05/04/2024

Evening

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-2

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.

(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is
Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

(4) Section - A : Attempt all questions.

(5) Section - B : Attempt any 05 questions out of 10 Questions.

(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. The van der Waals gas equation is expressed as
 a 
 P − 2  (V − b ) = nRT , where symbols have their
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices  V 
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. a
usual meaning, then dimension of is
b2
Choose the correct answer:
(1) ML2 T −2  (2) M2L2 T −2 
1. A block of mass 50 kg is moving with speed of    
10 m/s on rough horizontal surface.
(3) MLT −2  (4) ML3 T −2 
(Friction coefficient of 0.3)    
Answer (1)
 a 
Sol. P  =  
V 2 
Find of the kinetic friction acting on the object.
a
(1) 500 N (2) 150 N ML−1T −2 =
L6
(3) 167 N (4) 16 N
Answer (2) a = ML+5 T −2
Sol. f = N = 0.3 × 500 = 150 N and V  =  b  = L3 
 
2. A truck is moving from rest with constant power P.
If the displacement of the truck is proportional to tn,  a  ML5 T −2
where t is time, find n.  2 =
b  L3
3
(1) 2 (2) = ML2 T −2 
2  
1 5 4. In a hydraulic lift force F is applied to balance 10 N
(3) (4)
2 2 load, diameter of effort arm is 14 cm and load arm
Answer (2) is 1.4 cm. The F is equal to

1
Sol. Pt = mv 2
2
2Pt
v=
m
ds
v=
dt

2Pt (1) 500 N (2) 100 N

 s= dt
m (3) 2000 N (4) 1000 N
3/2
st Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. P1 = P2 1  1 1
= RZ 2  2 – 2 
 2 3 
10 F
=
  1 1  5 
(1.4)2 (14)2 =  
4 4  915  36 
F = 1000 N  = 6588 Å
5. A hollow sphere is rolling without slipping. Find ratio
of rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic energy of 7. In sonometer, fundamental frequency changes
sphere from 400 Hz to 500 Hz keeping same tension. Find
percentage change in length.
4 3
(1) (2) (1) 5% (2) 10%
7 7
(3) 20% (4) 40%
2 5
(3) (4) Answer (3)
7 7
Answer (3) v
Sol. f = = 400
2l1
1 2 
Sol. Krot =  MR 2  2
25  v
= 500
1 1 2  2l 2
K total = Mv 2 +  MR 2  2
2 25  v v
−
l 2 − l1  8 
v = R  100 = 1000 800  100 =  − 1  100
l1 v  10 
1 7 
 K total =  MR 2  2 800
25 
= –20%
Krot 2
= 8. For what boolean values of A, B & C the given logic
K total 7
gate gives output of zero?
6. Shortest wavelength in Lyman series has
wavelength of 915 Å. Longest wavelength of
Balmer series has a value of?
(1) 5296 Å (2) 3647 Å
(3) 6588 Å (4) 7294 Å (1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
Answer (3)
(2) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1
1 1 1 
Sol. Lyman : = RZ 2  –  (3) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
915 1  
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1
1
RZ = 2
Answer (2)
915

Balmer : Transition from n = 3 to n = 2 Sol. Putting values gives option (2).

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

9. 20R resistance wire is cut into 10 equal parts. Now Sol.

each part first is connected in series and then in
parallel. Find ratio of equivalent resistance in both
cases (Rseries : Rparallel)
10 1
(1) 100 : 1 Ig = = A
500 50
(2) 50 : 1
(3) 25 : 1
(4) 5 : 1
Answer (1)
Sol. Series : Req = 20R
1
 =
Parallel : Req
R  10r =  100
5 50

