Topic 3 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - INVESTMENT DECISION, LIRA UNIVERSITY
Topic 3 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT - INVESTMENT DECISION, LIRA UNIVERSITY
Introduction
This topic introduces you to the essentials of investment appraisal and will cover the meaning of
investment appraisal, capital budgeting, the importance of capital budgeting decision, investment
appraisal and capital budgeting, cash flows versus profits, the types of cash flows, capital
budgeting decisions, investment appraisal techniques, allowing for inflation and taxation in
discounted cash flows, and capital rationing.
Investment Appraisal
Investment appraisal is the evaluation of proposed investment projects involving capital
expenditure. Capital expenditure is spending on non-current assets, such as buildings and
equipment, or investing in a new business. The purpose of investment appraisal is to make a
decision about whether the capital expenditure is worthwhile and whether the investment project
should be undertaken.
Capital Budgeting
The decision to invest in long term assets by the firm is called the investment or capital
budgeting decision. The primary task in this decision is to evaluate proposals for investment in
long term assets to ensure capacity to produce, and select those investment proposals that
maximise the value of the firm, that is, capital expenditure by a company should provide a long-
term financial return, and the spending should be consistent with the company’s long-term
corporate and financial objectives. Capital expenditure should therefore be made with the
intention of implementing chosen business strategies that have been agreed by the board of
directors.
Cash Outflows
These consist of expenditure (initial outlay) that needs to be made before the assets become
operational. The initial outlay components include the following:
1) The invoice value of the assets to be acquired.
2) All the other incidental costs incurred in making the assets operational e.g. installation
costs, and freight charges, among others.
3) Opportunity costs - reflects implicit cost that aren’t directly paid for in cash. For example
when the investor is given free accommodation for the project, the rent that would
otherwise have been paid is an opportunity cost and should be considered when
determining the outlay of the investment.
4) Investment allowances, which actually reduce the initial outlay.
5) Increases or decreases in the existing working capital. For example, if it is an expansion
project there will be an increased need for cash, inventories and higher levels of accounts
receivable.
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6) Sunk costs should be ignored. These are costs incurred in the assessment of the feasibility
of the project and have no direct relationship with the value of the investment. A typical
example is the feasibility study costs.
The company currently spends Shs 3 million on salary of a specialist technician who maintains
the equipment. This is expected to increase to Shs 4.5 million as an additional engineer will be
engaged. The new equipment will be housed in an extension building provided by Uganda
Manufacturers Authority at no cost in appreciation of the company’s effort to improve the
welfare of the area. It would otherwise have cost Shs 5 million to set up the facility.
Solution
Particulars Shs Shs
Invoice value of the equipment 400,000,000
Add: Carriage and freight charges 8,000,000
Clearing Charges 2,000,000
Increase in working capital Shs (4.5 – 3) m 1,500,000
Building from UMA 5,000,000 16,500,000
Initial Outlay 416,500,000
Cash Inflows
These refer to the returns expected from the investment. Cash inflows are generated from
operations and terminal value.
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Cash Inflows from Operations
These are either increases in revenue or decreases in costs as a result of undertaking the
investment. These cash inflows should also take into account non-cash expenses like
depreciation. Depreciation refers to the gradual loss in value of an asset. Whereas depreciation is
deducted from net revenues in order to determine the net earnings, it doesn’t involve an actual
movement of cash like other expenses. On this basis it is regarded as a boost to inflow, and
therefore it should be added back to the cash inflow after tax.
Required are:
a) The depreciation computation using straight line method.
b) The depreciation computation using reducing balance method and in particular the double
declining balance method.
c) The earnings after tax using the straight-line method of depreciation.
d) The earnings after tax using the double declining balance method of depreciation.
Solutions
a) Depreciation computations using the straight-line method
Depreciation = Cost – salvage value
Useful life
= 4,500,000 – 2,500,000
4
= Shs 500,000 per annum
= 2 x 25%
= 50%
c) The earnings after tax after applying the straight line method of depreciation.
Year 1 Year 2 Years 3 Year 4
Particulars Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
Revenues 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000
Depreciation (500) (500) (500) (500)
Earnings before tax 9,500 9,500 9,500 9,500
Tax @ 30% (2,850) (2,850) (2,850) (2,850)
Earnings after tax 6,650 6,650 6,650 6,650
Depreciation 500 500 500 500
7,150 7,150 7,150 7,150
Net salvage proceeds (W-1) - - - 1,750
CFAT 7,150 7,150 7,150 8,900
Workings
W-1: Net salvage value = (1- t) x salvage value; Where t = tax rate
= (1- 0.3) x 2,500,000
= Shs 1,750,000
d) The earnings after tax after applying the DDBM.
