Class test-1

1. A patient had chest tubes on his right chest which were connected to the water seal, during
ambulation, the tubes got dislodged from the water seal. Which of the following actions by the
nurse would be appropriate?
a. Instruct the patient to cough forcibly several times
b. Asses the lung sound of the patient
C. Place the patient on bed and provide oxygenation
d. Reconnect the tubes to water seal

2. A factor predisposing a person to nosocomial pneumonia is:

a. Oropharyngeal colonization due to mouth breathing
b. Use of nasogastric tube
c. Endotracheal intubation
d. Use of H2 antagonist

3. On the first post-operative day of a patient with abdominal resection procedure has been ordered
opioid for pain relief. Which of the following critical aspects has to be considered before
administration of an opioid injection to prevent respiratory depression?
a. Bowel movements
b. Post-surgical blood loss
c. Level of consciousness
d. Oxygen saturation

4. A patient, with portex tracheostomy tube, develops sudden complete blockage of the tube. Which
of the following is the best intervention to prevent complication?
a. Auscultate for breath sounds
b. Deflate the tracheostomy cuff and supply high flow
c. Suction of tube with normal saline
d. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube

5. The largest volume of air, which can be expelled from the lungs during maximal expiration is
called:
a. Tidal volume
b. Residual volume
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Expiratory reserve volume
6. Which of the following artificial ventilation mode is best suitable for a patient with respiratory
arrest?
a. Continuous positive airway pressure
b. Continuous mandatory ventilation
c. Assistant controlled mandatory ventilation
d. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation

7. The cartilage that completely encircles the larynx with the narrow part anteriorly and the broad
part posteriorly is called:
a. Thyroid cartilage
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Arytenoid cartilage
d. Epiglottis

8. The nutritional management of patient with acute pharyngitis include:

A. Advice for liquid or soft diet
B. Administer IV fluids for hydration
C. Advice to avoid cool beverages and ice cream
d. Advice to drink more fluids.
a. A, B, C b. B, C, D
c. A, C, D d. A, B, C, D

9. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to cure TB. The Primary element of DOTS is:
a. Sputum microscopy services
b. Regular drug supply to the patients
c. Health workers counsel and observe their patients swallow each anti-TB medications and
monitor progress until cured
d. Political will in terms of manpower

10. Which among the following devices assists a critical patient in breathing?
a. Gamco machine
b. Ventilator machine
c. Defibrillator machine
d. Oxygen humidifier
11. Which of the following drug in DOTS therapy can cause deafness?
a. Isoniazid
b. Ethambutol
c.Rifampicin
d. Streptomyciin

12. A client who smokes two packs of cigarettes per day is most at risk postoperatively for?
a. Infection
b. Pneumonia
c. Hypotension
d. Cardiac dysrhythmias

13. How will you check the functioning of the ICD tube?
a. By seeing for continuous air bubbles coming out of the underwater drain
b. By seeing the movement of air water column in the tube during respiration.
c. By taking X-ray chest repeatedly
d. By auscultation

14. Which of the following is a common symptom of lung cancer?

a. Cough or change in a chronic cough
b. Wheezing sound on inspiration
c. Foamy, blood-tinged sputum
d. Dyspnoea on exertion

15. The normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is:

a. 5-10 mm Hg
b. 10-20 mm Hg
c. 20-30 mm Hg
d. 30-40 mm Hg

15. Removal of an entire lung is called as

a. Lobectomy
b. Pneumonectomy
c. Segmental resection
d. Wedge resection
16. When is the best time for the nurse to collect the sputum specimen?
a. In the morning right after the client awakens
b. Immediately after breakfast
c. Two hours after eating
d. Shortly before the patient retires for the evening

17. A thoracentesis was performed on an adult client. After the procedure, the client has hemoptysis
and a pulse of 80, respirations of 28, and temperature of 99°F. Which of these is of greatest concern
to the nurse?
a. Hemoptysis
C. Temperature of 99°F
b. Pulse of 80
d. Respirations of 28

18. An adult man has a tracheostomy tube in place. Which of the following actions is appropriate
for the nurse to take when suctioning the tracheostomy?
a. Use a sterile tube each time and suction for 20 seconds
b. Use sterile technique and turn the suction off as the catheter is introduced
c. Use clean technique and suction for 15 seconds
d. Discard the catheter at the end of every shift

