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Genetic Diversity and Adaptation

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)

120 views96 pages

Genetic Diversity and Adaptation

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/ “‪Nu‬” /

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as RTF, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 96

_______________________

Name:
_
Genetic diversity and
adaptation _______________________
Class:
_

_______________________
Date:
_

Time: 368 minutes

Marks: 289 marks

Comments:

Page 1 of 96
Q1.
(a) Describe what happens to chromosomes in meiosis.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(6)

(b) Meiosis results in genetic variation in the gametes which leads to variation in the
offspring formed by sexual reproduction. Describe how meiosis causes this variation
and explain the advantage of variation to the species.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(5)

(c) An old form of wheat, emmer wheat (Triticum turgidum), has a diploid chromosome
number of 28 (2n = 28). A wild wheat, einkorn wheat (Triticum tauschii), has a diploid
chromosome number of 14 (2n = 14). These two species occasionally crossed and

Page 2 of 96
produced sterile hybrid plants. Due to an error during cell division, one of these
hybrid plants formed male and female gametes with 21 chromosomes. Fusion of
these gametes resulted in viable offspring. These plants were a new species,
Triticum aestivum (2n = 42), our modern bread wheat.

(i) How many chromosomes would there have been in each of the cells of the
hybrid plant produced by crossing Triticum turgidum with Triticum tauschii?

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Explain why Triticum aestivum is fertile while the majority of hybrid plants were
not.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 15 marks)

Q2.
(a) Explain one way in which the behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis produces
genetic variation in gametes.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) In mosquitoes, the sex of an individual is determined by one gene. Males have the
genotype Mm and females mm.
Another gene is carried on the same chromosome. Normal males and females are
homozygous dd for this gene. Abnormal males have a dominant D allele.
The possible genotypes are shown below. The vertical lines represent homologous
chromosomes.

During meiosis, allele D causes the homologous chromosome carrying the m allele

Page 3 of 96
to disintegrate. Cells lacking this chromosome do not develop further.

Complete the genetic diagram to show how allele D is transmitted from an abnormal
male to his offspring.

Parental phenotypes Abnormal male Normal female

Parental genotypes

Gametes _ _

Offspring genotype(s) __________________________

Offspring phenotype(s) __________________________

(3)
(Total 5 marks)

Q3.
(a) (i) What is the role of RNA polymerase in transcription?

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Name the organelle involved in translation.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Figure 1 shows some molecules involved in protein synthesis.

Figure 1

Page 4 of 96
Complete Figure 1 to show

(i) the bases on the DNA strand from which the mRNA was transcribed;

(ii) the bases forming the anticodons of the tRNA molecules.

(2)

Figure 2 shows the effects of two different mutations of the DNA on the base sequence of
the mRNA. The table shows the mRNA codons for three amino acids.

Figure 2

(c) Name the type of mutation represented by mutation 1.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) Use the information in the table to

(i) identify amino acid X in Figure 1;

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) explain how each mutation may affect the polypeptide for which this section of
DNA is part of the code.

Page 5 of 96
Mutation 1 _____________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

Mutation 2 _____________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Q4.
(a) Apart from increasing genetic variation, explain why meiosis is important in
organisms which reproduce sexually.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Figure 1 shows the chromosomes in a diploid cell.

Figure 1

Complete Figure 1 to show the four different combinations of these chromosomes in

the gametes produced by meiosis.
(2)

Page 6 of 96
Figure 2

The diploid number of chromosomes in this plant is sixteen. How many

chromosomes would there be in

(i) the nucleus of an immature pollen grain;

______________________________________________________________

(ii) one of the nuclei of a mature pollen grain?

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) In tissues that produce gametes, there is a greater proportion of cells undergoing
meiosis in male tissue than in female tissue. Suggest one advantage of this.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 7 marks)

Q5.
(a) Figure 1 shows two pairs of chromosomes from a plant cell. The letters represent
alleles.

Figure 1

Page 7 of 96
(i) Give all the different genotypes of the gametes which could be produced by
this plant.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Figure 2 shows the same chromosomes on the spindle during meiosis.
Complete the labelling of all the chromosomes to show the arrangement of the
alleles that would result in the production of a gamete with the genotype TB.

Figure 2

(1)

(iii) One chromosome has two copies of allele T. What occurs during meiosis
which results in only one copy of the allele T being present in a gamete?

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Figure 3 shows another pair of chromosomes from the same plant cell. The table
shows the numbers of gametes with each genotype produced by this plant.

Figure 3

Genotype of gametes GD gd Gd gD

Number of gametes 1096 1124 210 230

(i) Describe what happens during meiosis, which results in the new combinations

Page 8 of 96
of alleles, Gd and gD.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(3)

(ii) Suggest why there are fewer gametes with genotypes Gd and gD than GD
and gd.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 7 marks)

Q6.
(a) Name one mutagenic agent.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) In flax plants the flowers are white, lilac or blue. The diagram shows the pathway by
which the flower cells produce coloured pigments.

(i) A deletion mutation occurs in gene 1. Describe how a deletion mutation alters
the structure of a gene.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) Describe and explain how the altered gene could result in flax plants with
white-coloured flowers.

Page 9 of 96
______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(4)

(iii) Electrophoresis was used to separate the enzymes involved in this pathway.
When extracts of the differently coloured flax petals were analysed, four
different patterns of bands were produced. In the table, only bands that
contain functional enzymes are shown.

Result of electrophoresis Colour of petal

White

Complete the table to give the colour of the petal from which each extract was
taken.
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

Q7.
New alleles arise as a result of mutations in existing genes. These mutations may occur
during DNA replication.

(a) Explain what is meant by an allele.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

Page 10 of 96
(b) Explain how DNA replicates.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(c) Explain why a mutation involving the deletion of a base may have a greater effect
than one involving substitution of one base for another.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q8.
The diagram represents a cell from a fruit fly in which the diploid number is eight.

(a) Draw a diagram to show

(i) this cell during anaphase of mitosis;

Page 11 of 96
(2)

(ii) the chromosomes in a gamete produced from this cell by meiosis.

(2)

(b) Explain why meiosis is important in sexual reproduction, apart from producing
gametes that are genetically different.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q9.
Two pairs of alleles A and a, and B and b are found on one pair of homologous
chromosomes. A person has the genotype AaBb. Figure 1 shows the chromosomes at an
early stage of meiosis. The position of two of the alleles is shown.

Figure 1

Page 12 of 96
(a) Complete Figure 1 to show the alleles present at the other marked positions.
(1)

Crossing over occurs as shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

(b) What term is used to describe the pair of homologous chromosomes shown in
Figure 2?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(i) that have not crossed over;

______________________________________________________________

(ii) that have crossed over.

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Give two processes, other than crossing over, which result in genetic variation.
Explain how each process contributes to genetic variation.

Process ____________________________________________________________

Explanation _________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Process ____________________________________________________________

Explanation _________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)
(Total 8 marks)

Page 13 of 96
Q10.
(a) During meiosis, one chromosome from each homologous pair goes to each of the
cells produced. Explain why this is important.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The diagram shows the life cycle of a fern plant. Drawings of the chromosomes
during cell division are shown for the stages that give the spore-producing plant and
the gamete-producing plant.

(i) What is the diploid number of chromosomes in this fern plant?

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Explain the difference in the number of chromosomes at stages A and B.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(iii) Are the male and female gametes produced by mitosis or meiosis?

Explain your answer.

______________________________________________________________

Page 14 of 96
______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q11.
(a) Explain how crossing over can contribute to genetic variation.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) Maize seeds were an important food crop for the people who lived in Peru. The
seeds could be kept for long periods. Each year, some were sown to grow the next
crop. Archaeologists have found well-preserved stores. The graph shows the
lengths of seeds collected from three stores of different ages.

(i) Within each store the maize seeds showed a range of different lengths.
Explain one cause of this variation.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) Use your knowledge of genetics and selection to explain the changes in the
mean length of the seeds between AD 450 and AD 1530.

Page 15 of 96
______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(4)
(Total 9 marks)

Q12.
The National Vegetable Research Station stores a collection of seeds from many species
and varieties of vegetables. These include old and rare varieties.

(a) Why is it important to keep seeds from old and rare varieties of vegetables?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Every few years, seeds of each variety in the collection are germinated and grown
into mature plants. New seeds obtained from these plants are added to the
collection.

(i) Suggest why it is necessary to obtain new seeds every few years.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Within each variety, the scientists cross plants with different genotypes.
Explain the advantage of this.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 5 marks)

Page 16 of 96
Q13.
(a) Explain the importance of meiosis in the life cycles of organisms which reproduce
sexually.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) The diagram shows the life cycle of a moss plant.

On the diagram mark with an M where meiosis takes place.

(1)
(Total 4 marks)

Q14.
The diagram shows part of the metabolic pathway involved in the clotting of blood in
response to an injury.

Page 17 of 96
Haemophilia is a condition in which blood fails to clot. This is usually because of a mutant
allele of the gene for Factor VIII.

(a) Explain how mutation could lead to faulty Factor VIII.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Use information in the diagram to explain how faulty Factor VIII causes haemophilia.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) A boy had haemophilia caused by faulty Factor IX. When his blood was mixed with
blood from a haemophiliac with faulty Factor VIII, the mixture clotted. Suggest an
explanation for clotting of the mixture.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q15.
Figure 1 and Figure 2 show the chromosomes from a single cell at different stages of
meiosis.

Page 18 of 96
Figure 1 Figure 2

(a) What is the diploid number of chromosomes in the organism from which this cell
was taken?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Describe what is happening to the chromosomes at the stage shown in

(i) Figure 1;

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) Figure 2.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

Label two chromosomes on Figure 2 to show the location of the B allele and
the location of the b allele.
(1)

(ii) How many genetically different gametes can be produced by meiosis from a
cell with the genotype, Bb Cc Dd? Assume these genes are located on

Page 19 of 96
different pairs of homologous chromosomes. Show your working.

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q16.
(a) A student used a dilution series to investigate the number of cells present in a liquid
culture of bacteria.

Describe how he made a 1 in 10 dilution and then used this to make a 1 in 1000
dilution of the original liquid culture of bacteria.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) Using an optical microscope, the student determined there were 15 cells in 0.004
mm3 of the 1 in 1000 dilution of the culture.

Calculate the number of cells in 1 cm3 of undiluted liquid culture.

Page 20 of 96
Answer = ____________________ Number of cells
(2)

(c) The student looked at cells in the 1 in 10 dilution during his preliminary work. He
decided not to use this dilution to determine the number of cells in the undiluted
liquid culture.

Suggest an explanation for the student’s decision.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) On some farms, animals are routinely given antibiotics in their food.

Scientists investigated whether these farm animals had antibiotic-resistant bacteria

in their intestines. They tested the bacteria for resistance to two antibiotics,
tetracycline and streptomycin.

Their results are shown in the table.

Percentage of
Antibiotic antibiotic-resistant
bacteria

Tetracycline 29

Streptomycin 13

Suggest and explain one reason why bacteria resistant to tetracycline are more
common than bacteria resistant to streptomycin in these farm animals.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 21 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(e) In recent years, these farm animals have not been given tetracycline in their food.
Despite this, the percentage of bacteria resistant to tetracycline has remained
constant.

Suggest one reason why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 10 marks)

Q17.
Figure 1 shows a faulty form of meiosis that can occur in some plants.

Figure 1

Page 22 of 96
(a) Complete Figure 2 to show the chromosome content of the cells that would result
from a normal meiotic division of the diploid parent cell shown in Figure 1.

Figure 2

Page 23 of 96
(2)

(b) If two diploid (2n) gametes fuse at fertilisation, it can result in the growth of a
tetraploid plant which has 4 copies of each chromosome.

Red clover is a plant grown to produce cattle feed. Tetraploid red clover plants
produce a higher yield than diploid red clover plants.

Whether a red clover plant produces 2n gametes is genetically controlled.

Scientists investigated the possibility of breeding red clover plants that only
produced 2n gametes.

• In breeding cycle 0, they grew red clover plants and identified plants that
produced 2n gametes.
• In breeding cycle 1, they used the plants producing 2n gametes to produce
offspring.
• In breeding cycles 2 and 3, they identified plants producing 2n gametes and
used these to produce offspring.

Their results are shown in the table.

Observed Expected

Number of Number of Number of Number of

Breeding plants that did plants that did plants that did plants that did
cycle not produce produce 2n not produce produce 2n
2n gametes gametes 2n gametes gametes

Page 24 of 96
0 50 4 50 4

1 14 42

2 2 44

3 0 56

The scientists used the following null hypothesis.

‘The proportion of plants that produce 2n gametes will not change from one
breeding cycle to the next.’

Complete the table to show the expected number of plants that did not produce 2n
gametes and the expected number of plants that did produce 2n gametes after 1
cycle.
Give each answer to the nearest whole number.
(2)

(c) The scientists tested their null hypothesis using the chi-squared statistical test.
After 1 cycle their calculated chi-squared value was 350
The critical value at P=0.05 is 3.841

What does this result suggest about the difference between the observed and
expected results and what can the scientists therefore conclude?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Use your knowledge of directional selection to explain the results shown in the table.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 25 of 96
(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q18.
Lactose is the main sugar in milk and is hydrolysed by the enzyme lactase. Lactase is
essential to newborn mammals as milk is their only source of food. Most mammals stop
producing lactase when they start feeding on other food sources. Humans are an
exception to this because some continue to produce lactase as adults. The ability to
continue producing lactase is known as lactase persistence (LP) and is controlled by a
dominant allele. A number of hypotheses based on different selection pressures have
been put forward to explain LP in humans.

