SITUATION – The following questions pertain to wall loads

1. What is the minimum thickness of load bearing CHB available in the Philippines?
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm
2. What is a horizontal structural member in a framed wall that provide lateral support to the
wall panel?
a. Purlin
b. Lintel beam
c. Stud
d. Girt
3. The maximum spacing between stiffener columns on ordinary CHB wall is meters.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
4. The minimum thickness of CHB wall for a 1-hour fire rating as per code is .
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm
5. Stiffener beam is required for CHB if the wall height exceeds meters.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

SITUATION – The following questions pertain to beams, slabs and loads. Using figure 13-A: These are the
different types of slabs. Identify the correct figures.

1. Which is a composite slab?

a. Figure C
b. Figure B
c. Figure A
d. Figure D
2. Which is a post-tensioned slab?
a. Figure D
b. Figure C
c. Figure B
d. Figure E
3. Which is a precast slab?
a. Figure A
b. Figure C
c. Figure D
 d. Figure E
4. Which is a 1-way ribbed slab?
a. Figure A
b. Figure E
c. Figure B
d. Figure C
5. Which is a 1-way slab and beam?
a. Figure A
b. Figure E
c. Figure B
d. Figure C

SITUATION – The following questions pertains to concrete construction

1. When is the most important period of curing concrete for it to improve strength and durability?
a. First 3 days
b. First one week
c. First two weeks
d. Entire period of curing
2. When using control joints on slab on grade, what is the depth of cut for a 4” thick concrete slab?
a. 1”
b. 2”
c. 3”
d. 4”
3. What comprises as much as 60% - 80% of a typical concrete mix to reduce cost?
a. Sand
 b. Cement
c. Aggregate
d. Water
4. What is a good replacement for steel rebars on a large area of slab on grade if ready
mix concrete is used?
a. Welded wire
b. Pozzolan mixture
c. Fiber polymer
d. Concrete admixture
5. Durability and strength improve in concrete mix when water to cement ratio is .
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Moderate

SITUATION – the following questions pertains to soils, foundation and loads. These are different types of
footings. Choose the best answer to the question given.

1. What is a continuous footing that supports an entire heavy structure and reduces settlements
on weak soil?
a. Strip footing
b. Continuous footing
c. Mat footing
d. Pad footing
2. What is often used on a sloping site where the foundation follows the slope without too
much excavation?
a. Stepped footing
b. Strip footing
c. Raft footing
d. Sloping footing
3. What is a continuous strip of concrete supporting a continuous wall carrying a uniformly
distributed load?
a. Beam footing
b. Raft footing
c. Cellular footing
d. Strip footing
4. What footing is designed when ground bearing capacity is low and heavy columns are closely
spaced?
a. Isolated footing
b. Mat footing
c. Strip footing
d. Pad footing
5. Which footing is design to support two parallel columns?
a. Combined footing
b. Frame footing
 c. Strap footing
d. Cellular footing

SITUATION – The following questions pertains to structural system, building and structural code. Using
Figure 10-A: Study the figures and select the best answer to the questions.

1. Which figure uses the diagrid structural technology?

a. Figure E
b. Figure D
c. Figure C
d. Figure B
2. Which figure uses glass curtain wall technology?
a. Figure A
b. Figure E
c. Figure C
d. Figure D
3. Which figure uses steel frame and sandwich panel system?
a. Figure A
b. Figure D
c. Figure B
d. Figure C
4. Which technology started during International style period?
a. Figure B
b. Figure D
c. Figure E
d. Figure C
5. Which technology will be suitable for large building spaces?
a. Figure D
b. Figure E
c. Figure C
d. Figure B
SITUATION – The following questions pertains to steel construction

1. Which type of building will benefit the most from steel construction?
a. Health facilities
b. Office building
c. Sports facilities
d. Storage facilities
2. What is the primary disadvantage of steel as a building material?
a. Corrosion
b. Earthquake resistant
c. Expensive
d. Availability
3. When specifying fireproofing for steel, which materials are the most expensive?
a. Poured concrete
b. Metal lath with plaster
c. Cementitious spray-on
d. Gypsum board
4. Which is a major Philippines steel construction company?
a. EEI corporation
b. Megawide Construction Corporation
c. Amsteel Structures Inc.
d. Steel Asia Corporation
5. Who should be responsible for structural steel design?
a. Steel fabricator
 b. Civil Engineer
c. General contractor
d. Design architect

SITUATION – The following questions are pertaining general questions.

