CHAPTER > 06

Molecular Basis
of Inheritance
NEET KEY NOTES
Å Mendel suggested that there are some factors or genes Structure of a Polynucleotide Chain
which help to maintain the phenotypes and genotypes of A nucleotide is composed of a nitrogenous base, pentose sugar
organisms for generation after generation. and a phosphate group.
Å It was later established that DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) 1. A nitrogenous base It is the nitrogen containing organic
is the genetic material in majority of organisms, while RNA molecule having similar physical properties of a base.
acts as the genetic material in some viruses, but has Å There are two types of nitrogenous bases
additional roles as well. RNA functions as adapter,
Purines Adenine and Guanine.
n

structural and in some cases as catalytic molecule.

Pyrimidines Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine.
n

Å Thymine is present in DNA, while uracil is present in

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) RNA in place of thymine (5-methyl uracil, another name
Å It is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. The length of for thymine).
DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides (or a pair
2. A pentose sugar Two types of sugars are present
of nucleotide referred to as base pairs) present in it.
Å For example, a bacteriophage known as φ × 174 has 5386
Å Ribose (in case of RNA)
nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has 48502 bp, Å Deoxyribose (in case of DNA)
Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 206 bp and haploid content of 3. A phosphate group It is in the form of H3 PO4 .
human DNA is 3. 3 × 109 bp. Å Nucleoside and nucleotide A nucleoside is formed when
a nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar through
Discoveries Related to Structure of N-glycosidic linkage.
DNA Å Nucleotides are the phosphoric esters of nucleosides.
Å Friedrich Miescher in 1869, first identified DNA as an n
Nucleotides are joined by 3′−5′ phosphodiester bonds
acidic substance present in the nucleus and named it as to form a dinucleotide.
‘nuclein’. n
Alternate deoxyribose and phosphate residues joins to
Å James Watson and Francis Crick, proposed a very simple form the polynucleotide chain.
double helix model for the structure of DNA in 1953 based
on X-ray diffraction data. Double Helix Structure of DNA
Å Erwin Chargaff proposed that for a double-stranded DNA, Å DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains, where the
the ratio between adenine and thymine and guanine and backbone is constituted by sugar, phosphate and the bases
cytosine are constant and equals one. project inside.
A+G The two chains have anti-parallel polarity, i.e. 5′→ 3′ for one,
A + G = T + C or =1 Å

T+C 3′→ 5′ for another.

Å The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond
(H—bonds) forming base pairs (bp). Adenine forms two
The Search for Genetic
hydrogen bonds with thymine and vice-versa. Guanine bonds Material
with cytosine by three H—bonds and vice-versa. Thus, a The experiments given below established that DNA is the
purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine forming a genetic material in majority of organisms.
uniform distance between the two strands.
Transforming Principle
Å The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The
Å Frederick Griffith (1928) carried out a series of
pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm and there are roughly 10 bp in
experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium
each turn. Due to this, the distance between a base pair in a
causing pneumonia).
helix is about 0.34 nm.
Å He used two strains of this bacterium, i.e. one forming
Å The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double
smooth colonies with capsule (S-type) and the other
helix. This confers stability to the helical structure in addition
forming rough colonies without capsule (R-type) and
to H—bonds.
gave the following observations
Central Dogma Injection
S-strain → Mice → Mice died
Å In 1957, Francis Crick proposed the central dogma in Injection
molecular biology. According to this, the genetic information R-strain → Mice → Mice lived
flows from DNA → RNA → Protein. Injection
S-strain → Mice → Mice live
DNA (Heat-killed)
Transcription Translation
replication DNA mRNA Protein Injection
S-strain → Mice → Mice die
(Heat-killed)
Central dogma
+
Å The flow of information can be in reverse direction also, i.e. R-strain (Live)
from RNA to DNA in some viruses, such as TMV. Å He concluded that the R-strain bacteria had somehow
been transformed by the heat-killed S-strain bacteria,
Packaging of DNA Helix which must be due to the transfer of the genetic material
Å In prokaryotes, such as E. coli, the DNA is not scattered (transforming principle).
throughout the cell even though they do not have a defined
nucleus. DNA (being negatively charged) is held with some Biochemical Characterisation of
proteins (that are positively charged) in a region termed as Transforming Principle
nucleoid. The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops Å Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty
held by proteins. (1933-44) worked to determine the biochemical nature of
Å In eukaryotic cells, there is a set of positively charged ‘transforming principle’ in Griffith’s experiment in an in
proteins called histones. Histones are rich in basic amino vitro system.
acid residuces lysine and arginine. These are organised to Å From the heat-killed S-cells, they purified biochemicals
form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) to observe, which
Å The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the biochemical could transform live R-cells into S-cells.
positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called Å They discovered that DNA alone from heat-killed S-type
nucleosome. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA bacteria caused the transformation of non-virulent
helix. R-type bacteria into virulent S-type bacteria.
Å Nucleosome constitutes the repeating unit of a structure in Å Protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA
the nucleus called chromatin, thread-like stained (coloured) digesting enzymes (RNases) did not cause this
bodies seen in nucleus. transformation. This proved that the ‘transforming
substance’ was neither protein nor RNA.
Å The ‘beads-on-string’ structure of nucleosome in chromatin
are packaged to form chromatin fibres which further coil and
Å DNA-digesting enzyme (DNase) caused inhibition of
condense at metaphase stage of cell division to form the transformation, which suggested that DNA caused the
chromosomes. The packaging of chromatin at higher level transformation. Thus, it was concluded that DNA is the
requires additional set of proteins that collectively are hereditary material.
referred to as Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins. The Genetic Material is DNA
Å Some regions of chromatin which are loosely packed (stain Å Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase gave another
light) are called euchromatin (active chromatin). In some definitive evidence for DNA as genetic material in 1952.
regions, chromatin is densely packed (stain dark), it is called Å In their work, they described that the phage DNA enters
heterochromatin (inactive chromatin). the host cell and works as a genetic material.

NEET KEY NOTES

Å Outline of their experiment is given below Å Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
[Viral DNA labelled] [Viral coat labelled] modifications which make it more stable.
32
DNA labelled with P Protein coat labelled with 35S Å There are following three types of RNA, i.e. messenger
RNA ( mRNA), which provides the template for
Viruses have infected bacteria Viruses have infected bacteria transcription, transfer RNA (tRNA) which brings
amino acids and reads the genetic code and ribosomal
Blender separates viral coats Blender separates viral coats RNA ( rRNA), which plays structural and catalytic role
from bacteria from bacteria during translation.

Viral replication occurs Viral replication occurs DNA Replication

Å Scheme for replication of DNA termed as
Radioactivity within bacterial DNA Radioactivity within viral coats semiconservative DNA replication was proposed by
Watson and Crick (1953). According to this, the two
Radioactive DNA enters Radioactive protein did not enter strands would separate and act as a template for the
from phage to bacteria indicating from virus to bacteria indicating that synthesis of new complementary strands. Thus, each
that DNA acts as genetic material protein does not act as genetic material
DNA molecule formed would have one parental and
(a) (b)
one newly synthesised strand.
The Hershey and Chase experiment

Properties of Genetic Material The Experimental Proof

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl (in 1958)
(DNA v/s RNA) conducted the following experiment with Escherichia coli
Å Genetic material is the substance which controls the to prove that DNA replicates semiconservatively.
inheritance of traits from one generation to next. Å They grew many generations of E. coli in a medium that
Å Following are the criteria that a molecule must fulfil to act as contained 15 NH4Cl ( 15 N is the heavy isotope of
a genetic material
nitrogen) as the only source of nitrogen.
n
It should be able to replicate itself.
Å They observed that 15 N was incorporated into the
n
It should be stable both chemically and structurally.
newly synthesised strand of DNA. This heavy DNA
n
It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation),
could be distinguished from the normal DNA by
which are required for evolution.
centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density
n
It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian gradient.
characters’.
Å DNA from such bacterium had an intermediate density
Differences between DNA and RNA (hybrid), one generation after the transfer from 15 N to
DNA RNA 14
N. After another generation, it was composed of equal
It is double-stranded with exception It is generally single-stranded. amount of hybrid DNA and light DNA.
of some viruses. Å Similar experiments on ‘Vicia faba’ (faba beans) were
It is the genetic material in all living It is the genetic material in some conducted by Taylor and colleagues in 1958, involving
organisms. viruses only.
the use of radioactive thymidine. The results were that
The sugar is deoxyribose. The sugar is ribose. the DNA in chromosomes also replicate
Nitrogenous bases present are adenine, Nitrogenous bases present are semiconservatively.
guanine, thymine and cytosine. adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil.
It is chemically less reactive and It is chemically more reactive and The Machinery and the Enzymes
structurally more stable. structurally less stable.
The process of replication requires a set of catalysts
It usually occurs inside the nucleus Small amount of RNA occurs inside (enzymes) which are given below
and in some cell organelles. the nucleus. Most of it is found in
the cytoplasm. Å DNA-dependent DNA polymerase It is the main
enzyme which uses a DNA template to catalyse the
polymerisation of deoxynucleotides.
RNA World These enzymes are highly efficient and also help in
Å Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) is said to be the first genetic material. removing mismatched nucleotides by a mechanism
Å It is evident through various scientific researches that called proof reading.
essential life processes such as metabolism, translation and Å Helicase This enzyme unwinds the DNA strand, i.e.
splicing, etc., evolved around, RNA. RNA used to act as
separates the two strands from one point, for the
genetic material as well as a catalyst. But RNA being a
formation of a replication fork.
catalyst was reactive and hence unstable.

NEET KEY NOTES

Å Topoisomerase The unwinding of DNA creates a tension in Transcription Unit and The Gene
the DNA strands, which gets released by the enzyme
topoisomerase.
Å Gene is the functional unit of inheritance. The DNA
sequence coding for tRNA or rRNA molecule also
Å DNA ligase It facilitates the joining of DNA strands
defines a gene.
together by catalysing the formation of phosphodiester
bond. It also repairs single strand breaks in duplex DNA. Å Cistron is the segment of DNA which codes for a
polypeptide.
Process of DNA Replication Å In a transcription unit, the structural gene could be
Å Replication is an energy expensive process, n
Monocistronic (mostly in eukaryotes).
deoxyribonucleoside Triphosphates (dNTPs) serve the dual
purpose of acting as a substrate and providing energy (from
n
Polycistronic (mostly in bacteria or prokaryotes).
two terminal phosphates). Å The monocistronic structural genes in eukaryotes have
Å In a long DNA molecule, replication takes place within a interrupted coding sequences. They are of two types
small opening of the DNA helix, known as replication fork. n
Exons are the coding sequences or expressed
Å DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation sequences that appear in mature or processed RNA.
only in one direction, i.e. 5′→3′. n
Introns are the intervening sequences which do not
appear in mature or processed RNA. These only
Å Due to this, on one strand called the leading strand with
polarity 3′→5′, replication is continuous. While on the other interrupt exons. The split gene, i.e. gene with both
strand called the lagging strand with polarity 5′ → 3′ exons and introns is a characteristic of eukaryotic
replication is discontinuous, i.e. in small fragments called DNA.
Okazaki fragments. The fragments synthesised are joined by Å The promoter and regulatory sequences of a structural
DNA ligase. gene also affect the inheritance of a character. Hence, the
Å Replication begins at a definite region in a E. coli, DNA regulatory sequences are sometimes loosely defined as
molecule known as origin of replication (ori), which has regulatory genes.
recognition site for DNA polymerase and also provides site
for attachment of RNA primer.
Transcription in Prokaryotes
Å DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the single enzyme
Transcription that catalyses transcription of all types of bacterial RNA,
and takes place in the following three steps
It is the process of copying genetic information from one strand
of the DNA into RNA. This process is governed by the
n
Initiation RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
principle of complementarity, except adenosine now forms initiates transcription by associating transiently with
base pair with uracil instead of thymine. initiation factor (σ).
n
Elongation Chain elongation proceeds in the 5′→ 3′
Transcription Unit direction and the transcription bubble travels with
Å A transcription unit of DNA is defined primarily by three RNA polymerase. The RNA polymerase after
regions in the DNA initiation of transcription loses the σ factor, but
continues the polymerisation of ribonucleotides to
n
A promoter n
The structural gene
n
A terminator form RNA.
n
Termination When RNA polymerase reaches the
Å The enzyme DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
terminator region of DNA, which is GC rich and has
the polymerisation in only one direction (i.e. 5′→ 3′
a hairpin-like structure, the nascent RNA separates
direction).
and the RNA polymerase falls off resulting in
Å The strand with 3′ → 5′ polarity is known as the template termination of transcription.
strand. The strand with 5′ → 3′ polarity and same sequence
as RNA (except thymine at the place of uracil) displaced Transcription in Eukaryotes
during transcription, is known as coding strand. The process of transcription in eukaryotes is similar to that
Å A promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for in prokaryotes. Structural genes are monocistronic in
RNA polymerase. It is located at 5′ end (upstream) of the eukaryotes. Two additional complexities are present in
structural gene and its presence defines the template and eukaryotes as given below
coding strands. Å The first complexity is that there are atleast three RNA
Å The structural gene in a transcription unit is flanked by the polymerases in nucleus in addition to RNA polymerase
promoter and terminator. found in organelles and these are
Å A terminator is located towards the 3′ end (downstream) of n
RNA polymerase-I transcribes rRNAs
the coding strand. It usually defines the end of transcription. (28S, 18S, 5.8S).

NEET KEY NOTES

 n
RNA polymerase-II transcribes precursor of mRNA, Å The tRNA has a secondary structure like clover leaf.
which is called heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). But its three dimensional structure depicts it as an
n
RNA polymerase-III transcribes tRNA, inverted L-shaped molecule. tRNA has five arms or
5srRNA (small ribosomal RNA) and snRNAs loops, as follows
(small nuclear RNAs). n
Anticodon loop has bases complementary to the
Å The second complexity is that the primary transcript contains code. tRNAs are specific for specific amino acid.
both exons and introns. Thus, the process of splicing is n
Amino acid acceptor end where amino acids bind.
performed to remove the introns and join the exons in a n
T-loop helps in binding to ribosome.
proper order to allow translation. n
D-loop helps in binding aminoacyl synthetase.
Å The RNA formed is called hnRNA, which undergoes n
Variable loop is variable in both nucleotide
additional processing as follows composition and in length.
n
Capping In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate, an

n
unusual nucleotide is added to the 5′ end of hnRNA.
Tailing In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end
Translation
The process by which the triplet base sequence (codon)
in a template independent manner.
on mRNA guides the linking of a specific sequence of
Å The fully processed hnRNA, now called mRNA, gets amino acids to form a polypeptide on ribosomes is
transported out of the nucleus for translation. known as translation.

