Prelims 5
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Prelims Test 5- 150 Marks
QUES TIONS
S EC T IONS
1. History - 30 Questions
2. Geography - 30 Questions
3. Current Affairs - 30 Questions
4. M ental Abilities - 30 Questions
5. Society - 30 Questions
S ection 1 : History - 30 Questions
1 Consider the following statements.
Wetlands Fact/Contribution
Sarojini Naidu New India
Newspaper
1.
Anni Besant Wrote The
Broken Wing
2.
Harish Chandra Mukherjee Indigo Revolt
(1860)
3.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar ‘Borno Porichoy’
Book
4.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 1 of 201
How Many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Only One Pair
Only Two Pairs
Only Three Pairs
All the four pairs
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
2 With reference to Azad Hind Fauj (or) Indian National Army (INA), during freedom
struggle Consider the following statements.
1. The INA was first formed under captain Mohan Singh to work in collaboration with
the Japanese for India’s freedom
2. The Indian National Congress did not make any efforts to support those officers of the
Indian National Army, who were to be charged during the INA trials.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 2 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
3 Consider the following statements.
1. The first Mongol invasion of India took place in the reign of Sultan Shams-ud-din
lltutmish.
2. Alauddin Khilji converted the capture Mongols into Islam, and they came to be known
as ‘Nau Musalman’
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
4 Consider the following statements
1. Simon Commission was appointed as per the Government of India Act, 1919
2. Simon commission had Indian representation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 3 of 201
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
5 With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured
labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the
resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National
Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
6 Consider the following statements
1. Hindustani Seva Mandal was established within the Indian National Congress in
1924 (and not a separate organisation) due to efforts of N S Hardikar.
2. The main purpose of the Seva Dal was to recruit volunteers for the Congress.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 4 of 201
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
7 Consider the following statements
1. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose jointly set up the Independence for
India League
2. The league was established due to disappointment of Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas
Chandra Bose with the idea of dominion status in the Nehru Report
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
8 Consider the following statements
1. The Age of Consent Act 1891 was the first legislation in British India which
regulated child marriage.
2. The efforts of B. M Malabari led to the enactment of the Age of Consent Act 1891,
which raised the marriage age of girls.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 5 of 201
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
9 He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America
for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
Aurobindo Ghosh
Bipin Chandra Pal
Lala Lajpat rai
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
10 Consider the following statements
1. The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed by Dr B.R Ambedkar
2. Mahatma Gandhi set up the All-India Anti-Untouchability League
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 6 of 201
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
11 Consider the following statements
1. The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement
2. Swadeshi Movement contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and
industries
3. During Swadeshi Movement, a Bengal Institute of Technology was set up for
technical education
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
12 Consider the following statements
1. The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda for humanitarian
relief
2. The Ramakrishna Mission subscribed to the Vedanta philosophy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 7 of 201
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
13 Consider the following pairs:
1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1,3 only
2,3 only
1,2 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
14 Consider the following statements
1. Mohammedan Anglo Oriental Defence Association was as a part of the Aligarh
Movement.
2. The aim of the Deoband Movement was moral and religious regeneration of the
Muslim community.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 8 of 201
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
15 Satya Shodhak Samaj organized
a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
a peasant movement in Punjab
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
16 The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of
the Europeans
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 9 of 201
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
17 The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time
during the
Swadeshi Movement
1857 Revolt
Non-Cooperation movement
Home Rule Movement
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
18 Annie Besant was
1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
3. once the President of the Indian National Congress
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 10 of 201
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
19 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
20 Consider the following statements
1. The Puranas were written in simple Sanskrit verse, and were meant to be heard by
everybody, including women and shudras.
2. The Puranas contain stories about gods and goddesses, such as Vishnu, Shiva,
Durga or Parvati.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 11 of 201
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
21 Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
Chanhudaro
Kot Diji
Sohgaura
Desalpur
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
Buddhist Sites Location
22
1.Thotlakonda Andhra Pradesh
2. Vajragiri Odisha
3. Dhauli Rock-Cut Odisha
Elephant
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 12 of 201
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
23 With reference to Rig Vedic Period, Consider the following statements
1. In the Rig Vedic period the king's post was hereditary
2. The Rigveda does not mention any officer for administering justice
3. The princes received voluntary offerings called as Bali from the people
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
24 Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of
water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water
into connected reservoirs?
Dholovira
Kalibangan
Rakigarhi
None of the above
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 13 of 201
25 In the context of Ancient Indian History, Consider the following statements
1. Village headmen were called Bhojaka
2. A gahapati was the owner, master or head of a household, who exercised control
over the women, children, slaves and workers who shared a common residence
3. Both artisans and merchants started living in fixed localities known as merchant
streets or Vessas
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1,2 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
26 Consider the following statements
1. The doctrine of Pratitya-Samutpada in Buddhism preaches the middle path
between the principle of eternity and annihilation
2. Anekantavada is one of the most important and fundamental doctrines of
Buddhism
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 14 of 201
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
27 Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of
the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
22nd March (or 21st March)
15th May (or 16th May)
31st March (or 30th March)
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
Famous place Region
28
1. Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
5. Tirupati Rayalaseema
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1,2,5 only
2,5 only
1,3,5 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 15 of 201
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
29 Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and
diamond mines of India?
Francois Bernier
Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Jean de Thevenot
Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
30 Consider the following statements
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue
collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of
Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2,3 only
1,3 only
1,2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Questions Page 16 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
S ection 2 : Geography - 30 Questions
31 Consider the following pairs:
National Waterway Route
1. National Waterway Haldia - Allahabad
-1
2. National Waterway Kakinada - Puducherry
-3
3. National Waterway Dhubri - Sadiya
-4
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
32 Consider the following statements with respect to “Vande Bharat
Express”:
1. The train is capable of reaching a top speed of 180 km/hr
2. Previously known as Train 18, the Vande Bharat Express is an
electric multiple-unit train that was conceptualized and produced
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 17 of 201
Which of the above is/are correct
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
33 Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the eighth Vande Bharat
Express train connecting Secunderabad (Telangana) and Visakhapatnam
(Andhra Pradesh) on which of the following date?
February 10, 2023
February 15, 2023
January 15, 2023
January 10, 2023
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
34 The Indian Railways has introduced the new avatar of Vande
Bharat: Vande Bharat 2.0 with the first train being flagged off by the
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 18 of 201
Prime Minister on September 30, 2022. This train has been introduced
between which of the following cities?
Ahmedabad and Mumbai
Delhi and Lucknow
Delhi and Jaipur
Gandhinagar and Mumbai
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
35 Consider the following pairs:
Oil Refinery State
1. Manali Tamil Nadu
2. Barauni Bihar
3. Numaligarh Assam
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 19 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
36 Which of the following cities are connected as part of Golden
Quadrilateral Project:
1. Hyderabad
2. Visakhapatnam
3. Surat
4. Bengaluru
Choose the correct answer from below?
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
37 Consider the following statements regarding Dedicated Freight Corridor
(DFC)
1. It is a high speed and high capacity railway corridor that is
exclusively meant for the transportation of freight, or in other
words, goods and commodities
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 20 of 201
2. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) starts at Sahnewal
(Ludhiana) in Punjab and ends at Dankuni in West Bengal.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
38 Consider the following statements with reference to Western Dedicated
Freight Corridor (WDFC):
1. It connects Dadri in Uttar Pradesh to Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust
in Mumbai
2. It is funded by World Bank
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 21 of 201
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
39 Consider the following statements with reference to classification of
Irrigation Projects:
1. Projects which have a Cultivable Command Area (CCA) of more
than 12,000 hector are termed as Major Projects
2. Projectswhich have a CCA of less than 12,000 hector but more than
5,000 hector are termed as Medium project
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
40 Consider the following statements with reference to 6th census on
minor irrigation schemes:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 22 of 201
1. As per the report, 21.14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have
been reported in the country
2. The report was released on 26th August, 2023
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
41 As per Census 2011, the state in India with the highest urban Population is ?
Uttar Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh
Punjab
Maharashtra
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
42 As per 2011 Census, Union Territory of India with the lowest literacy rate?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 23 of 201
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Chandigarh
Dadra& Nagar Haveli
Puducherry
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
43 As per the “India Ageing Report 2023”, Which of the following statement is correct?
1. The “India Ageing Report 2023” has been prepared by the United Nations Population Fund(UNFPA) and
International Institute of Population Sciences(IIPS).
2. Mental health issues like Dementia and Alzheimer’s disease are still considered a stigma in society.
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
44 As per the ‘India State of Forest Report 2021,’ which state has the largest forest cover area-wise?
West Bengal
Madhya Pradesh
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 24 of 201
Karnataka
Mizoram
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
45 In which Article of the Indian Constitution Hindi is defined as the official language of the Union?
Article 341
Article 343
Article 354
Article 364
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
46 Which state amongst the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Caste population of State’s
population?
Jharkhand
Madhya Pradesh
Punjab
Uttar Pradesh
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
47 Which of the following regions is the original habitat of the 'Toda Tribe'?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 25 of 201
Kumaon Hills
Nilgiri Hills
Khasi Hills
Gharwal Hills
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
48 Which among the following is/are the major causes of urbanization?
1. Industrial revolution
2. Migration
3. Growth of the Private sector
4. Availability of transportation
Select the correct options given below:
Only 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
Only 2 and 3
Only 1 and 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
49 Population increased by difference between births and deaths in a particular region between two points of
time is called
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 26 of 201
Natural Growth of Population
Population Growth Rate
Positive Growth of Population
Negative Growth of Population
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
50 Assertion (A)-The most important pull factor for majority of the rural migrants to urban areas is the better
opportunities, availability of regular work and relatively higher wages.
Reason (R)- In India people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population
pressure on the land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true.
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
51 What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the
wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 27 of 201
2,3 only
1,3 only
All of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
52 With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding
capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some
agricultural lands
1,2 only
3 only
2,3 only
1 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
53 With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through
Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 28 of 201
1,2 only
2 only
1,3 only
1 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
54 Turkey is located between?
Black Sea and Caspian Sea
Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
55 With reference to cropping seasons in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Kharif crops include bajra, jowar, jute.
2. Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season before the Monsoon in India.
3. The Rabi season largely coincides with the Southwest Monsoon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 29 of 201
2 and 3
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
56 Consider the following statements with reference to geoparks:
1. The national geoheritage sites are designated by the Geological Survey of India.
2. India has 12 registered UNESCO global geoparks.
3. Once designated a UNESCO global geo park, it remains a geo park forever.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
57 Recently the terms SWAS, SAFAL, STAR were in news related to?
Tortoise species
Green Crackers
Pangolin species
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 30 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
58 Arrange the following hills of North East India from north to south
1. Mishmi hills
2. Patkai bum hills
3. Naga hills
4. Mizo hills
1-2-4-3
1-2-3-4
2-1-3-4
2-3-1-4
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
59 Consider the following statements:
1. Pulses require a good quantity of water for their growth in comparison to Soyabean.
2. Pulse crop improves the soil quality by fixing nitrogen in the soil.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Questions Page 31 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
60 Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?
Malacca Strait
Bering Strait
Strait of Florida
Strait of Gibraltar
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
S ection 3 : Current Affairs - 30 Questions
61 Which of the following became the fifth country in WHO’s Eastern Mediterranean
Region to eliminate trachoma as a public health problem?
Saudi Arabia
Egypt
Tunisia
Iraq
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
62 Match the Following
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 32 of 201
I-a, II-b, III-c
I-a, II-c, III-b
I-b, II-a, III-v
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
63 Between which of the following countries, a new border-haat was inaugurated in
Bholaganj under Companiganj upazila of Sylhet in May 2023?
India and Bangladesh
India and Nepal
India and Bhutan
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 33 of 201
1. According to the 360 ONE Wealth Hurun India Rich List for 2023 released recently,
Reliance Industries chairman Mukesh Ambani is named as Richest Indian.
2. The report, titled “Biennial Report on Global Infrastructure Resilience: Capturing the
Resilience Dividend,” was released by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure (CDRI).
3. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation recently unveiled data
indicating a remarkable surge in India’s industrial output in August. The Index of
Industrial Production (IIP) reported a staggering growth of 10.3 percent, marking the
highest growth in 14 months.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
65 Consider the following Statements
1. Kempegowda International Airport (KIA) in Bengaluru, also known as the
Bengaluru International Airport, has earned a remarkable distinction. It has been
recognized as the “world’s most punctual airport”.
2. According to the 15th annual Mercer CFA Institute Global Pension Index (MCGPI),
India ranked 45th out of 47 countries.
3. The Periodic Labour Force Survey Report for 2022-23, released on October 9, 2023,
by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 34 of 201
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
66 Consider the following Statements
1. The European Union Tax Observatory has published the ‘Global Tax Evasion Report
2024,’ calling for a 2% global wealth tax on billionaires.
2. Mumbai has become the second most polluted city in the world in terms of the
global Air Quality Index (AQI), according to Switzerland-based air quality
monitoring tech company IqAir.
3. According to global research firm Statista, India has secured the fourth position
worldwide in the number of financial technology (fintech) unicorns
Which of the above statements is/are correct
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 35 of 201
1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
67 Consider the following Statements:
1. At the Hangzhou Asian Games, Tajinderpal Singh Toor of India secured a gold
medal in men’s shot put, making him the fourth Indian shot putter in history to
successfully retain his Asian Games gold.
2. In the Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China Avinash Sable, the Indian
steeplechase sensation, secured a gold medal in the 3000m steeplechase event.
3. India won the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF) Under-19 Championship
after defeating Pakistan 3-0 in a dominating display in the finals at the Dashrath
Rangasala Stadium in Kathmandu, Nepal
Which of the above statements is/are correct
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
68 Consider the following Statements
1. Sachin Tendulkar was the ‘Global Ambassador‘ for the highly anticipated Cricket
World Cup 2023.
2. India won 1st and 2nd finish in the Men’s Javelin Throw competition at the Asian
Games 2023.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 36 of 201
3. India’s Jyothi Surekha Vennam won gold medal in the women’s individual compound
archery event at the 19th Asian Games in Hangzhou, China, on Saturday.
4. India made history on October 7, 2023, by winning its 100th medal at the Asian
Games for the first time ever
Which of the above statements is/are correct
1,2 and 3 only
2,3 and 4 only
1,3 and 4 only
1,2,3 and 4
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
69 Consider the following Statements
1. The 37th edition of the National Games for 2023, was held in the state of Goa.
2. The Ninth P20 Summit, in collaboration with the International Parliamentary
Union (IPU), is hosted by the Parliament of India.
3. The inaugural India-UK ‘2+2’ foreign and defence dialogue, held in October 2023.
Which of the above statements is/are correct
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
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1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
70 Consider the following Statements:
1. The 2023 World Health Summit took place from October 15 to October 17 under
the theme “A Defining Year for Global Health Action” in Berlin, Germany, and
online
2. October 5th is celebrated as World Teachers Day and October 24th as United
Nations Day.
3. October 31st is Celebrated as National Unity Day
Which of the above statements is/are correct
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
71 What is the name of the abort mission that ISRO is scheduled to launch on recently?
Flight Test Vehicle Abort Mission-1 (TV-D1)
Crew Escape System Test Mission-1 (CES-T1)
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 38 of 201
Both 1 and 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
72 What is the Mascot launched for Women’s Asian Champions Trophy 2023?
Pheonix
Juhi
Swami
Feifi
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
73 What is the type of cancer that NexCAR19 has been approved for treatment in India?
Lung Cancer
Breast Cancer
B-cell Lymphoma and Leukemia
Prostate Cancer
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
74 Which of the following projects in the AP got recently International status?
Puli chintala project
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 39 of 201
Lepakshi temple
Prakasam Barrage
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
75 In the recently concluded national games Andhra Pradesh got how many medals?
29
27
26
21
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
76 Which Union Territory has recently achieved 100% villages ODF plus status?
Daman Diu
Jammu Kashmir
Chandigarh
Ladakh
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 40 of 201
77 Recently, In news, what is "Vajra Mushti Kalaga"?
Martial Art
Missile
Monuments
Satellite
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
78 Consider the following about the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI):
1. It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect
Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
2. It is a part of the National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
79 The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), Andhra Pradesh theme for 2023-24 was?
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Towards a Competitive and Sustainable Andhra Pradesh@100: Growth,
Competitiveness, Sustainability, Globalisation, Building Trust”
Fulfilling the Promises of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights for Older Persons:
Across Generation
Sustainability in Every Cup
Resilient urban economies
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
80 Buddhist Monastry established during sathavahana period found at ?
Vijayawada
Guntur
Prakasham
Nalgonda
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
81 Consider the following statements with reference to Bihar Caste Census:
1. As per the Census Extremely Backward Class (EBC) comprises 38.01% of the
population.
2. As per the Census Scheduled Caste (SC) population stands at 19.65%.
3. As per the Census Scheduled Tribe (ST) population is 2.68%.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 42 of 201
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
82 “Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman” were awarded Nobel Prize 2023 in Physiology or
Medicine on Which of the following date?
2nd October, 2023
3rd October, 2023
4th October, 2023
5th October, 2023
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
83 Nobel Prize in literature is awarded to who among the following in October, 2023?
Narges Mohammadi
Jon Fosse
Claudia Goldin
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 43 of 201
Pierre Agostini
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
84 Consider the following statements regarding The 52nd GST Council meeting:
1. 52nd GST Council meeting held on 7th October, 2023
2. 52nd GST Council was chaired by Finance Minister
3. It was decided during the meeting that The GST rate on molasses will be reduced
from 28% to 5%.
Which of the above are correct?
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
85 Consider the following statements regarding Global Hunger Index 2023 (GHI):
1. India has been ranked 115 out of 125 countries
2. GHI is an annual assessment of hunger levels globally, published by World Health
Organization
3. Belarus, Bosnia & Herzegovina, Chile, China and Croatia are the top five countries
in GHI 2023
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 44 of 201
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
86 Consider the following statements with reference to Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) Annual Report 2022-2023:
1. It was released by Ministry of Labour and Employment
2. According to this report, Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in rural areas
stood at 60.8% (Usual Status)
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
87 Global Remote Work Index (GRWI) is released by NordLayer in October, 2023.
According to this report, India is ranked at which place?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 45 of 201
68th
66th
64th
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
88 Consider the following statements with reference to Gaganyaan TV-D1 Mission:
1. It was launched on 21st october, 2023
2. Crew Module characteristics & deceleration systems demonstration at higher
altitude & its recovery is one of the objective of the mission
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
89 Who among the following won Ballon d’Or 2023 :
1. Lionel Messi
2. Aitana Bonmati
3. Jude Bellingham
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Questions Page 46 of 201
Choose the correct answer from below
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
90 The tallest statue of the ‘Architect of the Indian
Constitution,’ B.R. Ambedkar, known as the ‘Statue of Equality”, outside India has
been unveiled in which of the following country in October, 2023?
United Kingdom
South Africa
USA
France
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.33
S ection 4 : Mental Abilities - 30 Questions
91 If the average of eight consecutive even numbers be 93, then
the greatest number among them is
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 47 of 201
86
102
98
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
92 The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and the simple interest on a sum of
1000 at a certain rate of interest for 2 years is 10. The rate of interest per annum is :
5%
6%
10%
12%
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
93
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 48 of 201
The year in which the company registered highest growth percent in the total sales of cars, over its previous
year is
2017
2016
2015
2014
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
94
The year in which cars of model 'D' registered highest growth percent in the sales, over the previous year is
2017
2016
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 49 of 201
2015
2014
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
95
The approximate percentage increase in the sales of Cars of models A and D put together in the year 2016
over the year 2013 is
295
240
189
150
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
96 If 30% of (B – A) = 18% of (B + A), then the ratio A : B is equal to
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 50 of 201
4:1
1:4
5:4
5:9
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
97 Nita blends two varieties of tea one costing 180 per kg and an
other costing 200 per kg in the ratio 5 : 3. If she sells the blended variety at 210 per kg, then her gain
percent is
10%
11%
12%
13%
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
98 The number of students in three classes are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4.
If 12 students are increased in each class, this ratio changes to
8 : 11 :14. The total number of students in the three classes at
the beginning was
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 51 of 201
162
108
96
54
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
99 A sum of 2,400 amounts to 3,264 in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is
increased by 1%, the same sum in the same time would amount to
3288
3312
3340
3360
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
100 A man walks from his house at an average speed of 5 km per
hour and reaches his office 6 minutes late. If he walks at an
average speed of 6 km/h he reaches 2 minutes early. The distance of the office from his house is
6km
9 km
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 52 of 201
12 km
4 km
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
101 A contractor undertook to complete a project in 90 days and
employed 60 men on it. After 60 days, he found that 3/4th of the
work has already been completed. How many men can he discharge so that the project may be completed
exactly on time ?
