Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2022

TEST - 1 (Code-C)
Test Date : 01/11/2020

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (1) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (4) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) 8. Answer (3)
Hint : On addition and subtraction absolute errors Hint : Reading = MSD + VSD × LC
are added.
Sol. : 8MSD = 10 VSD
Sol. :
8
∆T = (31.0 – 41.2) ± (0.1 + 0.3) 1 VSD = MSD
10
= [(–10.2) ± 0.4)°C LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
2. Answer (2)
8
Hint and Sol. : LC = 1 MSD – MSD
10
∆P 1 ∆a ∆b 4 ∆c 2
= % + 1% + % LC = MSD = 0.2 × 1mm
P 2 a b 5 c 10
1 4 LC = 0.2 mm
= × 1 + 0.5 + × 2.5 = 3%
2 5 Edge = 11 mm + 3 × 0.2 = 11.6 mm
3. Answer (4) Volume = (Edge)3 = (11.6)3
Hint and Sol. : For a set to act as base quantities, = 15.6 × 102
none of the quantity could be derived completely
9. Answer (1)
from other quantities.
x y z
4. Answer (2) Hint : [Force] = [A] [v] [ρ]
–2
Hint and Sol. : Sol. : [Force] = [MLT ]
Dimensionless quantities may have unit. e.g. ⇒ [MLT–2] = [L2]x [LT–1]y [ML–3] z
angle.
2x + y – 3z = 1
Unitless quantities do not have dimensions e.g.
refractive index. z=1
5. Answer (3) –y = –2
⇒ x=z=1
Pitch
Hint : Least count = y=2
Divisions of circular scale
[F] = [ρ] [A] [v]2
0.2
Sol. : Least count = = 1.33 × 10−4 cm 10. Answer (2)
150
Hint and Sol. :
6. Answer (2)
|Average velocity| ≤ average speed
Hint and Sol. : The mediating particle of
electromagnetic force are photons. 11. Answer (2)
Hint : In the time duration, the particle changes
7. Answer (3)
direction of its motion.
Hint : n1u1 = n2u2
Sol. :
–1 –2
[Pressure] = [ML T ]
–1 –2 –1 –2
Sol. : n1[ML T ]1 = n2[ML T ]2

 M1   L−11   T1−2 
   −2   −2  = n2
 M2   L 2   T2 
−2 −1
 kg   s   m 
n2 =    0.25 s  1km 
10 kg      1 1
Displacement = g(0.7)2 − g(0.3)2 =
2m
= 6.25 2 2
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

12. Answer (3) Sol. : aA = 0

t1 × t3 3
Hint : T2 = aB= = 0.6 m/s2
(t1 − t3 ) 5
Sol. : Time taken on stationary escalator uA = 3 m/s
d uB = 0
= t1 =
u aA / B = −0.6 m/s2
Time taken while standing on moving escalator u A / B = 3 m/s
d
= t2 = 2u A / B 2 × 3
v =t = = 10 s
aA / B 0.6
Time taken to move on a moving escalator
d 16. Answer (3)
= = t3 Hint and Sol. :
u +v
1 1 1 3
⇒ = + v avg =
t3 t1 t 2 1 1 1
+ +
v1 v 2 v 3
t1t3 10 × 20
⇒ t 2= = = 20 s 3
t1 − t3 20 − 10 = = 17.14 m/s
1 1 1
13. Answer (2) + +
10 20 40
Hint : Distance = ∫ speed dt 17. Answer (4)
6 dv
Sol. : Distance = ∫0 speed × dt Hint : a = ⇒ ∫ dv =∫ a dt
dt
Particle direction changes at t = 4 sec
Sol. : a = 4e −3t
4 6
distance = ∫ (4t − t 2 ) dt + ∫ (t 2 − 4t ) dt
v ∞

∫ dv ∫4⋅e
−3 t
= dt
0 4 2 0
4 6
∫0 (4t − t )dt + ∫ (t 2 − 4t ) dt
2 ∞
= 4
4 v − 2 =− e −3t
4 6 3 0
 t3   t3 
=  2t 2 −  +  − 2t 2  4 10
 3 3 4 v =2 + = m/s
0
3 3
32 32 18. Answer (4)
=+ = 21.33 (m)
3 3   
Hint: v= u + gt
14. Answer (1)
Sol. : 2 – gt = ±1
2h
Hint : t = ⇒ t = 0.1 s, 0.3 s
g
19. Answer (1)
2h Hint and Sol. :
Sol. : t1 =
g Between O and A, velocity is positive and
acceleration is negative.
2(3h ) 2h
=t2 − 20. Answer (1)
g g
Hint and Sol. :
= ( )
3 − 1 t1 Systematic error is independent of number of
observations.
= ( 3 − 1) × 4 21. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4) Hint : Use dimensional analysis.
Hint : Use concept of relative motion. Sol. : [Energy] = [M L2 T–2]