Genetic Code Translation Machinery

Å It is the relationship between the sequence of nucleotides on
Translation requires a machinery which consists of
mRNA and the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide.
ribosome, mRNA, tRNAs, aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Å Important features of genetic code include (enzyme that helps in combining amino acid to particular
n
The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for all amino acids tRNA) and amino acids.
and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids, hence, they Å Initiator tRNA It is a specific tRNA for the process of
function as stop codons.
initiation and there are no tRNAs for stop codons.
n
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon
hence, the code is degenerate.
Å Ribosome It is responsible for protein synthesis.
Ribosome exists as two subunits in its inactive stage
n
Genetic code is unambiguous and specific, i.e. one codon
codes for only one amino acid and is read in a contiguous n
Small subunit When the small subunit encounters
fashion without any punctuation marks. an mRNA, translation of mRNA to protein begins.
n
The genetic code is nearly universal, i.e. one codon codes n
Large subunit It consists of two sites, where amino
for the same amino acid in all organisms. acids can bind to and be close to each other for the
n
AUG codon has dual function, i.e. it codes for the amino formation of a peptide bond. Ribosome also acts as
acid methionine (met) and also acts as an initiation codon. a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme,
n
Three codons function as stop codon or non-sense codons, ribozyme) for peptide bond formation.
which are UAA (ochre), UGA (amber), UAG (opal). Å Translational unit It is the sequence of RNA flanked
by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon in
Mutations and Genetic Code mRNA. It codes for the polypeptide to be produced.
The sudden inheritable change in the genetic material is defined Å Untranslated Regions (UTRs) These are some
as mutation. These include
additional sequences in an mRNA which are not
Å Point mutation is mutation in a single base pair, which is
translated. These are present at both the ends, i.e. at
replaced by another base pair, e.g. in sickle-cell anaemia, a 5′ end (before start codon) and at 3′ end (after stop
point mutation in β-globin chain results in the change of codon). These improve the efficiency of translation
amino acid residue glutamate to valine. process.
Å Frameshift mutation is a change in the reading frame because

of insertion or deletion of base pairs. Stages of Protein Synthesis

Synthesis of proteins takes place in three stages which are
tRNA : The Adapter Molecule as follows
Å The presence of an adapter molecule, which could read the 1. Initiation In prokaryotes, initiation requires ribosome
code and would bind to specific amino acids during (large and small subunits), mRNA, initiation tRNA
translation was proposed by Francis Crick in 1961. and three Initiation Factors (IFs). For initiation to take
Å tRNA was known before genetic code and was called sRNA place, the ribosome first binds to mRNA at the start
(soluble RNA), but later its role as an adapter molecule was codon (AUG) that is recognised only by the initiator
reported. tRNA.

NEET KEY NOTES

 Å Activation of amino acid The formation of peptide bond Lac Operon
requires energy and in first phase, the amino acids are
activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their
Å Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod in 1961 were the first
cognate tRNA by a process known as charging of tRNA to propose the concept of a transcriptionally regulated
or aminoacylation of tRNA. In the presence of ATP and system, where a polycistronic structural gene is
Mg 2+ , amino acids become activated by binding with regulated by a common promoter and regulatory genes.
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme. Å Such an arrangement is referred as an operon, e.g. lac
(lactose) operon, trp (tryptophan) operon, ara (arabinose)
Å The amino acids − AMP− enzyme complex is called an
operon, his (histidine) operon and val (valine) operon,
activated amino acid.
etc.
2. Elongation of polypeptide chain In this step, another Å Let us take the example of lac operon. Its structure
charged aminoacyl tRNA complex binds to the A-site of
consists of various genes as follows
the ribosome.
Å One regulatory gene (the i gene), which codes for the
Å A peptide bond forms between carboxyl group
repressor of the lac operon. The term i refers to the word
(COOH) of amino acid at P-site and amino group
inhibitor.
(  NH3 ) of amino acid at A-site in a reaction catalysed
by the enzyme peptidyl transferase. Å Three structural genes are
Å During this stage, ribosome moves from one codon to
n
z gene codes for β-galactosidase (β-gal), that helps in
another codon along the mRNA in the 5′ → 3′ the hydrolysis of disaccharide into its monomeric
direction. Amino acids are then added one-by-one in the units, i.e. lactose into galactose and glucose.
sequence of codons and translated into a polypeptide n
y gene codes for permease, that increases the
sequences, dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA. permeability of the cell to β-galactosides.
3. Termination of polypeptide When the A-site of ribosome n
a gene codes for a transacetylase.
reaches a termination codon, then no tRNA binds to the Å An inducer, i.e. lactose here which is the substrate for
A-site of ribosome. At the end, a release factor binds to the the enzyme β-galactosidase.
stop codon and which terminates translation and releases Å If lactose is provided as the carbon source in the growth
the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.
medium then in the absence of the preferred carbon
source such as glucose, the lactose is transported into
Regulation of Gene Expression the cells by the action of enzyme permease. The lactose
Å Gene expression results in the formation of a polypeptide. then induces the operon.
Gene regulation is the mechanism of switching ‘off ’ and Å The i gene synthesises the repressor of the operon.
switching ‘on’ of the genes depending upon the requirement
Repressor binds to the operator region of the operon,
of the cells and the stage of development. The regulation of
preventing RNA polymerase from transcribing the
gene expression may occur at various levels.
operon. However, when inducer such as lactose or
Å In eukaryotes, it takes place at the following levels allolactose is present, it binds with the repressor and
n
Transcriptional level A primary transcript is formed. inactivates it. Now, that the repressor is inactivated,
n
Processing level Regulation of splicing. RNA polymerase is allowed access to the promoter and
n
Transport of mRNA From nucleus to the cytoplasm. transcription proceeds.
n
Translational level Å Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as
Å In prokaryotes, control of the transcriptional rate of negative regulation. Lac operon can work under the
initiation is the predominant site for control of gene control of positive regulation also.
expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA
polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated by the Human Genome Project (HGP)
interaction with accessory proteins, which affect its ability to Å In 1990, a mega project was started to determine the
recognise start sites. nucleotide sequence of the entire human nuclear
Å The accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA in genome. It was called as Human Genome Project
many cases is regulated by the interaction of operators. (HGP).
Å The operator region is adjacent to the promoter elements in Å In addition, HGP was also entrusted to elucidate the
most operons and in most cases operator bind a repressor genomes of several other model organisms, e.g. E. coli,
protein. Each operon has its specific operator and specific Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast), roundworm and mouse.
repressor, e.g. lac operator is present only in the lac operon It was closely associated with the rapid development of
and it interacts with lac repressor only. a new area in biology called bioinformatics.

NEET KEY NOTES

Goals of HGP Å Repeated sequences are stretches of DNA sequences,
which are repeated many times (some times 100-1000
Important goals of HGP were
times). These have no direct coding functions, but help
Å To identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in
in understanding chromosome structure, dynamics and
human DNA. evolution.
Å To determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base
Å Chromosome-1 has the maximum number of genes
pairs that constitute human DNA.
(2968) and Chromosome-Y has the least number of
Å To store this information in databases in digital format. genes (231).
Å To improve the tools required for data analysis. Å There are about 1.4 million locations in human
Å To transfer the related technologies to other sectors (like genome, where single-base DNA differences occur
industries). (SNPs− Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms). This
Å To address the Ethical, Legal and Social Issues (ELSI) that information is helpful in finding chromosomal locations
could arise from the project. for disease-associated sequences and tracing human
history.
Methodologies of HGP
Two major approaches involved were as follows Applications and Future Challenges
Å Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) This method was focused
Å Its knowledge is helpful in research involving biological
on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA. systems including human biology.
Å Sequence annotation This method involved sequencing the
Å All the genes in a genome, e.g. all the transcripts in a
whole set of genome (that contained all coding and particular tissue/organ/tumour, can be studied.
non-coding sequence) and then assigning functions to the
different regions in the sequence. DNA Fingerprinting
Å It also called DNA typing or DNA profiling and is a
Sequencing of Genome technique of determining nucleotide sequences of
Å For the process of sequencing, the entire DNA from a cell is certain areas of DNA which are unique to each
isolated and broken into relatively smaller fragment. individual.
Å DNA fragments are cloned in a suitable host, (such as Å It uses satellite DNA as probe showing high degree of
bacteria and yeast) using specialised vectors such as polymorphism and called it Variable Number of
BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome) and YAC (Yeast Tandem Repeats (VNTRs). It was discovered by Alec
Artificial Chromosome). Jeffreys in 1985.
Å Fragments of DNA are then sequenced by automated DNA Å The technique has the following steps
sequencers, which work on the principle of a method
developed by Frederick Sanger.
n
DNA isolation DNA is extracted from the cells in a
high speed centrifuge.
Å These sequences were arranged accordingly on the basis of
overlapping regions of DNA fragments and were then
n
Amplification Many copies of the extracted DNA
aligned using special computer programmes. can be made by the use of Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR).
Å At last, the genetic and physical maps of the genome were n
Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
constructed by collecting information about certain repetitive
DNA sequences and DNA polymorphism.
n
Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
n
Blotting-transfer of the separated DNA fragments to
Salient Features/Observations of Human synthetic membranes like nylon or nitrocellulose
Genome (Southern blotting).
Å There are 3164.7 million nucleotide bases in the human n
Hybridisation with the help of a radiolabelled VNTR
genome. probe. These proteins target a specific nucleotide
Å In an average gene, there are 3000 bases. The largest known sequence that is complementary to them.
human gene is Dystrophin (2.4 million bases). n
Autoradiography Detection of hybridised DNA
Å Total number of genes in human genome are estimated at fragments by autoradiography.
30, 000. Almost, all (99.9%) of the nucleotide bases are exactly
same in every human individual.
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting
Å For over 50% of the discovered genes, the functions are
Å It helps to settle paternity or maternity disputes.
unknown. Å It is used to identify perpetrators of sexual assault cases.
Å Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. Å It is used identify racial groups.

NEET KEY NOTES

CHAPTER 06 > Molecular Basis of Inheritance 131

Mastering NCERT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

TOPIC 1 ~ The DNA

1 DNA is a 10 Which of the following are all nucleotides?
(a) long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (a) Adenosine, cytidilic acid, cytosine AIIMS 2019
(b) short polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (b) Adenylic acid, cytidilic acid, guanylic acid
(c) monomer polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (c) Cytidine, adenine, adenylic acid
(d) long polymer of ribonucleotides (d) Uracil, thymidine, thymidylic acid
2 The length of DNA usually depends on 11 A polymer or a polynucleotide chain has at one end a
(a) position of nucleotides free ........A....... at 5′ end of sugar, similarly at the
(b) number of nucleotides other end of the polymer the sugar has a free .....B.....
(c) Both (a) and (b) of 3′ group.
(d) None of the above (a) A – Phosphate moiety, B – OH
(b) A – OH, B – Phosphate moiety
3 Find the incorrect match.
(c) A – COOH, B – Phosphate moiety
(a) A bacteriophage (φ × 174) –5386 nucleotides
(d) A – Phosphate moiety, B–COOH
(b) Bacteriophage lamda – 48502 base pairs
(c) E. coli – 4.6 × 106 bp 12 Backbone of DNA is formed by
(d) Haploid content of human DNA – 3.3 × 10 bp 6 (a) sugar
(b) phosphates
4 Purines found both in DNA and RNA are NEET 2019 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) adenine and guanine (b) guanine and cytosine (d) nitrogenous bases (purine and pyrimidine)
(c) cytosine and thymine (d) adenine and thymine
13 Thymine is also called
5 Nitrogenous bases are linked to sugar by (a) 2 methyl uracil (b) 3 methyl uracil
(a) hydrogen bond (b) phosphodiester bond (c) 4 methyl uracil (d) 5 methyl uracil
(c) N-glycosidic bond (d) O-glycosidic bond
14 Choose the incorrect option.
6 Nucleoside is formed when the nitrogenous bases are (a) Friedrich Miescher in 1869 identified DNA as an acidic
linked to substance and named it nuclein
(a) sugar (b) phosphate (b) Erwin Chargaff said, the ratio between A and T and G
(c) proteins (d) fats and C of dsDNA are constant and equals one
7 What is the difference between adenosine and (c) The two strands of dsDNA are complementary to each
deoxyadenosine? other
(a) Only sugar (b) Only purine (d) None of the above
(c) Only phosphate (d) All of these 15 X-ray data diffraction of DNA was produced by
8 When a phosphate group is linked to ...A... group of (a) Watson and Crick (b) Wilkins and Franklin
nucleoside through ...B... bond, a corresponding ...C... (c) Bateson and Punnett (d) Both (a) and (b)
is formed. 16 In DNA 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. bases are pyrimidines? JIPMER 2019
(a) A–5′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide (a) 30% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 20%
(b) A–3′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide 17 In sea urchin DNA, which is double-stranded 17% of
(c) A–2′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages
(d) A–5′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleoside of the other three bases expected to be present in this
9 Choose the correct option. DNA are CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine (a) G/34%, A/24.5%, T/24.5%
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine (b) G/17%, A/16.5%, T/32.5%
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine (c) G/17%, A/33%, T/33%
(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine (d) G/8.5%, A/50%, T/24.5%
18 In the given diagram of chemical structure of DNA, (a) A–0.34 Å, B–20 Å, C–3.4 Å, D–Phosphate backbone,
identify the type of bonding shown by A, B and C. E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
(b) A–3.4 Å, B–20 Å, C–34 Å, D–Sugar backbone,
H O E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
H (c) A–34 Å, B–20 Å, C–3.4 Å, D–Sugar phosphate
HO—P== O
N N backbone, E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
H 3C 7 O
3′ (d) A–34 Å, B–20 Å, C–0.34 Å, D–Major groove,
H 5 8
HO 5 6 6
9
O CH2 E–Minor groove, F–Sugar phosphate bone
2
4 1 NH N1 4 N 5′
3′ 3 3 2 20 Which of the following is not the correct salient
2 3
4 1 N N
5′
5′ O Adenine 3′ feature of double-helix structure of DNA?
H 2C O Thymine H (a) Two polynucleotide chains have backbone of sugar
B Deoxyribose
and phosphate and bases project inside
O A O (b) Two chains have antiparallel polarity, i.e. one is
H C 5′→ 3′ and other is 3′→ 5′
O== P—OH HO—P== O
N H O N (c) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine
1 O
O and guanine forms two hydrogen bonds with cytosine
H 8
5 6 6 5
9
O CH2 (d) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in
5′
3′ 4 1N H N1 4 N
3
double helix in addition to H-bond to confer extra
2 2 3
N statbility to helical structure
3′
H2C O H N Guanine 21 The diagram shows an important concept in the
5′ O H HO 3′
Cytosine
O
O H Deoxyribose genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to
O== P—OH
C. NEET 2013
H Proposed by C
O
A B
(a) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding, DNA mRNA Protein
C–Hydrogen bonding
(b) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding,
C–Covalent bonding (a) A–transcription, B–replication, C–James Watson
(c) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding, (b) A–translation, B–transcription, C–Erwin Chargaff
C–Coordinate bonding (c) A–transcription, B–translation, C–Francis Crick
(d) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Hydrogen bonding, (d) A–translation, B–extension, C–Rosalind Franklin
C–Phosphodiester bonding
22 In some viruses, the flow of information is in
19 Given the diagram showing Watson and Crick model of reverse direction, i.e. from RNA to DNA. Can you
DNA structure. Identify the parameters of A, B and C. suggest a simple name to the process?
B (a) Transcription (b) Transception
(c) Reverse transcription (d) Translation
Guanine G C Cytosine
23 The length of DNA in a human cell is about
Thymine T A Adenine
(a) 2.3 m (b) 2.4 m (c) 2.2 m (d) 2.0 m
C G
24 Find out the number of base pairs in E. coli DNA if
its DNA is 1.36 mm long.
T A
A (a) 4 × 106 bp (b) 3 × 106 bp
G C
(c) 2 × 106 bp (d) 7 × 106 bp
T A
A 25 In prokaryotes (such as E. coli) ...A... nucleus is not
F
G
E D present, the DNA is not scattered throughout the
cell. DNA is ...B... charged and holded by the ...C...
G C
charged proteins. This structure in prokaryotes is
C G
C
called ...D... .
T A
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
(a) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
Hydrogen bonds
(b) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleus
(c) A–defined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
5′ 3′ (d) A–defined, B–positively, C–negatively, D–nucleoid
26 Positively charged basic proteins that are found in 31 In the given diagram, identify A, B and C.
eukaryotes are called
(a) histones (b) protamine A B
(c) arginine (d) lysine
27 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Basic amino residues in histones — Lysine and arginine C
(b) Unit of 8 molecules in histones — Histone octamer
(c) Negative charged DNA wrapped around positive
charged DNA — Nucleosome
(d) Thread-like, colourless unit of structure — Chromatin Core of histone molecules
in nucleus
28 Linker-DNA is attached to JIPMER 2018
(a) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
(b) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
(a) H1 (b) H2A (c) H2B (d) H3 (c) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
29 The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires (d) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
an additional set of proteins that are collectively 32 Lightly stained part of chromatin which remains
referred to as loosely packed and is transcriptionally active named as
(a) histone proteins (b) non-histone proteins (a) euchromatin
(c) basic proteins (d) acidic packaging proteins (b) heterochromatin
30 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome (c) chromatosome
indicates NEET 2017 (d) chromonemata
(a) transcription is occurring 33 Part of chromatin which is densely packed, stain
(b) DNA replication is occurring darkly and is transcriptionally inactive is called
(c) the DNA is condensed into chromatin fibre (a) euchromatin (b) chromatosome
(d) the DNA double helix is exposed (c) heterochromatin (d) chromosome