1. What is the item W4 x 13 stand for in structural steel design?

a. W flange, 4 inches height and 13 inches wide
b. W section, 4 inches wide and 13 inches height
c. Steel flange, weighing 4 pounds and 13 inches height
d. Wide flange, 4 inches height and weighing 13 pounds per foot
2. What do you call an I-beam used for steel column?
a. I-column
b. Universal column
c. Wide flange column
d. Web beam
3. Which part of the I-beam section in structural steel resists shear forces? FLANGES RESIST
MOMENT
a. Web
b. Middle part
c. End part
d. Flange
4. If I-beam structural steel have equal or near equal width and depth, they are more suited as
.
a. Columns
b. Joists
c. Beams
d. Girders
5. Which structural steel beam is excellent for resisting twisting and warping under
torsional loading?
a. Wide flange beam
b. I- beam
c. Z-shaped beam
d. Box beam
6. What is the minimum day of curing/breaking of cylinder for compressive strength test?
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 14 days
d. 28 days
7. An admixture that speeds up the early strength development of concrete.
a. Accelerator
b. Retarder
c. Hardener
d. Softener
8. It is used to stop/reduce penetration of moisture through the concrete
 a. Paint
b. Damp proofer
c. Epoxy
d. Waterproofing
9. What aggregate size is best for the ground floor slab?
a. ¾ inches
b. ½ inches
c. 1 ½ inches
d. 2 inches
10. What is not a part of a roof truss?
a. Gusset plate
b. Chord
c. Web
d. Fastener
11. In site construction, backfilling material is estimated by?
a. Truck load
b. Cubic meter
c. Per sack
d. Per kilo
12. Local manufacturer of prestressed bars.
a. Benedicto Steel Group
b. Pag-asa Steel
c. Asia Steel
d. Unisteel
13. A heavy horizontal timber at the bottom of the frame of a wood structure.
a. Sill plate
b. Sole plate
c. Fire stop
d. Termite shield
14. What is not required in a roof system?
a. Sag rod
b. Camber
c. Truss rod
d. Queen post
15. Horizontal spacing of rebars for firewall.
a. Every 2 layers
b. Every 3 layers
c. Every 4 layers
d. Every 5 layers
16. Which of the following is the correct order of removal of formworks? WALLS, COLUMNS &
BEAM SIDINGS, SLAB, BEAM
a. Beam soffit, beam siding, columns, slab soffit
b. Beam siding, columns, beam soffit, slab soffit
c. Columns, beam siding, beam soffit, slab soffit
 d. Slab soffit, columns, beam siding, beam soffit
17. Period of time for the removal of formworks for beam sidings. 3 DAYS SLAB SOFFIT
a. 2 days (1-2)
b. 7 days BEAM SOFFIT
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
18. Refers to long, light gauge materials of various shapes and a non-strucutral metal attachment
that is used to hold a finish material and a method of supporting one layer of material over
another, or holding insulation or other construction items between materials.
a. Drywall
b. Steel frame
c. Steel deck
d. Metal furring
19. What is the minimum compressive strength for a class a concrete mixture?
a. 2000 psi
b. 2500 psi
c. 3000 psi
d. 3500 psi
20. What is the area in square meters of the trapezoid concrete pavement if its dimensions are
15 meters and 10 meters length parallel to each other and depth is 8 meters perpendicular to
its length with a thickness of 4”?
a. 120
b. 80
c. 140
d. 100
21. What is the volume in cubic meters of the trapezoid concrete pavement if its dimensions are
15 meters and 10 meters length parallel to each other and depth is 8 meters perpendicular to
its length with a thickness of 4”?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
22. How many bags of 43kg cement are required for the trapezoid concrete pavement if its
dimensions are 15 meters and 10 meters length parallel to each other and depth is 8
meters perpendicular to its length with a thickness of 4” and using class C concrete mix
ratio?
a. 44
b. 55
c. 66
d. 77
23. How many cubic meters of sand are required for the trapezoid concrete pavement if its
dimensions are 15 meters and 10 meters length parallel to each other and depth is 8
meters perpendicular to its length with a thickness of 4” and using class C concrete mix
ratio?
a. 4
b. 5
 c. 6
d. 7
24. How many cubic meters of gravel are required for the trapezoid concrete pavement if its
dimensions are 15 meters and 10 meters length parallel to each other and depth is 8
meters perpendicular to its length with a thickness of 4” and using class C concrete mix ratio
a. 7
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13

SITUATION – The following questions pertain to structural conceptualization of project 4, 4 storey

commercial building.

1. What is the minimum concrete cover in millimeters for reinforcing steel of slabs on grade?
a. 19
b. 25
c. 38
d. 50
2. Stripping of forms and shores for foundation should be after hours.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
3. Soil boring test must have a minimum depth of meters,
a. 1.5
b. 1.8
c. 2
d. 3
4. For every clear span of 4.0 meters, reinforced concrete beam should have a camber of at least
millimeters. SEE DPWH GUIDELINES (4.50 METERS)
a. 4.5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
5. Foundations should not rest on .
a. Driven pile
b. Natural grade
c. Bored pile
d. Earth fill

SITUATION – The following questions pertain to structural conceptualization of project 6, fastrip logistics
center.

1. What is the general term for duration that a construction material can withstand the effect
of standard fire test?
a. Flame rejection rating
 b. Heat absorbing rating
c. Fire resistant rating
d. Heat resistant test
2. What is the minimum concrete cover in millimeters for reinforcing bars of walls above grade?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 18
3. What is the minimum concrete cover in millimeters for reinforcing bars of walls above grade?
a. 19
b. 25
c. 38
d. 50
4. What is the maximum slump for concrete in beams and slabs in millimeters?
a. 50
b. 75 (SLAB)
c. 100 (BEAMS, REINFORCED WALLS & COLUMNS)
d. 150
5. What is the common size of reinforcing bars for both vertical and horizontal in CHB walls
in millimeters?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 18

SITUATION – The following questions pertain to structural conceptualization of project 1, two (2) level
single detached house.

1. What is the minimum thickness of a concrete footing millimeters?

a. 100
b. 150
c. 250
d. 300
2. What is the minimum depth of footing below the surface of the ground floor?
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 600
3. What is the design load in kilograms per square meters at the ground floor?
a. 150
b. 200
c. 250
d. 300
4. What is the design load in kilograms per square meters at the second floor?
a. 150
 b. 200
c. 250
d. 300
5. What is the least wind load in kilograms per square meters for vertical projection for the roof?
a. 100
b. 120
c. 150
d. 200

SITUATION – The following questions pertain to structural conceptualization of project 3, 4 storey

apartment building with roof top.

