Highway Engineer

Multi-Choice Questions (MCQ)

OBJECTIVE TYPE: QUESTIONS
Dr. Majid Al-Qaissy

1. What is the recommended distance for a vehicle to be from the edge of the pavement when stopped on
the shoulder?
A) 0.75 meters
B) 0.5 meters
C) 0.25 meters
D) 1 meter

2. How do shoulders contribute to improving highway capacity?

A) By providing space for maintenance operations
B) By accommodating stopped vehicles when necessary
C) By facilitating drainage of surface water
D) By encouraging uniform speed and improving traffic flow

3. What is the width range of shoulders mentioned in the paragraph?

A) 0.3m to 1.8m on major arterials
B) 1.0m to 4.5m on minor roads
C) 0.5m to 3.6m on major arterials
D) 1.5m to 2.6m on minor roads

4. What is the primary function of a median on a divided highway?

A) Providing additional lanes for traffic flow
B) Separating opposing traffic
C) Accommodating emergency vehicles
D) Supporting pedestrian walkways

5. How is the width of a median defined?

A) The distance between the outer edges of the median shoulders
B) The distance between the outer edges of the inside lanes
C) The distance between the outer edges of the outside lanes
D) The distance between the median and the roadside barriers

6. Which of the following is NOT a function of a median?

A) Providing storage areas for left-turning and U-turning vehicles
B) Reducing the effect of headlight glare
C) Providing additional lanes for traffic flow

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D) Providing refuge for pedestrians

7. Why should the width of a median be balanced with other elements of the cross-section?
A) To reduce construction costs
B) To improve traffic flow
C) To ensure pedestrian safety
D) To optimize the overall design and cost-effectiveness

8. What are curbs primarily made of?

A) Asphalt and gravel
B) Portland cement concrete or bituminous concrete
C) Steel and plastic
D) Wood and stone

9. What is one of the functions of curbs?

A) Providing additional lanes for traffic flow
B) Controlling drainage and improving aesthetics
C) Supporting pedestrian walkways
D) Preventing vehicles from entering the highway

10. Where are gutters or drainage ditches usually located concerning the curb?
A) On the opposite side of the pavement
B) On the pedestrian walkway
C) On the curb itself
D) On the pavement side of the curb

11. How can gutters or drainage ditches be designed?

A) As narrow, deep channels
B) As broad, flat, rounded sections
C) As narrow, sharp-angled sections
D) As inverted V-type sections

12. Where are longitudinal barriers typically placed?

A) Along the center of the roadway
B) On the inside of sharp curves
C) On the outside of sharp curves and at sections with high fills
D) At intersections with traffic lights

13. What is the primary function of longitudinal barriers?

A) To mark the centerline of the road
B) To prevent vehicles from entering the roadway
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C) To prevent vehicles from leaving the roadway
D) To control traffic flow

14. At what height of embankments are longitudinal barriers typically installed?

A) Higher than 1.5 meters
B) Higher than 3.0 meters
C) Higher than 2.4 meters
D) Higher than 4.0 meters

15. When are longitudinal barriers installed concerning shoulder slopes?

A) When shoulder slopes are less than 4:1
B) When shoulder slopes are exactly 4:1
C) When shoulder slopes are greater than 4:1
D) When shoulder slopes are 2:1

16. Where are sidewalks often justified based on pedestrian concentration?

A) Along highways
B) Near shopping malls
C) In rural areas
D) Along city streets

17. What is the primary reason sidewalks are uncommon in rural areas?
A) Lack of pedestrian concentration
B) Higher traffic volume
C) Limited space
D) Budget constraints

18. When should sidewalks generally be provided along roads?

A) Only in urban areas
B) When pedestrian traffic is high
C) Only in residential areas
D) When there are nearby schools

19. What is the recommended minimum clear width for sidewalks in residential areas?
A) 2.4 meters
B) 1.0 meter
C) 1.2 meters
D) 3.0 meters

20. What is the purpose of cross-slopes in highways?

A) To enhance the aesthetics of the pavement
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B) To increase vehicle speed
C) To facilitate drainage of surface water
D) To reduce traffic congestion

21. What determines whether the pavement slope is crowned or sloped to the inside or outside?
A) The type of pavement material
B) The width of the road
C) The drainage requirements
D) The traffic volume

22. Why are high cross slopes undesirable?

A) They increase vehicle speed
B) They enhance the flow of surface water
C) They may cause vehicles to drift to the edges of the pavement
D) They reduce traffic congestion

23. What are the recommended rates of cross slopes for high-type pavements?
A) 2 to 6 percent
B) 1.5 to 2 percent
C) 0.5 to 1 percent
D) 3 to 4 percent

24. What is the primary purpose of side slopes on embankments or cut areas?
A) To increase vehicle speed
B) To enhance the aesthetics of the roadside
C) To provide stability for earthworks
D) To reduce pedestrian traffic

25. How do side slopes serve as a safety feature?

A) By increasing vehicle speed
B) By providing recovery areas for out-of-control vehicles
C) By reducing the width of the road
D) By enhancing the flow of surface water

26. Which regions of the roadside are important for reducing the potential for loss of control for vehicles
that runoff the road?
A) The top of the slope only
B) The foreslope only
C) The top of the slope, foreslope, and toe of the slope
D) The top of the slope and the toe of the slope only

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27. What forms the ditch at the toe of the slope?
A) The foreslope
B) The intersection of the foreslope with level ground
C) The intersection of the foreslope with a backslope
D) The combination of foreslope and backslope

28. What is the right of way concerning highway construction?

A) The distance between the highway and utility facilities
B) The total land area acquired for highway construction
C) The width of the median
D) The distance between the lanes and the shoulder

29. What factors determine the width of the right of way?

A) The number and width of lanes, shoulder
B) The width of medians
C) The cost of lane construction and operation
D) The location (urban or rural)

30. In major highways, what is the maximum width the right of way may reach?
A) 50 meters
B) 75 meters
C) 100 meters
D) 150 meters

31. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the width of the right of way?
A) Outer separation
B) Sidewalk
C) Side slope
D) Cost of lane construction and operation

32. A circular curve is most suited for connecting:

(a) two straights in horizontal plane only.
(b) two straights in vertical plane only.
(c) two straights, one in horizontal plane and the second in vertical plane.
(d) two straights in horizontal plane or vertical plane.

33. A compound curve consists of:

(a) two circular arcs of same radius only.
(b) two circular arcs of different radii only.
(c) two circular arcs of different radii with their centers of curvature on the same side of the common tangent
only.
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(d) two or more circular arcs of different radii with their centers of curvature on the same side of the common
tangent.

34. A reverse curve consists of:

(a) two circular arcs of different radii with their centers of curvature on the same side of the common tangent
only.
(b) two circular arcs of same radius with their centers of curvature on the same side of the common tangent
only.
(c) two circular arcs of different radii with their centers of curvature on the opposite side of the common
tangent only.
(d) two circular arcs of same or different radii with their centers of curvature on the opposite side of the
common tangent.

35. A transition curve is a special type of curve which satisfies the condition that:
(a) at the junction with the circular curve, the angle between the tangents to the transition curve and circular
curve should be 90°.
(b) at the junction with the circular curve, the angle between the tangents to the transition curve and circular
curve should be zero.
(c) its curvature at its end should be infinity .
(d) its curvature at its end should be infinity.

