P

NEET- 2024
Mark Group Date : 18/04/2024
720 PCB FINAL ROUND - 09 Time : 3 : 20 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0 4324

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2023-24 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2024 comprises of two Sections. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany,

Date : 18/04/2024
Zoology ) will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15
questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (200 ), The
duration of the test would be 3 :20 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2023-24 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. NEET (UG) – 2024 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus (PCB NEET - 2024)

Physics : XIth + XIIth Whole Physics
Chemistry : XIth + XIIth Whole Chemistry
Biology : XIth + XIIth Whole Biology

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06. The fundamental interval, that is number of divisions
PHYSICS between LFP and UFP on the two scales X and Y
are 50 and 150 respectively. The ice point on both
SECTION - A (35 Questions) the scales is at 0°. If the temperature on the X-
01. In an experiment to demonstrate interference of light scale is 15°, then what is the temperature on the Y
using Young’s double slit, separation of two narrow scale ?
slits is doubled in order to maintain same spacing (1) 30°
of fringes. The distance D of screen from slits must (2) 45°
now be altered to about
(3) 60°
(1) 2D (2) D
(4) 75°
D D 07. Four identical rods are joined end to end to form a
(3) (4)
2 2 square. The mass of each rod is M. The moment
02. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance of inertia of the square about the median line is ?

A x Ml 2 Ml 2
x from a fixed origin as U  , where A and (1) (2)
x2  B 3 4
B are dimensional constants then dimensional
formula for AB is : Ml 2
(3) (4) None of these
(1) [ML7/2T–2] 6
(2) [ML11/2T–2] 08. Given below are two statements :
(3) [M L T ]
2 9/2 –2 Statement I : Least count of a screw gauge is
(4) [ML13/2T–3] directly proportional to the number of divisions on

Date : 18/04/2024
circular scale.
03. 64 drops each having the capacity C and potential
Statement II : A screw gauge having a smaller
V are combined to form a big drop. If the charge
value of pitch has greater accuracy.
on the small drop is q , then the charge on the big
drop will be In the light of the above statements choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) 2q (2) 4q
(1) Both Statement I and statement II are correct.
(3) 16q (4) 64q
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
04. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance incorrect.
b are carrying a current i ampere each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by (3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
one wire on the other is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.
 0i 2  0i 2
(1) 2 (2) 09. The period of SHM is  / 2 seconds and the
b 2b
maximum velocity is 2 m/s. O is the centre of the
 0i  0i path and amplitude OA is bisected at B. The velocity
(3) (4) at B in m/s is
2b 2b 2

05. In the case of an inductor (1) 2 (2) 3

 (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) voltage lags the current by
2 10. If electron, proton and He have same energy, then
their de Broglie wavelength decreases in order

(2) voltage leads the current by (1)  e   p   He
2
 (2)  He   p   e
(3) voltage leads the current by
3
(3)  He   e   p

(4) voltage leads the current by (4)  p   e   He
4

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11. The instantaneous values of alternating current and 15. Figure below shows the position-time graph of a
voltages in a circuit are given as particle of mass 4 kg. What is the (i) force on the
particle for 0 < t < 4s (ii) and impulse at t = 4
1 (consider one dimensional motion only)?
i sin(100t ) A
2

1
e sin(100t  /3) Volt
2
The average power in Watt consumed in the circuit
is

1 3
(1) (2) (1) 0N, – 3 kg-ms–1
4 4 (2) 0 N, 0.75 kg-ms–1
1 1 (3) 1 N, 2 kg -ms–1
(3) (4)
2 8 (4) 2 N, 4 kg-ms–1
12. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the foot of 16. Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and
a tower with velocity 20 m/s. A man from the 3000 N/m respectively are stretched with the same
window 15m above the ground sees the ball after force. They will have potential energy in the ratio.
some time. He again sees ball after a time interval (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
of (g = 10 m/s2) : (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
17. A circular current carrying loop of 100 turns and
radius 10 cm is placed in an XY plane. A uniform

Date : 18/04/2024
magnetic field B = (iˆ  kˆ)T is present in the region.
If current in the loop is 5A, then match the Column
I with Column II and select the correct option from
the given codes.
Column -I Column-II
(1) 20 s
i. Magnitude and direction p. Zero
(2) 2 s of moment (in A-m2) of
(3) 4 s the loop are

(4) 3 s ii. Magnitude and direction q. 5

of torque (in N-m) on
13. A sealed container contains helium gas at 300 K. If the loop are
it is heated to 600 K, the average kinetic energy of
iii. Magnitude and direction r. Along positive
the helium atoms of net force (in N-m) on Z-axis
(1) remains unchanged the current loop are
(2) is doubled
(1) i-p, ii-q, iii-r (2) i-q,r, ii-q, iii-p
(3) become 2 times
(3) i-q, ii-p, iii-r (4) i-r, ii-p, iii-q
(4) becomes 4 times
18. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
14. A and B are two identically spherical charged bod-
ies which repel each other with force F, kept at a are placed in the same plane with their centres
finite distance. A third uncharged sphere of the same coinciding. If R1 > R2, the mutual inductance M
size is brought in contact with sphere B and re- between them will be directly proportional to
moved. It is then kept at mid point of A and B. Find
the magnitude of force on C. R1 R2
(1) R (2) R
2 1
F F
(1) (2)
2 8
R12 R22
(3) F (4) Zero (3) (4)
R22 R1

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19. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of 23. Two large metal plates are placed parallel to each
constant radius r such that its centripetal accelera- other. The inner surface of plates are charged by
tion ac is varying with time t as ac = k2rt 2, where k  and  (Coulomb/m2). The outer surfaces
is a constant. The power delivered to the particle are neutral. The electric field is ..... in the region
by the forces acting on it is : between the plates and ..... outside the plates
(1) 2mk 2 r 2t
(2) mk 2 r 2t

(mk 4 r 2t 5 )
(3)
2
(4) Zero.
2  
20. Two bodies A and B are attracted towards each (1) , (2) , zero
other due to gravitation. Given that A is much heavier 0 0 0
than B, which of the following correctly describes
2 2
the motion of the centre of mass of the system ? (3) , zero (4) zero,
0 0
(1) It moves towards A
(2) It remains at rest 24. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend
on
(3) It moves towards B
(1) the mass of the body
(4) It moves perpendicular to the line joining the
(2) the angular velocity of the body
particles
(3) the axis of rotation of the body
21. Statement I: A rain drop after falling through some