19. Nurse Ramya is suctioning a tracheostomy tube of an adult patient. During the procedure, the
catheter appears to attach to the tracheal wall and creates a pulling sensation. What is the best action
for the nurse to take?
a. Continue suctioning until the obstruction removed
b. Increase the pressure of suction
c. Insert the tube deeper and apply more pressure
d. Release the suction by opening the vent

20. A client comes to the clinic with a bleeding nose. Which of the following instruction to the
client is most appropriate?
a. "Sit up with your head tilted forward. Grasp the soft part of your nose firmly between your
thumb and forefinger"
b. "Lay down and tilt your head backward. Grasp the end of your nose between your fingers"
c. "Sit up and lean backwards. Put pressure on the side of your nose with your hand"
d. "Lay down and tilt your head to one side and put pressure on the side of your nose with
your hand"
21. Which of the following is the priority nursing action during the preoperative period for a client
posted for laryngectomy?
a. Establish a means of communication
b. Prepare the bowel by administering enemas until clear
c. Teach the technique for suctioning a laryngectomy tube
d. Teach the client to use an artificial larynx

22. A 65-year-old male patient with emphysema and acute upper respiratory infection is admitted.
Oxygen is ordered at 2 L/min. The reason for low-flow oxygen is to
a. Compensate for airway resistance
b. Facilitate oxygen diffusion
c. Prevent depression of the respiratory drive
d. Prevent excessive drying of secretions

23. A 52-year-old male client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The
nurse sob that he has neck vein distention and slight peripheral oedema. These signs indicate the
onset of:
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Corpulmonale
c. Left-sided heart failure.
d. Pneumothorax

24. A 65-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal
pneumonia. The client has dyspnoea. The client's temperature is 101°F, respirations are 34, and
pulse is 94. Bed rest is ordered for this client primarily to
a. Decrease metabolic needs
b. Prevent the development of atelectasis
c. Prevent pneumothorax
d. Promote postural drainage

25. An adult patient is scheduled for the tracheostomy. Which of the following nursing action is the
priority for this client?
a. Insert a foley catheter
b. Establish a means of communication
c. Prepare the bowel by administering enemas until clear
d. Start an IV line
26. The priority nursing diagnosis for the client with tracheostomy is
a. Pain related to tracheostomy
b. Risk for infection related to tracheostomy
c. Ineffective airway clearance related to increased trachea-bronchial secretions
d. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to tracheostomy incision

27. Expected colour of the drainage in acute rhinitis is

a Clear
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Greyish

28. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia?
a. Fluid volume deficit
b. Impaired gas exchange
c. Ineffective coping
d. Risk for infection

29. A client is suspected to be suffering from histoplasmosis. Which of the following factor is
associated with the diagnosis of histoplasmosis?
a. He drinks raw cow milk
b. He walks bare footed in field
c. He handles fertilizer frequently
d. He cleans chicken houses.

30. Which of the following drug is prescribed for the treatment of histoplasmosis?
a. Penicillin
b. Chloromycetin
c. Streptomycin
d. Amphotericin B

31. What should the nurse do while preparing the client for thoracentesis?
a. Administer anticholinergics as ordered
b. Keep the patient NPO for six hours
c. Explain the procedure to him
d. Prepare him to go to the operating room
32. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust), for acute airway obstruction, attempts to:
a. Force air out of the lungs
b. Induce emptying of the stomach
c. Put pressure on the apex of the heart
d. All of the above

33. An emergency treatment for an asthmatic attack is:

a. Adrenaline 1:100
b. Adrenaline 1:1000
c. Betamethasone
d. Hydrocortisone

34. Warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity can be treated with

a. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Acetyl cyestine
d. Heparin

35. Which of the following nursing intervention is a priority for a patient with laryngectomy
a. Establish means of communication
b. Monitor for signs of infection
c. Monitor for hoarseness of voice
d. Keep trachea free of secretions

36. The most common early symptom of laryngeal cancer is:

a. Dysphagia
b. Airway obstruction
c. Hoarseness of voice
d. Pneumothorax

37. 1.In what temperature the whole blood is stored in the blood bank?
a) 4 degree Celsius
b) 6 degree Celsius
c) 2 degree Celsius
d) 8 degree Celsius
38. How does the white blood cells are counting in laboratories?
a) Non-automated method
b) Automated method
c) Both option A and B
d) None of these