36. The most widely used transition curve for small deviation angles for simplicity in setting out is:
(a) cubic parabola.
(b) cubic spiral.
(c) lemniscate curve.
(d) hyperbola.

37. The following curve has the property that the rate of change of curvature is same as the rate of change
of increase of superelevation:
(a) Reverse curve.
(b) Compound curve.
(c) Transition curve.
(d) Vertical curve.

38. A parabola is used for:

(a) summit curves alone.
(b) sag curves alone.
(c) both summit and sag curves.
(d) none of the above.

39. A parabola is preferred for vertical curves because it has the following property:
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 (a) The slope is constant throughout.
(b) The rate of change of slope is constant throughout.
(c) The rate of change of radial acceleration is constant throughout.
(d) None of the above.

40. The shortest distance between the point of commencement and the o\point of tangency of a circular
curve is known as:
(a) Long chord.
(b) Normal chord.
(c) Sub-chord.
(d) Half-chord.

41. The long chord of a circular curve of radius R with deflection angle ∆ is given by:
(a)2R cos(∆/2):
(b) 2R sin(∆/2).
(c)2R tan(∆/2).
(d) 2R sec(∆/2).

42. The lengths of long chord and tangent of a circular curve are equal for the deflection angle of:
(a)30°.
(b) 60°.
(c)90°.
(d) 120°.

43. Free-haul distance is:

(a) the length of a balancing line.
(b) the distance between two balancing lines.
(c) the distance between two successive points where the mass-haul diagram intersects the line of zero
ordinate.
(d) the distance up to which carting of excavated material is done without extra payment.

44. A mass-haul diagram indicates cutting if the curve:

(a) rises.
(b) falls.
(c) becomes horizontal.
(d) none of the above.

45. A mass-haul diagram indicates fill if the curve:

(a) rises.
(b) falls.
(c) becomes horizontal.
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(d) none of the above.

46. Maximum ordinate on a mass-haul diagram occurs:

(a) at the end of a cut.
(b) at the end of an embankment.
(c) where cut and fill are balanced.
(d) none of the above.

47. A minimum ordinate on a mass-haul diagram occurs:

(a) at the end of a cut.
(b) at the end of an embankment.
(c) where cut and fill are balanced.
(d) none of the above.

48- What were the three factors that initiated the cycle of unparalleled advances in vehicle technology from
the 1970s?
a) Energy shortages, market trends, and technological stagnation
b) Government regulations, energy shortages, and competition
c) Vehicle-occupant safety, fuel efficiency, and intense competition
d) Technological development, government regulations, and market trends

Answer: b) Government regulations, energy shortages, and competition

49-What type of pavements are required for highways carrying higher volumes of traffic with heavy axle
loads?
a) Gravel pavements
b) Asphalt concrete or portland cement concrete pavements
c) Soil pavements
d) Grass pavements

Answer: b) Asphalt concrete or portland cement concrete pavements

50- What are the two general types of pavement structures?
a) Asphalt and concrete pavements
b) Rigid and flexible pavements
c) Composite and continuously reinforced pavements
d) Post-tensioned and specialized pavements

Answer: b) Rigid and flexible pavements

51- What is the primary function of a pavement in terms of the soil (subgrade)?
a) To enhance soil aesthetics
b) To distort the soil

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 c) To distribute traffic load stresses to the soil
d) To increase soil-bearing capacity

Answer: c) To distribute traffic load stresses to the soil

52-What is mentioned as a potential challenge when the soil is saturated with water?
a) Increased soil-bearing capacity
b) Improved pavement structure
c) Low bearing capacity of the soil
d) Enhanced traffic load distribution

Answer: c) Low bearing capacity of the soil

53- What is the purpose of the top layer of a flexible pavement, known as the wearing surface?
a) To increase the pavement's flexibility
b) To provide a smooth driving experience
c) To protect the base layer from wheel abrasion and waterproof the structure
d) To enhance the bearing capacity of the subgrade

Answer: c) To protect the base layer from wheel abrasion and waterproof the structure
54- What is the material usually used for the top layer of a flexible pavement?
a) Crushed aggregate
b) Portland cement
c) Asphaltic concrete
d) Lime fly ash

Answer: c) Asphaltic concrete

55- What is the primary purpose of the subbase layer in a flexible pavement?
a) To provide a skid-resistant surface
b) To increase the pavement's flexibility
c) To waterproof the pavement structure
d) To improve bearing capacity compared to the subgrade

Answer: d) To improve bearing capacity compared to the subgrade

56: What is the primary material used in the construction of a rigid pavement?
a) Crushed aggregate
b) Lime fly ash
c) Portland cement concrete (PCC)
d) Asphaltic cement

57: Under what conditions is the use of a base layer in a rigid pavement advisable?
a) When the subgrade soil has good engineering properties
b) When the subgrade soil is poor and erodable
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c) When the pavement design life is short
d) When the slab thickness is less than 8 inches

58: What is the purpose of transverse contraction joints in a rigid pavement?

a) To enhance the pavement's rigidity
b) To control cracking due to concrete shrinkage during curing
c) To improve load transfer between slabs
d) To increase the spacing between slabs

59: What are the two ways in which each roadway is classified under the Highway Functional Classification
System?
a) By the presence of traffic signals and the type of signage
b) By the number of intersections and the length of the road
c) By the level of congestion and the type of vehicles allowed
d) By whether it is 'urban' or 'rural' and its function within the network

60: What is the primary purpose of the Highway Functional Classification System?
a) To determine the road's construction cost
b) To classify roadways based on their surface materials
c) To define the role a roadway plays in the overall road network
d) To regulate traffic flow within urban areas

Answer: c) To define the role a roadway plays in the overall road network
61: How is mobility defined in the context of roadways?
a) The ease of entering or exiting a roadway
b) The actual ability of the road to move traffic
c) The length of the roadway
d) The level of congestion on the road

62: What does accessibility refer to in the context of roadways?

a) The speed limit on the roadway
b) The distance between intersections
c) The ease of entering or exiting a roadway to or from adjacent priorities
d) The width of the road

63: How are mobility and accessibility different from each other in the context of roadways?
a) Mobility refers to entering and exiting roadways, while accessibility refers to the movement of traffic.
b) Mobility and accessibility are synonymous terms.
c) Mobility refers to the ease of entering or exiting roadways, while accessibility refers to the actual
ability of the road to move traffic.

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 d) Mobility refers to the actual ability of the road to move traffic, while accessibility refers to entering
or exiting roadways.