Date : 18/04/2024
(4) the distribution of the mass in the body
height attains a constant velocity.
25. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 equal divisions.
Statement II: At constant velocity, the viscous drag Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per milliampere
is just equal to its weight. and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. order that each division reads 0.5 volt, the resistance
in ohms needed to be connected in series with the
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are incor-
coil will be
rect.
(1) 99995
(3) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is in-
(2) 4995
correct.
(3) 103
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is cor-
(4) 105
rect.
26. If c is the speed of electromagnetic waves in
22. Two circular discs A and B with equal radii are vacuum, its speed in a medium of dielectric constant
blackened. They are heated to same temperature K and relative permeability µr is
and are cooled under identical conditions. What
inference do you draw from their cooling curves? 1
R is rate of cooling: (1) V   K (2) V  c  r K
r

c K
(3) V   K (4) V   C
r r

27. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal veloc-

ity of 1 m/s in air. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10–5
poise. Then, the viscous force on the drop will be
(1) A and B have same specific heats (1) 101.73 × 10–9 N
(2) Specific heat of A is less (2) 10.173 × 10–9 N
(3) Specific heat of B is less (3) 16.695 × 10–9 N
(4) Nothing can be said (4) 16.95 × 10–9 N

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28. A nucleus has mass number A1 and volume V1. 33. A student plots a graph from his readings on the
Another nucleus has mass number A2 and volume determination of Young's modulus of a metal wire
V2. If relation between mass number is A2 = 4A1, but forgets to put the labels (figure). The quantities
then V2 / V1 = ___. on X and Y - axes may be respectively
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2
29. The difference in the variation of resistance with
i. weight hung and length increased
temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises
essentially due to the difference in the ii. stress applied and length increased
(1) variation of scattering mechanism with iii. stress applied and strain developed
temperature
(2) crystal structure iv. length increased and the weight hung
(3) variation of the number of charge carriers with (1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv
temperature
(3) i, ii, iii (4) all
(4) type of bond
34. The focal length of a converging lens is measured
30. A string of length 1 m and mass 5 g is fixed at both
for violet,green and red colours. It is respectively
ends. the tension in the string is 8.0 N. The string is
fv, fg and fr. We will get :
set into vibration using an external vibrator of
frequency 100 Hz. The separation between (1) fv = fg (2) fv > fr

Date : 18/04/2024
successive nodes on the string is close to
(3) fv < fr (4) fg > fr
(1) 16.6 cm
35. Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass
(2) 20.0 cm of a solid sphere are 2% & 1% respectively. Then
(3) 10.0 cm error in measurement of moment of inertia with
(4) 33.3 cm  2 
respect to its diameter is :  I  MR2 
31. A body of mass M tied to a string is lowered at a  5 
constant acceleration of (g/3) through a vertical dis- (1) 3 % (2) 6 %
tance h. The work done by the string will be :
(3) 5 % (4) 4 %
Mgh
(1) SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
3
36. For a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, if the
2 object is at a distance of 30cm from the pole, then
(2) Mgh
3 the nature of the image and magnification will be :
2 (1) real and –2 (2) virtual and –2
(3)  Mgh
3 (3) real and +2 (4) virtual and +2
Mgh 37. A system of binary stars of masses mA and mB are
(4) 
3 moving in circular orbits of radius rA and rB
32. A light has amplitude A and angle between respectively. If TA and TB are the time periods of
analyser and polarizer is 60°. Light is transmitted masses mA and mB respectively, then
by analyser has amplitude. 3/2
TA  rA 
(1) A 2 (1) 
TB  rB 
(2) A/ 2
(2) TA > TB (if rA > rB)
(3) 3A / 2 (3) TA > TB (if mA > mB)
(4) A/2
(4) TA = TB
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38. The time period of stationary pendulum on earth is

A B Y A B Y
T. The time period of simple pendulum under
acceleration a is T '. Match the situation of column 0 0 0 0 0 0
I with ratio T ' / T in column II. 1 0 0 1 0 0
Column I Column II (3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
A. Free fall of a lift P. Infinity
1 1 0 1 1 0
B. Vehicle moving horizontally Q. g
with acceleration a g a
C. Lift with acceleration a R. g 41. Two short bar magnets of equal dipole moment M
moving up ga
are fastened perpendicular at their centres, figure.
D. Lift with acceleration a S. g The magnitude of resultant of two magnetic fields
moving down
g  a2
2
at a distance d from the centre on the bisector of
the right angle is
(1) A-P ; B-S ; C-R ; D-Q
(2) A-P ; B-Q ; C-R ; D-S
(3) A-R ; B-S ; C-Q ; D-P
(4) A-S ; B-P ; C-Q ; D-R
39. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with
constant angular speed  about its perpendicular

bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel
to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between

Date : 18/04/2024
two ends of the rod is
0 2 2M  0 2M
(1) (2) 4 3
4 d 3 d

0 M 0 2M
(3) 4 3 (4)
d 4 d 3

42. A sound wave of frequency 240 Hz travels with

1 2 the speed of 300 ms–1 along the positive x-axis.
(1) Bl 2 (2) Bl
2 Each point of the wave moves to and fro through a
total distance of 6 cm. What will be the mathematical
1 expression of this travelling wave?
(3) Zero (4) Bl 2
8
(1) Y(x, t) = 0.03 [sin 5 x – (0.2 × 103)t]
40. (2) Y(x, t) = 0.06 [sin 5 x – (1.5 × 103)t]
(3) Y(x, t) = 0.06 [sin 0.8 x – (0.5 × 103)t]
(4) Y(x, t) = 0.03 [sin 5 x – (1.5 × 103)t]
43. Which of the following in a hydrogen atom is
The output of the given circuit diagram is
independent of the principal quantum number n ?
A B Y A B Y (The symbols have their usual meanings).

