JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1

FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION - 2022

(Held On Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER

PHYSICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
‚ The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
‚ For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

1. Two spherical stars A and B have densities ρA and ρB, respectively. A and B have the same radius,

and their masses MA and MB are related by MB = 2MA. Due to an interaction process, star A loses

some of its mass, so that its radius is halved, while its spherical shape is retained, and its density

remains ρA. The entire mass lost by A is deposited as a thick spherical shell on B with the density of

the shell being ρA. If νA and νB are the escape velocities from A and B after the interaction process,

νB 10 n
the ratio = . The value of n is _______
νA 151/3

2. The minimum kinetic energy needed by an alpha particle to cause the nuclear reaction
16
7 N + 24 He → 11H +198 O in a laboratory frame is n (in MeV). Assume that 16
7 N is at rest in the
16 19
laboratory frame. The masses of 7 N, 24 He, 11 H and 8 O can be taken to be 16.006 u, 4.003 u,
1.008 u and 19.003 u, respectively, where 1 u = 930 MeVc–2. The value of n is_________.

3. In the following circuit C1 = 12 µF, C2 = C3 = 4 µF and C4 = C5 = 2 µF. The Charge stored in C3

is _______ µC.
C1

C2
6V C5 2V
C3 C4

1
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
2π
4. A rod of length 2 cm makes an angle rad with the principal axis of a thin convex lens. The lens
3
40
has a focal length of 10 cm and is placed at a distance of cm from the object as shown in the
3
30 3
figure. The height of the image is cm and the angle made by it with respect to the principal
13
π
axis is α rad. The value of α is rad, where n is _________.
n

2π
3

α
30 3
cm
40 13
cm
3

5. At time t = 0, a disk of radius 1 m starts to roll without slipping on a horizontal plane with an
2
angular acceleration of α = rad s–2. A small stone is stuck to the disk. At t = 0, it is at the
3
contact point of the disk and the plane. Later, at time t = π s, the stone detaches itself and flies off
tangentially from the disk. The maximum height (in m) reached by the stone measured from the
1 x
plane is + . The value of x is______. [Take g = 10 m s–2.]
2 10

6. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m rolls without slipping on a fixed inclined plane with an

angle of inclination θ = 30° from the horizontal. Two forces of magnitude 1 N each, parallel to the

incline, act on the sphere, both at distance r = 0.5 m from the center of the sphere, as shown in the

figure. The acceleration of the sphere down the plane is______ms–2. (Take g = 10 m s–2 .)

2
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1

r
r

7. Consider an LC circuit, with inductance L = 0.1 H and capacitance C = 10–3 F, kept on a plane. The
area of the circuit is 1 m2. It is placed in a constant magnetic field of strength B0 which is
perpendicular to the plane of the circuit. At time t = 0, the magnetic field strength starts increasing
linearly as B = B0 + βt with β = 0.04 Ts–1 . The maximum magnitude of the current in the circuit
is____mA.

8. A projectile is fired from horizontal ground with speed v and projection angle θ. When the
acceleration due to gravity is g, the range of the projectile is d. If at the highest point in its
trajectory, the projectile enters a different region where the effective acceleration due to gravity is
g
g' = , then the new range is d' = nd. The value of n is_______.
0.81

3
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains SIX (06) questions.
‚ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
‚ For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
9. A medium having dielectric constant K >1 fills the space between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor. The plates have large area, and the distance between them is d. The capacitor is
connected to a battery of voltage V. as shown in Figure (a). Now, both the plates are moved by a
d
distance of from their original positions, as shown in Figure (b).
2

d d d d
2 2

V V
Figure (a) Figure (b)

In the process of going from the configuration depicted in Figure (a) to that in Figure (b), which of
the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) The electric field inside the dielectric material is reduced by a factor of 2K.
1
(B) The capacitance is decreased by a factor of .
K +1
(C) The voltage between the capacitor plates is increased by a factor of (K + 1).
(D) The work done in the process DOES NOT depend on the presence of the dielectric material.

4
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
10. The figure shows a circuit having eight resistances of 1 Ω each, labelled R1 to R8, and two ideal
batteries with voltages ε1 = 12 V and ε2 = 6 V.