64: What is the purpose of establishing a classification of roadways based on function and design?
a) To encourage failure of road infrastructure
b) To limit road improvement opportunities
c) To ensure appropriate road improvement as opportunities arise
d) To discourage the use of transitional roads

65: What is the primary focus of Interstates in terms of design and construction?
a) Local accessibility
b) Short-distance travel
c) Mobility and long-distance travel
d) Limited access to highways

66: What is a similarity between Interstates and roadways in the Freeways and Expressway category?
a) Direct service to abutting land uses
b) Abundant at-grade intersections
c) Limited access points
d) Regional differences in terminology

67: How do roadways in the top three functional classification categories (Interstate, Other Freeways &
Expressways, and Other Principal Arterials) generally provide similar services in both urban and rural areas?
a) By having limited mobility in rural areas
b) By having different road designs
c) By serving major centers of metropolitan areas and providing mobility in rural areas
d) By excluding abutting land uses in urban areas

68: what is the primary role of Collectors in the roadway network?

a) Providing direct service to abutting land uses
b) Gathering traffic from Local Roads and funneling them to the Arterial network
c) Serving major centers of metropolitan areas
d) Offering high mobility through rural areas

69: How are Collectors categorized within the functional classification, and what are the two subcategories
mentioned?
a) Urban and rural, Major and Minor
b) Primary and secondary, Main and Sub
c) Highways and byways, Primary and Secondary
d) Major and Minor, regardless of whether they are within a rural or urban area
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70: What are some distinctions between Major Collectors and Minor Collectors within the functional
classification?
a) Major Collectors have higher driveway densities and lower speed limits.
b) Minor Collectors have longer routes and higher traffic volumes.
c) Major Collectors have longer routes, higher speed limits, and lower connecting driveway densities.
d) Minor Collectors have more travel lanes and are spaced at greater intervals.

71: What information can be obtained from a topographic map during the map study stage for a highway
project?
a) Traffic volume estimates
b) Soil composition
c) Alignment avoiding valleys, ponds, or lakes
d) Urban land use

72: How is the probable alignment of a road suggested during the map study stage when crossing a row of
hills or mountains?
a) Avoiding the hills or mountains
b) Crossing through a mountain pass
c) Tunneling through the hills or mountains
d) Using a bridge to cross the hills or mountains

73: What is the purpose of suggesting alternate routes during the map study stage?
a) To increase the project cost
b) To decrease the project duration
c) To comply with environmental regulations
d) To consider design or ruling gradient and the maximum permissible gradient

74: What is the main purpose of the reconnaissance survey during the second stage of engineering surveys
for highway alignment?
a) To collect accurate details using sophisticated instruments
b) To decide the final route for the highway alignment
c) To rapidly examine the general characteristics of the area and decide feasible routes for detailed studies
d) To conduct geological tests and determine soil composition

75: What type of survey instruments are typically used during the reconnaissance survey?
a) Highly accurate and sophisticated instruments
b) Simple survey instruments for rapid data collection

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c) Instruments designed for detailed geological testing
d) Aerial surveying equipment

76: What kind of details are collected during the reconnaissance survey that are not available in the map?
a) Traffic volume estimates
b) Valleys, ponds, lakes, and other obstructions along the route
c) Economic indicators of the area
d) Urban land use patterns

77: What are the main objectives of the preliminary survey in a highway project?
a) To finalize the alignment without further alterations
b) To estimate the cost of the project and quantity of earthwork materials
c) To conduct rapid aerial surveys
d) To collect economic data

78: How can the preliminary survey be carried out?

a) Only by conventional approach with field equipment
b) Only by rapid approach through aerial survey and photogrammetric methods
c) By any of the following methods: conventional approach, rapid approach, or modern techniques using
GPS
d) Only by modern techniques using GPS

79: What does the preliminary survey aim to compare?

a) Geological formations
b) Different proposals for alignment
c) Economic indicators of the area
d) Urban land use patterns

82: What is the basis for deciding the number of traffic lanes, roadway width, pavement design, and
economic analysis of a highway project?
a) Geological studies
b) Traffic surveys conducted in the region
c) Soil composition analysis
d) Aerial surveys

81: How long are traffic volume counts preferably carried out on existing roads in the region for the purpose
of the highway project?
a) 12 hours per day for five days
b) 24 hours per day for seven days
c) 8 hours per day for three days
d) 48 hours per day for two days
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82: What is the purpose of origin and destination surveys in the context of highway project planning?
a) To determine soil composition
b) To identify geological formations
c) To decide the alignment of the roads
d) To collect data for pavement design

83: In which areas are cross-section levels taken at closer intervals during the detailed survey?
a) Plain terrain
b) Rolling terrain
c) Built-up areas
d) Hilly terrain

84: Why is it important to determine the CBR value of soils along the alignment during the detailed survey?
a) To identify geological formations
b) To decide the alignment of the roads
c) For designing the pavement
d) To collect hydrological details

85: What was John MacAdam's innovation in pavement construction?

a) Use of rounded gravel
b) Use of tar to control dust
c) Use of angular aggregates
d) Use of dual carriageway roads

86: Why did John MacAdam limit the maximum aggregate size to 25 mm in the wearing course?
a) To increase the pavement's rigidity
b) To provide a smooth ride for wagon wheels
c) To resist high stresses from vehicles
d) To control dust created by vehicles’ movement

87: How is "volume" defined in the context of traffic engineering?

a) The width of a lane or roadway
b) The total number of vehicles that pass over a given point or section of a lane or roadway during a given time
interval
c) The equivalent hourly rate at which vehicles pass over a given point or section of a lane or roadway
d) The number of vehicle occupants or drivers during a specific time period

88: What is the definition of "flow rate" in traffic engineering terms?

a) The width of a lane or roadway
b) The total number of vehicles that pass over a given point or section of a lane or roadway during a given time
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interval
c) The equivalent hourly rate at which vehicles pass over a given point or section of a lane or roadway during a
given time interval of less than 1 h, usually 15 min
d) The number of vehicle occupants or drivers during a specific time period

89: What do volume and flow quantify in the context of traffic engineering?
a) Roadway width
b) The speed of vehicles
c) Demand, i.e., the number of vehicle occupants or drivers desiring to use a given facility during a specific
time period
d) Traffic signal timing

90: How is the Peak-Hour Factor (PHF) defined in the context of traffic engineering?
a) The ratio of the hourly volume to the maximum daily flow rate
b) The ratio of the daily volume to the maximum 15-min flow rate
c) The ratio of the hourly volume to the maximum 15-min flow rate expanded to an hourly volume
d) The ratio of the maximum 15-min flow rate to the hourly volume

1. Which type of soils are primarily influenced by climatologic conditions such as temperature and
rainfall? a) Residual soils b) Sedimentary soils c) Marine soils d) Aeolian soils
Correct Answer: a) Residual soils
2. Which type of soils are formed by the deposition of materials suspended in aqueous environments like
lakes, rivers, and oceans? a) Residual soils b) Sedimentary soils c) Marine soils d) Aeolian soils
Correct Answer: b) Sedimentary soils
3. Which type of soils should be treated with caution in pavement engineering if they contain a high
percentage of fine particles due to ocean erosion of river-transferred materials? a) Residual soils b)
Sedimentary soils c) Marine soils d) Aeolian soils
Correct Answer: c) Marine soils
4. Aeolian soils are primarily formed by which natural process? a) Water erosion b) Glacial activity c) Wind
erosion and deposition d) Ocean erosion
Correct Answer: c) Wind erosion and deposition
5. What problem may arise in pavement construction on sand dunes formed by aeolian action if they lack
topsoil protection? a) Chemical disintegration b) Poor drainage c) Stability issues d) High moisture
content
Correct Answer: c) Stability issues
6. Glacial soils can consist of which of the following materials? a) Sand and silt b) Gravel and clay c)
Boulders and cobbles d) All of the above
Correct Answer: d) All of the above