TOPIC 2 ~ The Search for Genetic Material and RNA World

34 Experimental organism of Frederick Griffith was 37 Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is
(a) Variola virus (b) Tuberculosis bacteria the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
(c) Actinomycetes (d) Streptococcus pneumoniae NEET (Odisha) 2019, 17
35 What was unique in Griffith’s experiments? (a) Beadle and Tatum (b) Meselson and Stahl
(a) DNA was found to be the genetic material (c) Hershey and Chase (d) Jacob and Monod
(b) RNA was found to be the genetic material 38 Isotopes used by Hershey and Chase were
32
(c) Something from dead organisms could change the (a) P and 35S (b) 35
P and 32S
34
living cells (c) P and 31S (d) 30
P and 32S
(d) Viruses can live in bacteria 39 Bacteriophage nucleic acids were labelled as
36 In Griffith experiment, what would be the effect of (in Hershey and Chase experiment)
32
following conditions on mice? (a) P labelled phosphate (b) 3 H labelled H2O
35
Form of Pneumococcus Injected Effect on Mice (c) S labelled sulphate (d) 14 C labelled CO2
I. Live R-strain A 40 Bacteriophage protein coat was labelled by growing
II. Live S-strain B E. coli on
III. Heat-killed S-strain C (a) radioactive sulphur-35
IV. Heat-killed S-strain + live R-strain D (b) radioactive sulphur-32
(c) radioactive sulphur-30
Choose the correct option for effect on mice. (d) radioactive phosphorus-32
(a) A–Survived, B–Died, C–Died, D–Survived
41 Hershey and Chase concluded that viral infecting
(b) A–Survived, B–Died, C–Survived, D–Died
agent in their experiment was
(c) A–Died, B–Survived, C–Survived, D–Died
(a) Protein (b) DNA
(d) A–Died, B–Survived, C–Died, D–Died (c) RNA (d) Both (b) and (c)
 35
42 Hershey and Chase used S and 32P to prove that 47 Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter
DNA is the genetic material. Their experiments proved lifespan, mutate and evolve faster because
that DNA is genetic material because (a) RNA is unstable and mutates at faster rate
(a) progeny viruses retained 32P but not 35S (b) RNA is stable and mutates at faster rate
(b) retention of 32P in progeny viruses indicated that (c) RNA is stable and mutates at slower rate
DNA was passed on (d) RNA is unstable and mutates at slower rate
(c) loss of 35S in progeny viruses indicated that proteins 48 DNA is dependent on ...A... for synthesis of proteins.
were not passed on
DNA and RNA both can function as genetic
(d) All of the above
material. But ...B... being more stable, preferred for
43 RNA is the genetic material in the storage of genetic information. For the
(a) All bacteria transmission of genetic information, ...C... is better.
(b) Tobacco Mosaic Viruses (TMV) Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(c) QB bacteriophage (a) A–DNA, B–RNA, C–RNA
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) A–RNA, B–DNA, C–RNA
44 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must (c) A–RNA, B–RNA, C–DNA
fulfill the traits given below, except NEET 2016 (d) A–DNA, B–RNA, C–DNA
(a) it should be able to express itself in the form of 49 The first genetic material was
‘Mendelian characters’ (a) RNA
(b) it should be able to generate its replica (b) DNA
(c) it should be unstable structurally and chemically (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) it should provide the scope for slow changes that are
(d) None of the above
required for evolution
50 Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
45 Which group present in RNA nucleotide is very
(a) Complementary base pairing CBSE-AIPMT 2015
reactive and makes RNA liable and easily degradable
than DNA? (b) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends
(a) 3–OH′ group at every nucleotide (c) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(b) 2–OH′ group on ribose sugar (d) Chargaff’s rule
(c) 3–OH′ group on ribose sugar 51 Which one of the following option is correct?
(d) 4–OH′ group on ribose sugar (a) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
46 Stability of DNA is due to modifications
(a) deoxyribose sugar (b) DNA being complementary double-stranded resists
(b) presence of thymine in place of uracil changes by a process of repair
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) RNA being a catalyst is reactive and unstable
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above

TOPIC 3 ~ Replicaton
52 DNA replication is semiconservative. It was shown 55 Heavy DNA can be differentiated from normal DNA
first in by which centrifugation technique?
(a) fungi (b) E. coli (c) Vicia faba (d) algae (a) AgCl density gradient (b) CaSO4 density gradient
53 Who experimentally proved the semiconservative (c) CsCl density gradient (d) KCl density gradient
mode of DNA replication? 56 In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment (1958), DNA
(a) Mathew Meselson extracted from the culture one generation after the
(b) Franklin Stahl transfer from 15 N to 14 N medium had a hybrid
(c) Both (a) and (b) (or intermediate) density. Why?
(d) Watson and Crick (a) Because the generation time of E. coli (culture) was
about 20 minutes
54 Name the heavy isotope used by Meselson and Stahl (b) Because it would take 20 minutes for RNA replication
for proving the semiconservative mode of DNA. (c) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication of
15 14 DNA to RNA (transcription)
(a) NH4 Cl (b) NH3 Cl 2
13 (d) Because it would take 20 minutes for translation RNA
(c) NH2 Cl 3 (d) All of these
to protein
57 Given diagram depicts the experiment of Meselson 63 Replication occurs within the small opening of DNA
and Stahl. Identify the type of isotopic DNA formed helix referred to as
after 40 minutes (A, B, C and D). (a) replication fork (b) duplication fork
(c) DNA fork (d) RNA fork
Generation-I
15N-DNA 14N-DNA 64 DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyses
15N-DNA polymerisation in which direction?
(a) 3′ → 5′ (b) 5′ → 2′
20 min 40 min (c) 5′ → 3′ (d) 2′ → 5′
65 On which strand of DNA, replication is continuous?
Generation-II
(a) 5′ → 3′ polarity strand
A-DNA (b) 3′ → 5′ polarity strand
B-DNA (c) 3′ → 2′ polarity strand
C-DNA (d) 3′ → 4′ polarity strand

D-DNA 66 Identify A, B and C strands.

5′ 3′
(a) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–14 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA
(b) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–14 N-DNA, D–14 N-DNA C
(c) A–14 N-DNA, B–14 N-DNA, C–15 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA
5′
(d) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–15 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA A
3′
B
58 Similar experiments like Meselson and Stahl was Newly
synthesised 5′
performed by Taylor in 1958. The experimental 3′5′
strands 3′
organism of Taylor was
(a) Vicia faba (b) Fungi (a) A–Continuous strand, B–Discontinuous strand,
(c) E. coli (d) Protista C–Template strand
59 Radioisotope used by Taylor in his experiment was (b) A–Leading strand, B–Lagging strand, C–Parental strand
(c) A– 5′−3′ strand, B– 3′−5′ strand, C–Parental strand
(a) iron (b) titanium
(d) All of the above
(c) thymidine (d) copper
60 DNA polymerase is 67 During DNA replication, supercoiling is relaxed by
JIPMER 2019
(a) DNA dependent
(a) primase (b) polymerase
(b) DNA independent (c) DNA topoisomerase (d) SSBPs
(c) RNA dependent
68 During DNA replication, okazaki fragments are used
(d) RNA independent
to elongate NEET 2017
61 DNA polymerisation rate of DNA polymerase is (a) The leading strand towards replication fork
(a) 1000 bp/s (b) 2000 bp/s (b) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(c) 3000 bp/s (d) 5000 bp/s (c) The leading strand away from replication fork
(d) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
62 For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA
cannot be separated in its entire length due to the 69 Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve dual
requirement of purposes. The purposes are
(a) enzymes (a) act as substrate and decrease reaction rate
(b) high energy (b) provide energy for polymerisation and act as substrate
(c) decrease reaction rate and provide energy for
(c) RNA
polymerisation
(d) phosphate and nucleotide (d) Synthesise RNA primer and decrease reaction rate
136 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II )

TOPIC 4~ Transcription
70 Which one of the following is wrongly matched? Codes
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 A B C D E
(a) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to (a) 5 1 4 2 3
t RNA (b) 5 1 4 3 2
(b) Translation–Using information in mRNA to make (c) 5 4 1 2 3
proteins (d) 5 4 1 3 2
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme
synthesis 77 If the coding strand has the sequence
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter 5 ′–ATCGATCG–3′ then find out the sequence of
non-coding strand.
71 Why both the strands of DNA are not copied during
(a) 3′ − TAGCTAGC − 5 ′
transcription?
(b) 5′− TACGTACG − 3 ′
(a) Because RNA molecule with different sequences will
be formed (c) 5′− UAGGUACG − 3 ′
(b) Because RNA molecule with same sequences will be (d) 5′− UACFUACG − 3 ′
formed
(c) Because RNA molecule with identical sequences will 78 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
be formed strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
(d) Because DNA molecule with different sequences will sequence of the transcribed mRNA? NEET 2018
be formed (a) ACCUAUGCGAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT
72 If both the strands copied during transcription, then (c) AGGUAUCGCAU (d) UCCAUAGCGUA
what will happen? 79 Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted?
(a) The segment of DNA would be coding for two different JIPMER 2018
proteins (a) AUG.UGA.UUU (b) UAA.UAV.UGG
(b) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously (c) UAG.UGA.UUV (d) UGA.UUV.UGG
complementary to each other
(c) There will be formation of double helical RNA
80 What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the
(d) All of the above
following stretch of DNA?
73 What will happen if the double-stranded RNA is 3'–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5' Template strand
produced during transcription? 5'–TACGTACGTACGTAC–3' Coding strand
(a) This would prevent RNA from being translated into (a) 3' – AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–5' NEET (Odisha) 2019
protein (b) 5' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–3'
(b) This would not prevent RNA from being translated into (c) 3' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–5'
protein (d) 5'– AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–3'
(c) There will be the continuous synthesis of RNA
81 Promoter and terminator flanks the
(d) Double-stranded RNA will have lower stability. It will
(a) house-keeping gene (b) structural gene
be degraded very fastly
(c) recon (d) transcription unit
74 Which strand of DNA works as template strand?
(a) 5′ – 3′ polarity strand (b) 3′ – 5′ polarity strand 82 Choose the incorrect pair.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) Promoter — Binding site for RNA polymerase
75 The strand which do not code for anything is called (b) Terminator — Define the end of transcription process
(a) coding strand (b) non-coding strand (c) Cistron — Segment of RNA coding for a
(c) template strand (d) antisense strand polypeptide
76 In given diagram find out (d) Regulatory — Do not code for any RNA or protein
Transcription start site genes

5 1 83 Identify the correct pair of mRNA type and its

4 2
3′ 5′ function.
5′ 3′
(a) Messenger RNA — Provides the template
3 (b) Transfer RNA — Brings amino acids and reads genetic
A. Promoter site B. Structural gene code
C. Terminator site D. Template strand (c) Ribosomal RNA — Plays catalytic role during translation
E. Coding strand (d) All of the above
84 Which of the following RNAs should be most 92 In splicing, the sequences which are kept and those
abundant in animals cell? NEET 2017 which are removed, respectively, are
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) miRNA (a) exons and introns (b) introns and exons
85 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses (c) exons and cistrons (d) introns and cistrons
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is 93 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of NEET 2017
called the NEET 2016 (a) plants (b) fungi (c) animals (d) bacteria
(a) template strand (b) coding strand 94 Name the nucleotide added to 5′ end of hnRNA in
(c) alpha strand (d) anti-strand capping.
86 In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription (a) Ethyl cytosine triphosphate
of all types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA and rRNA)? (b) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate
(a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (c) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (d) Methyl cytosine triphosphate
(c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase 95 Which is present at 5′ end of eukaryotic mRNA?
(d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase JIPMER 2018
87 In prokaryotes, which process of transcription is (a) Poly-A tail (b) Modified C at 5′
catalysed by RNA polymerase only? (c) 7 mG (d) Poly-C
(a) Initiation (b) Elongation 96 What happens in the tailing process of transcription?
(c) Termination (d) Aminoacylation (a) Adenylate residues added at 5′ end of RNA
88 What initiation and termination factors are involved (b) Adenylate residues added at 3′ end of RNA
in transcription in eukaryotes? NEET (Odisha) 2019
(c) Guanylate residues added at 5′ end of RNA
(d) Guanylate residues added at 3′ end of RNA
(a) σ and ρ, respectively (b) α and β, respectively
(c) β and γ, respectively (d) α and σ, respectively 97 Fully processed hnRNA to undergo translation is
called
89 (a) mRNA (b) rRNA (c) tRNA (d) sRNA
3′ 3′
(A)
5′ 5′ 98 The following diagram refers to the process of
Promoter σ DNA helix
RNA polymerase Sigma factor
transcription in eukaryotes. Identify A, B, C and D.

