DBU- Civil Engineering

1. Which of the following is not a negative impact of transportation?

A. Safety C. Mobility
B. Energy consumption D. Pollution
ANSWER:C
2. Safety criteria of transportation is viewed under
A. Political role of transportation
B. Environmental role of transportation
C. Social role of transportation
D. Behavioral role of transportation
ANSWER:B
3. Gravity model is used in transportation planning for
A. Modal split C. Trip generation
B. Trip distribution D. Trip assignment
ANSWER:C
4. If the design speed is 50km/hr with a reaction time is 2.5sec and coefficient of friction is 0.3
on road ascending gradient of 2% the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way
traffic is
A. 65.5m C. 131m
B. 69.9m D. 139.8
ANSWER:A
5. The provision of traffic signals at intersections
A. Reduces right angle and rear end collisions
B. reduces right angled and rear end collisions
C. increases right angled and rear end collisions
D. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
ANSWER:D
6. Which one is false statement?
A. Volume is the number of vehicles or persons passing a point during a specified time of
period.
B. Capacity is the maximum and repeatable volume of vehicles/travelers that can traverse a
point or short segment during a specified time of period.
C. Demand is the number of vehicles or persons that desire to travel or pass a point during a
specified period also usually one hour.
D. Level of Service (LOS) expresses the performance of a highway at capacity less than
traffic volumes.
ANSWER:D

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

7. Which statement is false about Utility?

A. When time and cost have negative coefficient the utility is bad.
B. When frequency have positive coefficient the utility is good.
C. When time and cost have negative coefficient the utility is good.
D. Utility is used to measure the satisfaction/ happiness of the choice mode.
ANSWER:C
8. Which one is the road cross sectional element?
A. Lane C. Curve radius
B. Tangent length D. Speed
ANSWER:A
9. As a highway Engineer where the side drains are provided in hill roads?
A. Only on the opposite side of hill
B. On both sides of the road
C. Only on the hill side of the road
D. None
ANSWER:C
10. In Parabolic equation of ax^2 +bx +c for vertical curve the value of c is:
A. Equal to the elevation of low point of curve
B. Equal to the elevation of beginning of curve
C. Equal to the elevation of high point of curve
D. Equal to the elevation of end point of curve
ANSWER:B
11. If the design speed on a highway is 60km/h with radius of curve is 150m and coefficient of
friction is 0.15 then the super elevation of the road is
A. 0.15 C. 0.038
B. 0.04 D. 0.07
ANSWER:C
12. Which one is not consider in vertical alignment of a highway?
A. Curve widening C. Design of sag curves
B. Design of gradients D. Sight distance
ANSWER:A
13. Which one of the following is not the effect of grade increment in operation?
A. Reduction in speed C. Increase in emissions and noise
B. Increase in gasoline consumption D. None
ANSWER:D

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

14. Which highway parameter does not affect by Length of vehicle?

A. Pavement thickness C. Minimum radius of turning
B. Extra widening D. Length of horizontal curve
ANSWER:A
15. The number of traffic conflict points is 32 which type of junction or intersection of road?
A. 4-legged intersection C. T-intersection
B. Roundabout D. Y-intersection
ANSWER:A
16. If the super elevation is 0.07 and width of pavement is 7m then the raise of outer edge with
respect to inner edge is ___________
A. 0.47m C. 0.48m
B. 0.49m D. 0.50m
ANSWER:B
17. If the super elevation of the highway provided is zero, then the design speed of highway
having a curve of 200m and coefficient of friction 0.10 is?
A. 40km/h C. 55km/h
B. 50km/h D. 60km/h
ANSWER:B
18. Obligatory points through which the alignment should not pass are __________
A. Religious structure and costly structures
B. Intermediate towns
C. Important cities
D. Important places of worship
ANSWER:A
19. If the overall net amount of earthwork for the entire project from mass haul diagram is
positive, this shows
A. Excess of fill C. Excess of cut
B. Balanced earthwork D. Excess of borrow
ANSWER:C
20. In which of the following circumstance a highway engineer should select shorter Design
Period?
A. For Important roads,
B. If the actual or estimated traffic is higher volume,
C. Roads in difficult location
D. If there is problem in traffic forecasting
ANSWER:D