1. How can silt be visually recognized? a) By its coarse texture b) By its high plasticity c) By drying,
breaking, and sieving using a 0.075 mm sieve d) By its large particle size
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Correct Answer: c) By drying, breaking, and sieving using a 0.075 mm sieve
2. Which of the following statements about silts is true? a) They have high plasticity b) They have high
permeability c) They are subject to substantial shrinkage and expansion owing to moisture change d)
They are easily recognizable without any special procedures
Correct Answer: c) They are subject to substantial shrinkage and expansion owing to moisture change
3. What is the particle size range of clay? a) Less than 0.075 mm b) Less than 0.002 mm c) Greater than
0.2 mm d) Greater than 2 mm
Correct Answer: b) Less than 0.002 mm
4. How do clay particles behave when dispersed in water? a) They settle quickly b) They form a
suspension that lasts for a very long time c) They dissolve completely d) They remain unchanged
Correct Answer: b) They form a suspension that lasts for a very long time
5. Compared to silts and sands, what distinguishes the shape of clay particles? a) They are spherical b)
They are irregular c) They are flattened and elongated d) They are cubical
Correct Answer: c) They are flattened and elongated

1. According to the Unified Soil Classification System, which particle size range corresponds to gravel? a)
Greater than 0.002 mm b) Greater than 0.075 mm to 4.75 mm c) Less than 0.002 mm d) Less than
0.075 mm
Correct Answer: b) Greater than 0.075 mm to 4.75 mm
2. What is the particle size range for sand in the Unified Soil Classification System? a) Less than 0.002 mm
b) Greater than 4.75 mm c) Greater than 0.075 mm to 4.75 mm d) Less than 0.075 mm
Correct Answer: c) Greater than 0.075 mm to 4.75 mm
3. According to the Unified Soil Classification System, which particle size range corresponds to silt? a) Less
than 0.075 mm b) Greater than 4.75 mm c) Greater than 0.002 mm to 0.075 mm d) Less than 0.002
mm
Correct Answer: c) Greater than 0.002 mm to 0.075 mm
4. What particle size is classified as clay in the Unified Soil Classification System? a) Less than 0.002 mm b)
Greater than 4.75 mm c) Less than 0.075 mm d) Greater than 0.075 mm to 4.75 mm
Correct Answer: a) Less than 0.002 mm
5. Which soil classification system is commonly used by civil engineers? a) Particle-size classification
system b) Grain-size classification system c) Unified Soil Classification System d) Soil texture
classification system
Correct Answer: c) Unified Soil Classification System
1. Which of the following materials could be used for the base course? a) Quality gradation soil b)
Crushed stone c) Asphalt mixture d) Natural soil with improvement
Correct Answer: b) Crushed stone
2. What type of material is typically used for the subbase? a) Asphalt mixture b) Crushed stone c) Quality
gradation soil d) Natural soil with improvement
Correct Answer: c) Quality gradation soil
3. What process is usually applied to the subgrade for improvement? a) Asphalt mixing b) Compaction c)
Grading d) Soil stabilization
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Correct Answer: b) Compaction
4. Which layer is often referred to as the "wearing" course? a) Base course b) Binder course c) Surface
course d) Subbase
Correct Answer: c) Surface course
5. Which layer typically provides structural support and stability to the pavement structure? a) Surface
course b) Binder course c) Base course d) Subgrade
Correct Answer: c) Base course

1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of soil stabilization? a) Improved soil strength b) Increased
soil volume change due to temperature or moisture c) Reduced dust in the work environment d)
Upgraded marginal materials
Correct Answer: b) Increased soil volume change due to temperature or moisture
2. What function does stabilized soil serve for a project? a) Waterproofing b) Dust reduction c) Working
platform d) Durability enhancement
Correct Answer: c) Working platform
3. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of soil stabilization? a) Improved durability b) Reduced cost c)
Increased soil workability d) Increased dust in the work environment
Correct Answer: d) Increased dust in the work environment
4. What does soil stabilization help reduce in terms of soil characteristics? a) Strength b) Volume change
due to temperature or moisture c) Workability d) Durability
Correct Answer: b) Volume change due to temperature or moisture
5. Which advantage of soil stabilization involves the enhancement of poor-quality materials? a) Improved
durability b) Reduced cost c) Upgraded marginal materials d) Dust reduction
Correct Answer: c) Upgraded marginal materials

1. Which method of mechanical soil stabilization involves the introduction of fibrous and non-
biodegradable reinforcement into the soil? a) Compaction b) Soil reinforcement c) Addition of graded
aggregate materials d) None of the above
Correct Answer: b) Soil reinforcement
2. What is one of the methods used for achieving mechanical soil stabilization by increasing the density of
soil particles? a) Soil reinforcement b) Addition of graded aggregate materials c) Compaction d)
Chemical treatment
Correct Answer: c) Compaction
3. Which method involves the incorporation of specific types of materials to enhance the strength and
stability of soil? a) Soil reinforcement b) Compaction c) Addition of graded aggregate materials d)
Chemical stabilization
Correct Answer: c) Addition of graded aggregate materials

1. Which additive is commonly used for soil stabilization and provides long-term strength and durability?
a) Portland Cement b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Fly Ash d) Calcium Chloride
Correct Answer: a) Portland Cement
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 2. Which additive reacts with clay soils to increase their strength and reduce their plasticity? a) Portland
Cement b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Fly Ash d) Bitumen
Correct Answer: b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime
3. What byproduct of coal combustion is often used as an additive for soil stabilization? a) Portland
Cement b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Fly Ash d) Calcium Chloride
Correct Answer: c) Fly Ash
4. Which chemical additive is commonly used to accelerate the setting time of soil stabilizers and reduce
moisture susceptibility? a) Portland Cement b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Calcium Chloride d)
Bitumen
Correct Answer: c) Calcium Chloride
5. What material is often used as a binder in soil stabilization for road construction? a) Fly Ash b)
Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Bitumen d) Chemical or Bio Remediation
Correct Answer: c) Bitumen
6. Which method involves using chemicals or biological agents to remediate contaminated soils? a)
Portland Cement b) Quicklime/Hydrated Lime c) Chemical or Bio Remediation d) Fly Ash
Correct Answer: c) Chemical or Bio Remediation

1. What process is utilized for electrical stabilization of cohesive soil? a) Electro-mechanical stabilization b)
Electro-osmosis c) Electro-thermal stabilization d) Electro-chemical stabilization
Correct Answer: b) Electro-osmosis
2. In electro-osmosis, what is the direction of pore water migration when a direct current is supplied
through clayey soil? a) Towards the positive electrode (anode) b) Towards the negative electrode
(cathode) c) Away from both electrodes d) There is no migration of pore water
Correct Answer: b) Towards the negative electrode (cathode)
3. Which method of foundation soil stabilization involves the application of extreme temperatures? a)
Electro-osmosis b) Chemical stabilization c) Thermal stabilization d) Mechanical stabilization
Correct Answer: c) Thermal stabilization
4. What are the potential drawbacks of thermal methods of foundation soil stabilization? a) Low
effectiveness in increasing soil strength b) Complexity and high costs c) Risk of environmental
contamination d) Limited applicability to cohesive soils
Correct Answer: b) Complexity and high costs

