PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY

NEET MODEL TEST – V JUNE, 2016

1. Planck’s constant has the dimension of
1) linear momentum 2) angular momentum 3) energy 4) power
2. A stone is thrown vertically upwards. When stone is at a height half its maximum height , its speed is
10m/s then the maximum height attained by the stone is (g=10 m/s2)
1)8m 2)10 m 3) 15m 4) 20m
3. A body stats from rest. What is the ratio of the distance travelled by the body during the 4th and 3rd s?
7 5 7 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 7 3 7
-1
4. A projectile is fired from the surface of earth with the velocity of 5 ms at angle θ with the horizontal.
Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms-1 at the same angle follows a trajectory
which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration
due to gravity on the planet is (in ms-2) is (given, g=9.8 ms-2)
1) 3.5 2) 5.9 3) 16.3 4) 110.8
5. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is
1) simple harmonic but not periodic 2) periodic and simple harmonic
3) neither periodic nor simple harmonic 4)periodic but not simple harmonic
6. A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a
stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 ms-1. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of
the man above the floor will be
1) 9.9 m 2) 10.1 3) 10 m 4) 20 m
2
7. A ball of mass 150 g moving with an acceleration 20 m/s is hit by a force, which acts on it for 0.1 s. The
impulsive force is
1) 0.5 N-s 2) 0.1 N-s 3) 0.3 N-s 4) 1.2 N-s
8. A uniform force of (3 î + ˆj ) N acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence, the particle is displaced from
position ( 2iˆ  kˆ ) m to position ( 4iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ ) m. The work done by the force on the particle is
1) 9 J 2) 6 J 3) 13 J 4) 15 J
9. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity
of 2 ms-1. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg m-1. What is the power of the engine?
1) 400 W 2) 200 W 3) 100 W 4) 800 W
10. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from
theedge of the disc and normal to the disc is
1 7 3
1) MR2 2) MR2 3) MR2 4) MR2
2 2 2
11. A solid sphere of radius R is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force F is applied at
height h from the lowest point. For the maximum acceleration of the centre of mass
1) h = R 2) h= 2R
3) h= 0 4) the acceleration will be same whatever h may be
12. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle.
The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball
can be moved?
1) 14 m/s 2) 3 m/s 3) 3.92 m/s 4) 5 m/s
13. The period of revolution of the planet A round the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the sun
is how many times greater than that of B from the sun?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
14. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s mass increases to
twice its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity would become
1) 44.8 km/s 2) 22.4 km/s 3) 11.2 km/s (remain unchanged) 4) 5.6 km/s
15. A black body is at 727C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
1) (727)2 2) (1000)4 3) (1000)2 4) (727)4

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16. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227C and 127C. It absorbs 6 x 104cal of heat
at higher temperature. Amount of converted to work is
1) 2.4 x 104cal 2) 6 x104cal 3) 1.2 x 104cal 4) 4.8 x 104cal
17. Which of the following processes is reversible?
1) Transfer of heat by radiation 2) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
3) Transfer of heat by conduction 4) Isothermal compression
18. Which of the following cylindrical rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material
and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat?
1) r =2r0 ; l =2 l 0 2) r =2 r0 ; l = l0 3) r = r0 ; l = l0 4) r = r0 ; l = 2 l0
19. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which of the following statements is true?
1) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
2) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
3) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region
40 The radiation is emitted only during the day
20. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The
frequency of its oscillation is
1) 3 Hz 2) 2 Hz 3) 4 Hz 4) 1 Hz
21. Two waves approaching each other with a velocity of 20 m/s and frequency n. The distance between two
consecutive nodes is
20 10 5 n
1) 2) 3) 4)
n n n 10
22. A wave frequency 100 Hz is sent along a string towards a fixed end. When this wave travels back after
reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end of the string. The speed of incident
(and reflected ) wave are
1) 5 m/s 2) 10 m/s 3) 20 m/s 4) 40 m/s
23. A stretched string resonates with tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz when length of the string is . 0.5 m. The
length of the string required to vibrate resonantly with a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz would be
1) 0.25 m 2) 0.5 m 3) 1 m 4) 2 m
24. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
1) q Ey2 2) qE2y 3) q Ey 4) q2 Ey
25. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 80 V. The
potential at the centre of the sphere is
1) zero 2) 80 V 3) 800 V 4) 8 V
26. A millivoltmeter of 25 mV range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 A range. The value (in ohm) of
necessary shunt will be
1) 0.001 2) 0.01 3) 1 4) 0.05
27. n resistance each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these
resistance were connected in series, the combination would be have a resistance in ohms, equal to
R R
1) n2 R 2) 2 3) 4) nR
n n
28. A cell has an emf 1.5 V. When connected across an external resistance of 2, the terminal potential
difference falls to 1.0 V. The internal resistance of the cell is
1) 2 2) 1.5 3) 1.0 4) 0.5 
29. A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4 m and resistance 10. It is connected to a cell of emf 2 V.
The potential gradient of the wire is
1) 0.5 V/m 2) 2V/m 3) 5V/m 4) 10 V/m
30. A 5rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When te current is doubled the rise
in temperature will be approximately
1) 16C 2) 10C 3) 20C 4) 12C
31. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). The feilds are
adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by
B2 2VB2 2VE 2 E2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2VE 2 E2 B2 2VB2