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

21. Which one of the following is not consider during selection of bitumen binder material in
highway project?
A. Environmental conditions of the project
B. Deformation resistance and potential hardening
C. Water Absorption
D. Good resistance to hardening
ANSWER:C
22. Which one of the following is not true?
A. Ductility is a test used to determine the stretching characteristics of asphalt.
B. As penetration of asphalt cement increases, viscosity increases.
C. To increase workability of asphalt, heating action is performed.
D. Volatile solvents are mixed with asphalt cement to make cutback asphalt
ANSWER:B
23. In general which property of aggregate is suitable for highway construction?
A. Permeable C. Free from dust
B. Thin and elongated D. Hydrophilic (water loving)
ANSWER:C
24. Which one is not true about earth roads?
A. Designed for a very low traffic
B. Used when there is economic limitation
C. The natural sub grade soil can be made to carry the traffic load after clearing and shaping
D. Give all seasonal services so that reshaping after seasonal changes will not require.
ANSWER:D
25. Which one of the following road type has higher quality in relation to passenger and driver
comfort?
A. Flexible pavement C. Rigid pavement
B. Gravel road D. Earth road
ANSWER:A
26. Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates?
A. crushing strength test C. impact test
B. abrasion test D. shape test
ANSWER:C
27. Which one of the following pavement type has higher design life?
A. Flexible pavement C. Rigid pavement
B. Full depth asphalt D. Earth road
ANSWER:C

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

28. In the wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one- third of its
volume. The void ratio of the soil is:
A. 0.25 C. 1.0
B. 0.5 D. 1.5
ANSWER:C
29. The effective size of particles of soil is denoted by
A. D10 C. D30
B. D15 D. D60
ANSWER:A
30. The coefficient of curvature for a well graded soil, must be between
A. 0.5 to 1.0 C. 3.0 to 4.0
B. 1.0 to 3.0 D. 4.0 to 5.0
ANSWER:C
31. The predominant mineral responsible for shrinkage and swelling in black cotton soils is:
A. Illite C. Mica
B. Kaolinite D. Montmorillonite
ANSWER:D
32. The type of boring method that can be used for both rock and soils are
A. shell boring C. auger boring
B. wash boring D. rotary boring
ANSWER:D
33. Liquid limit exists for
A. Sandy soils C. Sandy soils
B. Clayey soils D. Gravelly soils
ANSWER:B
34. For highly fissured clay the best method to find the shear strength is
A. Direct shear test C. Field van shear test
B. Triaxial test with σ3=0 D. Unconfined compression test
ANSWER:A
35. For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended, is
A. Direct shear test C. Unconfined compression test
B. Triaxial compression test D. All the above
ANSWER:C

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

36. Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along

A. Slip plane C. A curved surface
B. A horizontal surface D. All the surfaces
ANSWER:C
37. The compression resulting from a long term static load and consequent escape of pore water,
is known as:
A. Compaction C. Swelling
B. Melting D. Consolidation
ANSWER:D
38. Sample has preserved natural structure of soil.
A. undisturbed C. non-representative
B. disturbed D. remolded
ANSWER:A
39. Which of the following method is adopted for fast boring?
A. cylindrical augers C. rotary boring
B. percussion boring D. Wash boring
ANSWER:D
40. For transport of sample to laboratory, the sample is:
A. wrapped in wax paper C. given disturbance
B. mixed with other samples D. saturated with lime
ANSWER:A
41. The total blow required for the second and third 15 cm of penetration in standard penetration
test is taken as
A. Seating drive C. overburden pressure
B. penetration resistance D. Deilitancy /submergence
ANSWER:A
42. The shear strength of a soil
A. Is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
B. Is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
C. Decreases with increase in normal stress
D. Decreases with decrease in normal stress
ANSWER:D
43. A foundation is said to be shallow if its depth is _____________ its width.
A. greater than C. Unknown
B. less than D. none of the above
ANSWER:B

