
(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot 2) Mahe
&Junagarh 3) Pondicherry
(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla 4) Yanam
(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar& Broach Codes:
(a) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
10. Which one of the following sets of states
(b) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
stands to benefit the most from the
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
Konkan Railway?
(d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
13. In India, the ports are categorized as
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu,
major and non major ports. Which one of
Kerala
the following is a non major port?
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
(a) Kochi(Cochin)
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
(b) Dahej
11. The canal-carrying capacity of Farakka
(c) Paradip
is:
(d) New Mangalore
(a) 75,000 Cusecs
(b) 70,000 Cusecs 14. Which one among the following has the

(c) 40,000 Cusecs largest shipyard in India?

(d) 35,000 Cusecs (a) Kolkata


(b) Kochi
12. Match the different ports of Union
(c) Mumbai
Territory of Pondicherry labelled as A, B,
(d) Visakhapatnam
C and D in the given map with the
respective names and select the correct 15. Which one of the following ports of India
answer using the codes given below the handles the highest tonnage of import
list of ports. cargo?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Kandla
(c) Mumbai

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(d) Visakhapatnam
18. Which one of the following posts shown
16. Match the locations of ports labelled as on the rough outline map of India is a
A, B, C and D in the given map with the riverine port?
names of those ports and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the names of the ports:

(a) 1
(b) 2
Names of Ports: (c) 3
1) Kakinada (d) 4
2) Karwar
3) Managalore 10. Key and Explanation
4) Tuticorin
1. Key: D
5) Veraval
Explanation: Statement 1 is wrongly matched
Codes:
as NH 4 is a major National Highway in the
(a) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-5
Western and Southern India. It connects
(b) A-5; B-2; C-4; D-1
Mumbai with Chennai.
(c) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
Statement 2 is also wrong as NH 6 runs
(d) A-5; B-3; C-2; D-1
through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh,
17. Consider the following statements: Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal states in
1) Tides are of great help in navigation and India. It connects Surat with Kolkata.
fishing Statement 3 is also wrongly matched as NH 15
2) High tide enables big ships to enter or leave is a major National Highway in the Western and
the harbour safely North-Western India. NH 15 connects
3) Tide prevents siltation in the harbours Samakhiali in Gujarat with Pathankot in
4) Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal Punjab.
ports Education Objective: Understanding the spread
Which of these statements are correct? of Major National Highways in India.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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2. Key: C 6. Key: D
Explanation: NH 6 passes through Gujarat, Explanation: Arrangement of states in
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand descending order of the surface roads per 100
and West Bengal. This road is 1,949 km long. sq. km of their area is as follows:
Education Objective: Understanding the spread Tamil Nadu has 158.78 km, Punjab has 127.78
of Major National Highways in India. km, Maharashtra has 117.61 km and Haryana
has 63.70 km.
3. Key: B
Educational Objective: Understanding the
Explanation: Gujarat has the largest coastline
network of roads in India
in India (1915km), followed by Andhra Pradesh
(1037km). Maharashtra has the highest number 7. Key: D
of airports in India. Maharashtra has the highest Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as
number of ports followed by Gujarat. Indian Railway System is the 4th largest railway
Educational objective: Airports location and in the world after USA, Russia and China.
economic geography of India Statement 2 is correct as National Highway is
nearly 2% (1.96%) of total roads, but it carries
4. Key: C
nearly 40 – 45% of road traffic of India.
Explanation: Length of Agra-Mumbai NH – 1161
Statement 3 is incorrect Maharashtra has the
km
highest density of the surface roads, not Kerala.
Length of Chennai-Thane NH – 1235 km
Statement 4 is correct as National Highway No.
Length of Kolkata-Hajira NH – 1946 km
7 is the longest in the country which joins
Length of Pune-Machilipatnam NH – 841 km
Varanasi to Kanyakumari.
So, among the given options, the length of
Educational Objective: Understanding Indian
Kolkata-Hajira NH, also known as NH 6 earlier,
Railways Network
is the longest route.
Education Objective: Understanding the spread 8. Key: D
of Major National Highways in India. Explanation: Konkan Railway was the missing
link between India’s commercial capital Mumbai
5. Key: D
and Mangalore. This railway line connects
Explanation: Arrangement of states in
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka State. It’s
descending order of the surface roads per 100
length is about 760 km. 49% equity is from four
sq. km of their area is as follows:
states governments of Goa, Maharashtra, Kerala
Tamil Nadu has 158.78 km, Punjab has 127.78
and Karnataka and 51% of equity of Konkan
km, Maharashtra has 117.61 km and Haryana
Railway Corporation. So, option D which says
has 63.70 km.
that the money was raised through Public issues
Educational Objective: Understanding the
is wrong.
network of roads in India
Educational Objective: Understanding about
Konkan Railway and its history.

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Explanation: Dahej is a not a major port of India. Kochi


9. Key: B
(Cochin), Paradip and New Mangalore are considered as
Explanation: The four railway junctions shown
major ports.
by 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the map of Gujarat are
Educational Objective: Learning about major and minor
Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and
ports of India.
Junagarh respectively.
Educational Objective: Learning about Gujarat 14. Key: B
Railway Map Explanation: Kochi shipyard is the largest shipyard in
India.
10. Key: A
Educational Objective: Learning about the various
Explanation: Konkan Railway was the missing
shipyards of India.
link between India’s commercial capital Mumbai
and Mangalore. This railway line connects 15. Key: B
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka State. Its Explanation: As per the figures, Kandla port
length is about 760 km. 49% equity is from four handled the highest traffic volume at 115.40 MT
states governments of Goa, Maharashtra, Kerala during 2018-19, followed by Paradip (109.27
and Karnataka and 51% of equity of Konkan MT), JNPT (70.70 MT), Visakhapatnam (65.30
Railway Corporation. So, option A is correct. MT), Kolkata with Haldia (63.71 MT) and
Educational Objective: Understanding about Mumbai (60.58 MT).
Konkan Railway and its history. Educational Objective: Understanding about
11. Key: A the traffic volume of various ports of India.
Explanation: The canal carrying capacity of
16. Key: B
Farakka barrage is 75,000 cusecs. Farakka
Explanation: In the given map ‘A’ marked ports
barrage is a 2245 metre long barrage across the
is Veraval of Gujarat, ‘B’ marked port is Karwar
river Ganga.
of Karnataka, ‘C’ marked port is Tuticorin of
Educational Objective: Understanding the
Tamil Nadu and ‘D’ marked port is Kakinada of
Farakka Barrage.
Andhra Pradesh.
12. Key: A Educational Objective: Learning about major and minor
Explanation: The ports of Union Territory of ports of India.
Pondicherry as given in the figure are as follows:
17. Key: D
A – Mahe
Explanation: Tides and Fishing
B – Karaikal
Tides move water, bringing water in and taking
C – Podicherry
water out. Understanding the cycles and effects
D – Yanam of tides on fish helps in better fishing. The full
Educational Objective: Understanding the map and new moons normally create better fishing
and geography of Pondicherry. conditions because of the spring tides. The
13. Key: B reason behind this is that fish are easier to