39. When does the rate of haemolyses of red blood cells are increased?
a) The osmotic fragility is increased
b) The osmotic fragility is decreased
c) The osmotic fragility is constant
d) None of these

40. Which layer of the heart is formed by cardiac muscle fibers and cardiac myocytes?
a) Myocardium
b) Pericardium
c) Both the option A & B
d) Epicardium and septum

41. How does blood pressure is related to blood volume?

a) Inversely proportional to blood volume
b) Directly proportional to blood volume
c) Both option A & B
d) Unrelated

42. What is responsible for the viscosity of the blood?

a) The composition of plasma
b) The total number of cells in the blood
c) The resistance of the cells to deformation and temperature
d) All of the above

43. How does the mean arterial pressure(MAP) help in our body?
a) Helps in the forward movement of blood in the lumen of blood vessels
b) Helps in the backward movement of blood in the lumen of blood vessels
c) Both option A & B
d) Helps to prevent portal hypertension
44. How much the monocytes constitute in total leukocytes?
a) 4 to 10 %
b) 8 to 12 %
c) 2 to 8 %
d) 12 to 24 %

45. Select the correct one-

The red cells transport----?
a) Carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs
b) Oxygen from tissues to the lungs
c) Both option A & B
d) None of these

46. What is formed by carbon dioxide combined with hemoglobin?

a) Carbaminohemoglobin
b) Methemoglobin
c) Carboxyhemoglobin
d) Sulfhemoglobin

47. In which of the following have unidirectional valves that prevent the blood from flowing
backward?
a) arteries
b) veins
c) capillaries
d) all of the above

48. Which is the innermost tissue layer of arteries?

a) smooth muscle
b) connective tissue
c) elastic fibers
d) endothelium

49. Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true?

a) Hormones are transported in the blood
b) All invertebrates have an open circulatory system
c) Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do
d) The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs
50. What is the liquid part of blood after the fibrinogen is removed?
a) plasma
b) lymph
c) serum
d) puss

51. Which tissue layer is common to all blood vessels?

a) circular smooth muscle
b) endothelium
c) longitudinal striated muscle
d) connective tissue

52. When will the Atria begin to contract?

a) just before diastole
b) during diastole
c) right after the systole
d) during the systole

53. How does the water that diffuses out of the blood plasma is returned to the cardiovascular
system?
a) hepatic vein
b) aorta
c) lymphatic system
d) megakaryocytes

54. How much amount of cardiac output goes heart muscles in each minute?
a) 5%
b) 10 %
c) 25%
d) 20%

55. What is the reason for vein possesses a large lumen?

a) tunica media and tunica externa form a single coat
b) tunica interna and tunica media form a single coat
c) tunica media is a thin coat
d) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica externa are thin
56. From which primitive part the sinoatrial node is derived?
a) bundle of His
b) conus arteriosus
c) tricuspid valve
d) sinus venosus

57. What is the correct path through the circulatory system which describes the passage of blood
originating in the left leg?
a. Vena cava → left atrium → right atrium → lungs → left ventricle → right ventricle → aorta
b. Vena cava → right atrium → left atrium → lungs → right ventricle → left ventricle → aorta
c. Vena cava → left atrium → left ventricle → lungs → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta
d. Vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta

58. In terms of being open or closed, what is the state of the mitral and tricuspid valves (left and
right atrioventricular valves, respectively) at the end of the first heart sound?
a. Mitral is closed, tricuspid is open
b. Mitral is open, tricuspid is closed
c. Both are open
d. Both are closed

59. At the instant following the second heart sound, which heart valves are open?
a. Both atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves
b. Semilunar valves only
c. Atrioventricular valves only
d. All valves are closed

60. Rank the following blood vessels in order of their average pressure, from highest to lowest:
artery, vein, arteriole, venule, aorta, capillary.
a. Capillary > arteriole > venule > artery > vein > aorta
b. Aorta > artery > arteriole > capillary > venule > vein
c. Capillary > vein > venule > arteriole > artery > aorta
d. Aorta > arteriole > venule > artery > vein > capillary