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

[Force] = [M L T–2] 30. Answer (1)

[Angle] = [M0 L0 T0] Hint and Sol. :
[Impulse] = [M L T–1] 2.645 = 2.6 (One decimal place)
22. Answer (2) 31. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : Hint and Sol. :
The instrument with smallest least count, has
Equations with dimensionless constants and
highest precision.
additions cannot be derived using dimensional
23. Answer (4) analysis.
Hint : Using rules of significant figures. 32. Answer (2)
62.24 Hint and Sol. :
Sol. : = 31.12
2.0
0.01
= 31 (two significant figures) % error = × 100 =
1.25%
0.80
24. Answer (4)
33. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. :
Hint and Sol. :
erg is a unit of energy. Gauss is a unit of magnetic
field. Electron microscope is based upon principle of
wave nature of matter.
25. Answer (1)
34. Answer (2)
Hint : Dimensional analysis.
Sol. : [A] = [x] = [M0 L T0] Hint : Galileo law of odd numbers.
2 Sol. : Ratio of height in successive five second
[Bt ] [Ct
= = ] [M0 L0 T 0 ]
intervals = 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
[B] = [M0L0T–1] ∴ Ratio = 3 : 7
[C] = [M0L0T–2] 35. Answer (3)
0 0 0 0 –1
 AB  [M LT ] [M L T ] Hint and Sol. :
=C  = [M0LT]
  0 0 –2
[M L T ] In 12 hours, the hour hand has a zero
displacement.
26. Answer (3)
36. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. :
Hint : Distance = Path length
Maxwell unified electromagnetism and optics.
Displacement = Shortest path length
27. Answer (1)
Sol. : a + 2r + b + 4r
4
Hint : v= πR 3 = 1 + 14 + 6 + 28
3
= 49 m
∆v ∆R
Sol. : % = 3% Distance = a + πr + b + 2πr =73 m
v R
= 3 × 0.2 = 0.6% 73
Ratio =
49
28. Answer (2)
37. Answer (2)
Hint : Rnet
= R1 + R2
Hint : Displacement = Body diagonal
Sol. : Rnet
= R1 + R2
Sol. : Displacement = 42 + 32 + 52 =
5 2m
∆Rnet = ∆R1 + ∆R2
38. Answer (3)
⇒ Rnet = (20 + 40) ± (0.2 + 0.2) Hint and Sol. :
= (60 ± 0.4) Ω
29. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : Trailing zeroes in a number with a
decimal are significant.
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Total steps = 7 + 2 + 6 = 15 42. Answer (4)

Forward steps = 7 + 6 = 13 Hint and Sol. : In graph (1) and (3), acceleration
Backward steps = 2 and velocity are respectively infinite.
13 2 In graph (2), particle has two velocities at same
Time = + = 6.5 + 0.5 = 7 sec .
2 4 time.
39. Answer (2) All of these are not possible.
2 2
v −u 43. Answer (1)
Hint : a =
2s
Hint and Sol. :
| 1002 − 502 | 2
Sol. : a = 75 m/s
= When acceleration and velocity are in opposite
2 × 50 direction, then speed decreases.
40. Answer (1)
44. Answer (2)
Hint : ∫ dv = ∫ a dt Hint and Sol. :
Displacement = ∫ v dt
u2
H=
Sol. : v = ∫ 12 t 2dt 2g

= t3
v 4= 4t 3
t
2u
0 T = , u is variable so T is variable
g
2
∫0 4t
3
Displacement = dt 2
1  gT  1
2
⇒ H= ×  = × g × (T )2
4
= t= 16 m 2g  2  8
0
This is equation of Parabola.
41. Answer (3)
Hint : Distance = area under speed-time graph. 45. Answer (1)
1 1 Hint and Sol. :
Sol. : Area = 3 × 6 + 6 × 1+ × 3 × 6 +
2 2 2.01 × 4.06 = 8.1606 = 8.16 (3 significant figures)
1
× 1× 2 + 2 × 2 =29 m 8.16 + 1.6 = 9.76 = 9.8 (One decimal place)
2

