MOCK TEST

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have
to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from
Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be
deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be
given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-
fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.
 PHYSICS

SECTION – A

1. A particle is moving in a straight line with velocity (v) = (t – 4) m/s. What is

the average speed between t = 0 to t = 8 second?
(1) 0 ms-1 (2) 1 ms-1
(3) 2 ms-1 (4) 4 ms-1

2. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is due to

(1) Collision of electrons with atoms
(2) Forward biasing
(3) Field emission
(4) All of these

3. A proton and a deuteron enter in a uniform magnetic field with equal kinetic
energy in the direction perpendicular to the field. The ratio of radius of circular
path is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : √2

4. When an elevator is moving downward with a increasing speed, the apparent

weight of a body inside elevator
(1) Will increase
(2) Will decrease
(3) Remains the same
(4) First increase then decrease

5. Two non-zero vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵

⃗⃗ are essentially perpendicular if
(1) 𝐴⃗. 𝐵
⃗⃗ =0 (2) 𝐴⃗ x 𝐵⃗⃗ = 0
(3) 𝐴⃗ + 𝐵 ⃗⃗ = 0 (4) 𝐴⃗ - 𝐵
⃗⃗ = 0
 6. Mercury does not wet glass because
(1) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force
(2) Cohesive force is much greater than adhesive force
(3) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force
(4) Angle of contact is 90°

7. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities λ1 and λ2
respectively are placed at a distance of R. The force per unit length on either
wire will be
(1) 2kλ1λ2/R (2) kλ1λ2/R
(3) 2kλ1λ2/R 2
(4) kλ1λ2/R2

8. Equation of a standing wave is expressed as y = 2Asinωtcoskx. In this

equation, quantity ω/k represents
(1) The speed of standing wave
(2) The speed of either of component wave
(3) The transverse speed of particle of the string
(4) None of these

9. A ball is projected from ground with initial momentum p at an angle θ . What

is the magnitude of net change in linear momentum when it reaches at
maximum height of journey?
(1) psin θ (2) pcos θ
(3) 2psin θ (4) psin θ + pcos θ

10. Gravitational force between two point masses is found to be F when both
are in vacuum. If both the masses are immersed in water, new gravitational
force will be:
(1) Greater than F
(2) Less than F
(3) F
(4) Information insufficient

11. An automobile engine develops 105 W power when rotating at an angular

speed of 900 rad/minute. The instantaneous torque delivered by the engine is
(1) 104 N-m (2) 0.33 x 104 N-m
(3) 0.66 x 104 N-m (4) 2 x 104 N-m

12. A particle of mass m is dropped from rest from a height h0 on a horizontal

floor. The coefficient of restitution between the floor and particle is e.
Maximum height attained by the particle after second collision is
(1) eh0 (2) e2h0
(3) e3h0 (4) e4h0

13. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 36%. The decrease in linear
momentum is
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 36% (4) 45%

14. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value of I0 just after pressing the
key K?

(1) 0.25 A (2) 0.75 A

(3) 2.25 A (4) 1 A

15. A proton moving with velocity v along the axis approaches a circular current
carrying loop as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic force on proton at
this instant is

(1) μ0evR2/ 2(R2 + x2)3/2

(2) μ0eviR2/ 2(R2 + x2)3/2
(3) μ0evR2/ 4n(R2 + x2)3/2
(4) Zero
16. Five metallic plates each of area A and separated from adjacent plate by a
distance d as shown in figure. The capacitance of the system across A and B is:

(1) Aε0/d (2) 2Aε0/d

(3) 3Aε0/d (4) 4Aε0/d

17. 17. The magnetic induction at the centre O in the figure shown is:

18.Which of the following is true?

(1) The Lyman series has a continuous spectrum
(2) The Balmer series is a line spectrum in the UV region
(3) The Paschan series is a line spectrum in the infrared region
(4) Spectral series formula is derived from Rutherford’s model of the
hydrogen atom
19.The missing particles or nuclides in the reactions? (𝑝, 𝛼)16
8 𝑂 and

7𝑁(? , 𝑝)6 𝐶 , respectively, are (𝑝 stands for proton and 𝛼 for alpha
14 14

particle)
(1) 199𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 10𝑛 (2) 189𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 21𝐻 (3) 189𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 01𝑒 (4)
14
7𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 10𝑛
20.The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the
figure. Find the distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds.
 (1) 30 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m
(4) Zero
21.A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in a pond. If the man drink some
water from the pond, what will happen to the level of water in the pond?
(1) Increases (2) Decreases

