CFPS MOCK TEST 01

1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. All fire hose must meet a proof-test pressure, a service-test pressure, a burst-
test pressure, and a
a. hydrant-test pressure
b. pumper-test pressure
c. kink-test pressure
d. bend-test pressure

2. What is the occupancy factor used by the Insurance Services Office (ISO) for
computing required fire flow for C-2 (limited combustible)?
a. 0.75
b. 0.85
c. 1.00
d. 1.15

3. Critical radiant flux is used to classify:

a. Exterior materials
b. Interior wall finishes
c. Roofing materials
d. Interior floor finishes

4. Heat flow from the flame to the burning fuel of a small pool fire is mostly due
to:
a. conduction heat rise
b. convective heat transfer
c. convective heat loss
d. conduction heat transfer

5. Which of the following is required on the pump discharge line when the
operation of the pump can result in excess pressure that would exceed the

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pressure rating of the fire protection system?
a. relief valve
b. hose valve
c. air release valve
d. circulation valve

6. Which of the following fire stages represents a stage where a fuel-controlled

fire has a constant heat release rate?
a. fire decay
b. fire growth
c. incipient fire
d. steady state

7. The process of simultaneous phase and chemical species change

caused by heat is:
a. Combustion
b. temperature rise
c. pyrolysis
d. fire point

I
8. In addition to excessive fines and a source of air, which of the following
conditions can cause coal stored for use in a boiler to go from moderate
self-heating to uncontrolled combustion?
a. storage for an extended period
b. introduction of an inerting medium
c. decreased ambient temperatures
d. lack of air infiltration

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9. The flame spread index for white (sugar) maple is

a. 100
b. 104
c. 130
d. 142

10. OSHA requires fire fighter training in hazardous materials, respiratory

protection, and
a. Emergency Communication
b. Emergency medical services.
c. Communicable diseases.
d. Live fire training.

11. What is the limit for dead end corridor in a new sprinklered buisness
occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 300 ft

12. What type of fire pump has a pressure range that can exceed 300 psi
a. Split Case
b. Horizontal End suction
c. Suction in line
d. Vertical Turbine

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13. Which pure metal in solid form has the highest boiling point ?
a. Iron
b. Hafnium
c. Uranium
d. Zirconium

14. When assessing life safety in buildings, an examination of how

materials, products, components, and assemblies in a building work
together as a system to meet fire safety objectives refers to a:
a. relational-based evaluation
b. processed-based evaluation
c. scenario-based evaluation
d. performance-based evaluation

15. In spray finishing processes, quantities of flammable and combustible

liquids kept in or near process areas should be limited to the amount
needed for
a. one working shift at a time
b. two working shifts at a time
c. a period of two weeks.
d. a period of four weeks

16. The two life safety options for new high-rise buildings recognized by
the Americans with Disabilities Act are fire sprinklers and

a. Full automatic detection systems.

b. Automatic smoke control systems
c. Protected elevator shafts.
d. Areas of refuge

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17. Which of the following describes the fire hazard when piles of wooden
pallets are found at storage occupancies?
a. 1 ft
b. 2 ft
c. 3 ft
d. 4 ft

18. A multistage centrifugal fire pump is defined as,

a. being able to operate with a diesel, steam, or electric driver
b. a pump installed on more than one floor or one building.
c. requiring more than one input location connection.
d. having two or more impellers on one shaft as a single unit.

19. Household smoke alarms should be discarded if they fail during an

operational test or after,
a. 5 Years
b. 10 Years
c. 15 Years
d. 20 Years

20. In multistory buildings, the exit capacity for each floor is calculated,
a. on the total number of exits at street level
b. by adding to the floor below
c. separately.
d. based on stair width.

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21. In multistory buildings, the exit capacity for each floor is calculate
a. On the total number of exits at street level
b. By adding to the floor below
c. Separately
d. Based on stair width

22. An enforcement procedure that grants a person or business permission

to conduct or engage in any operation or act for which a level of approval
is required is called:
a. A certificate
b. An authorization
c. A warrant
d. A sanction

23. In designing cooking equipment, what is the minimum air velocity

required to minimize grease accumulation?
a. 1200 ft/min (366 m)
b. 1500 ft/min (458 m)
c. 1900 ft/min (579 m)
d. 2000 ft/min (610 m)

24. What are the two classes of fire models?

a. Open and closed
b. behavioral and theoretical
c. physical and mathematical
d. field and laboratory

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25. Which smoke detector type contains a small amount of radioactive

material and functions by sensing a decrease in conductance of the air
when smoke particles enter the chamber?
a. cloud chamber air sampling
b. ionization
c. photoelectric
d. light scattering