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32. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B, the force
on it is non-zero. This implies that
1) angle between v and B is necessarily 90
2) angle between v and B can have any value other than 90
3) angle between v and B can have any value other than zero and 180
4) angle between v and B is either zero or 180
33. Due to the earth’s magnetic field, charged cosmic ray particles
1) can never reach the poles 2) can never reach the equator
3) require less kinetic energy to reach the equator than the poles
4) require greater kinetic energy to reach the equator than the poles
34. Eddy current are produced when
1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field 2) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
3) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field 4) current is passed through a circular coil
35. The time constant of C-R circuit is
1 C R
1) 2) 3) CR 4)
CR R C
36. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
1) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond 2) Mirage on hot summer days
3) Brilliance of diamond 4) Working of optical fibre
o
37. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 A is of the order of
1) 106 rad 2) 102 rad 3) 104 rad 4) 106 rad
38. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index . If c is the speed of light in
vacuum, The time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
tc 1 t
1) tc 2) 3) 4)
 t c
39. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons
emitted per second is
1) 1.72 x 1031 2) 1.327 x 1025 3) 1.327 x 1037 4) 1.327 x 1045
40. When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometre) falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons are
liberated. For another emitter, however, light of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating
photoemission. What is the ratio of the work function of the two emitters?
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 4:1 4) 1:4
Ao
41. Initial activity of a radioactive sample is Ao. It reduces to after 5 years. What will be its activity at the
3
end of 15 years from the start ?
A A A A
1) o 2) o 3) o 4) o
27 18 9 6
42. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (1H2) and helium nucleus (2He4) are 1.1. MeV and 7 MeV
respectively. What is the energy released if two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus ?
1) 25.8 MeV 2) 23.6 MeV 4) 28.0 MeV 4) 4.4 MeV
43. In the common-emitter configuration of a transistor, when the base current changes from 50A to 100A,
the collector current changes from 5mA to 10mA. The current gain is
1) 10 2) 50 3) 100 4) 150
44. The percentage errors in the measurement of length and time period of a simple pendulum are 1% and 2%
respectively. Then the maximum error in the measurement of acceleration due to gravity is
1) 3% 2) 4% 3) 5% 4) 6%
45. An alpha particle and a deuteron moving with the same kinetic energy enter a region of uniform magnetic
field at right angles to the field. The ratio of the radii of the path of alpha particle to that of deuteron is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 1 : 2
CHEMISTRY
46. 6.02 x1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of solution. The concentration of solution is
1)0.02 M 2)0.01 M 3)0.001 M 4)0.1 M
-19
47. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4x10 J. The energy per molecule is
4.0x10-19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be
1) 2.0x10-20 J 2) 2.2x10-19 J 3) 2.0x10-20 J 4) 4.0x10-20 J
48. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
1) The electron deficient molecule can act as Lewis acids
3
 2) The canonical structures have no real existence
3) Every AB5 molecule does infact have square pyramid structure
4) Multiple bonds are always shorter then corresponding single bond
49. The number of antibonding electron pairs in O22 molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbit theory is
(at. No. of O is 8)
1) 5 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
-1
59. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol ) boils at 100.18C at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for
water are1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol-1 respectively , the above solution will freeze at
1) -6.54C 2) 6.54C 3) 0.654C 4) -0.654C
51. Which of the following aqueous solutions has minimum freezing point?
1) 0.01 m NaCl 2) 0.005 m Mgl2 3) 0.005 m C2H5OH 4) 0.005 m MgSO4
52. If ‘a’ stands for edge length of the cubic system :simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic,
then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively,
1 3 1 1 1 1 3 2
1) a : a: a 2) a : 3a : a 3) a : a: a 4) 1a : 3a : 2a
2 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
53. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas?
1) It cannot be converted into a liquid
2) There is no interaction between the molecules
3) All molecule of the gas move with same speed
4) At given temperature, pV is proportional to the amount of the gas
54. A pure crystalline substance on being heated gradually first forms a turbid liquid at constant temperature
and still at higher temperature turbidity completely disappears. The behavior is a characteristic of
substance forming
1)allotropic crystals 2) liquid crystals 3)isomeric crystals 4) isomorphous crystals
55. If the concentration of OH– ions in the reaction,
Fe(OH)3 (s)  Fe3+ (aq) + 3OH– (aq)
Is decreased by 1 4 times, then equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
1) 8 times 2) 16 times 3) 64 times 4) 4 times
56. The following equilibria are given
 2NH3,
N2 + 3H2  K1
 2NO,
N2 + O2  K2
1  H2O,
H2 + O2  K3
2
5  2NO  3H 2 O in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is
The equilibrium constant of the reaction , 2NH3 + O 2 
2
K1K 32 K 2 K 33 KK
1) 2) 3) K1K2K3 4) 1 2
K2 K1 K3
57. For a reversible reaction, if the concentrations of the reactants are doubled, the equilibrium constant will
be
1) one-fourth 2)halved 3)doubled 4) the same
58. The solubility product of AgI in 25C is 1.0x10-16 mol2L-2. The solubility of AgI in 10-4 N solution of KI
at 25C is approximately (in mol L-1)
1)1.0 x 10-10 2) 1.0 x 10-8 3) 1.0 x 10-16 4) 1.0 x 10-12
59. Ionisation constant of CH3COOH is 1.7 x 10-5 and concentration of H+ ions is 3.4 x 10-4. Then, find out
initial concentration of CH3COOH molecules.
1) 3.4 x 10-4 2) 3.4 x 10-3 3) 6.8 x 10-4 4) 6.8 x 10-3
60. The compound whose aqueous solution has the highest pH is
1) NaCl 2) NaHCO3 3) Na2CO3 4) NH4Cl
61. From the following bond energies
H–H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol-1
C=C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol-1
C=C bond energy : 3363.49 kJ mol-1
C–H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol-1

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 Enthalpy for the reaction,
H H H H
C C +H H H C C H
H H H H
Will be
1) 1523.6KJ/mol 2) – 243.6KJ/mol 3) – 120KJ/mol 4) 553.0 KJ/mol
62. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction, Br2 (1)  CI2 (g)  2BrCI(g)
Are 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 JK-1 mol-1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in
equilibrium is
1) 285.7 K 2) 273 K 3) 450 K 4) 300 K
63. For the cell reaction, Cu  (C1, aq) + Zn(s)  Zn (C 2, aq) + Cu(s) of an electrochemical cell, the
2 2

change in free energy [G] at a given temperature is a function of

1)  n (C1) 2) Vn (C2/C1) 3)  n (C2) 4)  n (C1+ C2)
64. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91-1
cm2, respectively. The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is
1) 201.28-1 cm2 2) 390.71-1 cm2 3) 698.28-1 cm2 4) 540.48-1 cm2
65. During dialysis
1) only solvent molecules can diffuse
2) solvent molecules, ions and colloidal particles can diffuse
3) all kinds of particles can diffuse through the semipermeable membrance
4) solvent molecules and ions can diffuse
66. Which of the following metal evolves hydrogen on reacting with cold dilute HNO3?
1) Mg 2) Al 3) Fe 4) Cu
67. The reaction of H2O2 with hydrogen sulphide is an example of…….reaction.
1) addition 2) oxidation 3) reduction 4) acidic
68. Identify the correct order of the size of the following.
1) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2- < Cl- 2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- < S2-
2+ + - 2-
3) Ar < Ca < K < Cl < S 4) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- < S2-
69. Which is the best description of behavior of bromine in the reaction given below?
H2O + Br2  HBr + HOBr
1) Only oxidised 2) Only reduced
3) Both oxidised and reduced 4) Only proton accepted
70. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium
2) Helium is inert gas
3) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases
4) The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium
71. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Strontium decomposes water readily than beryllium
2) BaCO3 melts at a higher temperature than CaCO3
3) Barium hydroxide is more soluble in water than Mg(OH)2
4) Beryllium hydroxide is more basic than barium hydroxide
72. Which of the following may be considered to be an organometallic compound?
1) Nickel tetracarbonyl 2) Chlorophyll 3) K3[Fe(C2O4)3] 4) [Co(en)3]Cl3
73. When (NH4)2 Cr2O7 is heated, the gas evolved is
1) N2 2) NO2 3) O2 4) N2O
74. Shape of Fe ( CO)5 is
1) octahedral 2) square planar 3) trigonal bipyramidal 4) square pyramidal
75. A coordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia
molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound
produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of AgNO3 solution,
we get two moles of AgCl precipitate. The ionic formula for this complex would be
1) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 2) [Co(NH3)5 Cl] [Cl(NO2)]
3) [Co(NH3)4 (NO2) Cl] [(NH3)Cl] 4) [Co(NH3)5] [(NO2)2Cl2]
76. Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All the carbon-carbon
o o
bonds have the same length, less than 1.54 A , but more than 1.34 A . The C–C–C bond angle will be
1) 109028’ 2)1000 3)1800 4)1200
77. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane, C6H14 ?
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Seven