20R 1 r = 0.2 
 = 20R :
Ratio : Req : Req = 1: = 100 : 1
100 100 12. A particle is moving in circular path of radius 9 m
10. On vehicles containing inflammable fluid, metallic such that it completes 120 rev in 3 minutes. Find
chains are provided touching of the earth, then centripetal acceleration.
correct option is (1) 82 m/s2 (2) 162 m/s2
(1) It is custom (3) 322 m/s2 (4) 16 m/s2
(2) Alert for another vehicle Answer (2)
(3) For discharging the statics charges developed  120  2 4
Sol.  = = = rad/s
due to friction t 3  60 3
(4) It is fashion ac = 2r
Answer (3)
 16 
Sol. Because of friction, metallic body gets changed. =  2   9
 9 
11. 400  series resistance is required to convert a
= 162 m/s2
galvanometer of 100  to a voltameter of range
13. The current flowing through an inductor vary with
10 V. To convert same galvanometer, in ammeter
time as i = (3t + 2)A and back emf induced in it is
of 10A, what should be the shunt resistance
12 V at an instant. Find inductance
(1) 4 
(1) 1 H
(2) 0.4  (2) 2 H
(3) 0.2  (3) 4 H
(4) 5  (4) 5 H
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

di V2
Sol.  = L Sol. P = i 2R =
dt R
12 = L(3)  Voltage across 5  and 10  is same
L=4H
1
P
14. In thermodynamics adiabatic process, pressure is R
directly proportional to cube of absolute
P1 R2
Cp =  P1 : P2 = 10 : 5
temperature. Find for the gas P2 R1
Cv
P1 : P2 = 2 : 1
4
(1)
3 16. Angular momentum of revolving electron of
7 hydrogen atom in a given orbit is dependent on
(2)
5 radius r as

3 1 1
(3) (1) (2)
2 r r2
8 1
(4) (3) (4) r
7
r
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
3 3
P V
Sol. P  T 3   P 2V 3  PV 3/2 = PV  nh n2
P Sol. L = (i) r = r0 (ii)
2 2
15. Find the ratio of power dissipated in 5  and 10 
resistor.  L  r.

17. In a photoelectric effect, stopping potential of

photoelectrons does not depend on

(1) Intensity of radiation

(2) Frequency of radiation

(3) Material or metal

(1) 1 : 2
(4) Kinetic energy of electrons
(2) 1 : 4
Answer (1)
(3) 2 : 1
Sol. eVS = h – 0
(4) 4 : 1
Answer (3) eVS = KE

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

18. If F1 is electrostatic force, F2 is magnetic force on a (1) 1 : 3

charge particle of charge q, where E is electric field, (2) 3 : 2
B is magnetic field and v is velocity of particle. Mark
(3) 3 : 1
correct option.
(4) 2 : 3
(1) F1 = q(v  E )
Answer (2)
(2) F2 = qB
KQ
Sol. V1 =
(3) F1 = q(E  v ) R

2KQ
(4) F2 = q(v  B ) V2 =
3R
Answer (4) V1 3
 =
Sol. F1 = qE V2 2

F2 = q(v  B ) SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
19. (A) X-Ray (P)  > 700 nm contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
(B) UV Ray (Q) 100 nm <  < 400 nm
integer.

(C) -Ray (R)  < 0.3 nm 21. A particle is projected with some speed and it is
observed that it achieves a maximum height of
(D) Infrared (S) 0.3 nm <  < 10 nm
64 m. If the same particle is projected with initial

(1) (A) → (S), (B) → (Q), (C) → (P), (D) → (R) speed half to the first value, then new maximum
height achieved by particle will be _____ m.
(2) (A) → (S), (B) → (Q), (C) → (R), (D) → (P)
Answer (16)
(3) (A) → (P), (B) → (Q), (C) → (R), (D) → (S)
u2
Sol. Hmax = = 64 m
(4) (A) → (P), (B) → (R), (C) → (Q), (D) → (S) 2g

Answer (2) u2 64
H max = = = 16 m
Sol. Most energetic gamma rays and less energetic are 4 ( 2g ) 4
Infrared.
22. If a body is moving with a momentum.
20. A conducting sphere is given a charge Q on it. The
P = sin kt iˆ – cos kt jˆ , then angle between F and
R 3R
ratio of potential at points at a distance and P is ________ degrees.
2 2
from the centre of the sphere is Answer (90)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

dP Answer (2)
Sol. We know that F =
dt Sol. 20 VSD = 19 MSD

F = ( cos kt  k ) iˆ – ( – sin kt  k ) jˆ VSD =

19
MSD
20
F = ( k cos kt ) iˆ + ( k sin kt ) jˆ
19
LC = MSD − MSD
20
F P
 cos  = =0
F P MSD
0.1 mm =
20
 = 90°
MSD = 2 mm
23. Electric field due to the dipole at P is E and at point
25. Find the current i (upto nearest integer), in the
E circuit.
Q is , find K.
K

Answer (10)

Sol. VL = i X L
Answer (16)
31.5 = ( i )  ( L )
2K P
Sol. EP = 31.5 = i  2FL
r3
31.5 31.5
K i= =
EQ = P 3 2  50  10 –2 3.14
(2r )
i  10 A
1
 EQ = EP
16 26.