1. What is the most common type of cement that is in general use?

a. Pozzoland
b. High alumina
c. Sulfate
d. Portland
2. Which cement type has very high rate of strength development versus other type?
a. Blast furnace
b. High alumina
c. Portland
d. Pozzoland
3. Which cement type has very high rate of strength development versus other type?
a. High alumina
b. Blast furnace
c. Ordinary
d. Portland pozzoland
4. Crushed stone, crushed gravel or natural gravel with particles retained on a 5mm sieve is a
aggregate.
a. Big
b. Fine
c. Small
d. Coarse
5. Which is not a requirement for concrete mixture
a. Strength
b. Economy
c. Durability
d. Flexibility

SITUATION – The following questions are pertaining general questions.

1. What is indicated in figure below?

a. S-purlin
b. Inverted purlin
c. Channel
d. Zee purlin
2. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Z channel
b. Cee channel
c. Zee channel
d. Inverted zee channel
3. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Metal mesh
b. Perforated metal
c. Expanded metal mesh
d. V-mesh
4. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Expanded metal mesh
b. V-mesh
c. Chicken wire mesh
d. Barbed wire
5. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Welded wire mesh
b. Chicken wire
c. Metal mesh
d. Barbed mesh
6. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Blue tube
b. Round tube
c. Tubular
d. Sheet pipe
7. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Wood frame nail plate
b. Truss frame plate
c. Truss gang nail
d. Liquid nail
8. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Camber
b. Post tensioning anchor
c. Beam anchor
d. Anchor system
9. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Three way slab
b. Two way slab
c. One way slab
d. Frame system
10. What is indicated in the figure below? EIFS EXTERIOR INSULATION FINISHING SYSTEM
a. Curtain wall
b. Double layer glass
c. Metal cladding
d. Curtane wall

11. What is indicated in the figure below? I BEAM

a. T-flange
b. Wide flange
c. Wide beam
d. C-beam
12. What is indicated in the figure below?
a. Waffle slab
b. Slab waffle
c. Flat slab
d. Two way precast slab
13. What is indicated in the figure below? PRATT TRUSS
a. Truss bracing
b. Howe truss
c. King post truss
d. Warren truss

14. What is indicated in the figure below?

a. Truss bracing
b. Pettit truss
c. King post truss
d. Warren truss
15. What steel section is commonly used for skylight installation?
a. Tubular HSS
b. Angular
c. Channel
d. Flange
16. What is the minimum day of curing/breaking of cylinder for compressive strength test?
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
17. The figure below is best used for?
a. Beam
b. Walls
c. Girder
d. Truss
18. Where would you normally use the figure below?
a. Beam
b. Bridges
c. Column
d. Slab

19. What do you call the popular local supplier of steel?

a. Steel Asia
b. Phil Steel
c. Supra Steel
d. International Steel
20. What is the diameter of rebars that you would use for firewall and perimeter wall of
the building?
a. 10 mm
b. 12 mm
c. 16 mm
d. 20 mm
21. What is the minimum diameter for rebars of stirrups?
a. 10 mm
 b. 12 mm
c. 16 mm
d. 20 mm
22. At the ground floor of a building with an area of 22 m x 20 m and a thickness of 4 inches for
its slab, how many truckloads of sand would you use? (12 CUM/TRUCK)
a. 4
b. 5
c. 9
d. 10
23. It is a local major supplier of long span roofing and steel decking?
a. Dwightsteel
b. Cumbro Steel
c. Supra Steel
d. EM Steel
24. The figure shown below consists of parallel chords and a triangular web system is called?
a. Open web steel joist
b. Open deck truss
c. Flat truss
d. Joist truss
25. What is the most cost effective roofing?
a. Longspan
b. GI roof
c. Color roof
d. Shingles
26. What steel section is commonly used for exposed structures?
a. Tubular
b. Angular
c. Channel
d. Flange
27. For a 10 cu.m. slab, class A concrete mix, how many bags of cement will you use?
a. 76 bags
b. 80 bags
c. 90 bags
d. 95 bags
28. What is the ratio of the concrete mix used for the slab?
a. 1:1½:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:2½:5
d. 1:3:6
29. A concrete mixture of 1:2½:5 is classified as?
a. Class AA
b. Class A
c. Class B
d. Class C
30. What is the strength of 1:2½:5?
a. 2500 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
d. 4000 psi
31. A mixture of cement used for beam has a strength of .
a. 2500 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
d. 4000 psi
32. How many truckloads of ready-mix concrete is needed for a 40 m x 50 m second floor
slab considering 150 mm slab thickness? (10 CUM/TRUCK)
a. 20 loads
b. 25 loads
c. 30 loads
d. 50 loads
33. Where would you use the figure below?
a. Truss
b. Girder
 c. Studs
d. Joists

34. The figure below is normally used for?

a. Steel truss
b. Timber truss
c. Metal beam
d. Metal brace
35. The figure below is normally used for?
a. Wood frame nail plate
b. Nailer
c. Connector
d. Bracing