(a) One hypothesis for LP in humans suggests that the selective pressure was related
to some human populations farming cattle as a source of milk.

Describe how farming cattle as a source of milk could have led to an increase in LP.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(b) Use the information provided to explain why the number of people showing LP
would rapidly increase once selection for this condition had been established.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Page 26 of 96
Suggest and explain how this mutation causes LP.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q19.
Ammonia in soil is oxidised to nitrites and nitrates by species of nitrifying bacteria.

Scientists investigated whether two soils with a different pH contained different

communities of nitrifying bacteria. These communities consist of all the nitrifying bacteria
of different species in each soil. They took samples of soil from two sites, A and B.

They measured the pH of the samples and found that

• the soil from site A had a pH of 6.9

• the soil from site B had a pH of 4.3

The scientists measured the concentration of ammonia in soil samples over 20 days.
Each sample contained the same concentration of ammonia at the start and had the same
mass. They recorded the concentration of ammonia in

• soil A with a pH of 6.9

• soil B with a pH of 4.3
• a mixture of equal masses of soils A and B with its pH adjusted to 6.9

Their results are shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1

Page 27 of 96
(a) The scientists used units of μg g–1 for the concentration of ammonia in soil.

Suggest why, in this investigation, the scientists used these units.

μg ________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

g–1 ________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Calculate the difference in the rate of breakdown of ammonia per day between day
0 and day 2 in soil A and soil B.

Show your working and the units for your answer.

Difference in rate = ____________________

(2)

Page 28 of 96
(c) The scientists concluded that the soil mixture experiment showed there were
different communities of bacteria in soils A and B.

What evidence from Figure 1 supports their conclusions? Give reasons for your
answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

The oxidation of ammonia by nitrifying bacteria involves the enzyme ammonia

monooxygenase. Each species of nitrifying bacteria has its own specific amoA gene that
codes for production of ammonia monooxygenase.

In a second investigation, the scientists determined the expression of the amoA gene in
two species of bacteria, S and T. Species S was from acid soil and species T was from
soil with a neutral pH.

The scientists grew cultures of each species separately in soils of different pH. They
determined the amount of mRNA from the amoA gene in each culture.

Their results are shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Page 29 of 96
(d) In which species was the number of copies of mRNA more affected by changes in
soil pH from 4.9 to 7.5? Use a calculation to support your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(e) This method allowed the scientists to estimate the expression of the amoA gene in
each culture but not the growth of the bacterial population in each culture.

Explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 30 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(f) The scientists set up their cultures in sterile glass bottles.

Suggest one suitable method for sterilising the bottles and explain why it was
necessary to sterilise them.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 15 marks)

Q20.

Page 31 of 96
A student investigated the effect of three types of disinfectant on the growth of
Lactobacillus bacteria.

During the investigation, the student:

• boiled the agar before pouring the agar plates
• transferred 0.5 cm3 of a diluted liquid culture of Lactobacillus onto each agar plate
• left some agar plates as controls
• added to other agar plates different concentrations of the disinfectants as shown in
the table in part (a).

After 2 days, she counted the number of colonies of bacteria on each agar plate.

(a) Explain the purpose of:

boiling the agar ______________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

transferring the same volume of liquid culture onto each agar plate.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The three disinfectants used by the student were Lysol, propan-2-ol and ammonia.

The table shows the student’s results.

Concentration Number of colonies of bacteria

of disinfectant /
arbitrary units Lysol Propan-2-ol Ammonia

0 300 300 300

5 0 290 300

10 0 195 295

15 0 0 275

20 0 0 240

The liquid culture the student transferred was diluted by 1 in 10 000 (10−4).

(b) Use information in this question to calculate how many bacteria were present in
1 cm3 of undiluted liquid culture.

Page 32 of 96
Answer = ____________________
(2)

(c) The student concluded that the minimum concentration of propan-2-ol needed to
stop the growth of Lactobacillus was 15 units. This conclusion is incorrect.

Describe how you could obtain a more accurate estimate of the minimum
concentration of propan-2-ol needed to stop the growth of this species of bacterium.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q21.
Read the following passage.

Azidothymidine (AZT) is a drug used to treat people infected with human

immunodeficiency virus (HIV). It inhibits the enzyme that synthesises
DNA from HIV RNA. This does not destroy HIV in the body but stops or
slows the development of AIDS.

5 In the past, some people who took AZT on its own eventually developed
AIDS. Some of the HIV in their bodies had become resistant to AZT.
To prevent this from happening, people infected with HIV are now treated
with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). This involves taking AZT
with other anti-HIV drugs at the same time.

10 AZT is taken in low doses. This is because people who took high doses
over long periods of time suffered muscle wastage. It was found that high
doses of AZT inhibit replication of mitochondria.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the questions.

(a) Suggest and explain why AZT does not destroy HIV in the body but stops or slows
the development of AIDS (lines 3–4).

___________________________________________________________________

Page 33 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(b) Suggest and explain two advantages of using HAART (lines 7–9).

Advantage 1 ________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Advantage 2 ________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Q22.
Scientists investigated treatment of a human bladder infection caused by a species of
bacterium. This species of bacterium is often resistant to the antibiotics currently used for
treatment.

They investigated the use of a new antibiotic to treat the bladder infection. The new
antibiotic inhibits the bacterial ATP synthase enzyme.

(a) Place a tick (✔) in the appropriate box next to the equation which represents the
reaction catalysed by ATP synthase.

Page 34 of 96
ATP ⟶ ADP + Pi + H2O

ATP + H2O ⟶ ADP + Pi

ADP + Pi ⟶ ATP + H2O

ADP + Pi + H2O ⟶ ATP

(1)

(b) The new antibiotic is safe to use in humans because it does not inhibit the ATP
synthase found in human cells.

Suggest why human ATP synthase is not inhibited and bacterial synthase is
inhibited.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) The scientists tested the new antibiotic on mice with the same bladder infection.
They divided these mice into three groups, C, R and A.

• Group C was the control (untreated).

• Group R was treated with an antibiotic currently used against this bladder
infection.
• Group A was treated with the new antibiotic.

They removed samples from the bladder of these mice after treatment and
estimated the total number of bacteria in the bladder.

Their results are shown in the graph.

Page 35 of 96
The antibiotics were given to the mice at a dose of 25 mg kg−1 per day.

Calculate how much antibiotic would be given to a 30 g mouse each day.

Show your working.

Answer = ____________________ mg
(2)

(d) Calculate the percentage difference in actual numbers of bacteria in group A

compared with group R. The actual number of bacteria can be calculated from the
log10 value by using the 10x function on a calculator.

Show your working.

Page 36 of 96
Answer = ____________________ %
(2)

(e) The scientists suggested that people newly diagnosed with this bladder infection
should be treated with both the current antibiotic and the new antibiotic.

Explain why the scientists made this suggestion.

Use information from the graph in part (c) and your knowledge of evolution of
antibiotic resistance in bacteria in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q23.
Read the following passage.

Some insect species feed on the leaves of plants. These leaf-chewers

bite off pieces of leaves. Other insect species feed on sap from phloem
or xylem. These sap-feeders have sharp, piercing mouthparts that they
insert directly into either xylem or phloem. Leaf-chewers and insects
that feed on xylem sap are active feeders; this means they use their 5
jaw muscles to obtain their food. In contrast, insects that feed on phloem
sap are passive feeders; this means they do not use their jaw muscles
to take up sap from phloem.

Feeding on phloem sap presents two problems. Firstly, phloem sap has
sa high sugar concentration. This could lead to a high pressure of liquid 10
in the insect’s gut because of water entering the gut from the insect’s
body tissues. A phloem-sap-feeder polymerises some of these sugars
into polysaccharides which are passed out of its anus as ‘honey dew’.
The secondproblem is that phloem sap has a low concentration of
amino acids. Phloem-sap-feeding insects rely on bacteria in their guts to 15
produce amino acids. Each phloem-sap-feeding insect receives a few of
these bacteria from its parent. This has resulted in a reduction in the
genetic diversity of the bacteria found within these insects.

A scientist investigated the effect of three different insects on the growth

of a plant called the goldenrod. He found that leaf-chewing insects and 20
xylem-sap-feeding insects caused a much greater reduction in total
leaf area than did phloem-sap-feeding insects.

Page 37 of 96
Use the information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the following
questions.

(a) Phloem-sap-feeders are passive feeders (lines 6–7).

Phloem-sap-feeders do not use their jaw muscles to take up sap from phloem.

Explain why they can take up sap without using their jaw muscles.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) A phloem-sap-feeder polymerises some of these sugars into polysaccharides (line

12-13).
Suggest the advantage of this.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Suggest how this has caused a reduction in genetic diversity of the bacteria.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) A scientist found that leaf-chewers and xylem-sap-feeders had a greater effect on
plant growth than phloem-sap-feeders (lines 20–22).

Other than environmental factors, give two features the scientist would have

Page 38 of 96
controlled in his experiment to ensure this conclusion was valid.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(e) The scientist used the reduction in total leaf area of the experimental plants as an
indicator of plant growth.

Outline a method by which you could find the area of a plant leaf.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 10 marks)

Q24.
(a) Name the process by which bacterial cells divide.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

A microbiologist investigated the ability of different plant oils to kill the bacterium Listeria
monocytogenes. She cultured the bacteria on agar plates. She obtained the bacteria from
a broth culture.

(b) Describe two aseptic techniques she would have used when transferring a sample
of broth culture on to an agar plate.
Explain why each was important.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 39 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

The microbiologist tested five different plant oils at two different temperatures and
determined the minimum concentration of plant oil that killed the L. monocytogenes.

The table below shows her results.

Minimum concentration of plant

oil that killed Listeria
Plant oil monocytogenes / percentage

4 °C 35 °C

Bay 0.10 0.04

Cinnamon 0.08 0.08

Clove 0.05 0.05

Nutmeg >1.00 0.05

Thyme 0.02 0.03

(c) Which plant oil is least effective at killing L. monocytogenes at 35 °C?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

L. monocytogenes is a pathogen of great concern to the food industry, especially in foods

stored in refrigeration conditions (4 °C) where, unlike most food-borne pathogens, it is
able to multiply. It has been suggested that plant oils, together with refrigeration may help
to reduce the growth of L. monocytogenes.

(d) What conclusions can be drawn about the effectiveness of using plant oils with
refrigeration to reduce food-borne infections caused by L. monocytogenes?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(e) Plant oils are hydrophobic and can cross the cell-surface membrane of the
bacterium. The low temperature of 4 °C can slow the rate of entry of plant oils into
the cells.

Page 40 of 96
Suggest how the low temperature slows the rate of entry.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 10 marks)

Q25.
Figure 1 shows one way in which the kingdom Fungi can be classified.

Figure 1

(a) Name the taxon represented by Zygomycota.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

Rhizopus is a member of the Zygomycota. It has thread-like hyphae that form a mass,
called a mycelium, across its food source. Vertical hyphae form spore-carrying sporangia.
A new hypha grows from each spore.

Figure 2 shows the life cycle of Rhizopus.

Figure 2

(b) Write the letter M on Figure 2 to show where meiosis occurs.

(1)

(c) Figure 2 shows that Rhizopus is able to reproduce both asexually and sexually.
Suggest and explain one advantage of asexual reproduction and one advantage of

Page 41 of 96
sexual reproduction in this life cycle.

Asexual ____________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Sexual _____________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Figure 3 shows one spore-carrying sporangium from Rhizopus. The magnification of

Figure 3 is × 700.

Figure 3

(d) The hypha supporting the spore-carrying sporangium is vertical.

Suggest one advantage of the hypha being vertical.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(e) A scientist wanted to calculate the mean volume of Rhizopus spores.

Describe how she could use Figure 3 do this.
You may assume the spores are perfectly spherical.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 42 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q26.
Bacterial meningitis is a potentially fatal disease affecting the membranes around the
brain. Neisseria meningitidis (Nm) is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis.

(a) In the UK, children are vaccinated against this disease. Describe how vaccination
can lead to protection against bacterial meningitis.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(6)

(b) Penicillin has been the antibiotic of choice for the treatment of bacterial meningitis.
Since the year 2000, strains of Neisseria meningitidis that are resistant to penicillin,
sulfonamides and rifampin have been discovered in the UK.

Describe how a population of Neisseria meningitidis (Nm) can become resistant to

these antibiotics.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 43 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(5)
(Total 15 marks)

Q27.
The table shows the taxons and the names of the taxons used to classify one species of
otter. They are not in the correct order.

Taxon Name of taxon

J Family Mustelidae

K Kingdom Animalia

L Genus Lutra

M Class Mammalia

N Order Carnivora

O Phylum Chordata

P Domain Eukarya

Q Species lutra

Page 44 of 96
(a) Put letters from the table above into the boxes in the correct order. Some boxes
have been completed for you.

O M L Q
(1)

(b) Give the scientific name of this otter.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

Scientists investigated the effect of hunting on the genetic diversity of otters. Otters are
animals that were killed in very large numbers for their fur in the past.

The scientists obtained DNA from otters alive today and otters that were alive before
hunting started.

For each sample of DNA, they recorded the number of base pairs in alleles of the same
gene. Mutations change the numbers of base pairs over time.

The figure below shows the scientists’ results.

Allele size / number of base pairs

Suggest one source of this DNA.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) What can you conclude about the effect of hunting on genetic diversity in otters?
Use data from the figure above to support your answer.