24. The least count of a vernier calliper is 0.1 mm and 27.

20 vernier scale division coincides with 19 main 28.

scale division, then one main scale division is 29.

_____ mm. 30.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 3. Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit of

radius R of a hydrogen atom is directly proportional
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
to ____.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1
(1) R (2)
Choose the correct answer : R

1. Find out Eocell of the given cell. 1

(3) (4) R
R
2+ 2–
M|M || X |X
Answer (4)
o
EM 2
|M
 0.34 V
mv 2 KZe 2
Sol. 
EoX|X2   0.46 V R R2

KZe2m
(1) 0.80 V (2) 0.12 V mv 
R
(3) –0.12 V (4) –0.80 V
Angular momentum, L is given by
Answer (2)
KZe2m
M  M 2
 2e  (Anode) L  mvR  R
R

Sol. X  2e  X2 (Cathode)
2 2  KZe2mR
M  X  M X
 R
Eocell  (EM|M
o
2  )  (E
o
X|X 2 
)
4. Consider the following sequence of reaction
= – 0.34 + 0.46
= 0.12 V
2. Which of the following is true regarding coagulation
of egg?
A and B products respectively are :
(1) 1° structure does not change
(2) 2° structure does not change
(3) 3° structure does not change (1) (2)
(4) Denaturation of protein does not occur
Answer (1)
Sol. Coagulation of egg white on boiling is a common (3) (4)
example of denaturation in which primary structure
only remains intact.
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

Sol. (i) KMnO /KOH/ 

Sol. 
4
 
(ii) H3 O

7. Consider the following two statements :

S-I : NH3 is more polar than NF3.
Due to partial double bond character between S-II : N – H dipole is directed towards N while in
oxygen and carbon atom of phenyl ring bond can’t case of NF3 towards F as F is more
break easily. electronegative.
Select the correct option.
CP
5. Find out the value of for an ideal gas (1) Both statements are correct and Statement-II is
CV not correct explanation of Statement-I
undergoing reversible adiabatic process for which (2) Both statements are correct and Statement-II is
correct explanation of Statement-I
P  T 3 is given
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
4 3 (4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(1) (2)
3 2 incorrect

5 5 Answer (2)
(3) (4)
4 3 Sol. The direction of electric dipole is towards negative
Answer (2) pole in case of N – H the negative pole of N while
in case of N – F the negative pole is F as order of
Sol. PT 3  Constant (C) electronegativity is F > N > H.
P(PV)3  C 8. From the given information, calculate enthalpy of
formation of 2 moles of C6H6(l) at 25°C.
P1P 3 V 3  C
Given:
P2 V 3  C CH(C6H6(l)) = –3264.6 kJ/mol
P2 V 3  C CH(C(s)) = –393.5 kJ/mol
3   fH(H2O(l)) = –285.83 kJ/mol
PV 2  C (1) –124.5 kJ/mol (2) –46.11 kJ/mol
6. Consider the following reaction. (3) 46.11 kJ/mol (4) 124.5 kJ/mol
(i) KMnO /KOH/ 

4
 P Answer (3)
(ii) H3 O
Sol. Formation reaction
The product (P) is 6C(s)  3H2 (g)  C 6H6 (l)
(1) Adipic acid  f H(C6H6 )  6 CH(C(s))  3 CH(H2 (g))   CH(C6H6 (l))
(2) Oxalic acid
 6( 393.5)  3( 285.83)  ( 3264.6)
(3) Succinic acid
[  f H(H2 O(l))   CH(H2 (g))]
(4) Benzoic acid
= 3264.6 – 2361 – 857.49
Answer (1)
= 46.11 kJ/mol