36. Identify 2, in the figure below. ROOF COVERING

a. Longspan roof
b. Metal roof
c. GI roof
d. Clay tile roof
37. Identify 3, in the figure below.
a. Truss
b. Insulation
c. Walls
d. Metals
38. Identify 6, in the figure below. CRANE
a. Hook
b. Crane hanger
c. Snap hang
d. Scrap hanger
39. What is a paste of cement, sand and water laid between bricks, blocks or stones?
a. Concrete
b. Plaster
c. Mortar
d. Grout
40. Based on ASTM, #3 bar is .
a. 8 mm dia
b. 10 mm dia
c. 12 mm dia
d. 16 mm dia
41. Column that raises/supports a mass of a structure above the ground?
a. Pier
b. Stilts (IF BUILDING ABOVE THE GROUND)
c. Posts
d. Piles
42. Long column is designed for?
a. Buckling
b. Crushing
 c. Elongation
d. Hardness
43. Advantage of steel over concrete.
a. Rigidity
b. Elasticity
c. Thermal insulation
d. Hardness
44. Concrete estimate of class B concrete.
a. 1:1½:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:2½:5
d. 1:3:6
45. What is class AA water cement ratio?
a. 1:1½:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:2½:5
d. 1:3:6
46. What is the purpose of stirrups in a beam aside from carrying and resisting load?
a. To resist shrinkage
b. To hold longitudinal bars in place
c. To resist flexure
d. NOTA
47. Figure 1, drawing 1: What part of the truss is being indicated?
a. Top chord
b. Web
c. Ridge
d. NOTA
48. Figure 1, drawing 2: What part of the truss is being indicated?
a. Top chord
b. Bottom chord
c. Ridge
d. Web
49. Figure 1, drawing 3: What part of the truss is being indicated?
a. Top chord
b. Web
c. Ridge
d. Bottom chord
50. What is a method of prestressing in which tendons are tensioned before concrete is placed?
a. Pre-tensioning
b. Post-tensioning
c. Precasting
d. Prefabrication
51. What is a short steel bar extending from one concrete element to another as for instance
a concrete foundation to a concrete column, Iit may or may not transfer direct stress?
a. Corbel
b. Temperature bars
c. Stirrups
d. Dowel
52. What is the vertical or horizontal face in a concrete structure where concreting has
been stopped and continued later?
a. Expansion joint
b. Construction joint
c. Control joint
d. Thermal expansion
53. What is a web found in a structural member?
a. Rafter
b. Roof truss
c. Purlin
d. Batten
54. What foundation presents the most disturbance & potential damage to neighboring lots?
a. Bored piles
b. Isolated footing
c. Sheet pile
d. Footing with tie beams
55. Ready mix concrete should be tested at .
a. Site
b. Office
c. Plant
d. ASTM
56. Your client asks you to erect a commercial building on what used to be a rice field. On what
soil must the foundation rest?
a. Soft
b. Medium
 c. Hard
d. Very hard
57. What happens to newly placed concrete in the beam, slab or column if it is not
properly vibrated?
a. Honeycomb
b. Slow to harden
c. The concrete will strengthen
d. Ugly surface
58. Water used for concrete mix?
a. Clean water
b. Distilled water
c. Potable water
d. Hot water
59. What should be the size of a column at the ground floor if it has a span of 8 meters?
a. 0.50 m x 0.50 m
b. 0.70 m x 0.70 m
c. 1.20 m x 1.20 m
d. 1.60 m x 1.60 m
60. What type of foundation should be used so that the construction would not affect the
adjacent structures?
a. Pile/caisson
b. Sheet pile
c. Strip footing
d. Bed rock
61. Which of the following structural elements can be erected along a side or rear property line
if the property is resting on relatively flat terrain?
a. Firewalls and perimeter walls
b. End wall
c. Retaining wall
d. Zocalo wall
62. The minimum thickness of one way slab unless deflections are computed if simply supported is
.
a. L/10
b. L/20
c. L/24
d. L/28
63. What is the elastic movement of loaded parts of a structure?
a. Strain (BODY)
b. Deflection
c. Stress
d. Settlement
64. What is the most important determinant of concrete strength?
a. Water
b. Sand
 c. Gravel
d. Cement
65. What wall is used to protect different levels?
a. Retaining wall
b. Tie beam
c. Cantilever wall
d. Deep wall
66. Class a is not recommended for .
a. Beam and girder
b. Pathwalk
c. Slab on fill
d. Suspended slab
67. What is the strength of class B concrete?
a. 2500 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
d. 4000 psi
68. A concrete mixture of 1:3:6 is classified as?
a. Class AA
b. Class A
c. Class B
d. Class C
69. A concrete mixture of 1:2:4 has a strength of .
a. 2500 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
d. 4000 psi
70. What would be the minimum size of reinforcing bars for a wall of 3-meter height?
a. 8 mm dia
b. 10 mm dia
c. 12 mm dia
d. 16 mm dia
71. What would be the minimum size of reinforcing bars for a footing?
a. 10 mm dia
b. 12 mm dia
c. 16 mm dia
d. 20 mm dia
72. What would be the minimum size of reinforcing bars for columns?
a. 10 mm dia
b. 12 mm dia
c. 16 mm dia
d. 20 mm dia
73. What would be the minimum size of reinforcing bars for slab on fill?
a. 10 mm dia
 b. 12 mm dia
c. 16 mm dia
d. 20 mm dia
74. What would be the minimum size of reinforcing bars for ties?
a. 10 mm dia
b. 12 mm dia
c. 16 mm dia
d. 20 mm dia
75. What would be the camber of a 4 meters beam?
a. 10 mm
b. 12 mm MIN
c. 16 mm MAX
d. 20 mm
76. What would be the size of reinforcing bars for 8 inches CHB?
a. 10 mm dia
b. 12 mm dia
c. 16 mm dia
d. 20 mm dia
77. What would be the minimum thickness of a footing?
a. 110 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 250 mm
d. 300 mm
78. What would be the minimum thickness of CHB for non-load bearing walls?
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 300 mm
79. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?
a. Slump test
b. Compression test
c. Tensile test
d. Concrete test
80. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or combination thereof,
in preparation for a finish surface such as paving?
a. Cut & fill
b. Grading
c. Site preparation
d. Benching
81. A structural system with an essentially complete space frame providing support for
gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or brace frames.