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4
Particulars Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
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Revenue 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000
Depreciation (W-1) (2,250) (1,125) (562.5) (281.5)
Earnings before tax 7,750 8,875 9,437.5 9,718.5
Tax @ 30% (2,325) (2,663) (2,831.3) (2,915.6)
Earnings after tax 5,425 6,212 6,606.2 6,802.9
Depreciation 2,250 1,125 562.5 281.5
7,675 7,337 7,168.7 7,084.4
Net salvage value - - - 1,750
7,675 7,337 7,168.7 8,834.4
Workings
W-1: Depreciation Computations
Year 1: 50% x 4,500,000 = Shs 2, 250,000
Year 2: 50% x [4,500,000 - 2,250,000] = Shs 1,125,000
Year 3: 50% x [4,500, 000 – (2,250,000 +1,125,000)] = Shs 562, 500
Year 4: 50% x [4,500, 000 - [2,250, 000 + 1,125,000 + 562,500)] = Shs 281,500
The net salvage value would be Sv (1-t); where Sv is the realisable value on selling scrap of the
asset and t is the tax rate to which incomes of the business are subjected.
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The Accept –Reject Decision
The accept-reject decision is the fundamental decision of whether to invest in a proposed project,
that is, every asset a firm acquires must successfully pass the accept-reject decision. The decision
here involves accepting a proposed project if it satisfies the investor interests or otherwise.
Alternatively:
ROCE = Average annual profits before interest and tax x 100%
Average capital investment
Example 3: ROCE
A project requires an initial investment of Shs 800 million and then earns net cash inflows as
follows:
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Cash inflows (Shs millions) 100 200 400 400 300 200 150
In addition, at the end of the seven-year project the assets initially purchased will be sold for
Shs 100 million.
Solutions
ROCE uses profits rather than cash flows. The necessary computations are as follows:
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Average annual inflows = 1,750,000,000/7 = 250,000,000.
Average annual depreciation = (800,000,000 - 100,000,000)/7 = 100,000,000. A net
shilling 700 million is being written off as depreciation over 7 years.
Average annual profit = 250,000,000 – 100,000,000 = 150,000,000.
The average capital invested is (800,000,000 + 100,000,000)/2 = 450,000,000.
a) Initial capital cost
ROCE = Average annual profit x 100% = 150,000,000 x 100% = 18.75%
Initial capital cost 800,000,000
Disadvantages of ROCE
1) It fails to take account of either the project life or the timing of the cash flows within that
life. This therefore ignores the time value of money.
2) It might ignore working capital requirements.
3) It will vary with specific accounting policies, and the extent to which project costs are
capitalised. Profit measurement is thus subjective and ROCE figures for identical
projects would vary from business to business.
Payback Method
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Payback is the time a project will take to pay back the money spent on it. It is based on the
expected cash flows from the project, not accounting profits. The payback method of appraisal is
used in one of the following two ways:
1) A business may establish a rule for capital spending that no project should be taken
unless it is expected to pay within a given length of time.
2) When two alternative capital projects are being compared, and the decision is to
undertake one or the other but not both. Preference must be given to the project that is
expected to pay back sooner.
Payback is commonly used as an initial screening method and projects that meet the payback
requirement are then analysed using another investment appraisal method.
Solution
Payback = Shs 20,000,000/ Shs 4,000,000 = 5 years
Solution
Year Cash flow Cumulative cash flow
Shs’000 Shs’000
0 (20,000) (20,000)
1 10,000 (10,000)
2 (5,000) (15,000)
3 4,000 (11,000)
4 6,000 (5000)
5 3,000 (2,000)
6 2,000 0
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Improving investment conditions – When investment conditions are expected to
improve in the near future, attention is directed to those projects which will release
funds soonest, to take advantage of the improving climate.
3) Payback favours projects with a quick return – It is often argued that these are to be
preferred for three reasons:
Rapid project payback leads to rapid company growth, but in fact such a policy will
lead to many profitable investment opportunities being overlooked because their
payback period does not happen to be particularly swift.
Rapid payback minimises risk (the logic being that the shorter the payback period, the
less there’s that can go wrong).
Rapid payback maximises liquidity – but liquidity problems are best dealt with
separately, through cash forecasting.
4) Unlike the other traditional methods, it uses cash flows, rather than profits, and so is less
likely to produce an unduly optimistic figure distorted by assorted accounting
conventions which might permit certain costs to be carried forward and not affect profit
initially.