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

9. Choose the option with correct matching for given (1) 0.50 (2) 0.80
molecules (3) 0.65 (4) 2
Column A Column B
Answer (1)
(A) ICl (P) T-shape
5
(B) ICl3 (Q) Pentagonal Sol. (Rf )P 
12.5
Bipyramidal
(C) ClF5 (R) Linear 10
(Rf )R 
12.5
(D) IF7 (S) Square Pyramidal
(1) A  R, B  P, C  Q, D  S Ratio of Rf value of P and R

(2) A  R, B  P, C  S, D  Q 5 12.5 1
=  
12.5 10 2
(3) A  Q, B  S, C  R, D  P
11. Which of the following molecule is an acidic oxide?
(4) A  P, B  R, C  S, D  Q
(1) N2O3
Answer (2)
(2) NO
77
Sol. IF7 SN   7 
 P.b.p (3) CO
2
75 (4) CaO
ClF5 SN   6  1 lone pair
2 Answer (1)
Square pyramidal
Sol. N2O3  Acidic oxide
73 NO and CO  Neutral oxide
ICl3 SN   5  2 lone pair
2
T  Shape CaO Basic oxide
12. What is the IUPAC name of :
7 1
ICl SN   4  3 lone pair
2
Linear

A  R, B  P, C  S, D  Q
(1) 3-formylhept-6-enoic acid
10. The ratio of Rf value for P and R is
(2) 3-aldohept-7-enoic acid
(3) 3-ketohept-6-enoic acid
(4) 3-oxohept-6-enoic acid
Answer (1)

Sol.

3-formylhept-6-enoic acid

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

13. Which of the following metal ions can replace Sol. 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane when treated with
hydrogen ion from an acidic solution? alcoholic OH– undergoes dehydrobromination by E2
mechanism to give 1-methylcyclohexene as the
V 2 , Ti2 , Cr 3
major product
(1) Only one (2) Only two
(3) All of these (4) None of these
Answer (3)
Sol. The standard reduction potential values of the given
metal ions to their respective metals are negative.
16.
EV 2 / V  1.18 V
17.
ETi2 /Ti  1.63 V 18.

ECr 3 /Cr  0.74 V 19.

20.
Therefore, all of these metal ions will replace
hydrogen ion from an acidic solution. SECTION - B

14. Equanil drug is used for which disease? Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1) Infertility contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
(2) Hypertension and depression
integer.
(3) Acidity
(4) Eye-itching 21. How many of the following have zero dipole
moment?
Answer (2)
H2S, CH4, NH3, BF3, SO2, NF3
Sol. Equanil is a mild tranquilizer used to treat
hypertension and depression. Answer (2)

15. Consider the following reaction and identify the Sol.

major product formed in it.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Answer (1) CH4 and BF3 have zero dipole moment

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

22. In an atom, how many maximum electrons that can 1

Sol. Equivalents of charge =
1 96500
have (i) n = 4, (ii) ml = 1, (iii) ms   ?
2 1
Equivalents of Ag deposited =
96500
Answer (3)
108
Mass of Ag deposited = g
Sol. In n = 4 shell, 96500
= 1.12 mg
Nearest integer = 1
25. For the reaction:
Total orbitals with ml = 1  3 CH4  O2  CO2  H2O

1 How many moles of methane will be required for

Total e– with ms   3 formation of 11 g of CO2?
2
Answer (0.25)
Sol. CH4  2O2  CO2  2H2O
1 mole of CH4 will produce 1 mole of CO2
23.
11
So, 11 g of CO2 will be produced by moles of
44
Number of  bonds present in product B is: CH4
1
Answer (4) i.e., moles of CH4 = 0.25
4
26. In the following reaction, HCl formed is titrated with
0.2 moles of NaOH. Calculate the mass of
C2H5–NH2 taken initially.
Sol. H O
C2H5 – NH2  NaNO2 
HCl
 A 
2
 HCl  Alcohol  N2

Answer (9)
Sol.
 C2H5 – N2 Cl– 
HO
C2H5 – NH2  NaNO2 
HCl 2
 C2H5 – OH  HCl  N2
(A) (alcohol)

1 mole of C2H5–NH2 will form 1 mole of

Number of  bonds in B: are : 4 C2H5 – N2 Cl– (A) which will further reacts to form 1
mole of HCl.
24. One coulomb charge is passed through AgNO3  0.2 moles of NaOH is used. So,
solution during electrolysis. Find mass of silver (in nHCl formed = 0.2
mg) deposited at the electrode. (nearest integer) So, nC2H5 –NH2 taken initial = 0.2
Answer (1) Mass of C2H5 – NH2 = 0.2 × 45 = 9