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 48. Answer (3)
Actual yield Hint : N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
Hint : % purity = × 100
Theoretical yield Sol. : 6 g of H2 reacts with 28 g of N2
28
Sol. : CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) ∴ 9 g of H2 will reacts with × 9 g of N2
6
100 g 44 g
= 42 g of N2
44 ∴ N2 is left in excess
50 g × 50 =
22 g
100 Amount of N2 left = 56 – 42 = 14 g
20 49. Answer (3)
∴ % purity = × 100
= 90.9% ≈ 91%
22 Hint : 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(  )
47. Answer (3) Also, H2 is the limiting reagent.
Sol. : 44.8 L of H2 forms 2 moles of H2O
Hint : Moles ∝ Volume (at constant T and P)
134.4
nH VH /22.4 1 134.4 L of H2 will form 2 × moles of H2O
=
Sol. : 2
= 2 44.8
nN VN /22.4 2
2 2 = 6 moles of H2O
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

50. Answer (4) 55. Answer (2)

Number of moles of solute Number of moles of solute
Hint : Molarity = Hint : Molarity =
Volume of solution in L Volume of solution in L

w × 1000 9.8 × 1000

Sol. : 2 = : MH SO
Sol.= = 0.2 M
40 × 500 2 4 98 × 500
2 × 40 × 500 ( H2SO
= 4 2H+ + SO24− )
=w = 40 g
1000 M =2 × MH =2 × 0.2 =0.4 M
[H+ ] 2SO4
51. Answer (1)
Also M = 0.2 M
Hint : Number of moles of gas at STP [SO24 − ]

Volume of gas 56. Answer (1)

=
Molar volume Hint : Valence electron in 1 mole (60 g) of
CO32− = 24 NA
Sol. :
• 32 g of O2 = 1 mole = 2 NA atoms Sol. : Valence electrons in 6 g of CO32− = 2.4 NA
33.6 57. Answer (1)
• 33.6 L of CO2 at STP = moles
22.4 Hint : One Fe atom should be present in one
= 1.5 moles = 4.5 NA atoms molecule.
• 3 moles of H2 = 3 × 2 NA atoms = 6NA atoms Weight of Fe
Sol. : % of Fe = × 100
• 2 moles of SO2 = 3 × 2 NA atoms Weight of biomolecule

= 6NA atoms 56
=0.2 × 100
52. Answer (2) Weight of biomolecule
Hint : Zero preceding to first non-zero digit are ∴ Minimum molecular weight of biomolecule =
non-significant. 56 × 100
= 28000 u
Sol. : Number of significant figures in 0.06 is 1. 0.2
Number of significant figures in 2.005 is 4 58. Answer (2)
Number of significant figures in 4.0 ×104 is 2 Given mass
Hint : Number of Particles = × NA
53. Answer (1) Molar mass
nA Sol. : Number of molecules of urea in 150 g
Hint : x A =
nA + nB 150
× NA = 2.5 × 6.022 × 1023 = 15.055 × 1023
nH O 60
Sol. : xH O = 2
Number of molecules of urea left
2 nH O + nglucose
2
= 15.055 × 1023 – 3 × 1023 = 12.055 × 1023
90 Number of moles of urea left
= = 18 0.99
90 10 12.055 × 1023
+ = = 2 moles
18 180 6.022 × 1023
54. Answer (4) 59. Answer (3)
Hint : 2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g)+ 10H2O(l) Hint : Equivalent weight of oxygen = 8

Sol. : 116 g of butane requires 13 × 22.4 L of O2 Sol. : Equivalent weight of metal oxide
gas at STP. = EM + EO
13 × 22.4 = 12 + 8 = 20
29 g of butane will require ⇒ × 29 L of O2 60. Answer (4)
116
Hint : Calculate simple mole ratio of each element.
= 72.8 L of O2 gas
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Sol. : ∴ Number of angular nodes in 2p = 1

Element % Atomic mass No. of moles Simple Ratio For 3d,  = 2
C 40 12
= 40/12 3.33
= 3.33 / 3.33 1
H 6.67 =1 6.67/1 6.67
= 6.67 / 3.33 2
∴ Number of angular nodes in 3d = 2
O 53.33 16=
53.33/16 3.33
= 3.33 / 3.33 1 70. Answer (4)
∴ Empirical formula is CH2O. Hint : For H-atom, energy of atomic orbitals
61. Answer (3) depends upon the value of n only.
Hint : NH3 is the limiting reagent. Sol. : Order of energy
Sol. : 4 moles of NH3 produce 6 moles of H2O 4s = 4p > 3s = 3p = 3d
6 71. Answer (3)
∴ 2 moles of NH3 will produce × 2 moles of H2O
4 Hint : P has maximum number of unpaired
= 3 moles of H2O electrons