0 0 0 0 0 0 (1) v n
(1) (2)
1 0 0 1 0 1 (2) E r
0 1 0 0 1 1 (3) E n
1 1 1 1 1 0
(4) v r

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44. If reading of spring balance is 120 N then normal iv. The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function
reaction between 10 kg and 20 kg block? only of its temperature.
(1) i , ii (2) ii , iii
(3) iii , iv (4) all
48. Following figure shows cross-sections through
three long conductors of the same length and
material, with square cross-section of edge lengths
(1) 20 N (2) 30 N
as shown. Conductor B will fit snugly within
(3) 50 N (4) Can’t say conductor A, and conductor C will fit snugly within
45. The kinetic energy of electron E when the incident conductor B. Relationship between their end to end
light has wavelength . To increase the KE to 2E, resistance is
the incident light must have wavelength

hc hc
(1) (2)
E   hc E   hc

h hc
(3) (4)
E   hc E   hc
46. Match the columns. (1) RA  RB  RC

Elastic head-on collision (2) RA  RB  RC

Date : 18/04/2024
(3) RA  RB  R
(4) Information is not sufficient
49. A boat is to go straight across a stream that is flowing
at 5.0 km/h to east. The boatman knows that his
speed with respect to water is 10 km/h. The angle
at which he must head the boat, and his speed
relative to the shore will be :

(1) A-4 ; B-1 ; C-3 ; D-2

(1) 10 km/h at 0°
(2) A-2 ; B-3 ; C-4 ; D-1
(2) 5 3 km/h at 60°
(3) A-3 ; B-1 ; C-4 ; D-2
(3) 10 3 km/h at 30°
(4) A-2 ; B-4 ; C-1 ; D-3
47. Cp is always greater than Cv for a gas, which of the (4) 5 3 km/h at 30°
following statements provide, partly or wholly, the 50. A semicircular arc of radius a is charged uniformly
reason for this ? and the charge per unit length is λ. The electric
i. No work is done by a gas at constant volume field at its centre is

ii. When a gas absorbs heat at constant pressure, λ λ

its volume must change (1) (2)
2πε 0 a 2 4πε 0 a
iii. For the same change in temperature, the internal
λ2 λ
energy of a gas changes by a smaller amount at (3) (4)
constant volume than at constant pressure. 2πε 0 a 2πε 0 a

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56. Ionisation energies of element A are given below in
CHEMISTRY kJ/mol :
IE1 IE2 IE3
SECTION - A (35 Questions)
120 430 540
51. The correctly reported answer of addition of
29.4406, 3.2 and 2.25 will have______ significant If A react with different elements, which compounds
figures of A is not possible ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) AF (2) A2O
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) A3N (4) A3N2
52. With increase of temperature, which of these 57. Nucleons are
changes?
(1) Molality (1) Only neutrons
(2) Weight fraction of solute (2) Neutrons + protons
(3) Molarity (3) Neutrons + protons + electrons
(4) Mole fraction (4) Neutrons + electrons
53. 2-methyl but-2-ene is less reactive than but-2-ene.
58. Match the columns.
This is due to
(1) Resonance (2) Hyperconjugation
Column-I Column-II
(3) Electromeric effect (4) Inductive effect
(Quantum number) (Information provided)
54. Match the following : (A) Principal quantum (p) Orientation of the
number orbital
List-I List-II (B) Azimuthal quantum (q) Energy and size of
(Type of reaction) (Phenomenon) number orbit
a. SN2 (p) Walden inversion (C) Magnetic quantum (r) Spin of electron
b. SN1 (q) Carbanion interme- number

Date : 18/04/2024
diate (D) Spin quantum (s) Shape of the
c. E2 (r) Anti-periplanar number subshell
Configuration
d. E1Cb (s) Carbocation inter-
mediate (1) A–(q), B–(s), C–(p), D–(r)
(2) A–(s), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
(1) a  (p), b  (s), c  (r), d  (q)
(3) A–(q), B–(p), C–(s), D–(r)
(2) a  (p), b  (q), c  (r), d  (s)
(4) A–(q), B–(s), C–(r), D–(p)
(3) a  (r), b  (q), c  (p), d  (s)
(4) a  (s), b  (r), c  (q), d  (p) 59. Which of the following does not give alkane with
55. Match the entries of column I with approopriate R—Mg—X.
entries of column II and choose the correct option (1) Ph—OH (2) C6H6
out of the four options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given at (3) CH3COOH (4) HCl
the end of each question. 60. Ozonolysis of 3-Methyl-1-butene gives a mixture
of
Column I Column II
(Types of element) (General Elect. (1) Propanal and ethanal
Config.) (2) Propanone and ethanal
(A) Noble gases (p) ns1 to ns2 np5 (3) 2–Methylpropanal and methanal
(B) Normal (q) ns2 to ns2 np6
elements (4) Butanone and methanal
1–14
(C) Transition (r) (n–2) f (n–1) 61. For ABx type molecule, which statement(s) is(are)
2 6 0–1 2
elements s p d ns correct about bond angle (B–A–B)?
(D) Inner- (s) (n–1) d1–10 ns1–2
I. Bond angle  EN of the central atom A.
transition
elements II. Bond angle  1/EN of the central atom A.
III. Bond angle  Size of central atom.
(1) A-(q); B-(r); C-(p), D-(s)
IV. Bond angle  1/Size of central atom
(2) A-(p); B-(s); C-(q), D-(r)
(3) A-(r); B-(p); C-(s), D-(q) (1) I, II, III (2) II, IV
(4) A-(q); B-(p); C-(s), D-(r) (3) I, IV (4) II, III

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62. Oxygen molecule is 68. Which has maximum ionic mobility ?
(1) diamagnetic with no-unpaired electron. (1) Li  (2) Na 
(2) diamagnetic with two unpaired electron
(3) K  (4) Cs 
(3) Paramagnetic with two unpaired electron
69. On doubling P and V with constant temperature
(4) Paramagnetic with no unpaired electron. the equilibrium constant will
63. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation Δ vap Ho for (1) remain constant (2) become double
water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol–1. The internal (3) become one-fourth (4) None of these
energy of vaporisation of water at 100oC (in kJ 70. BF3 is an acid according to
mol–1) is : (1) Arrhenius concept
(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal gas) (2) Bronsted-Lowry concept
(1) +37.56 (3) Lewis concept
(2) –43.76 (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) +43.76 71. Statement-1 : Boiling point of 2-Bromobutane is
(4) +40.66 greater than 1-bromobutane
64. In the following equilibrium reaction Statement-2 : Melting point of
1,4-dichlorobenzene is greater than 1,
2A  B  C,
2-dichlorobenzene
the equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C are (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true
1 × 10–3 M, 2 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–3 M respectively
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
at 300 K. The value of K c for this equilibrium at the
same temperature is (3) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false
1