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

catch when they are feeding and it’s the tide and
currents that dictate this. When the water
begins to move, smaller fishes are at the mercy
of the current and get confused in the turbulent
water. Larger fishes have an advantage because
they are equipped to feed in this turbulent
water. These larger fishes get more easily
trapped when there are tides.
Tidal Ports: During high tides, water rushes
into harbours (Tidal Bore). This helps ships
enter and exit harbours safely. High tides make
ocean/sea water rush into the mouths of rivers.
This helps ships to enter port towns like New
York, London, Rotterdam, and Hamburg. This is
perfectly advantageous for some ports in India
such as Kandla, Mangalore and Kolkata’s
diamond harbour.
Tides and Siltation: Tides take away the
terrigenous material brought by the rivers at the
river harbours and thus help in the prevention
of siltation.
Tides and Prevention of Rivers from Freezing:
The temperature at which sea water freezes is
much lower than that of river water. In cities like
London, due to the high tide, the sea water
enters the river and prevents it from freezing
Educational Objective: Understanding the
various roles of Tides and Tidal Ports of India.

18. Key: D
Explanation: Hoogly in West Bengal is a major
riverine port.
Educational Objective: Knowledge about
various ports of India and riverine ports as well.

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Previous Year Questions

III. Demography (a) 1 only


(b) 2 only
1. World Demography (c) Both 1 and 2

1. As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on (d) Neither 1 nor 2


Human Settlements 2009, which one 5. For India, China, the UK and the USA,
among the following regions has shown
which one of the following is the correct
the fastest growth rate of urbanization in
sequence of the median age of their
the last three decades?
(a) Asia populations?
(b) Europe (a) China<India<UK<USA
(c) Latin America and Caribbean (b) India< China<USA<UK
(d) North America (c) China<India<USA<UK
(d) India< China <UK<USA
2. India is regarded as a country with
“Demographic Dividend”. This is due to 6. What is the approximate percentage of
(a) Its high population in the age group below persons above 65 years of age in India’s
15 years current population?
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15- (a) 14-15%
64 years (b) 11-12%
(c) Its high population in the age group above (c) 8-9%
65 years (d) 5-6%
(d) Its high total population 7. Sustainable development is described as
3. Which one among the following South the development that meets the needs of
Asian countries has the highest the present without 1SE compromising
population density? the ability of future generations to meet
(a) India their own needs. In this perspective,
(b) Nepal inherently the concept of sustainable
(c) Pakistan development is intertwined with which of
(d) Sri Lanka the following concepts?
(a) Social justice and empowerment
4. Consider the following statements:
(b) Inclusive Growth
1) Infant mortality rate takes into account the
(c) Globalization
death of infants within a month after birth.
(d) Carrying capacity
2) Infant mortality rate is the number of
infant deaths in a particular year per 100 8. Consider the following statements:
live births during that year. 1) The first telegraph line in India was laid
Which of the above statements is/are between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and
correct? Diamond Harbour.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

2) The first Export Processing Zone in India today 55% of the world’s population lives in
was set up in Kandla. urban areas, a proportion that is expected to
Which of the statements given above is/are increase to 68% by 2050.
correct?
(a) 1 only Projections show that urbanization, the gradual
(b) 2 only shift in residence of the human population from
(c) Both 1 and 2 rural to urban areas, combined with the overall
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 growth of the world’s population could add
another 2.5 billion people to urban areas by
9. Consider the following pairs:
2050, with close to 90% of this increase taking
Programme/Project Ministry
place in Asia and Africa.
1) Drought-Prone Ministry of
Educational Objective: To learn about the UN-
Agriculture
Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements,
Area Programme
2009.
2) Desert Development Ministry of
Environment and 2. Key: B
Forests Programme Explanation: The demographic dividend is a rise
3) National Watershed Ministry of Rural in the rateof economic growth due to a rising
Developmentfor share ofworking age people in a population. This
RainfedAreas usuallyoccurs late in the demographic transition
Development project whenthe fertility rate falls and the youth
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly dependencyrate declines.
matched? To reap the benefits of demographic dividend,
(a) 1 and 2 only skills have to be developed because a relatively
(b) 3 only largerportion of population fall under the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 category of
(d) None Productive labour force when there is a
demographicdividend.
1. Key and Explanation Educational Objective: A decline in fertility and
mortality rates boosts working population
1. Key: A productivity, which leads to a demographic
Explanation: According to UN-Habitat's Global dividend.
Report on Human Settlements, 2009 Asiaian
3. Key: A
continent is registering fastest growth rate of
Explanation: Overall population density of India
urbanization in the last three decades is 324. Nepalis 102, Pakistan is 146, Sri Lanka
According to a new United Nations-Department is 280 person persquare kilometres.
of Economic and Social Affairs (2018 report), Many of the world’s small island or isolated
states have large populations for their size.

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Previous Year Questions

Macao, Monaco, Singapore, Hong Kong and


Gibraltar are the five most densely populated.
Of the larger countries, Bangladesh is the most
densely-populated with 1,252 people per square
kilometre; this is almost three times as dense as
its neighbour, India.
Educational Objective: To know about
population density.
4. Key: D
Explanation: Infant mortality rate indicates the
number of infant death under one years of age
per 1000 live birthunderone year of age.
Neo-Natal Mortality Rate (<29 days) and Post
Neo-Natal Mortality Rate (1 month to 11
months).
Every 6th death in the country pertains to an
Educational Objective: Worldwide Median age
infant.
population is Japan > Italy > Germany > France
IMR in India has registered a 3 points decline to
50 from 53 in 2008. 6. Key: D
Maximum IMR in Madhya Pradesh (67) and Explanation: Population ages 65 and above (%
minimum IMR in Kerala (12) of total) in India was reported at 6.18 % in 2018,
according to the World Bank collection of
development indicators, compiled from officially
recognized sources. India - Population ages 65
and above (% of total) - actual values, historical
data, forecasts and projections were sourced
from the World Bank on March of 2020.