62. Answer (4) P(15) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

Hint : n = 4, l = 2 represents 4d
Sol. : Maximum number of electrons in 4d orbitals 3 unpaired electrons
is 10. 72. Answer (3)
63. Answer (2)
1 ν
Hint : Orbital angular momentum = ( + 1)  Hint : ν= =
λ c
Sol. : For ‘p’ orbital,  = 1
1.5 × 109
Sol.
= : ν = 5 m−1
∴ Orbital angular momentum = 1(1 + 1)  =2 3 × 10 8

64. Answer (2) 73. Answer (4)

Hint : Azimuthal quantum number (  ) determines Hint : Number of waves in n orbit = n
the shape of an atomic orbital.
Sol. : Number of waves in 4th orbit of H-atom = 4.
65. Answer (3)
74. Answer (4)
Hint : Na (Z = 11) : 1s22s22p63s1
Hint : Number of atomic orbitals in nth energy level
Sol. : For 3s1,
= n2
1 1
n= 3,  ==
0, m 0, s =
+ or − Sol. : ∴ In third energy level, number of atomic
2 2 orbitals = (3)2 = 9
66. Answer (2) 75. Answer (3)
hc
Hint : E =  1 1
λ = 2.18 × 10−18  2 − 2 
Hint : ∆E
n 
 i nf 
E1 λ 2 10000 4
Sol. : = = =
E2 λ1 2500 1 76. Answer (1)
Hint : According to Heisenberg uncertainty
∴ E1 =
4E2
principle
67. Answer (3) h
Hint : Isoelectronic species have same number of ∆v ⋅ ∆x =
4πm
electrons.
Sol. : Al3+ and K+ both have 10 electrons. 1
Sol. : Uncertainty in speed = × 20 =
0.2 m/s
68. Answer (4) 100
Hint : Zinc(Z = 30) : [Ar] 4s2 3d10 h
∆x =
69. Answer (2) 4πm∆v
Hint : Angular nodes = 
6.6 × 10−34
Sol. : For 2p,  = 1 = = 2.6 × 10−32 m
4 × 3.14 × 10 × 10 −3 × 0.2
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

77. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)

2
n Hint : In Pauli exclusion
Hint : rn = 52.9 pm
Z
Sol. : For first excited state of He+ ion, Z = 2, principle is violated.
n=2 Sol. : In Hund’s rule is violated.

(2)2
rn = 52.9 × = 105.8 pm 85. Answer (4)
2
78. Answer (3) Hint : Bohr’s model account for the stability and
line spectra of hydrogen atoms and hydrogen like
n(n − 1) ions (He+, Li2+, etc.)
Hint : Total number of spectral lines =
2 Sol. : Bohr’s model failed to explain Zeeman as
Sol. : 4 excited states means fifth state
th well as Stark effect.
5(5 − 1) 86. Answer (3)
∴ No. of spectral lines = = 10
2 Hint : The value of  varies from 0 to n – 1.
79. Answer (2) Sol. : For n = 3,  can be 0, 1, 2
h 87. Answer (2)
Hint : λ =
mv
h 6.6 × 10−34
m
Sol. : = = Hint : d :
λv 0.1× 10−9 × 3 × 108 x2 –y 2

= 2.2 × 10−32 kg
80. Answer (2) px :
 Charge  88. Answer (3)
Hint : The order of   ratio for different
 Mass  1  1 1
particles is Hint : RH Z2  2 − 2 
=×
λ n 
Electron > Proton > Alpha particles > Neutron  1 n2 
81. Answer (2) Sol. : For Balmer series, n1 = 2
Hint : Isosters have same number of atoms as well and for minimum wavelength, n2 = ∞
as same number of valence electrons.
1  1 1
Sol. : ∴ = RH × 12  2 − 
λ  (2) ∞ 
N2 CO
No. of atoms 2 2 4
So, λ =
No. of electrons 14 14 RH