Date : 18/04/2024
(1) (2) 6 72. Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl chloride
6 gives
1 (1) Diethyl amine
(3) (4) 36
36 (2) Ethane
65. When bromine is dissolved in CS2 and treated with (3) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride
phenol gives major product (4) Methylamine
(1) o-Bromophenol 73. Statement-1 : Aquated copper (I) cation undergoes
(2) p-Bromophenol disproportionation as :
(3) mixture of '1' and '2' +
2Cu (aq.)  Cu (aq.)
2+
 Cu
(4) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol Statement-2 : Hydration energy of Cu2+ is higher
66. The IUPAC name of the compound having formula, than that of Cu+ which compensates with 2nd IP of
O = C - CH - CH2 is Cu
OH NH2 OH (1) If both statements are true and the
(1) 3-aminohydroxy propionic acid statement-2 is a correct explanation of
(2) 2-amino propan-3-oic acid statement-1
(3) Amino hydroxy propanoic acid (2) If both statements are true but statement-2 is
not the correct explanation of statement-1
(4) 2-amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid
(3) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false
67. Bond order is a concept in the molecular orbital
theory. It depends on the number of electrons in (4) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is
the bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of the true
following statements is true about it? 74. Which of the following is not an actinide ?
(1) Cannot be a negative quantity (1) Curium (2) Californium
(2) Is always an integral value (3) Uranium (4) Terbium
(3) Can assume any value, positive or negative, 75. The oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO4 is
integral or fractional, including zero (1) +7 (2) +6
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) +4 (4) +8

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76. In the following sequence of reaction 81. Identify A in the given reaction.
OH P  I2
  (1) 
Mg / dry ether
 (2) CH3
+ HBr 
Peroxide
A

(i) CH 3COCH 3
(ii ) dry ether
 (3). The compound (3) is
(iii) H 3O 

Br
(1) OH
CH3
(1)
(2)
OH
OH
(3)
CH3
OH (2)
(4)
Br
77. Assertion : In the reaction:
2Na(s) + Cl2(g)  2NaCl(s), sodium is oxidised. CH 2  Br
Reason : Sodium acts as an oxidising agent in the (3)
given reaction.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion CH 3
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(4)
is not a correct explanation for assertion

Date : 18/04/2024
Br
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 82. If 100 ml of Oxalic acid (H2C2O4) is titrated against
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 0.1 M, 50 mL KMnO4 till equivalence point, then
78. Helium-oxygen mixture is used by deep sea divers calculate the concentration (in mol L–1) of Oxalic
in preference to nitrogen-oxygen mixture because acid
(1) Helium is much less soluble in blood than nitrogen (1) 0.125
(2) Nitrogen is much less soluble in blood than (2) 1.25
helium (3) 0.25
(3) due to high pressure deep under the sea, nitrogen (4) 2.5
and oxygen react to give poisonous nitric oxide. 83. The end product in the following sequence of
(4) nitrogen is highly soluble in water. reaction is
79. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution : HC  CH 
1%HgSO4
 A 
CH3 MgX
 B 
[O]

20%H 2SO4 H 2O

(1) ΔSmix (1) Ethanol

(2) ΔVmix (2) Acetone
(3) Acetic acid
(3) ΔP (Pobserved  PRaoult )
(4) Isopropyl alcohol
(4) ΔH mix 84. What is compound R here ?
80. KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and CH4(g) CH3CH2CH2X 
NaCN

are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413 respectively. +
(P)  H
3O

 (Q) CH
H3 +OH
 (R)
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing
solubility. (1) CH3CH2CH2CH(OCH3)2
(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar (2) CH3CH2CH2CH=NOCHCH3
(2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar O
(3) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (3) CH3CH = CHCOH

(4) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO (4) CH3CH2CH2COOCH3

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85. Which of the following complexes are not correctly 88. Statement-1 : In a complex [Cr(NH3)4 BrCl]Cl,
matched with the hybridization of their central metal the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment is close to 1.73
ion B.M.
(i) [Ni(CO)4] sp 3
Statement-2 : All known mononuclear complexes
(ii) [Ni(CN)4] sp2– 3 of chromium (III), irrespective of the strength of
(iii) [CoF6] d sp
3– 2 3 the ligand field, must have three unpaired electrons.
(iv) [Fe(CN)6]3– sp3d2 (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true
Select the correct answer using the codes given (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
below (3) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
89. The vapour pressure of two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of
86. Λ CICH 2COONa = 224 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1 ,
P and 2 mole of Q would be
1 2 1
Λ NaCl = 38.2 ohm cm gm eq , (1) 72 torr
Λ HCl = 203 ohm 1 cm 2 gm eq 1 , (2) 140 torr
(3) 68 torr
What is the value of Λ CICH 2 COOH
(4) 20 torr
(1) 288.5 ohm–1 cm2 gm eq–1
90. Match the following :
(2) 289.5 ohm–1 cm2 gm eq–1
List-I (reaction)
(3) 388.8 ohm–1 cm2 gm eq–1
a. C6H5CHO + NaOH  C6H5COOH +
(4) 59.5 ohm–1 cm2 gm eq–1
C6H5CH2OH

Date : 18/04/2024
87. In the reaction the final product C is :
b. C6H6 + CH3Cl  Anhyd.AlCl3
C6 H 5 CH 3
NH2
AC2O Br 2 H 2O c. RCOCl + H2 
Pd/BaSO 4
 RCHO
A B C
CH3COOH H+
d. C6H5OH + NaOH + CO2 
1. heat, 2. H +

CH 3
List-II (name of reactions)
C :  D
heat
(p) Rosenmund reduction
NHCOCH3 (q) Kolbe’s reaction
Br (r) Claisen reaction
(1) (s) Cannizzaro reaction
CH 3
(t) Friedal-Craft’s reaction
The correct matching is :
NH2 (1) a  (s), b  (t), c  (p), d  (q)
COCH 3
(2) a  (t), b  (p), c  (q), d  (r)
(2)
(3) a  (t), b  (r), c  (q), d  (p)
CH 3 (4) a  (s), b  (q), c  (r), d  (p)
NH2 91. A compound of boron ‘X’ on heating swells which
Br on further heating gives glassy transparent solid ‘Y’.
(3) The solid ‘Y’ on reacting with metal oxides gives
characteristic coloured compound. The formula of
CH 3 ‘X’, ‘Y’ and name of the test respectively :
COCH 3 (1) Na2B4O7.10H2O, B2O3 and ring test
Br (2) Borax, B2O3 and borax bead test
(4)
(3) Boric acid, B2O3 and boric bead test
CH 3 (4) NaBO2, B2O3 and ring test