(3) Remains same (4) Depends on weight

of boat

22.For a region of constant electric potential, which of the following

statements is incorrect?
(1) The electric field may be uniform
(2) The electric field may be zero
(3) There can be no charge inside the region
(4) The electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside
the region
23.Choose the correct statement for the circuit shown in figure
 (1) Potential difference between points 𝐵 and 𝐸 is 10 𝑉.
(2) Potential difference between points 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 15 𝑉
(3) The current in the 4Ω resistor is 0.25𝐴
(4) The current in the 8Ω resistance is 0.25 𝐴
24.A uniform wire of resistance 20 Ω having resistance 1 Ω/𝑚 is bent in the
form of a circle as shown in figure. If the equivalent resistance between 𝐴
and 𝐵 is 1.8 Ω, then length of the shorter section is

(1) 1.8 𝑚 (2) 2 𝑚

(3) 3.6 𝑚 (4) 4 𝑚
25.In a region of space, the electric field is given by 𝐸⃗⃗ = 6𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂ + 7𝑘̂.
Electric flux through a surface of area 200 unit in 𝑦 − 𝑧 plane will be
(1) 1200 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (2) 600 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
(3) 200 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 (4) 800 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡
26.In the diagram shown below, the block has charge 𝑄 and is attached at one
end of the light spring. The surface is smooth and horizontal and spring is
in its natural length. If the electric field 𝐸 is switched on, the maximum
elongation in the spring will be

𝑄𝐸 2𝑄𝐸
(1) (2)
𝑘 𝑘
𝑄𝐸 3𝑄𝐸
(3) (4)
2𝑘 2𝑘

27.Two springs with spring constants 𝑘1 = 1200 𝑁/𝑚 and 𝑘2 = 500 𝑁/𝑚
are stretched by the same force. The ratio of potential energy in the springs
will be
25 12
(1) (2)
144 5
5 144
(3) (4)
10 25

28.A man who can swim with a speed of 2𝑘ℎ/ℎ wants to cross a river 200 𝑚
wide. If the river is flowing with a speed of 3𝑘𝑚/ℎ then in what minimum
time can the man cross the river?
(1) 4 minute (2) 6 minute
(3) 12 minute (4) 8 minute
29.Consider the following two statements .
(A)The gravitational force on a particle inside a spherical shell is zero.
(B) Total mechanical energy of a body on earth’s surface may be positive.

Which of the following options is correct?

(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect.
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is incorrect.
(3) Statements A and B are correct
(4) Statements A and B are incorrect
30.Two conducting rods inclined at ′𝜃′ angle from horizontal are kept parallel
at separation ′𝑙′ to each other. A resistor of resistance 𝑅 joins the two rods
at their topmost point. A metal bar of length ′𝑙′ is free to slide on the rods
as shown in figure. on releasing from rest, the maximum speed that can be
attained by the bar if a constant magnetic field 𝐵 exists vertically
downwards, is

𝑅𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑅𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑅𝑚𝑔 𝑅𝑚𝑔

(1) (2) (3) (4)
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝐵2 𝑙 2 cos2 𝜃 𝐵2 𝑙 2 sin 𝜃 𝐵2 𝑙 2

31.The radius of circle, the period of revolution 𝑇, initial position and sense
of revolution are indicated in the figure. x-projection of the radius vector
of rotating particle 𝑃 is

𝜋 𝜋
(1) 𝑥(𝑡) = 5 sin ( 𝑡) (2) 𝑥(𝑡) = −5 sin ( 𝑡)
5 5
 𝜋 𝜋
(3) 𝑥(𝑡) = 5 − 5 sin ( 𝑡) (4) 𝑥(𝑡) = −5 + 5 sin ( 𝑡)
5 5

32.Deviation of light ray by a thin prism of refractive index 𝜇 and refracting

angle 𝐴 is
𝐴
(1) 𝜇𝐴 (2) (𝜇−1)
𝐴
(3) (4) (𝜇 − 1)𝐴
𝜇

33.A telescope with objective of focal length 100 𝑐𝑚 and eyepiece of focal
length 5 𝑐𝑚 is focused on a far object such that parallel rays emerge from
eyepiece. If object subtends an angle of 10 on objective, the angular size
of image is
(1) 100 (2) 50
(3) 200 (4) 800
34.A car is skidding on an icy road with speed 𝑣 and tyres are rotating with
𝑣
angular speed , where 𝑅 is the radius of tyres. The distance travelled by
3𝑅