3′ 5′ 5′ 5′
(B) 3′ 3′
5′ 3′
RNA A
ρ 3′ mRNA
RNA Polymerase B
Rho factor Capping
Cap Polyadenylation
3′ 5′ or tailing
(C) mG RNA splicing
5′ 3′ ppp C
Terminator 5′ m 3′
RNA σ
Gppp D
Identify A, B and C. AIIMS 2019 5′
(a) A–Elongation, B–Termination, C–Initiation mG 3′
ppp m
(b) A–Initiation, B–Termination, C–Elongation 5′ Gppp
(c) A–Initiation, B–Elongation, C–Termination 5′
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
(d) A–Termination, B–Elongation, C–Initiation
(a) A–RNA polymerase-II, B–Exon, C– Intron, D–Poly-A
90 In bacteria, transcription and translation takes place in tail
the same compartment. Why? (b) A–RNA polymerase-III, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-A
(a) No separation of cytosol and nucleus tail
(b) mRNA does not require any processing to become (c) A–RNA polymerase-II, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-A
active tail
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) A–RNA polymerase-III, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-G
(d) Due to the presence of nucleus tail
91 In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the RNA 99 Choose the correct option.
polymerase-I transcribes NEET (Odisha) 2019 (a) Splicing represent the dominance of RNA world
(a) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing (b) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity
(b) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs (c) Split gene arrangements represent an ancient feature of
(c) rRNAs-28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S the genome
(d) precursor of mRNA, hnRNA (d) All of the above
138 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

TOPIC 5 ~ Genetic Code

100 Genetic code 112 From the following, identify the correct combination
(a) is a relationship between sequence of DNA or mRNA to of salient features of genetic code.
polypeptide NEET (Odisha) 2019
(b) triplet base on mRNA (a) Universal, non-ambiguous, overlapping
(c) determines the sequence of amino acid in polypeptide (b) Degenerate, overlapping, commaless
(d) All of the above (c) Universal, ambiguous, degenerate
101 In order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code (d) Degenerate, non-overlapping, non-ambiguous
should be made up of three nucleotides. 113 Degeneracy refers to
This statement was suggested by (a) one amino acid has more than one code triplet
(a) Har Gobind Khorana (b) George Gamow (b) one amino acid has only one code triplet
(c) Marshall Nirenberg (d) Servo Ochoa (c) codons which specify the same amino acids differ only
in the third base of the triplet
102 Who developed the technique of synthesising RNA
(d) Both (a) and (c)
molecules with well-defined combination of bases
(homopolymers and copolymers) to develop genetic 114 Which of the following features of genetic code does
code? allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
(a) Crick et. al (b) Har Gobind Khorana recombinant DNA technology? NEET 2019
(c) Matthaei (d) Nirenberg (a) Genetic code is redundant
103 Who used cell free system for protein synthesis? (b) Genetic code is nearly universal
(a) Marshall Nirenberg (b) Ochoa (c) Genetic code is specific
(c) Khorana (d) Gamow (d) Genetic code is not ambiguous

104 Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes are also called 115 The relationship between genes and DNA are best
(a) Crick et. al enzymes (b) Servo Ochoa enzymes understood by
(c) James Watson enzymes (d) Mendel enzymes (a) mutation
(b) recombination
105 How many codons codes for amino acids? (c) enzymatic synthesis of amino acid
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 61 (d) 60 (d) enzymatic synthesis of codons
106 The genetic codes of arginine are AIIMS 2019 116 Sickle-cell anaemia is a classical example of point
(a) CGU, CGC, CGA (b) CAU, CAC, CAA mutation in which valine amino acid comes in
(c) AGU, AGC, AAC (d) GAU, GAC, GAA place of
107 Codons of glycine are AIIMS 2018 (a) glutamate (b) tryptophane (c) alanine (d) guanine
(a) CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG 117 Under which of the following conditions will there be
(b) CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?
(c) GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG 5′–AACAGCGGUGCUAUU–3 ′ NEET 2019
(d) ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG (a) Deletion of G from 5th position
108 The codon AUG codes for (in eukaryotes) (b) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions,
(a) methionine (b) histidine respectively
(c) tryptophan (d) alanine (c) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
109 Which of the following is not a stop condon? (d) Insertion of G at 5th position
JIPMER 2019 118 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
(a) UAA (b) UAC (c) UAG (d) UGA protein with 333 amino acids and the base at position
110 The one aspect, which is not a salient feature of 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA
genetic code is, its being becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
(a) degenerate (b) ambiguous
altered? NEET 2017
(a) 1 (b) 11
(c) universal (d) specific
(c) 33 (d) 333
111 Codons are non-ambiguous, which means that one
119 Which mutation of the genetic bases gives the proof
codon codes for
that codon is triplet and reads in a contagious
(a) more than one amino acid
manner?
(b) two amino acids
(a) Frameshift mutation (b) Point mutation
(c) Only one amino acid
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Inversion mutation
(d) non-sense amino acid
120 The presence of an adapter molecule that would on (a) A–Variable arm, B–D-loop, C–T-loop, D–Anticodon
one hand read the code and on other hand would bind arm, E–Codon, F–Variable arm
to specific amino acids was postulated by (b) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Variable arm,
D–Anticodon arm, E–Codon, F–D- loop
(a) Francis Crick (b) James Watson
(c) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Anticodon loop,
(c) Rosalind Franklin (d) Griffith
D–Anticodon, E–Codon, F–D-loop
121 Before the genetic code was postulated, the tRNA (d) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Anticodon loop,
was called D–Anticodon, E–Codon, F–Variable arm
(a) rRNA (ribosomal RNA) 123 Choose the incorrect option for tRNA molecule.
(b) mRNA (messenger RNA) (a) It has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary
(c) sRNA (soluble RNA) to the code
(d) sRNA (sedimentary RNA) (b) It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to
122 Study the given figure and identify A to F. amino acids
(c) tRNA are not specific for each amino acid
Tyr (d) tRNA looks like a clover leaf
A
124 tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like
F (a) M-shaped (b) P-shaped (c) L-shaped (d) K-shaped

B
125 RNA binds to mRNA through JIPMER 2019
(a) anticodon loop
(b) T ψ C loop
(c) amino acid binding loop
(d) D-loop
C
A U G D 126 Removal of RNA polymerase-III from nucleoplasm
U A C E mRNA will affect the synthesis of CBSE-AIPMT 2012
3¢ (a) tRNA (b) hnRNA (c) mRNA (d) rRNA

TOPIC 6 ~ Translation
127 The process of polymerisation of amino acids to form Choose the correct option.
a polypeptide is (a) IV, VI and VII (b) I, II and III
(a) transcription (b) replication (c) II, III, IV and V (d) All of these
(c) translation (d) polymerisation 132 Which among the following process occur(s) during
128 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA charging or aminoacylation of tRNA?
to form multiple copies of a polypeptide (a) Activation of amino acids in the presence of ATP
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed (b) Linking of amino acids to their cognate tRNA
as NEET 2018, 16 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) plastidome (b) polyhedral bodies (d) None of the above
(c) polysome (d) nucleosome 133 The cellular factory responsible for the synthesis of
129 In the protein synthesis, tRNA carrying the amino proteins is
acid enters from which site of the ribosome? (a) mitochondria
(a) A-site (b) P-site (b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Anticodon site (d) R-site (c) Golgi body
(d) ribosome
130 The order and sequences of amino acids are defined
by the sequences of the bases in 134 Which of the following rRNAs act as structural RNA
(a) rRNA (b) mRNA (c) tRNA (d) All of these as well as ribozyme in bacteria? NEET 2016
(a) 5 srRNA (b) 18 srRNA
131 Which of the following enzymes are required in (c) 23 srRNA (d) 5.8 srRNA
protein synthesis?
135 UTRs present on mRNA refer to
I. Ligase II. Permease
(a) Untranscribed regions at both 5′ end and 3′ end
III. Endonuclease IV. Ribozyme (b) Untranslated regions at 5′ end
V. RNA polymerase VI. Peptidyl transferase (c) Untranslated regions at both 5′ end and 3′ end
VII. Amino acid activating enzyme (d) Untranslated regions at 3′ end
136 For initiation, the ribosomes binds to the ...A... at the 140 Study the diagram given below of translation and
start codon and ...B... is recognised by the ...C... . choose the correct option for labels A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. P-site
(a) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–initiator tRNA Gly
(Peptidyl tRNA site) A-site
Leu Tyr
(b) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA (Amino acyl tRNA site)
Growing Ser
(c) A–rRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA polypeptide chain Leu Transferase enzyme
(d) A–rRNA B–AUG, C–initiator mRNA Gly forming peptide bond
Asn
137 Choose the incorrect pair. A B
Ser

U
(a) Untranslated — Required for efficient

U
E Val

A
regions translation process

A
Amino acid
(b) Release factor — Kind to stop codon for tRNA complex
tRNA tRNA
terminating translation
CGU CAA Large ribosomal
(c) Translational — Sequence of RNA with start
subunit
unit codon only
C U C U UGGGU C CGC A G U U A AU U U C A U C
(d) Elongation phase — Ribosome moves from codons
C D
to codons along mRNA mRNA Ribosome Small ribosomal subunit

138 For the given DNA sequence

A B C D E
3′–TACATGGGTCCG–5′.
(a) Charged/ Uncharged tRNA 5′ end 3′ end Glycine
Choose the correct sequential code of tRNA Aminoacylated
anticodon. tRNA
I. UAC II. AUG (b) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 5′ end 3′ end Alanine
III. GGC IV. CCA tRNA lated tRNA
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, III, IV and I (c) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 3′ end 5′ end Glycine
(c) I, III, II and IV (d) II, I, IV and III tRNA lated tRNA
139 RNA molecule Anti-codon pairing (d) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 5′ end 3′ end Lysine
tRNA lated tRNA
I UCA
II AUG 141 Termination of protein synthesis or translation
III AUU requires
IV AUC (a) Both stop signal and starting codon
Which of the following tRNA molecules does not (b) Both starting codon and release factor
exist? (c) Both release factor and stop codon
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) IV and I (d) GUG and AUG codon

TOPIC 7 ~ Regulation of Gene Expression

142 The regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes can be proteins, which affects its ability to recognise the start
exerted at sites.
I. transcriptional level. Complete the statement filling the correct options in
II. processing level. given blanks.
(a) A–RNA replication, B–DNA polymerase, C–accessory
III. transport of mRNA (from nucleus to cytoplasm).
(b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
IV. translational level. C–accessory
Choose the correct combination to complete the (c) A–translational initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
statement. C–accessory
(a) I and II (b) II and III (d) A–DNA replication, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory
(c) III and IV (d) All of these 144 Positively regulatory proteins are called
143 In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ...A... is the (a) activator
pre-dominant site for the control of gene expression. (b) repressors
In a transcription unit, the activity of ...B... at a given (c) necessary proteins
promoter is in turn regulated by interaction with ...C... (d) accessory proteins
145 The accessibility of the promoter regions of (a) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Operator,
prokaryotic DNA is (in many cases) regulated by the D–Structural gene
interaction of proteins with the sequences termed as (b) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Structural gene,
D–Operator
(a) regulator (b) promoter
(c) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Pormoter,
(c) operator (d) structural genes
D–Operator
146 An operon is considered to regulate a (d) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Operator
(a) translational unit (b) genetic unit gene, D–Promoter gene
(c) protein unit (d) enzymatic unit 153 Lactose is a substrate for
147 1st operon model was (a) galactosidase
(a) trp operon (b) lac operon (b) α-galactosidase
(c) his operon (d) val operon (c) β-galactosidase
148 Select the correct match. NEET 2018 (d) γ-galactosidase
(a) Matthew Meselson and F Stahl : Pisum sativum 154 Lactose is transported into cells through
(b) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase : TMV (a) β-galactosidase
(c) Alec Jeffreys : Streptococcus (b) permease
pneumoniae (c) transacetylase
(d) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod : Lac operon (d) transferase
149 Number of regulatory and structural genes present in 155 The given diagram of the lac operon showing an
lac operon are operon of inducible enzymes. Identify components
(a) one and two (b) one and three and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).
(c) one and one (d) three and one
i p o z y a
150 Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli
that involves the lac i gene products is mRNA Transcription
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 lac mRNA
(a) positive and inducible because it can be induced by D Translation
lactose Enzymes
(b) negative and inducible because its repressor protein A B C
E
prevents transcription
(c) negative and repressible because its repressor protein (a) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase,
prevents transcription D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
(d) feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase (b) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase,
can switch off transcription D–Inducer (lactose), E–Repressor protein
151 Which enzyme(s) will be produced in a cell in which (c) A–Galactosidase, B–Transacetylase, C–Permease,
D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
there is a non-sense mutation in the lac y-gene?
(d) A–Permease, B–Transacetylase, C–-Galactosidase,
(a) β-galactosidase NEET 2013
D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
(b) Lactose permease
(c) Transacetylase 156 To, which of the following, repressor protein is
(d) Lactose permease and transacetylase attached? JIPMER 2018
(a) Operator (b) Inducer
152 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of a lac
(c) Promoter (d) Structural gene
operon.
157 Why glucose and galactose cannot act as an inducer
A B C
for lac operon?
i p o z y a (a) Because they cannot bind with the repressor
Repressor
(b) Because they can bind with the repressor
mRNA RNA
polymerase operator D (c) Because they can bind with the operator
compound (d) Because they can bind with the regulator
Repressor
142 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

TOPIC 8 ~ Human Genome Project

158 Which of the following option is true for Human 165 To make chromosomal studies easier, chromosomes
Genome Project (HGP)? are classified into certain groups. So, the chromosome
(a) It was launched in the year 1990 and was called mega number 21, 22 and Y are listed in JIPMER 2019
project (a) A (b) D (c) E (d) G
(b) Total estimated cost of the project would be 9 billion
166 Exact number of nucleotides contained in human
US dollars
genome, revealed by human genome project are
(c) It aims to identify all 20000-25000 genes in human
DNA (a) 3164.7 million bp (b) 3163.7 million bp
(d) All of the above (c) 3162.7 million bp (d) 3160.7 million bp

159 Human genome project was co-ordinated by 167 Average gene consists of ...A... bases, but their size
(a) Europian Department of Energy vary greatly, with the largest known human gene
being ...B... with ...C... bases.
(b) US Department of Energy
Complete the statement filling the correct option in
(c) National Institute of Health
the given blanks.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) A–3000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.4 million
160 Identify the incorrect option regarding human genome (b) A–2000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.4 million
project. (c) A–1000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.0 million
(a) It was completed in 2003 (d) A–3000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.0 million
(b) It aims to determine the sequence of 3 billion chemical
168 Percentage of similarity between the nucleotides of
base pairs and store it in data bases
two individuals is
(c) It associated ethical legal and social issues arising from
the project (a) 98% (b) 99% (c) 99.9% (d) 99.8%
(d) It is not associated with non-human organisms DNA 169 Total percentage of genes, which codes for proteins is
sequences (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 4% (d) 5%
161 Gene library or DNA library has the collection of 170 Repetitive DNA make up very large portion of human
(a) DNA and RNA AIIMS 2019 genome and are important for studying
(b) Any one type of gene of organism (a) chromosome structure (b) chromosome dynamics
(c) cDNA (c) evolution (d) All of these
(d) All possible genes are organisms
171 Choose the incorrect option.
162 Which among the following are non-human model (a) HGP is closely associated with bioinformatics
whose genome are sequenced? (b) HGP will help in developing new ways to diagnose,
(a) Caenorhabditis elegans (b) Drosophila treat and some day prevent disorders affecting humans
(c) Plants (rice and Arabidopsis) (d) All of these (c) Fragment sequenced during HGP are done by method
163 Identify the incorrect pair. developed by Frederick Sanger
(a) Expressed sequence tags — Genes that are express as (d) Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA
RNA repeated 2-3 times in a DNA sequence
(b) Sequence annotation — Sequencing genome with 172 SNP–Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms is
coding sequences (a) location on RNA where the single base differs
(c) Automated DNA sequences — Work on the principle (b) location on proteins where the single base differs
developed by Frederick (c) location on genome where the single base of DNA
Sanger differs
(d) None of the above (d) location on genome where many bases of DNA differs
164 How genetic and physical maps were generated in 173 SNPs can be used for
HGP? (a) finding chromosome locations for disease associated
(a) By using DNase sequences
(b) By using RNase (b) tracing human history
(c) By using restriction endonuclease (c) evolution
(d) By using automated DNA sequences (d) All of the above
CHAPTER 06 > Molecular Basis of Inheritance 143