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92. Given E 96. Assertion:
(i) Mg2+/Mg(s), E = –2.36
(ii) Ag+/Ag(s), E = 0.80
(iii) Al3+/Al(s), E = –1.66 In product benzene ring is remain unchanged.
(iv) Cu2+/Cu(s), E = 0.52 Reason : Hexachloro benzene is an aromatic
compound.
Out of the above given elements which is the
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
strongest oxidising agent and which is the weakest
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
oxidising agent ?
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(1) (iv) is the strong whereas (ii) is the weakest is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
oxidising agent
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(2) (ii) is the strongest whereas (i) is the weakest (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
oxidising agent 97. The types of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O are
(3) (i) is the strongest whereas (ii) is the weakest only
oxidising agent (1) Electrovalent and covalent
(4) (ii) is the strongest whereas (iii) is the weakest (2) Electrovalent and coordinate covalent
oxidising agent (3) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent
(4) Covalent and coordinate covalent
93. Hydrolysis of lactose with dilute acid yields
98. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following
(1) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-glucose statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
(2) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose

Date : 18/04/2024
(i) Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes is actually
(3) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose the law of definite proportion by volume.
(4) Equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose (ii) Law of conservation of mass is true for physical
change, but not for chemical change.
94. The IUPAC name of K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O)2(NH3)] (iii) The percentage of oxygen in H2O2 is different
is from that in H2O. Hence, it violates law of definite
(1) Potassium ammine dicyano proportions.
(iv) At STP, 5 mL of N2 and 5 mL of H2 have
dioxoperoxochromate (VI)
different no. of molecules.
(2) Potassium ammine cyano peroxo dioxo (1) TTFF (2) FTTT
chromium (VI) (3) TFFF (4) TFTF
(3) Potassium ammine cyano peroxo dioxo 99. The best method to separate the mixture of
chromate (VI) ortho – and –para nitrophenol (1:1) is
(4) Potassium ammine cyano peroxo chromatic (IV) (1) Vaporisation
(2) Colour spectrum
95. In conversion of lime-stone to lime,
(3) Distillation
CaCO 3(s)  CaO (s) +CO 2(g) the values of ΔH o (4) Crystallisation
and ΔSo are +179.1 kJ mol–1 and 160.2 J/K 100. Which is the decreasing order of stability of the
respectively at 298 K and 1 bar. Assuming that ions?
(i) CH–+CH–OCH3
ΔH o and ΔSo do not change with temperature,
temperature above which conversion of limestone (ii) CH3–+CH–CH3
to lime will be spontaneous is (iii) CH3–+CH–COCH3
(1) 1118 K (iv) CN–CH2–+CH2
(1) i > iv > iii > ii
(2) 1.118 K
(2) i > ii > iii > iv
(3) 1200 K (3) ii > i > iii > iv
(4) 845 K (4) i > iii > iv > ii

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107. Select correct pair
BOTANY (1) Thorn - Cactus
Section - A (35 Questions) (2) Epigynous - Bitter gourd
101. Using a prism, green alga Cladophora and (3) Tetramerous flower - Maize
aerobic bacteria, who described the first action (4) Basal placentation - Pea
spectrum of photosynthesis, which roughly 108. Australian acacia is an example of
resembles the absorption spectrum of (1) Modification of root
chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b?
(2) Modification of stem
(1) Joseph Priestley (3) Modification of leaf
(2) Jan Ingenhousz (4) Modification of flower
(3) T.W Engelmann 109. During which phase(s) of the cell cycle the
(4) Cornelius Van Niel amount of DNA remains at 2C only in a cell ?
102. Select the correct statements (1) G0 and G1 (2) G2 and M
(1) “Systema naturae” book was written by (3) G2 only (4) G1 and S
Huxley 110. Two cytokinins are kinetin and Zeatin. What is
the difference between the two?
(2) Rabbit and man are having same class
(1) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin
(3) Wheat and mango belong to same class
(2) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin
(4) Biological names are usually in Portuguese
(3) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and kinetin is
language
naturally occurring.
103. Which is different from others- (4) Zeatin is a naturally occurring plant cytokinin,

Date : 18/04/2024
(1) Nitrifying bacteria kinetin is not.
(2) Iron bacteria 111. A primary root grows from 5 cm to 19 cm in a
(3) Cyanobacteria week. Calculate the absolute growth rate over
the period
(4) Sulphur bacteria
(1) 14 cm (2) 24 cm
104. RQ of fatty substances is generally (3) 95cm (4) None of the above
(1) Unity 112. Cellular respiration includes the various pathways
(2) Less than one by which carbohydrates and other metabolites
(3) Greater than one are broken down with the consecutive buildup
of
(4) Zero
(1) ATP
105. Which of the following is not incorrect?
(2) Protein
(1) Species of Marchantia provide peat (3) Vitamins
(2) Gametophyte is recessive in Pinus. (4) None of these
(3) Funaria is more evolved than Dryopteris. 113. Correctly arrange the sequence of Gram staining
(4) Bryophytes are amphibians’ vascular plants. in bacteria
106. Assertion (A): Energy pyramid is slopping in 1. Treated with alcohol
pond ecosystem. 2. Excess stain washed with water
Reason (R): The energy of one trophic level 3. Stain with crystal violet dye
(e.g. zooplankton) is lower than another level 4. 0.5% iodine added
(Phytoplankton) as we go up. 5. Observe under microscopic field for violet/
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct colourless
explanation of A bacteria
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) 2  3  4  l  5
explanation of A (2) 3  1  2  5  5
(3) A is true but R is false (3) l  2  3  4  5
(4) Both A and Rare false. (4) 3  2  4  l  5

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114. A scientist mapped the genes on chromosomes 118. Match the column -A with column B
on the basis of % crossing over between Column A Column B
different genes. One map unit corresponds to (Family) (Androecium)
one % crossing over or recombination. The
genes showing more than 50% recombination (A) Brassicaceae (i) C 5 A (α)
were not supposed to be linked on same
chromosome. In crossing over studies on maize, (B) Malvaceae (ii) A (9) + 1
scientist observed the following % crossing over (C) Fabaceae (iii) A 2+4
between genes A, B, C, D –between. A and D
10%, between A and C 3%, between genes C (D) Solanaceae (iv) C (5) A5
and D 7%, between genes A and B 5%, and (1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
between genes C and B 8%.
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
On the basis of above observation find out the
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
correct sequence of genes A, B, C and D on
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
chromosomes:-
119. Choose the diagram which correctly shows the
(1) BCDA anaphase-I stage ?
(2) ABCD
(3) BACD
(4) DACB
115. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IA IB
& IA i . Among the blood types of their children,
how many different genotypes and phenotypes
are possible?