40
20
30
15
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
102 Find the unit digit of (3625)333 × (4268)645
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 53 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
103 The given question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the argument(s) is(are) 'strong' and accordingly select the correct option.
Statement:
Should there be a ban on product advertisements?
Arguments:
I. No, it is an age of advertising, unless your advertisement is better than that of your other competitors,
the products will not be sold.
II. Yes, the money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the products.
If only Argument I is strong
If only Argument II is strong
If neither I nor II is strong
If both I and II are strong
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
104 Statement: Is Harry Potter the most popular book series of the 21st century?
Arguments:
I. No. It's just another stupid children's book.
II. Yes. No other book series has yet matched the fan base or the sales figures of Harry Potter.
If only Argument I is strong
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 54 of 201
If only Argument II is strong
If neither I nor II is strong
If both I and II are strong
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
105 In the question given below is given a statement followed by two conclusions. You have to assume
everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the conclusion logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement:
The bad behavior of any student results in the defamation of himself and the school.
Conclusions:
I. The rules followed in the school are not proper.
II. Such a student should be expelled from school.
Only conclusion I follows
Both conclusions follow
Only conclusion II follows
None follows
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
106 Statement: In the Indian mindset, food, clothing and shelter are still considered to be the most basic
requirements for survival.
Conclusion:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 55 of 201
I. Food, clothing and shelter are sufficient to ensure a respectable life.
II. Man cannot survive if any of these three is taken away.
Only conclusion I follows
Both conclusions follow
Only conclusion II follows
None follows
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
107 Direction: Given is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement
and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Making homes energy efficient is important for sustainable development.
Assumptions:
I. Replacement of incandescent light bulbs with energy-efficient compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) at
home is advisable.
II. Plant shade trees and shrubs around your house. Good landscaping (particularly deciduous trees) is
auspicious, especially if planted on the house's west side.
Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Only assumption II is implicit
Only assumption I is implicit
Both assumptions I and II are implicit
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 56 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
108 Consider the following statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit from
the given statement.
Statement:
The school management has introduced compulsory swimming sessions for children below Class V.
Assumptions:
Younger children learn to swim faster.
The school wishes to enhance the overall development of children.
Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Only assumption II is implicit
Only assumption I is implicit
Both assumptions I and II are implicit
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
109 Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two courses of action. A
course of action is taken for improvement, follow up etc. Read the statement and give answer as under.
Statement: Cases of asthma sufferers have been rising particularly in the big cities.
Course of Action:
I. Civic authorities should ensure adequate supply of medicine at nominal rate.
II. Civic authorities need to control the air pollution caused due to emission from vehicles.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 57 of 201
If only course of action I follows.
If only course of action II follows.
If both I and II follow.
If neither I nor II follows.
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
110 Statement: Bullying can impact a student on physical, mental and emotional levels.
Courses of Action:
I: The child should ignore the instances of bullying.
II: The schools should set clear and enforceable rules against the practice of bullying.
If only course of action I follows.
If only course of action II follows.
If both I and II follow.
If neither I nor II follows.
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
111 A series is given in the following question. Find the term that will replace the question mark.
0, 8, 31, 74, 142, ?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 58 of 201
230
240
260
300
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
112 What number will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
2, 8, 20, 44, 92, __?
188
288
208
150
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
113 Find the wrong term in the series.
I, L, F, N, C, R
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 59 of 201
N
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
114 Complete the given series by finding the missing term(s):
a_ba_b_b_a_b
abaab
abbab
aabba
bbabb
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
115 In question given below find the odd one from the given responses.
O14A
P14B
Z22D
U20H
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 60 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
116 If India is called Bahamas, Sri Lanka is called Lakshadweep, Indonesia is called Andaman, Myanmar is
called Port Blair. Then where is the state of Madhya Pradesh located?
India
Sri Lanka
Indonesia
Bahamas
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
117 In a code language, 'cake has sugar' is written as 'est bon wig', 'a slice of cake' is written as 'bleu eau tuf
wig', 'sugar is sweet' is written as 'lat gif bon'. What is the code for the word 'has' in this language?
wig
lat
bon
est
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
118 Introducing Ram, a lady said, "The father of his father-in-law is my father-in-law." How is Ram related to
the lady?
Son-in-law
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 61 of 201
Father
Son
Cousin
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
119 Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are indicated by A, B, C, D, E
and F. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the face showing 'E'.
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
120 Pankaj is the son of Rajesh and Sapna, while Deepa is the only granddaughter of Sheela who is the mother
of Prakash and Sapna. If Prakash is unmarried and is the brother of the wife of Rajesh, then how is Pankaj
related to Deepa?
Paternal Uncle
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Questions Page 62 of 201
Brother
Grandfather
Maternal Uncle
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
S ection 5 : S ociety - 30 Questions
121 Which of the following is correct descending order of states with
respect to ratio of scheduled castes population in total population of
respective states, as per Census- 2011?
Uttar Pradesh > Punjab > Himachal Pradesh > West Bengal
Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal > Punjab > Himachal Pradesh
Punjab > Himachal Pradesh > West Bengal >Uttar Pradesh
Punjab > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal > Himachal Pradesh
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
122 Which of the following States/UTs does not have Scheduled Castes
population according to Census, 2011?
1. Mizoram
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Lakshadweep
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 63 of 201
4. Nagaland
Which of the above are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
123 According to the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 as
amended from time to time, Scheduled castes can belong to which of
the following religions:
1. Sikhism
2. Budhism
3. Christianity
4. Islam
Choose the correct asnwer from below?
1, 2 and 3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 64 of 201
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
124 Which of the following provisions mentioned in Constitution are
exclusively for Scheduled Castes?
1. Article 17
2. Article 335
3. Article 338
4. Article 341
Choose the correct answer from below
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 65 of 201
125 Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission
for Scheduled Castes:
1. It is a Constitutional Body since the inception of the Constitution
2. The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with
regard to the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to
the Scheduled Castes.
3. Till 2020, the commission was also required to discharge similar
functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs) as it
does with respect to the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the above is /are correct?
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
126 Consider the following statements regarding Development Action Plan
for Scheduled Castes (DAPSC):
1. Scheduled Caste Sub Plan (SCSP) was renamed as Development
Action Plan for Scheduled Castes (DAPSC) in the financial year
2021-22
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 66 of 201
2. As per the Ministry of Finance guidelines, funds under the Scheduled
Caste component (Development Action Plan for Scheduled Castes
(DAPSC)) can be re-appropriated to Non-Scheduled Caste heads
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 67 of 201
127 Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission
for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)
1. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was
constituted on 12th August, 1994 as a statutory body by an Act of
Parliament
2. Presently the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)
is a non-statutory body
3. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) also oversees
the implementation of Prohibition of Employment as Manual
Scavengers and Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
128 Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit
Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY)
1. Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is
a merged scheme of 03 Schemes namely Pradhan Mantri Adarsh
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 68 of 201
Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to Scheduled
Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP) and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas
Yojana(BJRCY)
2. It is a Central Sector Scheme
3. To increase literacy and encourage enrolment of Scheduled Castes in
schools and higher educational institutions is one of the objective of
the scheme
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
129 Consider the following statements with respect to Self Employment
Scheme for Manual Scavengers (SRMS):
1. It is a Central Sector scheme
2. Onetime cash assistance of Rs.40000/- to identified manual
scavenger is provided under the scheme.
3. Identification of manual scavengers under the scheme is done by
National Safai Karamcharis Finance&Development
Corporation(NSKFDC)
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 69 of 201
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
130 As per Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), the percentage
of reservation as on October 2022 for Scheduled Castes (SCs), In case
of appointment by direct recruitment to civil posts and civil services on
all India basis otherwise than by open competition is?
15%
15.66%
16%
16.66%
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 70 of 201
131 Consider the following statements with respect to Babu Jagjivan Ram
National Foundation:
1. It is registered under The Societies Registration Act, 1860
2. The President of the Foundation is the Union Minister of Social
Justice & Empowerment
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
132 “Ifsomeone forbids an individual from exercising Article 17, causing
an injury, or insult, then the punishment will be imprisonment of a
month or six months ( and also with fine which shall be not less than
one hundred rupees and not more than five hundred rupees).
Moreover, if a person occupies someone’s land or other property on
the ground of untouchability, then he or she will be fined as well as
imprisoned”.
The above descriptio is mentioned in which of the following sections
of Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955?
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 71 of 201
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8
Section 9
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
133 Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Rules, 2016
have been notifed on which of the following date?
14th April, 2016
14th April, 2017
10th April, 2016
10th April, 2017
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
134 Who among the following can establish Special Court and Exclusive
Special Court in districts under The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
High Court
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 72 of 201
State Government
Central Government
District Collector
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
135 Under Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013, Manual scavenging is a prohibited activity in
the country with effect from which of the following date?
6th September, 2013
6th December, 2013
6th November, 2013
6th October, 2013
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
136 Under Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013, Penalty for contravention of section 5 or
section 6 is mentioned under which of the following sections of the act?
Section 7
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 73 of 201
Section 8
Section 9
Section 10
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
137 Under Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013, every offence under Section 22 shall be:
1. Non- Cognizable
2. Non- bailable
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
138 Under Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013, Section 24 provides for appointment Vigilance
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 74 of 201
Committees in every district. Who among the following shall be the
chairperson of the Vigilance Committee
District Welfare Officer
Sub Divisional Magistrate
District Magistrate
None of the above
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
139 Consider the following pairs:
Bonded Labour System State
Gothi Odisha
Panal Pathiran Tamilnadu
Jeetha Karnataka
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 75 of 201
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
140 Under which of the following section of The Bonded Labour System
(Abolition) Act, 1976, “Liability to repay bonded debt to stand
extinguished” is mentioned ?
Section 4
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
141 Consider the following statements with respect to Stand Up India
Scheme:
1. Activities allied to agriculture have been included in the Scheme.
2. The scheme has been launched by Ministry of Finance
3. Inn case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the
shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either an
SC/ST or Woman entrepreneur.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 76 of 201
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
1,2, and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
142 Consider the following statements with respect to National Action for
Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE):
1. It
is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment
2. National
Safai Karamchari Financial Development Corporation
(NSKFDC) would be implementing agency for NAMASTE.
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 77 of 201
143 Consider the following pairs with reference to Central Sector Scheme
for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer, 2021:
Category Financial assistance for
rehabilitation of a
rescued bonded labourer
1. Adult male Rs. 1. 5 Lakh
beneficiary
2. Special category Rs. 2 Lakhs
beneficiaries such as
children including
orphans or those
rescued from
organized & forced
begging rings or
other forms of
forced child labour,
and women
3. Bonded or forced Rs. 3 Lakhs
labour involving
extreme cases of
deprivation or
marginalization such
as trans-genders, or
women or children
rescued from
ostensible sexual
exploitation such as
brothels, massage
parlours, placement
agencies
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Questions Page 78 of 201
Which of the above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
144 National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) Act has been enacted
according which of the following article of the constitution?
Article 39A
Article 39
Article 43
Article 43A
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
145 Consider the following statemements with reference to National Legal
Services Authority (NALSA):
1. The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of National Legal
Services Authority (NALSA)
Consider the following statemements with reference to National Legal Services Authority
Page 79 of 201
(NALSA):
2. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted
under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal
Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok
Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
Which of the above is are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
2 only
Both 1 and 2
1 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
146 L. P.Vidyarthi put forward a five-fold classification system of tribes
which included:
1. Middle India
2. South India
3. Eastern India
choose the correct answer from below?
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to Page 80 of 201
organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
147 Consider the following pairs with reference to Youth Dormitories
among tribes:
Youth Dormitory State
1. Deka Chang Assam
2. Gabhoru Chang Mizoram
3. Raseng Manipur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to Page 81 of 201
organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
148 Yerwen, Saga, Sarwen, Saga Siwen Saga and Nalwen Saga are
phratories among which tribe?
Santhals
Kukis
Chenchus
Raj Gonds
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
149 Which of the following are Components or Basic elements of Religion:
1. Belief in Supernatural Power
2. Method of Salvation
3. Belief in some sacred things
4. Rituals
Choose the correct answer from below?
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to Page 82 of 201
organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
1, and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
150 Poligamy is followed in which of the following religions:
1. Hinduism
2. Christianity
3. Sikhism
4. Islam
Choose the correct answer from below?
1 and 3 only
4 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4
Correct: +1 · Incorrect: -0.333
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to Page 83 of 201
organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
T E ST
Prelims Test 5- 150 Marks
ANSWERS
SE C T I ON S
1. History - 30 Questions
2. Geography - 30 Questions
3. Current Affairs - 30 Questions
4. Mental Abilities - 30 Questions
5. Society - 30 Questions
Section 1 : History - 30 Questions
1 Only Two Pairs
2 1 only
3 2 only
4 1 only
5 1,3 only
6 Both 1 and 2
7 Both 1 and 2
8 2 only
9 Lala Lajpat rai
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Answers Page 84 of 201
11 All of the above
12 Both 1 and 2
13 1,3 only
14 Both 1 and 2
15 an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
16 removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
17 Swadeshi Movement
18 1,3 only
19 1,2 only
20 Both 1 and 2
21 Sohgaura
22 All of the above
23 All of the above
24 Dholovira
25 All of the above
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Answers Page 85 of 201
26 1 only
27 22nd March (or 21st March)
28 2,5 only
29 Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
30 1 only
Section 2 : Geography - 30 Questions
31
1 only
32 2 only
33 January 15, 2023
34 Gandhinagar and M umbai
35 1, 2 and 3
36 2, 3 and 4 only
37 Both 1 and 2
38 1 only
39 Both 1 and 2
40 2 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Answers Page 86 of 201
41 Ma ha ra s htra
42 Da dra & Na ga r Ha vel i
43 Both 1 a nd 2
Ma dhya Pra des h
44
45 Articl e 343
46 Punja b
47 Ni l gi ri Hi l l s
1, 2, 3 a nd 4
48
49 Na tura l Growth of Popul a tion
50 Both A a nd R a re true a nd R i s the correct expl a na tion of A
51 All of the above
52 3 only
53 2 only
54 Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Geography · Answers Page 87 of 201
55 1 and 2
56 1 only
57 Green Crackers
58 1-2-3-4
59 2 only
60 Beri ng Stra i t
Section 3 : Current Affairs - 30 Questions
61 Iraq
62 I-a, II-b, III-c
63 India and Bangladesh
64 1,2 and 3
65 1,2 and 3
66 1 and 2 only
67 1,2 and 3
68 1,2,3 and 4
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Answers Page 88 of 201
70 1,2 and 3
71 Flight Test Vehicle Abort Mission-1 (TV-D1)
72 Juhi
73 B-cell Lymphoma and Leukemia
74 Prakasam Barrage
75 27
76 Jammu Kashmir
77 Martial Art
78 Both 1 and 2
Towards a Competitive and Sustainable Andhra Pradesh@100: Growth, Competitiveness, Sustainability,
79
Globalisation, Building Trust”
80 Guntur
81 2 only
82 2nd October, 2023
83 Jon Fosse
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Current Affairs · Answers Page 89 of 201
85 3 only
86 2 only
87 64th
88 Both 1 and 2
89 1 and 2 only
90 USA
Section 4 : Mental Abilities - 30 Questions
91 100
92 10%
93 2015
94 2016
95 189
96 1:4
97 12%
98 162
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Answers Page 90 of 201
100 4 km
101 20
102 0
103 If both I a nd II a re s trong
104 If onl y Argument II i s s trong
105 None fol l ows
106 None fol l ows
107 Onl y a s s umption I i s i mpl i ci t
108 Onl y a s s umption II i s i mpl i ci t
109 If both I a nd II fol l ow.
110 If onl y cours e of a ction II fol l ows .
111 240
112 188
113 N
114 bba bb
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · M ental Abilities · Answers Page 91 of 201
115 U20H
116 Ba ha ma s
117 es t
118 Son-i n-l a w
119 A
120 Brother
Section 5 : Society - 30 Questions
121 Punjab > Himachal Pradesh > West Bengal >Uttar Pradesh
122 2, 3 and 4 only
123 1 and 2 only
124 3 and 4 only
125 2 only
126 1 only
127 1, 2 and 3
128 1 and 3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Answers Page 92 of 201
129 1 and 2 only
130 16.66%
131 Both 1 and 2
132 Section 7
133 14th April, 2016
134 State Government
135 6th December, 2013
136 Section 8
137 2 only
138 District M agistrate
139 1, 2 and 3
140 Section 4
141 1,2, and 3
142 2 only
143 2 and 3 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Answers Page 93 of 201
144 Article 39A
145 Both 1 and 2
146 1 and 2 only
147 1 only
148 Raj Gonds
149 1, 2, 3 and 4
150 4 only
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Answers Page 94 of 201
T E ST
Prelims Test 5- 150 Marks
SOLUTIONS
SE C T I ON S
1. History - 30 Questions
2. Geography - 30 Questions
3. Current Affairs - 30 Questions
4. Mental Abilities - 30 Questions
5. Society - 30 Questions
Section 1 : History - 30 Questions
Sarojini Naidu, was an Indian independence activist, poet, and politician.
She was born on February 13, 1879, in Hyderabad, India.
She joined the Indian national movement in the wake of partition of Bengal in
1905.
The British government lauded Sarojini Naidu with the ‘Kaisar-i-Hind’ Medal for
her service during the plague epidemic in India.
Contribution to Indian Freedom Movement:
First Indian Woman President of INC: Naidu was elected as the first Indian
woman president of the Indian National Congress(INC) in 1925(Kanpur
Session) and continued to hold this position till 1928.
Annie Besant was the first woman President of the INC who presided it in
1917.
Participated in Non-Cooperation Movement: Naidu took part in the Non-
Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 and was arrested several
times for her involvement in various freedom activities.
Lead Salt Satyagraha: In 1930, Naidu was selected by Gandhi to lead the Salt
Satyagraha, a nonviolent protest against the British monopoly on salt production
in India.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · History · Solutions Page 95 of 201
On May 21, Sarojini Naidu led 2,500 marchers on the Dharasana Salt
Works, some 150 miles north of Bombay.
Quit India Movement: In 1942, Sarojini Naidu was arrested during the "Quit
India" movement and was jailed for 21 months with Gandhiji.
Traveled Abroad to Raise Awareness: Naidu traveled to different countries,
including the United States and the United Kingdom, to raise awareness about
India's struggle for independence and to mobilize international support.
She also represented India at various international forums and spoke about
the Indian independence movement and women's rights.
Contribution as a Politician:
Second Round Table Conference: She accompanied Gandhiji to London for the
inconclusive second session of the Round Table Conference for Indian–British
cooperation (1931).
Governor of Uttar Pradesh: After India gained independence, Naidu was
appointed as the governor of Uttar Pradesh, becoming the first woman to hold a
governor's office in India.
Other Contributions:
A Renowned Poetess: Naidu was a renowned poetess and wrote in both English
and Urdu.
Published in 1912, ‘In the Bazaars of Hyderabad’ remains one of her most
popular poems.
Her other works include "The Golden Threshold (1905)", "The Bird of Time
(1912)", and "The Broken Wing (1912)".
Worked for Women's Empowerment: Naidu was a strong advocate of women's
rights and worked tirelessly to empower women in India.
She was also a member of the All-India Women's Conference and worked to
improve the status of women in India.
Death:
She died on March 2, 1949, in Lucknow, India.
ISHWAR CHANDRA VIDYASAGAR
Born as Ishwar Chandra Bandyopadhyay on 26th September, 1820 in West Bengal, he
was bestowed the title of Vidyasagar in 1839 for his mastery over Sanskrit and
philosophy.