Page 45 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(e) Some populations of animals that have never been hunted show very low levels of
genetic diversity.

Other than hunting, suggest two reasons why populations might show very low
levels of genetic diversity.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q28.
To reduce the damage caused by insect pests, some farmers spray their fields of crop
plants with pesticide. Many of these pesticides have been shown to cause environmental
damage.

Bt plants have been genetically modified to produce a toxin that kills insect pests. The use
of Bt crop plants has led to a reduction in the use of pesticides.

Scientists have found that some species of insect pest have become resistant to the toxin
produced by the Bt crop plants.

The figure below shows information about the use of Bt crops and the number of species
of insect pest resistant to the Bt toxin in one country.

Page 46 of 96
Year

(a) Can you conclude that the insect pest resistant to Bt toxin found in the years 2002 to
2005 was the same insect species? Explain your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) One farmer stated that the increase in the use of Bt crop plants had caused a
mutation in one of the insect species and that this mutation had spread to other
species of insect. Was he correct? Explain your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(c) There was a time lag between the introduction of Bt crops and the appearance of
the first insect species that was resistant to the Bt toxin.
Explain why there was a time lag.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 47 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q29.
Table 1 shows how a bird called the bluethroat (Luscinia svecica) is classified by
biologists.

Table 1

Taxon Name of taxon

Domain Eukaryota

Animalia

Chordata

Aves

Passeriformes

Muscicapidae

Genus

Species

(a) Complete Table 1 by filling the seven blank spaces with the correct terms.
(2)

A group of scientists investigated genetic diversity in different species of bird. For each
species, the scientists:
• collected feathers from a large number of birds
• extracted DNA from cells attached to each feather
• analysed the samples of DNA to find genetic diversity.

Table 2 summarises their results.

Table 2

Species of bird Number of genes Number of genes

examined examined that
showed
genetic diversity

Page 48 of 96
Willow flycatcher 708 197

House finch 269 80

Bluethroat 232 81

(b) In this investigation, what is meant by genetic diversity?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) The scientists concluded that the bluethroat showed greater genetic diversity than
the willow flycatcher. Explain why they reached this conclusion. Use calculations to
support your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 5 marks)

Q30.
Malaria is a disease that is spread by insects called mosquitoes. In Africa, DDT is a
pesticide used to kill mosquitoes, to try to control the spread of malaria.

Mosquitoes have a gene called KDR. Today, some mosquitoes have an allele of this gene,
KDR minus, that gives them resistance to DDT. The other allele, KDR plus, does not give
resistance.

Scientists investigated the frequency of the KDR minus allele in a population of

mosquitoes in an African country over a period of 10 years.

The figure below shows the scientists’ results.

Page 49 of 96
Year

(a) Use the Hardy–Weinberg equation to calculate the frequency of mosquitoes

heterozygous for the KDR gene in this population in 2003.

Show your working.

Frequency of heterozygotes in population in 2003 ____________________

(2)

(b) Suggest an explanation for the results in the figure above.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

The KDR plus allele codes for the sodium ion channels found in neurones.

(c) When DDT binds to a sodium ion channel, the channel remains open all the time.
Use this information to suggest how DDT kills insects.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Suggest how the KDR minus allele gives resistance to DDT.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 50 of 96
___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Q31.
Iodine has many uses. One use is as an antiseptic to kill bacteria and another is helping
apple farmers decide when to harvest their apples.

Iodine solution has been used as an antiseptic on wounds for over 150 years. At first, its
use in hospitals was limited because it irritated people’s skin. In the 1950s, iodine solution
was made into providone iodine that caused less skin irritation. A surgeon investigated
how effective providone iodine was at killing bacteria on skin.

The surgeon treated the forearms of 25 people in 4 ways.

Treatment A − no washing
Treatment B − washed with soap and water only
Treatment C − washed with soap and water then rubbed with Hex scrub for 5 minutes
(Hex scrub was the treatment the surgeon used at that time to wash a
patient’s skin before surgery)
Treatment D − washed with soap and water then rubbed with providone iodine for 5
minutes

After each treatment, the surgeon collected bacteria by rubbing each person’s skin with a
sterile cotton swab. He put the swab into sterile liquid agar. He then poured the agar into a
Petri dish and allowed it to set. He incubated the Petri dish and when bacterial colonies
had grown, he counted them.

The surgeon’s results are shown in the table below.

Mean number of bacterial

Treatment colonies (± standard
deviation)

A 401.6 (±96.4)

B 191.4 (±63.7)

C 25.9 (±15.6)

D 0.7 (±1.5)

(a) Suggest three factors the surgeon kept constant when sampling from the skin and
growing the bacterial colonies.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

3. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Page 51 of 96
(3)

(b) Calculate the percentage difference in mean number of bacterial colonies for
Treatment D compared with Treatment A. Show your working.

Answer ________________________________________ %
(2)

(c) Treatment D produced a mean of 0.7 colonies and a standard deviation of ±1.5.
What does this suggest about the number of colonies on the Petri dish?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) After this investigation, the surgeon wanted to test the effectiveness of providone
iodine when used on patients who were about to have surgery.
In this new investigation, the test group was given Treatment D.
Suggest and explain the treatment that he should give to the control group to ensure
that this is an ethical investigation.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q32.
The seeds of some plant species require chilling (exposure to low temperatures) before
the embryos they contain grow into plants. During chilling, storage molecules in the seed
that contain phosphate are broken down and phosphates are transported to the embryo.
Scientists investigated the change in the mass of phosphate in the embryos of cherry
seeds exposed to two different temperatures for 16 weeks.

The following graph shows their results.

Page 52 of 96
(a) Phospholipids are one of the storage molecules found in cherry seeds.

Name the type of reaction used to break down phospholipids to release phosphate.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) The scientists concluded that an increase in phosphate in the embryo was linked to
growth of the embryo.

Suggest two reasons why an increase in phosphate can be linked to growth of the
embryo.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) Calculate the ratio of the mean mass of phosphate found at 5 °C to the mean mass
of phosphate found at 25 °C after 9 weeks of chilling.

Page 53 of 96
Ratio = ____________________
(1)

(d) The chilling requirement of seeds of certain plant species is considered to be an

adaptation for survival in countries with seasonal changes in environmental
conditions.

Suggest how this adaptation may enable these plant species to survive and respond
to seasonal changes.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 7 marks)

Q33.
(a) HIV attaches to a specific protein receptor on helper T cells. A low percentage of
people have a mutation of the CCR5 gene which codes for this protein receptor.
This mutation results in a non-functional protein receptor.

Explain how this mutation can result in the production of a non-functional protein
receptor.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 54 of 96
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(b) People with the CCR5 mutation show a greater resistance to developing AIDS.

Explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) The frequency of the CCR5 mutation is highest in Europe. Scientists have collected
data on the history and number of HIV infections in Europe. Using these data,
scientists have concluded that the high frequency of the CCR5 mutation is not due
to natural selection in response to HIV.

Suggest two reasons why scientists reached this conclusion.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q34.
A student investigated the effectiveness of four different concentrations, A, B, C and D, of
the same disinfectant on the growth of a bacterium. He grew a culture of this bacterium on
nutrient agar (a solid growth medium) in a Petri dish. The student then cut out four filter
paper discs and soaked each disc in one of the four concentrations. He then placed the
discs on the nutrient agar in the Petri dish. He then left the Petri dish at 25 °C for 24
hours.

The diagram below shows the appearance of the Petri dish after 24 hours.

Page 55 of 96
(a) Explain why there is a clear zone around each paper disc.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) The student researched information on this disinfectant prior to carrying out his
investigation. On the basis of this research, the student used a maximum
concentration of disinfectant of 40%.

Use the diagram to explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Use the areas of the clear zones in the diagram above to determine how many
times more effective concentration D is than concentration B. Show your working.

Page 56 of 96
Answer = ____________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q35.
(a) What is the name of a position of a gene on a chromosome?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) What is meant by genetic diversity?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

A geneticist investigated genetic diversity in four different breeds of dog. She compared
DNA base sequences of the same genes from a large number of dogs from each breed.

The geneticist calculated the mean genetic diversity for each breed of dog. The value of
this mean was between 0 and 1.

• A mean value of 1 shows maximum genetic diversity.

• A mean value of 0 shows no genetic diversity.

Her results are shown in the table

Mean genetic Standard

Breed of dog
diversity deviation

Airedale terrier 0.51 ± 0.03

Bull terrier 0.38 ± 0.02

Jack Russell terrier 0.76 ± 0.01

Miniature terrier 0.47 ± 0.02

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(d) Miniature terriers were first bred from bull terriers in the 19th century.

Suggest one explanation for the observed difference in genetic diversity between

Page 57 of 96
miniature terriers and bull terriers.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Page 58 of 96
Mark schemes

Q1.
(a) 1. Chromosomes shorten / thicken / condense;
2. Chromosomes associate in homologous / (described) pairs /
formation of bivalents / tetrads;
3. Crossing-over / chiasma formation;
4. Join to spindle (fibres) / moved by spindle;(*)
5. (At) equator / middle of cell;(*)
6. (join via) centromere / kinetochore;(*)
7. (Homologous) chromosomes move to opposite poles /
chromosomes separate / move apart; (ALLOW ‘are pulled apart’)
8. (Pairs of) chromatids separated in 2nd division;

(*) OR “ independent assortment”

unqualified = 1 mark
max 6

(b) 1. Crossing-over; [IGNORE any wrong ref. to timing]

2. Independent / random assortment / orientation / segregation of
(homologous) chromosomes in meiosis I;
3. Independent / random assortment / orientation / segregation of
chromatids in meiosis II;

+ Any three from:

4. Different adaptations / some better adapted;
5. Some survive / example described;
6. To reproduce;
7. Pass on gene / allele;
8. Allows for changing environment / different environment / example
described;
max 5

(c) (i) 21;

(ii) 1. T. aestivum has 2 copies of each type of chromosome / is diploid;

2. T. aestivum’s chromosomes can form bivalents / can assort in meiosis / can
produce haploid gametes;
3. T. aestivum’s gametes receive a copy of every chromosome / receive all the
genetic information;
ACCEPT converse argument for hybrid plants
3
[15]

Q2.
(a) Two linked points:

Crossing over / exchange of material (between chromatids);

Different combinations of alleles / linkage groups changed / broken;

Independent assortment / alignment of (homologous) chromosomes;

Page 59 of 96
Different combinations of (maternal and paternal) chromosomes / alleles;
2 max

(b)
Gamete genotype

Offspring
genotype

Offspring
Abnormal males / (all) (no females);
phenotypes
3
[5]

Q3.
(a) (i) join / attach nucleotides, to form a strand / along backbone / phosphodiester
bonds;
(reject reference to H bonds, complementary base pairing)
1

(ii) ribosome / RER;

(b) (i) CGTTACCAA;

(ii) CGU UAC CAA;

(d) (i) alanine;

(ii) (mutation 1)
no change(to sequence of amino acids);
codon for alanine / degenerate codon / same amino acid coded for;
2

(mutation 2)
(change in sequence) valine replaced by alanine / codon for alanine;
folding / shape / tertiary structure / position of bonds may change;
(reject peptide bonds)
2
[10]

Q4.
(a) haploid cells produced / halves chromosome number;
fertilisation / fusion of gametes, diploid number restored;
chromosome number constant at each generation;

Page 60 of 96
2 max

(b) principle of 2 chromosomes per cell;

4 correct combinations, long with short;
2

(ii) 8;
2

(d) (in males) more gametes produced / rapid gamete production / more lost;
1
[7]

Q5.
(a) (i) TB Tb tB tb;
1

(ii) homologous chromosomes appropriately labelled;

(iii) separation of chomatids;

(b) (i) crossing over occurs;

between D and G;
sections of chromatids / chromosomes / DNA / genes exchanged;
3

(ii) crossing over is infrequent(between close genes);

1
[7]

Q6.
(a) high energy radiation / ionising particles;
named particles / α, β, γ;
colchicine;
x rays / cosmic rays;
uv (light);
carcinogen / named carcinogen;
mustard gas / phenols / tar (qualified);
1 max

(b) (i) removal of one or more bases / nucleotide;

frameshift / (from point of mutation) base sequence change;
2

(ii) sequence of bases in mRNA would change;

(sequence of) amino acids different / different primary structure;
(active site / enzyme 1) changed tertiary shape / changed active
sites;
white pigment does not bind;
lilac pigment not produced / white pigment remains unchanged /
enzyme 1 does not function;
4 max

Page 61 of 96
(iii) blue and lilac; white;

colour of petal

(white)

blue

lilac;

white;
2
[9]

Q7.
(a) different form of a gene;
1

(b) hydrogen bonds broken;

semi-conservative replication / both strands used (as templates);
nucleotides line up complementary / specific base pairing / A and T / C and G;
DNA polymerase;
4

(c) deletion causes frame shift / alters base sequence (from point of mutation);
changes many amino acids / sequence of amino acids (from this point);
substitution alters one codon / triplet / one amino acid altered / code
degenerate / same amino acid coded for;
3
[8]

Q8.
(a) (i) 8 ‘chromatids’ each side;
spindle drawn;
2

(ii) 4 chromosomes;
1 from each homologous pair;
2

(b) produces haploid cells / chromosome number halved;

fertilisation maintains the diploid / chromosome number (in next generation);
2
[6]

Q9.
(a)
A A a a

b b B B
1

(b) bivalent;
1

Page 62 of 96
(c) (i) Ab, aB;