Demerits
1) Project returns after payback period may be ignored – cash flows arising after the
payback period are totally ignored.
2) It ignores the basic idea behind the investors’ decision to commit resources. Acceptance
criterion on an investment with a payback period of 1 year is better than one with 2 years.
3) Timing ignored – cash flows are effectively categorized as pre-payback or post-payback,
but no more accurate measure is made. In particular, the time value of money is ignored
(except in the case of discounted payback).
4) The payback period criterion that firm’s stipulate for assessing projects has little
theoretical basis. How do firms justify setting, say, a two-year payback requirement?
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The DCF methods take into account both the magnitude and timing of expected cash flows in
each period of a project's life. The two methods are the net present value method and the
internal rate of return method.
Solution
Year Cash flow Discount factor Present value
Shs’000 7% Shs’000
0 (150,000) 1.000 (150,000)
1 60,000 0.935 56,100
2 60,000 0.873 52,380
3 60,000 0.816 48,960
7,440
The NPV of this project is Shs 7,440,000. As the NPV is positive, project A should be
undertaken as it will increase shareholders’ wealth.
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2) Is an absolute method – the NPV of an investment represents the actual surplus raised by
the project. This allows the business to plan more effectively.
3) Is based on cash flows not profits – the subjectivity of profits makes them less reliable
than cash flows and therefore less appropriate for decision-making. Neither ARR nor
payback provides an absolute method.
4) Considers the whole life of the project – methods such as payback only considers the
earlier cash flows associated with the project. NPV takes account of all relevant flows
associated with the project.
5) Should lead to maximisation of shareholder wealth. If the cost of capital reflects the
investor’s (shareholders) required return, then the NPV reflects the theoretical increase in
their wealth. For a company, this is considered to be the primary objective of the
business.
Decision rule:
Projects should be accepted if their IRR is greater than the cost of capital.
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Calculating the IRR using Linear Interpolation - The steps in linear interpolation are:
1) Calculate two (2) NPVs for the project at two (2) different costs of capital.
2) Use the formula to find the IRR:
IRR = L% + NL x (H-L) %
NL - NH
Where: L = Lower rate of interest; H = Higher rate of interest; NL= NPV at the lower rate
of interest; and, NH = NPV at the higher rate of interest
Example 7: IRR
An investment opportunity is available which requires a single cash outlay of Shs 850 million.
Cash inflows of Shs 388 million will then arise at 12 months intervals for three years
commencing in one year’s time. Loan finance is available at 8% p.a.
Solution
We shall use discount rates of 8% and 20%.
Year Cash flow PV factor PV PV factor PV
Shs’000 at 8% Shs’000 at 20% Shs’000
0 (850,000) 1.000 (850,000) 1.000 (850,000)
1-3 388,000 2.577* 999,876 2.106* 817,128
Net present value 149,876 (32,872)
*These are the cumulative factors for three (3) years at 8% and 20% respectively.
The impact of inflation can be dealt with in two different ways - both methods give the same
NPV.
METHODS OF DEALING WITH INFLATION
TYPES OF INFLATION
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Each cash flow is affected by a Impacts the investors’ overall
specific rate required rate of return
In situations where you are given a number of specific inflation rates, the real method seen
before cannot be used. The following gives a useful summary of how to approach the question.
No Yes
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Although it is theoretically possible to use the real method in questions incorporating tax, it is
extremely complex. It is therefore much safer (and easier) to use the money/ nominal method in
all questions where tax is taken into account.
To use the real method when cash flows inflate at different rates (specific rates) is extremely
complex and would involve a lot of calculations. It is therefore advisable to always use the
money method in these situations. This involves:
Inflating the cash flows at their specific inflation rates.
Discounting using the money rate.
Very often the money rate will not be given in the question but will need to be calculated. This
should be done using the real rate and the general inflation rate.
The following forecasts are made of the rates of inflation each year for the next five years:
Wage costs 10%
Material costs 5%
General prices 6%
Required: Evaluate the project assuming that the machine has a life of five years and no scrap
value.
Solution
Since the question contains both specific and general inflation rates, the money method
should be used.
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Step 1: The money rate needs to be calculated using the information provided on the real rate
of return and the general rate of inflation.
(1 + m) = (1+ r) (1+ i)
(1 + m) = (1.085) (1.06)
m = 15%
Step 2: Inflate the cash flows using the specific inflation rates and discount using the money rate
calculated in Step 1.