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78. R  CH2  CC 2  R 
Reagent
R  C  C  R . The reagent is
1) Na 2) HC  in H2O 3) KOH in C2H5OH 4) Zn in alcohol
79. Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because
1) sigma electron density of C  H bond in acetylene is nearere to carbon which has 50% s-character.
2) Acetylene has only one hydrogen on each carbon
3) Acetylene contains least number of hydrogens among the possible hydrocarbons having two carbons
4) Acetylene belong to the class of alkynes with molecular formula CnH2n-2
Identify Z in the sequence of reactions, CH3CH2CH  CH2   Y  Z
HBr / H2O2 C 2 H 5 ONa
80.
1) CH3  (CH2 )3  O  CH 2CH3 2) (CH3 )2 CH2  O  CH2CH3
3) CH 3  CH 2  4  O  CH3 4) CH3CH2  CH(CH3 )  O  CH2 CH3
81. (CH3 )2 C  CHCOCH3 can be oxidised to (CH3 )2 C  CHCOOH by
1) chromic acid 2) NaOI 3) Cu at 3000C 4) KMnO4
82. Acetaldehyde reacts with
1) only electrophiles 2) only nucleophiles
3) only free radicals 4) both electrophiles and nucleophiles
83. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H10O2 was treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex so
formed was treated with H2SO4 to give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular
formula
C8H8O which shows positive iodoform test. The structure of (A) is
1) C6H5COOC2H5 2) C6H5COOC6H5
3) H3CCOOC6H5 4) p- H3COC6H4COCH3
84. Consider the following sequence of reactions
Compound  A  
Reduction
  B 
HNO 2
 CH 3CH 2OH; The compound (A) is
1) CH3CH2CN 2) CH3NO2 3) CH3NC 4) CH3CN
85. Alum is used by dyers of cloth
1) For fire - proofing fabrics 2) As first aid for cuts
3) For softening hard water 4) As mordant
86. Receptors as drug targets are proteins that are crucial to body’s communication process. They are embedded
in the
1) Brain 2) Enzyme 3) Skin 4) Cell membrane
87. The common pain killer which causes minute ulcers or bleeding in the stomach, and should not be taken
empty stomach is
1) Aspirin 2) Ibuprofen 3) Naproxen 4) Diclofenac
88. Polymer formation from monomers starts by
1) Condensation reaction between monomers 2) coordinate reaction between monomers
3) conversion of monmer to monomer ions by protons
4) hydrolysis of monomers
89. Nylon threads are made of
1) polyester polymer 2) polyamide polymer
3) polyethylene polymer 4) polyvinyl polymer
90. Which of the following is a polyamide?
1) Bakelite 2) Terylene 3) Nylon – 6, 6 4) Teflon

BIOLOGY
91. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
1) Abscisic acid – Stomatal closure
2) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
3) Cytokinin – Cell division
4) IAA – Cell wall elongation
92. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the
1) proplastids 2) glyoxysomes 3) peroxisomes 4) mitochondria

6
93. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are
1) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
2) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleated and involuntary
3) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleated and involuntary
4) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriated, multinucleated and voluntary
94. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called
1) ionosphere 2) mesosphere 3) stratosphere 4) troposphere
95. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-
chambered fish-like heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and finally to four-chambered stage. To which
hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
1) Hardy-Weinberg law 2) Lamarck’s principle
3) Biogenetic law 4) Mendelian principles
96. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their
nutrition?
1) Azotobacter 2) Aspergillus 3) Glomus 4) Trichoderma
97. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Centriole 1. Infoldings in mitochondria
B. Chlorophyll 2. Thylakoids
C. Cristae 3. Nucleic acids
D. Ribozymes 4. Basal body of cilia or flagella
Codes
A B C D
1) 4 2 1 3
2) 1 2 4 3
3) 1 3 2 4
4) 4 3 1 2
98. Which one of the following condition in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal
abnormality/linkage?
1) Klinefelter’s syndrome– 44 autosomes + XXY 2) Colour blindness– Y-linked
3) Erythroblastosis foetalis– X-linked 4) Down syndrome– 44 autosomes + XO
99. In crop improvement programme, haploids are important because they
1) require one half of nutrients 2) are helpful in study of meiosis
3) grow better under adverse conditions 4) form perfect homozygous
100. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
1) apple 2) banana 3) tomato 4) potato
101. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in
the following chain?
Plant Mice Snake Peacock
1) 0.02 J 2) 0.002 J 3) 0.2 J 4) 0.0002 J
102. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?
1) Morchella esculenta 2) Amanita muscaria 3) Neurospora sp 4) Ustilago sp
103. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Animal Morphological features
(i) Crocodile – Four-chambered heart
(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia
(iii) Obelia – Metagenesis
(iv) Lemur – Thecodont
1) (i), (iii) and (iv) 2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 3) Only (i) and (iv) 4) Only (i) and(ii)
104. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is
1) Spirulina 2) Anabaena 3) Frankia 4) Tolypothrix
105. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
1) above 30dB 2) above 20dB 3) above 100dB 4) above 120dB

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106. Global warming can be controlled by
1) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel
2) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel
3) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population
4) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage
107. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of
1) phospholipids and oligosaccharides
2) phospholipids and hemicelluloses
3) phospholipids and intergral proteins
4) phospholipids, extrinsic protein and intrinsic proteins
108. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed by the 2nd law of thermodynamics.
The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is
1) 5% 2) 10% 3) 25% 4) 50%
109. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics?
1) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by Selman Waksman in 1942
2) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Flemming
3) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ
4) Some person can be allergic to a particular antibiotic
110. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing
1) independent gametophyte 2) well developed vascular system
3) archegonia 4) flagellate spermatozoids
111. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
1) oxygen removal 2) nodule differentiation
3) expression of nif gene 4) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
112. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
1) T – DNA 2) BAC and YAC
3) Expression vectors 4) T/A cloning vectors
113. A person who is an a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
1) more sodium in his urine 2) less amino acids in his urine
3) more glucose in his blood 4) less urea in his urine
114. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta Americana.
1) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of
longitudinal connectives
2) Male bear a pair of short thread-like anal styles
3) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present are the junction of midgut and hindgut
4) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
115. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
1) fructose phosphatase 2) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
3) phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase 4) ribulose phosphate kinase
116. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
1) Earthworm – The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard
and intestine
2) Frog – Body divisible into three regions–head, neck and trunk
3) Rat – Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
4) Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
117. In Krebs’ cycle FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of
1) succinyl Co-A to succinic acid 2) -ketoglutarate to succinyl Co-A
3) succinic acid to fumaric acid 4) fumaric acid to malic acid
118. Transformation was discovered by
1) Meselson and Stahl 2) Hershey and Chase 3) Griffith 4) Watson and Crick
119. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
1) nematodes 2) fungi 3) viruses 4) insects
120. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a substrate and its particular digestive enzyme?
1) Maltose – Maltase 2) Lactose – Rennin
3) Starch – Steapsin 4) Casein – Chymotrypsin

8
121. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
1) show association between algae and fungi 2) grow faster than others
3) are sensitive to SO2 4) florish in SO2 rich environment
122. A plant of F1-generation has genotype ‘AABbCC’. On selfing of this plant, the phenotypic ratio in F2-
generation will be
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
123. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is
1) cork cambium 2) vascular cambium 3) endodermis 4) pericycle
124. The translation termination triplet is
1) UAU 2) UAA 3) UAC 4) UGC
125. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in
1) Homo neanderthalensis 2) Homo erectus
3) Ramapithecus 4) Homo habilis
126. The given figure is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given
options correctly identifies its certain components(s)?