26. Bunkers, silos, bins, and outside piles used for the storage of
uncompacted coal should be designed so that
a. air cannot mix readily with the coal.
b. air movement is not permitted.
c. the coal will move through the system.
d. the container is watertight

27. Which of the following best describes the reason many issues in building
codes and other codes for the built environment have historically been
addressed?
a. Number of fires
b. Rate of fires
c. Major incidents
d. Risk values

28. Which of the following is considered passive fire protection?

a. Fire wall
b. Sprinkler system
c. Smoke control system
d. Portable fire extinguisher

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29. Which of the following are the three basic interests building owners have
in relation to building performance?
a. safety, capital, and function
b. aesthetics, capital, and function
c. aesthetics, low first-cost, and function
d. safety, creature comfort, and function

30. Paints and coatings that are used to increase the fire endurance of wood
and that swell when heated, thus forming an insulating layer around the
wood, are known as:
a. efflorescing
b. phosphorescent
c. flurocarbon
d. intumescent

31. If normal building lighting fails, emergency lighting should provide

necessary exit floor illumination automatically for what minimum
duration?
a. 10 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 1 ½ hours

32. The type of proportioner for foam systems that operates on the venturi
action from a container or tank is:
a. pressure proportioning tank
b. balanced pressure proportioner
c. in-line eductor
d. around the pump proportioner

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33. The minimally acceptable duration requirement for a pipe schedule

sprinkler system protecting a light hazard occupancy is
a. 30-60 minutes
b. 60-90 minutes
c. 90-120 minutes
d. 120-150 minutes

34. The NFPA 704 designation for liquefied petroleum gases (LP-Gas) is
a. 0-3-0
b. 0-4-2
c. 0-2-1
d. 0-4-0

35. In addition to a heater, a load cell, and a sample holder, what other device
does a cone calorimeter consist of?
a. Closed cup
b. Spark igniter
c. Wood crib
d. Specimen holder

36. The two major elements of a centrifugal pump are:

a. impeller and casing
b. casing and stuffing glands
c. motor and power source
d. discharge check valve and suction equipment

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37. According to the Environmental Protection Agency toxicity categories,
which signal word must be on the front panel of the package label for a
Category 3 pesticide?
a. Poison
b. Warning
c. Danger
d. Caution

38. In high rise buildings, how many remotely located fire department
connections are required for each standpipe system zone?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

39. The pre-incident planning process for a warehouse begins with

a. an evaluation of the sprinkler system.
b. a tour of the warehouse.
c. an understanding of the insurance policy.
d. a detailed floor plan.

40. Picker trunk automatic sprinklers are used

a. in areas subject to freezing.
b. to reduce collections of lint and fiber on the head.
c. for limited area sprinkler operations.
d. when fed by the domestic system.

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41. The term that describes the distance between the top edge of the pool
boundary and the liquid surface of a pool fire is known as the:
a. Fireboard
b. Freeboard
c. Freebase
d. Firebase

42. In an automatic sprinkler system pipe flowing 29 gpm, what is the

friction loss per lineal foot of pipe if the piping diameter is 2 in. (50.8
mm)?
a. 0.0083
b. 0.0089
c. 0.0095
d. 0.0101

43. The chemical name for the dry extinguishing agent called Purple K is:
a. Potassium bicarbonate
b. Sodium chloride
c. Potassium chloride
d. Sodium bicarbonate

44. A portable fire extinguisher with a Class A rating of 2-A in an ordinary

hazard occupancy will protect what maximum area per extinguisher?
a. 3,000 ft2 (279 m2) per person
b. 6,000 ft2 (557 m2) per person
c. 9,000 ft2 (836 m2) per person
d. 12,000 ft2 (1115 m2) per person

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45. What type of foam agent works best with polar solvent flammable liquid
fires?
a. aqueous film-forming foam agents
b. alcohol-type foaming agents
c. protein foaming agents
d. film-forming fluoroprotein agents

46. The most difficult component of life safety to evaluate is

a. the population at risk.
b. potential fire hazards.
c. the suppression systems.
d. fire growth potential.

47. The removal of flammable vapors by displacement for cleaning a storage

tank can be accomplished by displacement with air, inert gas, and:
a. Earth
b. Water
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Absorbant

48. The ideal configuration for architects to consider when planning for
exterior accessibility by the fire department is access to
a. at least the front of the building.
b. all four sides of the building.
c. a minimum of two sides of the building.
d. at least the front and rear of the building.