82. Answer (4) 89. Answer (3)

Hint : K.E. = hν − hν0 Hint : Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit
is quantised.
Sol. : K.E.= h(ν − ν0 ) Sol. : The energy of an electron in the orbit does
= 6.6 × 10–34(1.1 × 1012
–1× 1011) not change with time.
= 6.6 × 10 × 1 × 10
–34 12 90. Answer (2)
= 6.6 × 10–22 J Hint : % by mass of H2O
83. Answer (2) Mass of H2O
= × 100
nhc Mass of compound
Hint : E =
λ x × 18
=
Sol. : 63 × 100
Eλ 100 × 450 × 10 −9 18x + 106
Sol. : n = = = 2.3 × 1020
hc 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 ∴ x=
10
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4) Sol. : (a) Fungal cell wall – polymer of N-
acetylglucosamine
Sol. : Anton van Leeuwenhoek first saw and
described a living cell. (b) Na+/K+ pump in animal cells – uphill movement
92. Answer (3) (c) Middle lamella – Calcium and magnesium
pectate
Hint : In cell envelope of bacteria capsule is a rigid
protective layer (d) Plasmamembrane – Quasi fluid nature
Sol. : Glycocalyx in form of a loose sheath called 100. Answer (3)
slime layer. Cell envelope is a three layered Hint : Photosynthetic product is stored in form of
structure and all layers act as a single protective starch in plants in site of its synthesis.
layer.
Sol. : Storage of starch takes place in chloroplast
93. Answer (2) not in mitochondria.
Hint : Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes and in 101. Answer (4)
prokaryotes membrane bounded cell organelles Hint : During separation of chromatids, centromere
are absent. splits.
Sol. : In BGA, chromatophores are pigment Sol. : In meiosis during anaphase II, centromeres
containing membranous extensions. split and chromatids separate. During anaphase I
94. Answer (2) homologous chromosomes separate, hence there
is no splitting of centromere.
Hint : In prokaryotes pili are elongated tubular
structures, involved in mating process. 102. Answer (3)
Sol. : Fimbriae help in attachement of bacteria to Hint : In primary constriction region proteinaceous
host or surface of rocks. Both pili and fimbriae do discs provide site for attachment of spindle fibres.
not help in motility. Sol. : These proteinaceous discs are called
95. Answer (4) kinetochore
Hint : ER, Golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole 103. Answer (3)
constitute endomembrane system of an eukaryotic Hint : Synapsis is pairing of homologous
cell. chromosomes.
Sol. : Peroxisome is a microbody. Sol. : Pairing of homologous chromosomes take
place during zygotene stage.
96. Answer (3)
104. Answer (1)
Hint : Glycosylation of proteins and glycosidation
of lipids are carried out by Golgi complex. Sol. : If diplotene lasts for months or years, known
as dictyotene eg. oocyte of some vertebrates.
Sol. : Glycosylation and glycosidation are
formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids 105. Answer (1)
respectively. Packaging of material, cell secretion Hint : Equatorial plates are formed during
and formation of plasma membrane during metaphase-I of meiosis where alignment of
cytokinesis are another roles of Golgi complex. bivalents occur.
97. Answer (3) Sol. : During prophase I, diplotene is recognised
Sol. : In bacteria capsule hide it from host’s by appearance of chiasmata and dissolution of
immune system. synaptonemal complex.

98. Answer (4) 106. Answer (2)

Hint : Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs
Sol. : In cells of parenchyma tissue and
during diakinesis which is final stage of meiotic
meristematic tissue, cell wall consists of only
prophase I.
primary cell wall.
Sol. : Due to meiosis reduction in chromosome
99. Answer (2)
number in gametes take place but it is required to
Hint : Fungal cell wall is made up of chitin which is maintain constant chromosome number in next
polymer of nitrogenous polysaccharide. generation by fusion of such gametes.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