1) ori-original restriction enzyme 2) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

3) Hind III, Eco RI-selected markers 4) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
127. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called
1) looping 2) inducing 3) slicing 4) splicing
128. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Sea-fan (Gorgonia)
3) Saccharomyces 4) Blue-green algae
129. Reverse transcriptase is
1) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
130. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
1) neutrophils and eosinophils 2) lymphocytes and macrophages
3) eosinophils and lymphocytes 4) neutrophils and monocytes
131. What is true for cyanobacteria?
1) Oxygenic with nitrogenase 2) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
3) Non-oxygenic with nitrogenase 4) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
132. A and B genes are linked. What shall be the genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?
1) AAbb and aabb 2) AaBb and aabb 3) AABB and aabb 4) None of these
133. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in
1) Lemna 2) tobacco 3) cotton 4) Petunia
134. Species restricted to a given area are called
1) endemic 2) sibling 3) sympatric 4) allopartic
135. Assertion (A) Periplaneta, Americana is noucturnal, omnivorous, household pest. Reason (R) It is because
it acts as scavenger.
1) A is true, but R is false
2) A is false, but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
4) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
136. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in human?
1) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi
2) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
3) Workers in grinding and stone breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
4) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin

9
137. During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is
denoted as 2C?
1) G0 and G1 2) G1 and S 3) Only G2 4) G2 and M
138. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
1) carry blood away from the heart to different organs
2) break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
3) carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organs
4) supply oxygenated blood to the different
139. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correct?
Genus name Two characters Phylum
(a) Pila (i) Body segmented Mollusca
(ii) Mouth with Radula
(b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinned Echinodermata
(ii) Water vascular system
(c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing Porifera
(ii) Canal system
(d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages Arthropoda
(ii) Chitinous exoskeleton

140. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
which part of the nephron?
1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle 2) Distal convoluted tubule
3) Proximal convoluted tubule 4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
141. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of
humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been correctly identified?

1) C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbrise, E-Cervix

2) D-Oviducal funnel, E-Uterus, F- Cervix
3) A-Perimetrium, B-Myometrium, C-Fallopian tube
4) B-Endometrium, C-infundibulum, D-Fimbriae
142. A person with unknow blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and
needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers
for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of donor friend?
1) Type AB 2) Type O 3) Type A 4) Type B
143. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin-A deficiency?
1) Flavr savr tomoto 2) Canolla 3) Golden rice 4) Bt brinjal
144. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in
1) actinin 2) troponin 3) myosin 4) actin
145. Respiratory quotient (RQ) for fatty acis is
1) > 1 2) < 1 3) 1 4) 0
146. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function
Source gland Hormone Function
(a) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates resorption of water in the distal
tubules in the nephron
(b) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
(c) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
(d) Anterioe pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth

10
147. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is
1) rock 2) fossils 3) sea water 4) animal bones
148. The human hindbrain comprises three parts, one of which is
1) spinal cord 2) corpus callosum 3) cerebellum 4) hypothalamus
149. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and
substrate concentration).
What do the two axis (X and Y) represent?
X-axis Y-axis Y-axis
1) Temperature –Enzyme activity
2) Substrate concentration – Enzymatic activity
3) Enzymatic activity – Temperature X-axis
4) Enzymatic activity – pH
150. Identify the possible link ‘A’ in the following food chain
PlantInsectFrog’A’ Eagle
1) Rabbit 2) Wolf 3) Cobra 4) Parrot
151. Select the wrong statement.
1) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behavior
2) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function and behavior
3) In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile
4) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
152. Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to
1) their genetic constitution 2) effevt of hormones
3) change of turgor pressure in guard cells 4) pressure of gases inside the leaves
153. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
1) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a proronemal and leafy stage
2) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
3) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophyte
4) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophyte
154. Which one of the following is correct match?
1) Reserpine – Tranquiliser
2) Cocain – Opiatic narcotic
3) Morphine – Hallucinogenic
4) Bhang – Analgesic
155. As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one
molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants
1) 2 2) 6 3) 12 4) zero
156. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in
1) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes 2) bile duct and oesophagus
3) Fallopian tubes and urethra 4) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
157. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
1) T-lymphocytes 2) B- lymphocytes 3) thrombocytes 4) erythrocytes
158. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
1) Melthane and CO2 only 2) Melthane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2
3) Melthane, hydrogen sulphide and O2 4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
159. Which one of the following correctly describe the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?
1)Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 segments
2) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7 segments
3) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments
4) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments
160. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structure
will you use to distinguish between the two?
1) Secondary xylem 2) Secondary phloem 3) Protoxylem 4) Cortical cells

11
161. When one glucose molecule is completely oxidized, it changes
1) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecule
2) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecule
3) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecule
4) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecule
162. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
1) X-ray crystallography 2) electron microscope
3) ultracentrifuge 4) light microscope
163. Which one of the following pair is mismatched?
1) Biomass burning–Release of CO2 2) Fossil fuel burning– Release of CO2
3) Nuclear power–radioactive wastes 4) Solar energy–Greenhouse effect
164. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are an example of
1) analogous organs 2) adaptive radiation
3) homologous organs 4) convergent evolution
165. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with
1) Green revolution 2) Yellow revolution 3) White revolution 4) Blue revolution
166. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic
morphological feature?
Animals Morphological Feature
1) Liver fluke, sea anemone, sea cucumber – Bilateral symmetry
2) Centipede, prawn, sea urchin – Jointed appendages
3) Scorpin, spider, cockroach – Ventral solid central nervous system
4) Cockroach, locust, Taenia – Metameric segmentation
167. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of
1) mouth parts/colour 2) sitting posture 3) antennae/wings 4) feeding habits
168. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gas takes place. In which one
of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function.