In 1839, he successfully cleared his law examination. He passed out of Sanskrit
College in Kolkata in 1841 qualifying in Sanskrit grammar, literature, dialectics,
Vedanta, Smruti and Astronomy.
At the age of twenty one, Ishwar Chandra joined the Fort William College as the head
of the Sanskrit department.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 96 of 201
An Educationist
In 1846, Vidyasagar joined the Sanskrit College as ‘Assistant Secretary’. Within a
year, he brought number of changes to the existing education system.
During his tenure as the Principal of Sanskrit College from 1851 to 1858, Vidyasagar
initiated unprecedented changes in both administration and education.
At the time when there was no concept of universal education, Vidyasagar strongly
believed that everyone irrespective of caste or gender, had the right to education.
He even opened up the premises of the Sanskrit college for people from lower castes.
He also encouraged scholars to study ancient sacred texts and interpret them for
contemporary usage.
He established 20 model schools in Hooghly, Midnapore, Burdwan and Nadia.
He supervised the schools, recruited teachers and formulated their syllabus.
He revised the exam pattern by introducing monthly exams instead of annual
ones.
He also introduced the study of English, Western Sciences and Mathematics.
He initiated the acceptance of admission fees and tuition fees. He also
introduced ‘Sunday’ as the weekly holiday and summer vacation in the months
of May and June.
He brought about a revolution in the Bengali education system by changing the way
Bengali language was written and taught.
The Linguist
He is credited with reconstructing the Bengali Alphabet. He simplified Bengali
typography into an alphabet of 12 vowels and 40 consonants eliminating the sanskrit
phonemes.
His book ‘Borno Porichoy’ meaning ‘introduction to the letter’ is still used as the
introductory text to learn Bengali alphabet.
He was also a key figure in Bengal Renaissance - a cultural, social, intellectual and
artistic movement in Bengal from the 19th century to the early 20th century.
The renaissance period saw a magnificent outburst of Bengali literature with
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar being the pioneer. Vidyasagar wrote nearly ten
books on Bengal’s history and literature, all of them being considered classics in
today’s times.
A Social Reformer
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 97 of 201
He was the nineteenth century polymath reformer whose contribution towards
changing the status of women in India is remarkable.
His study of ancient texts convinced him that the status of hindu women of his time
was not sanctioned by the scriptures and was because of the existing power relations
in the society.
It was the result of his untiring struggle that the then Government of India passed
the Widow Remarriage Act in 1856.
With the purpose of gathering people’s support for the implementation of the
provision of remarriage of widows, he encouraged his own son Narayan Chandra
Bandyopadhyaya to marry a widow.
Unlike other reformers who sought to set up alternative societies or systems,
Vidyasagar sought to transform society from within.
Due to his courageous entrepreneurship, widow remarriage was ushered in the
conservative hindu brahmin society of Bengal.
He fought for women education and vigorously challenged the barbaric practice of
Child Marriage.
He founded 35 schools for girls throughout Bengal. The Metropolitan School of
Calcutta was one of the institutions. The sole purpose of these schools was to
make women self sufficient and empowered.
He also fought a determined battle against the then prevailing social custom of Kulin
Brahmin polygamy.
He wrote biographical notes on numerous noteworthy personalities in the history of
the world so that the young generation can get inspired by reading the great
examples of endurance, hard work, honesty, patience, perseverance, courage,
determination and philosophy of life.
Some of his works are : Betaal Panchavinsati (1847), Banglar Itihaas (1848),
Jivancharita (1849), Shakuntala (1854), Mahabharata (1860), Seetar Vanavas (1860),
Bhrantivilaas (1869), Oti Alpa Hoilo (1873), Aabaar Oti Alpa Hoilo (1873), Brajavilaas
(1884), Ratnopariksha (1886).
Vidyasagar’s work on social reforms include ‘Bidhobabivah’ on widow’s right to
remarry (1855), ‘Bahubivah’ on banning of polygamy (1871) and Balyabivah on the
flaws of child marriage.
Annie Besant
Annie Besant was born in London to an Irish-origin family as Annie Wood.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 98 of 201
Besant was a staunch supporter of Irish independence.
She also began to question her religious beliefs. She went so far as to criticize the
Church of England. She was a feminist political and religious activist, which caused
her problems in society.
She advocated for intellectual freedom, secularism, women's rights, birth control,
workers' rights, and Fabian socialism. She was particularly opposed to the church
meddling in people's lives.
She was a fantastic public speaker who also traveled extensively.
After meeting Helena Blavatsky in1889, Besant became a Theosophist.
Her search for socialist movement and spiritual solace led her to the Theosophical
Society. During her time as a member of society, she developed an interest in
Hinduism and its spiritual ideals.
From 1907 to 1933, Annie Besant served as the society's president.
A few days after arriving in India, she was inspired by the ongoing struggle for
independence against British rule and gradually became an active participant in it.
Annie Besant founded the All India Home Rule League in 1916. This was India's first
faction to demand complete independence. The league worked all year to establish a
network of local branches and organize agitations.
The colonial authorities, for their part, placed her under house arrest as a result of
her activities. Other political parties threatened more riots if she was not released.
As a result, the government was forced to make minor concessions. One of them was
that once the war was over, the possibility of self-rule would be considered.
In September 1917, Annie Besant was released. In December of that year, she was
elected president of the Indian National Congress for a one-year term.
The new Congress leadership would be handed over to Mahatma Gandhi at this time.
He was a key supporter of her release from house arrest.
Annie Besant would fight for India's independence until the end of her life. She
would go on speaking tours in India and abroad to spread the word about the
independence movement.
News Paper: New India
Annie Besant - Educational Reforms
Her contributions as an educator include being one of the founders of the Banaras
Hindu University.
Annie Besant advocated for research into ancient Indian religions, philosophies, and
doctrines.
She also founded the Central Hindu School to promote education.
By 1918, she had founded the following:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 99 of 201
Madras Parliament
Madanapalle College (now in Andhra Pradesh)
Adyar Arts League
Bombay Home Rule League
Girls' College in Benares
Order of the Brothers of Service
Women's Indian Association at Adyar— from which grew the All-India Women's
Conference in Poona (now Pune) in 1927 and the Women's Indian Association at
Adyar.
Unfortunately, she fell out of favor with the Indian National Congress due to her
opposition to Gandhi's non-cooperation and civil disobedience agenda, which she saw
as a threat to the rule of law.
Indigo Revolt (1860)
The ‘Hindu Patriot’ under Harish Chandra Mukherjee and reports of journalists like
Sisir Kumar Ghosh publicized and defended the cause of peasants while exposing the
exploitation of Indigo planters.
Artists also publicized the plight of Indigo cultivators and took their case far and wise.
A case in point was Din Bandhu Mitra’s play – ‘Neel Darpan’ which attained great
fame.
In the Ryoti system of Indigo plantation, the peasants were forced to cultivate indigo
on 4major parts of their fields.
The ryots were made to enter contracts for compulsory Indigo cultivation which was
then purchased at rates much lower than the market rates.
The planters also acted hand-in-glove with the European magistrates, thinning the
chances of any legal respite from fraudulent & exploitative contracts via legal means.
Such conditions led to the resistance by Indigo-cultivators in Bengal in 1859 which
was termed as Indigo revolt.
The Indigo Rebellion (Indigo Revolts) comprised widespread peasant uprisings in
Bengal from 1839 to 1860 against rapacious planters of the indigo crop.
The Indigo movement was also known as "Nil bidroho".
The East India Company forced the farmers to grow indigo instead of food crops
because of their own profit.
Ryots also refused to pay rents to Zamindars and physically resisted attempts to evict
them.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 100 of 201
2
Formation of INA
There were many Indian Revolutionaries working abroad for the country’s cause.
Among these was Rashbehari Bose, living as a fugitive from the British since 1915 in
Japan
During WW2, he seized the opportunity to mobilise Indians for an armed struggle
against the British.
There were a number of Indian soldiers fighting on behalf of the British
The Japanese after defeating British in South East Asia, persuaded captain Mohan
Singh to work in collaboration with the Japanese for India’s freedom.
In 1942, a conference of Indians was held in Tokyo, and they formed the Indian
Independence league
This was followed by conference in Bangkok (June 1942), where Rashbehari Bose was
elected president of the league and a decision was taken to raise the Indian National
Army
Captain Mohan Singh was appointed the commander of the INA, which had about
40,000 Indian soldiers
This conference invited Bose to lead the movement.
Earlier, Bose had escaped from India in 1941 to Berlin. In June, 1943 he came to Tokyo
and then Indian joined the INA at Singapore.
Rashbehari Bose handed over the leadership to Subhas Bose, and an Azad Hind Sarkar
was formed.
Later, In November, 1943 the Japanese announced their decision to hand over the
administration of Andamans and Nicobar islands to the INA
Thus, started the heroic struggle of the INA for India’s independence.
Actions of INA
The INA in a few months’ time had three fighting brigades named after Gandhi, Azad
and Nehru.
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Soon other brigades were raised, namely the Subhas brigade and the Rani Jhansi
brigade (an exclusive women force).
The overseas Indians contributed heavily in terms of money and material for the army.
On October 21, 1943, Subhash Bose formed the Provisional Government for Free India
at Singapore with H.C. Chatterjee (Finance portfolio), M.A. Aiyar (Broadcasting),
Lakshmi Swaminathan (Women Department), etc.
This provisional government declared war on Britain and the United States, and was
recognised by the Axis powers.
Recruits were trained and funds collected for the INA.
The famous slogan—“Give me blood, I will give you freedom” was given in Malaya.
The INA headquarters was shifted to Rangoon (in Burma) in January 1944, and the
army recruits were to march from there with the war cry “Chalo Delhi”
On July 6, 1944, Subhas Bose addressed Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of Nation’—from
the Azad Hind Radio (the first person to call Gandhi, ‘Father of Nation’). He asked for
Gandhi’s blessings for “India’s last war of independence”.
INA TRAILS
The Indian National Army trials (also known as the INA trials and the Red Fort
trials) was the British Indian trial by court-martial of a number of officers of the
Indian National Army (INA) between November 1945 and May 1946, on various
charges of treason, torture, murder and abetment to murder, during the Second
World War.
By 1943 and 1944, courts martial were taking place in India of former personnel
of the British Indian Army who were captured fighting in INA ranks or working
in support of the INA’s subversive activities.
These did not receive any publicity or political sympathies till much later.
The charges in these earlier trials were of “Committing a civil offence contrary to
the Section 41 of the Indian Army Act, 1911 or the Section 41 of the Burma
Army Act” with the offence specified as “Waging War against the King” contrary
to the Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code.
However, the number of INA troops captured by Commonwealth forces by the
end of the Burma Campaign made it necessary to take a selective policy to
charge those accused of the worst allegations.
The first of these was the joint trial of Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Sahgal and
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 102 of 201
made to hold these at the Red Fort.
INA Defence committee
The Indian National Congress made the release of the three defendants
an important political issue, during the agitation for independence of 1945-46.
The INA Defence Committee was a committee established by the Indian National
Congress in 1945 to defend those officers of the Indian National Army, who were
to be charged during the INA trials.
Additional responsibilities of the committee also came to be the co-ordination of
information on INA troops held captive, as well as arranging for relief for troops
after the war.
The committee declared the formation of the Congress’ defence team for the INA
and included famous lawyers of the time, including Bhulabhai Desai, Asaf Ali,
Sharat Chandra bose, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju.
The first Mongol invasion of India took place in the reign of Sultan Shams-ud-din
lltutmish.
After civil war broke out in the Mongol Empire in the 1260s, the Chagatai Khanate
controlled Central Asia and its leader since the 1280s was Duwa Khan who was second
in command of Kaidu Khan.
Negudari governor Abdullah, who was a son of Chagatai Khan's great
grandson,invaded Punjab with his force in 1292, but their advance guard under Ulghu
was defeated and taken prisoner by the Khalji Jalaluddin Sultan. The 4000 Mongol
captives of the advance guard converted to Islam and came to live in Delhi as "new
Muslims"/"Nau Musalman"
Alauddin established a huge permanent, standing army to satisfy his ambition of
conquest and to protect the country from Mongol invasion.
The Mongols attacked at the worst time possible for Alauddin Khilji – when he was
busy laying siege to Chittor. This time the Mongols traveled light. An army of 12,000
under Targhi’s leadership moved to Delhi in a swift attack; many governors could not
send their troops to Delhi in time.
Alauddin Khilji was forced to retreat to Siri for about two months. The Mongols
attacked and pillaged not only the surrounding areas, but Delhi itself. Alauddin Khilji
continued to hold the fortress at Siri; Targhi withdrew the siege after a few months and
left the area. Barani, a contemporary historian at that time, attributed this “marvel” to
the prayers of the Sufi mystic Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya.
The next major Mongol invasion took place after the Khiljis had been replaced by
the Tughlaq dynasty in the Sultanate. In 1327 the Chagatai Mongols
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The Tughlaq ruler paid a large ransom to spare his Sultanate from further
ravages. Muhammad bin Tughluq asked the Ilkhan Abu Sa’id to form an alliance
against Tarmashirin, who had invaded Khorasan, but an attack didn’t
materialize.Tarmashirin was a Buddhist who later converted to Islam. Religious
tensions in the Chagatai Khanate were a divisive factor among the Mongols.
In 1398, Timur invaded northern India, attacking the Delhi Sultanate ruled by Sultan
Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq of the Tughlaq dynasty.
https://www.hansrajcollege.ac.in/hCPanel/uploads/elearning/elearning_document/MONGOL
Indian Statutory Commission, also known as Simon Commission was appointed as per
the Government of India Act, 1919 to recommend to the British government whether
India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines. The 1919 Act
had a provision that a commission would be appointed ten years from date to study the
progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps.
Indian Statutory Commission was an all-white, seven-member commission led by
chairman, Sir John Simon. It was set up by the British government under Stanley
Baldwin’s Prime Ministership on November 8, 1927.
Indian immigration to South Africa had begun in 1890 when the White settlers
recruited indentured Indian labour, mainly from South India, to work on the sugar
plantations. They faced racial discrimination in South Africa.
During the early 1900s, Gandhi was instrumental in getting the indentured labour
system abolished in the British Empire through the use of the method of passive
resistance or civil disobedience, named Satyagraha.
The Viceroy of India Lord Chelmsford, invited various Indian leaders to attend a War
conference during World War I. Gandhi accepted the invitation and went to Delhi.
Gandhi was not happy that leaders like Tilak or the Ali brothers had not been invited
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 104 of 201
to the conference. After meeting the Viceroy, who was very keen that Gandhi should
support the resolution on recruiting, Gandhi supported the government's resolution
on recruiting.
He believed that whole-hearted co-operation with the government will bring India
within sight of goal of Swaraj as nothing else will.
Gandhiji began his salt march from Ahmedabad to Dandi on 12th March 1930.
Gandhi and his selected followers reached Dandi beach and broke the salt law by
picking up salt left on the shore by the sea.
Gandhi then gave a signal to all Indians to manufacture salt illegally. He wanted the
people to break the salt law openly and to prepare themselves for non-violent
resistance to police action.
The Government waited for some time before taking any action, and then at last
retaliation began. Gandhi was left at liberty, but many other leaders were taken into
custody. In dealing with the breakers of the salt law, the police resorted to their usual
brutal methods and The Indian National Congress was declared illegal.
https://www.congresssevadal.org/about-sevadal/
The younger section of the Congress led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Bose were
angered by Nehru reports proposal for Dominion status. The younger section regarded
the idea of dominion status in the report as a step backward, and the developments at
the All Parties Conference strengthened their criticism of the dominion status idea. So
they decided to set up Independence for India league.
Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose jointly set up the Independence for
India League in 1928.
The major aim of the Independence for India League was to do a socialist revision of
the economic structure of society and fight for complete independence of the country.
It was not formed at the Lahore session of the Congress (December 1929). The league
was established in 1928 by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Bose who were
disappointed with the idea of dominion status in the Nehru Report of 1928 and
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regarded it as a step backward. Lahore session of 1929 was important for the
acceptance of purna swaraj as the goal
The Native Marriage Act (or Christian Marriage Act, 1872) was passed in 1872 which
signified legislative action in prohibiting child marriage.
Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, if a party to a marriage is a minor, the
consent of father if living, or if the father is dead, the consent of the guardian of the
person of such minor or if there is no guardian, then that of the mother, is essential
before marriage.
The Age of Consent Act was later passed in 1891 which forbade the marriage of girls
below the age of 12.
The relentless efforts of a Parsi reformer, B.M. Malabari, led to the enactment of the
Age of Consent Act (and not Sarda Act) in 1891. The Sarda Act was enacted in 1930
which pushed up the marriage age to 18 and 14 for boys and girls, respectively
Lala Lajpat Rai was prolific writer and authored several works like – “Unhappy India”,
“Young India: An Interpretation”, “History of Arya Samaj”, “England’s Debt to India”. He
also wrote several biographies of Mazzini (Life of Mazzini), Garibaldi, Shivaji
(Chatrapati Shivaji) and Hindu god Shri Krishna (Yogiraj Shrikrishna). His purpose in
selecting Mazzini and Garibladi was to infuse patriotic sentiment in the youth of
Punjab, who had no access to books in English.
In 1917, Rai moved to the United States during the First World War and founded the
Indian Home Rule League of America in New York. He stayed in the United States from
1917 to 1920. Rai returned to India in 1920 and in the following year led the special
session of the Indian Congress Party that launched the non-co-operation movement.
He joined Swaraj Party in 1926 and was elected as its Deputy Leader in the Central
Legislative Assembly.
10
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Depressed Classes Leaders’ Conference held in Nagpur in 1926. M.C. Rajah was
elected as its first president and Dr Ambedkar, was elected one of its vice-presidents.
Ambedkar later resigned from this association and in 1930 at a conference in Nagpur,
founded his own All India Depressed Classes Congress
B. R Ambedkar (and not M. C Rajah) organised the All India Scheduled Castes
Federation at a conference in 1942 in Nagpur, with its constitution claiming the dalits
to be "distinct and separate from the Hindus".
Mahatma Gandhi set up the All-India Anti-Untouchability League at a meeting in
Bombay in 1932 presided by Madan Mohan Malaviya of the Hindu Mahasabha.
Industrialist G. D. Birla was made the President of the Anti-Untouchability League and
Amritlal V. Thakkar, a social worker, its secretary. Gandhi started using the term
Harijan for untouchables, and strove to establish dignity of labour by performing the
tasks Harijan were traditionally assigned.
11
The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which was
started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. On August 7, 1905, with the
passage of the Boycott Resolution in a massive meeting held in the Calcutta Townhall,
the formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made.
The Swadeshi Movement included boycott and public burning of foreign goods and
contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. The Swadeshi
Movement celebrated our indigenous fabrics, weavers and the country’s artisans.
August 7 has been chosen as National Handloom Day as it was the day that the
Swadeshi Movement was started in 1905.
Self-reliance or ‘atma shakti’ was encouraged. The swadeshi spirit also found
expression in the establishment of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories,
tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc.
The National Council of Education - Bengal was an organization founded by Indian
nationalists in Bengal in 1906 as part of the Swadeshi Movement.
It was set up to organise a system of education— literary, scientific and technical—on
national lines and under national control.
During Swadeshi Movement, a Bengal Institute of Technology was set up for technical
education and funds were raised to send students to Japan for advanced learning.
Also, the Bengal National College, inspired by Tagore’s Shantiniketan, was set up with
Aurobindo Ghosh as its principal.
12
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C
The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 who used it for
humanitarian relief and social work. The mission worked for both religious and social
reforms
The Ramakrishna Mission recognised the utility and value of image worship in
developing spiritual fervor and worship of the eternal omnipotent God. However, it
emphasised on the essential spirit and not the symbols or rituals.
The mission under Paramahamsa sought salvation through traditional ways of
renunciation, meditation and bhakti amidst increasing westernisation and
modernisation. He recognised the fundamental oneness of all religions and
emphasised that Krishna, Hari, Ram, Christ, Allah are different names for the same
God.
The Ramakrishna Mission subscribed to the Vedanta which Swami Vivekananda
considered a fully rational system with a superior approach. It believed that the
philosophy of Vedanta will make a Christian a better Christian, and a Hindu a better
Hindu.