a. Bearing wall system
b. Building frame system
c. Building system
 d. Moment resisting frame system
82. It is the effect on the structure due to extreme lateral motions acting in directions other than
parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration.
a. Orthogonal effect
b. P-delta effect
c. Centroidal effect
d. Centrifugal effect
83. The ratio of longitudinal stress to strain within elastic limit is known as:
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Shear modulus of elasticity
c. Bulk modulus of elasticity
d. Tangent modulus of elasticity
84. The part of a beam that is thickened or deepened to develop greater moment resistance.
The efficiency of a beam can be increased by shaping its length in response to the moment
and shear values which typically vary along its longitudinal axis.
a. Effective length
b. Fixed-end beam
c. Haunch
d. Clear span
85. A net resultant of shear forces that acts vertically upward on the left part of the structure
being considered.
a. Positive shear
b. Negative shear
c. Positive moment
d. Negative moment
86. A net resultant of shear forces that acts vertically downward on the left part of the structure
being considered.
a. Positive shear
b. Negative shear
c. Positive moment
d. Negative moment
87. The tendency of a force to produce rotation of a body about a point or line, equal in
magnitude to the product of the force and the moment arm and acting in a clockwise or
counterclockwise direction.
a. Moment center
b. Moment arm
c. Positive moment
d. Moment
88. A continuous or strip footing that changes levels in stages to accommodate a sloping site
or bearing stratum.
a. Raft
b. Stepped footing
c. Cantilever footing
d. Combined footing
89. The continuous spread footing of a foundation wall.
a. Isolated footing
b. Strip footing
c. Continuous footing
d. Combined footing
90. The hard, pointed or rounded foot of a pile or caisson for piercing underlying soil. Also
called driver shoe.
a. Mandrel
b. Shoe
c. Anvil
d. Head pile
91. A cast in place concrete foundation formed by boring with a large auger or excavating by hand a
shat in the earth to a suitable bearing stratum and filling the shaft with concrete.
a. Mandrel
b. Caisson
c. Sand pile
d. Pier
92. A rigid frame connected to its supports with fixed joint. It is more resistance to deflection
than other frame but also more sensitive to support settlement and thermal expansion and
contraction.
a. Rigid frame
b. Hinged frame
c. A-frame
d. Fixed frame
93. A rigid frame of two columns and a beam defining a single bay. Also called single-bay frame.
a. Rigid frame
b. Bent
c. Portal
d. Frame
94. The live load on a structure resulting from the weight of people, furniture, stored material and
other similar items in a building. Building codes specify minimum live loads for various uses
and occupancies.
a. Live load
b. Occupancy load
c. Dead load
d. Static load
95. The horizontal movement of one level of a structure relative to the level above or below.
a. Drift index
b. Storey shear
c. Storey drift
d. Building separation
96. The distance required to avoid contact between separated structures under deflection
from seismic action or wind forces.
a. Drift index
 b. Storey shear
c. Storey drift
d. Building separation
97. An applied force producing or tending to produce tension in an elastic body.
a. Stress
b. Tensile force
c. Axial force
d. Tension
98. The maximum tensile, compressive, or shearing stress a material can be expected to
bear without rupturing or fracturing. Also called ultimate stress.
a. Yield point
b. Elastic limit
c. Ultimate strength
d. Elasticity
99. It is a method to determine the strength of a material
a. Rebound hammer test
b. Slump test
c. Compression test
d. NOTA
100. Any of various hard, inert, mineral materials, as sand and gravel, added to a
cement paste to make concrete or mortar.
a. Siliceous
b. Aggregate
c. Admixture
d. Cement
101. Any substance other than cement, water, or aggregate, added to a concrete or
mortar mix to alter its properties or those of the hardened product. Also called additive.
a. Accelerator
b. Retarder
c. Admixture
d. Cement
102. The temporary structure required to support newly placed concrete, including the
forms and all necessary supporting members, bracing, and hardware.
a. Formwork
b. Form
c. Form tie
d. Yoke
103. The property of fresh concrete which is indicated by the amount of useful internal
work required to fully compact the concrete without bleeding or segregation in the finished
product.
a. Workability
b. Strength
c. Elasticity
d. Rigidity
104. What is the use of seismic gap in buildings?
 a. The gap/space between reinforcement bars during pouring of columns
b. Minimum gap between adjacent buildings to avoid the negative impact from zones
where pounding from seismic motion occurs
c. To prevent thermal expansion of the roof slab in buildings due to high fluctuations
in temperature during the day.
d. NOTA
105. It is an assembly designed to safely absorb the heat-induced expansion and contraction
of construction materials, to absorb vibration, to hold parts together, or to allow movement
due to ground settlement or earthquakes.
a. Construction joint
b. Expansion joint
c. Doweled joint
d. NOTA
106. Maximum stress below which material does not return to its original length but
has incurred a permanent deformation we call permanent set.
a. Plastic limit
b. Plastic expansion
c. Elastic limit
d. Strain
107. What is the intensity of force per unit area?
a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Fatigue
d. Creep
108. What is the deformation of a body under the action of an applied force?
a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Gunite
d. Intensity
109. What is an additional structural element placed to provide support to structures above?
a. Column
b. Grade beam
c. Tie beam
d. Corbel
110. What is a horizontal member in a building which is subjected to bending?
a. Beam
b. Hollow blocks
c. Header
d. Concrete canopy