car in one rotation of tyres is

2𝜋𝑅
(1) 2𝜋𝑅 (2)
3
4𝜋𝑅
(3) (4) 6𝜋𝑅
3

35.The ratio of tensions 𝑇𝐴 : 𝑇𝐵 in two strings 𝐴 and 𝐵 supporting a log of mass

𝑀 as shown in figure is

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
 SECTION – B

36.A prism has refracting angle of 300 and it is made of glass of refractive
index √2. At what angle should a light ray be incident on a face of prism
such that it passes normally through the other face?
(1) 300 (2) 600
(3) 450 (4) 900
37.From a sprinkler of length 1 𝑚, water is throw out with 0.5 𝑚/𝑠
tangentially at the rate of 0.6 𝑘𝑔/𝑚𝑖𝑛. If diameter of sprinkler is 8 𝑐𝑚 and
moment of inertia is 500 𝑔 𝑐𝑚2 , the rate at which angular speed of
sprinkler will increases is (assume there in no resistance to motion)
(1) 10 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2 (2) 100 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2
(3) 1000 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2 (4) 10000 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2
38.A block of mass 2 𝑚 is moving with speed 𝑣 towards a spring block
system as shown in the figure. if collision of the two blocks is perfectly
inelastic then maximum compression in the spring will be

𝑣 3𝑚 𝑣 2𝑚
(1) √ (2) √
𝑘 9𝑘

𝑣 2𝑚 𝑣 4𝑚
(3) √ (4) √
3𝑘 3𝑘

39.Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of

distance. Then, time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around
the sum will be proportional to
𝑛−1
(1) 𝑅 𝑛
(2) 𝑅 2

𝑛+1
(3) 𝑅 2 (4) 𝑅𝑛/2
40.A uniform wire of resistance 𝑅 is stretched uniformly to 𝑛 times. It is then
cut to form five wires of equal length. These wires are arranged as shown
in figure. the effective resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐶 is

𝑛2 𝑅 𝑛2 𝑅
(1) (2)
3 5
𝑛𝑅 𝑛𝑅
(3) (4)
5 3

41.A 1𝜇𝐹 capacitor is charged by 100𝑉 supply. It is then disconnected from

the supply and is connected to another uncharged 1𝜇𝐹 capacitor. The
percentage of energy lost in form of heat and electromagnetic radiation is
(1) 25% (2) 30%
(3) 60% (4) 50%
42.An electron of mass ‘𝑚’ with an initial velocity 𝑣⃗ = 𝑣0 𝑖̂ is in electric field
ℎ
𝐸⃗⃗ = 𝐸0 𝑗̂. If 𝜆0 = , its de Broglie wavelength at time ‘𝑡’ is given by
𝑚𝑣0

(Check the symbols for vectors)

𝜆0 𝑒 2 𝐸02 𝑡 2
(1) 𝜆0 (2) √1 +
𝑚2 𝑣02

𝜆0 𝜆0
(3) (4)
𝑒2 𝐸2
0𝑡
2 𝑒2 𝐸2
0𝑡
2
√1+ √1−
𝑚2 𝑣20 𝑚2 𝑣20
43.A cube of mass ‘𝑚’ and density ‘𝐷’ is suspended from the point ‘𝑃’ by a
spring of stiffness 𝑘 as shown in figure. The system is kept inside a beaker
filled with a liquid of density ‘𝑑’, where 𝐷 > 𝑑. What is the elongation in
the spring?

𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔𝑑
(1) (2)
𝑘 𝑘𝐷
𝑚𝑔 𝑑 𝑚𝑔 𝐷
(3) (1 − 𝐷) (4) (1 − 𝑑 )
𝑘 𝑘

44.In which of the following numerical values, all zeroes are significant?
(1) 0.04040 (2) 40.4 × 1030

(3) 40.40 (4) 0.0404

𝐼𝐶 𝐼𝐶 20 100
45.In a transistor if = 𝛼 and = 𝛽. If 𝛼 varies between and , then
𝐸𝐸 𝐼𝐵 21 101

the value of 𝛽 lies between

(1) 1 − 10 (2) 0.95 − 0.99
(3) 200 − 300 (4) 20 − 100
46.Two long straight conductors carry currents 3𝐴 and 1𝐴 into the plane of
paper. A circular path is imagined to enclose these currents. The value of
𝑑𝑙 is
⃗⃗. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
∮𝐵
(1) 6𝜇0 (2) 4𝜇0
(3) 𝜇0 (4) 3𝜇0
47.For the setup shown in figure, the distance between slits much smaller as
compared to the distance of slits from the screen. The total number of
minimas on the screen are (where 𝑑 = 4𝜆)

(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 6
48.For a given system find out 𝑇1 ′ and 𝑇2 ′ (forces exerted by the pulley on the
support) respectively.

(1) 4√2, 6√2 (2) 72√2, 60√2

(3) 80√2, 36√3 (4) 40√2, 3√2
49.An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 → 2 as shown in the figure, the heat
supplied and work done in the process is ∆𝑄 and ∆𝑊 respectively. The
ratio ∆𝑄: ∆𝑊 is

(1) 𝛾: (𝛾 − 1) (2) 𝛾
(3) (𝛾 − 1) (4) (𝛾 − 1): 𝛾
50.In a series 𝐶 − 𝑅 circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10𝑉 and
the voltage across the capacitor is found to be 8𝑉. The voltage across 𝑅
and the phase difference between current and the applied voltage will be
respectively.