TOPIC 9 ~ DNA Fingerprinting

174 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying the 181 VNTR varies in size from
differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence (a) 0.1-20 kb (b) 0.2-10 kb
called (c) 0.3-30 kb (d) 0.4-15 kb
(a) non-repetitive DNA
(b) coding DNA 182 The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting can be
(c) non-coding DNA increased by
(d) repetitive DNA (a) using intron sequences
(b) using exon sequences
175 The bulk of DNA (other than repetitive) forms the (c) using polymerase chain reactions
major peaks during density gradient centrifugation. (d) All of the above
The other small peaks are referred to as
(a) satellite DNA (b) non-satellite DNA 183 Southern blotting technique involves the transfer of
(c) exonic DNA (d) intronic DNA DNA from
(a) gel to membrane
176 Satellite DNA is important because it (b) membrane to gel
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (c) solution to gel
(a) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle (d) gel to solution
(b) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and
also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, 184 Steps in DNA fingerprinting are
which is heritable from parents to children Isolation of DNA
(c) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of ↓
the population
(d) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication Digestion of DNA by (A)
↓
177 Basis of DNA fingerprinting
(a) high degree of polymorphism in sequences Separation of DNA by (B)
(b) low degree of polymorphism in sequences ↓
(c) intermediate degree of polymorphism in sequences Transfering of DNA to (C)
(d) sequences show no polymorphism ↓
178 The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially DNA hybridisation using (D)
developed by ↓
(a) Lalji Singh (b) Alec Jeffreys Detecting of hybridised DNA by (E)
(c) Frederick Sanger (d) Jacob and Monod
Complete the accompanying A, B, C, D and E in the
179 Alec Jeffreys used a satellite DNA as probe that flowchart are
shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was (a) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
called as C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Labelled VNTR probe,
(a) Short Number of Tandem Repeats (SNTRs) E–Autoradiography
(b) Large Number of Tandem Repeats (LNTRs) (b) A–Electrophoresis, B–Restriction endonuclease,
(c) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Labelled VNTR probe,
(d) All of the above E–Autoradiography
180 VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred (c) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
to as C–Labelled VNTR probe, D–Nitrocellulose or nylon,
(a) microsatellite DNA E–Autoradiography
(b) minisatellite DNA (d) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
(c) megasatellite DNA C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Autoradiography,
E–Labelled VNTR probe
(d) repetitive DNA
144 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

NEET
SPECIAL TYPES QUESTIONS
I. Assertion and Reason 193 Assertion (A) hnRNA is larger than mRNA.
■ Directions (Q. No. 185-199) In each of the following Reason (R) hnRNA has non-coding introns which are
questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given by not required for translation.
corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the 194 Assertion (A) Polycistronic mRNA is capable of
statements, mark the correct answer as forming a number of different polypeptide chains.
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A Reason (R) Polycistronic mRNA has terminator
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct codons.
explanation of A 195 Assertion (A) In transcription, the strand with 3′ → 5′
(c) If A is true, but R is false polarity acts as the template strand.
(d) If A is false, but R is true Reason (R) The enzyme RNA polymerase catalyses
185 Assertion (A) DNA acts as a genetic material in all the polymerisation in only one direction, i.e. 5′ → 3′.
organisms. 196 Assertion (A) In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in
Reason (R) It is a double-stranded biomolecule in nucleus. AIIMS 2019
most organisms. Reason (R) In bacteria, transcription and translation
186 Assertion (A) DNA has two chains having occur in cytoplasm.
antiparallel polarity. 197 Assertion (A) The genetic code is degenerate.
Reason (R) In one chain of DNA at one end has a Reason (R) Most amino acids are coded by more than
free phosphate moiety 5′ end of ribose sugar and at one codon.
other end the ribose has a free 3′ OH group. 198 Assertion (A) mRNA has some untranslated regions
187 Assertion (A) Adenine cannot pair with cytosine. that are not translated.
Reason (R) Adenine and cytosine do not have Reason (R) UTRs are required for efficient
complementarity between their respective hydrogen translation.
donor and hydrogen acceptor sites. 199 Assertion (A) DNA fingerprinting is very
188 Assertion (A) Histones are basic in nature. well-known for its application in paternity testing in
case of disputes.
Reason (R) These are rich in the amino acids lysine
Reason (R) It employs the principle of DNA
and arginine.
polymorphism.
189 Assertion (A) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally
inactive. II. Statement Based Questions
Reason (R) It is densely packed. 200 Read the following statements.
190 Assertion (A) Viruses having RNA genome and I. A purine is heterocyclic, 9-membered double ring
shorter lifespan, mutate and evolve faster. structure with nitrogen at 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th positions.
Reason (R) RNA is unstable and thus mutates faster. II. A pyrimidine is heterocyclic, 6-membered single ring
structure with nitrogen at 1st and 3rd positions.
191 Assertion (A) Replication on one strand of DNA is
continuous and on another it is discontinuous. III. Purine nucleosides have1′-9 glycosidic linkage
whereas pyrimidine nucleosides have1′-1-glycosidic
Reason (R) The DNA polymerase works in 3′ → 5′ linkage.
direction. IV. Two nucleosides are linked by 3′-5′ phosphodiester
192 Assertion (A) Replication and transcription occur in linkage to form a dinucleotide.
the nucleus, but translation takes place in the V. Ribose sugar can be represented as C5 H10 O4 whereas
cytoplasm. deoxyribose sugar can be represented as C5 H10 O5 .
Reason (R) mRNA is transferred from the nucleus Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
into cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are (a) Only I (b) I, II, III and IV
available for protein synthesis. (c) III, IV and V (d) IV and V
201 Choose the incorrect statement. I. Based on X-ray diffraction of DNA produced by
(a) A nucleotide contains ribose sugar or deoxyribose sugar M Wilkins and R Franklin.
(b) A nucleotide contains pyrimidine bases and purine II. One of the hall marks of their proposition was base
bases pairing between the two strands of polynucleotide
(c) A nucleotide contains protein, carbohydrates and fats chains.
(d) A phosphate group is present in a nucleotide III. The two polynucleotide chains are antiparallel to each
202 Which of the following statements about Griffith’s other .
experiment are correct? IV. Based on Chargaff’s rule(A + G / T + C = 1)
I. S-strain have mucus (polysaccharide) coat. Choose the correct option.
II. S-strain are virulent is cause pneumonia infection, (a) I, II and III
while R-strain do not. (b) II, III and IV
III. Transforming principle is associated with genetic (c) I, II, III and IV
material of R-strain. (d) All of the above
IV. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place 207 Choose the incorrect statement about the
in a test tube. semiconservative scheme of DNA replication.
(a) I and III (b) III and IV (a) Watson and Crick proposed the scheme for replication
(c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV of DNA in 1953
203 Choose the correct statements about biochemical (b) The scheme suggested that the two strands would
separate and act as a template for the synthesis of new
characterisation of transforming principle in Griffith’s complementary strands
experiment. (c) Griffith proposed the scheme of semiconservative DNA
I. It was done by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and replication
Maclyn McCarty. (d) After the completion of replication, each DNA
II. Scientists purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, molecule would have one parental and one newly
RNA, etc.) from heat killed S-cell. synthesised strand
III. It was seen that DNA alone from S-bacteria caused 208 Arrange the following events of replication of DNA.
R-bacteria to become transformed . I. Bonds between complementary bases breaks.
IV. Proteases and RNases did not affect transformation. II. Bonds between complementary bases forms.
(a) I and II III. DNA molecules uncoils.
(b) III and IV IV. Opposite strands separates.
(c) I and III V. Sugar phosphate bonds forms.
(d) All statements are correct
VI. Free nucleotides align with the complementary
204 Which of the following statements about Hershey and nucleotides on each strand.
Chase experiment are correct? Choose the correct option.
I. Sulphur is present in proteins, but not in DNA. (a) VI → I → III → IV → V → II
II. Phosphorus is present in DNA, but not in proteins. (b) III → VI → I → IV → V → II
III. 32P will end up in the supernatant after centrifugation. (c) I → III → VI → IV → II → V
IV. Progeny generation of T 2 -bacteriophage contains 32P. (d) III → I → IV → VI → II → V
(a) I and II (b) II and III 209 Choose the correct statements about DNA replication.
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV I. Discontinuously synthesised fragments are later
205 Choose the incorrect statement(s) about the joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.
experiment conduted by Meselson and Stahl’s that II. There is a definite region in E. coli DNA where the
(a) equal amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was replication originates, known as origin of replication.
observed in E. coli culture after two generations III. In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at
(b) the generation time of E. coli culture was 40 minutes S-phase of the cell cycle.
(c) the equal amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was IV. Failure of cell division after DNA replication results in
observed in E. coli culture after three generations polyploidy.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
V. E. coli having 4.6 × 106 bp completes DNA replication
206 J Watson and F Crick proposed the double helix within 38 minutes.
model of DNA. Choose the correct statements with (a) I and II (b) III and IV
respect to their model of DNA. (c) I and V (d) All of these
210 Choose the correct statement. IV. Formation of the polypeptide chain.
(a) The regions of transcriptional units are promoter, V. Attachment of the mRNA strand to a ribosome.
structural gene and terminator In which order do these stages take place?
(b) The region of transcriptional units are exon, intron and (a) III I V II IV
cistron (b) I III II V IV
(c) The region of DNA where transcription stops is present (c) I V III IV II
on promoter
(d) III IV I II V
(d) The terminator codes for enzyme or protein
216 The difference(s) between mRNA and tRNA is/are
211 Consider the following statements. that
I. The presence of a promoter in a transcription unit I. mRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional structure
defines the template and coding strands. due to extensive base pairing.
II. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyse the II. tRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional structure
polymerisation in only one direction that is 5′→3′. due to extensive pairing.
III. The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or rRNA III. tRNA is usually smaller than mRNA.
molecules also define a gene. IV. mRNA contains anticodons, but tRNA contains
IV. Regulatory sequences are loosely defined as codons.
regulatory genes and these sequences do not code for Choose the correct statements.
any RNA or protein. (a) I, II, III and IV (b) II and III
Choose the correct statements. (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III 217 Few steps involved in polypeptide synthesis are given
(c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV below. In which of the following steps does tRNA
212 Which one of the following statement is incorrect? participates?
(a) Structural gene in transcription unit is monocistronic in I. Activation of amino acids by binding with aminoacyl
eukaryotes and polycistronic in bacteria tRNA synthetase enzyme.
(b) Monocistronic genes in eukaryotes are split II. Elongation of polypeptide chain.
(c) Exons are non-coding and introns are coding sequences III. Translation of mRNA to form a polypeptide.
of gene IV. Transcription of DNA into RNA.
(d) Intervening sequences do not appear in mature or (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
processed RNA (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
213 Choose the correct statement(s). 218 Select the correct statements out of the four (I-IV)
(a) The factors required for the synthesis of protein are given below about lac operon.
initiation code and ribosomes I. Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and
(b) The factors required for the synthesis of protein are inactivate it.
GTP, ATP and amino acid pool II. In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the
(c) The factors required for the synthesis of protein are operator region.
tRNA and mRNA III. Tryptophan acts as an inducer for the gene expression.
(d) All of the above IV. Regulatory gene is the one that produces the repressor
214 Consider the following statements. molecule.
I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins. Choose the correct option.
II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code. (a) II and III (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) I and II
III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates 219 Which of the following statements concerning the
transcription. regulatory genes (R), associated with the lac operon
IV. A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called are incorrect?
intron. I. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene whether lactose
Which of the statements given above are correct? is present or not.
(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) II and III II. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when the
lactose is present.
215 Following are the stages in the cellular synthesis of a
III. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when the
protein.
lactose is not present.
I. Movement of mRNA from the nucleus to cytoplasm.
IV. Lactose inhibits the translation of R gene mRNA.
II. Linking of adjacent amino acid molecules. (a) I and II (b) II and III
III. Transcription of mRNA from a DNA template. (c) III and IV (d) II, III and IV
220 Identify the incorrect statement for lac operon model. 225 Tandem Repeat DNA
(a) Lactose acts as inducer which inactivates repressor I. is classified as microsatellites and minisatellites.
(b) RNA polymerase stay away from promoter in the II. normally does not code for any protein.
presence of repressor III. shows polymorphism.
(c) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as IV. is used in fingerprinting.
negative regulation
Choose the correct option to complete the statement.
(d) The repressor of the operon is synthesised during
specific periods from r-gene (a) I and III (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
221 Select the incorrect statement from the following.
AIIMS 2019
(a) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide
III. Matching Type Questions
bases 226 Match the following columns.
(b) Less than 10% of the genome codes for proteins Column I Column II
(c) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the (Scientists) (Discoveries)
human genome A. F Miescher 1. DNA double helix
(d) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) and Y has the
B. Griffith 2. Nuclein
fewest (231)
C. Hershey and Chase 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
222 Consider the following statements.
D. Watson and Crick 4. Bacteriophage
I. Major countries who contributed or participated in
E. Wilkins and Franklin 5. X-ray diffraction studies
human genome project were Japan, France, Germany
and China. Codes
II. Human genome project was a mega project of 13 years. A B C D E
Choose the correct option. (a) 5 4 3 1 2
(a) Statement I is true, but II is false (b) 1 4 3 2 5
(b) Statement II is true, but I is false (c) 2 3 4 1 5
(c) Both statement I and II are correct (d) 1 3 4 2 5
(d) Both statement I and II are incorrect 227 Match the following columns.
223 Choose the incorrect statement about Human Genome Column I Column II
Project (HGP). (Features) (Associated enzymes)
(a) Commonly used host for cloning in HGP were PAC A. RNA digesting enzymes 1. Lipase
(Plasmic Artificial Chromosome) and GMO
B. Protein digesting enzymes 2. DNase
(Genetically Modified Organisms)
(b) The alignment of sequences obtained was done by C. DNA digesting enzymes 3. Protease
computer based programs D. Fat digesting enzymes 4. RNase
(c) The developed sequences were annotated and were
assigned to each chromosome Codes
(d) The human genome has 22 autosomes, X and Y A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
224 Steps in sequencing Human Genome Project (HGP)
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
are
I. isolation of total DNA. 228 Match the following columns.
II. cloning in suitable vectors. Column I Column II
III. sequence arrangment by computer. (Enzymes) (Functions)
IV. formation of physical and genetic maps. A. Topoisomerase 1. Relaxes the DNA from its
super-coiled nature.
V. converting the fragments.
VI. using automated sequencer. B. DNA gyrase 2. Relieves strain of unwinding by DNA
helicase; this is a specific type of
VII. using restriction endonuclease recognition sites. topoisomerase.
VIII. completition of human genome sequencing.
C. DNA ligase 3. Re-anneals the semiconservative
Choose the correct option in which the above given strands and joins okazaki fragments
steps are arranged properly. of the lagging strand.
(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII D. Telomerase 4. Provides a starting point of RNA
(b) I, V, II, VI, III, VII, IV, VIII (or DNA) for DNA polymerase to
begin synthesis of the new DNA
(c) I, II, V, VI, III, IV, VIII, VII
strand.
(d) I, II, V, VI, III, VII, VIII, IV
 Codes 232 Match the following columns.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 Column I Column II
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 A. tRNA 1. Linking of amino acids
229 Match the following columns. B. mRNA 2. Transfer of genetic information
C. rRNA 3. Nucleolar organising region
Column I Column II
D. Peptidyl transferase 4. Transfer of amino acid from
A. Splicing 1. Lac operon
cytoplasm to ribosome
B. Okazaki fragment 2. Lagging strand
C. Jacob and Monod 3. Lactose
Codes
A B C D
D. Inducer 4. Removal of introns (a) 4 2 3 1
Codes (b) 1 4 3 2
A B C D A B C D (c) 1 2 3 4
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 4 3 1 233 Match the following columns.
230 Match the given enzymes with their respective Column I Column II
function in DNA replication.
A. Exon 1. Coding sequence
Column I Column II B. Intron 2. Non-coding sequence
A. DNA helicase 1. A protein which prevents DNA C. Genetic code 3. Triplet bases on mRNA
polymerase-III form dissociating
from the DNA parent strand. D. DNA packaging 4. Nucleosome