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

27. If square planar complex [MXYZL] has all the four 29. Chromite ore + Na2CO3 
air
 A(s) + B(s) + CO2
fusion
unidentate ligand then find out its total number of
What is the value of sum of magnetic moment (in
geometrical isomers.
B.M.) of A and B? (Nearest integer)
Answer (3)
Answer (6)
Sol. The given square planar complex has 3 geometrical
isomers. Sol. 4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 

8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2

A and B are Na 2 CrO 4 /CrO 24 and Fe2O3.

Oxidation state of Cr in CrO 24 is +6, hence it has

zero electrons in its ns as well as (n – 1)d. So, the

magnetic moment of chromate will be zero.
28. If max for Lyman series of H-atom is 912 Å, then
calculate min for Balmer series of H-atom (in Å). Oxidation state of Fe in Fe2O3 is +3, hence Fe has
(n – 1)d5 ns0 electronic configuration, i.e., five
Answer (2736)
unpaired electron in each Fe. So, the magnetic
Sol. max for Lyman series (E = 2  E = 1)
moment of Fe will be 5.92 B.M.
1 1 1
 R(1)2    Sum is 5.92 + 0.0 = 5.92
912 1 4 
Nearest integer = 6
1 3
 R 30. How many species have zero electron in t2?
912 4

4 TiCl4 , MnO4 , [FeO4 ]2 , [FeCl4 ] , [CoCl4 ]

R
912  3
Answer (3)
min for Balmer series (E    E  2)
Sol. TiCl4  Ti4   3do 4so  eo t o2
1  1
 R(1)   MnO4  Mn7  3do 4so  eo t o2
 4

4 1 [FeO4 ]2  Fe6  3d2 4so  e2 t 02

 
912  3 4
[FeCl4 ]  Fe3  3d5 4so  e2 t 32
1

912  3 [CoCl4 ]  Co3  3d6 4so  e3 t 32

 = 912 × 3 TiCl4 , MnO4 , [FeO4 ]2 , have zero electron in t2

= 2736 Å orbital

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A 57 3
=
λ ⇒ =
λ
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 38 2
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
 3 3 3 
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Q ≡  2   + 1, 3   − 1, 5   + 2 
 2 2 2 
Choose the correct answer:
 7 19 
1. Let image of point (8, 5, 7) with respect to line Q ≡  4, , 
 2 2 
x −1 y +1 z − 2
= = is (α, β, γ). Then α + β + γ is
2 2 5 8+α 5 + β 7 7 + γ 19
∴ = 4,= = ,
equal to 2 2 2 2 2
(1) 10 (2) 12 ⇒ α = 0, β = 2, γ = 12
(3) 9 (4) 14 ∴ (α, β, γ) ≡ (0, 2, 12)
Answer (4) ∴ α + β + γ = 0 + 2 + 12 = 14
Sol. Given point (8, 5, 7) 2. The 50th word in the dictionary using the letters B,
B, H, J, O is
(1) OBBJH (2) OBBHJ
(3) JHBBO (4) BBHOJ
x −1 y +1 z − 2 Answer (1)
→ = =
2 3 5
Sol. Number of words staring with ‘B’ = 4!
= 24
4!
Number of words staring with ‘H’ =
2!
Let Q be general point. = 12
(x, y, z) = (2λ + 1, 3λ – 1, 5λ + 2) Number of words staring with ‘J’ = 12
∴ Now D.R. of P.Q 49th word = OBBHJ
PQ ⇒ (2λ + 1 – 8, 3λ – 1 – 5, 5λ + 2 – 7) 50th word = OBBJH
12
= (2λ – 7, 3λ – 6, 5λ – 5) ...(1)  1 
 3 5 2x 
∴ D.R. of line <2, 3, 5> ....(2) 3.  + 1  . Find which term is constant.
 x 
From (1) and (2)  53 