(ii) AB, ab;

(d) mutation;
different / new allele formed / genes deleted or duplicated / sequence
of genes changed (reject genetic information);
random fusion of gametes / fertilisation;
new combination of alleles;
independent assortment (of chromosomes) (accept random);
shuffling of maternal and paternal chromosomes / new combination
of alleles;
(ignore references to stages of meiosis)
any 2 × 2
4 max
[8]

Q10.
(a) to get haploid / n / half number of chromosomes (in cells);
so that each cell gets one copy of each chromosome / gene / full
set of genes / so that fertilisation produces diploid / constant
chromosome number; results in independent assortment;
2

(b) (i) 4;
1

(ii) meiosis (has halved the chromosome number);

(ii) (mitosis because) zygote gets two chromosomes from each gamete /
has four chromosomes;
accept haploid for two and diploid for four

gamete-producing plant has two chromosomes,

so mitosis to produce gametes with two;
2
[6]

Q11.
(a) sections of chromatids exchanged;
sections have different alleles;
new combinations of (linked) alleles;
(allow 1 mark for idea that ‘genes’ are exchanged,
if no other marks gained)
3

(b) (i) length controlled by many genes / polygenes;

each gene may have different alleles / idea of additive effects;
OR
environmental factors / or named factor;
how named factor may affect growth of seeds;
2 max

(ii) 1. selection of large seeds for sowing;

Page 63 of 96
2. higher proportion of alleles for long length / loss of alleles for short
seeds from population;
3. (possible appearance of) new alleles through mutation;
4. process repeated over many generations;
(G - allow 1 mark idea for that ‘largeness’ selected, survives
and inherited)
4
[9]
QWC 1

Q12.
(a) limited genetic diversity in modern varieties / greater genetic
diversity in old varieties / older varieties contain other (useful)
alleles / genes;
old varieties useful for future breeding programmes;
2

(b) (i) seeds lose viability / will not germinate / develop

after long storage;
1

(ii) preserve variety of alleles / different genotypes / maintain genetic

variation;
prevent inbreeding / reduces the chance of homozygosity;
2
[5]

Q13.
(a) meiosis halves the chromosome number / from diploid to haploid / produces
haploid / n cells;
when gametes fuse / at fertilisation, the diploid number is restored / this keeps the
chromosome number constant / correct from one
generation to the next / after sexual reproduction;
introduces genetic variation / independent assortment / crossing over;
3

(b) M between moss plant and spore;

1
[4]

Q14.
(a) mutation changes the amino acid sequence / primary structure of Factor VIII protein;
changes the tertiary structure / 3D shape;
2

(b) (mutant) Factor VIII protein is non-functional / does not work with Factor IX;
so no conversion of Factor X to active form and pathway blocked;
2

(c) boy’s blood contains (active) Factor VIII;

Factor VIII haemophiliac’s blood contains (active) Factor IX;
the mixture has both Factors and so the pathway can
complete / blood clots;
2 max

Page 64 of 96
[6]

Q15.
(a) 6;
1

(i) chromosomes are arranged in (homologous) pairs / bivalents;

crossing over / chiasma present / exchange of genetic information;
bivalents arranged independently;
2 max

(ii) separation / spliting / pulling apart of homologous chromosomes /

pairs of chromosomes;
(must give indication that one chromosome moves to each
side)
(must be in the context of meiosis – not chromatid
movements and not chromosomes separate)

pulled at centromere / by spindle / fibres;

(c) (i) the short arm of both chromosomes labelled on the middle
homologous pair;
(B and b must be labelled on separate chromosomes)
1

(ii) 8 = 2 marks;
working showing genotypes with 1 allele from each pair
(for example, B C D) = 1 mark
2
[8]

Q16.
(a) 1. Add 1 part (bacteria) culture to 9 parts (sterile) liquid (to make 10–1 dilution);
Accept water / nutrient / broth for liquid

2. Mix (well);
Accept stir

3. Repeat using 9 parts fresh (sterile) liquid and 1 part of 10–1 and 10–2 dilutions to
make 10–3 dilution;
OR
Add 1 part 10–1 (suspension) to 99 parts (sterile) liquid (to make 10–3 dilution);
Accept water / nutrient / broth for liquid
Reject 1 part (undiluted) culture added to 999 parts liquid
3

(b) 3.75 × 109 / 3 750 000 000;;

Accept for 1 mark: 3750 000 / 3.75 × 106 (cells per mm3)
OR
3.75 × 1012 (wrong volume conversion)
OR
3750 (cells per mm3 of diluted culture)

Page 65 of 96
OR
Evidence of using correct dilution conversion and correct
volume conversion, i.e., × 1000 and × 1000
2

(c) 1. Count unlikely to be accurate / repeatable / reproducible / reliable;

2. Because too many cells;

OR
Because cells overlapping / not spread out;
2

(d) 1. Tetracycline used more often / in higher doses;

2. Resistant bacteria more likely to (survive and reproduce and) pass on

allele/gene for (tetracycline) resistance;
OR

3. More / higher frequency of mutations (for tetracycline resistance);

Reject reference to mutation being caused by use of
antibiotic

4. (so) gene passed on to more bacteria;

5. Tetracycline used over longer time period;

6. More time for (chance) mutation to occur / for selection to occur;

Ignore reference to resistant animals
Ignore reference to immunity
2

(e) No selection against resistant bacteria / resistance gene/allele;

OR
Bacteria pass on (resistance) gene / allele when they reproduce;
OR
Bacteria resistant to tetracycline are passed on from one generation of farm animals
to the next (probably via faeces);
OR
Environment does not change, so stabilising selection occurs;
Accept no selection to get rid of it
Reject reference to mitosis or immunity
1
[10]

Q17.
(a) 1. 1 long and 1 short chromosome, each made up of 2 chromatids held (by
centromere), in each cell of 1st division;

2. 1 long and 1 short (separate) chromosome in each cell of 2nd division;

Allow ECF for correct chromosomes shown in each cell from
candidate’s 1st division cells.
Ignore drawing of centromere.
2

Page 66 of 96
(b)
52 4

;;

Allow 1 mark for numbers totalling 56 except 14/42 - repetition of observed values.

If table is blank, award 1 mark for evidence of 56.

Both 52 and 4 required in table for two marks, do not credit
52 or 4 for one mark.
Award 1 max for answers not given as whole numbers.
2

(c) 1. There is a less than 0.05/5% probability that the difference(s) (between
observed and expected) occurred by chance;
Reject ‘results (without reference to difference) occurring by
chance’. Overall max 1 with this statement.
Accept ‘there is a greater than 0.95/95% probability that the
difference did not occur by chance’.
Ignore ‘difference is significant’

2. Calculated value is greater than critical value so the null hypothesis can be
rejected;
Ignore ‘difference is significant’
Do not accept ‘P value’ for ‘critical value’.

3. (The scientists can conclude that) the proportion of plants that produce 2n
gametes does change from one breeding cycle to the next;
2 max

(d) 1. The scientists selected/used for breeding plants that produced 2n gametes;
Answer must be in context of the scientists selecting plants
to breed. Accept ‘artificial selection’ or ‘selectively bred’.

2. (So these plants) passed on their alleles (for production of 2n gametes to the
next generation);
Both mark points can be awarded if one correct reference is
made to alleles (in either context).

3. The frequency of alleles for production of 2n gametes increased (in the

population).
Both mark points can be awarded if one correct reference is
made to alleles (in either context).
For ‘production of 2n gametes’ accept ‘abnormal meiosis’.
Do not accept ‘number’ for frequency.
Accept converse answers linked to plants that produce n
gametes.
3
[9]

Q18.
(a) 1. LP due to mutation
OR

Page 67 of 96
Allele due to mutation;
Reject mutation caused by drinking milk.
Reject (LP) gene

2. Milk provides named nutrient;

Accept any correct named nutrient e.g. glucose, galactose,
protein
Ignore ‘sugar’ ‘lactose’ as named nutrient

3. Individuals with LP more likely to survive and reproduce

OR
Individuals with advantageous allele more likely to survive and reproduce;
Reject (LP) gene
Accept ‘individuals who produce lactase’ for ‘LP individuals’
Accept ‘pass on allele/LP/characteristic’ for reproduce.

4. Directional selection;

5. Frequency of allele increases (in the offspring/next generation);

Accept description of increasing frequency of allele e.g.
‘higher proportion’, ‘more common’ but ignore increase in
number of allele
4 max

(b) 1. Dominant allele;

2. (Always) expressed/shown (when present in phenotype/offspring)

OR
Expressed when only one (dominant allele) present;
2

(c) 1. Mutation in promoter (DNA/gene) for transcription factor

OR
Mutation in promoter (region/DNA) for the gene
OR
Mutation in gene for transcription factor;
Accept mutation in an epistatic gene

2. Lactase gene continues to be transcribed/active;

2
[8]

Q19.
(a) 1. (μg because) very little ammonia (in soil);

2. (μg because) avoids use of (lots of) decimal places (in their results) / avoids
the use of powers of 10 / avoids the use of standard form;
Accept makes numbers more manageable
Accept makes easier to plot graph

3. (g–1) to allow comparisons (between samples);

2 max

(b) Answer between 4.5 and 4.6 μg g–1 day–1;;

Page 68 of 96
Award 1 mark for correct number but wrong / no units
Ignore plus or minus signs
Accept ‘per gram’ AND / OR ‘per day’
2

(c) 1. pH 4.3 / B has fastest rate of breakdown (of ammonia);

2. A + B / mixture at pH 6.9 slowest / slower (than A or B);

Not just ref. to A and then B on their own

3. Suggests (community / bacteria at) pH 4.3 / B doesn’t work (well) at pH 6.9 /

pH of mixture;
Accept converse that only (community / bacteria at) pH 6.9 /
A is working in the mixture
3

(d) (Species S because) no mark

1. Species S change of 990,000 (per gram of soil);

Award MP1 and 2 OR MP3 and 4
Accept standard forms 9.9 × 105 and 9.9 × 103 for either
Accept for 1 mark for 100 times greater in correct context
with no other calculations shown

2. Species T change of 9,900 (per gram of soil);

Accept standard forms 9.9 × 105 and 9.9 × 103 for either

(Species T because) no mark

3. Species S has 99% change;

4. Species T has 9900% change;

(e) 1. They didn’t count bacteria / cells / population(s);

Ignore ref. to other factors / other named factors affecting
growth

2. Copies / number of mRNA related to amount of enzyme / amoA produced /

translated;

3. Don’t know how much mRNA / amoA produced by each cell;

Accept some bacteria produce more mRNA / amoA than
others

4. Don’t know if amoA (mRNA / enzyme) is linked to cell division / growth (of
population);
Amount of amoA does not show cell division / growth
Reject references to mitosis / meiosis
4

(f) 1. Suitable method;

eg in boiling water / steam / autoclave / wash in disinfectant / wash in alcohol

Page 69 of 96
Ignore heat unqualified
Ignore flaming of bottle
Accept radiation

2. (Reason) to remove / kill other bacteria / organisms that might break down
ammonia;
Ignore ref to removing bacteria that ‘affect the result’
Accept other bacteria producing amoA
Accept other bacteria compete with / kill bacteria that
produce amoA
Ignore contamination unqualified
2
[15]

Q20.
(a) 1. So no contamination / other bacteria;
2. So same number of bacteria transferred to allow
comparison;
1. Accept sterilisation / kills all (bacteria)
2. Allow amount / concentration for number
2

(b) 6 000 000

OR
6 × 10 6;
1 mark for 3 000 000
OR
3 × 10 6
Allow 1 mark for 600 (in 1cm 3 of diluted culture)
2

(c) 1. (Several) values between 10 and 15 (units);

2. Repetitions of each;
1. Accept descriptions of this
Ignore repeat the investigation / repeat at 10 and 15 units.
2
[6]

Q21.
(a) 1. Person (infected with HIV) has HIV DNA (in their DNA);
2. New HIV (particles) still made;
3. (AZT) inhibits reverse transcriptase;
4. (AZT) stops these (new HIV particles) from forming new HIV DNA;
OR
Slows / stops replication of HIV;
5. Stops destruction of more / newly infected T cells;
6. So immune system continues to work (and AIDS does not develop);
4. Context is important
4. Allow slows / stops (re)production of HIV
4. Reject (AZT) prevents DNA replication
4 max

Page 70 of 96
(b) 1. Slows / stops the development of AIDS;
2. Because HIV resistant to AZT is damaged / destroyed / prevented from
replicating (by other drugs);
OR
3. AZT continues to work as a drug;
4. Because HAART prevents the spread of AZT-resistant HIV to rest of the
human population;
OR
5. No new HIV particles made;
6. Because HAART might interfere with viral protein synthesis;
Mark in pairs.
Do not mix and match.
2. Neutral HIV killed
2. Accept other drugs prevent HIV resistant to AZT from
infecting new / more cells
6. Accept blocks transcription / translation / synthesis of
lipid envelope / aspect of viral structure
4 max

(c) 1. (Fewer mitochondria so) less (aerobic) respiration;

2. (Muscles receive) less ATP (so waste);
1. Ignore no respiration
2. Reject less energy produced
2. Ignore no ATP is made
2
[10]

Q22.
(a)

ATP ⟶ ADP + Pi + H2O

ATP + H2O ⟶ ADP + Pi

ADP + Pi ⟶ ATP + H2O

ADP + Pi + H2O ⟶ ATP

(b) 1. Human ATP synthase has a different tertiary structure to bacterial ATP
synthase
OR
Human ATP synthase has a different shape active site to bacterial ATP
synthase
OR
Antibiotic cannot enter human cells/mitochondria
OR
Antibiotic not complementary (to human ATP synthase);
1