B. DNA 2. Bind to ssDNA and prevent the

polymerase DNA double helix from
Codes
re-annealing after DNA helicase A B C D A B C D
unwinds it thus maintaining the (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 4 2 3
strand separation. (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
C. DNA clamp 3. Also known as helix destabilising 234 Match the following columns.
enzyme and unwinds the DNA
double helix at the replication fork. Column I Column II
D. Single-Strand 4. Build a new duplex DNA strand by A. 5′–AUG–3′ 1. Segment of DNA
Binding (SSB) adding nucleotides in the 5′ to 3′
B. RNA with introns and exon 2. Chromatin
Proteins direction. Also performs
proofreading and error correction. C. Gene 3. hnRNA
Codes D. Nucleosomes 4. Initiation codon
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 Codes
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 2 1 3
231 Match the following columns.
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 3 1 4
Column I Column II 235 Match the following columns.
A. Sigma factor 1. 5′−3′
Column I Column II
B. Capping 2. Initiation (Functions) (Segments of DNA)
C. Tailing 3. 5′ end A. Segment of DNA coding for 1. Recon
polypeptide
D. Coding strand 4. 3′ end
B. Segment of DNA goes for 2. Muton
Codes recombination
A B C D A B C D
C. Segment of DNA goes for 3. Cistron
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 4 3 1 mutation
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
 Codes Codes
A B C A B C A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
236 Match the following RNA polymerases with their (c) 3 2 1 4
transcribed products. NEET (Odisha) 2019 (d) 4 1 2 1
239 Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
A. RNA polymerase-I 1. t RNA
B. RNA polymerase-II 2. rRNA A. Termination (Translation) 1. Aminoacyl tRNA
synthatase
C. RNA polymerase-III 3. hnRNA
B. Translation 2. Okazaki fragments
Codes
C. Transcription 3. GTP dependent release
A B C A B C factor
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1 D. DNA replication 4. RNA polymerase

237 Match the following genes of the lac operon with Codes
their respective products. NEET 2019 A B C D
Column I Column II
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
A. i gene 1. β-galactosidase (c) 4 3 1 2
B. z gene 2. Permease (d) 2 1 3 4
C. a gene 3. Repressor 240 Identify the correct match between the codons and
D. y gene 4. Transacetylase
coding functions.
Column I Column II
Codes
A B C D A B C D A. AUG 1. Phenylalanine
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 B. UAA 2. Methionine
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
C. UUU 3. Tryptophan
238 Match the following columns.
D. UGG 4. Termination
Column I Column II
(Enzymes) (Functions)
Codes
A. β-galactosidase 1. Joining of DNA fragments A B C D
B. Permease 2. Peptide bond formation (a) 1 4 2 3
C. Ligase 3. Hydrolysis of lactose
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
D. Ribozyme 4. Increase permeability to β-lactose
(d) 4 1 3 2
150 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

NCERT Exemplar
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
241 In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by 250 The first genetic material could be
(a) glycosidic bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds (a) protein (b) carbohydrates
(c) peptide bonds (d) hydrogen bonds (c) DNA (d) RNA
242 A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the 251 If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for
(a) base (b) sugar four generations in bacteria, the ratio of
15
(c) phosphate group (d) hydroxyl group N / 15 N : 15 N / 14 N : 14 N / 14 N containing DNA in
243 Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of the fourth generation would be
sugars called (a) 1:1:0 (b) 1:4:0 (c) 0:1:3 (d) 0:1:7
(a) trioses (b) hexoses 252 DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to
(c) pentoses (d) polysaccharides each other by 3′–5′ phosphodiester bond. To prevent
244 The fact that a purine always paired base through polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the
hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in following modifications would you choose?
the DNA double helix (a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(a) the antiparallel nature (b) Remove/Replace 3′ OH group in deoxyribose
(b) the semiconservative nature (c) Remove/Replace 2′ OH group with some other group in
(c) uniform width throughout DNA deoxyribose
(d) uniform length in all DNA (d) Both (b) and (c)
245 Which of the following are the functions of RNA? 253 Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand,
(a) It is carrier of genetic information from DNA to because
ribosomes synthesising polypeptides (a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
(b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes (b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
(c) It is a constituent component of ribosomes polymerisation only in one direction (5′ → 3′)
(d) All of the above (c) it is a more efficient process
(d) DNA ligase has to have a role
246 Who amongst the following scientists had no
contribution in the development of the double helix 254 If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand
model for the structure of DNA? of DNA in a transcription unit is
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins 5' – A T G A A T G – 3',
(c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
(a) 5′ – A U G A A U G – 3′ (b) 5′ – U A C U U A C – 3′
247 While analysing the DNA of an organism a total
(c) 5′ – C A U U C A U – 3′ (d) 5′ – G U A A G U A – 3′
number of 5386 nucleotides were found out of which
the proportion of different bases were Adenine = 255 The promoter site and the terminator site for
29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = transcription are located at
17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be (a) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively
concluded that of the transcription unit
(a) it is a double-stranded circular DNA (b) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively
of the transcription unit
(b) it is single-stranded DNA
(c) the 5′ (upstream) end
(c) it is a double-stranded linear DNA (d) the 3′ (downstream) end
(d) No conclusion can be drawn
256 The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes
248 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA (a) the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
as template. Such a DNA is called (b) the promoter and the terminator region
(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA (c) cDNA (d) rDNA (c) the structural gene and the terminator regions
249 The net electric charge on DNA and histones is (d) the structural gene only
(a) positive 257 Which one of the following steps in transcription is
(b) negative catalysed by RNA polymerase?
(c) negative and positive, respectively (a) Initiation (b) Elongation
(d) zero (c) Termination (d) All of these
258 Which one of the following is true with respect to AUG? 263 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
(a) It codes for methionine only (a) DNA-replication (b) transcription
(b) It is also an initiation codon (c) translation (d) None of these
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and 264 In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when
eukaryotes (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(d) All of the above (b) repressor binds to operator
259 With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes (c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA (d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
(b) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature 265 Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that
RNA interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in
(c) introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature transcription. Which of the following statements is
RNA
correct about regulatory protein?
(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA (a) They only increase expression
260 To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to (b) They only decrease expression
(a) the smaller ribosomal subunit (c) They interact with RNA polymerase, but do not
(b) the larger ribosomal subunit affect the expression
(c) the whole ribosome (d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
(d) No such specificity exists
266 Which was the last human chromosome to be
261 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'–AUG–3', completely sequenced?
the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be (a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome 11
(a) 5′ – UAC – 3′ (b) 5′ – CAU – 3′ (c) Chromosome 21 (d) Chromosome-X
(c) 5′ – AUG – 3′ (d) 5′ – GUA – 3′
267 The human chromosome with the highest and least
262 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its number of genes in them are respectively
(a) 5′-end (b) 3′-end (a) chromosome 21 and Y (b) chromosome 1 and X
(c) Anticodon site (d) DHU loop (c) chromosome 1 and Y (d) chromosome X and Y

Answers
> Mastering NCERT with MCQs
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (b) 11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (b)
16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (a) 41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (b)
46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (d) 51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (a)
76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (b) 81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (d) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (*) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (d) 94 (c) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (d) 101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (a) 104 (b) 105 (c)
106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (b) 110 (b) 111 (c) 112 (d) 113 (d) 114 (b) 115 (a) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (a)
121 (c) 122 (c) 123 (c) 124 (c) 125 (a) 126 (a) 127 (c) 128 (c) 129 (a) 130 (b) 131 (a) 132 (c) 133 (d) 134 (c) 135 (c)
136 (a) 137 (c) 138 (d) 139 (c) 140 (b) 141 (c) 142 (d) 143 (b) 144 (a) 145 (c) 146 (b) 147 (b) 148 (d) 149 (b) 150 (b)
151 (a) 152 (a) 153 (c) 154 (b) 155 (a) 156 (a) 157 (a) 158 (d) 159 (d) 160 (d) 161 (c) 162 (d) 163 (b) 164 (c) 165 (d)
166 (a) 167 (a) 168 (c) 169 (a) 170 (d) 171 (d) 172 (c) 173 (d) 174 (d) 175 (a) 176 (b) 177 (a) 178 (b) 179 (c) 180 (b)
181 (a) 182 (c) 183 (a) 184 (a)

> NEET Special Types Questions

185 (d) 186 (a) 187 (a) 188 (a) 189 (a) 190 (a) 191 (a) 192 (a) 193 (a) 194 (b) 195 (a) 196 (b) 197 (a) 198 (b) 199 (a)
200 (b) 201 (c) 202 (c) 203 (d) 204 (d) 205 (c) 206 (d) 207 (c) 208 (d) 209 (d) 210 (a) 211 (d) 212 (c) 213 (d) 214 (d)
215 (a) 216 (b) 217 (d) 218 (c) 219 (d) 220 (d) 221 (b) 222 (c) 223 (a) 224 (b) 225 (d) 226 (c) 227 (c) 228 (b) 229 (b)
230 (b) 231 (b) 232 (a) 233 (c) 234 (a) 235 (c) 236 (c) 237 (b) 238 (b) 239 (a) 240 (b)

> NCERT Exemplar Questions

241 (b) 242 (c) 243 (c) 244 (c) 245 (d) 246 (d) 247 (b) 248 (c) 249 (c) 250 (d) 251 (d) 252 (b) 253 (b) 254 (a) 255 (b)
256 (c) 257 (b) 258 (d) 259 (b) 260 (a) 261 (b) 262 (b) 263 (b,c) 264 (a) 265 (d) 266 (a) 267 (c)
152 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

Answers & Explanations

1 (a) DNA is a long chain of polymer of then A + 17 + 17 + T = 100
deoxyribonucleotide in which a phosphate group is A + T + 34 = 100
attached to 5′− OH of nucleoside through A + T = 100 − 34
phosphodiester linkage. A + T = 66
2 (b) Length of DNA is directly proportional to the A = T = 66 / 2 = 33%
number of nucleotides. As the number of nucleotides
Hence, if cytosine is 17% then G = 17% and A and T
increases, the length of DNA also increases.
will be 33% each.
3 (d) Option (d) is the incorrect match and can be
20 (c) Option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as
corrected as
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine of
Haploid content of human DNA is 3.3 × 109 bp. the opposite strand and vice-versa. On the other hand,
Rest of the matches are correct. guanine is bounded with cytosine with three H-bonds.
4 (a) Adenine and guanine are the purines which are Rest of the options are correct.
found both in DNA and RNA. Cytosine and thymine are 23 (c) The length of DNA in a human cell is about 2.2 m.
the pyrimidines which are found in DNA. In case of
RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil. It can be calculated as
The distance between two consecutive base pairs
7 (a) Adenosine and deoxyadenosine differ in only sugar.
Nitrogenous bases are attached to the pentose sugar by = 0.34 nm or 0.34 × 10−9 m
N-glycoside bond. If the length of DNA double helix in a typical
If ribose sugar is present then it is called nucleoside and mammalian cell
when deoxyribose sugar is present then it is called = The total number of bp × Distance between two
deoxynucleoside, i.e. adenoside (sugar is ribose), consecutive bp
deoxyadenoside (sugar is deoxyribose), cytidine, = 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10−9 m/bp = 2.2 m
deoxycytidine, uridine or deoxythymine.
24 (a) In the given case, the number of base pairs for
10 (b) Adenylic acid, cytidilic acid and guanylic acid are
nucleotides. A nucleotide is composed of three E. coli would be 4 × 106 bp. It can be calculated as
components – nitrogen base (adenosine, cytosine, Average distance between two base pairs of DNA is
guanine), ribose sugar and a phosphate group. These are 3.4 Å. Length of E. coli DNA is = 1.36 × 107 Å
monomer unit of nucleic acid, i.e. RNA and DNA. 1.36 × 107 Å
Adenine, cytidine, thymidine are nucleosides. So, number of nucleotides = = 0.39 × 107
3.4Å
Uracil, cytosine and adenosine are nitrogenous bases. ~ 4 × 106 bp
= 3.9 × 106 =
13 (d) Thymine and uracil, both have similar structures and 26 (a) In a eukaryotic cell, the DNA packaging has
are pyrimidine. Thymine ring has one additional methyl positively charged basic proteins called as histones. A
group at 5′ position in its pyrimidine ring. Therefore it is
protein acquires charge depending upon the abundance
also called 5 methyl uracil.
of amino acids residues with charged side chains.
16 (c) The percentage of bases which are pyrimidines is Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine
50%. According to Chargaff’s rule and arginine and hence are positively charged.
A + G = C + T = 50%
27 (d) Option (d) is the incorrect match and can be
(Purines) (Pyramidines)
corrected as
∴ If A = 20%, then T = 20%
Chromatin are thread-like stained (coloured) bodies
C + T = 50%
Answers & Explanations