4 3
(1) 6𝑉, tan−1 ( ) (2) 3𝑉, tan−1 ( )
3 4

3 4
(3) 6𝑉, tan−1 ( ) (4) 6𝑉, sin−1 ( )
4 3
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A

51. The first co-ordination number of Cs+ in CsCl lattice is

(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 3

52. Packing efficiency of fcc lattice is

53. Which of the following aqueous solution has highest boiling point?
(1) 0.1 M Glucose
(2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.1 M K2SO4
(4) 0.1 M K4[Fe (CN)6]

54. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B in pure state are 400 and 500 mm of Hg respectively
then mole fraction of A in vapour phase of solution obtained by mixing equal moles of A and B is
(1) 1/2 (2) 3/5
(3)4/9 (4) 2/3

55. Which among the following is malachite?

(1) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(2) Cu2O
(3) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(4) Cu2S.Fe2S3

56. When CaC2 reacts with H2O then, it gives

(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(3) C2H6 (4) CH4

57. Which of the following is not an acidic oxide?

(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O3

58. Which of the following is least likely to exist?

(1) HClO4 (2) HIO3
(3) HOF (4) HBrO2

59. The effective atomic number of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6] is

(1) 35 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 34
60. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
(1) OH- < I- < NCS- (2) I- < OH- < NCS-
(3) NCS < I < OH
- - - (4) OH- < NCS-< I-

61. Benzotrichloride on reaction with aq. KOH followed by hydrolysis gives

62. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

63. Which of the following compounds will give positive test with FeCl 3?

64. Most acidic among the following is:

65. Which of the following aqueous solution will have the maximum specific conductance?
(1) 0.1 M HCl (2) 0.1 M Glucose
(3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M NH4OH

66. For which order reaction, half-life is inversely proportional to the concentration of reactant?
(1) Zero (2) First
(3) Second (4) Half

67. Emulsion is a colloidal solution of

(1) Liquid in liquid (2) Liquid in solid
(3) Gas in liquid (4) Solid in gas

68. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq.) Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq.), E° = 1.10 V at 298 K is
(1) 1042.38 (2) 1028.56
(3) 1050.73 (4) 1037.22

69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of physisorption of a gas on solid surface?
(1) Reversible in nature
(2) Uni-molecular layer formation
(3) Involves van der waals forces
(4) Low enthalpy of adsorption

70. The ionization constant of HCN is 4.5 × 10–10 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of sodium cyanide is
(1) 1.11 × 10–6 (2) 3.33 × 10–4
(3) 2.22 × 10–5 (4) 4.44 × 10–7

71. Which of the following equilibrium will shift in forward direction on applying pressure?
(1) SO2(g) + 1/2O2 (g) SO3 (g)
(2) PCl5(g) PCl5(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)
(4) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2

72. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is

(1) +8 (2) +6
(3) +4 (4) +7

73. An element with atomic number 50 belongs to

(1) s-block (2) p-block
(3) d-block (4) f-block

74. Identify the incorrect match

75. The correct shape and hybridization for XeF2 are
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2
(2) Planar triangle, sp3d3
(3) Linear, sp3d
(4) Square planar, sp3d

76. Which of the following species is nonpolar?

(1) NF3 (2) SO2
(3) BF3 (4) NO2

77. Which among the following has maximum number of atoms among the following?
(1) 22 g CO2 (2) 16 g O3
(3) 14 g N2 (4) 24 g Mg

78. If 65.5 g of a metal chloride contains 35.5 g chlorine, then equivalent mass of metal is
(1) 30 (2) 35.5
(3) 40.5 (4) 25

79. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes in 3p orbital respectively are
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 0 and 1

80. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation between
their frequencies i.e. v1 and v2 will be
(1) v1 = 2v2 (2) 2v1 = v2
(3) v1 = v2/4 (4) v1 = 4v2

81. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 that will be needed to react with one mole of nitrite ion in acidic
solution is
(1) 2/3 (2)1/3
(3) 1/6 (4) ½

82. A gas at 300 K and 10 bar has molar volume 10% more than that for an ideal gas under the same
conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
83. Which among the following is not a state function?
(1) Gibbs energy (2) Pressure
(3) Temperature (4) Work

84. Select the incorrect statement among the following

(1) Ortho and para hydrogen differ in proton spin
(2) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
(3) Covalent hydrides are formed by p-block elements
(4) H2O2 oxidises PbS into SO2

85. Select the correct statement among the following

(1) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as lime water
(2) Crude sodium chloride obtained by crystallisation of brine solution contains MgSO4
(3) Beryllium salts are rarely hydrolysed
(4) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of Ca than in plaster of Paris