Page 71 of 96
(c) 0.75;
One mark for showing 30 g = 0.03 kg;
One mark for showing 0.025 mg g−1
2

(d) Answer in range 97.0 − 97.8%;

OR
Answer in range 3288 − 4368%;
2. 1 mark for correct log10 readings from graph converted
to actual numbers
(16.98 − 19.50 and 660.7 − 758.6)
2

(e) 1. (From the graph in part c) New / old antibiotic does not kill all bacteria;
OR
(From the graph in part c) Some bacteria are resistant to the new / old
antibiotic;
2. Resistant bacteria will reproduce to produce (more) resistant bacteria;
3. (Use of both) one antibiotic will kill bacteria resistant to the other
antibiotic;
OR
Unlikely that bacteria are resistant to both the new and the old antibiotic;
OR
Use of both antibiotics (likely to) kill all / most bacteria;
Accept use of ‘A’ for ‘new antibiotic’ and ‘R’ for ‘old antibiotic’.
1. Must relate to the bacteria that are still present – ‘some
bacteria are killed’ or ‘the bacteria number is reduced ’
is insufficient.
2. Accept ‘resistant bacteria reproduce to pass on
resistance gene / allele’
3. ‘Use of both antibiotics will be more effective’ is
insufficient.
3
[9]

Q23.
(a) 1. Contents of phloem vessel pushed into insect’s mouth by high pressure;

2. (High pressure in phloem vessel) caused by loading of sugars into phloem in

leaf;

3. And (resulting) entry of water by osmosis.

(b) 1. Polysaccharides are insoluble;

2. So do not affect water potential of gut.

2. May not / does not include all alleles (of genes, so diversity reduced)
OR
Small number of bacteria transmitted means unrepresentative sample.
2

Page 72 of 96
(d) 1. Number / mass / density of insects per plant;

2. Stage of development / size of plants / insects;

Ignore any abiotic factor
2

(e) Draw around leaf on graph paper and count squares;

1
[10]

Q24.
(a) Binary fission;
Reject mitosis
1

(b) 1. Keep lid on Petri dish

OR
Open lid of Petri dish as little as possible.

2. To prevent unwanted bacteria contaminating the dish.

OR
L. monocytogenes may be dangerous / may get out.

3. Wear gloves
OR
Wear mask
OR
Wash hands;

4. To prevent contamination from bacteria on hands / mouth

OR
Prevent spread of bacteria outside the lab;

5. Use sterile pipette

OR
Flame the loop
OR
Flame the neck of the container of the culture;

6. To maintain a pure culture of bacteria

4 max

(d) 1. Thyme is the most effective / best (at 4 °C);

2. Clove and cinnamon same effectiveness at 4 °C as 35 °C (so suitable);

3. Bay and nutmeg are less effective at 4 °C than 35 °C (so unsuitable).

(e) Less kinetic energy

Page 73 of 96
OR
Less movement of oil molecules / of phospholipid molecules
1 max
[10]

Q25.
(a) Phylum;
1

(b) M placed correctly between zygote and zygospore;

(c) Any valid reasons, e.g.

Asexual

Fewer stages so quicker

OR
Only one parent involved so can colonise new environment
OR
Produces clone so successful (geno / pheno)type maintained;

Sexual

increases genetic diversity so greater chance of survival / success.

(d) Spores spread / dispersed further;

(e) 1. Measure diameter of large number of spores;

2. Divide measured values by 700 (to find true diameter);

3. Reference to using volume of sphere.

3
[8]

Q26.
(a) 1. Antigen / epitope on surface of N. meninigitidis / bacterium binds to surface
protein / surface receptor on a (specific / single) B cell.
If answered in context of T cell, allow Antigen binds to
(specific / single) T cell

2. (Activated) B cell divides by mitosis / produces clone;

If answered in context of T cell, allow (Activated) T cell
releases cytokine.

3. (Division) stimulated by cytokines / by T cells;

If answered in context of T cell, allow (Cytokine) stimulates
production of plasma cells;

4. B cells / plasma cells release antibodies;

5. (Some) B cells become memory cells;

Page 74 of 96
6. Memory cells produce plasma / antibodies faster
6

(b) 1. Mutation
Allow horizontal gene transfer

2. Results in Nm cell with allele for resistance to one antibiotic / to named

antibiotic

3. (This) cell survives and passes the allele for resistance to offspring;
2. and 3. If gene for resistance, penalise once

4. Process repeated with different genes conferring resistance to each of the

other (two) antibiotics
If reference made to ‘resistant gene’, 2 max for MP2, 3 and 4
4

(c) Any five contrasting statements, e.g.

1. Bacterial cell is much smaller than a human cell;

2. Bacterial cell has a cell wall but human cell does not;

3. Bacterial cell lacks a nucleus but human cell has a nucleus;

4. Bacterial cell lacks membrane-bound organelles but human cell has

membrane-bound organelles;
Accept any named membrane-bound organelle

5. Bacterial ribosomes smaller than human ribosomes / bacteria have 70S

ribosomes whereas humans have 80S ribosomes;

6. Bacterial DNA is circular but human DNA is linear;

7. Bacterial DNA is ‘naked’ whereas human DNA is bound to histones / proteins

Since contrast is required, both parts of each statement must
be present to gain the mark.
5 max
[15]

Q27.
(a) PKNJ.
1

(b) Lutra lutra.

(c) Bone / skin / preserved remains / museums.

(d) 1. (Hunting) reduced population size(s), so (much) only few alleles left;
Accept bottleneck

2. Otters today from one / few surviving population(s);

Accept founder effect

Page 75 of 96
3. Inbreeding.
Allow any two
2 max

(e) 1. Population might have been very small / genetic bottleneck;

2. Population might have started with small number of individuals / by one
pregnant female / founder effect;
3. Inbreeding.
Allow any two
2 max
[7]

Q28.
(a) (No – no mark)
Graph / bar chart only shows number of species, not the name of the species.
1

(b) (No – no mark)

1. Mutations are spontaneous / random;
2. Only the rate of mutation is affected by environment;
3. Different species do not interbreed / do not produce fertile offspring;
4. So mutation / gene / allele cannot be passed from one species to
another.
Ignore references to correlation does not prove causation
4

(c) 1. Initially one / few insects with favourable mutation / allele;

2. Individuals with (favourable) mutation / allele will have more offspring;
3. Takes many generations for (favourable) mutation / allele to become the
most common allele (of this gene).
3
[8]

Q29.
(a) 1. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family;
2. Luscinia svecica.
1 mark for each correct column
Allow Genus and Species if both placed in box for species
but not if both placed in genus box
2

(b) Number of different alleles of each gene.

Accept number of different base sequences (found) in each
gene
1

(c) 1. Has greater proportion of genes / percentage of genes showing diversity;

2. Percentage is 35% compared with 28% / proportion is 0.35 compared
with 0.28.
Allow correct figures that are not rounded up, i.e., 34.9% /
0.349 and 27.8% / 0.278
2
[5]

Page 76 of 96
Q30.
(a) 0.32.
Correct answer = 2 marks
Accept 32% for 1 mark max
Incorrect answer but identifying 2pq as heterozygous = 1
mark
2

(b) 1. Mutation produced KDR minus / resistance allele;

2. DDT use provides selection pressure;
3. Mosquitoes with KDR minus allele more likely (to survive) to reproduce;
4. Leading to increase in KDR minus allele in population.
4

(c) 1. Neurones remain depolarised;

2. So no action potentials / no impulse transmission.
2

(d) 1. (Mutation) changes shape of sodium ion channel (protein) / of receptor

(protein);
2. DDT no longer complementary / no longer able to bind.
2
[10]

Q31.
(a) 1. Size of cotton swab;

2. Dampness of cotton swab;

3. Size of area of skin;

4. Time rubbed on skin;

5. Part of the body / skin sampled;

6. Volume of agar / nutrient concentration of agar;

7. Incubation time;

8. Incubation temperature;
3 max

(b) 99.8;

57 271;
1 mark for writing out correct calculation: (401.6 – 0.7)/401.6
× 100 OR (401.6 – 0.7)/0.7 x 100
1 mark max for incorrect rounding
Accept answers to any number of significant figures as long
as rounding is correct
2

(c) 1. Spread here greater above the mean than below;

Page 77 of 96
2. Some / many Petri dishes had no colonies;
Accept idea that data are not normally distributed / is
skewed.
1 max

(d) 1. Treatment C / treatment normally used at the time;

2. (Because) using untreated / soap and water / treatment

A / treatment B would have too great a risk of infection;
Accept C has least / lower risk of infection
Accept description of ‘infection’
2
[8]

Q32.
(a) Hydrolysis (reaction);
1

(b) 1. (Phosphate required) to make RNA;

2. (Phosphate required) to make DNA;
1 and 2. If neither DNA or RNA are named allow one mark
for nucleotide/nucleic acid/phosphodiester bonds/sugar-
phosphate backbone.
3. (Phosphate required) to make ATP/ADP;
4. (Phosphate required) to make membranes;
Ignore: phospholipids without reference to membranes.
5. (Phosphates required) for phosphorylation;
Accept: as additional mark points any named biological
molecule containing phosphate e.g. NADP, AMP, RuBP.
2 max

(c) Accept answer in range from 3.7 : 1 to 4.1 : 1;

Reject any ratio not : 1.
1

(d) 1. Seeds/embryo remain dormant/inactive in winter/cold

OR
Growth/development of seed/embryo during winter/cold;
Ignore: hibernate.
Accept: ‘seed survives winter/cold’.
Reject: plant develops or seed germinates during
winter/cold.
2. Seeds/plants develop in spring/summer
OR
Seeds/plants develop when temperature/light increases;
Accept: seeds/plants develop when more light or when
temperature is higher.
Accept: seed germinates/’sprouts’ during spring/summer or
when temp/light increases.
3. Plant photosynthesise (in spring/when warm);
4. Produce (more) seeds/offspring in spring/growing
season;
3 max
[7]

Page 78 of 96
Q33.
(a) 1. Change in DNA base/nucleotide (sequence);
Accept: mutation in DNA base (sequence).
Accept: deletion/substitution/addition of a DNA
base/nucleotide.
2. Change in amino acid (sequence)/primary structure;
Reject: different amino acid formed.
Ignore: change in code for amino acid.
3. Alters (position of) hydrogen/ionic/disulfide bonds;
4. Change in tertiary structure (of receptor);
Reject: any reference to active site.
Ignore: 3°.
4

(b) 1. (Receptor) is not complementary

OR
(HIV) cannot bind/attach and enter/infect (helper) T cell;
Accept: ‘complimentary’.
Accept: invade as alternative to infect.
2. No replication (of virus)
OR
No destruction of (helper) T cell;
Accept: reproduction (of virus).
2

(c) 1. Low/lower exposure to HIV (in Europe)

OR
Low/lower number of HIV/AIDS (infections/cases);
Accept: converse.
2. (HIV) has only been present for a short time period
OR
(HIV relatively) recently evolved;
3. Mutation/CCR5 has been around for many years;
Accept: frequency of mutation has always been high.
4. Mutation/CCR5 is advantageous (for something else);
2 max
[8]

Q34.
(a) Bacteria killed;
Ignore: no growth or growth of bacteria prevented.
Accept: bacteria destroyed.
Accept: no living bacteria.
1

(b) Clear zone would be too large

OR
Clear zones would overlap/merge
OR
Could kill all bacteria (on the plate);
Must convey idea of too large.
1

Page 79 of 96
(c) 1. (Same) size;
Accept: any measure of size e.g. thickness, area, diameter.
Ignore: ‘same shape’ as shape shown on the diagram.
2. (Same) material/absorbency;
3. In solution for same time period;
Ignore: reference to volume of disinfectant.
2 max

(d) Any number between 2.5 to 3.2 = two marks;;

Allow one mark for an incorrect answer but shows method of
calculating how many times more effective D is than B
e.g. 22 divided by 13/14
or 11 divided by 6.5/7
or 1.57/1.6/1.69/1.7.
2
[6]

Q35.
(a) Locus;
Accept: loci
1

(b) Differences in DNA / differences in base sequence of DNA;

Accept: number of different alleles / size/variation in gene
pool
Reject: genes
1

(c) 1. Jack Russell (genetic) diversity is (significantly)

greatest;
2. Bull terrier (genetic) diversity is (significantly) smallest / is
most inbred;
3. Miniature terrier and Airedale terriers are similar;
1-3: do not credit just a list of values

4. Standard deviations do not overlap / do overlap with correct

ref to significance;
Reference to significance must be relevant to examples
given
Max 3
(d) 1. (Bull terrier) breeding has included a genetic
bottleneck/ small population/more inbreeding/ greater
selection (pressure);
Accept: founder effect
2. Reduced number of different alleles/size of gene pool;
Reject: decrease in number of genes
Ignore ref to mutations

3. Miniature (terrier) breeding has included more

outbreeding/less selection (pressure);
4. Increased number of different alleles/larger gene pool/more

Page 80 of 96
variety of alleles;
Reject if genes used instead of alleles
Reject: lower frequency of alleles
Ignore ref to mutations
2
[7]

Page 81 of 96
Examiner reports

Q1.
(a) Many candidates had a clear picture of chromosome behaviour in the process of
meiosis and were able to give an unambiguous, detailed account of this. Others
omitted certain details and some were very confused, for example believing that
crossing-over occurred in meiosis II, even after the homologous chromosomes had
been separated. The best accounts were from those who had a clear grasp of the
correct terminology (for example, the terms homologous, bivalent, chiasmata,
centromere, spindle fibre, chromosome and chromatid) and who were able to deploy
this appropriately.