R6 R7
R2

ε2 R3 ε1 R1
R4
R5 R8

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The magnitude of current flowing through R1 is 7.2 A.
(B) The magnitude of current flowing through R2 is 1.2 A.
(C) The magnitude of current flowing through R3 is 4.8 A.
(D) The magnitude of current flowing through R5 is 2.4 A.

11. An ideal gas of density ρ = 0.2 kg m–3 enters a chimney of height h at the rate of α = 0.8 kg s–1
from its lower end, and escapes through the upper end as shown in the figure. The cross-sectional
area of the lower end is A1 = 0.1 m2 and the upper end is A2 = 0.4 m2. The pressure and the
temperature of the gas at the lower end are 600 Pa and 300 K, respectively, while its temperature at
the upper end is 150 K. The chimney is heat insulated so that the gas undergoes adiabatic
expansion. Take g = 10 ms–2 and the ratio of specific heats of the gas γ = 2. Ignore atmospheric
pressure.

A2

A1

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The pressure of the gas at the upper end of the chimney is 300 Pa.
(B) The velocity of the gas at the lower end of the chimney is 40 ms–1 and at the upper end is
20 ms–1.
(C) The height of the chimney is 590 m.
(D) The density of the gas at the upper end is 0.05 kg m–3.

5
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
12. Three plane mirrors form an equilateral triangle with each side of length L. There is a small hole at
a distance l > 0 from one of the corners as shown in the figure. A ray of light is passed through the
hole at an angle θ and can only come out through the same hole. The cross section of the mirror
configuration and the ray of light lie on the same plane.

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The ray of light will come out for θ = 30°, for 0 < l < L.
L
(B) There is an angle for l = at which the ray of light will come out after two reflections.
2
L
(C) The ray of light will NEVER come out for θ = 60°, and l = .
3
L
(D) The ray of light will come out for θ = 60°, and 0 < l < after six reflections.
2

13. Six charges are placed around a regular hexagon of side length a as shown in the figure. Five of
them have charge q, and the remaining one has charge x. The perpendicular from each charge to the
nearest hexagon side passes through the center O of the hexagon and is bisected by the side.
q

q 90° q

O
a
q q

x
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct in SI units?
(A) When x = q, the magnitude of the electric field at O is zero.

6
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
q
(B) When x = – q, the magnitude of the electric field at O is .
6π ∈0 a2
7q
(C) When x = 2q, the potential at O is .
4 3π ∈0 a
3q
(D) When x = –3q, the potential at O is .
4 3π ∈0 a

14. The binding energy of nucleons in a nucleus can be affected by the pairwise Coulomb repulsion.

Assume that all nucleons are uniformly distributed inside the nucleus. Let the binding energy of a

proton be Ebp and the binding energy of a neutron be Ebn in the nucleus.

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) Ebp – Ebn is proportional to Z(Z – 1) where Z is the atomic number of the nucleus.

1
−
(B) Ebp – Ebn is proportional to A 3 where A is the mass number of the nucleus.

(C) Ebp – Ebn is positive.

(D) Ebp increases if the nucleus undergoes a beta decay emitting a positron.

7
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
‚ This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
‚ Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
‚ List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and
(T).
‚ FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
15. A small circular loop of area A and resistance R is fixed on a horizontal xy-plane with the center of
the loop always on the axis n̂ of a long solenoid. The solenoid has m turns per unit length and
carries current I counterclockwise as shown in the figure. The magnetic field due to the solenoid is
in n̂ direction. List-I gives time dependences of n̂ in terms of a constant angular frequency ω.
π A2 µ02 m 2 I 2ω
List-II gives the torques experienced by the circular loop at time t = , Let α = .
6ω 2R
z z
y

x I

List-I List-II
(I) 1 (P) 0
2
( sin ωt ˆj + cos ωt kˆ )

(II) 1 (Q) αˆ
2
( sin ωt iˆ + cos ωt ˆj ) −
4
i

(III) 1 (R) 3α ˆ
2
(sin ωt iˆ + cos ωt kˆ ) 4
i

(IV) 1 (S) α ˆ
2
( cos ωt iˆ + sin ωt kˆ ) 4
j

(T) 3α ˆ
− i
4

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) I→Q, II→P, III→S, IV→T (B) I→S, II→T, III→Q, IV→P
(C) I→Q, II→P, III→S, IV→R (D) I→T, II→Q, III→P, IV→R