SECTION – B

86. +1 oxidation state is most stable for

(1) Tl (2) In
(3) Ga (4) B

87. Among the following second ionisation energy is maximum for

(1) V (2) Ti
(3) Cr (4) Mn

88. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless?
(1) Fe2+ (2) Zn2+
(3) Ni2+ (4) V3+

89. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) n-butyl alcohol (2) sec. butyl alcohol
(3) iso-butyl alcohol (4) tert. butyl alcohol

90. Cannizzaro reaction will not take place in

(1) HCHO (2)

(3) CH3CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO

91. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction is given by

(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH

92. Strongest base among the following is

(1) N,N-Diethylethanamine
(2) Phenylmethanamine
(3) Benzamine
(4) N,N–Dimethylaniline

93. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product (D)

the structure of the product D would be

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

94. The essential amino acid among the following is

(1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(3) Glutamine (4) Histidine

95. Monomer of Nylon-6 is

(1) Acrylonitrile (2) Chloroprene
(3) Caprolactam (4) Styrene

96. Photochemical smog does not contain

(1) O3 (2) SO2
(3) PAN (4) NOx

97. A single compound of the structure

is obtain from ozonolysis of which of the following

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

98. Non-aromatic species among the following is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

99. The correct IUPAC name of Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2 is

(1) 3-Chloroprop-1-ene (2) 1-Chloroprop-2-ene
(3) 1-Chloroprop-1-ene (4) 3-Chloroprop-2-ene

100. The number of aldehyde isomers for C4H8O will be

(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5

BOTANY
SECTION – A

101. Which of the given cell organelles is the important site of glycosylation of proteins?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuoles

102. Which of the given chromosomes appear L-shaped during anaphase?

(1) Metacentric chromosome
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Telocentric chromosome

103. How many generations of mitosis are required for producing 32 cells?
(1) 16 (2) 32
(3) 8 (4) 5

104. All of the given are significance of meiosis, except

(1) Formation of gamete
(2) Maintenance of chromosome number
(3) Maintenance of cell size
(4) Introduction of variation

105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. rules of Binomial nomenclature

(1) Biological names are generally taken from Latin language irrespective of their origin
(2) Each organism is given only one name consisting of one word
(3) The first word denoting genus starts with a capital letter
(4) The name of the author or discoverer is written after specific epithet in abbreviated form

106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic categories of mango.

(1) Family - Anacardiaceae
(2) Order - Dicotyledonae
(3) Division - Angiospermae
(4) Genus - Mangifera

107. In which of the given protists, the cell wall resembles a soap box?
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds

108. The algal partner of lichens

(1) Is called mycobiont
(2) Absorbs water and minerals
(3) Forms bulk body of lichens
(4) Performs photosynthesis

109. How many of the given plants have actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers, respectively?
Mustard, Gulmohur, Canna, Cassia, Datura, Pea
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 3 and 2
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 and 2

110. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family Fabaceae?

(1) Petunia (2) Gloriosa
(3) Muliathi (4) Belladonna

111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in

(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem

112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot root.

(1) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots
(2) Vascular bundles are polyarch
(3) Cambium develops at the time of secondary growth
(4) Pith is large and well developed

113. Red algae

(1) Have chlorophyll a and b as major pigments
(2) Have starch as stored food
(3) Contain cellulose and algin in their cell wall
(4) Lack flagella

114. Double fertilisation is an unique event to which of the given plant groups?
(1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms

115. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic solid particles of a substance without forming a
solution is called
(1) Plasmolysis (2) Imbibition
(3) Transpiration (4) Guttation

116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. apoplast pathway of absorption of water in plants.
(1) It consists of living parts of plant body
(2) There is a little resistance in the movement of water
(3) It is faster
(4) It is not affected by metabolic state of root
117. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly in which of its given form from the soil?
(1) NO-2 (2) NO-3
(3) NH+4 (4) Both (1) and (3)

118. Which of the given monerans fixes nitrogen symbiotically as well as in free-living state?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
(3) Frankia (4) Anabaena

119. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in C3 cycle is a

(1) 3-carbon aldose sugar
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar
(3) 3-carbon ketose sugar
(4) 5-carbon aldose sugar

120. During photorespiration, loss of CO2 occurs in which of the given cell organelles?
(1) Chloroplast (2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Sphaerosome

121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. intermediates of Krebs cycle and their products
(1) Acetyl CoA – Carotenoids
(2) Succinyl CoA – Pyrimidines
(3) Oxaloacetic acid – Alkaloids
(4) alpha-Ketoglutaric acid – Amino acid synthesis