Date : 18/04/2024
(1) 6 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
116. An organism is able to live on a culture medium
containing nutrient A, by the enzyme catalysed 120. ____are said to be those sequence that appear
reaction in mature or processed RNA. The ____are
A 
X
 B 
Y
C interrupted by introns. ____ do not appear in
A mutant failed to survive on this medium but mature or processed RNA. The arrangement
grew when nutrient B was added to it. Which further complicates the definition of a gene in
gene of this mutant was defective - terms of a DNA segment.
(1) Only X (2) Only Y (1) hnRNA; Polycistronic; Intron; Spilt gene
(3) X and Y both (4) Neither X or Y (2) Exons; Split gene; Exons; Split gene
117. The repressor of the operon is synthesized (3) Exons; exons; intervening sequences; split-
..(A)... from the “i-gene”. The repressor protein gene
binds to the ...(B)... region of operon of operon
and ...(C)... RNA polymerase from transcribing (4) Intron; hnRNA; Exons; Split gene
operon 121. In density gradient centrifugation , the bulk DNA
Find the correct option regarding blanks of A,B, forms_____ while satellite DNA
&C forms________.
(1) A-sometime, B-regulator, C-promoter (1) Major peak; Minor peak
(2) A-constitutively, B-operator, C-prevents (2) Minor peak; Major peak
(3) A-constitutively, B-promoter, C-prevent (3) Major peak; Major peak
(4) A-Non constitutively, B-operator, C-
(4) Minor peak; Minor peak
promoter

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122. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, 128. Which of the following plant can not produce
the RNA polymerase I transcribes : fruits.
(1) mRNA with additional processing, capping (1) Monoecious plant
and tailing (2) Dioecious plant with staminate flowers
(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs (3) Dioecious plant with pistilate flowersss
(3) rRNAs–28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(4) Plant with bisexual flowers
(4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
129. Pollination in Vallisineria is
123. In prokaryotes, the ribosomes :
(1) Chasmogamy, Allogamy or Xenogamy
(1) Are associated with the plasma membrane
of the cell (2) Chasmogamy, Allogamy, Geitonogamy
(2) Are 15 nm by 20 nm in size (3) Chasmogamy, Allogamy, Geitonogamy (or)
(3) Contain two subunits - 50S and 30S Xenogamy
(4) All are correct (4) Chasmogamy & Autogamy
124. Among fungi, conidia is the mode of asexual 130. Each centriole has a cart wheel organisation
reproduction is members of: having a whorl of tubulin fibrils at periphery.
These peripheral fibrils are composed of how
(1) Ascomycetes
many microtubules ?
(2) Deuteromycetes (1) 11
(3) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes (2) 18
(4) Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes (3) 9
125. What is true for the diagram given below? (4) 27

Date : 18/04/2024
131. 2H2A + CO2  Light
 2A + CH2O + H2O
For Cycas identify H2A and 2A respectively:
(1) H2O and Oxygen
(2) H2S and Oxygen
(3) H2S and Sulphur
(4) H2O and Sulphur
132. Select the wrong statement
(1) Cell wall is present in the members of Fungi
(1) Endodermis is distinct and also called starch and Plantae
sheath (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint, open and (3) Pseudopodia are the locomotory and feeding
present in the form of a ring structures in Sporozoans
(3) Hypodermis and remaining ground tissue is (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
made up of collenchyma in all kingdoms except Monera
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent 133. Identify A, B and C in the table given below :
126. Sometimes a few epidermal cells in the vicinity
of guard cells become specialized in their shape Name of algae Cell wall material Stored food
and size and are known as - Chara Cellulose A
Gelidium B Floridean starch
(1) Stomatal aperture (2) Trichomal cell
Laminaria Algin C
(3) Subsidiary cells (4) Stomata
127. What would be the genetic nature of apomictic (1) A = Fucoxanthin, B = Starch, C =
embryos? Phycoerythrin
(1) Diploid clones (2) A = Starch, B =Algin, C= Laminarin
(2) Haploid clones (3) A = Starch, B =Polysulphate ester, C
(3) Diploid maternal clones =Laminarin
(4) Haploid maternal clones (4) A = Mannitol, B = Cellulose, C = Starch

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134. Identify the correct progressive evolutionary 138. The quasifluid nature of ______ enables ______
sequence of the following plants. movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
A-Pinus, B-Sphagnum, C-Ulothrix, D-Ferns of a plasma membrane :
(1) C A B D (1) Protein, lateral
(2) C B A D (2) Lipid, lateral
(3) A D B C (3) Lipid, flip-flop
(4) C B D A (4) Protein, flip-flop
135. Given below is the pedigree of sickle cell 139. Statement 1:-. Respiration is an amphibolic
anaemia, in a family pathway.
Statement 2:-.Respiratory pathway is involved
in both catabolism and anabolism
(1) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is True;
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.
(3) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is false.
140. Which of the given statement is not related to
cytokinesis of a plant cell ?
In this the RBC of both parents will be – (1) New cell wall formation begins with the
(1) Normal formation of a precursor called cell plate
(2) Sickle shaped (2) Distribution of plastids in two daughter cells
(3) Both normal & sickle shaped (3) Wall formation starts in the centre

Date : 18/04/2024
(4) Cannot be determined (4) Formation of a furrow in the plasma
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) membrane
136. A plant with genotype AABbCcDD is self 141. Which of the following statements are correct
for chemiosmosis:
pollinated. Provided that the four genes are
(a) Decrease of protons in stroma
independently assorting, what proportion of the
(b) Decrease in pH in stroma
progeny will show the genotype AAbbccDD ?
(c) Conformational change of F1 portion of ATP
(1) ¼ (2) 1/ 16 synthase
(3) 1/64 (4) 1/256 (d) Conformational change of F0 portion of ATP
synthase
137. Go through the experiment shown in the following
(e) Facilitated diffusion of protons
diagram
(1) a, c, e (2) a, b, c
(3) d, e (4) b, d, e
142. Pteridophytes resemble Gymnosperm in the
following characteristics except one:
(1) Dominant sporophyte
(2) Vascular sporophyte
(3) Independent gametophyte
(4) Recessive gametophyte.
After one week the appearance of the shoot 143. How many statements are not correct?
would be–
a. The accessibility of operator regions of
prokaryotic DNA by RNA pol. is in many cases
regulated by the interaction of proteins with
sequences termed promoter.
b. it is the metabolic, physiological or
environmental conditions that regulate the
expression of genes.