8
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
16. List I describes four systems, each with two particles A and B in relative motion as shown in figure.
π
List II gives possible magnitudes of then relative velocities (in ms–1) at time t = s.
3

List-I List-II
(I) A and B are moving on a horizontal circle of radius 1 m with (P) 3 +1
uniform angular speed ω = 1 rad s–1. The initial angular 2
π
positions of A and B at time t = 0 are θ = 0 and θ =
2
respectively.
y
B

x
A

(II) Projectiles A and B are fired (in the same vertical plane)
at t = 0 and t = 0.1 s respectively, with the same speed
(Q)
( 3 −1 )
5π 2
v= m s–1 and at 45° from the horizontal plane. The
2
initial separation between A and B is large enough so that
they do not collide, (g = 10 m s–2 ).

t=0 t=0.1s
45° 45°
A B

(III) Two harmonic oscillators A and B moving in the x direction (R) 10

t  t π
according to xA = x0 sin and xB = x0 sin  + 
t0  t0 2 
respectively, starting from t = 0. Take x0 = 1 m, t0 = 1 s.

xB=x0sin
B
x

A xA=x0sin

9
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
(IV) Particle A is rotating in a horizontal circular path of radius (S) 2
1 m on the xy plane, with constant angular speed ω = 1 rad s–1.
Particle B is moving up at a constant speed 3 m s–1 in the
vertical direction as shown in the figure. (Ignore gravity.)
z
3ms–1
B
A y

(T) 25π 2 + 1
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I → R, II → T, III → P, IV → S
(B) I → S, II → P, III → Q, IV → R
(C) I → S, II → T, III → P, IV → R
(D) I → T, II → P, III → R, IV → S
17. List I describes thermodynamic processes in four different systems. List II gives the magnitudes
(either exactly or as a close approximation) of possible changes in the internal energy of the system
due to the process.
List-I List-II
–3
(I) 10 kg of water at 100°C is converted to steam at the (P) 2 kJ
same temperature, at a pressure of 105 Pa. The volume of
the system changes from 10–6 m3 to 10–3 m3 in the
process. Latent heat of water = 2250 kJ/kg.
(II) 0.2 moles of a rigid diatomic ideal gas with volume V at (Q) 7 kJ
temperature 500 K undergoes an isobaric expansion to
volume 3 V. Assume R = 8.0 J mol–1K–1.
(III) On mole of a monatomic ideal gas is compressed (R) 4 kJ
1
adiabatically from volume V = m3 and pressure 2 kPa
3
v
to volume
8
(IV) Three moles of a diatomic ideal gas whose molecules can (S) 5 kJ
vibrate, is given 9 kJ of heat and undergoes isobaric
expansion.
(T) 3 kJ
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I → T, II → R, III → S, IV → Q (B) I → S, II → P, III → T, IV → P
(C) I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → Q (D) I → Q, II → R, III → S, IV → T

10
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
18. List I contains four combinations of two lenses (1 and 2) whose focal lengths (in cm) are indicated
in the figures. In all cases, the object is placed 20 cm from the first lens on the left, and the distance
between the two lenses is 5 cm. List II contains the positions of the final images.
List-I List-II
(I) f = +10 +15 (P) Final image is farmed at
7.5 cm on the right side of
O
lens 2.

20 cm 1 5 cm 2
(II) f = +10 –10 (Q) Final image is formed at
60.0 cm on the right side of
O
lens 2.

20 cm 1 5 cm 2
(III) f = +10 –20 (R) Final image is formed at
30.0 cm on the left side of
O
lens 2.

20 cm 1 5 cm 2
(IV) f = –20 +10 (S) Final image is formed at
6.0 cm on the right side of
O
lens 2.