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49. Which signals indicates a fault in a monitored circuit or component in a

fire alarm system?
a. Alarm
b. Auxiliary
c. Supervisory
d. Trouble

50. A wall of two parallel wythes with an air space between them is known
as a:
a. Parapet wall
b. Curtain wall
c. Shaft wall
d. Cavity wall

51. In building demolition operations, the last fire protection system to be

removed is the:
a. Standby power system
b. Fire detection system
c. Standpipe system
d. Fire alarm system

52. The process of designing a standpipe system begins with determining

the:
a. Seismic protection needs
b. Intended use
c. Available water
d. Occupant load

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53. What are the two operating modes of fire alarm notification appliances?
a. sensing mode and alarm mode
b. on mode and off mode
c. in-service mode and out of service mode
d. public operating mode and private operating mode

54. In cooling flame gases with water mist as a method of extinguishment

the percent of water mist by weight in air must be at least
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 15 percent

55. What is the essential first requirement of an initial postfire evaluation?

a. board up and secure
b. recovery and stabilization
c. point of origin determination
d. salvage and overhaul

56. A fire reconstruction and failure analysis process includes

a. conducting field testing of materials.
b. identifying the location of fire origin.
c. documenting only certain specific data.
d. completing reports within 72 hours

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57. Thermal inertia of a material is the direct product of what three

properties?
a. thermal conductivity, ignition energy, and heat release rate
b. density, critical heat flux, and ignition temperature
c. thermal conductivity, density, and heat capacity
d. density, ignition energy, and heat capacity

58. Radiative energy released during a fire that is in the visible range is
transmitted in which of the following wavelengths?
a. 0.10–0.35 µm
b. 0.35–0.75 µm
c. 0.75–22.00 µm
d. 22.00–25.00 µm

59. Service tests of pumping engines should be conducted

a. semi-annually.
b. annually.
c. every 3 years.
d. every 5 years.

60. Which of the following is the recommended width for paved surfaces
around a building requiring access by aerial fire-fighting apparatus?
a. 16 ft (4.9 m)
b. 18 ft (5.5 m)
c. 26 ft (7.9 m)
d. 32 ft (9.6 m)

61. The fire alarm system electronic component that is known as a “passive”
component is a:

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a. Relay
b. Fuse
c. Switch
d. Inductor

62. Automatic fire pumps used in conjunction with a sprinkler system

a. must of the negative displacement type
b. should have their suction under a positive head.
c. must be of the positive displacement type.
d. should have their suction under a negative head.

63. An orifice with a sharp entrance edge is known as a:

a. Deficient orifice
b. Standard orifice
c. Universal orifice
d. Basic orifice

64. A purple glass bulb in an automatic sprinkler identifies what temperature

classification?
a. Intermidate
b. High
c. Extra high
d. Very extra high

65. To ensure business occupant evacuation, the means of egress is required

by the Life Safety Code to be illuminated to what intensity measured at
the floor?
a. 0.5 footcandle (5 lux)
b. 1 footcandle (10 lux)
c. 2 footcandle (20 lux)
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d. 10 footcandle (100 lux)

66. The essential parts of a batch reactor are a heat transfer system, a stirrer
or agitator, a relief system, and a:
a. Vessel
b. Mixing valve
c. Jet air applicator
d. Distillation unit

67. A fire pump used for fire apparatus must be capable of delivering 50
percent of its rated capacity at what net pump pressure?
a. 100 psi (690 kPa)
b. 150 psi (1035 kPa)
c. 200 psi (1380 kPa)
d. 250 psi (1725 kPa)

68. Door control circuits interconnected to the fire alarm system should
a. allow release of the door in the case of circuit failure.
b. notify the fire department of door closure.
c. initiate a fire alarm upon door closure.
d. lock the door in the closed position.

69. Wax and asphalt coatings on automatic sprinklers

a. alter the pattern of water distribution.
b. are required in high ambient temperature atomspheres
c. serve as protection from corrosive conditions.
d. may be applied by the installer

70. Which type of signal in a protective signaling system indicates a fault in

a monitored circuit or component of the fire alarm system?
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a. trouble signal
b. multiplex signal
c. supervisory signal
d. alarm signal

71. The minimum design concentration for a total flooding carbon dioxide
system designed to protect acetone is
a. 12 percent
b. 18 percent
c. 24 percent
d. 34 percent

72. The smoke developed index (SDI) is based on a test duration of

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes

73. A private fire service main should be flow tested at least every
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 10 years

74. A stoichiometric mixture results in the consumption of all

a. fuel and oxygen.
b. smoke and flame
c. energy and heat.
d. gas and radiation

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75. The minimum cover requirements for the direct burial of cable or
conductors under streets, highways, and roads is
a. 6 in. (150 mm).
b. 12 in. (300 mm)
c. 18 in. (450 mm)
d. 24 in. (600 mm)

76. Highly protected risk (HPR) property insurance carriers generally

recommend that each tour of a fireguard service should not be longer
than
a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 75 minutes
d. 90 minutes