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c. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of 146. The asexual spores in fungi are called
transcriptional elongation is the predominant site (1) Conidia when endogenous and aplanospores
for control of gene expression. when exogenous
d. In translation termination, termination factor (2) Zoospores when endogenous and
binds to the stop codon, terminating translation hypnospores when exogenous
and releasing the complete polypeptide from the (3) Ascospores when endogenous and
ribosome. basidiospores when exogenous
(4) Aplanospores when endogenous and conidia
e. Formation of a peptide bond requires no
when exogenous
energy
147. Identify the true statement from the following ;
f. The secondary structure of tRNA has been (1) Systematics is considered as sub topic under
depicted that looks like inverted L. classification
g. Allele sequence variation has traditionally been (2) Systematics is considered as sub topic under
described as a DNA polymorphism if more than taxonomy
one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human (3) Classification is considered as sub topic
population with a frequency greater than 0.01 under systematics
(4) Taxonomy is a sub topic under nomenclature
(1) 3 (2) 4
148. A man whose father was colour-blind marries a
(3) 2 (4) 5 woman whose father was also colour blind. They
144. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. the floral formula have their first child as a daughter. What are the
of the concerned family. chances that this child would be colour-blind?
(1) 25%
(1) Fabaceae - (2) 50%

Date : 18/04/2024
(3) 100%
(2) Malvaceae - (4) Zero percent
149. In man, gene producing the disease phenyl
(3) Poaceae - ketonuria also produces a number of abnormal
phenotypic traits, which are collectively
syndrome. This gene results mental retardation,
(4) Solanaceae - widely spaced incisors, pigmented patches on
145. Which of the following is correct with respect to the skin and excessive sweating such types of
ecological pyramids given? genes are called
(1) Polygene
(2) Pleiotropic gene
(3) Co-Dominant gene
(4) Incomplete dominant gene
150. Scutellum is a
(1) Endosperm of gymnosperm
(2) Shield shaped cotyledon of grasses
(3) Protective covering of radicle
A B (4) Protective covering of plumule
1 Pyramid of number Pyramid of number
for most of the for a tree ZOOLOGY
ecosystem
2 Pyramid of energy Pyramid of biomass Section - A (35 Questions)
for water bodies 151. If the number of a species increase in any national
3 Pyramid of energy Pyramid of number park it can be due to
for a grassland of a lake (1) Emigration
4 Pyramid of biomass Pyramid of number (2) Mutualism and parasitism
for parasitic food (3) Intraspecific competition
chains
(4) Interspecific competition

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152. Read the following statements :- 158. A bird eats the fruit of a plant species. The seeds
(A) Nervous system provides an organised are not digested and germinate in the bird’s
network of point to point connection. excreta at some distance from the parent plant.
This is an example of
(B) The endocrine system provides chemical
integration through hormone. (1) Predation
(C) The neural organisation is very complex in (2) Competition
lower invertebrates. (3) Mutualism
(D) Neuron can detect & receive stimuli but can’t (4) Commensalism
transmit. 159. The fruit juices available commercially are clearer
How many of above statements are false. than ones which are homemade. Which
(1) 4 (2) 3 ingredient is added in commercially available fruit
juices?
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Lipase and protease
153. Smaller families can be encouraged by using
various (2) Pectinase and hydrolase
(1) Educational methods (3) Pectinase and protease
(2) Contraceptive methods (4) Hydrolase and protease
(3) Abortive methods 160. During cardiac output ___________ % of
(4) Rhythm method ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial
contraction ___________% ventricular filling
154. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
occurs due to atrial contraction
induced by
(1) 50, 50 (2) 70, 30
(1) Differentiation of mammary gland

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(3) 30, 70 (4) 10, 90
(2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
161. During inspiration, the diaphragm
(3) Fully developed foetus and placenta (1) Relaxes to become dome-shaped
(4) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (2) Contracts and flattens
155. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that (3) Expands
involves transfer of which one of the following (4) Shows no change
into the fallopian tube?
162. The hepatitis-B vaccine :
(1) Zygote only
(1) Is produced from yeasts
(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage (2) Production involves recombinant DNA
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell technology
stage (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage (4) Provides passive immunity
156. The full potential as an effective antibiotic in the
163. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body
context of penicillin was studied by _________.
are joined by
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Chain and Florey (1) Cementing glue
(3) Watson and Crick (2) Muscular tissue
(4) Edward Jenner (3) Arthrodial membrane
157. Darwin and Wallace convinced most of their
(4) Cartilage
contemporaries that evolution had occurred.
They did this primarily by relying on evidence 164. What are the various aspects of reproduction
from which area of study? covered by WHO?
(1) Palaeontology (1) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural
(2) Development Biology (2) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social
(3) Geographic distribution (3) Physical, Emotional, Gestational, Social
(4) Behaviour (4) Physical, Emotional, Social

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165. What is shown in the figure? 171. Which is highly harmful and may leads to kidney
failure
(1) Nephritis
(2) Uremia
(3) Ketonuria
(4) Glycosuria
172. Which of the following are not antagonistic
(1) Copper T (1) Aldosterone - ANF
(2) Implants (2) ANF - ADH
(3) Stents (3) PTH - TCT
(4) Vault (4) FSH - LH
166. Which of the following is appropriately related 173. Which of the following is correct for bottle neck
to genetic drift phenomenon? effect?
I. Chance occurrence (1) It is the increase in genetic variability in a
II. Directional population
III. Random change in allele frequency (2) It is the decrease in genetic variability in a
IV. Elimination of alleles population
(1) I, II, III, IV (3) It is the presence of constant number of genes
and their alleles
(2) I, III, IV
(4) It is always the random beneficial mutation.
(3) III and IV only
174. In commensalism –
(4) I and II only