Educational Objective: To know about


mortality rate.

5. Key: B
Educational Objective: To know about
Explanation: For India, China, UK and USA, the
correct sequence ofthe Median age of their population ages.

population isIndia < China < USA < UK 7. Key: D


Explanation: In 1987, the Brundtland
Commission published its report, Our Common

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Future, in an effort to link the issues of crops and livestock and productivity of land,
economic development and environmental water and human resources ultimately leading
stability. In doing so, this report provided the to drought proofing of the affected areas.
oft-cited definition of sustainable development The programme also aims to promote overall
as “development that meets the needs of the economic development and improving the socio-
present without compromising the ability of economic conditions of the resource poor and
future generations to meet their own needs”. disadvantaged sections inhabiting the
This concept of sustainable development aims to programme areas.
maintain economic advancement and progress Desert Development Programme (DDP): The
while protecting the long-term value of the main aim of the programme is to minimise the
environment; it “provides a framework for the adverse effect of drought and control
integration of environment policies and desertification through rejuvenation of the
development strategies” natural resource base of the identified desert
Educational Objective: To learn about the areas. The programme strives to achieve
sustainable development and its main ecological balance in the long run.
objectives. Ministry of Agriculture: National Watershed

8. Key: C Development Project for Rainfed Areas:


Rainfed areas constitute about 57% of the total
Explanation: Telegraph services in India date
140.30 million hectares cultivated in the
back to 1850, when the first experimental
country. Rainfed agriculture is characterised by
telegraph line was established between Calcutta
low levels of productivity and low input usage.
and Diamond Harbour.
The main objective of the scheme are:
The British East India Company started using
the telegraph a year later, and by 1854. when 1. Conservation, development and sustainable

the system opened to the public, telegraph lines management of natural resources.

had been laid across the country. 2. Enhancement of agricultural production

The Kandla Free Trade Zone - India's first Export and productivity in a sustainable manner.

Processing Zone - was set up in 1965. Educational Objective: To learn about the

Subsequently, six more EPZs were set up. projects and its respective ministries.

Thus both the statements are correct.


2. Language
Educational Objective: To learn about the
telegraph services and export processing zones. 1. The language spoken by the largest
number of people in the world is
9. Key: D
(a) Hindi
Explanation:Ministry of Rural Development-
(b) English
Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP): The
(c) Mandarin
basic objective of the programme is to minimise
(d) Spanish
the adverse effects of drought on production of

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(d) Singapore
2. Which one of the following languages
2. Key and Explanation
belongs to the Austric group?
(a) Marathi 1. Key: C
(b) Ladakhi Explanation: Mandarin is spoken in people’s
(c) Khasi Republic of China, Taiwan, Singapore,
(d) Tamil Malayasia, some part of UnitedStates. This

3. Consider the following international language covers 885 million people.English is

languages: spoken by 500 million people.

1) Arabic Educational Objective: Five most languages

2) French spoken in the world

3) Spanish Mandarin > Hindi > Spanish > English > Arabic

The correct sequence of the languages given 2. Key: C


above in the decreasing order of the number
Explanation: Austric group (Nishada) spoken by
of their speakers is.
(a) 3-1-2 1.38% of totalIndian population, this group
(b) 1-3-2 includes mainly triballanguages and dialects of
(c) 3-2-1 the central tribal belt, Khasiand Jaintia hills of
(d) 1-2-3 Meghalaya and Nicobar island.

4. Which one among the following languages


has largest number of speakers in the
world?
(a) Bengali
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) Portuguese
5. Berber speaking community, frequently
in the news, lives in
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Algeria
(c) Argentina
(d) Australia Indian languages have evolved from different
6. In which one of the following countries, stocks and are closely associated with the
is Tamil a major language? different ethnic groups of India. Broadly the
(a) Myanmar Indian languages can be put into six groups:
(b) Indonesia 1) Indo-Aryan, 2) Dravidian, 3) Sino-Tibetan,
(c) Mauritius 4) Negroid, 5) Austric and 6) Others.

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Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about tribal Southeast Asia. Singapore lies about one degree
languages. of latitude north of the equator, and is situated
off the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula.
3 . Key: A
As a result of historical migration and settlement
Explanation: Total speaker of Spanish in world
patterns, Indian Singaporeans came to the
is 329 million, Arabic speakers are 220 million
island from various parts of South Asia speaking
and French speakers are 200 million. So, the
a variety of South Asian languages, mostly
correct sequences in decreasing order of the
Tamil.
number of speakers are Spanish, Arabic and
According to the population census in 2010,
French.
about 9.2 percent of the Singaporean population
Educational Objective: To know about
were Indians, It was also found out that
Language and population distribution.
approximately 76.7 percent of these Indians
4. Key : A spoke Tamil as their native language.
Explanation: According to 2005 edition of the Educational Objective: To learn about the
National encyclopaedia, the largest numbers of usage of Indian language in other countries.
speakers in the world are, Portuguese (213
millikon speakers); Bengali (215 million 3. Population
speakers); Japanese; (127 million speakers);
1. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat
French (130 million speakers).
in the United Nations programme working
Educational Objective: To know about
towards a better urban future, which of
language distribution across world.
the statements is/are correct?
5. Key : B 1) UN-Habitat has been mandated by the
Explanation: Berber speaking community lives United Nations General Assembly to
in Algeria, Morocco, Libiya, Tunisia, Mali and promote socially and environmentally
Egypt. sustainable towns and cities to provide
The Berber languages, also known as Berber or adequate shelter for all.
the Amazigh languages, are a branch of 2) Its partners are either governments or local
the Afroasiatic language family. They comprise urban authorities only.
a group of closely related languages spoken by 3) UN-Habitat contributes to the overall
the Berbers, who are indigenous to North objective of the United Nations system to
Africa. reduce poverty and to promote access to
Educational Objective: To know about berber safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
community. Select the correct answer using the code
6. Key: D given below:

Explanation: Singapore is a sovereign city-state (a) 1,2 and 3


and island country located in maritime (b) 1 and 3 only

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(c) 2 and 3 only 6. Consider the following statements:


(d) 1 only 1) According to the Census 2001, Kerala has
the smallest gap in male & female literacy
2. Amongst the following States, which one
has the highest percentage of rural rates among the 28 states of India (Delhi &
population to its total population (on the Pondicherry are not included)
basis of the Census, 2001)? 2) According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan
(a) Himachal Pradesh has literacy rate above the national average
(b) Bihar literacy rate.
(c) Orissa Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Uttar Pradesh correct?
3. Which of the following are among the (a) 1 only
million- plus cities in India on the basis (b) 2 only
of data of the Census, 2001? (c) Both 1 and 2
1) Ludhiana
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Kochi
7. According to the Census-2001, which one
3) Surat
of the following Indian States has the
4) Nagpur
maximum population in India after Uttar
Codes:
Pradesh?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) West Bengal
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Maharashtra
(c) 1 and 4 only
(c) Bihar
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Tamil Nadu
4. Among the following, which one has the
minimum population on the basis of data 8. Which one of the following is the correct
of Census of India, 2001? statement on the basis of Census-2001?
(a) Chandigarh (a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the
(b) Mizoram Scheduled Castes of its population
(c) Puducherry (b) The Decadal growth of population of India
(d) Sikkim (1991-2001) has been below 20%

5. Which one among the following States of (c) Mizoram is the Indian state with the least

India has the lowest density of population

population? (d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among

(a) Himachal Pradesh the Union Territories

(b) Meghalaya 9. Consider the following statements:


(c) Arunachal Pradesh 1) Area wise, Chhattisgarh is the larger than
(d) Sikkim West Bengal

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Previous Year Questions

2) According to the population 2001 Census, B. 1921-1951 2. Rapid high growth


population of West Bengal is larger than that C. 1951-1981 3. Stagnant growth
of Chhattisgarh D. 1981-2001 4. High growth with
Which of the statements given above is/are definite signs of
correct? slowdown
(a) 1 only Codes:
(b) 2 only (a) A-3; B-; C-4; D-2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

10. Consider the following statements: As (d) A-1;B-3;l C-4; D-2

per 2001 Census 13. Which one among the following States
1) The two states with the lowest sex ratio are has the highest female literacy rate as
Haryana & Punjab per the Census 2001:
2) The two states with the lowest population (a) Chhattisgarh
per sq. km of area are Meghalaya & Mizoram (b) Madhya Pradesh
3) Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and (c) Orissa
sex ratio. (d) Rajasthan
Which of the statements given is/are 14. Which amongst the following States has
correct?
(a) 3 only the highest population density as per
(b) 2 and 3 Census-2001:

(c) 1 and 2 (a) Kerala


(d) 1 and 3 (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
11. Which among the following countries
(d) West Bengal
has the largest population?
(a) Indonesia 15. Consider the following countries

(b) Japan 1) Brazil

(c) Pakistan 2) Indonesia

(d) Sudan 3) Japan

12. India’s population growth during the 4) Russia


20th century can be classified into four What is the descending order of the size of
distinct phases.
the following countries population wise?
Match List-I(Period) with List-II(Phase) and select
(a) 1, 2 ,4 , 3
the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) 2, 3, 1 , 4
the list:
(c) 2, 1, 4 ,3
List-I (Period) List-II(Phase)
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
A. 1901-1921 1. Steady growth

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Previous Year Questions

16. Consider the following countries of South (b) Karnataka


Asia. (c) Maharashtra
1) Bangladesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
2) India
20. Consider the following statements about
3) Pakistan
the megacities of India.
4) Srilanka
1) Population of each mega city is more than
The descending order of literacy status of 5 million
these countries.
2) All the megacities are important sea ports.
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
3) Mega cities are either National / State
(b) 2, 4, 3 ,1 Capitals.
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 Which of these statements are correct?
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3
17. The high density of population in Nile (b) 1 and 2
Valley and Island of Java is primarily due (c) 2 and 3
to (d) 1 and 3
(a) Intensive agriculture
21. Which one of the following statements is
(b) Industrialisation
true according to 1991 Census data?
(c) Urbanisation
(a) UP has the highest density of population in
(d) Topographic constraints India
18. Consider the Decadal Census data given (b) Himachal Pradesh has the highest female to
below: male sex ratio in India
Decadal population (in millions) (c) West Bengal has the highest growth rate of
Year Population population in India
1961 10.7 (d) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate in India
1971 14.3
1981 16.2 The next two questions are based on the
1991 18.9 following table. Study the same and attempt
The above data refer to which one of the the two items
population by religion groups? Table
(a) Sikhs
Indicators of Development for some
(b) Jains
Asian Countries
(c) Christians
Life Infant Adult
(d) Buddhist
Expectancy Mortality Literac
Countries
19. The largest number of Buddhists is found in at Rate(Per y
(a) Bihar birth(years 1000 live Rate(Pe

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Previous Year Questions

1995) births) rcent


1996 1995)

India
62.4 72 52
China
69.2 38 82
Indonesia
64.0 47 84
Malaysia
71.4 11 84
Thailand
69.5 31 94
Korea
71.7 6 98
Philippine Minorities.
67.4 32 95
s 1) Buddhists
2) Christians
22. Which of the following statement is 3) Jains
false? 4) Muslims
(a) All countries other than India have over 5) Sikhs
80% literacy rate Codes:
(b) Malaysia & Korea have life expectancy (a) A-5; B-1; C-3; D-2
higher than all other countries (b) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(c) Higher the adult literacy, lower is the infant (c) A-5; B-3; C-1; D-2
mortality (d) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
(d) The life expectancy at birth in India is 25. The population growth rate in Kerala is
almost the same at that of Indonesia the lowest among major Indian states.
23. The best performance with regard to Which one of the following is the most
human development among the countries widely accepted reason for this?
is (a) Kerala had made the highest investment in
(a) China family planning
(b) Malaysia (b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India
(c) Korea (c) Kerala has invested heavily in promoting
(d) Philippines literacy & public health & placed high
24. Match the areas shown as A, B, C and D priority on social policies
on the given map showing with the (d) The population pyramid in Kerala has
largest religious minorities. Select the relatively fewer women in the reproductive
correct answer using the codes given age group
below the list: 26. Among which of the following sets of
social/religious groups is the extent of
poverty highest as per Government
statistics for the 90s.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

(a) Muslims in Kerala, Gujarat & Andhra 30. As per India’s National Population
Pradesh Policy, 2000, by which one of the
(b) Tribals in Bihar, MP & Maharashtra following years is it our long-term
(c) SCs in Punjab, Western UP, North objective to achieve population
Rajasthan & Tamil Nadu stabilization?
(d) Christians in Gujarat, Maharashtra & (a) 2025
Assam (b) 2035
27. As per 1991 Census, which one of the (c) 2045
following groups of Union Territories had (d) 2055
the highest literacy rate? 31. Consider the following statements.
(a) Chandigarh & Dadra Nagar Haveli 1) India is the second country in the world to
(b) Delhi & Andaman Nicobar Islands adopt a National Family Planning Program.
(c) Andaman Nicobar Islands & Pondicherry 2) The National Population Policy of India 2000
(d) Pondicherry & Delhi seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility
28. Southeast Asia has captivated the by 2010 with a population of 111 crores.
attention of the global community over 3) Kerala is the first state in India to achieve
space and time as a geostrategically replacement level of fertility.
significant region. Which among the Which of the statements given above is/are
following is most convincing explanation correct?
for this global perspective (a) 1 only
(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second (b) 1 and 2
World War (c) 2 and 3
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of (d) 1, 2 and 3
China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower 3. Key and Explanation
a.