122. Select the correct option w.r.t. increasing order of respiratory quotient of various substrates.
(1) Fats < Protein < Oxalic acid
(2) Malic acid < Oxalic acid < Fat
(3) Protein < Fat < Malic acid
(4) Oxalic acid < Protein < Malic acid

123. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: All GAs are acidic
Statement B: Tomato is a long day plant
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

124. Stimulus for vernalisation is perceived by

(1) Shoot apex (2) Embryo of the seed
(3) Leaves (4) Both (1) and (2)

125. Match the columns w.r.t. plants and their reproductive structure.

Column-I Column-II
a. Chlamydomonas (i) Conidia
b. Penicillium (ii) Rhizome
c. Eichhornia (iii) Zoospore
d. Ginger (iv) Offset
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
126. Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given plant groups?
(1) Algae (2) Bryophyte
(3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm

127. All of the given are true w.r.t. innermost wall layer of anther, except
(1) Surrounds sporogenous tissue
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) Their cells nourish developing pollen grains
(4) Possess dense cytoplasm

128. The largest cell of embryo sac is

(1) Synergids (2) Egg
(3) Antipodal cells (4) Central cell

129. If a colour-blind female marries a normal male. The probability of their daughter(s) being
colourblind is
(1) Zero (2) 0.5
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75

130. In which genetic condition, each cell in the affected person has only one sex chromosome, i.e.
XO?
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Haemophilia

131. All of the given are stop codons, except

(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UAG (4) UGA

132. Opening of DNA helix during transcription is performed by

(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Ligase (4) Topoisomerase

133. Agriculture contributes about __A___ of India’s GDP and gives employment to nearly ___B___
of the population.
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.

A B
(1) 33% 62%
(2) 62% 33%
(3) 35% 89.5%
(4) 89.5% 35%

134. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight
black rot, is a variety of which of the given crop?
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica
(3) Chilli (4) Cauliflower
135. Which of the given household product is obtained by using only bacteria?
(1) Bread (2) Toddy
(3) Dosa (4) Camembert cheese

SECTION – B

136. Cyclosporin-A is used as an immunosuppressive agent. It is produced by

(1) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Rhizopus

137. Population is said to be mature or stable, when

(1) Size of population increases rapidly
(2) Growth rate being almost zero
(3) Population shows a declined growth
(4) Age pyramid for human population appears like a triangle

138. Which of the given contribute to increase the population density during a given period in an
area?
(i) Natality (ii) Mortality
(iii) Immigration (iv) Emigration
(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) Both (ii) and (iii)
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) Both (ii) and (iv)

139. Anthropogenic ecosystem possesses all of the given characteristics, except

(1) Have little diversity
(2) Self regulatory mechanism
(3) Simple food chain
(4) Little cycling of nutrients

140. In hydrarch succession, the successional series progress from

(1) Xeric to mesic condition
(2) Hydric to mesic condition
(3) Xeric to hydric condition
(4) Hydric to xeric condition

141. Among vertebrates which of the given species contributes maximum to global biodiversity?
(1) Fish (2) Mammals
(3) Birds (4) Reptiles

142. Rivet-popper hypothesis was given by

(1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Robert May
(4) David Tilman
143. In aquatic food chain, biomagnification is found to be highest in which of the given organism?
(1) Zooplankton
(2) Phytoplankton
(3) Large fish
(4) Fish-eating birds

144. Which of the given greenhouse gases contributes minimum to total global warming?
(1) CO2 (2) CH4
(3) N2O (4) CFC
145. Read the given statements stating true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder
B. Sickle cell anaemia exhibits transversion substitution mutation
C. Polarity of template strand which forms continuous complementary strand during replication is
5’ 3’
D. Human genome project as ‘Mega project’ was a 13-year project
A B C D

(1) T F T F
(2) F F F F
(3) T T T T
(4) T T F T

146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grains.

(1) It represents male gametophyte
(2) These are generally spherical in structure
(3) Their wall consists of exine and intine layers
(4) Their inner wall has prominent apertures called germ pores.

147. The phenotype of F1 hybrid resemble both of the parents in

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Dominance
(4) Both (1) and (3)

148. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by

(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) A.R. Wallace
(4) Charles Darwin

149. Which of the given nitrogenous bases is/are purine?

a. Cytosine b. Adenine
c. Uracil d. Guanine
(1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(3) Both b and d (4) Only a

150. How many types of histones form core part of nucleosome?

(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Four
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Choose the odd one w.r.t. menstrual cycle.
(1) Humans (2) Apes
(3) Tiger (4) Monkeys

152. How many chromosomes are present in a rat sperm cell?

(1) 21 (2) 42
(3) 23 (4) 19

153. Read the statement and choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
In a human male, each testis has about ________ compartments called testicular lobules.
(1) 125 (2) 250
(3) 150 (4) 280