seen in nucleus. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen

C = 50% − 20% = 30% as ‘beads on string’ when viewed under electron
Total percentage of pyrimidine bases microscope.
(T + C) are 20 + 30 = 50% Rest of the matches are correct.
17 (c) Chargaff’s rule states that purine and pyrimidine 28 (a) Linker-DNA is attached to H1 histone protein.
base pairs are present in equal amount in dsDNA, i.e. Linker DNA connects two adjacent nucleosomes. Its
A = T, G = C. length is varied (about 145 Å with 70 bp). Nucleosome
i.e. ( A + T ) = ( G + C ) and linker DNA together constitute chromatosome.
A+T Chromatosome contains a histone octamer and DNA.
∴ =1
G+ C 29 (b) The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires
If cytosine = 17%, then G = 17% an additional set of proteins that are collectively called
If A + G + C + T = 100 and G = C, A = T non-histone proteins (i.e. H2A and H2B).
30 (c) The association of H1 histone with nucleosome 20 minutes. Therefore, the DNA extracted after the
indicates that DNA is condensed into chromatin fibre. interval of 20 minutes in the experiment had heavy 15 N
In eukaryotes, DNA packaging is carried out with the incorporated in its genetic material and had a hybrid
help of histone proteins. Nucleosome is the unit of density.
compaction. Its core consists of four pairs of histones 58 (a) An experiment similar to Meselson and Stahl
(H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). The linker DNA, consisting of experiment was performed on Vicia faba (faba beans)
H1 histone connects two adjacent nucleosomes. by Taylor and colleagues in 1958. The experiments
These together constitute chromatosome. It gives rise to proved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate
a chromatin fibre after further condensation. semiconservatively.
34 (d) Frederick Griffith (1920) conducted a series of 60 (a) DNA polymerase is DNA dependent because it uses
experiments on the bacterium Streptococcus DNA template to catalyse the polymerisation of
pneumoniae. Through his experiment he found out that deoxynucleotides.
the heat-killed S-strain bacteria had changed the 62 (b) Separation of the entire length of DNA helix needs
R-strain to virulent form. He called this the a large amount of energy. Hence, only up to certain
transforming principle. extent separation of DNA helix can take place.
35 (c) In Griffith’s experiment, he found out that 63 (a) Replication fork is a Y-shaped structure formed due
something from dead organism could change the living to small opening of DNA helix for replication to take
cells. From his experiment he showed that dead place. This is formed because long DNA molecules
S-bacteria (virulent) are changing (transforming) the cannot be separated along the entire length (due to very
R-bacteria (non-virulant) into S-type, i.e. the virulent high energy requirement).
strain.
65 (b) The replication is continuous on 3′ → 5′ polarity
37 (c) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) strand because DNA polymerase can catalyse
experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic polymerisation in 5′ → 3′ direction only and we know
material in bacteriophage. that DNA strands are complementary to each other.
On the other hand, Beadle and Tatum (1940s) Thus, continuous synthesis occurs in 3′ → 5′ direction.
experimentally showed one gene-one enzyme 67 (c) During DNA replication, super coiling is relaxed by
hypothesis using Neurospora. DNA topoisomerase. These enzymes participate in
Meselson and Stahl first showed that DNA replicates underwinding of DNA.
semiconservatively through experiments on E. coli. Other options functions as,
Jacob and Monod were first to explain lac operon. l
SSBPs are single strand binding proteins which
38 (a) Hershey and Chase grew cultures of Escherichia stabilises the unwound parental DNA.
coli. One culture was supplied with radioactive sulpur l
Primase is the enzyme which synthesise RNA primer
( 35 S) and the another with radioactive phosphorus ( 32 P). on DNA template to initiate DNA synthesis.
44 (c) Option (c) is the incorrect trait and can be l
RNA polymerase enzyme helps in synthesis of new
corrected as DNA strand during replication.
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must be 68 (d) Okazaki fragments are short segments of replicating
stable structurally and chemically. DNA. These have 1000-2000 bp in prokaryotes and
Rest of the options are correct. 100-200 bp in eukaryotes. These fragments are formed
47 (a) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. Infact discontinuously and are used to elongate the lagging
RNA being unstable, mutates at a faster rate. strand away from the replication fork.
Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and shorter 69 (b) Option (b) is correct. The phosphorylated
lifespan, mutate and evolve faster. nucleotides are deATP (deoxy Adenosine
Answers & Explanations

49 (a) RNA was the first genetic material. There is now Triphosphate), deCTP (deoxy Cytidine Triphosphate),
enough evidence to suggest that the essential life deTTP (deoxy Thymidine Triphosphate). These
processes has evolved around RNA. triphosphates serve dual purpose. These act as substrate
as well as provide energy for polymerisation of
50 (d) Chargaff’s rule is not applicable to RNA. It is the nucleotides by releasing energy after dissociating the
generalised formula about DNA structure. The rule phosphate group.
states that DNA from any cell of an organism should
have a 1 : 1 ratio (base pair rule) of pyrimidine and 70 (a) Option (a) contains the wrongly matched pair and
purine bases, i.e. the amount of guanine is equal to can be corrected as
cytosine and the amount of adenine is equal to thymine. Transcription is a process of RNA synthesis from a
DNA template.
55 (c) Heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from
the normal DNA by centrifugation in a cesium chloride Rest of the options contain correct pairs.
(CsCl) density gradient. 71 (a) The strands in the DNA are complementary to each
56 (a) In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, the generation other, not identical. If the two RNAs are formed from
time (replication time) of E. coli culture is about both strands then RNAs with different sequences would
be formed.
 72 (d) Option (d) is correct. structures are not a part of RNA polymerase. Thus,
If both strands are copied during transcription, then two RNA polymerase can perfom the function of elongation
complementary RNA strands will be produced only.
simultaneously. These would have the tendency to form 88 (*) This question is incorrect because out of the given
double-stranded RNA and if these two RNA strands do initiation and termination factors, none is involved in
not form double helix these would code for two different transcription in eukaryotes.
types of proteins. Then, the whole exercise of However, option (a) contains initiation and termination
transcription would be futile. factors which are involved in transcription. These
73 (a) If double-stranded RNA is produced during factors (σ and ρ) initiate and terminate transcription in
transcription this would prevent RNA from being prokaryotes (not in eukaryotes). Initiation and
translated into proteins. Double-stranded RNA have termination factors involved in transcription in
more stability than single-stranded RNA. If eukaryotes are General Transcription Factors (TF IIA -
double-stranded RNA is formed from transcription, then TF II H) and Transcription Termination Factor-1
it is difficult to separate the strands of RNA due to (TTF-1), respectively.
which translation would be halted.
90 (c) Option (c) is correct.
75 (a) The strand, which does not code for anything is
referred to as coding strand. All the reference point, In prokaryotes, mRNA does not require any processing
while defining a trancription unit is made with the to become active and there is no clear demarcation
coding strand. between the nucleus and cytoplasm. Genetic material is
dispersed through out the cytoplasm. Thus,
78 (c) Coding strand is the one that codes for mRNA. It has transcription and translation takes place in the same
same nucleotide sequence as that of mRNA except
compartment in prokaryotes.
thymine (T) is replaced by uracil (U) in mRNA. Hence,
the corresponding sequence of transcribed mRNA by 91 (c) In the process of transcription (i.e. copying of
template or non-coding strand (complementary to RNA) genetic information from one strand of the DNA into
is AGGUAUCGCAU. RNA) in eukaryotes, the enzyme RNA polymerase-I
79 (a) Among the given options, only the mRNA given in transcribes rRNA - 28S, 18S and 5.8S.
option (a) can be transcripted because it possesses an On the other hand, tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNAs are
initiation codon-AUG which codes for methionine. Rest transcribed by RNA polymerase III. RNA
of the mRNA sequences start with termination codons, polymerase-II transcribes precursor of mRNA, i.e.
i.e. UAA (Ochre), UAG (Amber) and UGA (Opal). hnRNA.
Therefore, these cannot be transcripted. 92 (a) RNA undergoes a process where the introns
80 (b) Option (b) gives the sequence of mRNA produced (non-coding parts) are removed and exons (coding
by the given stretch of DNA. The mRNA will be sequence) are joined to form mRNA. This process is
complementary to the DNA strand, but in RNA, uracil called splicing.
will be present in place of thymine. If the template 93 (d) Spliceosome is absent in cells of bacteria. It is a
strand is 3′–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5 then the base large molecular complex found in nucleus of eukaryotic
sequence of mRNA for the given DNA strand will be cells of plants, animals and fungi. It is assembled from
5′–UACGUACGUACGUAC–3’. snRNAs and protein complexes which play an
81 (b) Promoter is present at the 5′-site of structural gene important role in splicing of introns.
and terminator is present at the 3′-site of structural 95 (c) At the 5′ end of eukaryotic mRNA, 7 mG (7-methyl
genes. Thus, we can say that promoter and terminator guanosine) is present. In eukaryotes, primary transcript
flanks the structural genes. is often larger than the functional RNAs. Therefore,
82 (c) Option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as post-transcription processing is required to convert
Answers & Explanations

Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide. primary transcript of all types of RNAs into functional
Rest of the options are correct. RNAs. It is of four types; cleavage, splicing, terminal
84 (a) rRNA is the most abundant form of RNA; because it addition and nucleotide modification.
is responsible for coding and protein synthesis in the cell The terminal additions include capping and tailing. In
and is also associated with ribosomes. capping, 7 mG is added to 5′ end of mRNA.
85 (a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses 97 (a) Fully processed hnRNA to undergo translation is
transcription on one strand of the DNA called as called mRNA. hn (heterogenous nuclear) RNA is the
template strand. A template can be considered as one of raw form of mRNA containing both introns and exons.
those strands of DNA which decodes its information After splicing and post-transcriptional modification of
directly through RNA polymerase. hnRNA, mRNA is formed.
87 (b) RNA polymerase only catalyses the elongation 104 (b) Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme is used in
process of transcription. The initiation of transcription is polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
done by sigma (σ) unit. The termination of the template independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of
transcription is acheived by rho (ρ) factor. These two RNA). It is also called Servo Ochoa enzyme.
105 (c) 61 codons code for amino acids out of the total 124 (c) Three dimensional structure or compact form of
64 codons. The rest three are non-sense codons which tRNA was given by Klug in 1974. It looks like the
are used for stopping translation. These are also called letter 'L' of English alphabet. Hence, it is called as the
stop codons. L-form model of tRNA.
109 (b) UAC is not a stop codon. It codes for tyrosine amino 125 (a) tRNA binds to mRNA through anticodon loop, as
acid. it bears bases complementary to those on mRNA being
The last codon of a functional gene which helps in translated.
termination of the polypeptide chain, is termed as stop or The amino acid loop of tRNA is involved in binding
termination codon. These are UAA, UAG and UGA. the respective amino acid. The T ψ C loop helps in
These codons do not have tRNA to be translated. binding the amino acid, while the D-loop of tRNA is
113 (d) Degeneracy refers to the fact that one amino acid has the binding site for aminoacyl synthetase.
more than one code triplet and the codons which specify 126 (a) RNA polymerase-III transcribes the synthesis of
the same amino acids differ only in the third base of the tRNA, therefore tRNA synthesis will be affected if it
triplet, e.g. both CAC and CAU code for the amino acid is removed from nucleoplasm. RNA polymerase-II
histidine. synthesises mRNA while, RNA polymerase-I
114 (b) Bacteria is able to produce human insulin because synthesis rRNA in eukaryotes.
genetic code is nearly universal in all organisms. For 128 (c) Polysome is a string of ribosomes associated with
example, the codon AGG specifies amino acid arginine in a single mRNA. Polysome helps to produce a number
bacteria, animals and plants. of copies of the same polypeptide.
But there are also some exceptions, e.g. in mitochondria, 129 (a) In the process of protein synthesis, tRNA carrying
the stop codon UGA for humans specifies amino acid the amino acids enters the A-site of the ribosome.
tryptophan. Peptide bonds that are formed between the amino
115 (a) Mutation gives rise to alterations in the phenotype. acids are present on P and A-site.
This is the reason as to why mutation is best for studying 130 (b) According to the sequences present on the
the relationship between genes and DNA for their mRNA, amino acids are produced. Thus, the order
expression. and the sequence of the amino acids are defined by
117 (c) The reading frame of given mRNA will not change mRNA.
even after the deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th 135 (c) UTRs present on mRNA refer to Untranslated
positions. However, only the amino acid glycine will not Regions present at both 5′–end (before start codon)
be formed at third position in this case which is being and 3′–end (after stop codon). These are the additional
coded by GGU. sequences that are not translated. These are required
In rest of the cases, insertion or deletion of one or two for efficient translation process.
nucleotide bases would result in the complete alteration 137 (c) Option (c) contains the incorrect match and can be
in the reading frame of mRNA. corrected as
118 (c) 33 codons will be altered if the base at position 901 is A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA
deleted from an mRNA having 999 bases. This can be that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and ends at
calculated as the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
Total number of bases in the given mRNA = 999 Rest of the matches are correct.
999
Number of codons for this mRNA = = 333 138 (d) Option (d) represents the correct sequential code
3 of tRNA. DNA and mRNA have complementary base
If one base is deleted at position 901 then the number pairs.
900 If the DNA is 3′–TAC ATG GGT CCG–5′
bases unchanged are 900 which codes for
3 than mRNA will have
Answers & Explanations

= 300amino acids
II I IV III
Thus, number of altered codons will be
5′–AUG UAC CCA GGC–3′
333 − 300 = 33
tRNA and mRNA have complementary base pairs.
119 (a) Frameshift mutation of the genetic bases (deletion or
139 (c) Option (c) is correct as UAA, UAG and UGA are
addition) gives the proof that codon is triplet and reads in
stop codons on mRNA for which no tRNA molecules
contagious manner. Deletion or addition of a base pair
disturb the reading frame of DNA or mRNA. are present. tRNA molecules have anticodon,
therefore anticodons for the mentioned stop codons
121 (c) tRNA was known as sRNA (soluble RNA) before the will AUU, AUC and ACU which does not exist.
genetic code was postulated. Its role as an adaptor
molecule was reported later. 144 (a) Positively regulatory proteins are called
activators. These activator proteins bind to regulatory
123 (c) Option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as
sites on DNA near to the promoter regions which act
tRNA are specific for each amino acid, e.g. for initiation as on / off switches. This binding facilitates RNA
there is a specific initiator tRNA. polymerase activity and transcription of nearby genes.
Rest of the options are correct for tRNA.
 145 (c) In the operon system, the promoter is generally 157 (a) An inducer binds with the repressor protein and
situated beside the operator genes. In the prokaryotes, prevents the repressor protein from binding to the
the working of promoter region (binding of RNA operator.
polymerase) is coordinated by the operator genes, e.g. if Glucose and galactose cannot act as an inducer because
operator genes are occupied by the repressor proteins these do not have the binding sites for attaching the
then RNA polymerase does not bind to the promoter repressor protein.
gene and there is no transcription. 160 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
146 (b) An operon is considered to regulate genetic unit or During human genome project many non-human
DNA. It act as a single regulatory unit having one or organisms such as bacteria, yeast, C. elegans,
more structural genes, an operator gene, regulator Drosophila, plants, etc. DNA were also sequenced.
genes, a repressor and an inducer. Rest of the options are correct.
148 (d) Option (d) is the correct match. 161 (c) Gene or DNA library is a collection cloned or copied
Jacob and Monod (1916) discovered the lac operon. DNA (cDNA) of cells or tissues, organs of
Rest of the matches are incorrect and can be an organism in a preserved form for future use.
corrected as 163 (b) Option (b) is the incorrect match and can be
l Matthew Meselson and F Stahl discovered the
corrected as
semiconservative mode of DNA replication in E. coli. Sequence annotation is simply sequencing the whole set
l Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase use
of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding
T2
sequence and later assigning different regions in the
bacteriophage in their experiments to infect E. coli sequence with functions.
and proved that DNA is the genetic material.
Rest of the matches are correct.
l Alec Jeffreys (1984) invented the DNA

164 (c) For generating genetic and physical maps,

fingerprinting technique. This technique determines
restriction endonuclease was used. For sequencing the
nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA which
human DNA, the entire DNA from a cell is isolated and
are unique to each individual.
converted into random fragments of relatively smaller
149 (b) A lac operon has one regulatory gene (i.e. i-gene) size by using restriction endonuclease enzyme and
and three structural genes (i.e. z, y and a genes). cloned in suitable host using specialised vectors.
150 (b) Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli 165 (d) Chromosome number 21, 22 and Y are listed in G
that involves the Lac i gene products is negative and group. To make chromosomal studies easier,
inducible because its repressor protein prevents chromosomes are classified into Groups A to G as given
transcription. below.
Lac i gene produces an inhibitor or repressor that Group A contains 1-3 chromosomes
induces negative regulation of lac operon. B contains 4-5 chromosomes
The repressor binds to the operator gene and stops its C contains 6-12 chromosomes and X-chromosome
working. Repressor is meant to block the operator gene, D contains 13-15 chromosomes
so that structural genes are unable to form mRNA, thus
stopping the transcription of genes. E contains 16-18 chromosomes
On the other hand, lactose operon is inducible operon F contains 19-20 chromosomes
system. It is a regulated unit of genetic material which G contains 21-22 chromosomes and Y- chromosome
is switched on in response to the presence of a chemical. 166 (a) Human genome is said to have approximately
151 (a) β-galactosidase enzyme will be produced in a cell in 3 × 109 bp, but the exact number is 3164.7 million bp.
which non-sense mutation takes place in the lac y gene. 170 (d) Option (d) is correct as reptitive sequences are
Answers & Explanations