20 cm 1 5 cm 2
(T) Final image is formed at
30.0 cm on the right side of
lens 2.
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) I → P, II → R, III → Q, IV → T
(B) I → Q, II → P, III → T, IV → S
(C) I → P, II → T, III → R, IV → Q
(D) I → T, II → S, III → Q, IV → R

11
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION - 2022
(Held On Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
‚ The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
‚ For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

1. 2 mol of Hg(g) is combusted in a fixed volume bomb calorimeter with excess of O2 at 298 K and
1 atm into HgO(s). During the reaction, temperature increases from 298.0 K to 312.8 K. If heat
capacity of the bomb calorimeter and enthalpy of formation of Hg(g) are 20.00 kJ K–1 and
61.32 kJ mol–1 at 298 K, respectively, the calculated standard molar enthalpy of formation of
HgO(s) at 298 K is X kJ mol–1. The value of |X| is ______.
[Given : Gas constant R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

2. The reduction potential (E0, in V) of MnO 4– (aq)/Mn(s) is ______.

[Given : E 0MnO = 1.68V ; E 0MnO = 1.21V ; E 0Mn 2+ ( aq ) / Mn ( s ) = –1.03V ]

( –
4 ( aq ) / MnO2 ( s ) ) ( 2 ( s ) / Mn 2+ ( aq ) ) ( )

3. A solution is prepared by mixing 0.01 mol each of H2CO3, NaHCO3, Na2CO3, and NaOH in
100 mL of water. pH of the resulting solution is ______.
[Given : pKa1 and pKa2 of H2CO3 are 6.37 and 10.32, respectively ; log 2 = 0.30]

4. The treatment of an aqueous solution of 3.74 g of Cu(NO3)2 with excess KI results in a brown
solution along with the formation of a precipitate. Passing H2S through this brown solution gives
another precipitate X. The amount of X (in g) is ______.
[Given : Atomic mass of H = 1, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32, K = 39, Cu = 63, I = 127]

5. Dissolving 1.24 g of white phosphorous in boiling NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere gives a
gas Q. The amount of CuSO4 (in g) required to completely consume the gas Q is ______.
[Given : Atomic mass of H = 1, O = 16, Na = 23, P = 31, S = 32, Cu = 63]

6. Consider the following reaction.

12
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
OH

red phosphorous
Br2
R (major product)

Br
On estimation of bromine in 1.00 g of R using Carius method, the amount of AgBr formed (in g) is
______.
[Given : Atomic mass of H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, P = 31, Br = 80, Ag = 108]

7. The weight percentage of hydrogen in Q, formed in the following reaction sequence, is ______.

Cl

1. NaOH, 623 K, 300 atm

Q (major product)
2. conc. H2SO4 and then
conc. HNO3
[Given : Atomic mass of H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32, Cl = 35]

8. If the reaction sequence given below is carried out with 15 moles of acetylene, the amount of the
product D formed (in g) is ______.
iron tube Cl 1. O2
(red hot) 2. H3O+
HC≡CH A H 3C B C CH3COCl
D
AlCl3 pyridine
(80 %) (50 %) –CH3COCH3 (50 %) (100 %)
The yields of A, B, C and D are given in parentheses.
[Given : Atomic mass of H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Cl = 35]

13
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains SIX (06) questions.
‚ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
‚ For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.

9. For diatomic molecules, the correct statement(s) about the molecular orbitals formed by the overlap
to two 2pz orbitals is(are)
(A) σ orbital has a total of two nodal planes.
(B) σ* orbital has one node in the xz-plane containing the molecular axis.
(C) π orbital has one node in the plane which is perpendicular to the molecular axis and goes
through the center of the molecule.
(D) π* orbital has one node in the xy-plane containing the molecular axis.

10. The correct option(s) related to adsorption processes is(are)

(A) Chemisorption results in a unimolecular layer.
(B) The enthalpy change during physisorption is in the range of 100 to 140 kJ mol–1.
(C) Chemisorption is an endothermic process.
(D) Lowering the temperature favors physisorption processes.

11. The electrochemical extraction of aluminum from bauxite ore involves.

(A) the reaction of Al2O3 with coke (C) at a temperature > 2500°C.
(B) the neutralization of aluminate solution by passing CO2 gas to precipitate hydrated alumina
(Al2O3.3H2O)
(C) the dissolution of Al2O3 in hot aqueous NaOH.
(D) the electrolysis of Al2O3 mixed with Na3AlF6 to give Al and CO2.