107. Answer (2) Sol. : Microtubules form cytoskeleton of cilia and

Sol. : Here amount of DNA is denoted by x. help in cell plate formation during cytokinesis in
plant cells.
117. Answer (2)
Hint : Chromosomes having one shorter arm and
one longer arm exhibit L-shape during anaphase.
Sol. : Such chromosomes are called sub
metacentric.
118. Answer (3)
Hint : Nucleolus is not bound by any membrane.
Sol. : Nucleolus is site for rRNA synthesis in
108. Answer (3) nucleoplasm. These may occur in more number in
Sol. : Haploid cells never undergo meiosis. These cells which are actively involved in protein
cells divide by mitosis. Rest of the statements are systhesis.
correct. 119. Answer (2)
109. Answer (1) Sol. : During anaphase centromers split,
Sol. : Given figure represents metaphase stage chromatids separate and move to opposite pole.
because chromosomes are aligned at metaphasic 120. Answer (1)
plate. Sol. : Elaioplast – Castor
110. Answer (3) Amyloplast – Potato
Hint : Separation of homologous chromosomes or Aleuroplast – Maize
chromatids always take place during anaphase of
121. Answer (2)
meiosis or mitosis.
Hint : The cell organelle, which has hydrolytic
Sol. : During anaphase I of meiosis chromosome
enzymes is known as suicidal bag of the cell.
pairs get separated but chromatids still remain
attached at their centromere. Sol. : This cell organelle is lysosome.
111. Answer (4) 122. Answer (4)
Hint : Colchicine treatment in a cell inhibits Sol. : In plant cells Golgi apparatus is known as
microtubules formation. dictyosome.
Sol. : As a result of inhibition of microtubule 123. Answer (3)
polymerization spindle apparatus is not formed Hint : Eukaryotic flagella is mainly made up of
during metaphase, hence cell division stops. tubulin protein whereas prokaryotic flagella is made
112. Answer (2) up of flagellin protein.
Sol. : Microtubules are made up of tubulin protein.
Sol. : During G0 phase cells remain metabolically
Eukaryotic flagella show 9 + 2 arrangement of
active and can divide occasionally just to replace
microtubules.
the cells lost due to injury.
In prokaryotic flagella basal body consists of rings.
113. Answer (3)
124. Answer (3)
Hint : Amitosis is called direct cell division.
Hint : In 80S ribosomes rRNA are of 4 types 18S,
Sol. : In amitosis, there is no spindle formation.
5.8S, 5S and 28S.
114. Answer (1) Sol. : 18S rRNA – Small sub unit.
Sol. : G1 → S transition is major check point. 5S, 5.8S and 28S rRNA – Large sub unit.
115. Answer (3) 125. Answer (4)
Sol. : Specific concentration of Mg++ ions is Hint : Eukaryotes which do not produce flagellated
required for association of ribosome sub-units. cells, lack centriole.
116. Answer (4) Sol. : In higher plants centrioles are absent.
Hint : Microfilaments help in pseudopodia 126. Answer (1)
formation and cleavage furrow formation during cell
Sol. : Ribosome were discovered by George
division.
Palade.
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

127. Answer (3) Sol. : Squamous epithelium forms diffusion

Hint : For staining of DNA basic dyes like boundary. Cuboidal epithelium consists of single
acetocarmine or fuelgen are used. layer of cube like cells.
Sol. : Chromatin is mainly made up of DNA with Columnar epithelium contains single layer of tall
histone and non histone proteins. and slender cells.
128. Answer (3) Ciliated epithelium is characterised by presence of
Hint : The chromosomes which have one cilia.
extremely short and one very long arm show 137. Answer (2)
J-shape during anaphase.
Hint : Its example is epithelium
Sol. : Such chromosomes are known as
acrocentric. Sol. : Cell is the smallest, structural and functional
129. Answer (2) unit of an organism.
Hint : NOR (Nucleolar organizer region) or An organ comprises a group of tissues.
secondary constriction is an additional constriction An organism is an individual animal.
in few chromosomes.
138. Answer (3)
Sol. : The part of chromosome beyond secondary
constriction is called satellite. Telomere is end of Hint : They are present on free surface
chromosome. Sol. : The presence of microvilli increases the
130. Answer (1) surface area of absorption giving brush bordered
Hint : Double metaphasic plate is formed during appearance.
meiosis I for alignation of homologous Cilia are present in ciliated epithelium.
chromosome pairs.
139. Answer (3)
Sol. : The phase during which double metahpasic
plate formed is metaphase I. Hint : They perform cementing between cells

131. Answer (3) Sol. : Adhering junctions are also called macula
adherens. They possess intercellular proteins and
Sol. : Syneptonemal complex dissolves during
diplotene stage. tonofibrils which keep the neighbouring cells
together.
132. Answer (4)
140. Answer (3)
Sol. : Majority of the enzymes required in TCA
cycle are found is matrix except succinic acid Hint : Secretion of endocrine glands
dehydrogenase, which occurs in inner membrane Sol. : Endocrine glands are ductless glands and
of mitochondria.
their products are called hormones which are
133. Answer (3) secreted directly into fluid bathing the gland.
Hint : Fungal cell wall is generally composed of a 141. Answer (2)
nitrogenous polysaccharide i.e. chitin.
Hint : They are absent in blood.
Sol. : Chitin is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine.
Sol. : Fibres are absent in blood. Nucleated cells
134. Answer (1)
like WBCs are present in blood. Proteins like
Sol. : In human beings cell membrane of RBCs collagen, elastin, fibrinogen and albumin are
has approximately 52% of protein and 40% lipids.
components of connective tissues.
Cell wall protects cell from mechanical injury.
135. Answer (2) 142. Answer (3)