111. A rod placed in between purlins as a bridging to avoid misalignment.
a. Cross bridging
b. Bridging rod
c. Bridging webs
d. NOTA
112. What are wires and cables used in post-tensioning called?
a. Tendons
b. Ropes
c. Webs
d. Strands
113. What are loads that can be computed accurately?
a. Live load
b. Dead load
c. Wind load
d. Earth load
114. A column which is not aligned to the columns at the lower level.
a. False column
b. Short column
c. Planted column
d. Under reinforced column
115. Loads that consist of the weight of all materials and fixed equipment incorporated
into the building or other structure.
a. Live load
b. Dead load
c. Wind load
d. Force load
116. What are forces or other actions that result from the weight of all building materials,
occupants and their possessions, environmental effects, differential movements and restrained
dimensional changes? LOADS
a. Dead load
b. Live load
c. Wind load
d. Earth load
117. What is a type of wood column which consists of a single piece of wood, square
or rectangular in cross section?
a. Tapered column
b. Glued- laminated column
c. Built-up column
d. Simple solid column
118. What is an essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which
is provided to resist lateral forces?
a. Shear wall system
b. Bearing wall system
c. Braced frame
d. Moment resisting space frame
119. The upper flexible portion of a structure having a vertical combination of structural
system. BASEMENT PODIUM TOWER
a. Base
b. Tower
 c. Frame
d. Platform
120. What is a web found in a structural member?
a. Rafter
b. Roof truss
c. Purlin
d. Batten
121. What is the middle part of a wide flange?
a. Wing
b. Web
c. Side flange
d. Floor flange
122. What is not included in the computation of reinforced concrete load?
a. Floor finish
b. Slab
c. Beam
d. Column
123. A brick wall is weak in .
a. Tension
b. Compression
c. Torsion
d. NOTA
124. It is also known as elastic limit?
a. Deformation
b. Elongation
c. Buckling
d. Cracking
125. When a beam is in its elastic limit, which among the situation below would most
likely happen?
a. Beam will continue to deform with slight load
b. Beam will continue to deform without load
c. Beam will break eventually after some time
d. Beam will come back to its original state
126. What component of steel dictates its ductility?
a. Phosphorus
b. Carbon
c. Sulfur
d. All of the above
127. It is a structural system without a complete vertical load carrying space frame.
a. Bearing wall system
b. Cantilevered column element
c. Gravity wall
d. Isolated footing
128. The maximum axial load that can be theoretically be applied to a column
without causing it to buckle.
a. Critical buckling stress
b. Critical buckling load
c. Buckling
d. Eccentricity
129. A thick column subject to failure by crushing rather than by buckling.
a. Long column
b. Composite column
c. Short column
d. All of the above
130. What does slenderness ratio determine?
a. Effective length
b. Buckling
c. Effective depth
d. Maximum height of column
131. What happens to a short column?
a. Elongates
b. Buckles
c. Deforms
d. Deflects
132. What usually happens to steel when stressed?
a. Bend
b. Twist
c. Break
d. Rupture
133. What is a method of pre-stressing wherein tendons are stressed after concrete
has hardened?
a. Pre-stressing
b. Pre-tensioning
c. Post-tensioning
d. Prefabricating
134. What deformation does a beam contain?
a. Deformation
b. Deflection
c. Elongation
d. Compression
135. Minimum concrete cover for slab on fill?
a. 20 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 75 mm
136. What is the most probable reason why a slab on fill cracks?
a. Improper soil compaction
 b. Failure of concrete mix
c. Lack of reinforcing bars
d. NOTA
137. The main bars for a cantilevered slabs are located at .
a. Top
b. Middle
c. Bottom
d. Anywhere
138. What is the best location of support for a one way slab?
a. End of slab
b. Middle third
c. Top of slab
d. NOTA
139. What do you call the point where in a material is about to rupture?
a. Ultimate strength
b. Point of breaking
c. Point of no return
d. NOTA
140. A structural member whose function is to transfer the loads from a building safely
into the ground.
a. Column
b. Footing
c. Beam
d. NOTA
141. It is the depth below ground water level multiplied by the weight of water?
a. Soil bearing pressure
b. Hydrostatic
c. Ground water pressure
d. NOTA
142. Where will you see the details for the foundation anchor bolts?
a. Foundation plan
b. Base plate plan
c. Framing plan
d. NOTA
143. What usually happens to the footing when it is starting to deform?
a. Bend upward
b. Cracks at the bottom
c. Twist
d. NOTA
144. Which part carries most of the weight of a structure?
a. Flange of I-beam
b. Web of I-beam
c. All of the above
d. NOTA
145. In reinforced concrete beams, which portion is under tension?
a. Top
b. Middle
c. Bottom
d. All of the above
146. What supports the shear wall?
a. Footing
b. Column
c. Beam
d. NOTA
147. What equipment is used for pile driving?
a. Rotary drill
b. Pile hammer
c. Auger
d. NOTA
148. What is poured after drilling a hole for bored piles?
a. Steel
b. Concrete
c. Wood
d. Epoxy polymer
149. Where can we stop pouring ready mixed concrete slab if the pouring cannot be done
in one setting?
a. At the center
b. At the middle third of the slab
c. At the shearing points
d. NOTA
150. Where can we stop pouring ready mixed concrete beam if the pouring cannot be
done in one setting?
a. At the center
b. Anywhere
c. At the shearing points
d. NOTA
151. On the concrete pouring of beams and slabs, which should be poured first with one
day interval?
a. Beam first
b. Slab first
c. Doesn’t matter which is poured first
d. Must be poured at the same time
152. What will transmit the loads of the structural of the piles?
a. Pile cap
b. Column
c. Footing
d. NOTA
153. Most likely failure for a retaining wall.
 a. Failure at the moment arm
b. Punch a hole on the wall
c. All of the above
d. NOTA