14
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
12. The treatment of galena with HNO3 produces a gas that is
(A) paramagnetic (B) bent in geometry
(C) an acidic oxide (D) colorless

13. Considering the reaction sequence given below, the correct statement(s) is(are)
O
⊕
1. N K

1. Br2, red phosphorous COOH

O
H3C COOH P 2. NaOH Q +
2. H2O
3. H3O+ COOH

(A) P can be reduced to a primary alcohol using NaBH4.

(B) Treating P with conc. NH4OH solution followed by acidification gives Q.
(C) Treating Q with a solution of NaNO2 in aq. HCl liberates N2.
(D) P is more acidic than CH3CH2COOH.

14. Consider the following reaction sequence,

NO2
P R H 2O
Q S T
H3C
U

COOH

the correct option(s) is(are)

(A) P = H2/Pd, ethanol R = NaNO2/HCl U = 1. H3PO2
2. KMnO4 - KOH, heat
⊕
N2 Cl
(B) P = Sn/HCl R = HNO2 S=
H3C

⊕
N2 Cl OH
(C) S = T= U = 1. CH3CH2OH
H3C H 3C

2. KMnO4 - KOH, heat

NO2 OH
(D) Q = R = H2/Pd, ethanol T=
HOOC H3C

15
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
‚ This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
‚ Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
‚ List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and
(T).
‚ FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

15. Match the rate expressions in LIST-I for the decomposition of X with the corresponding profiles
provided in LIST-II. Xs and k constants having appropriate units.
LIST-I LIST-II
(I)
k [X]
rate =
Xs + [ X ]
half life (t1/2)

(P)
under all possible initial concentration of X

initial concentration of X

(II)
k [X]
rate =
Xs + [ X ]
half life (t1/2)

(Q)
where initial concentration of X are
much less than Xs
initial concentration of X

(III)
k [X]
rate =
Xs + [ X ] (R)
rate

where initial concentration of X are

much higher than Xs
initial concentration of X

16
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
(IV)

k [X]
2

rate =
Xs + [ X ] (S)

[X]
where initial concentration of X is
much higher than Xs
time

(T)

ln[X]
time

(A) I → P; II → Q; III → S; IV → T (B) I → R; II → S; III → S; IV → T

(C) I → P; II → Q; III → Q; IV → R (D) I → R; II → S; III → Q; IV → R
16. LIST-I contains compounds and LIST-II contains reaction
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) H2O2 (P) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 →
(II) Mg(OH)2 (Q) BaO2 + H2SO4 →
(III) BaCl2 (R) Ca(OH)2 + MgCl2
(IV) CaCO3 (S) BaO2 + HCl →
(T) Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 →
Match each compound in LIST – I with its formation reaction(s) in LIST-II, and choose the correct
option
(A) I → Q; II → P; III → S; IV → R (B) I → T; II → P; III → Q; IV → R
(C) I → T; II → R; III → Q; IV → P (D) I → Q; II → R; III → S; IV → P

17. LIST-I contains metal species and LIST-II contains their properties.
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) [Cr(CN)6]4– (P) t2g orbitals contain 4 electrons
(II) [RuCl6]2– (Q) µ(spin-only) = 4.9 BM
2+
(III) [Cr(H2O)6] (R) low spin complex ion
(IV) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (S) metal ion in 4+ oxidation state
(T) d 4 species
[Given : Atomic number of Cr = 24, Ru = 44, Fe = 26]
17
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
Metal each metal species in LIST-I with their properties in LIST-II, and choose the correct option
(A) I → R, T; II → P, S; III → Q, T; IV → P, Q
(B) I → R, S; II → P, T; III → P, Q; IV → Q, T
(C) I → P, R; II → R, S; III → R, T; IV → P, T
(D) I → Q, T; II → S, T; III → P, T; IV → Q, R