Hint : Gas vacuoles are membraneless, found in Hint : Identify non excitable tissues.
prokaryotes. Sol. : Areolar and adipose are loose connective
Sol. : In BGA (cyanobacteria) gas vacuoles are tissues. Muscular and neural tissues are not
found. connective tissues.
136. Answer (1) 143. Answer (2)
Hint : It is present in air sacs of human lungs Hint : Ligaments connect bone to bone

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bone Sol. : The presence of dendrites, axon and Nissl’s
whereas ligaments attach one bone to another granules are characteristic of neurons whereas
bone. plasma membrane is present around all cells.
144. Answer (3) 151. Answer (2)
Hint : Bones contain calcium salts. Hint : It is bathed in saliva
Sol. : The intercellular material of cartilage is solid Sol. : Compound epithelium covers dry surface of
and pliable and resists compression whereas skin, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary
bones have hard and non-pliable ground glands and of pancreatic ducts. Alveoli of lungs are
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres lined by squamous epithelium.
which give bone its strength. Lamellae are present Inner surface of fallopian tubes is lined by ciliated
in bones. epithelium.
145. Answer (4) Inner surface of intestine is lined by columnar
Hint : Ciliated epithelium moves particles in one epithelium.
direction. 152. Answer (4)
Sol. : Compound epithelium is made of more than Hint : It is a feature of skeletal muscle fibres.
one layer of cells. Cuboidal and columnar
Sol. : Many nuclei (syncytium) present at the
epithelium play role in secretion and absorption.
periphery is a characteristic feature of skeletal
146. Answer (3) muscle fibres. Cardiac muscle fibres possess
Hint : Wall of intestine contains smooth muscles single, centrally placed nucleus.
Sol. : Presence of striations and structural 153. Answer (4)
syncytium is a characteristic of skeletal muscle Hint : Neuroglial cell
fibres. Branched appearance is seen in cardiac
Sol. : Muscle cells and neurons are excitable cells.
muscle fibres. Smooth muscle fibres are fusiform
Astrocytes are neuroglial cells that form the blood-
or spindle shaped and are uninucleated.
brain barrier. Neuroglial cells are not excitable.
147. Answer (2)
154. Answer (3)
Hint : Blood cell production
Hint : It is without water.
Sol. : The bone marrow in some bones is the site
Sol. : Living tissue gives wet weight. When it is
of production of blood cells. All bones do not
dried, all the water evaporates and dry weight is
contain red bone marrow. Active marrow is found
obtained. When the tissue is fully burnt, all the
in bones forming spine, hip, shoulder bones, ribs,
carbon compounds are oxidized to gaseous form
breast bone and skull.
and ash remains.
148. Answer (3)
155. Answer (4)
Hint : Muscle fibres are anatomical units of muscle
Hint : R is variable
Sol. : Each muscle is made of many long
Sol. : There are four substituent groups occupying
cylindrical fibres arranged parallely. These fibres
the four valency positions. These are hydrogen,
are composed of numerous fine fibrils called
carboxyl group, amino group and a variable R
myofibrils.
group. Based on the nature of R group, there are
149. Answer (4) many types of amino acids.
Hint : It is present in cartilage 156. Answer (2)
Sol. : Fibroblasts are cells that produce and Hint : Neutral amino acid
secrete fibres. Mast cells secrete inflammatory
Sol. : Aromatic amino acids contain aromatic ring.
mediators. Macrophages are phagocytic cells.
Valine is a neutral amino acid containing equal
Chondrocytes are cells present in cartilage.
number of carboxylic and amino groups.
150. Answer (3)
157. Answer (2)
Hint : It is called axolemma
Hint : The structure represents adenine
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 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Sol. : Adenine is a purine type of nitrogenous base Lipids 2