T0 T1 T2 T3 T4 T5
Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
Investment (7,000)
Wages savings
(Inflating @ 10%) 1,100 1,210 1,331 1,464 1,610
Materials savings
(Inflating @ 5%) 420 441 463 486 510
Net cash flow (7,000) 1,520 1,651 1,794 1,950 2,120
PV factor @
15% 1.000 0.870 0.756 0.658 0.572 0.497
PV of cash flow (7,000) 1,322 1,248 1,180 1,115 1,054
Therefore, the NPV = Shs (1,081,000) which suggests the project isn’t worthwhile.
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Tax paid on operating flows is due one year after the related operating cash flow is
earned.
Investment spending attracts capital allowances [or writing down allowances (WDAs)]
which get tax relief - a tax deductible alternative to depreciation. The effect of this is to
reduce the amount of tax that organisations are required to pay.
In practice, the effects of taxation are complex and are influenced by a number of factors
including the following the taxable profits and tax rate, the company’s accounting period and tax
payment dates, capital allowances, and losses available for set-off.
But many of these issues are ignored or simplified for the purposes of NPV investment appraisal.
Capital Allowances/WDAs
For tax purposes, a business may not deduct the cost of an asset from its profits as depreciation
(in the way it does for financial accounting purposes). Instead the cost must be deducted from
taxable profits in the form of ‘capital allowance or WDAs. The basic rules are as follows:
WDA are calculated on a reducing balance basis (usually at a rate of 25%).
The total WDAs given over the life of an asset equate to its fall in value over the period
(i.e. the cost less any scrap proceeds).
WDAs are claimed as early as possible.
WDAs are given for every year of ownership except the year of disposal.
In the year of sale or scrap a balancing allowance (BA) or balancing charge arises (BC).
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An asset was purchased for Shs 100 million. At the time of its disposal the cumulative capital
allowances claimed over the life of the asset were Shs 68,000,000.
Calculate the balancing allowance or balancing charge if the asset is disposed of for Shs
20,000,000.
Solution
a) Particulars Shs’000
Original cost of asset 100,000
Cumulative capital allowances claimed (68,000)
Written down value of the asset 32,000
Disposal value of the asset (20,000)
BA (a deduction against profits) 12,000
For tax purposes care must be taken to identify the exact time of asset purchase. Assets are
assumed to be bought at T0. This could be the very end of an accounting period (e.g. 31.12.2010)
or the start of another (e.g. 1.1.2011).
Required:
Calculate the WDA and hence the tax savings for each year if the proceeds on disposal of the
asset are Shs 2,500,000.
Solution
Time Shs Tax saving @ 30% Timing of tax relief
T0 Initial investment 10,000,000
T1 WDA @ 25% (2,500,000) 750,000 T2
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Written down value 7,500,000
T2 WDA @ 25% (1,875,000) 562,500 T3
Written down value 5,625,000
T3 WDA @ 25% (1,406,250) 421,875 T4
Written down value 4,218,750
T4 Sale proceeds (2,500,000)
T4 BA 1,718,750 515,625 T5
Required: Calculate the working capital flows for incorporation into the NPV calculation.
Solution
Step 1: Calculate the absolute amounts of working capital needed over the project
T0 T1 T2 T3 T4
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Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
Sales 225,000 236,250 248,063 260,466
WC (10% sales) 22,500 23,625 24,806 26,047
Step 2: Work out the incremental investment required each year (remember that the full
investment is released at the end of the project):
T0 T1 T2 T3 T4
Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
Working 22,500 - 23,625 - 24,806 - 26,047 - 26,047 -
0 22,500 23,625 24,806 0
Working capital (22,500) (1,125) (1,181) (1,241) 26,047
Tax is paid at 30%, one year after the accounting period concerned and WDA’s are available at
25% reducing balance. The company has a real required rate of return of 6.8%.
General inflation is predicted to be 3% pa but the selling price is expected to inflate at 4% and
variable costs by 5% pa.
Solution
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Particulars T0 T1 T2 T3 T4
Shs Shs Shs Shs Shs
Sales (W-1) 5,200,000 10,816,000 6,749,184
Variable costs (W-1) (1,575,000) (3,307,500) (2,083,725)
Net trading inflows 3,625,000 7,508,500 4,665,459
Tax payable (30%) (1,087,500) (2,252,550) (1,399,638)
Initial investment 100,000,000
Sales proceeds 20,000,000
Tax relief on WDAs
(W-2) 7,500,000 5,625,000 10,875,000
Net cash flows (100,000,000) 3,625,000 13,921,000 28,037,909 9,475,362
DF @ 10% (W-3) 1.000 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683
PV (100,000,000) 3,295,125 11,498,746 21,056,470 6,471,672
NPV = 57,677,987
W-1: Revenue and Costs
Revenue and costs need to be expressed in money terms.