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

44. Which of the below is not a preliminary consideration for building a foundation?
A. Bearing capacity of soil C. Settlement control
B. Ground water condition D. Soil organisms
ANSWER:D
45. When do strap footings are used in foundation?
A. to transfer load of an isolated column
B. distance between the columns is long
C. two column loads are unequal
D. to avoid combined footing
ANSWER:B
46. When two column loads are unequal, which of the possible footing can be provided?
A. strap footing C. trapezoidal combined footing
B. raft footing D. mat footing
ANSWER:C
47. Local shear failure generally occurs in
A. Dense sand C. loose sand
B. non-cohesive soil D. all of the mentioned
ANSWER:C
48. Which of the following is not one of the criteria, for design of gravity retaining wall?
A. The wall must be thinner in section
B. The wall must be safe against overturning
C. The wall must be safe against sliding
D. No tension should be developed in the wall
ANSWER:A

49. For the design of gravity dam, the minimum value of FS (factor of safety) against sliding
should be
A. 2.0 C. 0.5
B. 1.5 D. 4.0
ANSWER:B
50. The piles that are used for protecting structures from ships and floating object is
A. Anchor piles C. compaction piles
B. Fender piles D. batter piles
ANSWER:C

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

51. When a pile hammer hits the pile, the total driving energy is equal to
A. Weight of hammer times the height of drop
B. weight of the ram time times the height of the stroke
C. sum of the impact of the ram
D. sum of the impact of ram plus the energy delivered by explosion
ANSWER:A
52. The slab is said to be one way slab, if ____________.
A. L/B≤2. C. L<B.
B. L/B>2. D. L/B≥0.
ANSWER:B
53. _______are structural components of the building used to provide flat or useful surfaces.
A. Beams C. Slabs
B. Columns D. Braces
ANSWER:C
54. When the resultant of the load does not coincide with the centroid of the cross-section, the
column is said to be______.
A. Centrically loaded columns. C. Laterally loaded.
B. Eccentrically loaded columns. D. All of the above.
ANSWER:B
55. Which of the following is incorrect about concrete.
A. concrete does not resist any tensile stresses
B. concrete does not resist any Compressive stresses
C. It does not deteriorate with time.
D. It is difficult to demolish in case of repair of modification.
ANSWER:B
56. Which of the following is the oldest and simplest method of design used for reinforced
concrete structures?
A. Working Stress Design Method C. Limit State Design Method
B. Ultimate Strength Design Method D. Unknown
ANSWER:A
57. If the moisture content increases in the concrete, what will happened?
A. it does not change the strength the concrete
B. it reduces the strength the concrete
C. it increases the strength the concrete
D. Unknown
ANSWER:B

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

58. Which of the following is not true about the splicing of bars in concrete structure?
A. Splicing of bars must be provided at max-moment/stress.
B. Bars which are spliced should be staggered
C. Splices are made simply by lapping the bars a sufficient distance to transfer stress by
bond from one bar to the other.
D. The required length of lap for tension is approximately 1.3lb and that for compression is
lb.
ANSWER:A
59. One of the following is not the serviceability limit state
A. Cracking C. Deflection
B. Excessive vibration D. Collapse
ANSWER:D
60. Advantages of partial factor of safety for actions is to cater for errors/inaccuracies due to the
following cases Except:
A. Design assumptions and inaccuracy of calculation
B. Possible unusual load increment
C. c. Unforeseen stress redistributions
D. Constructional accuracy
ANSWER:D
61. Which mode of failure is happened without warning when the concrete reaches its maximum
strength earlier than steel.
A. Over reinforced C. Under reinforced
B. Balanced D. ample warning before failure
ANSWER:A
62. Which failure is acceptable in reinforced concrete structure?
A. balanced failure C. ductile failure
B. brittle failure D. none of the above
ANSWER:C
63. The ultimate design moment to be resisted by the rectangular reinforced concrete beam is
120 kNm. Determine the area of reinforcement required if the beam concrete strength fck=
25 N/mm2 and steel strength fyk= 500 N/mm2 (Take b= 200mm & d =400mm)
A. 818mm2 C. 337mm2
B. 996mm2 D. 167mm2
ANSWER:A
64. The minimum concrete cover sets to satisfy the requirements for:
A. safe transmission of bond forces C. adequate fire resistance
B. durability D. All
ANSWER:D