2(2λ – 7) + 3(3λ – 6) + 5(5λ – 5) = 0 (1) 4th (2) 5th

4λ – 14 + 9λ – 18 + 25λ – 25 = 0 (3) 6th (4) 7th

38λ – 57 = 0 Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening
12
 1  α α α
 3 5 2x 
Sol.  + 1 5. A =  β α –β 
 x   – α α α 
 53 
n–r r B is formed by co-factor of A matrix, then find out
 1   
 35   2x  determinant of AB.
Tr +1 = nCr    1
 x   3 (1) 4α3(2α + β)5
  5 
n–r (2) 12α4(α + β)2
 1 2.x r r
 35  xr –n (3) 8α6(α + β)3
  r
  53 (4) 18α8(α + β)3
For constant term
Answer (3)
r–n+r=0
⇒ 2r – n = 0 α α α
We have n = 12 Sol. A =  β α –β 
⇒ 2r – 12 = 0  – α α α 
r=6
So 7th term is constant.  2α 0 0 
4. Area bounded by y = –2|x| and y = x|x| is A =  β α –β 
2 1  – α α α 
(1) (2)
3 3
1 4 = 2α (α2 + αβ)
(3) (4)
2 3 = 2α2 (α + β)
Answer (4)
Now, β = (adjA)T
Determinant of A⋅B = |A⋅B|
= |A⋅(adjA)T|
= |A|⋅|A|2
Sol. = |A|3
|A|3 = 8α6(α + β)3

6. Consider a equation P ( x )= ax 2 + bx + c= 0 . If
a, b, c ∈ A , were A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} . Then the
0 probability that P(x) has real and distinct roots?
2
Area = ∫ (– x – (2 x ))dx
1 1
–2 (1) (2)
0 4 16
– x3 
= – x2  25 19
3  (3) (4)
–2
108 108
8 4
= – 4 = sq. unit Answer (4)
3 3

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening

Sol. b2 − 4ac > 0

Sol.
⇒ b < 2 not possible

9
⇒ b =3 ⇒ ac <
4

(a, c ) ∈ {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1)} ⇒ 3 cases

⇒ b = 4 ⇒ ac < 4 ⇒ ac = {1, 2, 3}

(a, c ) ∈ {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1), (1, 3)} =
5 ways

25
⇒ b = 5 ⇒ ac < ⇒ ac = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
4 By horizontal line test f(x) is many one and g(x) is
(a, c ) ∈ {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1), (1, 3), (2, 2), one-one.
(4, 1), (1, 4), (3, 2), (2, 3), (5, 1), (1, 5), Option (3) is correct.
(1, 6), (6, 1)} ⇒ 14 ways
8. A line L is perpendicular to y = 2x + 10 such that it
⇒ b = 6 ⇒ ac < 9 ⇒ ac ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} touches the parabola y2 = 4(x – g). Then the
distance between point of contact and origin is
(a, c ) ∈ {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1), (1, 3), (2, 2),
equal to
(4, 1), (1, 4), (3, 2), (2, 3), (5, 1), (1, 5),
(1, 6), (6, 1), (2, 4), (4, 2)} ⇒ 16 ways (1) 165 (2) 175

⇒ 3 + 5 + 14 + 16 =38 cases (3) 185 (4) 190

Answer (3)
38 19
⇒ Probability = =
63 108 Sol. L: 2y + x = c

7. If f : R → R and g: R → R defined such that y2 = 4(x – 9)

Now
f(x) = |x| – 1
2
e x ; x > 0 c − x 
g( x ) =   2 =  4 ( x − 9)
x − 1 ; x ≤ 0  

Then, x2 – 2(c + 8)x + c2 + 144 = 0

(1) Both f and g is one-one D=0

(2) f is one-one and g is many one ⇒ c=5

(3) f is many one and g is one-one ∴ L: 2y + x = 5

(4) f and g both are many one Parabola and L meets at (13, –4)