1) A– Alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases

2) D – Capillary wall – exchange of gases takes place here
3) B – Red blood cell – transport of mainly haemoglobin
4) C – Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues
169. Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
1) Bradyrhizobium 2) Clostridium 3) Frankia 4) Azorhizobium
170. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires
1) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2 2) 2 ATP and 2NADPH2
3)3 ATP and 2NADPH2 4) 2ATP and 1NADPH2
171. Perisperm differs from endosperm in
1) being a haploid tissues 2) having no reserve food
3) being a diploid tissues
4) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
172. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hr day and 12 hr night period cycles and it flowered while in the other
set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which one of the
following categories will you place this plant?
1) Long-day 2) Darkness neutral 3) Day neutral 4) Short-day
173. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1) Transcription–Writing information from DNA to tRNA
2) Translation–Using information in mRNA to make protein
3) Repressor protein–Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
4) Operon– Structural genes, operator and promoter

12
174. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case Bhopal gas tragedy?
1) Thousands of human being died
2) Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal
3) It took place in the night of December 23, 1984
4) Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took place
175. Site of respiration in bacteria is
1) episome 2) ribosome 3) microsome 4) mesosomes
176. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric, pancreatic and bile secretions are controlled by hormones
1) gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and cholecystokinin
2) enterogasterone, gastrin, pancreozymin and cholecystokinin
3) gastrin, enterogasterone, cholecystokinin and pancreozymin
4) secretin, enterogasterone, gastrin, and enterokinin
177. Which of the following is a simplest amino acid ?
1) alanine 2) aspartic acid 3) glynine 4) tyrosine
178. Given below are four matching of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ
1) silver fish – trachea
2) scorpion – book lung
3) sea squirt – pharyngeal gills
4) dolphin –skin
The correct matching are
1) 1 and 4 2) 3 and 4 3) 1 and 4 4) 2 and 3
179. Vivipary is
1) seed germination with subterranean cotyledons
2) seed germination with epiterranean cotyledons
3) fruit development without pollination
4) seed germination inside the fruit while attached to the plant
180. One of the representative of Phylum–Arthropoda is
1) cuttle fish 2) silver fish 3) puffer fish 4) flying fish

Boscoss, III & IV Floor, ESSEL Centre, Near PVS Circle, Mangalore-3, Ph: 0824-4272728, 9972458537/NEET-2016

13
 PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY
NEET MODEL TEST – V JUNE, 2016
SOLUTION

1. (2)
Energy(E)  ML2 T 2 
 h =
E
E = h  h = Planck’s constant = = =  ML2 T 1 
frequency()   T 1 

Angular momentum = Moment of inertia x angular velocity  I  mr 2  or L = I   = mr2 

 L =  M  L2  T 1  =  ML2 T 1 

2. (2)
u2 H H (10) 2 100
Maximum height attained by the stone H   , u  10m / s  or H   10m
2g 2 2 2g 10
3. (1)
a 8
Distance travelled by the body in nth is given by s n  u  (2n  1) Here u=0  for 4th s,s 4  (2  4  1)
2 2
8 s 4 (2  4  1) 7
And for 3th s1s3  (2  3  1) . Hence,  
2 s3 (2  3  1) 5
4. (1)
The trajectory of a projectile projected at some angle  with the horizontal direction from ground is given
gx 2
by y  x tan   2
2u cos 2 
g 9.8 g1 9.8  9
For equal trajectories for same angle of projection. 2
= constant  2
 2  g1   3.5ms 2
u 5 3 25
5. (4)
In a circular motion, particle repeats its motion after equal intervals of time. So, particle motion its nolion on
a circular path is periodic but not simple harmonic as it does not excute to and fro motion about a fixed
point.
6. (2)
As, mr = constant
mr 0.5 10
m1r1 = m2r2  r2 = 1 1 = = 0.1 So, distance travelled by the man will be 10 + 0.1=10.1 m
m2 50
7. (1)
Impulse of a force, which is the product of average force during impact and the time for, which the impact
lasts is measured by the total change in linear momentum produced during the impact.
Impulse I = Fav  t = P2-P1
150 150
Here, Mass  150g  kg  F   20  3N  I  F.t = 3  0.1 = 0.3 N–s
1000 1000
8. (1)
Given, force F = 3 î + ĵ
r1 = 2( î + k̂ ) m and r2 = (4 î + 3 ĵ – k̂ ) m  s = r2 – r1 = (4 î + 3 ĵ – k̂ ) – (2 î + k̂ ) = (2 î + 3 ĵ – 2 k̂ ) m
W = F.s = (3 î + ĵ )  ( 2 î + 3 ĵ – 2 k̂ ) = 3  2 + 3 + 0 = 6 + 3 = 9 J
9. (4)
Given, Velocity of water v = 2 m/s
Mass per unit length of water in the pipe = 100kg/m
m 3
So, power = (mass per unit length of water in pipe)   3 =   = 100  2  2  2 = 800 W
l

14
10. (4)
Moment of inertia of disc passing through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to its plane is
1 A C 1 3
I AB  MR 2 ICD  I AB  MR 2  MR 2  MR 2  MR 2
2 2 2
 R

11. (4) B D
F
The linear acceleration of centre of mass will be a  wherever the force is applied. Hence, the
m'
acceleration will be same whatever the value of h may be.
12. (1)
For a ball to move in horizontal circle, the ball should satisfy the condition
M2max Tmax R
Tension in the string = Centripetal force  Tmax =  max = ….(i)
R M
25 1.96
Making substitution, we obtain max =  196  14m / s
0.25
13. (2)
According to Kepler’s third law T2  r3
T 2 r3
Where, T = Time period of revolution r = Semi major axis   A2  A3
TB rB
23
r T  3
2
=  8
23
 A   A  2 3  4 or rA  4rB
rB  TB 
14. (2)
2GM e
Escape velocity on the earth’s surface is given by ves 
Re
Where, G is gravitational constant, Me and Re are the mass and radius of the earth respectively.
v 'es M e' R e R
By taking the ratios of two different cases    ' But M 'e = 2 M e and R 'e = e
v es Me R e 2

v'es 2M e R
ves = 11.2 km/s.    e  4  2  v'es  2ves  2 11.2  22.4km / s
ves Me R e 2
15. (2)
According to Stefan’s law, E  T4 or E = T4
Where,  is constant of proportionality and called Stefan’s constant. It value is 5.67  10-8 Wm-2K-4
Here, E  (727=273)4  E  (1000)4
16. (3)
Q T
According to the Carnot cycle in heat engine 2  2
Q1 T1
Given, heat absorbed, Q1 = 6  10 cal, Temperature of source, T1  227  273  500K
4

Q2 400
Temperature of sink, T2  127  273  400K    Heat rejected,
6 10 4
500
4
Q2   6  104  4.8  104 cal
5
Now, heat converted to work W  Q1  Q 2  6.0 104  4.8 104  1.2  104 cal
17. (4)
Isothermal compression is reversible, for example-Carnot cycle, Heat engine.
18. (2)
Q T T  r2
As from law of heat transfer through conduction H   KA  1 2   H 
t  l  l
It is obvious that heat conduction will be more in case(2)

15
19. (3)
The heat radiation emitted by the human body is the infrared radiation. Their wavelength is of the order of
7.9  10-7 m to 10-3 m which is of course the range of infrared region.
20. (4)
V
Maximum speed of a particle executing SHM is given by, Vmax  a  a(2n)  n  max
2a
Where, a= amplitude of oscillation n = frequency of oscillation
Here, Vmax = 31.4 cm/s, a = 5 cm
31.4
Substituting, the given values, we have n   1 Hz
2  3.14  5
21. (2)

Distance between two successive nodes 
2
 v
N A N But we know that, v   = 
2 2
/2
 20 10
Given, v = 20 m/s Frequency, = n So,  
2 2n n
22. (3)
As fixed end is a node, therefore distance between two consecutive nodes