18. Match the compounds in LIST-I with the observation in LIST-II, and choose the correct option.
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) Aniline (P) Sodium fusion extract of the compound on
boiling with FeSO4, followed by acidification
with conc. H2SO4, gives Prussian blue color.
(II) o-Cresol (Q) Sodium fusion extract of the compound on
treatment with sodium nitroprusside gives
blood red color.
(III) Cysteine (R) Addition of the compound to a saturated
solution of NaHCO3 results in effervescence.
(IV) Coprolactam (S) The compound reacts with bromine water to
give a white precipitate.
(T) Treating the compound with neutral FeCl3
solution produces violet color.
(A) I → P, Q; II → S; III → Q, R; IV → P
(B) I → P ; II → R, S; III → R; IV → Q, S
(C) I → Q, S; II → P, T; III → P; IV → S
(D) I → P, S; II → T; III → Q, R; IV → P

18
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION - 2022
(Held On Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER

MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
‚ The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
‚ For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Considering only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, the value of

3 2 1 2 2π 2
cos−1 2
+ sin −1 2
+ tan −1
2 2+π 4 2+π π
is ________.

2. Let 𝛼𝛼 be a positive real number. Let 𝑓𝑓: ℝ → ℝ and g : (𝛼𝛼, ∞) → ℝ be the functions defined by

f (x) sin
 πx  2 log e x − α ( )
= =   and g(x) .
 12  log e e x − e α ( )
Then the value of lim+ f (g(x)) is _______.
x →α

3. In a study about a pandemic, data of 900 persons was collected. It was found that
190 persons had symptom of fever,
220 persons had symptom of cough,
220 persons had symptom of breathing problem,
330 persons had symptom of fever or cough or both,
350 persons had symptom of cough or breathing problem or both,
340 persons had symptom of fever or breathing problem or both,
30 persons had all three symptoms (fever, cough and breathing problem).
If a person is chosen randomly from these 900 persons, then the probability that the person has at
most one symptom is _____________.

19
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
4. Let 𝑧𝑧 be a complex number with non-zero imaginary part. If

2 + 3z + 4z 2
2 − 3z + 4z 2
is a real number, then the value of |𝑧𝑧|2 is _____________.

5. Let 𝑧𝑧𝑧 denote the complex conjugate of a complex number 𝑧𝑧 and let 𝑖𝑖 = −1 . In the set of complex
numbers, the number of distinct roots of the equation
𝑧𝑧𝑧 − 𝑧𝑧2 = i(𝑧𝑧𝑧 + 𝑧𝑧2)
is _____________.

6. Let 𝑙𝑙1, 𝑙𝑙2,…, 𝑙𝑙100 be consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression with common difference 𝑑𝑑1, and
let 𝑤𝑤1, 𝑤𝑤2,…, 𝑤𝑤100 be consecutive terms of another arithmetic progression with common difference
𝑑𝑑2, where 𝑑𝑑1𝑑𝑑2 = 10. For each 𝑖𝑖 = 1, 2,…,100, let 𝑅𝑅𝑖𝑖 be a rectangle with length 𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑖, width 𝑤𝑤𝑖𝑖 and
area 𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖. If 𝐴𝐴51 − 𝐴𝐴50 = 1000, then the value of 𝐴𝐴100 − 𝐴𝐴90 is ____________.

7. The number of 4-digit integers in the closed interval [2022, 4482] formed by using the digits
0, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 is ____________.

π
8. Let 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 be the triangle with 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 1, 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 3 and ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = . If a circle of radius 𝑟𝑟 > 0 touches the
2
sides 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 and also touches internally the circumcircle of the triangle 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, then the value of 𝑟𝑟
is _____________.

20
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
‚ This section contains SIX (06) questions.
‚ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
‚ For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.

9. Consider the equation

e
(loge x)1/2
∫ dx = 1, a ∈ (−∞, 0) ∪ (1, ∞).
( )
2
1 x a − (loge x)3/2

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?

(A) No a satisfies the above equation
(B) An integer a satisfies the above equation
(C) An irrational number a satisfies the above equation
(D) More than one a satisfy the above equation

10. Let 𝑎𝑎1, 𝑎𝑎2, 𝑎𝑎3,… be an arithmetic progression with 𝑎𝑎1 = 7 and common difference 8.
Let 𝑇𝑇1, 𝑇𝑇2, 𝑇𝑇3,… be such that 𝑇𝑇1 = 3 and 𝑇𝑇𝑛𝑛+1 − 𝑇𝑇𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 for 𝑛𝑛 ≥ 1. Then, which of the following
is/are TRUE ?
(A) T20 = 1604
20
(B) ∑ k = 1Tk = 10510
(C) T30 = 3454
30
(D) ∑ k = 1Tk = 35610

21
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
11. Let 𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2 be two planes given by
𝑃𝑃1: 10𝑥𝑥 + 15𝑦𝑦 + 12𝑧𝑧 − 60 = 0,

𝑃𝑃2 : − 2𝑥𝑥 + 5𝑦𝑦 + 4𝑧𝑧 − 20 = 0.