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

65. Slab can be considered as two way slab when

A. Loads go in to one direction
B. Slabs deflect only in one direction
C. Required main reinforcement will be only in one direction.
D. Main reinforcement is designed in both directions.
ANSWER:D
66. Which one is the Concrete strength test
A. Cube test. C. Yield test.
B. Slump test. D. Jar test.
ANSWER:A
67. Which Load is acting on a structure laterally?
A. Dead load. C. Wind load
B. Live load. D. Gravity Load
ANSWER:C
68. The minimum grade of concrete for designing RCC water tank is __
A. C 20 C. C 25
B. C 15 D. C 30
ANSWER:D
69. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better
A. Volume stability C. Water resistance
B. Strength D. All the above
ANSWER:D
70. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
A. Increasing the depth
B. Providing shear reinforcement
C. Using high strength steel
D. Using thinner bars but more in number
ANSWER:A
71. One of the following is NOT true among the given alternatives.
A. The provided area of steel is always greater than the calculated area of steel.
B. The provided spacing is always greater than the calculated.
C. The required area of steel is always greater than the provided area of steel.
D. The required spacing is always greater than the provided spacing.
ANSWER:B

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

72. One of the following is not influencing factors for selection of dam types
A. Climate
B. Availability of construction materials
C. Topography
D. Social demography
ANSWER:D
73. which of the following is differ from the others based on its construction material
A. Arch Dam C. Buttress Dam
B. Gravity Dam D. Embankment dam
ANSWER:D
74. The overturning of the dam section takes place, if tension is ignored; when
A. the resultant force at any section cuts the base of the dam d/s of the toe
B. the resultant force at any section cuts the base of the dam U/s of the heel
C. the resultant intersects the base within the kern
D. the horizontal forces are more than the resistance.
ANSWER:A
75. A type of embankment dam with a central impervious core covered by a relatively
pervious transition filter which is finally surrounded by a more pervious outer shells is
A. Zoned embankment type C. Diaphragm type
B. Homogenous type D. Rock dam
ANSWER:A
76. In the Earthen dam, The line of saturation/ the upper boundary of the flow line below which
the flow is under hydrostatic pressure is termed as:
A. Water table C. Drainage line
B. Phreatic line D. Piping
ANSWER:A
77. What is the purpose of coffer dam?
A. For discharging surplus water from the reservoir to the downstream channel.
B. A means for conveying water from dam to turbine
C. to prevent the entrance of debris into Intake structure
D. to separate and safeguard the construction area from the water body in a river in order
that the excavation work for a bridge or other structure
ANSWER:D

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DBU- Civil Engineering

78. One of the following is benefit of project scheduling:

A. Project schedule defines project scope of work and shows how the project is to be run.
B. Project schedule signifies a project work plan on time basis.
C. Project schedule identifies critical activities to the management of project by
exceptions.
D. Project schedule provides for measuring progress and evaluating resource
performance.
ANSWER:B
79. In a construction contract, the contractor is not responsible for:
A. Procuring material which is not supplied by the owner
B. Organizing and planning the work as per drawing
C. Executing the work as per specifications laid down in the contract
D. Developing the owner’s program into a complete set of drawings
ANSWER:D
80. Which of the following is NOT a task of project management?
A. Control cost and budgets for a specific project.
B. Brainstorming ideas for new projects.
C. Plan and monitor tasks and resources.
D. Define goals
ANSWER:B
81. You recently took over a project from another project manager. While reviewing the
network diagram, you find that there are four critical paths and three near-critical paths. What
can you conclude about the project?
A. The project will likely be completed on time and within budget
B. The project is at high risk
C. The project will require more people and additional budget
D. The project should be terminated.
ANSWER:B
82. Under which construction project development phase will the owner conduct inspection of
the installed facilities?
A. Project initiation phase C. Project execution phase
B. Project planning phase D. Project commissioning phase
ANSWER:D
83. If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2
days, the expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is
A. 4 days C. 10 days
B. 6 days D. 16 days
ANSWER:D