Non-sense mutation stops polypeptide synthesis due to stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many
the formation of non-sense codon. In lac operon, times, (sometimes hundred to thousand times). These
sequence of structural genes is z (codes for are thought to have no direct coding functions, but these
β-galactosidase), y (permease) and a gene shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and
(transacetylase). Due to non-sense mutation at y-gene, evolution.
permease synthesis will be stopped resulting in 171 (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
non-expression of both y and successive gene a also.
Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA
Thus, only β-galactosidase enzyme will be produced.
sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes
153 (c) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta (β) hundred to thousand times.
galactosidase and it regulates the switching on and off Rest of the options are correct.
of the lac operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer.
172 (c) There are about 1.4 million locations where single
156 (a) Repressor protein attaches to the operator gene. It is base DNA differences occurs. These locations are called
a regulatory protein synthesised by regulator gene. SNPs (snips) or Single Nucleotide Polymorphism in
Repressor is meant for blocking the operator gene, so humans.
that the structural genes are unable to form mRNA.
176 (b) Sattelite DNA is important because it shows high replication. Thus, it continuously synthesises the strand
degree of polymorphism (variation at genetic level) in having polarity 3′ → 5′.
population and also the same degree of polymorphism Replication of the lagging strand (5′→ 3′) generates
in an individual, which is heritable from parents to small polynucleotide fragments, okazaki fragments. The
children. Also satellite DNA does not code for proteins replication of this strand is discontinuous.
or enzymes but are different in all the members of a 192 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
population. the correct explanation of Assertion.
182 (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the technique In eukaryotes, replication and transcription take place in
in which many copies of DNA can be produced in a the nucleus.
short period of time. It can increase the sensitivity of The fully processed hnRNA now called mRNA, is
DNA fingerprinting. transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm, where
183 (a) In Southern blotting DNA is transferred from translation occurs.
electrophoresis gel plate to the nitrocellulose or nylon This is because all the amino acids, tRNA and
membrane sheet. ribosomes required for translation are present in the
185 (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Assertion can cytoplasm.
be corrected as 193 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
DNA serves as the genetic material in most organisms, the correct explanation of Assertion.
but in some viruses like TMV, RNA acts as the genetic The primary transcript in eukaryotes, i.e. the hnRNA is
material. DNA is a double-stranded biomolecule, but much larger as it contains both introns and exons. It is
can also exist as a single-stranded biomolecule. the precussor of mRNA. During post-transcriptional
186 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is modification. Introns (the intervening sequences),
the correct explanation of Assertion. which do not code for proteins are removed and all
The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity. This exons are joined to form fully prossessed mRNA.
is because one chain has a free phosphate moiety at the 194 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
5′ end of the ribose sugar and another chain has a free not the correct explanation of Assertion.
phosphate moiety at the 3′ end. Polycistronic mRNA, commonly found in prokaryotes,
187 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason two or more coding regions are present and can specify
is the correct explanation of Assertion. a number of polypeptide chains or proteins. It further
Adenine cannot pair with cytosine. Adenine pairs with contains multiple (open) reading frames to enable the
thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. This occurs formation of two or more proteins.
because adenine pairs with thymine with two hydrogen Both polycistronic and monocistronic mRNAs have a 5′
bonds, i.e. have only two hydrogen donor / hydrogen leader sequence, the coding region (containing initiation
acceptor sites whereas cytosine has three hydrogen codon and termination codon) and a non-translated 3′
donor / hydrogen acceptor sites. Thus, due to lack of trailer sequence.
complementarity between the hydrogen donor and 195 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
hydrogen acceptor sites between adenine and cytosine, the correct explanation of Assertion.
these cannot pair. In transcription, the strand with 3′ → 5′ polarity acts as
188 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason the template from which mRNA is transcribed as is
is the correct explanation of Assertion. called the template strand.
Histones are basic in nature because these are rich in This is because the enzyme DNA-dependent RNA
amino acids lysine and arginine which are basic in nature. polymerase catalyses polymerisation in only 5′ → 3′
direction.
189 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. 196 (b) Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
Answers & Explanations

Heterochromatin is densely packed and inaccessible to is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
transcription factors. Hence, it is rendered In eukaryotes, transcription, i.e. synthesis of RNA from
transcriptionally silent or inactive. DNA, occurs inside nucleus, because the genetic
material DNA is enclosed within the nucleus in
190 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is eukaryotes.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
In prokaryotes like bacteria, the genetic material, DNA
RNA is an unstable catalytic molecule. It mutates at a remains suspended within the cytoplasm. Thus, in
faster rate than DNA. Thus, viruses having RNA prokaryotes the processes of transcription and
genome and shorter lifespan, mutate and evolve faster translation occur in cytoplasm.
due to this unstability.
197 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
191 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
The genetic code is degenerate. It means that a given
The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase works in the amino acid can be coded by more than one codon. For
5′ → 3′ direction requiring a free 3′–OH of a example, serine is an amino acid coded by UCU, UCC,
pre-existing polynucleotide for initiating DNA UCA, UCG, AGU and AGC.
 198 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is l The region of DNA where transcription starts is
not the correct explanation of Assertion. promoter.
l The terminator codes for the end of transcription.
mRNA has some additional sequences that are not
translated known as Untranslated Regions (UTR). The 212 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
UTRs are present at both 5′ end (before start codon) and corrected as
at 3′ end (after stop codon). These are required for The coding sequences or expressed sequences are called
efficient translation process. exons. Intervening sequences or non-coding sequences
199 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is in an unprocessed RNA are called introns.
the correct explanation of Assertion. Rest of the statements are correct.
DNA fignerprinting is very well-known for its
214 (d) Statements II and III are correct. Statements I and
application in paternity testing as it employs the
IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
principle of DNA polymorphism. DNA fingerprinting
l rRNA provides the site for protein synthesis.
involves the use of satellite DNA. These sequences do
l A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called
not code for any proteins, but show high degree of
polymorphism. cistron.
These serve as the basis of DNA fingerprinting. These 216 (b) Statements II and III are correct.
polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children Statements I and IV are incorrect and can be corrected
and thus DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity as
testing. l
mRNA does not have an elaborated 3 D structure, it
200 (b) Statements I, II, III and IV are correct. is a linear chain.
Statement V is incorrect and can be corrected as l
mRNA contains codons and tRNA contains
Ribose sugar can be represented as C5 H10 O5 whereas anticodons.
deoxyribose sugar (has deficit of one oxygen atom) can 217 (d) Steps in statements I, II and III are related with
be represented as C5 H10 O4 . tRNA as these are steps of polypeptide synthesis, i.e.
201 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be translation. Steps in statement IV is not related with
corrected as tRNA.
Nucleotides do not have proteins, carbohydrates and This is because transcription involves copying of
fats. Nucleotides contain a sugar, a phosphate group and genetic information from the template DNA strand to
a nitrogenous base. RNA. tRNA does not participates inthis process.
Rest of the statements are correct.
218 (c) Statements II and IV are correct. Statements I and
202 (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement III is III are incorrect and can be corrected as
incorrect and can be corrected as l
Glucose and galactose are formed from allolactose
Transforming principle is associated with genetic by β-galactosidase. These bind with the lactose
material of S-strain. repressor and activate it is enable the transcription
204 (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct. process.
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as l
Tryptophan acts as repressor to stop gene
35
S will end up in the supernatant after centrifugation as expression.
sulphur is present in proteins. 219 (d) Statement II, III and IV are incorrect and only
205 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be statement I is correct.
corrected as This can be explained as in lac operon model,
Equal amount of heavy DNA and light DNA was regulatory gene is continuously working, whether
observed in E. coli culture after the two generations. lactose (inducer) is present or not. It transcribes mRNA
Answers & Explanations

Rest of the statements are correct. which codes for repressor.

When this repressor binds with lactose (inducers) it
207 (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
inhibits translation of operator gene (not R gene).
corrected as
Thus, lactose presence affects operator gene not R
Meselson and Stahl proposed the semiconservative gene.
DNA replication scheme.
220 (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be
Rest of the statements are correct.
corrected as
210 (a) The statement in option (a) is correct. The repressor of the operon is synthesised (all-the-time-
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be corrected constitutively) from the i gene. The repressor protein
as binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents
l
Exon is the coding or expressed sequence, intron is RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.
the non-coding sequence and cistron is the segment Rest of the statements are correct.
of DNA which codes for a polypeptide.
221 (b) The statement in option (b) is incorrect and can be 249 (c) The net electric charge on DNA and histones is
corrected as negative and positive, respectively.
Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. DNA consists of a nitrogenous base, pentose sugar
In most of organisms more than 98% of human genome is and a phosphate group. DNA has negative charge due
3−
composed of non-coding DNA (or Junk DNA). to the presence of phosphate group (PO4 ). Histones
Rest of the statements are correct. are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and
223 (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and can be arginine, which carry positive charge in their side
corrected as chains. Therefore, histones are positively charged.
BAC or Bacterial Artificial Chromosome and YAC or 250 (d) The first genetic material could be RNA. We
Yeast Artificial Chromosome are the two vectors know that RNA is present as a genetic material in some
generally used in human genome project for cloning the viruses, and it also works as a catalyst (there are some
large fragments of human DNA. important biochemical reactions in living systems that are
Rest of the statements are correct. catalysed by RNA catalysts and not by protein enzymes).
But, RNA being a catalyst is reactive and hence unstable.
242 (c) A nitrogenous base is attached to the pentose sugar by
Therefore, it is considered that DNA has evolved
an N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside, i.e.
from RNA thereby making RNA the first genetic
Nucleoside=Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar.
material.
When a phosphate group is attached to the 5′-OH of a
nucleoside through phosphodiester linkage, a nucleotide is 251 (d) Option (d) is correct.
formed, i.e. Nucleotide = Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Meselson and Stahl found that DNA of the first
Phosphate (PO4 ). generation was hybrid or intermediate (15 N and 14 N).
So, a nucleoside differs from a nucleotide as it lacks It settled in caesium chloride at a level higher than the
phosphate group. fully labelled DNA of parent bacteria (15 N 15N ).
243 (c) Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to the class of The second generation of bacteria after 40 minutes,
sugar called pentoses as these sugars contain five carbon contained two types of DNA, 50% light ( N14 N14 ) and
atoms. 50% intermediate ( N15 N14 ).
244 (c) The diameter of the strand is always constant due to The third generation of bacteria after 60 minutes
the pairing of a purine (adenine and guanine) with a contained two types of DNA, 25% intermediate
pyrimidine (cytosine and thymine). This specific bonding ( N15 N14 ) and 75% light ( N14 N14 ) in 1 : 3 ratio.
gives uniform width throughout the DNA. It can be assumed that the fourth generation after
245 (d) Option (d) is correct. rRNA, mRNA and tRNA are the 80 minutes would contain 12.5% N15 N14 and 87.5%
major classes of RNAs that are involved in gene N14 N14 DNA in 1:7 ratio.
expression. Their functions include Thus, if Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued
rRNA binds protein molecules and forms a ribosome. for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of 15 N / 15 N
mRNA carries coded information for translation and
:15 N / 14 N : 14 N / 14 N containing DNA in the fourth
polypeptide formation.
generation would be 0 : 1 : 7.
tRNA is called soluble or adaptor RNA which carries
amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis. 252 (b) To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, 3′ OH
246 (d) Meselson and Stahl had no contribution in the group in deoxyribose should be replaced/removed.
development of double helix model. In 1958, Meselson This is because DNA polymerase enzyme requires a
and Stahl performed experiments on E. coli to prove that free 3′–OH end of pre-existing polynucleotide to
DNA replication is semiconservative. enable polymerisation, leading to the formation of a
continuous strand in the 5′→ 3′ direction.
247 (b) According to Chargaff’s rule of base pairing
Answers & Explanations

A G 254 (a) Option (a) gives the correct sequence of bases in

i.e. = =1 the RNA transcript for the given DNA coding strand.
T C
5′ - A T G A A T G - 3′ (coding strand)
For the given organism, the DNA does not follow
A 27 32 G ↓
Chargaff’s rule as = =/ = =/ 1 3′- T A C T T A C - 5′ (template strand)
T 17 17 C
↓
Hence, it can be concluded that it is a single-stranded
DNA, not double-stranded. 5′ -A U G A A U G - 3′ (RNA)
255 (b) The promoter is located towards 5′ end
248 (c) In some viruses, like retroviruses (e.g. HIV),
complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesised by using an (upstream) of the structural gene of coding strand and
RNA template. This process is termed reverse provides the binding site for RNA polymerase to
transcription and an enzyme called reverse transcriptase is initiate transcription. The terminator region is where
used. the transcription stops and it is present at the 3′ end
(downstream).
257 (b) RNA polymerase catalyses elongation during 263 (b, c) Both options (b) and (c) are correct.
transcription. During elongation RNA polymerase ‘walks’ In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expression is
along one strand of DNA known as the template strand in exerted at transcriptional level (formation of primary
the 3’ → 5’ direction. For each nucleotide in the template transcript), processing level (regulation of splicing),
RNA polymerase adds a matching (complementary) RNA transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm
nucleotide to the 3’ end of the RNA strand. It associates and translational level.
transiently with initiation factor (σ) and termination factor While, in prokaryotes, control of the rate of
(ρ ) to initiate and terminate the transcription, respectively. transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for
259 (b) In mRNA of eukaryotes exons appear, but introns do control of gene expression.
not. This is because introns are intervening or non-coding 264 (a) When lactose is present, it act as an inducer and
sequences and exons are coding or expressed sequences. binds to the repressor and inactivates it. This
Through splicing introns are removed and exons are joined repressor fails to bind to operator. Therefore, the
to form mRNA. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and transcript
260 (a) To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to the lac mRNA thus switching on the lac operon and
smaller ribosomal subunit. allowing transcription to proceed.
Ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 265 (d) Option (d) is correct.
80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exist as two In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA
subunits, a large subunit and a small subunit. When the polymerase at a given promoter is regulated by
smaller subunit encounters the mRNA, the process of interaction with accessory proteins, which affects its
translation of the mRNA to protein begins with the binding ability to recognise start sites. These regulatory
of the mRNA to the smaller ribosome unit. proteins can act both positively (activators) and
261 (b) The first base of anticodon in 5′ → 3′ direction binds negatively (repressors).
with the third base in codon (reading in 5′ → 3′ direction). 266 (a) Chromosome 1 was the last completed
Thus, if the base sequence in codon of mRNA is 5′ – AUG chromosome, sequenced two decades after the
– 3′ the complementary anticodon will be 3′ – UAC – 5′ or beginning of the human Genome Project (hGP). It is
5′ – CAU – 3′. designated as the largest human chromosome.
262 (b) AA-binding site (amino acid binding site) lies at the 267 (c) The human chromosomes having the highest and
3′ end opposite the anticodon and has CCA-OH group. least number of genes, respectively are chromosome
Thus, the site where amino acid attaches to the tRNA is 1 with 2968 genes and chromosome-Y with
the 3′ end of the tRNA molecule. 231 genes.