confrontation during the Cold War period


1. Key: B
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. UN-Habitat
oceans and its preeminent maritime is a Unites Nation’s programme working towards
character a better urban future. Its mission is to promote
socially and environmentally sustainable human
29. Which one amongst the following has
settlements development and the achievement of
the largest livestock population in the adequate shelter for all. It is the first statement
world? on their about us page.
(a) Brazil Statement 2 is wrong, as UN-Habitat also
(b) China partners with private organisations and civil
society. Also, the statement contains ‘extreme’
(c) India
word ONLY.
(d) USA

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Statement 3 is correct.Cities are facing Educational Objective: To know about census


unprecedented demographic, environmental, related facts.
economic, social and spatial challenges. There
has been a phenomenal shift towards 3. Key: D
urbanization. In many places around the world, Explanation: According to the Census of 2001
the effects can already be felt: lack of proper of India, the population of Ludhiana is
housing and growth of slums, inadequate and 1,398,467, Surat is 2,433,835 and Nagpur is
out-dated infrastructure – be it roads, public
2,052,066.
transport, water, sanitation, or electricity –
There were total of 35 million- plus cities in
escalating poverty and unemployment, safety
and crime problems, pollution and health India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001
issues, as well as poorly managed natural or
man-made disasters and other catastrophes due
to the effects of climate change. Mindsets,
policies, and approaches towards urbanization
need to change in order for the growth of cities
and urban areas to be turned into opportunities
that will leave nobody behind. UN-Habitat, the
United Nations programme for human
settlements, is at the helm of that change,
assuming a natural leadership and catalytic role
in urban matters.
Educational Objective: Understanding about
UN-Habitat and its functions.
According to the 2011 census, there were 46
2. Key: A million-plus cities in India, with Mumbai, Delhi
Explanation: On the basis of 2001 census, 9.8% and Kolkata having populations over 10 million.
of population Himachal Pradesh, 10.5% of Educational Objective: To know about 2011
population of Bihar, 15% of population of Orissa facts.
& 20.8% of population of Uttar Pradesh live in
4. Key: D
rural areas.
Explanation: Population of Sikkim is 540,851.
According to 2001 Census Out of 1027 million
Population of Chandigarh is 901,000, Population
(or 102.7 crore) population of India, as per
of Pondicherry is 974000 and population of
Census 2001, 742 million live in rural areas and
Mizoram is 889,000.
285 million in urban areas comprising of 72.2%
Educational Objective: To know about
and 27.8% of the population respectively. The
Population statistics.
highest percentage of urban population is in
Delhi (93.0%) and the lowest in Himachal 5. Key: C

Pradesh (9.8%). Explanation: As per Census, 2001Population


density of Arunachal Pradesh is 13, Himachal

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Pradesh is 109, Meghalaya is 103, and Sikkim is 9. Key: C


76. Explanation: Area of Chhattisgarh is
Educational Objective: To know about 1,36,03489 km and Area of West Bengal is
88,572 sq km but the population density in
Population statistics. Chhattigarh is 154, whereas the population
density in West Bengal is 904.
6. Key: D Educational Objective: To know about
Explanation: Mizoram is the state where male Population density.
literacy is 90.7% and female literacy is 86.7%. Population Density
So, Mizoram is the state of smallest gap in male
Persons/
and female literacy, where Kerala has 94.2% in
Sq.Km
male and 87.7% in female.
India 325
In statement-2 literacy of Rajasthan is 60.4%,
State with
where national literacy is 65.38%.
Highest West Bengal 903
Educational Objective: To know about Literacy Population
Density
rate.
State with
Lowest Arunachal
7. Key: B 13
Population Pradesh
Explanation: According to 2001 census, Density
Maharashtra had the maximum population in UT with Highest
Population Delhi 9.340
India after Uttar Pradesh. The total population Density
in Maharashtra is 193,977,000. UT with Lowest Andaman &
Population 43
The combined population of UP and Nicobar Islands
Density
Maharashtra (the second most populous state)
District with
at 312 million , is substantially greater than that Highest North East
29,468
Population (Delhi)
of USA, the third most populous country of the
Density
world Lahul & Spiti
District with
Educational Objective: To know about Lowest 2
(Himachal
Population
Population statistics. Pradesh)
Density
8. Key: D
10. Key: D
Explanation: Pondicherry, a Union Territory,
has the sex ratio of 1001. Chandigarh has 777, Explanation: As per census 2001, child sex
Delhi has 861, Daman and Diu has 710, Dadra ratio in Haryana was 861, in Punjab 876. Hence,
and Nagar Haveli has 812.
Improvement in the sex ratio during 1991 to Haryana and Punjab were the two states with
2001, which has marginally improved to 933 lowest sex ratios.
females per thousand males from 927 per
The population per sq. km. of area in Arunachal
thousand in 1991, an increase of six points.
Educational Objective: To know about sex Pradesh was 13, in Meghalaya was 103 and in
ratio. Mizoram was 42. Hence, the two states with the

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

lowest population per sq. km of area are That of Madhya Pradesh was 196 persons per sq
Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. km.
Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex Kerala was 859 person per sq km its land is
ratio. Kerala has 94.2% in male literacy rate and three times as densely settled as the rest of
87.7% in female literacy rate. India.
The sex ratio of Kerala is-1058 females per 1000 Educational Objective: To know about density
males according to 2001 census of population.
Educational Objective: To know about
development aspects.

11. Key: A
Explanation: Indonesia has the largest
population in the given countries.
Educational Objective: To know about
countries with highest population.