His mission was to bridge the gulf between paramartha (service) and vyavahara
(behaviour), and between spirituality and day-to-day life.
The Mission is a deeply religious body, but it is not a proselytising body. It does not
consider itself to be a sect of Hinduism. Vivekananda advocated the doctrine of service
—the service of all beings. The service of jiva (living objects) is the worship of Siva.
13
In 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G.S Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the
Madras Mahajana Sabha. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native
Association.
14
The Deoband Movement begun at the Darul Uloom in Saharanpur district (United
Provinces) in 1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1832-80) and Rashid Ahmed
Gangohi (1828-1905).
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The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of Islam which originated from India. It was founded by
Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889.
The aim of the Deoband Movement was moral and religious regeneration of the Muslim
community. It was organised by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a
revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the
Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the
foreign rulers. In contrast, the Ahmadiyya movement was based on liberal principles. It
described itself as the standard-bearer of Mohammedan Renaissance, and based itself,
like the Brahmo Samaj, on the principles of universal religion of all humanity,
opposing jihad (sacred war).
Mohammedan Anglo Oriental Defence Association was founded in 1893 by Sir Syed
Ahmed Khan, as a part of the Aligarh Movement.
Creating a nationalistic consciousness among Indian Muslims was not the main
agenda of this association. Its main objective was uniting the Muslims in India. Its
secondary objective was ensuring the Indian Muslims became educated in Western
science and philosophy and got better jobs.
Apart from Muslims the British too were its members, as the founder - Sir Syed
Ahmed Khan believed that being in the good graces of powerful Britishers would help
uplift the members of his community. For example, Theodore Beck was one of the
secretaries of this association. The Britishers, too, encouraged the formation of this
association as they wanted to use it as a buffer and a counter against rising
sentiments of Indian Nationalism, led by the Indian National Congress.
15
Satya Shodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule on September 24, 1873. The
goal of the group was fight against Brahaminical domination and upliftment of
downtrodden groups such as women and shudras. He demanded representation of all
classes of the Hindus in all the local bodies, in services and institutions and also
established a primary school.
The aims and objectives of Satya Shodhak Samaj were as follows:
Spread of education among Shudras to make them aware of their rights and get
them out of the influence of sacred books made by the Brahmins.
To unite all shudras and ati-shudras against Brahminical order and culture.
Establishing ideal society based on Faith in one god without intermediaries like
priest and rejection of caste system and four varna division of society.
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Membership of the Satya shodhak Samaj was open to all those who accepted it
ideology irrespective of their caste, sect and religion
16
17
18
19
The Brahmo Samaj contested the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible. It believed that
no scripture is infallible. Dayanand Saraswati who founded the Arya Samaj believed in
the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible
20
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C
Sohgaura is not a Harappan site. It is a village on the banks of the Rapti River, in the
Gorakhpur District, Uttar Pradesh. The earliest known copper-plate, known as the
Sohgaura copper-plate, is a Mauryan record that mentions famine relief efforts.
22
Lalitagiri, Vajragiri and Ratnagiri are in Odisha. These places constitutes stupas,
monasteries, and Buddha images as its main attractions. It is said that Lalitgiri was a
prime place of Tantric Buddhism.
23
The administrative machinery of the Aryans in the Rig Vedic period worked with the
tribal chief in the Centre, because of his successful leadership in war, He was called
Rajan. He was called the protector of his tribe. He protected its cattle, fought its wars
and offered prayers to gods on its behalf
24
25
1) Vrajapati is called the Officer-in-charge of pastureland.
2) Balisadhakas collected the Bali, i.e., tax
3) Jivagribha: Police official
4) Senani: Supreme commander-in-chief
5) Gramani: Head of the village
6) Spasas: Spies & Messengers
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7) Bhagadugha: Revenue collector
8) Palagala: Messenger
9) Sanghrahriti: Treasurer
10) Suta: Charioteer
11) Kshatri: Chamberlain
12) Sthapati: Chief Judge
13) Govikartana: Keeper of forests & games
14) Akshavapa: Accountant
15) Takshan: Carpenter
26
1. Anekantavada is one of the most important and fundamental doctrines of Jainism.
27
28
Bodhgaya is in Bihar and Baghelkhand is a region shared by Madhya Pradesh and
Uttar Pradesh.
Khajuraho was built by Chandela dynasty in Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh
29
30
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Iqta system was not an ancient indigenous Indian institution. In India, it was started
during the rule of Delhi sultanates itself. Under Iqta System, the land of the empire
was divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and assigned these Iqtas to
his soldiers, officers and nobles.
Mir Bakshi was Head of the military department. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into
existence during the reign of Mughals.
Section 2 : Geography - 30 Questions
31
A)
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32
B)
What are Vande Bharat Trains?
It is an indigenously designed and manufactured semi high speed, self-
propelled train that is touted as the next major leap for the Indian
Railways in terms of speed and passenger convenience since the
introduction of Rajdhani trains.
The first Vande Bharat was manufactured by the Integral Coach
Factory (ICF), Chennai as part of the ‘Make in India’ programme, at a
cost of about Rs. 100 crore.
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The Vande Bharat was India’s first attempt at adaptation of the train
set technology compared with conventional systems of passenger
coaches hauled by separate locomotives.
Previously known as Train 18, the Vande Bharat Express is an electric
multiple-unit train that was conceptualized and produced by the
government-owned Integral Coach Factory (ICF) in Chennai.
The train set configuration, though complex, is faster, easier to
maintain, consumes less energy, and has greater flexibility in train
operation.
The first Vande Bharat Express train was flagged off on February 15,
2019,on the New Delhi-Kanpur-Allahabad-Varanasi route by Prime
Minister
What are the Features of the Vande Bharat Trains?
These trains, dubbed as Train 18 during the development phase,
operate without a locomotive and are based on a propulsion system
called distributed traction power technology, by which each car of the
train set is powered.
It can achieve a maximum speed of 160 kmph due to faster
acceleration and deceleration, reducing journey time by 25% to 45%.
It also has an intelligent braking system with power regeneration for
better energy efficiency thereby making it cost, energy and
environment efficient.
What are the Features of Vande Bharat 2.0?
The Vande Bharat Express 2.0 offers a myriad of superior and aircraft-
like travelling experiences.
It is equipped with advanced state-of-the-art safety features including
an indigenously developed Train Collision Avoidance System -
KAVACH.
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In the new design of Vande Bharat Express, a photo-catalytic
ultraviolet air purification system is installed in the Roof-Mounted
Package Unit (RMPU) for air purification.
33
C)
The Indian Government has dedicated significant efforts towards
strengthening the ‘Make in India’ campaign. As an excellent example
of the ‘Make in India’ success story, the Indian Railways launched
India’s first indigenous Semi High Speed train, Vande Bharat Express.
The first Vande Bharat Express train was flagged off on February 15,
2019, on the New Delhi- Kanpur-Allahabad-Varanasi route
On January 15, 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the
eighth Vande Bharat Express train connecting Secunderabad
(Telangana) and Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh).
Vande Bharat Express is the next major leap for Indian Railways in
terms of speed and convenience. In his address to the nation on 15
August 2021 from the ramparts of the Red Fort, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi announced that during the 75 weeks of the Amrit
Mahotsav of Independence, 75 Vande Bharat trains will connect every
corner of the country.
In the Union Budget 2022-23, Finance Minister Smt. Nirmala
Sitharaman announced that four hundred new-generation Vande
Bharat Trains with better energy efficiency and passenger riding
experience will be developed and manufactured during the next three
years
34
D)
The Indian Railways has introduced the new avatar of Vande
Bharat: Vande Bharat 2.0 with the first train being flagged off by the
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features over its predecessor. It will be able to attain maximum speed
up to 180 kmph, and will be lighter, weighing 392 ton instead of the
earlier 430 ton. The advancements in this new avatar include the
following:
Enhanced Safety:
The Vande Bharat 2.0 trains have the KAVACH (Train Collision
Avoidance System) for enhanced safety in operations. There will be
improved security with four emergency windows added in every coach.
There will be four platform side cameras including rear view
cameras outside the coach instead of two earlier. The new coaches
have Level-II safety integration certification for better train control.
The Vande Bharat 2.0 will also have better fire safety measures with
aerosol-based fire detection and suppression system in all electrical
cubicles and toilets. There will be superior floodproofing for under-
slung electrical equipment to withstand floods up to 650 mm height as
compared to 400 mm earlier. The train will also have four emergency
lighting in every coach in case of electric failure.
Improved Amenities for Passengers:
There will be enhanced riding comfort for passengers at 3.5 riding
index. The new Vande Bharat will also have 32-inch LCD TVs in place
of the earlier 24-inch TVs. There will be a passenger information and
communication system in Vande Bharat 2.0. 15 per cent more energy
efficient ACs with dust free clean air cooling of traction motor will
make the travel more comfortable. Side recliner seat facility which is
being provided to Executive Class passengers, will now be made
available for all classes. The Executive Coaches have the added feature
of 180-degree rotating seats. The train will also have bio vacuum
toilets with touch-free amenities. The trains will also have wi-fi content
on demand.
Other Enhancements:
The Vande Bharat 2.0 will have finer heat ventilation and air-
conditioning control through a higher efficiency compressor, with Ultra
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will be 140 seconds, compared to 145 seconds earlier. There will
be driver-guard communication with voice recording facility. There will
be change of formation with non-driving trailer coach in the middle for
better acceleration and deceleration. The train will have better
ventilation for traction motor for better reliability. There will also
be two signal exchange lights on the coaches for exchange of signal
with the way side stations.
35
D)
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36
D)
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Golden Quadrilateral
It is a highway network that connects Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and
Chennai, thereby uniting India's major industrial, agricultural, and
cultural centers.
The project began in 2001.
It was Phase 1 of the larger National Highway Development
Project, which was initiated by the same administration in 1998 (Atal
Bihari Vajpayee).
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), which is part of
the Ministry of Road,Transport, and Highways, is in charge of it.
When it was completed, the Golden Quadrilateral, which consisted of
5,846 km (3,633 mi) of four/six lane express roads, was the biggest
highway project in India and the sixth-longest in the world.
It is so named because it connects Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and
Chennai, forming a type of quadrilateral.
The fundamental goal of these superhighways is to shorten the
distance and time connecting India's four megacities.
This project includes the North-South corridor connecting Srinagar
(Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu), as well as the
East-West corridor connecting Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar
(Gujarat).
The network also connects other key metropolises such as Pune,
Ahmedabad, Jaipur, Kanpur, Surat in the north and Bengaluru,
Visakhapatnam, and Bhubaneswar in the south.
The increased speed limits were possible as a result of the systematic
and planned strengthening of the track and its infrastructure by
removing bottlenecks in these sections at a rapid pace.
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This featured stronger rails, the installation of 260-meter-long welded
rail panels, and the upgrading of bends and slopes, among other things.
The maximum speed restrictions on the High-Density Network (HDN)
between Secunderabad and Kazipet (132 km) have already been
increased to 130 kmph.
37
C)
Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC):
It is a high speed and high capacity railway corridor that is exclusively
meant for the transportation of freight, or in other words, goods and
commodities.
DFC involves the seamless integration of better infrastructure and
state of the art technology.
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DFC consists of two arms:
Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC):
It starts at Sahnewal (Ludhiana) in Punjab and ends at Dankuni in
West Bengal.
The EDFC route has coal mines, thermal power plants and industrial
cities. Feeder routes are also being made for these.
The EDFC route covers Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand and West Bengal
The World Bank is funding a majority of the EDFC.
The 351-km-long ‘New Bhaupur-New Khurja section’ will decongest
the existing Kanpur-Delhi main line and double the speed of freight
trains from 25 kmph to 75 kmph.
Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC):
The other arm is the around 1,500-km WDFC from Dadri in Uttar
Pradesh to Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust in Mumbai, touching all major
ports along the way.
The WDFC covers Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and
Uttar Pradesh.
It is being funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency.
Connecting Link for Eastern and Western Arm: It is under
construction between Dadri and Khurja.
The industrial corridor of Delhi-Mumbai and Amritsar-Kolkata are
also being developed around both these DFCs.
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38
A)
Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC):
It is a high speed and high capacity railway corridor that is exclusively
meant for the transportation of freight, or in other words, goods and
commodities.
DFC involves the seamless integration of better infrastructure and
state of the art technology.
DFC consists of two arms:
Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC):
It starts at Sahnewal (Ludhiana) in Punjab and ends at Dankuni in
West Bengal.
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The EDFC route has coal mines, thermal power plants and industrial
cities. Feeder routes are also being made for these.
The EDFC route covers Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand and West Bengal
The World Bank is funding a majority of the EDFC.
The 351-km-long ‘New Bhaupur-New Khurja section’ will decongest
the existing Kanpur-Delhi main line and double the speed of freight
trains from 25 kmph to 75 kmph.
Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC):
The other arm is the around 1,500-km WDFC from Dadri in Uttar
Pradesh to Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust in Mumbai, touching all major
ports along the way.
The WDFC covers Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and
Uttar Pradesh.
It is being funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency.
Connecting Link for Eastern and Western Arm: It is under
construction between Dadri and Khurja.
The industrial corridor of Delhi-Mumbai and Amritsar-Kolkata are
also being developed around both these DFCs.
Hence only 1 is correct
39
C)
Irrigation Projects in India are classified into three categories viz.
Major, Medium and Minor Irrigation. Projects which have a Cultivable
Command Area (CCA) of more than 10,000 hector are termed as
Major Projects, those Irrigation Projects which have a CCA of less
than 10,000 hector but more than 2,000 hector are termed as Medium
projects and
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those Irrigation Projects which have a CCA of 2,000 hector or less are
known as Minor projects
Type of Irrigation Technique:
Various types of irrigation techniques differ in how the water obtained
from the source is distributed within the field. In general, the goal is to
supply the entire field uniformly with water, so that each plant has the
amount of water it needs, neither too much nor too little. The various
irrigation techniques are as under:
Surface Irrigation: In surface irrigation systems, water moves over and
across the land by simple gravity flow in order to wet it and to
infiltrate into the soil. Surface irrigation can be subdivided into furrow,
border strip or basin irrigation. It is often called flood irrigation when
the irrigation results in flooding or near flooding of the cultivated land.
Localized Irrigation: Localized irrigation is a system where water is
distributed under low pressure through a piped network, in a pre-
determined pattern, and applied as a small discharge to each plant or
adjacent to it. Drip irrigation, spray or micro-sprinkler irrigation and
bubbler irrigation belong to this category of irrigation methods.
Drip Irrigation: Drip irrigation, also known as trickle irrigation,
functions as its name suggests. Water is delivered at or near the root
zone of plants, drop by drop. This method can be the most water-
efficient method of irrigation, if managed properly, since evaporation
and runoff are minimized. In modern agriculture, drip irrigation is
often combined with plastic mulch, further reducing evaporation, and
is also the means of delivery of fertilizer.
Sprinkler Irrigation: In sprinkler or overhead irrigation, water is piped
to one or more central locations within the field and distributed by
overhead high- pressure sprinklers or guns. A system utilizing
sprinklers, sprays, or guns mounted overhead on permanently
installedrisers is often referred to as a solid-set irrigation system.
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mechanism. Guns are used not only for irrigation, but also for
industrial applications such as dust suppression and logging. Sprinklers
can also be mounted on moving platforms connected to the water
source by a hose. Automatically moving wheeled systems known as
traveling sprinklers may irrigate areas such as small farms, sports
fields, parks, pastures, and cemeteries unattended.
40
B)
The Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River
Development and Ganga Rejuvenation on 26 AUG 2023 released the
report on the 6th census on minor irrigation schemes. As per the
report, 23.14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have been
reported in the country, out of which 21.93 million (94.8%) are
Ground Water (GW) and 1.21 million (5.2%) are Surface Water (SW)
schemes. Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest number of MI schemes in
the country followed by Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu. Leading States in GW schemes are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Telangana. In SW schemes
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Odisha and Jharkhand have the
highest share. GW schemes comprise dugwells, shallow tube wells,
medium tube wells and deep tube wells. The SW schemes comprise
surface flow and surface lift schemes.
There has been increase of about 1.42 million in MI schemes during
6th MI census as compared to 5th Census. At the national level, both
GW and SW schemes have increased by 6.9% and 1.2%, respectively.
Dug-wells have highest share in MI schemes followed by shallow tube-
wells, medium tube-wells and deep tube-wells. Maharashtra is the
leading State in dug-wells, surface flow and surface lift schemes. Uttar
Pradesh, Karnataka and Punjab are the leading States in shallow tube-
wells, medium tube-wells and deep tube-wells, respectively. Out of all
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0.9% are ‘permanently not in use’. Shallow tube-wells and medium
tube-wells lead in the category of ‘in use’ schemes. A majority of MI
schemes (96.6%) are under private ownership. In GW schemes, the
share of private entities in the ownership is 98.3% whereas in SW
schemes the respective share is 64.2%.
For the first time, the information about gender of the owner of MI
scheme was also collected in case of individual ownership. Out of all
the individually owned schemes, 18.1% are owned by women. Around
60.2% schemes have single source of finance whereas 39.8% schemes
have more than one source of finance. In single source of finance,
majority of schemes (79.5%) are being financed by own savings of
individual farmer.
41
D)
Maharashtra
42
C)
Dadra& Nagar Haveli
43
C)
The "India Ageing Report 2023" has been prepared by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) and the International Institute of
Population Sciences (IIPS) to address the welfare of senior citizens in India.
Some salient findings of the report include challenges in convincing senior citizens to use digital platforms and addressing mental
health issues like Dementia and Alzheimer’s disease, which are still stigmatized in society.
With the Indian population ageing, disability becomes a major concern, leading to increased caregiving burden.
Additional challenges include poverty, lack of social security, poor public health facilities, illiteracy, and digital ignorance among the
elderly.
Efforts by corporate and NGOs have been made for joyful aging, social assistance, and establishing old age homes.
The Government of India has been addressing elderly care challenges through various constitutional provisions, laws, policies,
schemes, and programs, such as the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, and the National Policy on Older
Persons, 1999.
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44
B)
The total forest and tree cover of the country is 24.62 per cent of the geographical area of the country.
As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country.
Out of this, the increase in the forest cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree cover is 721 sq km.
The top three states showing the increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and
Odisha (537 sq km).
Area-wise, after Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra have the largest forest cover.
In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh
(79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).
17 states/UT’s have above 33 per cent of the geographical area under forest cover.
Five states/UTs namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya have more than 75 per
cent forest cover.
The total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq km.
An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2019.
The top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq km) and Karnataka (3 sq
km).
Total carbon stock in the country’s forests is estimated to be 7,204 million tonnes and there is an increase of 79.4 million tonnes in the
carbon stock of the country as compared to the last assessment of 2019.
The annual increase in carbon stock is 39.7 million tonnes.
45
B)
Article 343(1) of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the Official Language of the
Union.
46
C)
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As per Census 2011, the State of Punjab, has the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste population amongst all
the States of the Country.
47
B)
The correct answer is Nilgiri Hills.
"Toda" people are a Dravidian tribes group who live in the Nilgiri Mountains of Tamil Nadu.
Their huts stand on wooden structures and the roofs are semi-cylindrical and springy.
Toda people do traditional milk business and trade in Baru and bamboo items.
Kumaon hills situated in Uttarakhand state and it is called the 'Lake District' of India.
Khasi Hills located in the Meghalaya state
48
B)
urbanization, the process by which large numbers of people become permanently concentrated in relatively small areas, forming
cities.
Urbanization is relevant to a range of disciplines, including urban planning, geography, sociology, architecture, economics, and public health.
The phenomenon has been closely linked to modernization, industrialization, and the sociological process of
rationalization. Urbanization can be seen as a specific condition at a set time (e.g. the proportion of total population or area in cities or
towns), or as an increase in that condition over time.
Urbanization is not merely a modern phenomenon, but a rapid and historic transformation of human social roots on a global scale,
whereby predominantly rural culture is being rapidly replaced by predominantly urban culture. The first major change in settlement
patterns was the accumulation of hunter-gatherers into villages many thousand years ago.
Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, the corresponding decrease in the proportion of people living
in rural areas, and the ways in which societies adapt to this change. It is predominantly the process by which towns and cities are
formed and become larger as more people begin living and working in central areas.
49
A)
Natural Growth of Population
50
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A)
Both A and R correct and R is explanation of A.
51
Zero tillage (no-till farming) is the process where the crop seed will be sown through
drillers without prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop
stubbles are present.
All the statements are correct regarding advantages of zero tillage farming
52
53
Teesta river is a tributary of the Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh),
flowing through India and Bangladesh.
It originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim and flows to the south through
West Bengal before entering Bangladesh.
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54
55
Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Kharif crop is the summer crop or monsoon crop in India. Kharif crops are usually sown
with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the southwest monsoon season. The
Kharif crops include the cultivation of tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra
and tur.
Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after the harvesting of rabi
crops and before the Monsoon season in India. The cultivation of watermelons, cucumbers,
vegetables and fodder crops is done during this season on irrigated lands.
Statement 3 is NOT CORRECT:
The Kharif season and not Rabi Season largely coincides with the Southwest Monsoon.
The Rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-
April.
56
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India does not have any UNESCO registered geo park, as of January 2022. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
Re- evaluation of each site takes place after a fixed period, where it can further designated
as geo park or cancelled being a geo park. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Geoparks:
A geopark is a unified area that advances the protection and use of geological heritage in a
sustainable way and promotes the economic well-being of the people who live there.
National Geological Monuments:These are geographical areas of national importance and
heritage, as notified by the Government of India's Geological Survey of India (GSI), for their
maintenance, protection, promotion and enhancement of geotourism.
Global Geoparks Global Geoparks are single, unified geographical areas where sites and
landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of
protection, education and sustainable development. These are maintained by UNESCO.
57
58
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59
Solution: Pulses require less quantity of water for their growth in comparison to Soyabean.
Pulses
• They are the edible seeds of leguminous plants cultivated for food.
• They are important food crops globally due to higher protein content.
• They are 20 to 25% protein by weight which is double the protein content of wheat and
three times that of rice.
• Major pulses are grown chickpeas (gram), pigeon pea (tur or arhar), moong beans, urd
(black matpe), masur (lentil), peas and various kinds of beans.
• They are high in fibres, and various vitamins, provide amino acids, and are hearty crops.
• They require less amount of water in comparison to soyabean and rice.
• They also contribute to soil quality by fixing nitrogen in the soil.
• India’s major export destinations (2020-21): USA, China, Nepal, UAE, Algeria.
• The main regions with high productivity in India are Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar
Pradesh, West Bengal delta region, coastal Andhra Pradesh etc.
60
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B
Section 3 : Current Affairs - 30 Questions
61
Iraq achieved a Milestone in Global Health by Eliminating Trachoma, a neglected tropical
disease and the world’s leading infectious cause of blindness.
Iraq has joined the league of 17 countries in eliminating trachoma, according to
the World Health Organization (WHO).
The WHO has recognized Iraq as the 50th country to eliminate at least one neglected
tropical disease.
Despite substantial progress, trachoma is still endemic in six countries in the
WHO's Eastern Mediterranean Region.
Trachoma starts as a bacterial infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and can
lead to blindness if untreated.
Disease thrives in areas with water shortages, poor sanitation, and fly infestations.
WHO recommends the SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and
Environmental improvement) to eliminate trachoma.
Additional Information:
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Recently, the World Health Organization’s (WHO) has released a Global report on
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD) 2023, which states that NTD continues to
disproportionately impact the most impoverished members of the international
community.
World NTD day is observed every year on 30th January. It was declared in
the 74th World Health Assembly (2021).
NTDs are a group of infections that are most common among marginalized
communities in the developing regions of Africa, Asia and the Americas.
They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and
parasitic worms.
NTDs are especially common in tropical areas where people do not have access to
clean water or safe ways to dispose of human waste.
These diseases generally receive less funding for research and treatment
than malaises like tuberculosis, HIV-AIDS and malaria.
Examples of NTDs are: snakebite envenomation, scabies, yaws,
trachoma, Leishmaniasis and Chagas disease etc.
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London Declaration on NTDs: It was adopted on 30th January, 2012 to recognise the
global burden of NTDs.
62
Iga Swiatek achieved a significant achievement by securing her fourth WTA title of the
year and her very first on home soil. The Polish tennis player showcased her
dominance in the final, defeating Germany’s Laura Siegemund with an incredible 6-0,
6-1 scoreline in just 68 minutes, denying her opponent any break points throughout
the match.
Iga Natalia Swiatek is a Polish professional tennis player who currently holds the
position of world No. 1 in singles according to the Women’s Tennis Association (WTA)
rankings. With an impressive record, Swiatek has earned the title of four-time major
singles champion, conquering the French Open in 2020, 2022, and 2023, as well as
the US Open in 2022.
She also stands as the first player from Poland to achieve a major singles title.
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Denmark’s Jonas Vingegaard of the Jumbo-Visma, Dutch professional bicycle racing
team,has won 110th edition of the Tour de France for a second straight year on the
Champs-Elysees in Paris, France. The Tour de France (Tour of France) is an annual
men’s multiple-stage bicycle race primarily held in France.
Defending Formula One champion Max Verstappen emphatically won the Belgian
Grand Prix for an eighth straight win and 10th overall of a crushingly dominant sea.
63
A new border-haat between India and Bangladesh was inaugurated in Bholaganj
under Companiganj upazila of Sylhet on Saturday
64
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According to the 360 ONE Wealth Hurun India Rich List for 2023 released recently,
Reliance Industries chairman Mukesh Ambani has surged ahead of Adani Group’s
Gautam Adani to claim the title of the richest Indian. Mukesh Ambani, the chairman
of Reliance Industries, saw his wealth grow by a modest 2 percent, reaching a
staggering Rs 8.08 lakh crore.
The report reveals that climate change could result in an estimated global AAL ranging
from $732 to $845 billion annually. This staggering figure represents approximately
14 percent of the global gross domestic product (GDP) between 2021 and 2022. The
report, titled “Biennial Report on Global Infrastructure Resilience: Capturing the
Resilience Dividend,” was released by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure (CDRI) on October 4, 2023. Alarmingly, half of this financial risk is
borne by low- and middle-income countries (LMIC).
65
The 15th annual Mercer CFA Institute Global Pension Index (MCGPI) recently revealed the
ranking of retirement income systems in various countries. The Netherlands secured the
top position, followed by Iceland and Denmark. India showed improvement, moving up to
the 45th rank out of 47 systems analyzed.
PLFS:
the National Statistical Office (NSO) under Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation released the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report
2022-2023 on the basis of Periodic Labour Force Survey conducted during July 2022-
June 2023.
In April 2017, the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) launched the Periodic Labour
Force Survey (PLFS) with the primary objective of providing more frequent and detailed
labor force data for policymakers, researchers, and the general public
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Key Terms
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
LFPR is the percentage of the working-age population (aged 15 years and
above) that is either employed or unemployed, but willing and looking for
employment.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR):
WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population.
Unemployment Rate (UR):
UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in
the labour force.
Activity Status
The activity status of a person is determined on the basis of the activities
pursued by the person during the specified reference period. When the activity
status is determined on the basis of the reference period of the last 365 days
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Types of Activity Status:
Principal Activity Status (PS):
The activity status on which a person spent a relatively long time
(major time criterion) during 365 days preceding the date of the
survey, was considered the usual principal activity status of the
person.
Subsidiary Economic Activity Status (SS):
The activity status in which a person in addition to his/her usual
principal status, performs some economic activity for 30 days or more
for the reference period of 365 days preceding the date of survey, was
considered the subsidiary economic activity status of the person.
Current Weekly Status (CWS):
The activity status determined on the basis of a reference period of the
last 7 days preceding the date of the survey is known as the current
weekly status (CWS) of the person.
66
According to global research firm Statista, India has secured the third position
worldwide in the number of financial technology (fintech) unicorns (In business, a
unicorn is a startup company valued at over US$1 billion which is privately owned and
not listed on a share market)
Mumbai has become the second most polluted city in the world in terms of the global
Air Quality Index (AQI), according to Switzerland-based air quality monitoring tech
company IqAir.
The data states that Mumbai has the worst AQI level in India followed by Delhi and
Kolkata.
67
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The Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China, witnessed a historic moment as Avinash
Sable, the Indian steeplechase sensation, secured a gold medal in the 3000m
steeplechase event. This remarkable achievement not only made Avinash Sable the
first Indian man to clinch gold in this event but also marked a breaking of the previous
Asian Games record
India’s Annu Rani won the gold medal in the women’s javelin throw with a 69.92m
throw at the Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou. She became the first Indian woman to
win a javelin gold in Asian Games history. Sri Lanka’s Nadeesha Dilhan Lekamge
Hatarabage, with 61.57 metres throw, and China’s Huihui Lyu, with 61.29 metres
throw, won silver and bronze, respectively
68
ndia made history on October 7, 2023, by winning its 100th medal at the Asian Games
for the first time ever. India’s 100th medal was won by the women’s kabaddi team, who
defeated Chinese Taipei 26-25 in a thrilling final.
India celebrated a remarkable 1-2 finish in the Men’s Javelin Throw competition at the
Asian Games 2023, held at the Hangzhou Olympic Sports Park Main Stadium in the
People’s Republic of China. Neeraj Chopra secured the gold medal, while Kishore
Kumar Jena clinched the silver, showcasing their exceptional talent on the grand
continental stage.
India’s Jyothi Surekha Vennam won gold medal in the women’s individual compound
archery event at the 19th Asian Games in Hangzhou, China, on Saturday. Jyothi
defeated So Chaewon of South Korea 149-145 in the final to complete a hattrick of
gold medals, having already won titles in the women’s and mixed team events.
69
The 37th edition of the National Games, scheduled for 2023, is set to take place in the
picturesque state of Goa. After multiple delays and changes in hosting rights, the
event is finally slated to run from October 26 to November 9, marking the first time
Goa has hosted this prestigious competition with Paytm, India’s renowned fintech
giant, emerged as the official sponsor.
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The Ninth P20 Summit, in collaboration with the International Parliamentary Union
(IPU), is hosted by the Parliament of India. This significant event will take place in New
Delhi on 13-14 October 2023, with a Pre-Summit Parliamentary Forum scheduled for
12 October 2023. The summit’s theme, “Parliaments for One Earth, One Family, One
Future,” derives its essence from the ancient Indian philosophy of Vasudhaiva
Kutumbakam, emphasizing the interconnectedness of the world as one family.
70
71
A)
The TV-D1 is a single-stage liquid rocket that will carry a crew module and crew
escape systems to an altitude of 17 km. The abort sequence will then be executed,
with the crew escape systems separating from the rocket and deploying parachutes to
bring the crew module safely to the ground.
The success of the TV-D1 test flight will be a significant milestone for the Gaganyaan
programme, as it will demonstrate the ability of the crew escape system to safely
transport astronauts away from a failing rocket.
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This test flight will be followed by three more tests of the same nature in the coming
days.
The Gaganyaan mission aims to launch a crew of three Indian astronauts to an orbit
of 400 km for a three-day mission, and bring them back safely to Earth. If successful,
India will become the fourth nation to launch a manned spaceflight mission, after the
US, Russia, and China.
72
B)
The mascot, named "Juhi", is inspired by the popular elephant at Betla National Park
in Jharkhand.
Juhi is known for her calm nature and for protecting mankind in the forest for
decades.
The unveiling of the mascot took place at the Project Bhawan in Dhurva, Ranchi,
Jharkhand, and was graced by the Hon'ble Chief Minister of Jharkhand, Shri
Hemant Soren, FIH President, Dato Tayyab Ikram, Hockey India President, Padma
Shri Dr. Dilip Tirkey, Hockey India General Secretary, Shri Bhola Nath Singh, and
Hockey India Treasurer, Shri Shekhar J Manoharan.
Shri Hemant Soren said that Juhi is a great way to inculcate similar values in the
people of Jharkhand and to create awareness among the hockey stars from all around
the world about the beloved wildlife associated with the state
73
C)
The Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) has issued market authorization to CAR-
T (Chimeric Antigen Receptor-T) cell therapy called NexCAR19. It’s a breakthrough
treatment for some types of cancers.
NexCAR19 has been approved for relapsed-refractory B-cell lymphoma and leukemia.
The therapy was developed by the IIT-Bombay spin-off company ImmunoACT.
NexCAR19 offers hope to blood cancer and lymphoma patients in India who cannot
afford to travel abroad for cutting-edge therapy.
CAR-T cell therapy is an advanced form of immunotherapy first launched in the US in
2017.
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NexCAR19 will be available in around 20 government and private hospitals across
major cities in India.
74
C)
Prakasam Barrage has been declared as a World Heritage Irrigation Structure (WHIS)
by the International Commission of Irrigation and Drainage (ICID).
The Prakasam Barrage (Old Krishna Anicut), is one of the 19 structures worldwide
that the ICID has recognised for the year 2023.
The idea of constructing a dam across the river Krishna dates back to 1798. It began
in the hands of captain Buckle and was revised in 1839 and 1841 by Captain Best
and Captain Lake.
After the endorsement of Major Cotton, the board of Directors of the East India
Company approved it on 5 January 1850.
75
B)
The National Games 2023, India's own multi-sport event inspired by the Olympics,
was held in five cities in Goa - Mapusa, Margao, Panjim, Ponda and Vasco.
Athletes from 28 states, eight Union Territories and Services Sports Control Board
(SSCB) competed at the 37th National Games, which was held from October 26 to
November 9. Goa hosted the event for the first time in its history.
Maharashtra topped the National Games 2023 medals tally with 228 medals – 80
gold, 69 silvers and 79 bronze – to win the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy, which is
given to the team that wins the most number of gold medals at the National Games.
Maharashtra last topped the National Games medals table back in 1994.
Andhra pradesh won 27 medals
76
B)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has lauded Jammu and Kashmir for achieving 100 percent
villages Open Defecation Free (ODF) Plus status in the Model category under Swachh
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Union Home Minister Amit Shah has also congratulated the people of Jammu and Kashmir.
Mr Modi said this is a monumental step in the journey towards a cleaner and healthier
India.
Mr Shah said the Union Territory has attained new heights in development and growth
after the abrogation of Article 370.
He added that the schemes implemented by the Central Government are now being
seamlessly extended to the nook and corners of Jammu and Kashmir.
77
A)
Read about it once by Googling once after going through all the questions
78
C)
Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI):
Erstwhile Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI), now renamed as
Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI), is an apex intelligence
organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs,
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of
intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of
Central Excise and Service Tax on an all-India basis.
The agency is part of the National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID). Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The main responsibilities of the DGGI are:
Intelligence gathering: The DGGI is responsible for gathering intelligence about
potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from
various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other
documents.
Investigation: The DGGI has the power to conduct investigations into suspected
cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons,
examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
Enforcement: The DGGI is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST
law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and
recovering any taxes or duties due.
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Other Functions:
The DGGI works closely with other agencies, such as the Central Board of
Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and the State GST authorities, to ensure
effective implementation of the GST law.
It also plays a key role in creating awareness about GST compliance and
educating taxpayers about their obligations under the law.
It is also responsible for providing technical and legal assistance to field officers
and other government agencies involved in the administration of the GST.
79
A)
The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), Andhra Pradesh, has unveiled its theme
for Andhra Pradesh for the year 2023-24.
The CII Andhra Pradesh will work on the theme “Towards a Competitive and
Sustainable Andhra Pradesh@100: Growth, Competitiveness, Sustainability,
Globalisation, Building Trust”
Chairman M Lakshmi Prasad said the CII would work with a nine-point agenda
comprising People and culture rejuvenation; Holistic sustainability and ESG; Tech
adoption and digital transformation; Embracing energy transition; Innovation and
startup ecosystem; Manufacturing excellence: Industry 4.0; Partnerships,
collaboration and international linkages; MSME’s; Brand building and sectoral
promotion.
80
B)
Remnants of Buddhist monastery from Satavahana period unearthed at Rudragiri in
Guntur.
Rudragiri forms part of the Eastern Ghats hill ranges and is named after king Rudra
Deva of the Kakatiya dynasty.
The Buddhist viharas on the Rudragiri hillock are akin to those found on the hillocks
at Guntupalli, Sankaram, Salihundam, Kapavaram, Bavikonda, Thotlakonda, etc. The
nearest place of interest is the monastery located at Grandhi Siri village
The badly-ruined brick-built structural remains of an ancient Buddhist Vihara
complex were found dating back to the 1st Century CE or 1st Century AD. This
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monastery flourished during the Satavahana period and was established by some
donors for the Buddhist monks.
81
B)
Bihar Caste Census: Key Demographic Breakdowns
OBCs and EBCs Dominate:
Extremely Backward Class (EBC) comprises 36.01% of the population.
Other Backward Class (OBC) constitutes 27.13% of the population.
Scheduled Castes and Tribes:
Scheduled Caste (SC) population stands at 19.65%.
Scheduled Tribe (ST) population is 1.68%.
General Caste and Yadavs:
General Caste population is 15.52%.
Yadavs represent 14% of the population.
Religious Composition:
Hindus make up 82% of the population.
Muslims account for 17.71%.
82
A)
83
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B)
84
D)
The 52nd GST Council met under the Chairpersonship of Union Minister for Finance
& Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman in New Delhi on 7th October, 2023
Recommendations relating to GST rates on goods and services
Changes in GST rates of goods
GST rates on “Food preparation of millet flour in powder form, containing at least 70%
millets by weight”, falling under HS 1901, with effect from date of notification, have
been prescribed as: 0% if sold in other than pre-packaged and labelled form 5% if
sold in pre-packaged and labelled form
To clarify that imitation zari thread or yarn made out of metallised polyester film
/plastic film, falling under HS 5605, are covered by the entry for imitation zari thread
or yarn attracting 5% GST rate. However, no refund will be allowed on polyester film
(metallised) /plastic film on account of inversion.
Foreign going vessels are liable to pay 5% IGST on the value of the vessel if it converts
to coastal run. GST Council recommends conditional IGST exemption to foreign flag
foreign going vessel when it converts to coastal run subject to its reconversion to
foreign going vessel in six months.
II. Other changes relating to Goods
GST Council recommended to keep Extra Neutral Alcohol (ENA) used for manufacture
of alcoholic liquor for human consumption outside GST. Law Committee will examine
suitable amendment in law to exclude ENA for use in manufacture of alcoholic liquors
for human consumption from ambit of GST.
To reduce GST on molasses from 28% to 5%. This step will increase liquidity with
mills and enable faster clearance of cane dues to sugarcane farmers. This will also
lead to reduction in cost for manufacture of cattle feed as molasses is also an
ingredient in its manufacture.
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A separate tariff HS code has been created at 8 digit level in the Customs Tariff Act to
cover rectified spirit for industrial use. The GST rate notification will be amended to
create an entry for ENA for industrial use attracting 18% GST.
85
C)
In the latest Global Hunger Index (GHI) for 2023, India has been ranked 111 out of
125 countries, marking a decline from its 107th position in 2022. The GHI is an
annual assessment of hunger levels globally, published by Irish NGO Concern
Worldwide and German NGO Welt Hunger Hilfe.
Key Findings of Global Hunger Index 2023
The GHI 2023 report highlights that India has the highest child wasting rate in the
world, standing at 18.7 percent during 2018–22, which signifies acute undernutrition.
The rate of undernourishment in India is reported at 16.6 percent, and the under-five
mortality rate is 3.1 percent.
The prevalence of anemia among women aged between 15 and 24 years in India is
alarmingly high at 58.1 percent.
India’s overall GHI score is 28.7, categorizing the hunger situation in the country as
“serious.”
Comparison with Neighbors: A Comparative Lens
In comparison to neighboring countries, India’s GHI ranking appears stark:
India: 111th
Pakistan: 102nd
Bangladesh: 81st
Nepal: 69th
Sri Lanka: 60th
India’s ranking pales in comparison to its neighbors, raising concerns about the
nation’s ability to tackle hunger effectively
Top and Worst Performers in Global Hunger Index 2023:
Belarus, Bosnia & Herzegovina, Chile, China and Croatia are the top five countries in
GHI 2023.