(b) Unfortunately, many candidates concentrated on only part of the question, giving
great detail about the generation of variation by crossing-over and by random
assortment of chromosomes and/or chromatids. More marks were, in fact, available
for the second aspect of the question, explaining the advantage of such variation.
This involved the concepts of there being different phenotypes among the offspring
and hence differential survival and reproduction and, consequentially, the passing
on of only certain alleles to the offspring which might give a selective advantage
should environmental conditions change. A common failing was to describe the
‘species’ as surviving due to variation rather than survival of certain well adapted
individuals of that species.

(c) In (i), many candidates deduced that there would have been 21 chromosomes in the
hybrid. Answers such as ‘10.5 chromosomes’ beggared belief.

In (ii), those who thought they could remember an answer, rather than making use of
the given information, centred their arguments around the concept that members of
the same species would be able to produce fertile offspring. Although true, such
answers did not actually explain why this was so. Many who did attempt to discuss
chromosome numbers were often insufficiently precise. Better candidates referred to
diploid (or even polyploid) parent plants whose chromosomes could form bivalents
in meiosis and hence produce haploid gametes. Even here, some seemed to think
that merely having an even number of chromosomes was sufficient, failing to realise
that, unless the chromosomes could all pair up in meiosis, this would avail nothing.
Very few candidates appreciated that a copy of all the genetic information would
need to be present in each gamete if viable offspring were to result from their fusion.

Q2.
Most candidates could not apply the information given in the stem of the question in (b)
and therefore limited the marks gained to two.

(a) The majority of candidates gained one mark for naming a process but poor
expression marred the answers of weaker candidates, in particular the distinction
between allele and gene and the concept of different combinations of alleles.

(b) Candidates did not have the confidence to answer the question set and gave all
possible genotypes and phenotypes. The common error was to produce two
different gametes from the male, as the vast majority of candidates failed to use the
information given under the diagram in the stem of the question.

Q3.
Most candidates were able to apply their knowledge and gained credit but poor

Page 82 of 96
expression marred the answers of the weaker candidates.

(a) The role of RNA polymerase was not well known. There were very few answers
worthy of credit. The majority of candidates described the role of RNA polymerase
as catalysing complementary base pairing. Responses were often ambiguous and it
was not clear if the enzyme was joining nucleotide to nucleotide along the
backbone. In contrast, the vast majority could name the ribosome.

(b) The majority of candidates gained both marks.

(c) Well answered.

(d) Most candidates recognised the amino acid alanine. Very few candidates scored full
marks in part (ii) and a substantial minority gained only one. The most common
point to gain credit was reference to mutation 1 having no effect. Weaker candidates
described the change in the DNA triplet as causing a different amino acid to be
made as the result of mutation 2 and then failed to relate description of the change
to the polypeptide in terms of shape or tertiary structure.

Q4.
There were very few maximum marks for this question with most candidates scoring two
or three.

(a) The majority of candidates recognised the importance of meiosis in halving

chromosome content and scored one mark. Many then could not complete the story
with sufficient precise detail to gain any further credit.

(b) Most candidates realised each gamete would contain two chromosomes. Many
seemed unaware of the significance of homologous pairs and were content to draw
any combination of two chromosomes and failed to gain the second mark.

(c) There was a disappointing number of correct responses. The most common error
was to double the number of chromosomes during mitosis. Many candidates
seemed unaware that mitosis maintains chromosome number even when the cell
involved is haploid.

(d) The vast majority of candidates gained this mark.

Q5.
Most candidates were able to score at least two marks on this question. However, very
few candidates obtained maximum marks.

(a) (i) Although most candidates gained this mark, weaker candidates often had
alleles of the same gene in one gamete.

(ii) Most candidates gained this mark, displaying a good understanding of the
segregation of homologous chromosomes.

Page 83 of 96
(iii) This proved to be an effective discriminator with only the best candidates
clearly relating the presence of one copy of the T allele to the separation of
chromatids. Although some candidates did refer to ‘chromosomes splitting’
demonstrating some knowledge of the process, many erroneously referred to
crossing over.

(b) (i) Most candidates obtained two marks by referring to crossing over and the
exchange of alleles. Few candidates obtained the third mark for identifying
where crossing over would occur to produce the new combination of alleles
shown.

(ii) Many candidates simply stated ‘crossing over did not occur all the time’ rather
than clearly stating it was infrequent.

Q6.
This question produced a very wide spread of marks. Candidates frequently failed to gain
marks through their inability to select appropriate information to answer the specific
question asked. This particularly applied to part (b) (ii). Again, inaccurate use of
terminology compromised the marks gained by many candidates.

(a) The majority of candidates gained the mark, UV light being the most popular
response. Vague reference to cigarettes or tar, without further qualification, did not
gain credit.

(b) In part (i), most candidates recognised the loss of a base and the frame shift
occurring in consequence and gained both marks. Weaker candidates confused the
change in base sequence with amino acid sequence, seemingly unaware of the
distinction between the two. Very few candidates scored full marks in part (ii) and a
substantial minority gained only one. The most common point to gain credit was
reference to the enzyme.s inability to function. Weaker candidates wrote in general
terms about enzyme function and did not specifically refer to enzyme 1 in the
question. Again, as in section (i), some candidates confused the structure of a gene
with the structure of a protein and gained no marks. The change to the mRNA was
rarely mentioned and descriptions of alteration to tertiary shape were too often
vague and imprecise to gain credit. In part (iii), any candidates interchanged the lilac
and blue colour when completing the table. Errors also included ‘no pigment’ and
‘albino’ for the unlabelled white petal.

Q7.
There were some excellent answers to this question with the most able candidates
gaining maximum marks. Weaker candidates were often able to obtain some marks in
parts (b) and part (c).

Surprisingly, explaining what is meant by an allele proved to be quite difficult for many
candidates. There were many vague references to an allele ‘being part of a gene’ or
‘being a gene for eye colour’. The context provided by candidates often suggested that
alleles were different genes.

As in previous years a significant number of candidates confused DNA replication with

transcription. It was often difficult to give credit in these answers, except for the first mark
point referring to hydrogen bonds being broken. As in previous years, there was

Page 84 of 96
considerable confusion concerning the role of DNA polymerase. However, naming the
enzyme itself was credited in this answer to avoid a double penalty for incorrectly
describing its role in question 6(b). There was also some confusion between bases and
nucleotides. Nevertheless, better candidates had little difficulty obtaining maximum marks,
some answers displaying knowledge well beyond the requirements of this specification.
Weaker candidates often gained marks for referring to semi-conservative replication and
complementary base pairing.

In part (c) the effects of a mutation involving a deletion or a substitution were generally
well known. Most candidates referred to ‘frame shifts’ and appreciated the degenerate
nature of the genetic code. However, some weaker candidates referred to ‘amino acids in
the DNA’ being deleted or substituted. Better candidates had little difficulty gaining
maximum marks.

Q8.
This question was generally well answered by the majority of candidates, although few
candidates gained maximum marks.

(a) In part (i), many candidates incorrectly drew a total of eight rather than sixteen
chromatids. However, the vast majority did gain one mark for drawing a spindle. In
part (ii), most candidates gained one mark by drawing four separate chromosomes.
Only better candidates obtained the second mark by clearly showing that the four
chromosomes represented one from each homologues pair.

(b) This caused few problems for the majority of candidates, many obtaining both
marks. Candidates who obtained a single mark usually referred to the importance of
meiosis in maintaining the chromosome number from generation to generation, but
failed to mention that meiosis results in the production of haploid cells.

Q9.
Only the better candidates scored well on this question, with just a few scoring full marks.

(a) Only a minority of candidates were able to complete the diagram correctly. There
was a large variety of incorrect answers, with many candidates having two alleles of
the same gene on one chromosome or submitting incomplete answers.

(b) Many candidates correctly described the pair of chromosomes as a bivalent, others
did not answer the question set and therefore gave chiasma, or crossing over as the
answer.

(c) Surprisingly, this was answered quite well after the failure to complete the diagram
correctly in (a), with many candidates scoring at least one mark. The most common
incorrect answer given was that all four possible combinations could be formed.
There were also many candidates who gave genotypes of gametes, which
contained two alleles of the same gene.

(d) Most candidates correctly named two processes which would result in genetic
variation. Few, however, went on to explain how they contributed to genetic
variation. Most just described what the process involved, making no link to new
alleles, new allele combinations or shuffling of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Alternative terms, such as ‘random segregation’, were often used to describe
independent assortment of chromosomes. These terms often failed to explain
clearly the process involved. These terms could not be given credit unless further
explanations were present which described the process accurately.

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Q10.
(a) The examiners were looking for answers that demonstrated candidates’
understanding of the importance of meiosis in eukaryotic organisms that have
sexual reproduction in their life cycle. Meiosis produces haploid cells that contain
one full set of chromosomes or genes. This results in the maintaining of the diploid
(or a constant) number of chromosomes after fertilisation. Many candidates obtained
one mark for statements about the production of haploid cells. A minority obtained a
second mark, usually for references to fertilisation producing diploid cells. Many
candidates appeared to think that the main (or only) purpose of meiosis is to
produce genetic variation through crossing over and independent assortment. One
mark was awarded for clear references to independent assortment, since this does
rely on one chromosome from each homologous pair going to each cell formed.

(b) This part of the question was poorly answered by many candidates and brought to
light many common misconceptions and confusions.

(i) A majority of candidates correctly identified the diploid number as 4. The

commonest wrong answer was 8, implying that pairs of chromosomes were
shown at Stage A, rather than sister chromatids attached at centromeres.

(ii) To halve the chromosome number, meiosis must have taken place between
Stage A and Stage B. There were quite a lot of correct answers but some
were spoilt by implications, or statements, that meiosis was taking place at
Stage B.

(iii) The best answers came from candidates who used the information and
terminology from the diagram of the life cycle. They noted that the zygote must
receive two chromosomes from each gamete. They then pointed out that the
gamete-producing plant had two chromosomes and thus the gametes must be
produced by mitosis. Very many candidates insisted that the gametes must be
produced by meiosis, even those who correctly explained in (ii) that meiosis
happened between Stage A and Stage B.

Q11.
(a) This question revealed an unexpected lack of understanding of how crossing over
actually results in variation, despite the fact that is regularly cited as a cause. Very
few referred to the exchange of parts of chromatids, and even fewer pointed out that
variation resulted when sections with different alleles were recombined. Crude
diagrams often indicated that it was thought that alleles of the same gene were at
different loci. The only mark obtained by the majority was for the general principle
that ‘genes’ are exchanged, which was credited despite the lack of precision. Many
candidates revealed major misconceptions, such as that genes are exchanged at
the point where ‘chromosomes’ cross over, and that as a result of crossing over cells
‘contain genes from different gametes’.

(b) (i) Most candidates did not appreciate that the question was asking about
variation within each store, rather than the change over time. Many, therefore,
gave mutation as an answer. Those who did try to explain continuous variation
within a store of seeds explained it more often in terms of an environmental
factor, which was credited, than there being several genes controlling length.
Those who mentioned an environmental factor rarely went on to explain how it
would result in variation.

(ii) Because only a few candidates understood that the variation involved many
genes, each possibly with two or more alleles, there were few explanations
which referred to the longer seeds having a higher proportion of alleles

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favouring length, with this proportion increasing as a result of regular
selection. Most gave a vague general account of selection, often couched in
terms which indicated scant regard for the role of seeds in the life of plants. It
was frequently suggested that the seeds adapted to conditions, reproduced
and then passed on their genes. A significant number of candidates
misinterpreted the graph, and thought that the mean length of the seeds
increased up to AD 1000 and then decreased again.

Q12.
Very few candidates achieved all five marks for this question, but the more able
candidates were able to demonstrate a sound understanding of genetics in relation to the
conservation of breeding in plants. Many candidates confused the concept of species
conservation with breeding programmes, giving answers about the process of evolution
rather than concentrating on aspects of selective breeding.

(a) Many candidates gained a mark for explaining that old varieties of a plant could be
used for producing new varieties, but few made any reference to the useful alleles
they may contain. Often answers suggested the old and rare varieties could be used
if the species became extinct, which suggested a poor understanding about the
concept of extinction.

(b) (i) This was often the only mark achieved on this question by candidates.

(ii) Very few candidates seemed to appreciate that the question was asking about
the advantage of crossing plants to obtain seeds for the seed collection and
many took it as a reference to maintaining the viability of populations in the
wild. As a result, many candidates discussed the advantage of crossing plants
to improve evolutionary successes rather than to consider selective breeding.
A few candidates did provide good descriptions about using crosses to avoid
inbreeding, the deleterious effects of homozygous loci and to maintain genetic
variation. A common misconception was observed in answers which referred
to using selective breeding to increase the size of a gene pool or produce new
alleles. This represented a poor understanding about the concept of mutation
and the inappropriate use of some terminology used commonly in explaining
the process of evolution.

Q13.
Many candidates had obviously learnt the importance of meiosis in organisms that
reproduce sexually but most were unable to relate this to a diagram of a life cycle.