E.g. revenue at T2 = Shs [10,000 x 1,000 x (1.04)2] = Shs 10,816,000
Cost at T2 = Shs [10,000 x 300 x (1.05)2] = Shs 3,307,500
W-2: WDAs
Time Shs Tax saving @ 30% Timing of tax relief
T0 Initial investment 100,000,000
T1 WDA @ 25% (25,000,000) 7,500,000 T2
Written down value 75,000,000
T2 WDA @ 25% (18,750,000) 5,625,000 T3
Written down value 56,250,000
Sales proceeds (20,000,000)
T3 BA 36,250,000 10,875,000 T4
W-3: Discount rate
(1+ m) = (1+ r) x (1+ i) = 1.068 x 1.03 = 1.10, giving a money rate (m) = 10%.
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Capital Rationing
Capital rationing is a situation whereby a budget ceiling exists and the firm may not invest in all
acceptable investment projects. This means that the investment must be undertaken in phases (a
project is divided into stages of investment). Where capital rationing is involved, the discounted
cash flow technique becomes inappropriate and the analyst has to use the cost benefit index.
Whether the restriction is caused by internal or external causes doesn’t affect the analysis.
Capital rationing might therefore exist for reasons other than inability to obtain additional
capital:
A company might be aware that when proposals are made for new capital investments,
the managers who put forward the proposals are often over-optimistic in their
expectations and with their forecasts. Imposing capital spending limits can be a way of
weeding out weak or marginal investments, by making them compete for funds with
stronger and profitable projects. This can be a crude but effective way of reducing the
risk of making poor investments.
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A company might be able to raise new finance externally, but decides on a strategy of
organic growth. An advantage of organic growth is that the benefits of growth should all
be enjoyed by the existing shareholders. However, a strategy of organic growth inevitably
places restrictions on the amount of investment capital available.
A company might be able to raise additional capital by borrowing externally. However,
higher borrowing has implications for financial risk, through higher financial gearing. A
company might therefore impose limits on its external borrowing by setting a limit to its
gearing level.
Project Divisibility
Projects may be divided into two categories, divisible and non-divisible projects. With divisible
Projects either the whole project or any fraction of the project, may be undertaken. If a fraction
only is undertaken, then both initial investment and cash inflows are reduced pro rata. Quoted
shares represent a divisible investment - varying numbers of shares may be purchased with
resultant pro-rating of investment returns. Indivisible projects must be undertaken in its entirety,
or not at all. Decisions about introducing new product ranges are indivisible - either new
products are introduced or they’ are not.
In reality, almost all projects are indivisible. However, the assumption of divisibility enables the
easier use of mathematical tools.
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Maximising NPV is achieved in these circumstances by ranking projects according to their
profitability index (cost-benefit ratio), then allocating funds accordingly until they are exhausted.
The profitability index of a project is the NPV per shilling invested.
Solution
Project 1
Year Cash flow (Shs’000) DF at 10% PV (Shs’000)
0 (100,000) 1.000 (100,000)
1 40,000 0.909 36,360
2 100,000 0.826 82,600
3 80,000 0.751 60,080
4 60,000 0.683 40,980
NPV= 120,020
Project 2
Year Cash flow (Shs’000) DF at 10% PV (Shs’000)
0 (30,000) 1.000 (30,000)
1 40,000 0.909 36,360
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2 40,000 0.826 35,040
3 40,000 0.751 30,040
4 40,000 0.683 27,320
NPV= 98,760
Project 3
Year Cash flow (Shs’000) DF at 10% PV (Shs’000)
0 (20,000) 1.000 (20,000)
1 40,000 0.909 36,360
2 30,000 0.826 24,780
3 40,000 0.751 30,040
4 50,000 0.683 34,150
NPV= 105,330
Project 4
Year Cash flow (Shs’000) DF at 10% PV (Shs’000)
0 (40,000) 1.0000 (40,000)
1 20,000 0.909 18,180
2 30,000 0.826 24,780
3 30,000 0.751 22,530
4 30,000 0.683 20,490
NPV= 45,980
Solution
The first stage to calculate the NPV of the projects
Project Initial outlay PV of cash flows PV
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Shs’000 Shs’000 Shs’000
1 20,000 15,000 (5,000)
2 10,000 15,000 5,000
3 15,000 30,000 15,000
4 30,000 54,000 24,000
5 25,000 48,000 23,000
Note: PV of perpetuity = Annual receipt
Discount rate as a proportion
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