Chad, Niger, Lesotho, Congo, Yemen, Madagascar, and Central African Republic are
the countries ranked at the bottom of the index.
86
B)
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The National Statistical Office (NSO) released the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
Annual Report 2022-2023 in October, 2023 on the basis of Periodic Labour Force
Survey conducted during July 2022-June 2023.
Estimates of Key Labor Market Indicators in Usual Status:
Estimates of Key Labor Market Indicators Current Weekly Status (CWS):
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Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
LFPR is the percentage of the working-age population (aged 15 years and above) that
is either employed or unemployed, but willing and looking for employment.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR):
WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population.
Unemployment Rate (UR):
UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the
labour force.
Activity Status
The activity status of a person is determined on the basis of the activities pursued by
the person during the specified reference period. When the activity status is
determined on the basis of the reference period of the last 365 days preceding the
date of the survey, it is known as the usual activity status of the person.
Types of Activity Status:
Principal Activity Status (PS):
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activity status of the person.
Subsidiary Economic Activity Status (SS):
The activity status in which a person in addition to his/her usual principal status,
performs some economic activity for 30 days or more for the reference period of 365
days preceding the date of survey, was considered the subsidiary economic activity
status of the person.
Current Weekly Status (CWS):
The activity status determined on the basis of a reference period of the last 7 days
preceding the date of the survey is known as the current weekly status (CWS) of the
person.
87
D)
In a significant shift in the global remote work landscape, India has been ranked 64th
out of 108 countries in the Global
Remote Work Index (GRWI). This marks a substantial decline of 15 places from the
previous year, raising concerns about the country’s readiness for remote work.
Global Remote Work Index (GRWI) Criteria
The GRWI, developed and published by cybersecurity firm NordLayer, evaluates
countries based on four fundamental criteria crucial for remote work success:
1. Cyber Safety
2. Economic Safety
3. Digital and Physical Infrastructure
4. Social Safety
India’s Weaknesses in Digital and Physical Infrastructure: India’s remote work
challenges are largely rooted in subpar digital and physical infrastructure. The nation
ranked 77th in this category, indicating that its e-infrastructure is among the least
developed globally (95th position). India’s internet services, although widely available,
are plagued by issues of cost (78th) and quality (70th), hampering remote work
efficiency.
Top 10 Countries Leading in Remote Work
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Meanwhile, The top 10 countries which scored the highest on the Global Remote Work
Index (GRWI) are
1. Denmark,
2. Netherlands,
3. Germany,
4. Spain,
5. Sweden,
6. Portugal,
7. Estonia,
8. Lithuania,
9. Ireland, and
10. Slovakia.
88
C)
In a historic moment for India’s ambitious human space mission, the Test Vehicle-D1
(TV-D1), designed for the ISRO’s Gaganyaan program, successfully took flight from
Sriharikota, Island in Andhra Pradesh on 21st october, 2023 .
The launch, which marked a significant milestone in India’s space endeavors, was not
without its share of challenges.
Mission Objectives and Significance
The TV-D1 launch aimed to achieve several critical mission objectives, bringing India
closer to realizing its dream of sending humans into space. These objectives included:
Flight Demonstration and Evaluation of Test Vehicle Subsystems
The TV-D1 mission allowed for a comprehensive assessment of the various subsystems
that make up the test vehicle. This evaluation is crucial in ensuring the safety and
reliability of future human spaceflights.
Crew Escape System Evaluation
One of the paramount concerns in human space missions is the safety of the crew in
case of an emergency. TV-D1 provided a platform for the evaluation of the Crew Escape
System (CES), which encompasses various separation systems to ensure a safe escape
for astronauts.
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Crew Module Characteristics Assessment
Understanding the characteristics of the Crew Module (CM) is vital for the success of
future missions. TV-D1 helped gather critical data about the CM’s performance,
improving our knowledge of its behavior during the flight.
Deceleration System Demonstration at Higher Altitudes
As missions venture into deeper space, deceleration systems become increasingly
important. TV-D1 demonstrated the deceleration system’s capabilities at higher
altitudes, adding to the knowledge base for future missions.
The Test Vehicle-D1 and Its Significance
The TV-D1, a single-stage liquid rocket developed for this critical abort mission, played
a pivotal role in simulating an abort scenario during the ascent trajectory. It
corresponded to a Mach number of 1.2, mirroring conditions anticipated in the
Gaganyaan mission. The payloads onboard included the Crew Module (CM) and Crew
Escape Systems (CES) with their fast- acting solid motors, alongside the CM fairing
(CMF) and Interface Adapters.
In summary, the successful TV-D1 launch not only signifies a remarkable achievement
for India’s space program but also reaffirms the nation’s commitment to exploring the
possibilities of human space travel. As India moves closer to its goal of launching
astronauts into space, this mission paves the way for a brighter future in space
exploration
89
B)
Lionel Messi and Aitana Bonmati have been honored as the 2023 Ballon d’Or
recipients. Messi secures his eighth Ballon d’Or, setting a new record, thanks to his
pivotal role in leading Argentina to their first World Cup victory since 1986. This
remarkable achievement places Messi three Ballons d’Or ahead of his rival Cristiano
Ronaldo, who last won the award in 2017.
Messi has now been a top-three finalist for this prestigious accolade a total of 14 times,
with five instances as the runner- up.
Before this, Messi’s teammate in the World Cup-winning Argentine squad, Emiliano
Martinez, was recognized with the Lev Yashin Award for the world’s best goalkeeper.
Aitana Bonmati, a key player in Spain’s Women’s World Cup victory and a Barcelona
midfielder, claimed the women’s Ballon d’Or. Messi, who secured his inaugural Ballon
d’Or in 2009 and held a four-year consecutive streak until 2012, was the runner-up to
Haaland at the UEFA awards back in August.
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90
C)
The tallest statue (outside India) of the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution,’ B.R.
Ambedkar, known as the ‘Statue of Equality,’ unveiled in Maryland on October
14,2023.
This statue of Ambedkar is an integral component of the Ambedkar International
Center (AIC), currently under construction on a 13-acre plot in Accokeek city,
Maryland.
The Statue of Equality: A Monumental Tribute
Standing at a towering height of 19 feet, the ‘Statue of Equality’ is a testament to the
enduring impact of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s work. This monumental sculpture is poised to
become the largest statue of Babasaheb outside of India. It serves as a pivotal element
of the Ambedkar International Centre (AIC) project, situated on a sprawling 13-acre
expanse in Accokeek, Maryland, approximately 35 kilometers south of Washington.
The Architect of India’s Constitution
Born on April 14, 1891, Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, affectionately known
as Babasaheb, played a pivotal role in shaping the destiny of post-Independence India.
His profound influence can be attributed to his role as the chairman of the
Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee, which earned him the title “Architect of
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Section 4 : Mental Abilities - 30 Questions
91
A)
Average of 8 consecutive even numbers = 93
Fifth number = 93+1=94
Largest number = 94 + 6 = 100
92
C)
93
C)
highest grow th percent in the total sales of cars is in the 2015 year
Hence, the correct answ er is 2015
Percentage increase = ((Present Year - Previous Year) / Previous Year) *100
94
B)
Sales of cars of model 'D' in the year 2015 w ere 102.
Sales of cars of model 'D' in the year 2016 w ere 207.
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Using the formula for calculating the grow th rate w hich is ((final value - initial value) / initial value) × 100:
Grow th Rate = ((Year 2016 sales - Year 2015 sales) / Year 2015 sales) × 100
= ((207 - 102) / 102) × 100
= (105 / 102) × 100
= approximately 102.94%
This indicates that the sales of cars of model 'D' increased by approximately 102.94% from 2015 to 2016.
Therefore, the year w hen cars of m odel 'D' registered the highest grow th percent in sales over the previous year is indeed 2016.
95
C)
The combined sales of car models A and D in 2013 w ere 88 + 44 = 132.
The combined sales of car models A and D in 2016 w ere 175 + 207 = 382.
The difference in sales betw een 2013 and 2016 is 382 - 132 = 250.
To find the percentage increase: you take the difference, divide by the sales from the initial year (2013), and then multiply by 100.
So the percentage increase is (250 / 132) ×100 = 189.39%.
Therefore, the approximate percentage increase in sales of car models A and D together from 2013 to 2016 is approximately 189.39%.
Hence, the correct answ er is 189
96
B)
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97
C)
Gain per cent
98
A)
Let the original number of students be 2x, 3x and 4x in three class.
99
D)
100
D)
Required distance of office from house = x km. (let)
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101
D. M1* D1/W1 =M2* D2/W2
(60*60)/(3/4) = M2*30/(1/4)
M2= 40 men
So 20 Men can be discharged.
102
D)
103
D)
It is a known fact that unless you create awareness through advertisements, about your products, you lag
behind your competitors.
Also, heavy costs on advertisements add to your product.
Thus, both arguments are strong.
Hence, the correct answer is "If both I and II are strong".
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104
B)
Argument I is not strong because it's just a vague opinion which doesn't answer our problem of popularity of
Harry Potter. It has no facts to substantiate the opinion.
Hence argument I isn't strong.
Argument II is strong as it substantiates through two common measures of popularity of books - fan base and
sales figures - as to why Harry Potter is the most popular book series of the 21st century.
Hence argument II is strong.
Hence, only II is strong.
105
D)
Conclusions:
I. The rules followed in the school are not proper→ False (some students do not behave properly even if there
are strict rules)
II. Such a student should be expelled from school → False (as there are many students who behave improperly
and the removal of a student from school doesn’t correct their behavior)
Hence, none of the given conclusion follows
106
D)
The first conclusion states that the given three items are all that is needed for a respectable life. A difference
needs to be drawn here between ‘survival’ and ‘respectable life’. Survival would imply that these three items
can ensure that a man does not die. However, a ‘respectable life' would imply something more than mere
survival. Other factors, such as education, electricity, clean water supply etc. are essential for a respectable
standard of living. The given statement only talks about survival and not about a standard. Hence, conclusion I
is not true.
The second conclusion states that if any of these three is taken away, a man cannot survive and will die. Again,
the basic survival of man does not really depend on shelter and clothing. Out of the three, food is the only vital
thing that a human cannot survive without. There are many tribes that survive in the forests without essentially
having shelter and clothing (according to the Indian mindset). Hence conclusion II does not follow.
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107
C)
Here, the objective is to make homes energy efficient for sustainable development.
Replacing incandescent light bulbs with energy-efficient compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) is suggested
considering the statement says that making homes energy-efficient is important for sustainable development.
Therefore, assumption I is implicit in the statement.
One cannot relate the auspiciousness of good landscaping around one's house on the west side with efficient
energy consumption at home using the information from the statement.
Therefore, assumption II is not implicit
Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
108
B)
The statement given us no information to support the fact that younger children learn sw imming faster. Hence assumption I is not implicit.
It is given in the statement school has made it compulsory for the children to learn sw imming, this implies that the school is serious about the overall
development of children. Hence, assumption II is also implicit.
109
C)
I. Civic authorities should ensure adequate supply of medicine at nominal rate.
The course of action follows as by medicine one can control asthma.
II. Civic authorities need to control the air pollution caused due to emission from vehicles.
The course of action follows as pollution is caused due to emission of fumes from vehicles, which causes
problem in breathing and spreads asthma. Controlling pollution will therefore help in control of asthma too.
Hence, if both I and II follow.
110
B)
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From the statement above, we understand the effects of bullying on a student. But the course of action
mentioned in I is not viable as it will continue the practice of bullying.
Therefore, I does not follow.
On the other hand, setting clear and enforceable rules against the practice of bullying will be a feasible course
of action as it will reduce the number of bullying cases.
Therefore, II follows.
Hence, Only II follows.
111
B)
112
A)
113
C)
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114
D)
abb/abb/abb/abb - The word 'abb' is repeated in the series.
Hence, ‘bbabb’ is the correct answer.
115
D)
116
D)
Madhya Pradesh is in India and according to the question, India is called Bahamas.
Hence, the answ er is ‘Bahamas’.
117
D)
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118
A)
119
D)
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120
B)
Section 5 : Society - 30 Questions
121
C)
As per Census- 2011, the number of scheduled castes in India is 20,
13,78,372. It is 16.6% of the total population of India. The scheduled
castes are 18.5% of the total population of rural areas and 12.6% of
urban areas. It is to be noted that during 2001-2011 the decadal growth
rate of
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the population of India was 17.64%. During this period decadal growth
rate of the scheduled castes was 20.8%.
States having maximum ratio of scheduled castes, as per Census- 2011
(in descending order) - Punjab (31.9%) > Himachal Pradesh (25.2%) >
West Bengal (23.5%) >Uttar Pradesh (20.7%) > Haryana (20.2%)
States and Union territories having minimum ratio of Scheduled Castes,
as per Census-2011 (in ascending order) - Mizoram (0.1%) <
Meghalaya (0.6%) < Goa (1.7%) < Dadra and Nagar Haveli (1.8%) <
Daman and Diu (2.5%)
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and
Lakshadweep Islands have no population of Scheduled Castes (Census,
2011).
Among union territories, Delhi has the maximum number (28.19 lakh)
of Scheduled Castes.
Sex Ratio in Scheduled Castes: As per Census 2011, the sex ratio in
India is 943 whereas it is 945 in scheduled Castes. The sex ratio of
children (0-6 age group) in India is 919 whereas it is 933 in scheduled
castes. The sex ratio in scheduled castes is in favour of females in
Kerala (1057), Puducherry (1056), Goa (1015), Arunachal Pradesh
(1008) and Tamil Nadu (1004). Mizoram is the only state where the sex
ratio in scheduled castes is not only lowest (509) in the country but
deplorable also.
122
B)
As per Census- 2011, the number of scheduled castes in India is 20,
13,78,372. It is 16.6% of the total population of India. The scheduled
castes are 18.5% of the total population of rural areas and 12.6% of
urban areas. It is to be noted that during 2001-2011 the decadal growth
rate of the population of India was 17.64%. During this period decadal
growth rate of the scheduled castes was 20.8%.
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States having maximum ratio of scheduled castes, as per Census- 2011
(in descending order) - Punjab (31.9%) > Himachal Pradesh (25.2%) >
West Bengal (23.5%) >Uttar Pradesh (20.7%) > Haryana (20.2%)
States and Union territories having minimum ratio of Scheduled Castes,
as per Census-2011 (in ascending order) - Mizoram (0.1%) <
Meghalaya (0.6%) < Goa (1.7%) < Dadra and Nagar Haveli (1.8%) <
Daman and Diu (2.5%)
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and
Lakshadweep Islands have no population of Scheduled Castes (Census,
2011).
Among union territories, Delhi has the maximum number (28.19 lakh)
of Scheduled Castes.
Sex Ratio in Scheduled Castes: As per Census 2011, the sex ratio in
India is 943 whereas it is 945 in scheduled Castes. The sex ratio of
children (0-6 age group) in India is 919 whereas it is 933 in scheduled
castes. The sex ratio in scheduled castes is in favour of females in
Kerala (1057), Puducherry (1056), Goa (1015), Arunachal Pradesh
(1008) and Tamil Nadu (1004). Mizoram is the only state where the sex
ratio in scheduled castes is not only lowest (509) in the country but
deplorable also
123
D)
According to the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders
(Amendment) Act, 1990 Scheduled Castes can only belong to Hindu,
Sikh or Buddhist religions (The Scheduled tribes may belong to any
religion)
When enacted, the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order of 1950,
initially provided for recognising only Hindus as SCs, to address the
social disability arising out of the practice of untouchability. The
Order was amended in 1956 to include Dalits who had converted to
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Kalelkar Commission in 1955 and the High Powered Panel (HPP) on
Minorities, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in 1983
respectively.
124
B)
Article 17: The article abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its
practice in any form.The enforcement of any disability arising out of
untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law
(not exclusively for Scheduled castes)
Article 335: This Article states that the claims of members of the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be considered in making
appointments to services and posts in connection with the business of
the Union or of a State, consistent with the maintenance of
administrative efficiency (both scheduled castes and scheduled tribes).
Article 338: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is established
by Article 338.
The role of the Commission is to oversee the safeguards given for
Scheduled Castes in the Constitution or any other law.
Its responsibilities also include examining complaints and participating
in the planning process for the socioeconomic development of people
of Scheduled Caste groups, all while exercising all the powers of a civil
court.
Article 341: Scheduled Castes
The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and
where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by
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notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups
within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this
Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State
or Union territory, as the case may be.
Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled
Castes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any caste, race
or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as
aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied
by any subsequent notification.
125
A)
National Commission for Scheduled Castes
NCSC is a constitutional body that works to safeguard the interests of
the scheduled castes (SC) in India.Article 338 of the constitution of
India deals with this commission:
It provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes with duties to investigate and monitor all matters
relating to safeguards provided for them, to inquire into specific
complaints and to participate and advise on the planning process of
their socio-economic development etc.
History and Origin:
Special Officer:
Initially, the constitution provided for the appointment of a Special
Officer under Article 338.
The special officer was designated as the Commissioner for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
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65th Amendment, 1990:
It replaced the one-member system with a multi-member National
Commission for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
The Constitution (65th Amendment) Act 1990, amended Article 338 of
the Constitution. (Hence not from the inception of the constitution)
(Hence statement 1 is wrong)
89th Amendment, 2003:
By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for SC and ST
was replaced by two separate Commissions from the year 2004 which
were: National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)- under Article 338-A.
Structure:
It consists of:
Chairperson.
Vice-chairperson.
Three other members.
They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and
seal.
Functions:
Monitoring and investigating all issues concerning the safeguards
provided for the SCs under the constitution.
Enquiring into complaints relating to the deprivation of the rights and
safeguards of the SCs.
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Regular reporting to the President of the country on the
implementation of these safeguards.
Recommending steps to be taken to further the socio-economic
development and other welfare activities of the SCs.
Any other function with respect to the welfare, protection,
development and advancement of the SC community.
The Commission is also required to discharge similar functions with
regard to the Anglo-Indian Community as it does with respect to the
SCs.
Till 2018, the commission was also required to discharge similar
functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs). It was
relieved from this responsibility by the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018.
(Hence statement 3 is wrong)
126
A)
Government has earmarked allocation under Scheduled Caste Sub
Plan (SCSP) was renamed as Development Action Plan for Scheduled
Castes (DAPSC) in the financial year 2021-22
As a part of the socio-economic and financial inclusion strategy of the
Government to ensure that all segments of the society, particularly the
Scheduled Castes, are benefited and adequate funds are allocated for
their development, the concept of Development Action Plan for SCs
(DAPSC - earlier known as Allocation for Welfare of SCs or SCSP) is
being implemented by the Government so that targeted financial and
physical benefits can accrue to the Scheduled Castes. Under DAPSC,
certain percentage of funds are earmarked by Ministry/Department
wise exclusively for the welfare of SCs, for implementing identified
schemes/programmes. As per the Ministry of Finance guidelines, funds
under the SC component are not re-appropriated to Non-SC heads.
Besides, most State Governments and the Union Territory
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Administrations are also allocating part of their budget for the
development of SCs.
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has developed an
online-web portal (e-utthaan.gov.in) for monitoring the progress
against financial, physical and outcome targets under the DAPSC
127
D)
National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was
constituted on 12th August, 1994 as a statutory body by an Act of
Parliament viz. ‘National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act,
1993’, for a period of three years i.e. up to 31st March, 1997. As per
sub-section (4) of Section 1 of the Act, it was to cease to exist after
31.3.1997. However, validity of the Act was extended up to March,
2002, and then up to February, 2004 vide Amendment Acts passed in
1997 and 2001 respectively.
With the lapsing of the “The National Commission for Safai
Karamcharis Act, 1993” w.e.f. 29.2.2004, the Commission is acting as a
Non-Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment
The mandate of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
Recommend to the Central Government specific programmes of action
towards elimination of inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities
for Safai Karamcharis.
Study and evaluate the implementation of the programmes and
schemes relating to the social and economic rehabilitation of Safai
Karamcharis; and scavengers, in particular.