(a) Many candidates scored two marks, usually because they understood that meiosis
halves the chromosome number and fertilisation restores the diploid number. Fewer
obtained a third mark for clearly stating that meiosis results in the chromosome
number remaining constant from one generation to the next. Some candidates
obtained only one mark, because they wrote at length about the production of
genetic variation by crossing over and independent assortment. It was not
uncommon for candidates’ answers to be marred by vague statements such as
‘keeping the right chromosomes’.

(b) Very few candidates put the ‘M’ in the correct place between the spore-producing
plant (marked 2n) and the spore (marked n). Most put it either between the spore
and the gamete-producing plant, or between the gamete-producing plant and the
gametes. This was even true of some candidates who had given very good answers
to part (a).

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Q14.
Quite a large number of candidates failed to perform well on this question because of poor
use of language and terminology in parts (a) and (b).

(a) Most candidates obtained the mark for the idea that the mutation alters the amino
acid sequence in Factor VIII protein. Good candidates then related this to a change
in the tertiary structure (or three-dimensional shape) of the protein. Poorer
candidates made vague references to changes in the protein, or it not being able to
work.

(b) Most candidates scored one mark for the idea that the faulty Factor VIII leads to a
failure of the activation of Factor X and blocking of the clotting pathway. Fewer
candidates were able to give a reasonable description of Factor X not being
activated, because non-functional Factor VIII cannot work with Factor IX. Weaker
candidates misunderstood the diagram and thought that Factor IX and Factor VIII
were used to make Factor X.

(c) Only the best candidates understood that the blood from each haemophiliac
contained the functional factor that the other lacked. Some who understood this only
gained one mark because they simply stated that the mixture contained both factors.
The examiners wanted a clear statement for the second mark that blood from the
boy with faulty Factor IX contained working Factor VIII and the blood from the
haemophiliac with faulty Factor VIII contained working Factor IX. A common
misconception was that the mutations to the genes for Factor VIII and Factor IX
would produce proteins that were able to interact, because they were both the
products of mutation.

Q15.
(a) This proved to be a discriminating question with few candidates giving the correct
diploid number of chromosomes. Common incorrect answers included 46, 23, 12
and 3.

(b) (i) Most candidates correctly referred to crossing over or a chiasma (although
many used the plural, when the diagram showed that a single event was
present). A common misconception was observed when candidates described
chromosome replication happening in meiosis and also that chromatids pair
together.

(ii) A significantly high proportion of candidates failed to describe the movement of

chromosomes in a way that distinguished meiosis from mitosis. Often, it was
difficult to determine whether candidates meant chromosomes were
separating from single pairs. Poor expression cost marks for some candidates,
such as describing the separation of whole bivalents or the movement of pairs
of chromatids.

(ii) Very few candidates achieved both marks for this question. Interestingly, a
significant number of candidates who were able to give correctly the gametes
from a dihybrid cross in the answer to question 5(c) could not extend the
principle to three alleles in this question. Often, candidates correctly
understood that these gametes contained three different alleles, but could not
give the correct total for the number of different types of these gametes.

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Q16.
Question (a) was designed to test the ability of students to apply their understanding of
how to produce a dilution series in a new context, so building on the demand of required
practical 3. Not many students (3.2%) achieved all three marks, mainly because most
failed to ‘mix’ the diluted suspension, which is a key part of a dilution series technique.
The correct procedure to prepare 1 in 10 dilutions was given by the majority of students
although a significant number failed to score this mark by adding 10 units of liquid to 1 unit
of original culture. Quite a few students did not use the suspensions in their correct
proportions to produce 1 in 1000 dilutions: adding 1 unit of the 1 in 10 dilution to 999 units
of water was a common error. Some students expressed the dilution series as a set of
equations, and rarely gave enough information about the volumes to use in these
equations for examiners to award marks. Quite a lot of students (14.5%) made no attempt
to answer this question which suggested to examiners that some schools/colleges had not
carried out this kind of practical work.

Relatively few students in (b) demonstrated the ability to perform this multi-step
mathematical problem set in a microbiology context to gain both marks. Many missed a
single step and achieved one mark. They often gave 375 in the answer, but the number of
zeros associated with it varied enormously. Examiners noted some examples where
mathematical working was signposted clearly. In poorly presented answers, however,
students failed to gain marks because they hid their solution in a jumble of figures. A
significant number of students (10.6%) did not attempt to answer this question.

In question (c), students were asked to apply an understanding of the dilution series
technique to a context of counting cells in different suspensions. Many did not appreciate
the 1 in 10 dilution was a low dilution and so suggested the number of cells in this
suspension would be too low. Of those who scored one mark, some suggested there
would be too many cells without reference to counting and, if they did count the cells,
mention was infrequently made to the idea of accuracy. ‘Time consuming’ or ‘too difficult’
to calculate were often the main reasons for not using the dilution, for which no mark was
awarded. Again, a high proportion of students (16.2%) failed to attempt this question.

Most answers to (d) achieved one mark, usually for suggesting animals were given more
tetracycline or that it was used over a longer time period. Few students went on
successfully to explain a reason. Those who were successful addressed the context of
why more tetracycline- resistant bacteria than streptomycin-resistant bacteria occurred,
occasionally by referring correctly to differences in selection pressure or differences in
directional selection. Most students, however, did not make this comparison so failed to
get a mark. In explanations of natural selection, reference to gene or allele transfer during
reproduction was often omitted. Examiners noted misconceptions in many answers, such
as “antibiotics mutate”, “antibiotics cause mutations”, “tetracycline reproduced” and
“bacteria develop immunity”.

In (e), only 16.7% of students accurately applied what they knew about selection to make
a logical suggestion for explaining the scientists’ results. The most frequent correct
answer described bacteria passing on the resistance gene in their reproduction, and
occasionally a clear explanation of stabilising selection was provided, which also gained
the mark. Examiners reported many instances where the animals’ immune response was
incorrectly suggested as being a contributing factor.

Q17.
47.2% of students achieved both marks for question (a). Many did not use the parent cell
in Figure 1 as their starting point, so did not include one long and one short chromosome
in their cells (an ‘error carried forward’ was allowed if the correct daughter cells were then
drawn from the student’s own cell as shown after the first division of meiosis).

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Question (b) tested students’ understanding of the chi-squared test. The null hypothesis
stated ‘the proportion of plants will not change from one breeding cycle to the next’.
Students, therefore, needed to maintain the proportions from breeding cycle 0 into
breeding cycle 1, taking into account that the total number of plants had changed from 54
to 56. 22.3% of students could successfully combine this understanding of chi-squared
with their maths skills, using proportions to achieve both marks.

Question (c) showed that questions relating to P values are still not being answered well.
Too many students still write that the ‘results’ are due to chance, omitting the essential
aspect of it being the ‘difference’ in the results that is or isn’t due to chance. It was rare to
see the concepts of probability and chance being appropriately applied. It may be that
students have only used chi-squared in relation to genetic crosses and this novel context
caused confusion, but students should be introduced to the use of all three required
statistical tests in a range of contexts.

Question (d) tested section 3.4.4 of the specification, specifically ‘students should be able
to use unfamiliar information to explain how selection produces changes within a
population of a species’. Although the instruction to ‘use your knowledge of directional
selection’ was intended to help students focus their answer, it led to many answers that
simply described the outcome of directional selection with no explanation of how it comes
about. When attempts were made to give explanations, they were often not linked to this
example. Many students suggested that the environment had changed, so that the plants
producing 2n gametes had a selective advantage, instead of using the information
provided that the scientists used only these specific plants for breeding. The term ‘allele’,
used in the correct context, was seen infrequently.

Q18.
(a) Despite less than 13% of students obtaining more than two marks, this question
proved to be an excellent discriminator. The most frequently awarded marking point
was that the frequency of the LP allele would increase in the offspring generation.
Many students who gained this mark often gained credit for stating that individuals
with the advantageous allele would survive and reproduce. However, poor
terminology, particularly referring to ‘gene’ rather than ‘allele’, prevented a significant
number of students from gaining this mark. There were also many references to
‘alleles surviving and reproducing’. Although many students realised that drinking
milk gave a nutritional advantage, a named nutrient was not always included to gain
a mark. Similarly, mutation was mentioned by some students but this was often not
credited as many of these responses suggested that drinking milk had caused the
mutation. Directional selection was only included in a minority of responses. A
significant minority of students thought that LP occurred in cattle and suggested that
cattle were selectively bred to continue lactase production. Some students also
suggested that the allele for LP was obtained from cow’s milk.

(b) Approximately 50% of students gained a mark on this question, invariably for
referring to LP as a dominant allele. Half of these students obtained the second
mark by explaining that dominant alleles were expressed (in the phenotype). Many
students who scored zero simply suggested that selection for the LP allele caused
its rapid rise, indicating they had not carefully read the question. Perhaps of greater
concern was the number of students who suggested that the recessive allele of the
LP gene had reverted to its dominant form either via mutation, methylation or
acetylation.

(c) As expected, this proved difficult for many students with only 18% obtaining at least
one mark and 5% gaining both marks. Many students had no idea how a mutation in
DNA could cause lactase persistence. There was often confusion between lactase
and lactose. Misconceptions included: mutations in proteins, mutations causing new

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genes to code for lactase and epigenetic changes/methylation/acetylation initiating
lactase production. Some responses described deletion mutations in a different
gene on the same chromosome, resulting in a frameshift which affected the lactase
gene. Students who had some idea did write about mutations in a gene that codes
for the protein that switches off lactase. Others mentioned transcription factors, but
the mutations were often in the transcription factor rather than in the gene coding for
it.

Q19.
On reflection, in question (a), it would have been better not to try and ‘help’ students by
splitting the answer space into μg and g–1 and just let them answer as they saw fit. In any
event, the question discriminated well. Some 22% obtained both marks, 44% one mark
and 31% failed to score. All three marking points appeared with roughly equal frequency.
Quite a few students seemed to miss the point entirely, writing about μg being used
because ammonia is a small molecule.

Question (b) proved much more difficult than expected. Many students appeared to have
difficulty extracting data from the graph, often apparently mis-reading the scale. 20% of
students obtained both marks. Another 13% obtained one mark because they calculated
the correct number but made a mistake with the units. The commonest error was to use a
solidus to represent ‘per’; so, /day instead of day–1. For many years, AQA has followed the
convention of using a solidus to separate units from the name of whatever is being
presented. In this case, that would mean, “Difference in rate / μg g–1 day–1”. The question
did discriminate reasonably well.

Question (c) proved too challenging for most students. They were asked to identify
evidence that supported the idea of different communities of bacteria in soils A and B. This
would suggest that the bacteria (bacterial populations) in each soil would be those
adapted to a certain soil pH. Many misinterpreted the graph at the start and thought that
ammonia was being made; thus thinking A+B gave the fastest rate. Others focused almost
entirely on how much ammonia was left at the end of 20 days and/or described the lines
on the graph. Some 29% did note that the mixture of A and B had the slowest rate of
breakdown of ammonia and obtained one mark. Another 15% obtained a further mark by
deducing that it must be bacteria from soil B that weren’t working well at pH 6.9; or that
only bacteria from soil A were working. Only 3% obtained all three marks by linking their
deductions to bacteria from soil B having the fastest rate of ammonia breakdown in their
own soil condition (pH 4.3).

Question (d) discriminated quite well and showed which students were able to use data
presented in logarithmic form. The examiners allowed calculations of changes in numbers
of copies of mRNA, or calculation of percentage changes. 42% of students obtained both
marks. Some 7% of students obtained one mark for calculating one correct change. Some
who failed to score used the ‘power’ numbers as simple numbers; so, for species S they
said the fall was 2 and it was the same for species T. One mark was awarded if they gave
an answer of 100 times with no further explanation.

Question (e) was the worst answered on the paper and 11% did not attempt it. This might
indicate that more guidance should have been included in the stem of the question, or it
should have been worth only three marks. All four marking points were seen but students
often focused on one or two at great length. Since the command word was ‘explain’, there
were only four marking points, for four marks. Few students noted that the population
growth could not be determined using the method outlined because at no point were the
bacteria counted. The method simply gives an indication of the amount of amoA enzyme
produced. About 28% obtained one mark, usually for noting that the number of mRNA
molecules produced might well vary from cell to cell. Some 8% obtained two marks, often
for the previous point and suggesting that it is not known if there is a link between

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expression of amoA and population/cell growth/division.

Question (f) tested knowledge of aseptic technique and its use in the context used in the
question. The examiners expected students to suggest methods for sterilising whole
bottles before use. Many students wrote about flaming the necks of the bottles, ignoring
the inside (and outside). Others made vague references to ‘heating the bottles’, with no
detail about how or to what sort of temperature. The mark scheme gave acceptable
examples such as autoclaving, using boiling water and washing in alcohol. 36% of
students obtained one mark, usually for suggesting a suitable method for sterilisation. The
explanations of the reason for sterilising were usually very weak and did not link directly to
this investigation. So, most explanations were restricted to statements about getting rid of
contaminants or bacteria. The examiners were looking for ideas relating to the removal of
bacteria that might compete with or kill the bacteria being studied, or removal of other
bacteria that might produce amoA. Only 4% of students made these sorts of statements.

Q20.
For question (a), only 7.6% of students scored two marks. Most students were able to
explain the purpose of boiling the agar, though the most common error was to copy the
stem and state “so it could be poured”. Explaining the purpose of transferring the same
volume of liquid culture onto each agar plate was beyond most students. Some did not
understand the term ‘culture’, thinking it just meant food. There were many generic
answers, such as “to make it a fair test”, “to control variables”, and “so only the
independent variable affects the dependent variable”. The words valid, reliable, accurate
and precise were also thrown at the answer.