12. Key: C
Explanation:

15. Key: C
Explanation: The descending order of the size of
the following countries population wiseare
Indonesia(21,38,29,469) > Brazil(17,63,19,621)
Educational Objective: To know about stages of
> Russia(14,67,09,971) > Japan(12,67,29,223)
demographic transition.
Educational Objective: The top ten countries
13. Key: A
with the highest population
Explanation: As per the census of 2001,
Chhattisgarh has the highest female literacy 16. Key: C

of 51.85, Orissa has 50.51%, Madhya Explanation: According to UNESCO; 2015, the

Pradesh - 50.29 and Rajasthan has 43.85%. literacy rate of given countries are –

Educational Objective: To know about Literacy Paskistan - 56.4%


India - 72.1%
14. Key: D
Bangladesh - 72.8%
Explanation: Population density in West Bengal
Srilanka - 92.6%
is 904.
The figures represented are almost entirely
In 2001, density of Uttar Pradesh was 690
collected by the UNESCO Institute for
persons per sq km, while nation average
Statistics (UIS) on behalf of UNESCO with 2015
in 2001 was 324 per sq km.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

estimates based on people aged 15 or over who > Buddhist (0.7%) > Jain(0.4%) >Parsis (0.06%)
can read and write. Where data is taken from a > Animist & others (0.72%)
different source, notes are provided Educational Objective: To know about
The global literacy rate for all people aged 15 population distribution.
and above is 86.3%. The global literacy rate for
19. Key: C
all males is 90.0% and the rate for all females is
Explanation: Maharashtra has the highest
82.7%. The rate varies throughout the world
number of Buddhists in India, with 5.81% of the
with developed nations having a rate of 99.2%
total population.
(2013);Oceania having 71.3%; South and West
The Buddhist percentage has decreased from
Asia having 70.2% (2015) and sub-Saharan
0.74% in 1961 to 0.70% in 2011. Between 2001
Africa at 64.0% (2015).
and 2011, Buddhist population declined in Uttar
Educational Objective: To know about literacy
Pradesh, Karnataka, and Punjab.
rate.
According to the 2011 Census of India there are
17. Key: A 8.4 million Buddhists in India. Maharashtra has
Explanation: Due to availability of fertile alluvial the highest number of Buddhists in India, with
soil intensive agricultural practices was possible 5.81% of the total population. Almost 90 per
in the Nile River and islands of Java. So, in cent of Navayana or Neo-Buddhists live in the
these regions high density of population is state. Marathi Buddhists, who live in
found. Maharashtra, are the largest Buddhist
Many of the world’s small island or isolated community in India. Most Buddhist Marathi
states have large populations for their size. people belong to the former Mahar community
Macao, Monaco, Singapore, Hong Kong and Educational Objective: To know about
Gibraltar are the five most densely populated. Population distribution across states.
Educational Objective: To know about
20. Key: D
population and economic activity.
Explanation: Megacities of India have more
18. Key: C than 5 million populations.
Explanation: Decadal population growth rate of But not all the major megacities are located on
religious groups: Hindus: 16.8%; Muslim: the sea coast or are sea ports. Delhi, which is
24.6%; Christian: 15.5%; Sikh: 8.4%; Buddhist: the national capital, is not a sea port.
6.1% and Jain: 5.4%. To qualify as a megacity under the UN definition,
Among the given options Christians Decadal an urban area must have a population of 10
population growth slightly matches the data million people. The UN takes into account
given in the above table. urban sprawl and measures populations beyond
Census-2011 official city limits. On these criteria, India
Out of total population: Hindu (79.8%) currently has five megacities.
>Muslim(14.2%) > Christian(2.3%) > Sikh (1.7%)

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

1. New Delhi: The capital city has a population Educational Objective: To know about human
of 26.5 million people development.
2. Mumbai: India’s financial hub has a 24. Key: C
population of 21.4 million people Explanation: ‘A’ marked area in the given map
3. Kolkata: An important trading hub, with 15 is Punjab and Haryana, where Sikhs as the
million people living largest religious minorities.
4. Bengaluru: The ‘Silicon Valley’ of India; 10.5 ‘B’ marked area denoted part of Rajasthan and
million people call it home Gujarat, where Jains are the largest religious
5. Chennai: Home of the Indian motor minority.
industry, with 10.2 million people ‘C’ marked area denoted Sanchi area of Madhya
Educational Objective: To know about Pradesh, where Buddhists are the religious
Mega cities. minority.
21. Key: D ‘D’ refers the part of Andhra Pradesh where
Explanation: According to 1991 census data, Christians are religious minority.
Bihar had the lowest rate of literacy at 47.53%. Educational Objective: To know about minority
As of 2011 Census India's literacy rate is at population distribution.
74.04%. Kerala has achieved a literacy rate of 25. Key: C
93.91%. Bihar is the least literate state in India, Explanation: With Kerala registering the lowest
with a literacy of 63.82%. growth rate of population in the last one decade,
India’s density of population is 382 per square the state is all set to achieve “Zero population
kilometre. Bihar is the most thickly populated growth” in the coming years
state (1106 persons/sq km.) followed by west While the national rate of growth of population
bengal-1028 and Kerala 860. in the last 10 years is 17.6 per cent, the growth
Educational Objective: To Know about the rate of state population during the period is 4.9
Literacy Rate. per cent, the lowest rate among Indian states,
22. Key: D according to the latest Economic Review by the
Explanation: Self explanatory from the above state planning Board.
table India's literacy rate is at 74.04%. Kerala has
achieved a literacy rate of 93.91%.
23. Key: C
Kerala ranks highest in India with respect to
Explanation: Human development in a country
social development indices such as elimination
depends on life expectancy of the individual and
of poverty, primary education and healthcare.
standard of living of the population. Among
This resulted from significant efforts begun in
Asian countries Korea is the best performer in
1911 by the erstwhile Princely states of
human development index. Its infant mortality
Cochin and Travancore to boost healthcare and
rate is 6 and literacy rate is 98%.
education among the people