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(1) Population of commensal and host remains
167. Glycogen is most structurally similar to
unaffected
(1) Glucose (2) Starch (2) Population of commensal may increase while
(3) Maltose (4) Cellulose that of host remains unaffected.
168. Nucleoside is (3) Population of commensal increases while the
(1) Sugar + base population of host gradually decreases.
(2) Phosphoric acid + base (4) Population of both commensal and host
(3) Polymer of nucleic acid increases.
(4) Phosphoric acid + sugar + base 175. Osmotic gradient in the kidney matrix is mainly
caused by
169. Heart is three chambered i.e. two auricles & one
ventricle in. (1) Only Nacl
(1) Salamander (2) H + & NH3
(2) Psittacula (3) K & Urea.
(3) Pristis (4) Nacl and urea.
(4) Macropus 176. Osteoporosis, an age related disease of skeletal
system, may occur due to
170. Assertion : In addison’s disease carbohydrate
metabolism is altered. (1) Accumulation of uric acid leading to
inflammation of joints
Reason : Deficiency of cortisol leads to
addison’s disease. (2) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
junction leading to fatigue
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (3) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the (4) Decreased level of estrogen
reason is not the correct explanation of the 177. Number of anterior curves present with human
assertion. vertebral column is
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (1) 2 (2) 4
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (3) 6 (4) 1

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178. Gene therapy first used in the treatment of :– 185. Match the column.
(1) Albinism (2) Haemophilia
(3) SCID (4) LIQID Column-I Column-II
179. Which of the following vector is used to transfer a. AIDS p. Biological response
nematode specific gene in host plant? modifier
b. Carcinogens q. Opportunistic infection
(1) Virus (2) Rhizobium
c. a-interferon r. Pathogen
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Cosmid
d. Helminth s. Biological agents
180. Read the following statements :
(i) The main antibody produced as a result of Option
allergic reaction is IgA (1) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r
(ii) Modern-day life style has resulted in lowering (2) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
of immunity and more sensitivity to allergens (3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(iii) Recombinant DNA technology has allowed (4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
in bacteria or yeasts
186. How many among the following are involved in
(iv) Allergy is supressed due to release of histamine the conservation of endangered species at the
and serotonin place out of their natural habitat?
(v) The drugs like anti-histamine adrenalin and National parks, Sacred groves, Botanical
steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy Garden, Seed bank, Home garden, Wildlife
Which of the above statements are incorrect ? safari park, Hot spots region, Biosphere reserve
(1) (ii), (iii), (v) (2) (i), (iv) etc.

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(3) (ii), (v) (4) (ii), (iii) (1) Five (2) Six
181. Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the (3) Three (4) Four
following bones? 187. Match the following and choose the correct
(1) Radius option
(2) Tibia
(3) Femur (a) Adipose tissue (i) Nose
(b) Stratified epithelium (ii) Blood
(4) Humerus
(c) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Skin
182. Hypothalamus does not control -
(d) Fluid connective tissue (iv) Fat storage
(1) Thermoregulation
(2) Urge for eating and drinking (1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(3) Produces hormones that regulate the (2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormone
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) Creative thinking and consciousness
183. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of (4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with 188. Length of fallopian tube is about....
: (1) 10 to 12 mm
(1) Isopropanol (2) 10 to 12 cm
(2) Chilled ethanol (3) 10 to 12 inches
(3) Methanol at room temperature (4) 4 to 5 cm
(4) Chilled chloroform 189. In adults, each testis is oval in shape, with a
184. The main lymphoid organ where all blood cells length of about ............. and a width of about
including lymphocytes are produced is : ................
(1) Thymus (1) 2 to 3cm, 4 to 5cm
(2) Bone marrow (2) 4 to 5cm, 2 to 3 cm
(3) Spleen (3) 1 to 3cm, 2 to 4cm
(4) Lymph nodes (4) 4 to 5mm, 2 to 3mm

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190. During inspiration (3) Irreversible inhibition of enzyme is

(1) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscle responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol.
relax. (4) None of the above
(2) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles 196. SA node is pacemaker of heart, why ?
relax. (1) It can change contractile activity generated
(3) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscles by AV node
contract. (2) It delays the transmission of impulse between
the atria and ventricles
(4) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles
contract (3) It gets stimulated when it receive neural signal
191. Read the following statements and identify the (4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic
correct statements: contractile activity of heart
197. Statement I : Erythroblastosis foetalis can be
i. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
avoided by administering Rh antibodies to the
and get selected by nature.
mother immediately after the delivery of first
ii. Some organisms are better adapted to survive child.
in hostile environment.
Statement II: Rh compatibility has been
iii. Adaptive ability is inherited but has no genetic observed between the Rh –ve blood of a
basis. pregnant mother with Rh + ve blood of foetus.
iv. Branching descent and natural selection are (1) Both statement false.
the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of (2) Only statement I is true
evolution. (3) Both statement true
v. Charles Darwin was influenced by the work (4) Statement II is True but Statement I is false.

Date : 18/04/2024
of Thomas Malthus on populations
198. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(1) Hinge joint: between Humerus and Pectoral
(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (ii) and (v) only girdle
192. Bilirubin, biliverdin are (2) Pivot joint : between atlas and axis
(1) Bile components, formed by kidney (3) Gliding joint : between the carpals
(2) Bile salts, formed in liver (4) Saddle joint : between carpals and
(3) Bile pigments, formed in liver metacarpals of thumb
(4) Bile pigments, excreted by lungs 199. Corpora quadrigemina are present on _____
193. Choose the incorrect statement. portion of Mesencephalon (midbrain).
(1) Anterior (2) Dorsal
(1) In trygon air bladder helps in buoyancy
(3) Ventral (4) Lateral
(2) In balanoglossus circulatory system is open.
200. Which one of the following represents a
(3) Echinoderms have endoskeleton of
palindromic sequence in DNA ?
calcareous ossicles.
(4) Protonephridia present in lancelets. 5'-CATTAG-3'
(1)
194. In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is 3'-GATAAC-5'
GAT, TAG, CAT, GAC what shall be the
sequence of its complementary strand
5'-GATACC-3'
(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA (2)
3'-CCTAAG-5'
(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA
(4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG 5'-GAATTC-3'
(3)
195. The mechanism of action of statins is _________. 3'-CTTAAG-5'
(1) Allaosteric inhibition of enzyme is responsible
for the synthesis of cholesterol.
5'-CCAATG-3'
(2) Competitive inhibition of enzyme is (4)
responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol. 3'-GAATCC-5'

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