1. What is one of the primary functions of the sub-base layer in pavement construction? a) Absorbing
moisture from the subgrade b) Reducing traffic congestion c) Distributing loads to the subgrade d)
Preventing cracks in the surface course
Correct Answer: c) Distributing loads to the subgrade
2. During construction, what role does the sub-base play in relation to worksite vehicles? a) Increasing
traffic congestion b) Reducing the need for construction vehicles c) Easing the traffic of worksite
vehicles d) Compacting the soil around the construction area
Correct Answer: c) Easing the traffic of worksite vehicles

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 3. What is one way the sub-base protects the base course materials during pavement construction? a) By
absorbing excess moisture b) By preventing contamination from soil materials c) By enhancing the
aesthetics of the pavement d) By increasing the thickness of the pavement layers
Correct Answer: b) By preventing contamination from soil materials
4. In regions prone to frost heave, how does the sub-base layer contribute to pavement durability? a) By
reducing traffic loads b) By increasing surface friction c) By acting as an anti-frost protective layer d) By
absorbing excess moisture
Correct Answer: c) By acting as an anti-frost protective layer
5. What problem does the sub-base layer help prevent in rigid pavement construction? a) Cracking due to
excessive load b) Excessive heat absorption c) Intrusion of fines from the subgrade d) Loss of surface
friction
Correct Answer: c) Intrusion of fines from the subgrade

1. What are aggregates primarily used for in highway pavement construction? a) Providing color to the
pavement b) Supporting main stresses within the pavement c) Enhancing drainage on the pavement
surface d) Absorbing moisture from the pavement
Correct Answer: b) Supporting main stresses within the pavement
2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a function of aggregates in pavement construction? a)
Resisting wear due to traffic abrasion b) Resisting the effects of weathering agencies c) Providing
adhesion between pavement layers d) Supporting main stresses within the pavement
Correct Answer: c) Providing adhesion between pavement layers
3. What is the binding medium typically used with aggregates to form compound materials in pavement
construction? a) Water b) Sand c) Gravel d) Bitumen
Correct Answer: d) Bitumen
4. How does the behavior of the pavement structure depend on the properties of aggregates? a) Only on
the size of the aggregates b) Only on the inherent properties of the individual particles c) Only on the
means by which the particles are held together d) On both the inherent properties of the individual
particles and the means by which they are held together
Correct Answer: d) On both the inherent properties of the individual particles and the means by which they
are held together
5. What are the two main classifications of aggregates mentioned in the text? a) Coarse aggregates and
fine aggregates b) Natural aggregates and artificial aggregates c) Bituminous aggregates and Portland
cement aggregates d) Cementitious aggregates and non-cementitious aggregates
Correct Answer: b) Natural aggregates and artificial aggregates

1. What does hardness measure in road aggregates? a) Resistance to deformation b) Resistance to

abrasion at the surface c) Resistance to temperature changes d) Resistance to chemical reactions
Correct Answer: b) Resistance to abrasion at the surface
2. What effect does the presence of foreign materials like sand between vehicle tires and the road surface
have on abrasion? a) Decreases abrasion b) Increases abrasion c) Has no effect on abrasion d)
Decreases tire wear
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Correct Answer: b) Increases abrasion
3. What is attrition in relation to road aggregates? a) Resistance to abrasion b) Resistance to deformation
c) Mutual rubbing of stones caused by pavement deformation under wheel loads d) Fracture resistance
under an applied load
Correct Answer: c) Mutual rubbing of stones caused by pavement deformation under wheel loads
4. In flexible pavement construction, why must aggregates be tough enough? a) To resist chemical
reactions b) To resist deformation c) To support the weight of the roller during construction and
repeated impact action of traffic d) To increase road surface roughness
Correct Answer: c) To support the weight of the roller during construction and repeated impact action of
traffic
5. What factors increase the impact effect on aggregates in flexible pavement? a) Decrease of road
surface roughness b) Decrease in the speed of the vehicle c) Decrease in vehicular characteristics d)
Increase in road surface roughness, speed of the vehicle, and other vehicular characteristics
Correct Answer: d) Increase in road surface roughness, speed of the vehicle, and other vehicular
characteristics

1. What does texture measure in stones? a) Resistance to disintegration b) Degree of roughness or

smoothness c) Glossiness d) Size and uniformity of mineral grains
Correct Answer: b) Degree of roughness or smoothness
2. Which type of texture gives conchoidal fracture? a) Smooth b) Rough c) Glossy d) Crystalline
Correct Answer: c) Glossy
3. What property of stone is known as soundness? a) Texture b) Durability c) Shape d) Composition
Correct Answer: b) Durability
4. What type of aggregate shape is preferred for cement concrete pavement construction? a) Rounded b)
Cubical c) Angular d) Flaky
Correct Answer: a) Rounded
5. Why are too flaky and too much elongated aggregates avoided in pavement constructions? a) They
have better workability b) They have less strength and durability c) They are more resistant to
weathering d) They are easier to compact
Correct Answer: b) They have less strength and durability

1. What does hydrophobic characteristics measure in stone aggregates used for black top pavements? a)
Degree of smoothness b) Affinity of water compared to bituminous binders c) Resistance to
disintegration d) Resistance to temperature changes
Correct Answer: b) Affinity of water compared to bituminous binders
2. What property of bitumen allows it to gradually soften when heated? a) Viscosity b) Adhesive
properties c) Nonvolatility d) Toxicity
Correct Answer: c) Nonvolatility
3. What are the two main categories of bitumen? a) Dark brown and black b) Natural and synthetic c)
Viscous liquid and solid d) Refinery and lake asphalt
Correct Answer: b) Natural and refinery
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 4. Where are lake asphalts obtained from? a) Lakes in Trinidad and Bermuda b) Lakes in Canada and
Alaska c) Lakes in Russia and China d) Lakes in Australia and Brazil
Correct Answer: a) Lakes in Trinidad and Bermuda
5. What percentage of insoluble organic and inorganic materials does Trinidad asphalt contain? a) 40% b)
6% c) 20% d) 80%
Correct Answer: a) 40%

1. What is tar obtained from? a) Petroleum distillation b) Coal distillation c) Natural gas extraction d)
Wood distillation
Correct Answer: b) Coal distillation
2. What is the product called when tar is derived from wood? a) Pitch tar b) Cutback asphalt c) Wood tar
d) Fluxing oil
Correct Answer: c) Wood tar
3. What is cutback asphalt? a) Asphalt that is solid at room temperature b) Asphalt that has been liquefied
by the addition of diluents c) Asphalt that has been extracted from petroleum d) Asphalt that has been
modified with additives
Correct Answer: b) Asphalt that has been liquefied by the addition of diluents
4. What is the process of cutting in producing cutback bitumen? a) Addition of an oil with a long-term
effect on binder viscosity b) Distillation of coal tar c) Addition of a volatile oil to temporarily reduce
binder viscosity d) Addition of fluxing oil
Correct Answer: c) Addition of a volatile oil to temporarily reduce binder viscosity
5. How many main types of cutback bitumen are there, based on the type of solvent used to dilute the
bitumen? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Correct Answer: c) Three