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about human Educational Objective: To know about south
development east Asian region.
29. Key: C
26. Key: B
Explanation: India is-
Explanation: According to the recent data
● World’s highest livestock owner at about
made available by Central Statistical 535.78 million.
Organisation, the incidence of poverty is highest ● First in the total buffalo population in the
in tribes of Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. world – 109.85 million buffaloes.
India has halved its poverty rate since the 1990s ● Second in the population of goats – 148.88
and achieved a seven plus growth rate over the million goats
● Second largest poultry market in the world.
last 15 years, said the World Bank.
● The second-largest producer of fish and also
Educational Objective: To know about Poverty
the second-largest aquaculture nation in the
27. Key: B world.
Explanation: As per 1991 census, Pondicherry ● Third in the population of sheep (74.26
and Delhi had the literacy rates of 75.3 and 74.7 million).
respectively. ● Fifth in the population of ducks and chicken
As of 2011 Census, literacy rate of Union (851.81 million).
territories of India ● Tenth in camel population in the world – 2.5
Lakshadweep (92.28%) > Daman &Diu (87.07%)
lakhs
> Puducherry (86.55%) > Chandigarh (86.43%) >
Livestock is defined as the farm animals raised
NCT of Delhi (86.34%) > Andaman &
especially in a farm for the use of humankind.
Nicobar(86.27%) > Dadra & Nagar Haveli
Livestock is commonly domesticatedanimals
(77.65%).
raised in an agricultural setting to produce labor
Educational Objective: To know about Literacy
and commodities such as meat, eggs, milk, fur,
Rate.
leather, and wool.
28. Key: D Educational Objective: To know about
Explanation: Southeast Asia occupies a Livestocks of India.
strategic position for traffic linking the Pacific
30. Key: C
and the Indian Oceans, such as the Straits of
Explanation: As per India’s National Population
Malacca, the South China Sea. Hence statement
Policy - 2000, by 2045 India will achieve
d is the correct answer.
population stability whichmeans that the size of
The countries in Southeast Asia are making
population will not go up.
efforts to achieve political stability and steady
In 1952, India was the first country in the world
economic growth, and lately have realized overall
to launch a national programme, emphasizing
economic development to varying degrees. Such
family planning to the extent necessary for
economic development has deepened
reducing birth rates "to stabilize the population
interdependence within and outside the region.
at a level consistent with the requirement of
national economy".

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Educational Objective: To know about national Codes:


population policy. (a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
31. Key: C (b) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
Explanation: India was the first country in the (c) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
world to launch a national programme. Family (d) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
Planning programme was started in 1952 by
Government of India. 2. Every year, a month-long ecologically
Kerala is the first state inIndia to achieve important campaign/ festival is held
replacement level of fertility. during which certain communities/tribes
The National Population Policy, 2000 (NPP 2000) plant saplings of fruit- bearing trees.
affirms the commitment of government towards
Which of the following are such
voluntary and informed choice and consent of
citizens while availing of reproductive health communities/ tribes?
care services, and continuation of the target free (a) Bhutia and Lepcha
approach in administering family planning (b) Gond and Korku
services. The NPP 2000 provides a policy (c) Irula and Toda
framework for advancing goals and prioritizing
(d) Sahariya and Agariya
strategies during the next decade, to meet the
reproductive and child health needs of the 3. With reference to “Changpa” community
people of India, and to achieve net replacement of India, consider the following
levels (TFR) by 2010.
statements:
In 1952, India was the first country in the world
1) They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand
to launch a national programme, emphasizing
2) They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a
family planning to the extent necessary for
fine wool
reducing birth rates "to stabilize the population
3) They are kept in the category of Scheduled
at a level consistent with the requirement of
Tribes
national economy".
Which of the statements given above is/are
Educational Objective: To know about national
correct?
family planning program.
(a) 1 only
4. Tribes (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
1. Match List-I (Ethnic Community) with
(d) 1,2 and 3
List-II (Country) and select the correct
answer: 4. Consider the following pairs:

List-I List-II Tribe State

A. Apatani 1. China 1) Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim

B. Dayak 2. India 2) Karbi Himachal Pradesh

C. Dinka 3. Indonesia 3) Dongaria Kondh Odisha

D. Uighur 4. Sudan 4) Bonda Tamil Nadu

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Which of the above pairs are correctly 9. A person of mixed European and Indian
matched? blood in Latin America is called a
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) Mulatto
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) Mestizo
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (c) Meiji
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 (d) Mau Mau

5. In which one of the following places is 10. The term “Aryan” denotes
the Shompen tribe found? (a) An ethnic group
(a) Nilgiri Hills (b) A nomadic people
(b) Nicobar Islands (c) A speech group
(c) Spiti Valley (d) A superior race
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
11. Which one of the following pairs of
6. Which one of the following statements is states & tribes is not correctly matched?
not correct? (a) Assam : Miri
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe (b) Nagaland : Konyak
in the Constitution of India (c) Arunachal Pradesh: Apatani
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over (d) Madhya Pradesh : Lambada
half of the country’s tribal population
12. Among the Indian states shown labelled
(c) The people known as Todas live in the
1,2,3& 4 in the rough outline map given,
Nilgiri area
the correct sequence of descending order
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
of percent of scheduled tribe population
7. In which one of the following Union to their total population is:
Territories, do the people of the Onge
tribe live?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep

8. Which one of the following pairs of


primitive tribes and place of their (a) 1,3,2,4
inhabitation is NOT correctly matched? (b) 3,2,1,4
(a) Buksa : Paun-Garhwal (c) 3,1,4,2
(b) Kol : Jabalpur (d) 1,3,4,2
(c) Munda : Chhotanagpur
(d) Korba : Kodagu

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

fruit bearing trees on vacant land, wherever it is


4. Key and Explanation
available.
1. Key: A Educational Objective: To create awareness,
Explanation: The Apatani, or Tanw, are a tribal the adivasis and their festivals.
group of people living in the Ziro valley in the
3. Key: B
Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: The Changpa are a semi-nomadic
in India.
Tibetan ethnic group found mainly in Zanskar
Dayak tribe’s people are the indigenous nomadic
region of Jammu and Kashmir. They rear the
farmers of Sarawak and Brunei, Indonesia. They
Pashmina goats that yield fine wool. They are
are fierce head hunters
kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Dinka tribe is the pastoralist tribe in South
Changpas, a hardly nomadic community,
Sudan. They are currently fighting with the
followed the silk route trail over the high passes
Sudan People’s Liberation Army (SPLA) on behalf
and the meandering rivers of the Changthang
of South Sudan President Salva Kiir Mayardit, a
plains of the Tibetan Plateau to settle in the high
Dinka himself.
altitude lake regions of Ladakh in the valleys of
Uighurs are a Turkic minority ethnic group of
Rupshu, Kharnak and the Tsomoriri somewhere
Central Asia. They are recognized as native to
in the Eighth Century. They transmigrated with
the Xinjiang Province in Northwest China.
the hope of finding better pastures for their
Educational Objective: To know about
livestock, to trade salt and butter and to find a
important tribes all over the world.
market for their pashmina wool.
2. Key: B Changpa are a semi-nomadic community found
Explanation: The festival starts with the green in Ladakh region. They are kept in the category
march celebrating the beginning of the rains and of Scheduled Tribes.
new sowing season during which planting of Educational Objective: To know about
sapling of fruit bearing trees is done on mass Changpa tribes.
scale. 4. Key: A
This question is based upon recent trends in Explanation: Limbu tribe is from Sikkim.
Gond and Korku tribes in Madhya Pradesh of Tamang and the Limbu communities of Sikkim
planting fruit tree saplings conciding with Hari have been placed in the ST category.
jiroti festival. Dongaria Kondh tribe is from Odisha.
To combat the twin problems of malnutrition Karbi is from Assam and
and environmental degradation, adivasis of Bonda is in Odisha.
Harda and Betul districts of Madhya Pradesh Assam: Chakma, Chutiya, Dimasa, Hajong,
have decided to launch ‘Operation Guerrilla Garos, Karbi, Khasis, Gangte.
Green’ — a movement to plant large numbers of Odisha: Gadaba, Ghara, Kharia, Khond, Matya,
Oraons, Rajuar, Santhals.