Investigate specific grievances and take suo-motu notice of matters
relating to non-implementation of: -
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programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis
decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardships
of Safai Karamcharis
measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis
the provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis; and
take up such matters with the concerned authorities or with the Central
or State Governments
To study and monitor the working conditions, including those relating
to health, safety and wages of Safai Karamcharis working under
various kinds of employers including Government, Municipalities and
Panchayats, and to make recommendations in this regard.
Make reports to the Central or State Governments on any matter
concerning Safai Karamcharis, taking into account any difficulties or
disabilities being encountered by Safai Karamcharis
Any other matter which may be referred to it by the Central
Government.
However, with the enactment of “The Prohibition of Employment as
Manual Scavengers and Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013”, the mandate
and scope of the Commission has also been enlarged. As per Section
31(1) of the said Act, the Commission shall perform the following
functions, namely:-
To monitor the implementation of the Act.
To enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the provisions of
the Act, and to convey its findings to the concerned authorities with
recommendations requiring further action.
To advise the Central and the State Governments for effective
implementation of the provisions of the Act.
To take suo motu notice of matter relating to non-implementation of
the Act.
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In the discharge of its functions, the Commission have the powers to
call for information with respect to any matter specified above from
any Government or local or other authority.
The Commission also monitors the implementation of Supreme Court
Judgement dated 27.03.2014 in Writ Petition(Civil) No.583 of 2003 in
Safai Karamchari Andolan & ors Vs. Union of India. The Supreme
Court, in the above Writ Petition has, inter-alia, directed as under:-
“Identify the families of all persons who have died in sewerage work
(manholes, septic tanks) since 1993 and award compensation of Rs.
10.00 lakhs for each such death to the family members depending on
them”.
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis comprises one
Chairman (in the rank and status of the Union Minister of State) and
four members, including a lady member (in the rank and status of the
Secretary to the Government of India) and the Secretary (in the rank of
Joint Secretary to the Govt. of India) along with other supporting staff.
128
C)
Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is a
unified scheme, framed after merging the three existing schemes of this
Department namely Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Caste
Sub-Plan (SCA to SCSP), Babu Jagjivan Ram Chatrawas Yojana
(BJRCY) and Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) with an
aim:
to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of additional
employment opportunities through skill development, income
generating schemes and other initiatives.
to improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring
adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated
villages.
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in quality institutions, as well as residential schools where required,
especially in the aspirational districts/ SC dominated blocks.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a
merged scheme of 03 Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely Pradhan
Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to
Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP) and Babu Jagjivan Ram
Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY) and has been implemented since 2021-22
with an aim to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of
additional employment opportunities through Skill development,
income generating schemes and other initiatives and to improve socio-
economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure
and requisite services in the SC dominated villages.
The Scheme has three components: 1. Development of SC dominated
villages into an “Adarsh Gram”. 2.‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-
level Projects for socio-economic betterment of SCs that may include
creation of infrastructure in SC dominated villages including those
selected under Adarsh Gram component, construction of
Hostels/Residential schools, Comprehensive Livelihood Projects which
may include components such as Skill development, related
infrastructure development, financial assistance towards loans taken by
beneficiaries for acquisition/creation of assets required for livelihood
generation etc. 3.Construction of Hostels in higher educational
institutions which are top-ranked as per the National Institutional
Ranking Framework (NIRF) of Government of India and are funded by
the Centre/State/UT Governments either fully or partially. Similarly,
construction of hostels in schools which are either fully or partially
funded by the Centre/State/UT Governments and recommended by the
Ministry of Education
Objectives of Adarsh Gram Component {erstwhile Pradhan Mantri
Adarsh Gram Yojana} -The objective of this component is to ensure
integrated development of SC majority villages so that, inter alia, there
is:, Adequate infrastructure, All requisite infrastructure necessary for
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Improvement in Socio-Economic Indicators. The identified socio-
economic indicators, known as Monitorable indicators, are to be
improved so that the disparity between SC and non-SC population is
eliminated and the level of indicators is raised to atleast that of the
National average. More specifically, all BPL SC families should have
food and livelihood security, all SC children should complete education
at least up to the secondary level, all factors leading to maternal and
infant mortality are addressed and incidence of malnutrition, especially
among children and women, is eliminated.
The details of the progress made under the scheme and the outcomes
under the scheme as reported by State/UT Governments during the last
05 years are as under:
Under Adarsh Gram component, a total of 29881 villages have been
covered under Adarsh Gram Component and out of these, 6087
villages have been declared as Adarsh Gram.
Under Grant-in-aid component, the central assistance of Rs. 3242.07
Cr have been released and a total of 850611 beneficiaries have been
benefited from the assistance.
Under Hostel Component, a total of 85 hostels have been sanctioned
and 8659 inmates have been benefited from these hostels.
There are 03 components under the scheme of PM-AJAY namely
Adarsh Gram, Grant-in-aid and Hostel. The number of districts covered
and beneficiaries benefited (as reported by State/UT Governments)
under these components in Assam during the last 05 years are as under:
Adarsh Gram component: This component is implemented in 31
districts in Assam and under this component, a total of 2493
beneficiaries have been attended.
Grant-in-aid: This component is not implemented district-wise,
however, a total of 7754 beneficiaries have been benefited in the State.
Hostel Component: This component is implemented in 13 number of
districts and a total of 800 inmates have been benefited.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 176 of 201
129
B)
The Central Sector Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of
Manual Scavengers was revised in November, 2013 in consonance with
the provision of the “Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers
and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (MS Act, 2013). The objective of
SRMS is to provide assistance to the identified manual scavengers and
their dependants for their rehabilitation in alternative occupations.
The following are the main components of SRMS as revised upto 2020-
21:-
Onetime cash assistance of Rs.40000/- to identified manual scavenger.
Credit linked back-end capital subsidy upto Rs. 3.25 lakh with
provision of concessional Loans for project cost upto Rs. 15.00 lacs.
Skill Development Training upto two years with stipend of Rs.3000/-
per month to the manual scavenger/dependent who opts for such
training.
Subsidy on Loans to manual scavengers/ sanitation workers and their
dependents for sanitation related projects (for projects upto Rs. 15
lakh)
Coverage of Manual Scavengers for Health Insurance under Ayushman
Bharat (PM-JAY) Yojana
Behavioral Skill Development Training (RPL).
Health Camps.
Workshops on Hazardous Cleaning of Sewers and Septic Tanks.
The scheme is being implemented at the national level through the
NSKFDC.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 177 of 201
provisions of the MS Act, 2013. In 2018, fresh survey of manual
scavengers was started in 194 districts of the country. During these two
surveys the identified till Feb. 2021, 58,098 eligible manual scavengers
have been identified and they have been paid the One Time Cash
Assistance.
130
D)
Reservation of SCs & STs in Central Government posts and services
As per Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), the percentage
of reservation as on October 2022 for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Central Government posts and services are as
under:-
In case of appointment by direct recruitment to civil posts and civil
services on all India basis by open competition, 15% reservation for
SCs and 7.5% reservation for the STs is provided.
In case of appointment by direct recruitment to civil posts and civil
services on all India basis otherwise than by open competition, 16.66%
reservation for SCs and 7.5% reservation for the STs is provided.
The percentage of reservation for SCs and STs is case of direct
recruitment to Group C and Group D posts normally attracting
candidates from a locality or a region is generally fixed on the basis of
proportion of their population in the respective States/UTs. To view the
details, click here.
In case of promotion, 15% reservation for SCs and 7.5% reservation
for the STs is provided.
131
C)
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 178 of 201
Babu Jagjivan Ram National Foundation
The Babu Jagjivan Ram National Foundation was established by the
Government of India as an autonomous organization under the Ministry
of Social Justice & Empowerment and registered under The Societies
Registration Act, 1860 on 14th March 2008.
The President of the Foundation is the Union Minister of Social Justice
& Empowerment. The main aim of the Foundation is to propagate the
ideals of the late Babu Jagjivan Ram, Deputy Prime Minister, on social
reform as well as his ideology, philosophy of life, mission and vision to
create a casteless and classless society. The Foundation works to
promote the scheduled castes and weaker sections of society through
development schemes to promote social justice, to remove
discrimination, to empower the scheduled castes and underprivileged
people of society as well as to bring about an attitudinal change in
society to abolish untouchability and caste-based prejudice.
132
B)
Fundamental Provisions of the Protection of Civil Rights Act
Section 3: If anyone forbids an individual to enter a religious place on
the basis of caste discrimination, then he/she would be punished for
one month or maximum till six months and also also with fine which
shall be not less than one hundred rupees and not more than five
hundred rupees.
Section 4: if anyone forbids a person to enter a public place such as
hotels, restaurants, or stops them from using their commodities on basis
of caste discrimination, then the punishment will be imprisonment of
one month or six months (not more than that) and also with fine which
shall be not less than one hundred rupees and not more than five
hundred rupees.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 179 of 201
penalised with the imprisonment of one month or more but not more
than six months and also with fine which shall be not less than one
hundred rupees and not more than five hundred rupees.
Section 6: if someone denies an individual from selling goods and
rendering services to any person on the basis of untouchability, then he
or she will be penalised with imprisonment for one month or more but
not more than six months and also with fine which shall be not less
than one hundred rupees and not more than five hundred rupees.
Section 7: if someone forbids an individual from exercising Article 17,
causing an injury, or insult, then the punishment will be imprisonment
of a month or six months ( and also with fine which shall be not less
than one hundred rupees and not more than five hundred rupees).
Moreover, if a person occupies someone’s land or other property on the
ground of untouchability, then he or she will be fined as well as
imprisoned.
Section 7A: Unlawful compulsory labour when to be deemed to be a
practice of “untouchability”:Whoever compels any person, on the
ground of “untouchability”, to do any scavenging or sweeping or to
remove any carcass or to flay any animal, or to remove the umbilical
cord or to do any other job of a similar nature shall be deemed to have
enforced a disability arising out of “untouchability”. Who ever violates
this provision shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than three months and not more than six months and
also with fine which shall not be less than one hundred rupees and not
more than five hundred rupees.
Section 8: Cancellation or suspension of licences in certain cases.—
When a person who is convicted of an offence under section 6 holds
any licence under any law for the time being in force in respect of any
profession, trade, calling or employment in relation to which the
offence is committed, the court trying the offence may without
prejudice to any other penalty to which such person may be liable
under that section, direct that the licence shall stand cancelled or be
suspended for such period as the court may deem fit, and every order
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 180 of 201
passed by the authority competent to cancel or suspend the licence
under any such law.
Section 9: Resumption or suspension of grants made by Government.—
Where the manager or trustee of a place of public worship 1[for any
educational institution or hostel] which is in receipt of a grant of land
or money from the Government is convicted of an offence under this
Act and such conviction is not reversed or quashed in any appeal or
revision, the Government may, if in its opinion the circumstances of the
case warrant such a course, direct the supension or resumption of the
whole or any part of such grant.
133
A)
The Amendments done in the Principal Rules namely the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995
by the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Amendment Rules, 2016 have been notified on 14th April,
2016
134
B)
THE SCHEDULED CASTES AND THE SCHEDULED TRIBES
(PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) ACT, 1989
Section 14: Special Court and Exclusive Special Court.—(1) For the
purpose of providing for speedy trial, the State Government shall, with
the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification
in the Official Gazette, establish an Exclusive Special Court for one or
more Districts:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 181 of 201
Provided that in Districts where less number of cases under this Act is
recorded, the State Government shall, with the concurrence of the
Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification in the Official Gazette,
specify for such Districts, the Court of Session to be a Special Court to
try the offences under this Act
(2) It shall be the duty of the State Government to establish adequate
number of Courts to ensure that cases under this Act are disposed of
within a period of two months, as far as possible.
(3) In every trial in the Special Court or the Exclusive Special Court,
the proceedings shall be continued from day-to-day until all the
witnesses in attendance have been examined, unless the Special Court
or the Exclusive Special Court finds the adjournment of the same
beyond the following day to be necessary for reasons to be recorded in
writing:
Provided that when the trial relates to an offence under this Act, the
trial shall, as far as possible, be completed within a period of two
months from the date of filing of the charge sheet.
135
B)
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation
Act, 2013
Manual scavenging is a prohibited activity in the country with effect
from 6.12.2013.
No person or agency can engage or employ any person for manual
scavenging from the above date. Any person or agency who engages
any person for manual scavenging in violation of the provisions of the
MS Act, 2013 is punishable under Section 8 of the above Act, with
imprisonment upto 2 years or fine upto Rs. One Lakh or both.
This law makes it an offence to:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 182 of 201
Employ people as manual scavengers to clean insanitary latrines.
Employ people to clean sewers and septic tanks without protective
gear.
Construct insanitary latrines.
Not demolish or convert insanitary latrines within a certain period of
this Act coming into force.
It lays down the rules and procedure for the rehabilitation of manual
scavengers through training in alternate employment, financial help and
help with purchasing property.
Every local authority (municipality or panchayat), cantonment board or
railway authority is responsible for surveying its area to identify
manual scavengers
136
B)
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation
Act, 2013
Section 6: Contract, agreement, etc., to be void.—(1) Any contract,
agreement or other instrument entered into or executed before the
date of commencement of this Act, engaging or employing a person
for the purpose of manual scavenging shall, on the date of
commencement of this Act, be terminated and such contract,
agreement or other instrument shall be void and inoperative and no
compensation shall be payable therefor.
Section 7: Prohibition of persons from engagement or employment for
hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks.—No person, local
authority or any agency shall, from such date as the State Government
may notify, which shall not be later than one year from the date of
commencement of this Act, engage or employ, either directly or
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 183 of 201
Section 8. Penalty for contravention of section 5 or section 6.—
Whoever contravenes the provisions of section 5 or section 6 shall for
the first contravention be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to one year or with fine which may extend to fifty
thousand rupees or with both, and for any subsequent contravention
with imprisonment which may extend to two years or with fine which
may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both
Section 9: Penalty for contravention of section 7.—Whoever
contravenes the provisions of section 7 shall for the first contravention
be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two
years or with fine which may extend to two lakh rupees or with both,
and for any subsequent contravention with imprisonment which may
extend to five years or with fine which may extend to five lakh rupees,
or with both.
Section 10: Limitation of prosecution.—No court shall take
cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act except upon a
complaint thereof is made by a person in this behalf within three
months from the date of the occurrence of the alleged commission of
the offence.
Section 11: Survey of manual scavengers in urban areas by
Municipalities.—(1) If any Municipality has reason to believe that
some persons are engaged or employed in manual scavenging within
its jurisdiction, the Chief Executive Officer of such Municipality shall
cause a survey to be undertaken to identify such persons.
Section 12: Application by an urban manual scavenger for
identification.—(1) Any person working as a manual scavenger in an
urban area, may, either during the survey undertaken by the
Municipality in pursuance of section 11, within whose jurisdiction he
works, or at any time thereafter, apply, in such manner, as may be
prescribed, to the Chief Executive Officer of the Municipality, or to
any other officer authorised by him in this behalf, for being identified
as a manual scavenger.
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Section 14: Survey of manual scavengers in rural areas by Panchayats.
—If any Panchayat has reason to believe that some persons are
engaged in manual scavenging within its jurisdiction, the Chief
Executive Officer of such Panchayat shall cause a survey of such
manual scavengers to be undertaken, mutatis mutandis, in accordance
with the provisions of section 11 and section 12, to identify such
person
137
B)
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation
Act, 2013
Section 21: Offences to be tried by Executive Magistrate.—(1) The
State Government may confer, on an Executive Magistrate, the powers
of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class for the trial of offences under
this Act; and, on such conferment of powers, the Executive Magistrate,
on whom the powers are so conferred, shall be deemed, for the
purposes of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), to be a
Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
Section 22: Offence to be cognizable and non-bailable.—every offence
under this Act shall be cognizable and non- bailable.
138
C)
Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation
Act, 2013
Section 24: Vigilance Committees.—(1) Every State Government
shall, by notification, constitute a Vigilance Committee for each
district and each Sub-Division.
(2) Each Vigilance Committee constituted for a district shall consist of
the following members, namely:—
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 185 of 201
(b) all members of the State Legislature belonging to the Scheduled
Castes elected from thedistrict—members:
Provided that if a district has no member of the State Legislature
belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the State Government may
nominate such number of other members of the State Legislature from
the district, not exceeding two, as it may deem appropriate.
(c) the district Superintendent of Police— member, ex officio;
(d) the Chief Executive Officer of,—
(i) the Panchayat at the district level—member, ex officio;
(ii) the Municipality of the district headquarters—member, ex officio;
(iii) any other Municipal Corporation constituted in the district—
member, ex officio; (iv) Cantonment Board, if any, situated in the
district—member, ex officio;
(e) one representative be nominated by the railway authority located
in the district;
(f) not more than four social workers belonging to organisation
working for the prohibition of manual scavenging and rehabilitation of
manual scavengers, or, representing the scavenger community,
resident in the district, to be nominated by the District Magistrate, two
of whom shall be women
(4) Each Vigilance Committee constituted at district and Sub-
Divisional level shall meet at least once in every three months.
139
D)
Bonded
farming
Kaimuti,
Gullu
practice
bonded labour
sector
Janouri,
inextraction
sexAndhra
exists itisKamiah
in
workers; known
is known
Pradesh;
non-framing
and ininand
and different
as Hali
others
Panal
sectors
small-scaleininnames
Gujarat
Bihar;
Pathiran
like the in
Gothi
industries the
and
inand
Devadasi incountry.
Uttar
like Orissa;
Tamilnadu. In the
Pradesh;
Gassi-
practice The
firecracker, of
textile,
granite
the leather
non-farming
collated national
particular goods
that of the industries manufacturing
industries.
statistics
children, are The
the
available most
affected sectors,
children.
about affected
by bonded brick
There
the number by bonded
is no tile kilns
India. in
labour
credible
labourofin persons, and
and
In Andhra
categories
sections
Vetti (debt Pradesh,
of
offound landlessness,
society.
slavery), ThetheTelengana
bhagola, system
involving
system, was
known
chakri/ theThe
various
jeetam, bydirect
different
etc., outcome
economically names,
originated ofexploited
several
such as
uneven
conditions
Nizam
system
the social
(up
known
Hyderabad to asstructure
1949) inbhagola
Bhagola thehad characterized
taken
in the
Agreement State.
steps
old to1943by
eradicate
Hyderabad
Act, feudal
erstwhile
statetheand bonded
and hadfrom
semi-feudal
Government the
of
labour
passed
In
in Bihar,
Palamau,
Deoghar,
bondage canwhere
kamiauti
bhaoti
be the
in system
in Godda
Santhal toandis krishari
known
Parganas, as
harwahi
inbeing kanua
Dumka, in and bysevakias
Bhagalpur,
the origin kandh
of in
debt
of the
working village
treatment for
and thetraced
community. creditorback
obligations The for the
ofsystemcaste
long
the was hierarchy
hours,
father characterized
low and
passedwages,feudal
on thestructure
debtor
tooppressive
the son
In
of Karnataka,
Jeevitha,
service isunder the
meaning
this system is are
lifetime.
system known as on
Inlabour
other jeetha,
words, which
theThe is bonded
a corrupt
persons form
rendering
system
the members
basis.
of the The inexistence
the
Commissioner of form the of
ofSC
for the
SC and bonded
attached
community
system ST has
between for
and
been life.
isthewidely
a hereditary 1960sprevalent
confirmed and labour
among
obligatory
by 1970s
and the reports
In Madhya
Chattisgah,
Tract,
harwahi mahindari
in Pradesh,
harwah
Vindhya hali inthe
inregion.
Betul,system
Morena, brondia,
The isMadhya
barasia known
ofhallmarks kamdar
and asand
kabarani
of thekamia mahidar or agreement
inare:
kamiya saorija
inobtains
Balaghat, Nimarin
and
harwah
between
an interest
wages
ploughman system
thefree
until tenure
loses found
theadvance;
the holder
money in
freedom parts
and
the the ploughman;
ploughman
obtained
to work renders
inforadvance
other Pradesh
the ploughman
isservices
fully onsystem
nominal
repaid; or
the
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 186 of 201
In Orissa,
districts
meet
implements
between ofthe
characteristics:
to expenses
the or system
Koraput,
landless
for
creditor on ofmarriage,
paying
and bonded
Kalahandi
tribal
off
the labour
groups
bad and
seek
funeral,
debtordebts;
for known
Ganjam,
ancredit
procuring
there as
is gothi,
had
without
an
unspecified cattle
oralfound
the
any and in
following
collateral
agreement
period; the
other
cover
the debt
bahabandh without
(bonded any mention
slavery)
abolished in 1921 and 1923, respectivelyand of the
bethi corresponding
and begar agreement.