=  10 cm (  = Wavelength of wave sent)   = 20 cm = 0.2 m
2
As we know, v   (v = velocity of wave,  = frequency of wave)  V = 100  0.2 = 20 m/s
23. (3)
1 T
The frequency of fundamental note of the stretched string is given by     …(i)
2L   
Where, T is tension in string and  is mass per unit length of the string.
1
From Eq. (i)  (As string is same so  will be same)
L
1 L 2
For two different case  
2 L1
512 L 2
Here, 1 = 512 Hz, L1 = 0.5 m 2 = 256 Hz, L2 = ?  L2 = 0.5  2 = 1 m
256 0.5
24. (3)
Electric force on charged particle is given by F = qE
Kinetic energy attained by particle = work done = force  displacement = qE  y
25. (2)
26. (1)
25mV
The full scale deflection current ig  A
G
Where, G is the resistance of the meter. The value of shunt required for converting it into ammeter of range
ig G G 25mV G 25mV
25 A is S   S  ig (as i >> ig) So that, S    0.001
i  ig i G i 25
27. (1)
1 1 1 n
Equivalent resistance of n resistance each of r ohm in parallel is given by    ......  n times 
R r r r
So, r = nR
When these resistance are connected in series, effective resistance is
R’ = r +r +……+ n times = nr  R’ = n(nR) = n2R
28. (3)
 E V 
Internal resistance of the cell is given by r   R
 V 
 1.5  1.0 
Given, E = 1.5 V, V = 1.0 V, R  2  r     2  1
 1.0 
16
29. (1)
Potential applied V
Potential g radient   k
Length of wire l
2
Given, V = 2V, l  4m k   0.5 V/m
4
30. (3)
ms  i 2 Rt
Since m ,s, R, t remains constant. So,  ≈ i 2 Rt
2
 2 i22 i 
So, for two different cases  or  2   2  1 …. (i)
1 i12  i1 
2
  2i 
Given, i2  2i1, 1  5 C So, from Eq. (i) ,   2   1   5 = 4  5 = 20C
 i1 
31. (4)
As the electron beam is not deflected, then Fm = Feor
E
Bev = Ee or v  ….(i)
B
1 2eV
According to law of conservation of energy, mv 2  eV o r v  ….(ii)
2 m
2eV E e E2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have  or 
m B m 2VB2
32. (3)
When charged particle q is moving in a uniform magnetic field B with velocity v such that angle between
v and B is  , then the charge q experiences a force which is given by F = q(v  B) = qvB sin 
If  = 00 or 180o , then sin  = 0  F = qvB sin  = 0
Since, force on charged particle is non-zero, so angle between v and B can have any value other than 0o and
180o .
33. (4)
Earth’s magnetic field at poles is vertical (perpendicular to the earth’s surface) and horizontal (parallel to
the earth’s surface) at equator.
Cosmic rays are positively charged particle and its velocity is parallel to the earth’s magnetic field. So, no
magnetic force acts on cosmic ray particles coming at poles, i.e. force (F) = qvB sin 
At poles angle between v and B is  = 0o So, F = 0 At equator  = 90o, So, force = qvB sin 90o = qvB
This force is maximum and deflects the particle sideways.
Here, only high energy particle can reach the equator.
34. (1)
35. (3)
V q V q q it
Alternative as R  and C   RC     t   RC   t   T 
i V i V i i
36. (1)
Real and apparent depth are explained on the basis of refraction only. The concept of TIR is not involved
here.
37. (4)
1.22 1.22  5000 1010
Angular resolution of telescope is given by   2
 6.1106 ≈ 10-6 rad
d 10 10
38. (4)
Here, total thickness = t Refractive index = 
c speed ' of ' light ' in ' vacuum 
Speed of light in glass plate =
 v  refractive ' index ' of ' medium 
 
t t
 Time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass 
c c

 
17
39. (1)
Power of radio transmitter = 10 kW = 10000 W
Operating frequency of transmitter = 880 kHz = 880  103 Hz
P P
Number of photons emitted per second n  
E h
4
10
= 34
 h  6.63 1034 J  s  = 1.72  1031
3 
6.63 10  880 10
40. (2)
hc
Work function of a metal is Wo  h or Wo 
o
Wo 1 2 600
Considering the two situation work function is given by    2
Wo 2 1 300
41. (1)
Initial activity = A0
A0
Activity after 5 years =
3
A0
Activity after 10 years = 3  A0
3 9
A0
Activity after 15 years = 9  A0
3 27
42. (2)
Energy released = (4  7 – 2  2  1.1) = 23.6 MeV
43. (3)
I (10  5)  10 3
 C   100
I B 100  50   10 6
44. (3)
  g  T
T  2 or g = 42 2   2
g T g  T
g
%  1%  2  2%  5%
g
45. (4)
mv 2mK r m q d 4 1 2 1
r         
qB qB rd md q  2 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY
46. (2)
Given, number of molecules of urea = 6.02x1020
6.02 10 20
 Number of moles = 6.02 10 =
20

NA 6.023  1023 = 1  10-3 mol

100
Volume of the solution = 100 mL = L = 0.1 L
1000
1 103
-1
Concentration of urea solution (in mol L ) = mol L-1 = 1  10-2 mol L-1 = 0.001 mol L-1
0.1

47. (1)
Kinetic eneegy (KE) of molecule= energy absorbed by molecule – bond energy per molecule
= (4.4  10-19) - (4.0  10-19)J = 0.4  10-19 J
0.4 1019
KE per atom = J = 2.0  10-20 J
2
48. (3)
Generally, AB5 molecules have trigonal bipyramidal structure due to sp3 d
Hybridisation but in some cases due to presence of lone pair of electrons, its geometry becomes distorted.
18
49. (3)
Total number of electrons in O22- = 16+2=18 According to MOT, the configuration of O22- is
* * *
1s 2 , 1s 2 , 2s 2 ,  2s 2 , 2p x 2 , 2p 2 y  2p z 2 ,  2p y 2   2p z 2
So, the number of antibonding electrone pairs = 4
50. (4)
According to depression of freezing point, Tf = kf  molality of solution
Tf k f
According to elevation of boiling point, Tb = kb  molality of solution or 
Tb k b
Given that, Tb = T2 – T1 = 100.18 – 100 = 0.18
Tf 1.86
Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1  
0.18 0.512
Kb for water = 0.512 kkg/mol
1.86  0.18
Tf =  0.6539  0.654
0.512
Tf = T1 – T2
0.654 = 0C – T2  T2 = – 0.654C (T2  freezing point of aqueous urea solution)
51. (1)
0.01 molal NaC  solution have minimum freezing point because its molality is more and it gives two ions
after dissociation of one molecule.
52. (1)
a
If a = edge length of cubic systems, For simple cubic structure, radius =
2
3
For body centred cubic structure, radius = a
4
a
For face centred cubic structure, radius =
2 2
1 3 1
Hence, the ratio of radii = a: a: a
2 4 2 2
53. (3)
A gas is collection of tiny particles separated from one another by large empty space and moving rapidly at
random, they collide with one another and also with the walls of the container. Due to frequent collisions,
speeds and direction of motion of molecules keeps on changing. Thus, all the molecules in a sample of a
gas do not have same speeds.
54. (2)
Such type of phenomenon is only exhibited by liquid crystals.
55. (3)
Fe(OH)3 (s)  Fe3 (aq)  3OH (aq)
3
 Fe3   OH  
K
 Fe  OH 3 
To maintain equilibrium constant, let the concentration of Fe3+ is increased x times, on decreasing the
1
concentration of OH- by times
4
3

 xFe    OH  
3 1
K 4 
 Fe  OH 3 
1
From Eqs (i) and (ii)  x 1
64
X = 64 times

19
56. (2)
For equilibrium,
 2NH3 (g), K1  [NH 3 ]2
(i) N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g) 
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3