1. How is Slow-Curing asphalt (SC) obtained? a) Directly through the distillation process b) By blending
asphalt cement with a petroleum distillate c) By cutting back or fluxing asphalt cement with a heavy
distillate such as diesel oil d) By cutting back the residual asphalt with kerosene
Correct Answer: c) By cutting back or fluxing asphalt cement with a heavy distillate such as diesel oil
2. What is the primary purpose of using Slow-Curing asphalt (SC) on soil-aggregate roads in warm
climates? a) To increase traction for vehicles b) To reduce the cost of road construction c) To prevent
the formation of dust under traffic d) To improve the durability of the road surface
Correct Answer: c) To prevent the formation of dust under traffic
3. How are Medium-Curing asphalt (MC) asphalts produced? a) By blending asphalt cement with a
petroleum distillate b) By cutting back the residual asphalt with kerosene c) By distillation process d) By
cutting back the residual asphalt with gasoline or naphtha
Correct Answer: b) By cutting back the residual asphalt with kerosene
4. What determines the fluidity of Medium-Curing asphalt (MC) asphalts? a) The type of petroleum
distillate used b) The amount of solvent by volume in the material c) The temperature at which it is
applied d) The type of aggregate used in the pavement
Correct Answer: b) The amount of solvent by volume in the material
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 5. How are Rapid-Curing asphalt (RC) asphalts produced? a) By cutting back the residual asphalt with
kerosene b) By blending asphalt cement with a heavy distillate c) By blending asphalt cement with a
petroleum distillate that will easily evaporate d) By cutting back or fluxing asphalt cement with a heavy
distillate such as diesel oil
Correct Answer: c) By blending asphalt cement with a petroleum distillate that will easily evaporate

1. What is an emulsion? a) A mixture of two immiscible liquids b) A relatively stable suspension of one
liquid in another c) A mixture of solid particles in a liquid d) A gaseous solution
Correct Answer: b) A relatively stable suspension of one liquid in another
2. What is the internal phase in a bitumen emulsion? a) Water b) Asphalt cement c) Solvent d) Additives
Correct Answer: b) Asphalt cement
3. What determines whether an emulsion is classified as anionic or cationic? a) The presence of additives
b) The temperature at which it is produced c) The electrical charge of the asphalt particles d) The
viscosity of the emulsion
Correct Answer: c) The electrical charge of the asphalt particles
4. What type of emulsion is generally used in highway maintenance and construction? a) Neutral b)
Anionic c) Cationic d) Nonionic
Correct Answer: b) Anionic
5. What is the potential application of neutral or nonionic emulsions in the future? a) Road construction
b) Pavement maintenance c) None, they have no practical applications d) Emulsion technology
advancement
Correct Answer: d) Emulsion technology advancement

1. What is the term used to describe the effect of temperature on the consistency of asphaltic materials?
a) Temperature variability b) Temperature dependence c) Temperature susceptibility d) Temperature
resistance
Correct Answer: c) Temperature susceptibility
2. What is the primary cause of natural deterioration in asphaltic materials? a) Exposure to sunlight b)
Exposure to water c) Chemical and physical reactions d) Mechanical stress
Correct Answer: c) Chemical and physical reactions
3. What term describes the ability of an asphaltic material to resist weathering? a) Consistency b)
Susceptibility c) Durability d) Flexibility
Correct Answer: c) Durability
4. Which of the following factors does NOT influence weathering in asphaltic materials? a) Oxidation b)
Volatilization c) Temperature d) Chemical composition
Correct Answer: d) Chemical composition
5. Why is it essential to know the associated temperature when considering the consistency of asphaltic
materials? a) To determine the type of weathering b) To understand the chemical reactions involved c)
To assess the impact of temperature on the material's properties d) To calculate the rate of
volatilization
Correct Answer: c) To assess the impact of temperature on the material's properties
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 1. What is oxidation in relation to asphaltic materials? a) Chemical reaction with water vapor b) Chemical
reaction with carbon dioxide c) Chemical reaction with oxygen in the air d) Chemical reaction with
nitrogen gas
Correct Answer: c) Chemical reaction with oxygen in the air
2. What effect does oxidation have on asphaltic materials? a) Gradual softening b) Permanent softening c)
Gradual hardening d) Permanent hardening
Correct Answer: c) Gradual hardening
3. What is volatilization in asphaltic materials? a) Absorption of water vapor b) Evaporation of heavier
hydrocarbons c) Evaporation of lighter hydrocarbons d) Absorption of oxygen gas
Correct Answer: c) Evaporation of lighter hydrocarbons
4. How does volatilization affect the characteristics of asphaltic materials? a) Increases plasticity b)
Decreases plasticity c) Increases viscosity d) Decreases viscosity
Correct Answer: b) Decreases plasticity
5. Which component of asphaltic materials is lost during volatilization? a) Heavy hydrocarbons b) Oxygen
molecules c) Lighter hydrocarbons d) Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: c) Lighter hydrocarbons
1. ow does temperature affect the rate of oxidation and volatilization in asphaltic materials? a) Higher
temperature decreases the rate b) Lower temperature increases the rate c) Rate remains constant
regardless of temperature d) Higher temperature increases the rate
Correct Answer: d) Higher temperature increases the rate
2. What relationship exists between temperature increase and the rates of oxidation and volatilization? a)
Linear b) Non-linear c) Inverse d) Constant
Correct Answer: b) Non-linear
3. How much is the rate of organic and physical reaction in asphaltic material postulated to increase for
each 10°C increase in temperature? a) Triple b) Double c) Quadruple d) Halve
Correct Answer: b) Double
4. What influence does surface area have on the rate of oxidation and volatilization in asphaltic materials?
a) Direct relationship b) Inverse relationship c) No relationship d) Linear relationship
Correct Answer: a) Direct relationship
5. How does the design of asphalt concrete mixes for pavement construction consider surface area? a) By
increasing air voids to reduce surface area b) By increasing surface area to enhance stability c) By
minimizing air voids to reduce surface area d) By maximizing air voids to increase surface area
Correct Answer: c) By minimizing air voids to reduce surface area
1. What is age hardening in asphalt? a) Hardening caused by oxidation and volatilization b) Hardening
caused by exposure to sunlight c) Hardening caused by rearrangement of molecules over time d)
Hardening caused by mechanical stress
Correct Answer: c) Hardening caused by rearrangement of molecules over time
2. When does age hardening occur most rapidly? a) Immediately after heating b) After exposure to
sunlight c) During oxidation and volatilization d) During the first few hours after cooling
Correct Answer: d) During the first few hours after cooling