154. How many of the items given below in box belongs to human male reproductive system?
Seminal vesicles, Glans penis, Prostate gland, Infundibulum, Foreskin, Hymen, Mons pubis
(1) Six (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Three

155. At which stage of oogenesis does theca layer organise itself into inner theca interna and outer
theca externa?
(1) Secondary follicle (2) Primary follicle
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Corpus luteum

156. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. World's (i) 1 billion
population
in year 2000
b. India's (ii) 7.2 billion
population
in year 2000
c. India's (iii) 6 billion
population
in May 2011
d. World's (iv) 1.2 billion
population
in year 2011
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

157. All of the following are the features of an ideal contraceptive except
(1) Easily available (2) Effective
(3) Irreversible (4) User-friendly
158. How many items given in the box below are IUDs?
Cu7, LNG-20, Saheli, Lippes loop, Nirodh, Progestasert, Depo-Provera
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One

159. Read the statements and choose the option that states all the correct ones.
(i) Vertebrate hearts are example of homologous organs
(ii) Eye of octopus and mammals are analogous
(iii) Darwin's finches are examples of evolution by anthropogenic action
(iv) Evolution of modern man appears to be parallel evolution of human brain and language
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) Only (ii) and (iv)

160. Australian marsupial spotted cuscus shows convergent evolution with a placental mammal called
_____.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
(1) Bobcat (2) Mole
(3) Lemur (4) Flying squirrel

161. Read the following statements w.r.t. evolution of man and choose the incorrect one.
(1) Homo habilis were the first human like being the hominid
(2) Homo erectus had a large brain around 650- 800 cc
(3) Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) Neanderthal man used hides to protect their body

162. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Plague (i) Haemophilus influenzae
b. Pneumonia (ii) Babesia
c. Filariasis (iii) Entamoeba histolytica
d. Babesiosis (iv) Yersinia pestis
(v) Wuchereria

(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii)

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii)

163. How many of the following are associated with the harmful effect of smoking?

Bronchitis, Emphysema, Coronary heart disease, Cancer of lung, Cancer of urinary bladder, Gastric
ulcer
(1) Six (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four

164. Complete the analogy for the following

Marine fish : Pomfret : : Freshwater fish :
(1) Hilsa (2) Mackerel
(3) Sardine (4) Common carp
165. Which is the most common species of honey bee in India?
(1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis indica
(3) Apis dorsata (4) Apis florea

166. Read the following statements about agarose gel electrophoresis and choose the incorrect
option.
(1) The agarose gel used in the technique is extracted from seaweeds
(2) The DNA fragments separate according to their size
(3) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised after staining with ethidium bromide followed by
exposure to infrared rays
(4) DNA fragments move from cathode to anode under the influence of an electric field

167. Select the odd one w.r.t. downstream processing.

(1) Separation
(2) Preservatives
(3) Marketing
(4) Purification

168. Transgenic animals exist for which of the following human diseases?
a. Alzheimer's b. Cancer
c. Cystic fibrosis
Choose the option which includes all the correct ones
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) Only a and c

169. A plasmid containing complete gene copied from human genome is introduced in a bacterial cell,
but the bacteria is unable to make a working copy of the protein because
(1) It cannot recognise the start codon in mRNA
(2) Of the absence of similar amino acids in bacteria
(3) Of the absence of similar splicing machinery
(4) The foreign gene cannot replicate in bacteria

170. Read the following statements about insulin and choose the option that states all correct
statements.
a. Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattles and pigs
b. Mature insulin do not contain polypeptide C
c. Mature insulin consists of two short polypeptides: chain A and chain B
d. During commercial production of insulin, chain A and B were produced together, extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bonds
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only b, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d (4) Only b and c

171. The first restriction endonuclease isolated was

(1) Eco RI (2) Hind III
(3) Hind II (4) Bam HI

172. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Small intestine (i) pH 6.8
b. Salivary amylase (ii) pH 1.8
c. Urine (iii) pH 7.8
d. Gastric HCl (iv) pH 6
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

173. Read the statements w.r.t. disorders of digestive system and choose the option that correctly fill
the blanks A and B.
(i) Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents through the mouth, which is controlled by vomit centre
present in .__A___
(ii) In jaundice, skin and eyes turn yellow due to deposit of ___B___.