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Geography UPSC
Previous Year Questions

Sikkim: Bhutia, Khas, Lepchas, Limbu, ST list is ‘state wise’. Punjab, Haryana,
Tamang. Chandigarh, Delhi & Puducherry have no
Educational Objective: To know about tribes of notified Scheduled Tribes.
India. Educational Objective: To know about
'Scheduled Tribes' distributions.
5. Key: B
Explanation: Tribes of Andaman and Nicobar 7. Key: A
can be split into two broad tribal groups mainly Explanation: Tribes of Andaman and Nicobar
based on their place of origin. can be split into two broad tribal groups mainly
The Andaman Islands are home to four ‘Negrito’ based on their place of origin.
tribes namely the Great Andamanese, Onge, The Andaman Islands are home to four ‘Negrito’
Jarawa and Sentinelese. tribes namely the Great Andamanese, Onge,
Nicobar Islands are home to two ‘Mongoloid’ Jarawa and Sentinelese.
tribes – the Shompen and Nicobarese. Nicobar Islands are home to two ‘Mongoloid’
The Shompen and other aboriginal tribes of the tribes – the Shompen and Nicobarese.
archipelago are protected under The Andaman The Onge and other aboriginal tribes of the
and Nicobar (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) archipelago are protected under The Andaman
Regulation, 1956. and Nicobar (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes)
Educational Objective: To know about Regulation, 1956.
Andaman and Nicobar. Educational Objective: To know about
Andaman and Nicobar.
6. Key: B
Explanation: The term 'Scheduled Tribes' first 8. Key: D
appeared in the Constitution of India. Article Explanation: Korba tribe in found in
366 (25) defined scheduled tribes as "such tribes Chhotanagpur of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
or tribal communities or parts of or groups Korba is a tribal majority district situated in the
within such tribes or tribal communities as are north-central part of Chhattisgarh whereas
deemed under Article 342 to be ScheduledTribes Kodagu in a district in Karnataka.
for the purposes of this constitution". Bhoksa, also known as Buksa, are indigenous
Bulk of the tribal population is found in 5 states, peoples living mainly in the Indian states of
i.e., Madhaya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh.
Gujarat and Bihar. The Kol are an ancient tribal community, one of
As per 2011 census the original inhabitants of northern and central
ST (%): Lakshadweep > Mizoram > Nagaland > India. They are located throughout the states of
Meghalaya > Dadra & Nagar Haveli. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya
ST (Absolute): Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Pradesh, Maharashtra and Tripura.
Odisha > Jharkhand > Gujarat > Rajasthan Munda people are an ethnic group of India. They
speak the Mundari language as their native

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Previous Year Questions

language, which belongs to the Munda subgroup Drawing on misinterpreted references in


of Austroasiatic languages. The Munda are the Rig Veda by Western scholars in the 19th
found in the northern areas of east India century, the term "Aryan" was adopted as
concentrated in the states of Jharkhand, Odisha a racial category through the works of Arthur
and West Bengal. de Gobineau, whose ideology of race was based
Chhattisgarh: Agariya, Bhaina, Bhattra, Biar, on an idea of blonde northern European
Khond, Mawasi, Nagasia. "Aryans" who had migrated across the world and
Jharkhand: Birhors, Bhumij, Gonds, Kharia, founded all major civilizations, before being
Mundas, Santhals, Savar. diluted through racial mixing with local
Karnataka: Adiyan, Barda, Gond, Bhil, Iruliga, populations.
Koraga, Patelia, Yerava. Aryan, name originally given to a people who
Uttarakhand: Bhotias, Buksa, Jannsari, Khas, were said to speak an archaic Indo-European
Raji, Tharu. language and who were thought to have settled
Uttar Pradesh: Bhotia, Buksa, Jaunsari, Kol, in prehistoric times in ancient Iran and the
Raji, Tharu. northern Indian subcontinent.
Educational Objective: To know about tribes of Educational Objective: To know about Indo-
India. European Language.

9. Key: B 11. Key: D


Explanation: Mestizo originally meant a person Explanation: Lambada tribes are found in
of combined European and American Indian Rajasthan and not in Madhya Pradesh.
descent, regardless of where the person was Assam: Chakma, Chutiya, Dimasa, Hajong,
born. Garos, Khasis, Gangte.
Mulatto: a person of mixed white and black Arunachal Pradesh: Apatanis, Abor, Dafla,
ancestry, especially a person with one white and Galong, Momba, Sherdukpen, Singpho.
one black parent. Madhya Pradesh: Baigas, Bhils, Bharia,
Meiji: the period when Japan was ruled by the Birhors, Gonds, Katkari, kharia, Khond, Kol,
emperor Meiji Tenno, marked by the Murias.
modernization and westernization of the Nagaland: Angami, Garo, Kachari, Kuki, Mikir,
country. Nagas, Sema.
Mestizo = European + American Indian descent. Rajasthan: Bhils, Damaria, Dhanka,
Educational Objective: To know about tribes of Meenas(Minas), Patelia, Sahariya.
world. Educational Objective: To know about tribes of
India.
10. Key: C
Explanation: Aryan is in fact a linguistic term 12. Key: B
indicating a speech group of Indo-European Explanation: As per 2011 census
origin, and is not an ethnic term.

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ST (%): Lakshadweep > Mizoram > Nagaland > constitution. Hence the tribes recognized by the
Meghalaya > Dadra & Nagar Haveli. Constitution are known as ‘Scheduled
ST (Absolute): Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Tribes’. There are around 705 distinct tribes in
Odisha > Jharkhand > Gujarat > Rajasthan India.
ST list is ‘state wise’. Punjab, Haryana, Educational Objective: To know about
Chandigarh, Delhi & Puducherry have no Scheduled Tribes.
notified Scheduled Tribes.
Constitution of India has recognized tribal
communities in India under ‘Schedule 5’ of the

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