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 3. How long does age hardening continue to occur significantly? a) Several days b) Several weeks c)
Several months d) About a year
Correct Answer: d) About a year
4. What factor minimizes the impact of age hardening on pavements? a) Thickness of the pavement b)
Presence of additives in the asphalt c) Exposure to sunlight d) Application of seal coating
Correct Answer: a) Thickness of the pavement
5. When does age hardening have a significant effect on pavements? a) When laid as a thick mat b) When
exposed to extreme temperatures c) When exposed to heavy traffic d) When laid as a thin mat
Correct Answer: d) When laid as a thin mat
1. What is the significance of the rate of curing in cutback asphaltic materials? a) Determines the initial
viscosity of the material b) Indicates the time required for the material to achieve satisfactory
performance c) Determines the final consistency of the material d) Indicates the rate of oxidation of the
material
Correct Answer: b) Indicates the time required for the material to achieve satisfactory performance
2. How does the volatility of the solvent used in cutback asphalt affect the rate of curing? a) Higher
volatility slows down the curing process b) Lower volatility speeds up the curing process c) Higher
volatility speeds up the curing process d) Volatility has no effect on the curing process
Correct Answer: c) Higher volatility speeds up the curing process
3. Which type of solvent is typically used for rapid-curing cutback asphalt? a) Light fuel oil b) Kerosene c)
Gasoline d) Naphtha
Correct Answer: c) Gasoline
4. What effect does the quantity of solvent have on the curing rate of cutback asphalt? a) Larger quantity
accelerates the curing process b) Smaller quantity accelerates the curing process c) Larger quantity
slows down the curing process d) Quantity of solvent does not affect the curing process
Correct Answer: b) Smaller quantity accelerates the curing process
5. Which external factor affects the rate of curing of cutback asphalt? a) Wind direction b) Ambient
humidity c) Temperature d) Precipitation
Correct Answer: c) Temperature
1. What factor primarily influences the curing and adhesion characteristics of asphalt emulsions? a)
Temperature of the applied surface b) Rate of water evaporation from the mixture c) Type of aggregate
used in the mixture d) pH level of the emulsion
Correct Answer: b) Rate of water evaporation from the mixture
2. How do unfavorable weather conditions such as high humidity or low temperature affect the curing of
asphalt emulsions? a) Accelerate the curing process b) Have no effect on the curing process c) Slow
down the curing process d) Completely inhibit the curing process
Correct Answer: c) Slow down the curing process
3. Which type of emulsion is more affected by surface and weather conditions in terms of proper curing?
a) Anionic emulsions b) Cationic emulsions c) Neutral emulsions d) All emulsions are equally affected
Correct Answer: a) Anionic emulsions

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 4. What is the importance of favorable weather conditions for cationic emulsions? a) They release their
water more readily b) They require higher temperatures for curing c) They are less affected by humidity
d) They have slower curing rates
Correct Answer: a) They release their water more readily
5. What is crucial for obtaining optimum results when using cationic emulsions? a) Low humidity and high
temperatures b) High humidity and low temperatures c) Favorable weather conditions d) Rainfall
immediately after application
Correct Answer: c) Favorable weather conditions
1. Why is it important for asphaltic materials to maintain adhesion to aggregates in pavement
construction? a) To prevent the formation of cracks b) To ensure smoothness of the pavement surface
c) To avoid stripping and deterioration of the pavement d) To increase the flexibility of the pavement
Correct Answer: c) To avoid stripping and deterioration of the pavement
2. What is the consequence of losing the bond between asphalt and aggregates in pavement
construction? a) Increased resistance to water action b) Enhanced durability of the pavement c)
Stripping and deterioration of the pavement d) Improved adhesion between layers of the pavement
Correct Answer: c) Stripping and deterioration of the pavement
3. Under what circumstances does stripping of asphalt from aggregates typically occur? a) In hot-mix, hot-
laid asphaltic concrete b) In cold-mix, cold-laid asphaltic concrete c) In dry weather conditions d) In the
absence of aggregates
Correct Answer: b) In cold-mix, cold-laid asphaltic concrete
4. What preventive action is usually taken to address stripping in cold-laid asphaltic concrete? a) Adding
water to the mixture b) Adding antistrip additives c) Increasing the temperature of the mixture d)
Decreasing the amount of aggregates
Correct Answer: b) Adding antistrip additives
5. What role do antistrip additives play in pavement construction? a) They improve the smoothness of the
pavement surface b) They increase the resistance of the pavement to temperature changes c) They
enhance the adhesion of asphalt to aggregates in the presence of water d) They reduce the flexibility of
the pavement
Correct Answer: c) They enhance the adhesion of asphalt to aggregates in the presence of water
1. What characterizes a dense-graded mix? a) Uneven distribution of particle sizes b) High air void content
when compacted c) Even distribution of particle sizes from coarse to fine d) Low surface texture after
compaction
Correct Answer: c) Even distribution of particle sizes from coarse to fine
2. What is a key characteristic of the surface texture of a dense-graded mix when compacted? a) Porous
texture b) Loose texture c) Close texture d) Rough texture
Correct Answer: c) Close texture
3. What factors contribute largely to the stability of a dense-graded mix? a) Temperature and humidity b)
Particle shape and color c) Grading, binder content, and density d) Aggregate size and shape
Correct Answer: c) Grading, binder content, and density
4. What factor mainly influences the workability of a dense-graded mix? a) Humidity b) Aggregate size c)
Temperature d) Binder content
25
Correct Answer: c) Temperature
5. What is another term commonly used to refer to dense-graded mixes? a) Granular asphalt b) Graded
concrete c) Porous asphalt d) Asphaltic concrete
Correct Answer: d) Asphaltic concrete
6. What is required for a dense-graded mix to achieve uniform coating of all aggregate particles with the
binder? a) High compaction pressure b) Careful proportioning of materials c) Low compaction
temperature d) Minimal compaction effort
Correct Answer: b) Careful proportioning of materials
7. In what context is a dense-graded mix most commonly used? a) For building foundations b) For
decorative landscaping c) For surfacing new or reconstructed pavements d) For drainage systems
Correct Answer: c) For surfacing new or reconstructed pavements
8. How may a dense-graded mix be used to strengthen pavements? a) By increasing air void content b) By
reducing binder content c) By removing and replacing portions of existing pavement d) By adding more
fine particles to the mix
Correct Answer: c) By removing and replacing portions of existing pavement
1. What desirable property does an open-graded mix provide when used as a wearing course? a) High
density b) Free drainage of water c) Increased strength to the pavement d) Reduced skid resistance
Correct Answer: b) Free drainage of water
2. How does the open texture of an open-graded mix contribute to skid resistance? a) By reducing water
drainage b) By increasing light reflection c) By providing a high level of polish resistance d) By allowing
water to drain and reducing tire spray
Correct Answer: d) By allowing water to drain and reducing tire spray
3. What effect does the surface texture of an open-graded mix have on tire noise? a) It increases tire noise
b) It decreases tire noise c) It has no effect on tire noise d) It reduces skid resistance
Correct Answer: b) It decreases tire noise
4. In what condition is it recommended to use an open-graded asphalt wearing course? a) On a
compacted base with low permeability b) On a water-proof, free-draining base c) On a base with high
strength d) On a base with high moisture content
Correct Answer: b) On a water-proof, free-draining base
5. What action is necessary when using gap-graded asphalt on heavily trafficked and high-speed roads? a)
Adding more binder to the mix b) Rolling pre-coated aggregate into the surface for skid resistance c)
Reducing the air voids in the mix d) Increasing the temperature of the mix during laying
Correct Answer: b) Rolling pre-coated aggregate into the surface for skid resistance
1. In open-graded mixtures like coated stone, how are traffic stresses distributed? a) By the bitumen
coating b) By the mortar c) By stone-to-stone contact and friction d) By filler content
Correct Answer: c) By stone-to-stone contact and friction
2. What serves to hold the stones together in open-graded mixtures? a) Bitumen coating b) Mortar c)
Filler content d) Stone crushing strength
Correct Answer: a) Bitumen coating
3. In mastic asphalt gap-graded mixtures, how are traffic stresses distributed? a) By stone-to-stone
contact b) By the bitumen coating c) Within the mortar d) By the filler content
26
Correct Answer: c) Within the mortar
4. What is necessary for the mortar in gap-graded mixtures to resist deformation under traffic stresses? a)
Low stiffness b) Soft bitumen c) High filler content d) Hard bitumen and high filler content
Correct Answer: d) Hard bitumen and high filler content
5. In asphalt concrete dense-graded mixtures, which mechanisms operate to distribute traffic stresses? a)
Stone-to-stone contact only b) Mortar mechanism only c) Both stone interlock and mortar mechanisms
d) Neither stone interlock nor mortar mechanisms
Correct Answer: c) Both stone interlock and mortar mechanisms
1. What distinguishes asphalt pavement from other pavement types? a) Thickness of the upper courses b)
Composition of the lower courses c) Specified mineral aggregates bound by bituminous material d)
Presence of additives in the binder
Correct Answer: c) Specified mineral aggregates bound by bituminous material
2. What are some specific requirements that different bituminous mixtures are developed to satisfy? a)
Resistance to sunlight b) Resistance to chemical erosion c) Resistance to water ingress d) Resistance to
seismic activity
Correct Answer: c) Resistance to water ingress
3. At what temperatures are hot mix asphalt (HMA) typically prepared and compacted? a) 50-80°C b) 90-
120°C c) 110-180°C d) 200-250°C
Correct Answer: c) 110-180°C
4. Why are elevated temperatures necessary for HMA? a) To increase aggregate moisture content b) To
reduce the workability of the mixture c) To prevent aggregate drying d) To dry the aggregates and coat
them with bitumen
Correct Answer: d) To dry the aggregates and coat them with bitumen
5. What is one of the functions of elevated temperatures in HMA preparation? a) To increase water
ingress b) To decrease skid resistance c) To reduce compaction time d) To grant enough time to
compact the HMA course
Correct Answer: d) To grant enough time to compact the HMA course
1. What determines the selection of bitumen grade for asphalt pavement construction? a) Aggregate size
b) Pavement thickness c) Ambient temperature in the construction region d) Availability of additives
Correct Answer: c) Ambient temperature in the construction region
2. Which type of bitumen is suitable for hot climate regions? a) Soft bitumen b) Warm bitumen c) Hard
bitumen d) Medium bitumen
Correct Answer: c) Hard bitumen
3. Why should bitumen be solid enough during hot seasons? a) To increase skid resistance b) To decrease
workability c) To prevent bleeding d) To accelerate compaction time
Correct Answer: c) To prevent bleeding
4. What technology was introduced in 1995 to lower HMA production temperatures? a) Cold-mix asphalt
(CMA) b) Warm-mix asphalt (WMA) c) Half-warm mix asphalt (HWMA) d) Foamed bitumen treatment
(FBT)
Correct Answer: b) Warm-mix asphalt (WMA)