154. What do you call the underlying structure forming the foundation of a building or
other structures?
a. Base
b. Substructure
c. Superstructure
d. NOTA
155. As a rule of convention for signs...
a. Positive moment is counterclockwise and negative moment is clockwise
b. Positive moment is clockwise and negative moment is counter clockwise
c. It doesn’t matter
d. NOTA
156. An instrument used to measure deformation.
a. Strain gauge
b. Extensometer
c. Deformation measuring equipment
d. NOTA
157. An instrument used to measure velocity and acceleration of an earthquake.
a. Seismograph
b. Geiger counter
c. Accelerograph
d. NOTA
158. Which is the best column.
a. Square
b. Rectangle
c. Triangular
d. NOTA
159. Test used to determine the strength of concrete
a. Slump test
b. Compression test
c. Core test
d. Core drill test
160. Minimum thickness for load bearing walls
a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. NOTA
161. A transformer vault is considered a .
a. Live load
b. Dead load
c. Concentrated load
 d. Uniformly distributed
162. Which is dangerous?
a. Shear wall with many openings
b. Shear wall at the center
c. Shear wall at the outer edge of building
d. NOTA
163. Where do shear walls rest?
a. Footing
b. Foundation
c. Ground floor
d. 2nd floor
164. Over reinforced concrete is .
a. More dangerous than under reinforced concrete
b. Less dangerous than under reinforced concrete
c. Equal
d. NOTA
165. Which is more dangerous during an earthquake?
a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. NOTA
166. What resist bending stress?
a. Section modulus
b. Rigidity
c. Moment of inertia
d. NOTA
167. What usually happens to steel in a slab or reinforced concrete beam if such member
is about to collapse?
a. Crack
b. Rupture
c. Deflect
d. NOTA
168. Ties are used for what structural element?
a. Beam
b. Columns
c. Slabs
d. Footings
169. What do you call a column that is not aligned to a lower floor column?
a. Planted
b. Eccentric
c. Floating
d. NOTA
170. Which among the list is the preferred location for a shear wall (utility core)
considering seismic condition in a 15 storey building with a width of a 15 meters and length of
25 meters?
 a. Left side
b. Right side
c. Front
d. Center
171. Which of the following do not determine the number of boring?
a. Size of lot
b. Height of building
c. Presence of geological condition
d. Local building code
172. What forces does a curtain wall resist?
a. Its own weight
b. Its own weight plus wind load
c. Wind load
d. NOTA
173. If a glass can withstand high compression on its outer fiber and tension at the
center, how would you describe it?
a. Highly resistant to breakage
b. Highly susceptible to breakage
c. Flexible
d. NOTA
174. What do you call 2 or more materials that are combined together?
a. Laminated
b. Chemical compound
c. Composite
d. NOTA
175. What is produced on continuous process of cold rolled and hot rolled steel?
a. Deformed bars
b. Wide varieties of steel
c. Wide flanges
d. Steel channel
176. Soil testing is done .
a. During site investigation
b. Before excavation
c. After excavation
d. Also considered as a beam
177. To avoid hydrostatic pressure to force forward a retaining wall, what is the best thing to
do?
a. Soil should be well compacted
b. Provide drainage
c. All of the above
d. NOTA
178. Effect of torsion
a. Shrink
b. Bend
 c. Twist
d. Combination of intermediate moment resisting space frame and shear walls
179. Furniture is considered as .
a. Dead load
b. Concentrated load
c. Live load
d. Uniformly distributed load
180. Why is a truss designed with a bottom chord?
a. To make it look good
b. Truss normally cannot span wide distance
c. Lessen
d. Given an isometric view of a truss and roof framing
181. Testing of concrete when using transit mix.
a. On site
b. Batching plant
c. Testing laboratory
d. Anywhere but witnessed
182. What is curing?
a. Fast drying of concrete
b. Retaining water through hydration
c. Sprinkling of water
d. Slow drying of concrete
183. How do you connect pre stressed concrete to reinforced concrete?
a. Dowel
b. Mortar
c. Axle
d. NOTA
184. Will most likely fail due to buckling?
a. Short column
b. Long column
c. Pedestal
d. NOTA
185. Which is better design?
a. Concrete and steel should be designed to fail simultaneously
b. Steel should be designed to fail first before concrete
c. Concrete should be designed to fail first before concrete
d. Doesn’t matter as the building will collapse anyway
186. Isolated footing of residential houses usually rest on .
a. Gravel bed
b. 50 mm mass concrete
c. Soil
d. NOTA
187. Method of pre-stressing after concrete has hardened.
a. Post-tensioning
 b. Pre-tensioning
c. Abutments
d. Tendons
188. On a grassy plain, what type of soil should the foundation rest on?
a. Hard to very hard
b. Very soft to soft
c. Medium to hard
d. NOTA
189. The purpose of slump test is to determine .
a. Strength of concrete
b. Content of sand
c. Water ratio
d. NOTA
190. Where cylindrical test should be done?
a. Laboratory
b. Site
c. Batching plant
d. NOTA
191. Why do rebars have concrete cover?
a. To prevent rust
b. For aesthetics consideration
c. Strength
d. Adhesion
192. The minimum concrete cover for column footing is .
a. 30 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 75mm
d. NOTA
193. What should be the minimum depth of footing for a converted rice field?
a. 0.60 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 1.00 m
d. NOTA
194. Which should you use to minimize disturbances to an adjoining high rise building in
a flat terrain?
a. Bored piles
b. Driven piles
c. Floating foundation
d. NOTA
195. The soil or rock beneath the footing is .
a. Foundation bed
b. Soil
c. Grade rock
d. NOTA
196. When a perfectly straight member under compression assumes a deflected position.
a. Buckling
b. Creeping
c. Elongation
d. NOTA
197. What happens when a column rests on a footing that is not reinforced with rebars?
a. The footing will crack at an angle
b. The column will punch a hole through the footing
c. There will be noticeable settlement