A B
(1) Pons Bile pigments
(2) Medulla Bile pigments
(3) Medulla Bile salts
(4) Pons Bile salts

174. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is called
(1) Residual volume
(2) Vital capacity
(3) Functional residual capacity
(4) Expiratory capacity

175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(1) High pO2
(2) Low pCO2
(3) Higher H+ concentration
(4) Lower temperature

176. Match column I with column II w.r.t. percentage of leucocytes and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65 per cent
b. Neutrophils (ii) 20-25 per cent
c. Basophils (iii) 2-3 per cent
d. Lymphocytes (iv) 0.5-1 per cent
(v) 6-8 per cent
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(i), b(v), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v)

177. Study the following diagrams w.r.t. blood groups and donor compatibility and choose the correct option.

178. Choose the mismatch among the following.

(1) Antennal glands – Prawns
(2) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
(3) Nephridia – Earthworm
(4) Flame cells – Pila
179. Complete the analogy for the following
Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes : PCT : : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ :
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Henle's loop (4) Bowman's capsule

180. Malfunctioning of kidneys may lead to a condition called uremia in which

(1) Urea is accumulated in urine
(2) Uric acid is accumulated in blood
(3) Urea is accumulated in blood
(4) Uric acid is accumulated in joints

181. Read the following statements w.r.t. muscle contraction and choose the option that states all the
correct statements.
a. Actin and myosin filaments do not get short but rather slide passes each other
b. The size of A-band reduces
c. Length of H-zone decreases
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(3) a and c (4) Only a

182. Read the following statements about human skeleton system and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) and false (F).
a. Total number of bones in hind limbs are 60
b. There are 26 bones in vertebral column of an adult man
c. There are 2 pairs of vertebrochondral ribs
d. Axial skeleton is comprised of 80 bones
a b c d
(1) T F F T
(2) T T F T
(3) F T T F
(4) F T T T

183. Association areas in forebrain of humans are associated with

a. Communication
b. Memory
c Intersensory associations
Choose the option which includes all the correct ones
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a, b and c (4) c only

184. The inner layer of eye, retina contains three layers of neural cells, which does not include
(1) Photoreceptor cells (2) Unipolar cells
(3) Ganglion cells (4) Bipolar cells

185. Consider the following statements w.r.t. endocrine system and choose the correct option.
a. is released from hypothalamus, which inhibits the release of growth hormone from pituitary gland. A
b. Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone called . B
A B
(1) GnRH FSH
(2) Somatostatin MSH
(3) GnRH LH
(4) Somatotrophin MSH
 SECTION – B

186. All of the following are associated with catecholamines except

(1) Increase alertness
(2) Heartbeat increases
(3) Glycogenesis
(4) Piloerection

187. Consider the following statements about glucocorticoids.

a. They stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
b. They produce inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune system
c. They stimulate RBC production
d. They promote cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One

188. All of the following hormones interact with membrane bound receptors except
(1) Epinephrine (2) Insulin
(3) Cortisol (4) ADH

189. Bone cells present in lacunae are called

(1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteocytes
(3) Chondrocytes (4) Chondroblasts

190. Read the following statements about cockroach and choose the incorrect one.
(1) The hind wings are used in flight
(2) Anal styles are absent in females
(3) The inner thick layer of crop forms six highly chitinous plate called teeth
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory products from haemolymph

191. Uricose glands in cockroach are associated with

(1) Digestion
(2) Excretion
(3) Circulation
(4) Respiration

192. Study the graphs given below and choose the option which correctly shows the activity of enzyme,
salivary amylase.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

193. The bond which connects a nitrogenous base with deoxyribose sugar in a nucleotide of DNA
molecule is
(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Ester bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

194. Which of the following play known roles in normal physiological processes?
(1) Concanavalin A (2) Abrin
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Tryptophan

195. Study the given picture of actin filament carefully and choose the option that correctly labels A and B.
 A B
(1) Troponin Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin F actin
(3) Tropomyosin F actin
(4) F actin Troponin

196. Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures formed during spermatogenesis?
(1) Primary spermatocytes Spermatogonium Spermatids Spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonium Primary spermatocytes Spermatozoa Spermatids
(3) Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonium Secondary spermatocytes Primary spermatocytes Spermatozoa

197. Complete the analogy regarding assisted reproductive technologies.

IUT : Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into uterus : : ZIFT : ______
(1) Only zygote is transferred into fallopian tube
(2) Only embryo with 4 blastomeres is transferred into fallopian tube
(3) Zygote is transferred into uterus
(4) Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) is transferred into fallopian tube

198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. secondary lymphoid organs.
(1) Peyer's patches
(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Tonsils

199. The protein produced by some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis can kill all of the following except
(1) Beetles
(2) Armyworm
(3) Flies
(4) Ants

200. Consider the following statements regarding regulation of respiration.

a. Role of oxygen is insignificant in regulation of respiratory rhythm.
b. An increase in concentration of CO2 and H+ ions, in arterial blood, activate chemosensitive area,
which in turn signals pneumotaxic centre to make necessary adjustments.
c. Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration.
d. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can increase the duration of inspiration.
Choose the option that mentions all correct statements.
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only a, c and d
(3) Only a and c (4) a, b, c and d