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 5. What is the purpose of the "Half-Warm Foamed Bitumen Treatment" introduced by Jenkins et al. in
1999? a) To increase HMA production temperatures b) To decrease HMA production temperatures c) To
improve HMA workability d) To reduce HMA aggregate size
Correct Answer: b) To decrease HMA production temperatures
1. How is cold mix asphalt (CMA) defined? a) A mix made with aggregate, water, and bitumen b) A mix
made with aggregate, a hydrocarbon binder, and possibly dopes or additives c) A mix made with
aggregate, cement, and water d) A mix made with aggregate, polymer, and emulsifier
Correct Answer: b) A mix made with aggregate, a hydrocarbon binder, and possibly dopes or additives
2. What type of binder is commonly used in cold mix asphalt? a) Cement b) Water-based emulsion c)
Polymer-modified bitumen d) Cutback bitumen
Correct Answer: b) Water-based emulsion
3. Why are regulations limiting the use of cutback bitumen in pavement mixtures? a) Due to its high cost
b) Due to its low viscosity c) Due to its hazardous effects d) Due to its high environmental impact
Correct Answer: c) Due to its hazardous effects
4. What has significantly covered all applications of cold mix asphalt due to regulations on cutback
bitumen? a) Polymer-modified bitumen b) Cementitious binders c) Water-based emulsion d) Synthetic
polymers
Correct Answer: c) Water-based emulsion
5. Which characteristic allows the aggregate in cold mix asphalt to be coated without drying or heating? a)
High temperature resistance b) Low viscosity c) High adhesive properties d) Ability to remain liquid at
low temperatures
Correct Answer: d) Ability to remain liquid at low temperatures
Steel reinforcing may be used in concrete pavements to:
a) Increase the amount of cracking that occurs
b) Serve as a load transfer mechanism at joints
c) Decrease the load capacity of the pavement
d) Weaken the structural integrity of the pavement
Correct Answer: b) Serve as a load transfer mechanism at joints

What is the primary function of dowel bars in concrete pavements?

a) Providing additional support to the pavement structure
b) Enhancing the aesthetics of the pavement surface
c) Serving as load-transfer mechanisms across joints
d) Preventing moisture infiltration into the pavement
Correct Answer: c) Serving as load-transfer mechanisms across joints

What is the primary purpose of tie bars in concrete pavements?

a) Providing additional support to the pavement structure
b) Enhancing the aesthetics of the pavement surface
c) Facilitating load transfer across joints
d) Tying two sections of the pavement together to prevent differential movement
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Correct Answer: d) Tying two sections of the pavement together to prevent differential movement

What is the primary purpose of joints in concrete pavements?

a) Enhancing the aesthetics of the pavement surface
b) Providing additional support to the pavement structure
c) Limiting the stresses induced by temperature changes d) Facilitating load transfer across joints
Correct Answer: c) Limiting the stresses induced by temperature changes

Why are expansion joints placed in concrete pavements?

a) To enhance the aesthetics of the pavement surface
b) To provide additional support to the pavement structure
c) To prevent the pavement from cracking under temperature-induced expansion
d) To facilitate load transfer across joints
Correct Answer: c) To prevent the pavement from cracking under temperature-induced expansion

Why are contraction joints placed in concrete pavements?

a) To enhance the aesthetics of the pavement surface
b) To provide additional support to the pavement structure
c) To prevent the pavement from cracking under temperature-induced contraction
d) To facilitate load transfer across joints
Correct Answer: c) To prevent the pavement from cracking under temperature-induced contraction

What is the purpose of using steel tie bars in plain concrete pavements?
a) To enhance the structural integrity of the pavement
b) To facilitate load transfer across joints
c) To provide a hinge effect at longitudinal joints and prevent joint opening
d) To increase the aesthetic appeal of the pavement surface
Correct Answer: c) To provide a hinge effect at longitudinal joints and prevent joint opening

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