 [NO]2
(ii) N 2 (g)  O 2 (g)  2NO(g), K 2 
[N 2 ][O 2 ]
1  H 2 O(g), K 3  [H 2 O] 1 ……………(iii)
(iii) H 2 (g)  O 2 (g) 
2 [H 2 ][O 2 ] 2
5  [NO]2 [H 2 O]3
For the reaction, 2NH3 (g)  O 2 (g)  2NO(g)  3H 2 O(g)K  ……. (iv)
2 [NH 3 ]2 [O 2 ]5/ 2
3 [H 2O]3
 3H 2 O then, K 33 
Eq. (iii) multiplied by 3 3H 2  O2 (g)  ……. (v)
2 [H 2 ]3[O 2 ]3/ 2
K 2  K 33
From. (i), (ii) and (v) K 
K1
57. (4)
Consider a hypothetical change,
AB CD

For this reaction, K eq 

 C D 
 A  B
For the above reaction if concentration of reactants are doubled then the rate of forward reaction increases
for a short time but after sometime equilibrium will established, So concentration has no effect on
equilibrium constant. It remains unchanged after increasing the concentration of reactants.
58. (4)
AgI  Ag   I
For binary Electrolyte
Ksp = S2
Where, S = solubility in mol/L
1.0 × 10-16 = S2
or S = 1  10–8  10–4
Solubility of Agl in KI solution = 1  10–8  10–4 = 1  10–12 mol/L
59. (4)
CH3COOH   CH3COO– + H+ CH3COOH is weakacid, so in it [CH3COOH] is equal to

[CH 3COO  ][H  ]

Ka  initial concentration. Hence ,
[CH 3COOH]
3.4  104  3.4 10 4
Given that, 1.7  10 5   [CH3COOH] = 6.8  10–3
[CH 3COOH]
[CH3COO ]  [H  ]  3.4 104 M
Ka for CH3COOH = 1.7  10–5
60. (3)
The hydrolysis of NaCl gives neutral solution because it is salt of strong acid and strong base and hence, its
pH is 7. NH4Cl is salt of weak base and strong acid, so its pH is less than 7. NaHCO3 is also acidic whereas
Na2CO3 is salt of strong base and weak acid, so its pH is more than 7.
61. (3)
H H H H
C C +H H H C C H
H H H H
Hreaction   BE (reactant)   BE (product) ,[BE  bond energy]
H r  [4  BE (C H)  1 BE (C C)  1 BE (H H) ]
–[6  BE(c – H) + 1 BE (c –c)] = (4  410.50 + 1  606.10 + 1  431.37)
– [(6  410.50) + (1 + 336.49)] = – 120.0 KJ mol–1

20
62. (2)
63. (2)
 G = – nFEo
For concentration cell,
From Nernst equation,
RT C1
E  E ocell  In
nF C2
E ocell  0.00V
 RT C2
E In
nF C1
RT C2
E In
nF C1
C2 > C1
RT C2
E In (R, T n and F are constant)
nF C1
C
Therefore, Eo is based upon in 2
C1
RT C2 C
G = –nFEo  nF  In   RT In 2
nF C1 C1
64. (2)
By Kohlraushch’s law
 for NaCl  Na  Cl ……… (i)
 for HCl  H   Cl ……. (i)
 for C2 H5COONa     C2 H5COO  ……… (iii)
Na
So,  for C2 H5COOH
On adding Eqs. (ii) and (iii) and then subtracting Eq. (i)
 for C2 H5COONa    C2 of HCl   for NaCl = (91 + 426.16 – 126.45) –1 cm2 = 390.71 –1 cm2
65. (4)
The principle of dialysis is based upon the fact that colloidal particles cannot pass through a parchment or
cellophane membrane while the ions of the electrolyte can pass through it.
66. (1)
Magnesium react with cold and dilute nitric acid to form hydrogen.
Mg + 2HNO3  Mg(NO3) + H2
67. (2)
When H2O2 is reacted with hydrogen sulphide (H2S), it form S and water. In this reaction H2S is oxidized
to sulphur. H2O2 act as oxidizing agent. H2O2 + H2S  S + 2H2O
68. (2)
A cation hs always the lesser ionic size than a metal atom due to loss of electrons and anion has always the
greater size than metal atom due to gain of electrons. So, the correct order of size is as
Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
69. (3)
In the reaction
0 1 1
H 2 O  Br2  HO Br  H Br
The oxidation number of bromine increases from 0 to + 1 and decreases from 0 to –1 due to this reason
bromine is both oxidized as well reduced in the above reaction.
70. (4)
The amount of noble gases present in atmosphere (in percent by) is given below.
Element Abundance
(Volume %)
He 5.24  10–4
Ne 1.82  10–3
Ar 0.934
Kr 1.14  10–3
Xe 8.7  10–6
So, again is most abundant, not helium.

21
71. (4)
The size of beryllium is very small and the hydroxide formed by it, are amphoteric in nature, so its
hydroxide is less basic than barium hydroxide
72. (2)
Chorophyll may be considered to be an organometallic compound because it contain metal carbon bond.
73. (1)
When ammonium dichromate is heated, it form nitrogen gas, Cr2O3 an water.

(NH4)2 Cr2O7   Cr2O3 + 4H2O + N2
74. (3)
In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-atom is in dsp3 hybridised state therefore the shape of molecule is trigonal bipyramidal.
The bybridisation is as follows.
2 2 6 2 6 6 2 0
26Fe = 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s 4p
In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-atom is
       

3d 4s 4p
3
dsp hybridised
CO CO

CO Fe

CO
CO
75. (1)
The complex gives three ions in aqueous solution.
 The complex should be [CO(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
It will give three ions on dissociation as follows:
[Co(NH 3 )5 NO 2 ]Cl2  [Co(NH3 )5 NO 2 ]2 + + 2Cl- (Counter ion)
1 mol 2mol