Which of the following straight lines can be an edge of some tetrahedron whose two faces lie on

𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2 ?

x −1 y −1 z −1
(A) = =
0 0 5

x−6 y z
(B) = =
−5 2 3

x y−4 z
(C)= =
−2 5 4

x y−4 z
(D)
= =
1 −2 3

12. Let 𝑆𝑆 be the reflection of a point 𝑄𝑄 with respect to the plane given by

r =−(t + p)iˆ + tˆj + (1 + p)kˆ

where 𝑡𝑡, 𝑝𝑝 are real parameters and ˆi, ˆj, kˆ are the unit vectors along the three positive coordinate

axes. If the position vectors of 𝑄𝑄 and 𝑆𝑆 are 10iˆ + 15ˆj + 20kˆ and αˆi + βˆj + γkˆ respectively, then
which of the following is/are TRUE ?
(A) 3(α + β) = –101
(B) 3(β + γ) = –71
(C) 3(γ + α) = –86
(D) 3(α + β + γ) = –121

13. Consider the parabola 𝑦𝑦2 = 4𝑥𝑥. Let 𝑆𝑆 be the focus of the parabola. A pair of tangents drawn to the
parabola from the point 𝑃𝑃 = (−2, 1) meet the parabola at 𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2. Let 𝑄𝑄1 and 𝑄𝑄2 be points on the
lines 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆1 and 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆2 respectively such that 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃1 is perpendicular to 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆1 and 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃2 is perpendicular to
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆2. Then, which of the following is/are TRUE ?

22
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
3 10
(A) SQ1 = 2 (B) Q1Q 2 =
5
(C) PQ1 = 3 (D) SQ2 = 1

 π
14. Let |𝑀𝑀| denote the determinant of a square matrix 𝑀𝑀. Let g : 0,  → ℝ be the function defined by
 2

π 
g(=
θ) f (θ) − 1 + f  − θ −1
2 
where

 π  π
sin π
cos  θ +  tan  θ − 
 4  4
1 sin θ 1
1  π π 4
f (θ)= − sin θ 1 sin θ + sin  θ −  − cos loge   .
2  4 2 π
−1 − sin θ 1
 π π
cot  θ +  loge   tan π
 4 4
Let p(𝑥𝑥) be a quadratic polynomial whose roots are the maximum and minimum values of the

function g(𝜃𝜃), and p(2) = 2 − 2 . Then, which of the following is/are TRUE ?

 3+ 2  1+ 3 2 
(A) p  <0 (B) p  >0
 4   4 
   
 5 2 −1   5− 2 
(C) p  >0 (D) p  <0
 4   4 
   

23
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
‚ This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
‚ Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
‚ List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and
(T).
‚ FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
‚ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

15. Consider the following lists:

List-I List-II

  2π 2π  
(I) x ∈  − ,  : cos x + sin x =1 (P) has two elements
  3 3  

  5π 5π  
(II) x ∈  − ,  : 3 tan 3x =1 (Q) has three elements
  18 18  

  6π 6π  
(III) x ∈  − ,  : 2 cos(2x) = 3 (R) has four elements
  5 5 

  7π 7π  
(IV) x ∈  − ,  : sin x − cos x =1 (S) has five elements
  4 4  
(T) has six elements

The correct option is:

(A) (I) → (P); (II) → (S); (III) → (P); (IV) → (S)
(B) (I) → (P); (II) → (P); (III) → (T); (IV) → (R)
(C) (I) → (Q); (II) → (P); (III) → (T); (IV) → (S)
(D) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (P); (IV) → (R)