which is a component of both RNA and DNA.
When found attached with sugar it forms Ions 1
adenosine which is a nucleoside. If a phosphate 164. Answer (2)
group is also found esterified to sugar it forms Hint : Secreted by fibroblasts
adenylic acid which is a nucleotide.
Sol. : RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the
158. Answer (3) whole of biosphere. Albumin is a plasma protein.
Hint : Arachidic acid has 20 carbons Elastin is a component of connective tissue.
Sol. : Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms 165. Answer (4)
including the carboxyl carbon. Stearic acid has 18 Hint : Identify a protein
carbon atoms and Palmitic acid has 16 carbon Sol. : Proteins are considered as heteropolymers
atoms. containing linked amino acids. Insulin is a protein
159. Answer (1) while starch, chitin and inulin are homopolymers of
Hint : Trihydroxypropane is glycerol glucose, N-acetyl glucosamine and fructose
respectively.
Sol. : Glycerol is a simple lipid. Many lipids have
both glycerol and fatty acids where fatty acids are 166. Answer (4)
esterified with glycerol. They can be Hint : Glucose is hexose sugar
monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides. Sol. : A nucleic acid containing deoxyribose is
160. Answer (2) called deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) while that
which contains ribose is called ribonucleic acid
Hint : Purines are dicyclic
(RNA). Hexose sugars are not found in nucleic
Sol. : Pyrimidines are cytosine, uracil and thymine acids.
which are heterocyclic but not dicyclic. Purines are
167. Answer (3)
heterocyclic and dicyclic and include adenine and
Hint : Conversion of Fe3+ to Fe2+
guanine. Neurons and RBCs don’t divide.
Sol. : In a polysaccharide chain the right end is
161. Answer (4)
called reducing end while the left is called non-
Hint : Phospholipids are compound lipids reducing end.
Sol. : A fatty acid molecule comprises a carboxylic 168. Answer (2)
group attached to an R group. The R group could Hint : They release energy
be methyl or ethyl or higher number of -CH2
Sol. : Anabolic pathways are biosynthetic
groups.
pathways. They consume energy whereas
162. Answer (2) catabolic pathways are degradation pathways and
Hint : It is a lectin release energy. Catabolic pathway is exemplified
Sol. : Examples of some drugs are vinblastin and by degradation of glucose into lactic acid.
curcumin. 169. Answer (1)
Concanavalin A is a lectin which is a protein that Hint : Antibodies fight infectious agents
can bind to sugar. Sol. :
163. Answer (3) Protein Functions
Hint : They make up 1% of total cellular mass Collagen Intercellular
Sol. : ground substance
Component % of total cellular Trypsin Enzyme
mass
Insulin Hormone
Water 70-90
Antibody Fight infectious
Proteins 10-15 agents

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 1 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)

Receptor Sensory reception 175. Answer (3)

(smell, taste, Hint : Class I of enzymes
hormone, etc.) Sol. : Lyases catalyse removal of groups from
GLUT-4 Enables glucose substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
transport into cells leaving double bonds.
Hydrolases catalyse hydrolysis of ester peptide
170. Answer (4)
bonds etc.
Hint : They are not synthesized in the body
Isomerases catalyse interconversion of isomers.
Sol. : Essential amino acids are called so because 176. Answer (2)
they have to be supplied through diet. A
polypeptide may contain essential or non essential Hint : Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor
amino acids. Sol. : Cofactors can be prosthetic groups, co-
enzymes and metal ions.
171. Answer (1)
177. Answer (4)
Hint : Component of polypeptide
Hint : Km indicates substrate concentration
Sol. : Primary structure gives positional information
in a protein. When protein thread is folded into Sol. : A competitive inhibitor increases the
other forms, it is called secondary structure. When apparent Km for a given substrate. This means that
long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow in the presence of a competitive inhibitor more
woollen ball, it forms tertiary structure. 1
substrate is needed to achieve Vmax
2
172. Answer (2)
178. Answer (2)
Hint : Connects adjacent nucleotides
Hint : Transition state
Sol. : In nucleic acids, one ester bond is present
on each side of phosphate group therefore it is Sol. : An obligatory formation of E-S complex
called phosphodiester bond. Peptide bond links occurs which is a transient phenomenon. When
amino acids in a polypeptide. Glycosidic bond links substrate is bound to enzyme active site, a new
individual monosaccharides in a polysaccharide. structure of substrate called transition state
Hydrogen bonds stabilize the tertiary structure of structure is formed.
proteins. 179. Answer (2)
173. Answer (4) Hint : Action of heat on proteins
Hint : Living organisms work continuously Sol. : Since most enzymes are proteins, exposure
to higher temperature destroys enzymatic activity
Sol. : Living process is a constant effort to prevent
because proteins are denatured by heat. Low
falling in equilibrium.
temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily
The turn over of molecules involves continuous inactive state.
making and breaking through chemical reactions.
180. Answer (2)
174. Answer (2) Hint : Peroxidase and catalase
Hint : A pitch in B-DNA contains 10 base pairs Sol. : Zn2+ is a cofactor of carboxypeptidase.
Sol. : At each step of ascent the strand turns 36° Niacin is a component of coenzyme nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide. Mg2+ is an cofactor of
The rise per base pair is 3.4 Å i.e., 0.34 nm hexokinase.

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Edition: 2020-21