2Cl + 2AgNO3  2AgCl + 2NO

- -
3
Silver ppt

76. (4)
In aromatic system all the carbon and hydrogen atoms are present in one plane and all C–C bond lengths
are same due to resonance and all carbon atoms have sp2 hybridisation, so the bond angle is 120
77. (2)
Hexane (C6H14) has five chain isomers and these are
(i) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
(ii) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3
CH3
CH3
(iii) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3
(iv) CH3 CH CH CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
(v) CH3 CH2 C CH3
CH3
78. (3)
Dehydrohalogenation reaction
Cl
C 2H 5OH + KOH KOH + C 2H 5OH
RCH2 C R RCH C R R C C R
-KCl - H 2O -KCl, -H2O
Cl Cl
In presence of ethanolic KOH substrate gives elimination reaction.
79. (1)
Acidic character of alkynes can be explained on the basis of sp-hybridisation state of the carbon atom in
alkynes. We know that electron in s orbit is more tightly held than in a p orbital because s-electrons are
more closer to the nucleus. In sp-hybridisation, s-character is more (50%) as compared tp sp2 –(33%) or
22
 sp3 –(25%) hybrid orbitals. Due to very large s-character, the nucleus and are quite electronegative.
Consequently, the electron pair of H – C  bond gets displaced more towards the carbon atom and help in
the release of H+ ions.
For a examples ethyne react with sodium metal and realise the H+ ions.
- +
CH CH + Na HC C Na
80. (1)
CH3CH 2CH  CH 2  C2H5ONa
Anti  Markkonwikoff 's rule
 CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2 Br  CH 2 
 Bromo  butanane (1o product)
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br 
C 2 H 5 ONa
s N 2 reaction
(Williamson 's synthesis)
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OC 2 H5
Ethoxy  butane

81. (2)
Haloform reaction
O
(CH3)2C CHCOCH3 contains H3C C unit it can be oxidized to (CH3)2 C CH COOH by NaOl
O
NaOI
CH3 C CH C CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH COOH + CHI3
CH3
82. (2)
The carbonyl group is highly reactive polar group. It is polarised due to the higher electronegetivity of
oxygen in comparison to carbon. As a result, the electrons present between carbon and xoigen are more
attracted towards oxygen atom. The actual structure may be represented as
C O or  
C O

Consequently, the carbonyl carbon is positively charged while the oxygen is negatively charged.
The positively charged carbon is easily attacked by a nucleophilic reagent [Nu–]
-
- Show O
C O + Nu C
Aldehyde or ketone
Nu
Intermediate

Sp2 hybridization planar structure

+ OH
H
fast C
Nu
Addition product
83. (3)

84. (4)
85. (4)
Alum is used as mordant since it contains metal ions.
86. (4)
Receptors proteins are embedded in cell membrane with active site projecting out of the surface.
87. (1)
Aspirin is absorbed from gastro intenstinal tract where it is hydrolysed to salicyclic acid causing ulcers and
bleeding in the stomach.
88. (1)
Polymerisation starts either by condensation or addition reactions between monomers

89. (2)
Nylon is a polyamide polymer
90. (3)
Nylon is a general name for all synthetic fibres forming polymides

23
BIOLOGY
91. (2)
92. (2)
Glyoxysomes are microbodies in the cells.
93. (1)
94. (3)
95. (3)
Biogonetic law states that ontogeny recapitualates phylogeny.
96. (3)
Glomus as endomy corrhiza helps the plants in the absorption of nutrients especially phosphorus from soil.
97. (1)
98. (1)
99. (4)
100. (3)
101. (1)
According to 10% law of energy flow by Raynold Lindeman peacock will receive 0.02J of energy.
Plant  20J, Mice  20  10% = 2J. Snake  2 10% = 0.2J
Peacock  0.2  10% = 0.02 J
102. (2)
Arnanita muscaria is a fungus which is known for its hallicinogenic properties.
103. (1)
104. (2)
105. (2)
Noice pollution is measured in decibels. WHO recommends an industrial noice limit of 75 dB. Noice
pollution above 20 dB is hazardous.
106. (1)
107. (4)
108. (2)
109. (3)
110. (2)
111. (1)
Leghaemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger.
112. (2)
YAC and BAC are used in human genome sequencing. BAC is a DNA construct used for transforming and
cloning in bacterial (E.coli) and YAC are genetically engineered chromosomes derived from the DNA of
the yeast.
113. (4)
114. (2)
115. (3)
116. (4)
117. (3)
118. (3)
119. (1)
The nesnatode Meloidogne incognitia which causes root rot of tobacco is silenced by RNA interference to
produce resistant plants.
120. (1)
121. (3)
24
122. (1)
There is only one heterozygous allelic pair ‘Bb’, so the cross would behave as a monohybrid cross with
phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
AABbCC  AABBCC F1 generation

ABC AbC ABC AbC gamets

ABC AbC
ABC AABBC AABbcC F2 generation
AABbCC AbbCC
AbC
Phenotyphic ratio 3 : 1
123. (1)
124. (2)
125. (1)
The cranial capacity of Homo neanderthalensis was about 1450C.C, nearly similar to modern man.
126. (4)
127. (4)
128. (2)
Sea fan (Gorgonia) is an animal belongs to cnidaria and lacks a cell wall.
129. (1)
130. (3)
131. (1)
Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen with the help of enzyme nitrogenase and show oxygenic
photosynthetic also.
132. (2)
Linked genes occur on the same chromosome and do not separate during inheritance
ABab abab
 
AB, ab ab ab

o ab ab
AB O+ AaBb AbBC
aabb aabb
ab
Genotype is AaBb and aabb
133. (2)
134. (1)
135. (1)
136. (3)
137. (4)
138. (1)
139. (1)
140. (3)
141. (1)
142. (2)
Blood group ‘O’ has no antigen but with both types of antibodies ‘a’ and ‘b’.
143. (3)
144. (3)
Myosin has actin binding protein and also has ATPase (an enzyme) and that helps is muscle contraction.

25
145. (2)
Fatty acids have less number of oxygen molecules and requires more oxygen for complete oxidation. So the
RQ is always < 1.
146. (1)
147. (1)
148. (3)
149. (1)
150. (3)
151. (3)
In Oomycetes formale gamete is larger and non motile (static) and male gamete is smaller and motile.
152. (3)
Origin of seed habit was traced in Selaginilla, a hetersporous pteridophyte.
153. (4)
154. (1)
155. (3)
In C4 plants evry CO2 molecule has to be fixed twice. So they need more energy for the systhesis of hexose
sugar molecule. C3 plants require 18 ATP to fix one molecule of CO2 while 30 ATP are required by C4
plants for the same. So C4 plants require 12 ATP molecules extra than C3 plants for the synthesis of one
molecule of glucose.
156. (1)
157. (1)
158. (2)
159. (4)
160. (3)
161. (2)
162. (1)
163. (3)
164. (3)
165. (1)
166. (3)
167. (2)
In the sitting posture culax has horizontal abdomen and in anopheles it is with an angle.
168. (1)
169. (3)
170. (3)
171. (2)
Endosperon is with reserve food but is perisperm reserve food is absent.
172. (4)
173. (1)
Transcription is writing information from DNA to mRNA.
174. (2)
175. (4)
176. (2)
177. (3)
178. (4)
Respiratory organs in Dolpin are lungs.
179. (4)
Plant Rhizophora show vivipary where the seeds germinate within the fruit, when the fruit is still attached to
the plant.
180. (2)
*********
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26