16. Two players, 𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2, play a game against each other. In every round of the game, each player
rolls a fair die once, where the six faces of the die have six distinct numbers. Let 𝑥𝑥 and 𝑦𝑦 denote the
readings on the die rolled by 𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2, respectively. If 𝑥𝑥 > 𝑦𝑦, then 𝑃𝑃1 scores 5 points and 𝑃𝑃2 scores

24
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
0 point. If 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑦𝑦, then each player scores 2 points. If 𝑥𝑥 < 𝑦𝑦, then 𝑃𝑃1 scores 0 point and 𝑃𝑃2 scores 5
points. Let 𝑋𝑋𝑖𝑖 and 𝑌𝑌𝑖𝑖 be the total scores of 𝑃𝑃1 and 𝑃𝑃2, respectively, after playing the 𝑖𝑖𝑡𝑡ℎ round.
List-I List-II

(I) 3
Probability of (𝑋𝑋2 ≥ 𝑌𝑌2) is (P)
8
(II) 11
Probability of (𝑋𝑋2 > 𝑌𝑌2) is (Q)
16
(III) Probability of (𝑋𝑋3 = 𝑌𝑌3) is 5
(R)
16
(IV) Probability of (𝑋𝑋3 > 𝑌𝑌3) is 355
(S)
864
77
(T)
432
The correct option is:
(A) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (T); (IV) → (S)
(B) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (T); (IV) → (T)
(C) (I) → (P); (II) → (R); (III) → (Q); (IV) → (S)
(D) (I) → (P); (II) → (R); (III) → (Q); (IV) → (T)

17. Let 𝑝𝑝, 𝑞𝑞, 𝑟𝑟 be nonzero real numbers that are, respectively, the 10𝑡𝑡ℎ, 100𝑡𝑡ℎ and 1000𝑡𝑡ℎ terms of a
harmonic progression. Consider the system of linear equations
𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑧𝑧 = 1
10𝑥𝑥 + 100𝑦𝑦 + 1000𝑧𝑧 = 0
𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑧𝑧 = 0.

List-I List-II
(I) q
If = 10, then the system of linear 10 1
r (P) x = 0, y = , z = − as a solution
9 9
equations has
(II) p
If ≠ 100, then the system of linear 10 1
r (Q) x =, y = 0 as a solution
− ,z =
9 9
equations has
(III) p
If ≠ 10, then the system of linear (R) infinitely many solutions
q

25
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
equations has
(IV) p
If = 10, then the system of linear
q (S) no solution
equations has
(T) at least one solution

The correct option is:

(A) (I) → (T); (II) → (R); (III) → (S); (IV) → (T)
(B) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (S); (IV) → (R)
(C) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (P); (IV) → (R)
(D) (I) → (T); (II) → (S); (III) → (P); (IV) → (T)

18. Consider the ellipse

x2 y2
+ 1.
=
4 3
Let H(𝛼𝛼, 0), 0 < 𝛼𝛼 < 2, be a point. A straight line drawn through 𝐻𝐻 parallel to the 𝑦𝑦-axis crosses the
ellipse and its auxiliary circle at points 𝐸𝐸 and 𝐹𝐹 respectively, in the first quadrant. The tangent to the
ellipse at the point 𝐸𝐸 intersects the positive 𝑥𝑥-axis at a point 𝐺𝐺. Suppose the straight line joining 𝐹𝐹
and the origin makes an angle φ with the positive 𝑥𝑥-axis.

List-I List-II
π
( )
4
If φ = , then the area of the 3 −1
(I) 4 (P)
triangle 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 is 8

π
If φ = , then the area of the
(II) 3 (Q) 1
triangle 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 is
π
If φ = , then the area of the 3
(III) 6 (R)
4
triangle 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 is
π 1
(IV) If φ = , then the area of the (S)
12 2 3

26
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022
 JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1
triangle 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 is

3 3
(T)
2

The correct option is:

(A) (I) → (R); (II) → (S); (III) → (Q); (IV) → (P)
(B) (I) → (R); (II) → (T); (III) → (S); (IV) → (P)
(C) (I) → (Q); (II) → (T); (III) → (S); (IV) → (P)
(D) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (Q); (IV) → (P)

27
JEE(Advanced) 2022/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 28th AUGUST, 2022