Answer (3) Now, distance = 185

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening

9. If S = {2, 4, 8, 16, …, 512}. If S is broken in 3 equal 2cos 2θ + cos θ

y=
subsets A, B and C such that A∩B = B∩C = C∩A = φ cos θ(2cos 2θ + cos θ)
and A∪B∪C = S then maximum number of ways to
1
break is y=
cos θ
9 9!
(1) C3 (2) y = secθ
(3!)3
y′ = secθ tanθ
9! 9! y′′ = sec3θ + tanθ⋅(secθ tanθ)
(3) (4) 2
(3!)4 (3!) = sec3θ + sec tan2θ
Answer (2) y′′ + y′ + y = sec3θ + secθtan2θ + secθ tanθ + secθ
Sol. S = {21, 22, 23, …,29} = secθ (sec2θ + 1) + secθ tanθ(tanθ + 1)
= secθ (sec2θ + 1 + tan2θ + tanθ)
= secθ (2sec2θ + tanθ)
11. If 2x2 – x + 2 = 0 and one root is a then
16(1– cos(2 x 2 – x + 2))
lim equals
A∩B = B∩C = A∩C = φ x→
1 (ax – 1)2
a
and = A∪B∪C = S
32(1– a 2 )2 8(1– a 2 )2
⇒ A, B, C are disjoint mutually exhaustive and (1) (2)
a4 a3
exclusive
16(1– a 2 )2 20(1– a 2 )2
9 6 3 9! 6! (3) (4)
⇒ C3 ⋅ C3 ⋅ C3 = × × (1) a4 a3
6!3! 3!3!
Answer (1)
9!
= = 1680
3!3!3! Sol.
2cos 2θ + cos θ
10. If y =
cos3θ + cos2 θ + cos θ
16[1– cos(2 x 2 – x + 2)]
lim
Then value of y ′′ + y ′ + y is x→
1
 1
2
a a2  x – 
(1) secθ(1 – tan3θ)  a

(2) tanθ(sec3θ + 2tan2θ)   1 

16[1– cos 2( x – a )  x –  
  a 
(3) secθ(2sec2θ + tanθ) = lim 2
( x – a )2 . 4
1
x→  1
(4) cotθ(sec3θ + 2tanθ) a a 2 4  x –  ( x – a )2
 a
Answer (3)
2
32  1 
2cos 2θ + cos θ =  – a
Sol. y = a2  a 
cos3θ + cos2 θ + cos θ
2cos 2θ + cos θ 32(1– a 2 )2
y= =
2cos 2θ ⋅ cos θ + cos2 θ a4

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening

1
dy y ⋅ 2x x2
12. If +
2
xe1+ x and y(0) = 0. Given
= f (x) = …(1)
dx (1 + x 2 )2 2
−1 Given y = x …(2)
2
f (x) = y ( x )e1+ x
, then the area bounded between ∴ Area bounded between (1) and (2)
these two curves equals to ____
2
2 1 x2 
(1) (2)
∴ =
A ∫  2 dx
 x −
3 3 0 
7 2
(3) (4) 2  x2 x3 
6 =  − 
 2 6 
Answer (1)  0
1
dy y ⋅ 2x 2 4 8
Sol. + x ⋅ e1+ x
= =  − 
2
dx (1 + x ) 2 2 6
2x 4
∫ 2
dx = 2−
I.F. = e 1+ x 3
Put x2 = t 2
2xdx = dt ⇒
3
dt
∫ Option (1) is correct.
(1+t )2
= e
13. Find the differential equation of circle whose centre
1
−
1+t
lies on y = x and passes through (0, 1).
= e
1 dy 2
− (1) − x 2 + y 2 − 2 xy + 2 x − 1 + ( x + y 2 − 2 + 2y ) =
0
= e 1+x 2 dx
1 1 1 dy 2
− − (2) − x 2 − y 2 − 2 xy + 2 x − 1 + (x + y 2 ) =0
1+ x 2 1+ x 2 e 1+ x 2 dx
y ⋅e ∫ x ⋅e
= dx

1 dy 2
−
2
(3) − x 2 − y 2 − 2 xy + 2 x − 1 + (x − y 2 ) =0
dx
y ⋅e 1+ x
∫ x ⋅ dx
=
1 dy 2
−
x2 (4) x 2 + y 2 − 2 xy + 2 x − 1 + ( x + y 2 − 2) =
0
y ⋅e 1+ x 2 =+c dx
2
Answer (1)
1 1
2
x 1+ x 2 2 Sol. The centre lies on y = x
=y e + c ⋅ e1+ x
2
∴ Centre of circle is of form (a, a)
y(0) = 0
c =0 ∴ It passes through (0, 1)

 1 2 −
1 ∴ The equation of circle will be
 2 x  2
∴ f(x) = e 1+ x ⋅ 1
e x+
  (x – a)2 + (y – a)2 = a2 + (a – 1)2
 2 
  ⇒ x2 + y2 – 2ax – 2ay = –2a + 1 ...(1)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening

Differentiating w.r.t. x & eliminating ‘a’,     

15. =
If a 2,=b 3 and a= b × c then minimum value
dy  2
x+y of c − a is
a= dx
dy (1) 13 (2) 5
1+
dx
40 20
(3) (4)
Putting value of ‘a’ in equation (1), we get 9 9
dy 2 Answer (3)
− x 2 + y 2 − 2 xy + 2 x − 1 + ( x + y 2 − 2 + 2y ) =
0
dx  
Sol.=a 2,= b 3
1 n −1

14. β ( m, n ) = ∫x
m
(1 − x ) m
dx
  
Also, a= b × c
0
   
⇒ a ⋅ b= 0 and a ⋅ c =0
1

∫ (1 − x )
20
a × β ( −b, c=
) 10
dx  2 2 2  
a − c = a + c − 2a ⋅ c
0
2
Then (a + b + c) is equal to = 4+ c
(1) 210     
a = b × c = b sin θ c
(2) 230
 2
(3) 250 ⇒ (sin θ) c =
3
(4) 270
4
⇒ sin2 θ = 2
Answer (1) 9c
1

∫ (1 − x )
20 2 4
10
Sol.=I dx ⇒ c =
0 9 sin2 θ

Applying integration by parts  2 4

a − c =4 +
9 sin2 θ
1
20 1
( ) ( )
 19
10 10 10  2
 x 1 − x
I=  + 200 ∫ x 1 − x dx For a − c to be minimum
0 0
⇒ sinθ = 1
1
(1 − x )
19
I = 200 ∫ x 10 10
dx = a × β ( −b, c ) 4  40 
⇒ 4+ =
0 9  9 

⇒ a = 200 16.
17.
b = –10
18.
c = 20
19.
(200 – 10 + 20) = 210 20.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (05-04-2024)- Evening

SECTION - B π
2x
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
23. If f (t ) = ∫ 1– cos2 t sin2 x dx , then the value of
0
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
π
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest π2
integer. ∫ f (t ) dt is equal to
0

Answer (2)
K
21. Let 41+ x + 41− x , , 16 x + 16− x are in AP then least π
2 2x
value of K is
Sol. f (t ) = ∫ 1– cos2 t sin2 x dx
0
Answer (10) π
(π – x )
K f (t ) = 2 ∫ dx
Sol. 4 1+ x
+4 1− x
, , 16 x + 16− x 0 1– cos2 t sin2 x
2
π
π
K 2f (t ) = 2∫ dx
2 × = 41+ x + 41− x + 16 x + 16− x cos t sin2 x
2
2 0 1–
π
4 sec 2 x
K = 4.4 x + x + 4 2x
+ 4−2x
 f (t ) = π ∫ dx
4
 ≥2 0 sec 2 x – cos2 t tan2 x
≥8
tanx = k
⇒ K ≥ 10 ⇒ K = 10 sec2x dx = dk
22. The number of real solution dk
f (t ) = π ∫
x|x + 5| + 2 |x + 7| – 2 = 0 is 1 + sin2 t k 2
Answer (03.00)
1  –1 
π /2
Sol. x|x + 5| + 2 |x + 7| – 2 = 0 f (t ) = π × tan (sin t × tan x )
sin t  0
π
+  tan–1(sin t tan x ) π
(i) d x ≥ −5 ⇒ x ( x + 5) + 2( x + 7) − 2 =
0
2

x 2 + 7 x + 12 =0 ⇒ x =−3, −4 π π 2
= (=
π)
(ii) x ∈ ( −7, −5) sint sint
π π
x ( − x − 5) + 2( x + 7) − 2 =0 π2
⇒ ∫ π2 dt
= ∫=
sin t dt 2
− x 2 − 3 x + 12 =
0 0 0
sin t
⇒ x 2 + 3 x − 12 =
0
24.
−3 − 57 25.
⇒x= satisfy
2 26.
(iii) x ≤ −7 27.
28.
⇒ x ( − x − 5) + 2( − x − 7) − 2 =0
29.
− x 2 − 7 x − 16 =0 ⇒ x 2 + 7 x + 16 =0 30.
No solution
  

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