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

84. How many bags of cement is required for c-25 cement concrete (1:2:3)? (Consider a factor
of 1.5 for dry base analysis and wastage).
A. 8 bags C. 3.6 bags
B. 6 bags D. 9.5 bags
ANSWER:A
85. How many bags of cement is required for plastering 1m2 of 12mm thick wall in 1:4 mortar?
Consider 1.55 factor for dry base analysis.
A. 0.1 bag C. 6 bags
B. 2 bags D. 3 bags
ANSWER:A
86. Which of the following is true about open and closed specification?
A. Closed specifications allow substitutions
B. In open specifications one or more products are specified, but other manufacturers will be
considered
C. Both closed and open specifications prohibit substitutions
D. None
ANSWER:B
87. _________ is the process of preparing/defining a detailed list of all labor and materials
necessary for the work and entering the items on properly dimensioned paper.
A. Taking Off C. Centre line method
B. Bill of Quantity D. none
ANSWER:A
88. What is density of steel?
A. 2400kg/m3 C. 8560kg/m3
B. 7850kg/m3 D. 1400kg/m3
ANSWER:B
89. Which one of the following factors doesn’t affect project cost estimation?
A. Proper management C. Construction scheduling
B. Nature of subsurface condition D. None
ANSWER:D
90. Which one of the following statements is not true?
A. Fascia boards, eaves, skirting shall be measured by length stating girth
B. Steel beams, trusses, columns and purlins, bracings, rails, etc. Shall be measured by
weight (kg),
C. Doors and windows shall be measured by area
D. Concrete pipes shall be measured in length, stating the diameter
ANSWER:C

Model Exam -1
DBU- Civil Engineering

91. In a case where there is a contradiction arises between the drawing and specification in
executing of a specific activity, which one shall govern?
A. Drawing C. Quantity
B. Specification D. Take off sheet
ANSWER:B
92. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as…………………………
A. Very fine sand C. Medium sand
B. Fine sand D. Coarse sand
ANSWER:B
93. What are building materials?
A. Substance that which cannot be utilized in the construction of a structure
B. Substance that is utilized in the construction of a structure and finishing works
C. Substance that is utilized in the manufacturing of construction materials
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER:B
94. Stainless steel materials resist corrosion due to they are covered with
A. Carbon C. Vanadium
B. Steel D. Chromium
ANSWER:D
95. ____ is a mixture of cement, sand, crushed stone and water, which, when placed in
the skeleton of forms and are allowed to cure, becomes harden like a stone?
A. Cement mortar C. Cement concrete
B. Cement grouting D. Cement slurry
ANSWER:C
96. Which of the following constituent in earth gives plasticity and acts as a cementing
material to mold bricks in suitable shape?
A. Silica C. Alumina
B. Lime D. Magnesia
ANSWER:C
97. ___is found in the rift valley and widely used for manufacturing of light weight concrete
block and for the production of Portland Pozzolana Cement.
A. Pumice C. Sandstone
B. Trachyte D. Granite
ANSWER:A

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DBU- Civil Engineering

98. An asphalt concrete mix contains 2240 kg of aggregate and 160 kg of asphalt binder per m3.
Asphalt absorption of the aggregate is 1.3%. The bulk relative density of the aggregates is
2.58, and the relative density of the asphalt is 1.02. Find total asphalt and effective asphalt
content respectively?
A. 29.12% & 5.45% C. 6.67% & 5.45%
B. 6.67% & 29.12% D. 29.12% &130.88%
ANSWER:B
99. Which of the following cement is used for interior and exterior decorative works?
A. Low Heat Cement C. Rapid Hardening Cement
B. High Alumina Cement D. Colored Cement
ANSWER:D
100. What are the basic principles of bituminous stabilization?
A. Waterproofing C. Waterproofing and cohesion
B. Cohesion D. Adhesion
ANSWER:C

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