(forced labour) The
were
Debt hideous
most bondage
oppression in Rajasthan isofknown
andmanifestations
exploitation usury as theits
with sagri system,elements
attendant one of the of
In
was Uttar
begar, Pradesh,
bandhwa
prevalent
fireworks
manufacturing in the system
mazdoor,
agriculture,
factories,
industries was known
bidi,bandhak,
stone bajgee,
quarries,
brassware, by different
sevak,
brick
glass kilns,
bangle names,
harwah,
matchboxsuch
andetc., as
and
carpet
In Tamilnadu,
cherumas,
minimum
master no bonded
pulayas,
characteristics:
andwages; the
freedom labour
panias
a written andknown
agreement;
debtor
to work having
for bythe
holigas. different
The
the
others debtor atnames,
system
obligation
even has such
receiving
to wages.
higher work asfor
less izvas,
the followingthan
the
The
underGovernment
existence
immediate
customary ofpractices
3,542
slave-like
release. of
bondedArunachal
conditions,
This
of this labourers
but has
sullung
tribal Pradesh
regretted
system
society has
(called sullungs)
isits acknowledged
who
inability
deeply toare working
attain
rooted the
in their
the
Palemod system of Maharashtra
Different
Basahya,
Holya,
Munjhi,
Sagri, forced
Bethu,
Jana,
Mat, labour
Jeetha,
Munish
Sanji,Sanjawat, systems
Bhagela,
Kamiya,
system,
Sewak, across
Cherumar, India : Adiyamar,
Garru-galu,
Khundit-Mundit,
Nit-Majoor,
Sewakia, Paleru,
Seri, Vetti; Baramasia,
Hali,Hari, Harwai,
Kuthia,Lakhari,
Padiyal,Pannayilal,
140
A)
THE BONDED LABOUR SYSTEM (ABOLITION) ACT, 197
Important Sections of the Act
Section 4: Abolition of bonded labour system.-
(1) On the commencement of this Act, the bonded labour system shall
stand abolished and every bonded labourer shall, onsuch
commencement, stand freed and discharged from any obligation to
render any bonded labour.
(2) After the commencement of this Act, no person shall-
(a) make any advance under, or in pursuance of, the bonded labour
system, or
(b) compel any person to render any bonded labour or other form of
forcedlabour.
Section 5:. Agreement, custom, etc., to be void.—On the
commencement of this Act, any custom or traditionor any contract,
agreement or other instrument (whether entered into or executed
before
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 187 of 201
or after thecommencement of this Act), by virtue of which any person,
or any member of the family or dependant ofsuch person, is required
to do any work or render any service as a bonded labourer, shall be
void andinoperative.
Section 6: Liability to repay bonded debt to stand extinguished.—
(1) On the commencement of this Act, every obligation of a bonded
labourer to repay any bonded debt, or such part of any bonded debt
asremains unsatisfied immediately before such commencement, shall
be deemed to have been extinguished.
(2) After the commencement of this Act, no suit or other proceeding
shall lie in any civil court or before any other authority for the
recovery of any bonded debt or any part thereof.
(3) Every decree or order for the recovery of bonded debt, passed
before the commencement of this Act and not fully satisfied before
such commencement, shall be deemed, on such commencement, to
have been fully satisfied.
(4) Every attachment made before the commencement of this Act, for
the recovery of any bonded debt, shall, on such commencement, stand
vacated; and, where, in pursuance of such attachment, any movable
property of the bonded labourer was seized and removed from his
custody and kept in the custody of any court or other authority
pending sale thereof, such movable property shall be restored, as soon
as may be practicable after such commencement, to the possession of
the bonded labourer.
(5) Where, before the commencement of this Act, possession of any
property belonging to a bonded labourer or a member of his family or
other dependant was forcibly taken over by any creditor for the
recovery of any bonded debt, such property shall be restored, as soon
as may be practicable after such commencement, to the possession of
the person from whom it was seized
Section 7: Property of bonded labourer to be freed from mortgage, etc.
—(1) All property vested in a bonded labourer which was,
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 188 of 201
before the commencement of this Act under any mortgage, charge,
lien or other incumbrances in connection with any bonded debt shall,
in so far as it is relatable tothe bonded debt, stand freed and
discharged from such mortgage, charge, lien or other incumbrances,
andwhere any such property was, immediately before the
commmencement of this Act, in the possession ofthe mortgagee or the
holder of the charge, lien or incumbrance, such property shall (except
where it wassubject to any other charge), on such commencement, be
restored to the possession of the bondedlabourer.
141
D)
Stand Up India Scheme
It was launched on April 5th, 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the
grass-root level focusing on economic empowerment and job creation.
Aim:To leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the
underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs and Women
Entrepreneurs.
The objective of this scheme is to facilitate bank loans between Rs.10
lakh and Rs.1 crore to at least one SC or ST borrower and at least one
woman borrower per bank branch of Scheduled Commercial Banks
for setting up a Greenfield enterprise.This enterprise may be in
manufacturing, services or the trading sector.
The Scheme extended till 2025
Eligibility:
SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs; above 18 years of age.
Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
A greenfield project is one which is not constrained by prior work. It is
constructed on unused land where there is no need to remodel or
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 189 of 201
demolish an existing structure.
Borrower should not be in default to any bank or financial institution.
In case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding
and controlling stake should be held by either an SC/ST or Woman
entrepreneur.
New Changes:The margin money requirement for loans under the
Scheme has been reduced from 'upto 25%' to 'upto 15%' and activities
allied to agriculture have been included in the Scheme.
The scheme is part of an initiative by the Department of Financial
Services (DFS),Ministry of Finance to promote entrepreneurial
projects.
The scheme states that each bank branch needs to facilitate two
entrepreneurial projects on an average. One for SC/ST and one for a
woman entrepreneur.
A RuPay debit card would be provided for the withdrawal of credit.
Credit history of the borrower would be maintained by the bank so
that the money is not used for any personal use.
Refinance window through Small Industries Development Bank of
India (SIDBI) with an initial amount of Rs.10,000 crore.
Under this scheme, through NCGTC(National Credit Guarantee
Trustee Company), creation of a corpus of Rs.5000 crore for credit
guarantee.
Supporting the borrowers by providing comprehensive support for pre-
loan training like facilitating the loan, factoring, marketing, etc.
142
B)
National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE)
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 190 of 201
Namaste is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment (MoSJE) as a joint initiative of the MoSJE and the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Hence statement 1
is wrong)
The scheme of SRMS which is being implemented since 2007 needs
further modifications. The nomenclature of the Scheme has been
changed as “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem”
(NAMASTE) from the earlier name of “Self-Employment Scheme for
Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers” (SRMS) from 2023-2024
onwards
Launched in 2022
Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for
NAMASTE and the government is looking to enable 100% mechanical
desludging of septic tanks and sewers in all cities and towns.
NAMASTE envisages safety and dignity of sanitation workers in
urban India by creating an enabling ecosystem that recognizes
sanitation workers as one of the key contributors in operations and
maintenance of sanitation infrastructure thereby providing sustainable
livelihood and enhancing their occupational safety through capacity
building and improved access to safety gear and machines.
Ensure safety and dignity of sanitation workers in urban India and
providing sustainable livelihood and enhancing their occupational
safety through capacity building and improved access to safety gear
and machines.
NAMASTE would also aim at providing access to alternative
livelihoods support and entitlements to reduce the vulnerabilities of
sanitation workers and enable them to access self-employment and
skilled wage employment opportunities and break the
intergenerationality in sanitation work.
In addition, NAMASTE would bring about a behavior change amongst
citizens towards sanitation workers and enhance demand for safe
sanitation services.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 191 of 201
NAMASTE aims to achieve the following outcomes:
Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India
All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers
No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal
matter
Sanitation workers are collectivized into SHGs and are empowered to
run sanitation enterprises
All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) have access to
alternative livelihoods
Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at national, state
and ULB levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe
sanitation work
Increased awareness amongst sanitation services seekers (individuals
and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation
workers
National Safai Karamchari Financial Development Corporation
(NSKFDC) would be implementing agency for NAMASTE.
Five hundred cities (converging with AMRUT cities) will be taken up
under this phase of NAMASTE. It will be implemented for the period
2022-26.
What are the Components of NAMASTE Scheme?
Extending Insurance Scheme Benefits
These workers and their families will be covered under the
Ayushyaman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-
PMJAY).
The premium for AB-PMJAY for those identified SSWs families who
are not covered earlier shall be borne under NAMASTE.
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 192 of 201
The Action Plan will promote mechanization and enterprise
development.
Identified SSWs and their dependants will be given counselling on
available livelihood choices and an opportunity to acquire alternative
skills, if they so desire.
An SSW may choose to continue working in the sanitation sector,
thereby becoming eligible for receiving capacity building training.
Alternatively, the worker may choose to explore an alternative
livelihood option or an entrepreneurial venture.
Saturation with Social Security Schemes’ benefits
The identified SSWs and their family members will be extended
benefits of all the social security schemes.
143
C)
Central Sector Scheme for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer, 2021
In order to assist the State Governments in their task of rehabilitation
of released bonded labourers, the Ministry of Labour launched a
Centrally Sponsored Scheme for rehabilitation of bonded labourers in
May, 1978. Originally the Scheme provided for rehabilitation
assistance up-to ceiling of Rs. 4000/- per freed bonded labour, which
was shared by the Central Government and State Governments on
(50:50) basis. In case of North Eastern States, 100% central assistance
were provided if they expressed their inability to provide their share.
Subsequently the scheme was modified from time to time. In 2016, the
Scheme was revamped and known as "Central Sector Scheme' for
Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer – 2016". Further, the scheme was
modified in January 2022 and came into effect from 27.01.2022 as
"Central Sector Scheme' for Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourer –
2021". The salient features of the Scheme are as under:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 193 of 201
Financial assistance for rehabilitation of a rescued bonded labourer is
Rs. One lakhs per adult male beneficiary, Rs. two lakhs for special
category beneficiaries such as children including orphans or those
rescued from organized & forced begging rings or other forms of
forced child labour, and women and Rs. three lakhs in cases of bonded
or forced labour involving extreme cases of deprivation or
marginalization such as trans-genders, or women or children rescued
from ostensible sexual exploitation such as brothels, massage parlours,
placement agencies etc., or trafficking, or in cases of differently abled
persons, or in situations where the District Magistrate deems fit.
The State Governments are not required to pay any matching
contribution for the purpose of cash rehabilitation assistance.
The Scheme provides for financial assistance of Rs. 4.50 lakhs per
district for conducting survey of bonded labourers once in every three
years for sensitive district, Rs. 1.50 lakhs for evaluatory studies
(maximum of five evaluatory studies per year) and Rs. 10 lakhs per
annum for awareness generation per State.
The release of rehabilitation assistance is linked with conviction of the
accused. However, immediate cash assistance upto Rs. 30,000/- may
be provided to the rescued bonded labour by the District
Administration irrespective of the status of conviction proceedings.
Further, in case, where the trial has not been concluded, but the
District Administration has arrived at a prima-facie finding and proof
of bondage, then the proposal for cash assistance shall not be stopped
for want of details of conviction.Any such immediate financial
assistance shall be deducted from the rehabilitation assistance
amount.However, final disbursement of cash assistance and non-cash
assistance shall be made upon proof of bondage and other legal
consequences as per judicial process.
The Scheme provides for creation of a Bonded Labour Rehabilitation
Fund at District level by each State with a permanent corpus of at
least Rs. 10 lakh at the disposal of the District Magistrate which would
be renewable for extending immediate help to the released bonded
labourers.
The above benefits are in addition to other cash or non-cash benefits
provided by the States.
144
A)
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to
the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 194 of 201
State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes
justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. In the year
1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the
Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish
a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal
services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal
opportunity. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been
constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor
and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down
policies and principles for making legal services available under the
Act.
In every State, a State Legal Services Authority and in every High
Court, a High Court Legal Services Committee have been constituted.
District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees
have been constituted in the Districts and most of the Taluks to give
effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to provide free
legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
Supreme Court Legal Services Committee has been constituted to
administer and implement the legal services programme insofar as it
relates to the Supreme Court of India.
145
C)
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted
under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal
Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok
Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief.
In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to
give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free
legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 195 of 201
respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal
Services Authority.A Seniormost Judge of High Court is nominated as
Executive Chairman, SLSA.
In every District, District Legal Services Authority has been constituted
to implement Legal Services Programmes in the District. The District
Legal Services Authority is situated in the District Courts Complex in
every District and chaired by the District Judge of the respective
district.A Civil Judge Cadre Judicial Officer is appointed as Secretary
on full time basis.
Functioning of NALSA
NALSA lays down policies, principles, guidelines and frames effective
and economical schemes for the State Legal Services Authorities to
implement the Legal Services Programmes throughout the country.
Primarily, the State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services
Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees, etc. have been asked to
discharge the following main functions on regular basis:
To Provide Free and Competent Legal Services to the eligible persons;
To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes and
To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas.
146
C)
L.P. Vidyarthi put forward a five-fold classification system which included
the following: the
Himalayan region, Middle India, Western India, South India and the
Islands.
The Himalayan region is sub-divided into:
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 196 of 201
and the mountaineous region of West Bengal includingDarjeeling.
Central Himalayan region comprising the Terai areas of Uttar Pradesh
and Bihar.
North-Western Himalayan region comprising the states of Himachal
Pradesh and Jammu andKashmir.
The tribes inhabiting this region are the Akas, Daflas, Apatanis,
Mishmis, Khamptis, Singphos, Kukis, Khasis, Garos, Lepchas, Bhotias,
Tharus, etc.
Middle India Region comprising the states of Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa
and Madhya Pradesh.
About 55% of the total tribal population of the country lives in this
region. The tribes inhabiting this region are the Juangs, Kharia, Khonds,
Bhumijs, Baiga, Muria, Marias, Mundas, Gonds, Santhals,Oraons, etc.
Western India Region comprising the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Goa and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The
tribes inhabiting this region are the Barodias,Bharwads, Bhils, Damors,
Dhanwars, Dhodias, Girasias, Gonds, Katkaris, Koknas, Kolis, Minas,Siddi,
Warlis, etc.
South India Region comprising the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka andKerala. The tribes inhabiting this region are the Chenchus,
Irulas, Paniyans, Kurumbas, Kadars, Todas,Badagas, Kotas, etc.
The Island Region comprising the islands of Andaman and Nicobar in the
Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea. The tribes inhabiting
this region are the Jarwas, Onges, the GreatAndamanese, North
Sentinelese, etc
147
D)
Youth Dormitories
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 197 of 201
The North-Eastern region of India is home to multifarious tribal
communities. Most of these communities practice the tradition of youth
dormitories. This age-old tradition not only signifies the dormitory
service, but historically represents a platform for guarding the village,
decision making, and organizing community feasts, and festivals. The
dormitory system was limited to unmarried men so that they could
acquire values and traditional skills for their future life.
The system of youth dormitories in North-East India predominantly
occurs among the tribes who speak the Tibeto-Burman languages. It is
an indispensable cultural element of the Naga tribes, the Adis, the
Misings, the Kacharis, the Garos, the Karbis, the Lushais and the
Lalungs. This system is called Hengseuki by the Zemi Nagas, Zawlbuk
by the Mizos, Budonzwl by the Hmars, Terang or Farla by the Karbis,
Nodrang by the Dimasa Kacharis, Morung Ghar by the Deoris, Murong
Okum by the Misings, Chamadi by the Tiwas (Lalungs), Rensi by the
Rengma Nagas, etc.
Some tribes also have dormitories exclusively for girls. In Galo and
Zemi Naga tribes, girls’ dormitories are also available. The girls'
dormitory of Galo in Arunachal Pradesh is known as Raseng, and that
of the Zemi Nagas is called Leoseuki.
The youth dormitories for male adults in Assam are popularly called
Deka Chang. The Assamese word ‘Deka’ means male youth, while
‘Chang’ defines a raised floor with a thatched roof and bamboo poles.
The floor is conveniently made of split bamboo for different
community events. The dormitories built for unmarried female adults
are called Gabhoru Chang. The Assamese word ‘Gabhoru’ denotes
female youth. The youth dormitories double as centres for recreational
activities to shape the future of the village youth.
There are two main purposes behind the practice of the youth
dormitory system. The preparation for a disciplined life with values that
include compassion, solidarity, and gratitude is one of the vital
purposes. Training boys in defensive activities in order to protect the
village from enemies was historically another purpose of a youth
dormitory system.
148
D)
Phratry
A tribe or sub-tribe is divided into number of clans that are further
grouped into three or more groups or cluster of clans in order to
maintain their individuality on a higher order to form a phratry. In other
words, a few clans unite to form a group called phratry. According to
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 198 of 201
more clans united for certain common objective. Further, he pointed
out that phratry is evidently nothing but a convenient term for a kin
linkage. According to Majumdar and Madan (1956) when a group of
clans merge together for some reasons or the other the emergent
grouping is called phratry. Phratry is more common in tribal India
among the north eastern Himalayan tribes and a few tribes of Middle
India.
In the north-western and central Himalayas and in middle India social
class and territorial grouping of the tribe as its sub-division are
common. The Kukis and Hmars have two sections of phratry namely,
Rangkhols and Bietas. The Rabhas of Assam have bars as their clan.
Two or more bars might unite to form a phratry-Hur. Among the Ao
Nagas the Chungli moiety has a number of phratries namely, Pngen,
Lungkan, Chami etc. The western Rengma Nagas are divided into six
exogamous groups each containing a number of clans. In Middle India
the Raj Gonds have four phratries such as Yerwen, Saga, Sarwen, Saga
Siwen Saga and Nalwen Saga. These phratries are exogamous groups.
149
B)
Components or Basic elements of Religion:
According to Anderson and Parker religion mainly consists of four primary
components such as:
a. Belief in Supernatural Power:Every religion believes in some
supernatural power i.e. powers outside of man and the present world.
The supernatural powers are believed to influence human life and
conditions.
b. Man’s adjustment to Supernatural Powers:It is another component of
religion. As man is dependent on these supernatural powers hence he
must adjust himself to the powers. As a result every religion provides
for
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 199 of 201
some external acts or rituals such as prayer; Kirtans Utterance of
hymns etc. Nonperformance of these rituals regarded as sinful.
c. Acts defined as Sinful:It is another component of religion. Every
religion defines some acts as sacred and some other as sinful which
suppose to destroy the harmonious relationships between man and
god.
d. Method of Salvation:It is another component of religion. Man needs
some method by which he can attain salvation or Nirvana or by which
harmony between man and god will be reestablished by the removal of
guilt or bondage. Because every religion consider salvation as the
ultimate aim of life
But besides the above components religion may have some other
components which are as
follows.
e. Belief in some sacred things:Every religion believes on some holy or
sacred things which constitute the centre of religion. These sacred or
holy things are symbolic. But this belief based on faith. For example,
Cow is sacred for Hindus.
f. Procedure of Worship:It is another component of religion. Every
religion has its own specific procedure of worshipping. The follower of
religion worship the supernatural power either in the form of a statute
or in a formless manner.
g. Place of Worship:Every religion has its own definite place of worship
in which its followers offer their prayer to the supernatural power.For
example Hindu Worship in a Temple.
h. Symbols:Every religion uses certain symbols, with which it is usually
associated. The cross denotes Christianity, the Muslim symbol is the
crescent moon and star, the Jews have the Star of David and so on.
i. Emotions:All religions evoke strong emotions in the believers or
followers. Generally, religious emotions are associated with all things
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 200 of 201
j. Rituals:Every religion is associated with a set of practices, rites and
rituals, which are ceremonies or repetitive practices
150
B)
Poligamy is followed in Islam and not followed and prohibited in
Hinduism, Christianity, Sikhism, Jainism, Budhism in India
Prelims Test 5- 150 M arks · Society · Solutions Page 201 of 201
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