77. Inorganic acids and halogens are members of what chemical group?
a. corrosive chemicals
b. oxidizing chemicals
c. water reactive chemicals
d. unstable chemicals

78. The travel distance for an open parking structure is

a. 150 ft
b. 200 ft
c. 250 ft
d. 400 ft

79. Irritant effects produced from exposure to fire atmospheres are normally
considered by combustion toxicologists as being of which two types?
a. sensory and pulmonary

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b. dangerous and not dangerous

c. toxic and non-toxic
d. major and minor

80. Electical sparks from most commercial electrical supply installations are
a. below flame temperatures and will usually ignite flammable liquid
vapor-air mixtures.
b. above flame temperatures and will usually ignite flammable liquid
vapor-air mixtures.
c. below flame temperatures and will not ignite flammable liquid vapor-
air mixtures
d. above flame temperatures and will not ignite flammable liquid vapor-
air mixture

81. A substantially infusible or insoluble plastic is known as a:

a. Thermoset
b. reinforced plastic
c. blowing agent
d. thermoplastic

82. According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, what is the occupant load
for street floor area and basement sales areas of shopping malls?
a. 30 ft2 (2.8 m2) per person
b. 50 ft2 (4.6 m2) per person
c. 60 ft2 (5.6 m2) per person
d. 90 ft2 (8.4 m2) per person

83. The way in which an individual is alerted to the presence of a fire

a. has no effect on awareness cues
b. triggers a fight or flight attitude.

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c. may determine the degree of threat perceived

d. may delay the appropriate response mechanism

84. Compared to other automatic fire detectors, heat detectors are:

a. expensive; highest maintenance
b. unreliable; highest false alarm rate
c. cost-effective; lowest maintenance
d. reliable; lowest false alarm rate

85. When employing open-floor spraying techniques, which of the

following is the recommended buffer zone radius surrounding the spray
area in order to separate spray operations from potential ignition
sources?
a. 5 ft (1.5 m)
b. 10 ft (3.0 m)
c. 15 ft (4.6 m)
d. 20 ft (6.1 m)

86. When a fire and life safety educator considers audience needs, which
domain takes into account the realm of values and opinions the audience
holds?
a. Affective
b. Pyschomotor
c. Didactic
d. Cognitive

87. Which of the following situational clues consists of mechanisms an

individual uses to initiate behavioral activity required to fulfill defense
plans conceptualized in the evaluation process?
a. Commitment
b. Validation
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c. Reassessment
d. Recognition

88. Inerting is the process of reducing the concentration of:

a. an oxidant
b. the reducing agent
c. a radioactive material
d. the LFL

89. Following completion of the installation of torch-applied roofing, a fire-

watch is recommended for
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours

90. Microbiologically influenced corrosion (MIC) is a form of what type of

corrosion?
a. Localized
b. Variable
c. Uniform
d. General

91. An additive used to aid water in fire suppression that increases its surface
tension is referred to as a:
a. Friction agent
b. Viscosity agent
c. Reducing agent
d. Wetting agent

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92. Which spacing multiplier is used for heat detectors installed in a building
with a ceiling that is 22 ft (6.71 m) high?
a. 0.34
b. 0.58
c. 0.77
d. 1.00

93. The smoke barriers between floors in a health care occupancy must carry
a fire resistance rating of
a. ½ hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour
d. 2 hours

94. Which of the following is classified as an oxidizing agent?

a. Sodium chloride
b. Nitrogen
c. Sodium nitrate
d. Ammonia

95. The start-to-discharge pressure setting of overpressure-relief-devices on

compressed and liquefied gas containers is determined by the
a. volume of the container.
b. vapor pressure of the gas.
c. specific gravity of the gas.
d. strength of the container.

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96. The most important form of heat transfer for the activation of automatic
sprinklers is:
a. Expansion
b. Covection
c. Conduction
d. Radiation

97. What is the name of the process where molten plastic is passed through
a die under pressure to form a continuous profile?
a. Extrusion
b. Polymerization
c. Lamination
d. Molding

98. The three general concepts in most performance-based design

frameworks include establishing fire safety goals, specifying design
parameters, and
a. making value judgments.
b. identifying safety factors.
c. verifying proposed solutions.
d. reviewing regulations.

99. Which of the following is not one of the four major components or
subassemblies of HUD homes?
a. Chassis system
b. Floor system
c. Wall system
d. Bracing system

100. Which of the following types of fire prevention inspections is

conducted to ensure that the occupancy, fire protection systems, and
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hazards protection are intact?
a. re-inspection
b. new construction inspection
c. compliance inspection
d. installation inspection

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