Question (b) was not a difficult maths question; it simply involved multiplying three
numbers together. Despite this, only 15.6% of students scored two marks.

For question (c), over half of the students were able to access the first marking point, but
very few scored the second. There were not any real mistakes with mark point two; it was
just omitted.

Q21.
The whole of question 10 proved to be very challenging for students. This question is a
test of comprehension: students must use the passage to be able to answer the
questions. Some clearly tried to respond without reading the passage and scored poorly.
The mean score on each question part was less than one.

In answers to question (a), there was a clear lack of understanding of the mechanism of
HIV infection. Common mistakes included stating that HIV is a bacterium, stating HIV is
killed, stating there is no cure for HIV, stating HIV binds to reverse transcriptase, only
discussing the action of enzyme inhibition, or simply repeating phrases from the passage.
Only 1.4% of students scored four marks, with 45% scoring zero marks.

In answers to question (b) the lack of understanding of the mode of infection and of how
the immune system responds was evident. Common mistakes included stating the body
or virus becomes immune to AZT, that HIV becomes AIDS, that HAART prevents HIV
becoming resistant to AZT and that there would be no need for new antibiotics. Students
also tried to include the idea that lower doses of AZT could be taken to prevent muscle
wastage, but the passage already stated that AZT is taken in low doses because it causes
muscle wasting. Only 0.2% of students scored four marks, with 49% scoring zero marks.

(c) was a simpler question, especially mark point one, but students mostly failed to
address the question. Common mistakes included stating less energy is produced, less
energy for respiration, no respiration and no ATP. Some thought oxygen is released

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during respiration; there was confusion with protein synthesis, and reverse transcriptase
and some simply stated the role of mitochondria. As a result, only 9% of students scored
two marks, and 58% scored zero marks.

Q22.
This question revealed some confusion between antibiotics and vaccines, with many
answers discussing immune responses as a result of taking antibiotics.

(a) 72.5% of students gained this mark.

(b) Some good understanding was demonstrated of how this universal enzyme could
be different in different species. Some students demonstrated understanding but
their responses were insufficiently precise to fulfil the marking criteria; they failed to
reference the ‘tertiary’ structure or the ‘shape’ of the active site. Some students
successfully suggested that the human enzyme would be found in the mitochondria
and so be inaccessible to the antibiotic.

(d) There were two ranges of correct answer here, crediting a percentage difference
compared with either group A or group R. Ranges were calculated to allow for a
tolerance of half a 2x2 mm square when reading from the graph, and for rounding at
different stages. It was pleasing to note that 46% of students could correctly
complete this calculation. Some clearly were unfamiliar with using the 10 x function
on their scientific calculators. 14% of students could correctly read from the graph
and convert these values into actual numbers of bacteria, but then could not
calculate the percentage difference.

(e) Only 6% of students achieved all 3 marks here. Those who did were those who fully
understood that the significant aspect of the data was that neither antibiotic killed all
the bacteria and then went on to explain the consequences of this. As with question
(b), some students wrote extensive descriptions of the data; this is not creditworthy
in this ‘explain’ question. Those who wrote extensive descriptions often then forgot
the instruction to use their knowledge of the evolution of antibiotic resistance. Mark
point 3 was commonly achieved for the idea that bacteria resistant to one antibiotic
would be killed by the other antibiotic. There was a disappointing number of
references to ‘immune’ bacteria. Some students tried to evaluate the information
(not requested here), with statements relating to this investigation being in mice
rather than humans.

Q31.
(a) This was generally very well answered with students able to study the resource
material and pick out relevant factors to be kept constant. Unqualified references to
temperature and time were seen and these were not specific enough to this
investigation to be creditworthy.

(b) This calculation was successfully completed by the vast majority and both options of
answer were seen although 99.8 was more common. As with other calculations in
this series, rounding errors were seen and these could only be awarded 1 max.

(c) Although many students could define standard deviation, few could apply that
knowledge to suggest what was going on here.

(d) Most students achieved mark point 1, appreciating that the control group should be

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treated and not given a standard placebo, although fewer could clearly explain why
this was important. Unqualified references to “ethics” were not creditworthy.

Q32.
(a) The vast majority of students correctly named the type of reaction as hydrolysis.
Common errors were ‘condensation’ and ‘phosphorylation’.

(b) Approximately 50% of students gained a mark in this question. The most common
scoring points referred to phosphate being required for the formation of ATP, DNA,
RNA or phospholipids in cell membranes. Many students stated that phosphate was
used as a ‘nutrient’, ‘for energy’ or to ‘form protein’.

(c) Approximately 40% of students were able to calculate a correct ratio. A significant
number of students did not gain the mark as they provided the ratio the wrong way
round or they simply transcribed their readings from the graph as a ratio, most
commonly, 4.1:1.1.

(d) This question proved difficult for most students with almost 60% scoring zero. The
most common misconception was that the chilling requirement of seeds would
enable plants to grow during the winter so that they would be fully grown by spring
and could outcompete other plants. Some students also referred to plants carry out
photosynthesis and reproducing during the winter. A significant number of students
misinterpreted the question and answered it in terms of natural selection for plants
with a chilling requirement. Students who did gain credit often referred to growth of
the seed/embryo during the winter followed by photosynthesis in the spring/summer.
Very few students referred to seed production in the spring or summer.

Q33.
(a) It was disappointing that less than 50% of students obtained two or more marks out
of the four available on this question. Although the context of the question was novel
the knowledge and understanding required have been regularly assessed on
previous AS Biology papers with students achieving better outcomes. The fact that a
mutation involves a change in the DNA base/nucleotide sequence was only
appreciated by a minority of students, often the 5% of students who obtained
maximum marks. Although most students appreciated that a different amino acid
sequence would be coded for, a number of students incorrectly stated that different
amino acids would be formed. Better answers did gain credit for references to
changes in hydrogen, ionic or disulfide bonds. However, many students failed to
gain a mark for a change in the tertiary structure as they incorrectly suggested that
this changed ‘the active site’ of a receptor. 30% of students obtained no marks.
These students often provided detailed accounts of translation or outlined the
consequence of having a non-functional receptor which was required in the following
question.

(b) Approximately half the students obtained at least one of the two marks available for
this question. Usually this mark was awarded for appreciating that HIV would not be
able to attach to the protein receptor and therefore could not enter the cell. Many
other students omitted the latter part of this description. Again, many students
referred to an active site on the receptor. Approximately 10% of students gained
both marks by further explaining that HIV would not be replicated or that the T cells
would not be destroyed.

(c) As expected, this question proved very difficult for the vast majority of students with
less than 5% obtaining both marks. The most frequent correct response related to
the low number of HIV infections in Europe compared with other parts of the world. A

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number of students did gain credit for outlining that HIV has only been present in
humans for a relatively short time period. The other mark points were rarely
awarded. A significant number of students appreciated that natural selection often
occurs over a long time period but did not relate this information to the context of the
question.

Q34.
(a) Approximately two thirds of students correctly explained that the clear zone was due
to the disinfectant killing the bacteria. Answers which only referred to the growth of
bacteria being prevented were not credited as the stem of the question outlined that
a culture of bacteria had already been grown on the agar.

(b) Slightly over half the students gained this mark. Most referred to the clear zones
being too large or merging. A significant minority did refer to all the bacteria being
killed. Students failing to gain credit often provided vague responses relating to the
clear zones, concentrations of disinfectants, enzyme denaturation or safety
concerns.

(c) Almost 90% of students obtained at least one mark, usually related to controlling the
size of the paper disc. Approximately 40% of students gained the second mark for
outlining that the discs should be soaked in each disinfectant for the same time
period. A common response was to suggest that the same volume of each
disinfectant should be used but as the information stated that the discs were
soaked, this was not credited.

(d) 30% of students obtained both marks for his question. A similar percentage obtained
a single mark for an incorrect answer but a valid method of calculating how many
times more effective disinfectant D was than disinfectant B. Most students did this
by dividing the diameters or the radii of the clear zones.

Q35.
(a) Over three quarters of students correctly identified ‘locus’ as the position of a gene
on a chromosome with ‘allele’ and ‘exon’ given frequently as incorrect answers.

(b) Most students correctly defined the term ‘genetic diversity’, usually by referring to
the number of different alleles. ‘Genes’ was used instead of ‘alleles’ by more than a
few and some tried to hedge their bets by quoting ‘genes/alleles’. Imprecise
expressions like ‘the range of alleles’, ‘variation of alleles’ or ‘number of alleles’ were
not credited, but often seen.

(c) This question tested students’ ability to select and translate appropriate information
from tabulated form and it differentiated well. Most achieved two marks and many
got all three. Concise reference was often made to ‘overlapping standard deviations
showing no significant difference between mean values’ and demonstrated that
there is sound awareness of this principle. Nevertheless, some misread the table
and quoted Airedale as being the most diverse and others failed to make a
comparison, but relied simply upon using a list of numbers. Occasionally, students
failed to identify the breed of dog in the comparison they made, leaving the onus on
the examiner to decipher what they really meant. Some commented correctly on
‘low values of standard deviations showing that there was high reliability’, but this
did not answer the question. Misconceptions, such as ‘high diversity shows more
genes are involved’ and ‘overlapping standard deviations show breeds are closely
related’ were not uncommon.

(d) This question proved beyond most students because they did not link the data to

Page 95 of 96
human involvement in the selective breeding of domesticated animals. Many
thought incorrectly that frequent mutations caused the changes in genetic diversity,
and many thought speciation had occurred which involved isolating mechanisms
such as island populations or river barriers. Some put the changes down to
environmental causes. Reproducing Miniature terriers with other breeds was often
correctly given to indicate that they were more outbred, and ‘selection of specific
traits in Bull terriers’ was accepted at the lowest level for inbreeding. References to
a gene pool or to changes in the number of different alleles were rare. Some
students referred to the terriers as different species, but then bred them and their
offspring successfully, which suggested there is a misconception with the concept of
species.

Page 96 of 96

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Genetic Diversity and Adaptation

Uploaded by

Genetic Diversity and Adaptation

Uploaded by

_______________________

Time: 368 minutes

Marks: 289 marks

Parental phenotypes Abnormal male Normal female

Gametes _____________ _____________

Offspring genotype(s) __________________________

Offspring phenotype(s) __________________________

(ii) Name the organelle involved in translation.

(b) Figure 1 shows some molecules involved in protein synthesis.

(ii) the bases forming the anticodons of the tRNA molecules.

(c) Name the type of mutation represented by mutation 1.

(d) Use the information in the table to

(i) identify amino acid X in Figure 1;

(b) Figure 1 shows the chromosomes in a diploid cell.

Complete Figure 1 to show the four different combinations of these chromosomes in

The diploid number of chromosomes in this plant is sixteen. How many

(i) the nucleus of an immature pollen grain;

(ii) one of the nuclei of a mature pollen grain?

Number of gametes 1096 1124 210 230

Result of electrophoresis Colour of petal

(a) Explain what is meant by an allele.

(a) Draw a diagram to show

(i) this cell during anaphase of mitosis;

(ii) the chromosomes in a gamete produced from this cell by meiosis.

Crossing over occurs as shown in Figure 2.

(i) that have not crossed over;

(ii) that have crossed over.

(i) What is the diploid number of chromosomes in this fern plant?

(ii) Explain the difference in the number of chromosomes at stages A and B.

Explain your answer.

(b) The diagram shows the life cycle of a moss plant.

On the diagram mark with an M where meiosis takes place.

(a) Explain how mutation could lead to faulty Factor VIII.

(b) Describe what is happening to the chromosomes at the stage shown in

Calculate the number of cells in 1 cm3 of undiluted liquid culture.

Suggest an explanation for the student’s decision.

Scientists investigated whether these farm animals had antibiotic-resistant bacteria

Their results are shown in the table.

Suggest one reason why.

Whether a red clover plant produces 2n gametes is genetically controlled.

Their results are shown in the table.

Number of Number of Number of Number of

The scientists used the following null hypothesis.

Scientists investigated whether two soils with a different pH contained different

They measured the pH of the samples and found that

• the soil from site A had a pH of 6.9

• soil A with a pH of 6.9

Their results are shown in Figure 1.

Suggest why, in this investigation, the scientists used these units.

Show your working and the units for your answer.

Difference in rate = ____________________

The oxidation of ammonia by nitrifying bacteria involves the enzyme ammonia

Their results are shown in Figure 2.

(f) The scientists set up their cultures in sterile glass bottles.

During the investigation, the student:

(a) Explain the purpose of:

boiling the agar ______________________________________________________

The table shows the student’s results.

Concentration Number of colonies of bacteria

0 300 300 300

Azidothymidine (AZT) is a drug used to treat people infected with human

ATP + H2O ⟶ ADP + Pi

ADP + Pi ⟶ ATP + H2O

ADP + Pi + H2O ⟶ ATP

• Group C was the control (untreated).

Their results are shown in the graph.

Calculate how much antibiotic would be given to a 30 g mouse each day.

Show your working.

(d) Calculate the percentage difference in actual numbers of bacteria in group A

Show your working.

Explain why the scientists made this suggestion.

Some insect species feed on the leaves of plants. These leaf-chewers

A scientist investigated the effect of three different insects on the growth

(a) Phloem-sap-feeders are passive feeders (lines 6–7).

(b) A phloem-sap-feeder polymerises some of these sugars into polysaccharides (line

The table below shows her results.

Gametes _ _