d. NOTA
198. While traversing EDSA you will see the elevated MRT, what do you call the
concrete portion of the MRT running parallel to the road where the tracks of the train are
places?
a. Rail beam
b. Girder
c. Box girder
d. NOTA
199. Standard 90-degree bend shall consist of extension at the free end of the bar equal to
.
a. 8 db
b. 10 db
c. 12 db
d. 16 db
200. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer shall not be less than _db.
a. 20 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 40 mm
d. 50 mm
201. The standard hooks for the stirrups and ties shall be .
a. 90-degree bend plus 6 db extension at the free end of bar for 16mm and smaller
b. 90-degree bend plus 12 db extension at the free of end bar for 20 mm and 25 mm dia
c. 135-degree bend plus 6 db extension at the free end of bar for 25 mm and smaller
d. All of the above
202. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement compression members, clear distance is .
a. 1.5 db
b. 2.0 db
c. 5.0 db
d. 1.0 db
203. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in the upper
layers shall be .
a. 20 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 40 mm
d. 50 mm
204. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural
reinforcement is .
a. 300 mm
b. 400 mm
c. 450 mm
d. 500 mm
205. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties but bars larger than larger than
_mm shall not be bundled.
a. 28 mm
b. 32 mm
c. 36 mm
d. 40 mm
206. A standard hook may consist of a 180-degree bend plus a 4 db extension at free end of
. 65 mm
a. 55 mm
b. 60 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 85 mm
207. Non-prestressed bars shall be enclosed by lateral ties at least 10 mm dia in size for .
a. 12 mm diameter
b. 15 mm diameter
c. 20 mm diameter
d. 22 mm diameter
208. In joist construction, ribs shall not be less than 100 mm in width and shall have a
depth of not less than .
a. 2
b. 2 ½
c. 3
d. 3 ½
209. For T-beam construction with a slab on one side only, the effective overhanging flange
shall be .
a. One-twelfth the span length of the beam
b. One-half the clear distance to the next web
c. Smaller of the above
d. NOTA
210. Maximum usable strain at the extreme concrete compression fiber shall be .
a. 0.001
b. 0.002
c. 0.003
d. 0.004
211. A property of material to expand or contract by foreseeable amounts when it is
pulled or compressed and regains its shape when these forces are released.
a. Elasticity
b. Rigidity
 c. Compressibility
d. Flexibility
212. A force which tends to shorten a member laterally.
a. Tension
b. Compression
c. Bending
d. Torsion
213. Pressure due to a push from retained earth.
a. Soil bearing pressure
b. Surcharge pressure
c. Earth pressure
d. Hydrostatic pressure
214. Tiny bubbles, usually from 0.01 mm to 0.10 mm in size, purposely brought into
the cement paste.
a. Honeycombed
b. Entrained air
c. Trapped air
d. Flow air
215. An anchor bolt into masonry consisting of a split malleable-iron cone inserted thin
end first into a drilled or cored hole. A bolt between the split halves’ projects outside the hole.
a. Contraction bolt
b. Expansion bolt
c. Bearing bolt
d. Extrusion bolt
216. Reinforced concrete in which internal stresses have been introduced to reduce
potential tensile stresses in concrete resulting from loads.
a. Precast concrete
b. Pre-stressed concrete
c. Plain concrete
d. Plastic concrete
217. A three-dimensional structural system without bearing walls composed of members
interconnected so as to function as a complete self-contained unit with or without the aid
of horizontal diaphragms or bracing systems.
a. Braced frame
b. Space frame
c. Trussed frame
d. A-frame
218. Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of
a reinforcement at a critical section.
a. End anchorage
b. Embedment length
c. Development length
d. Critical length
219. A space frame designed to carry all vertical gravity loads.
 a. Bearing wall system
b. Bracing system
c. Vertical load carrying space frame
d. Moment resisting space system
220. In building frame analysis, it is defined as the space between levels.
a. Storey
b. Platform
c. Stage
d. Drift
221. An element or system is one whose deformation under lateral load significantly
larger than adjoining parts of the system.
a. Boundary element
b. Platform
c. Horizontal bracing system
d. Flexible element
222. What is a design analysis requirement, considered as a basis for the structural design
of buildings and structures where the total lateral forces are distributed to the various vertical
elements of the lateral force resisting system in proportion to their rigidities considering the
rigidity of the horizontal bracing system or diaphragm?
a. Shear and moment diagram
b. Distribution or horizontal shear
c. Stability against overturning
d. Horizontal torsional moments
223. A 2” x 7” gauge 16 steel Z purlin is used on a streel truss with a roof inclination of 20-
degrees. The common construction problem during purlin installation is the high probability of
the purlins to deflect and bend down about the minor Y-Y axis as a result of its dead weight
and live load. What is the structural member in the steel truss framing counteracts these forces
in compression?
a. Purlin cross braces
b. Purlin struts
c. Purlin sag rods
d. Purlin cleats
224. The minimum clearance measured from the bottom of the bottom of the bars to the
bottom of the beam for all concrete beams when exposed to atmosphere should be .
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 75 mm
225. The most important factor affecting the strength of the concrete is the .
a. Water tightness
b. Form lumber
c. Water-cement ratio
d. Workability
226. Minimum spacing of bolts in timber connections measured from center of bolts
for parallel to grain loading is equal to .
a. 2.75 x diameter of bolt
b. 6 x diameter of bolt
c. 4 x diameter of bolt
d. 2.5 x diameter bolt
227. What is a wall designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall?
a. Earthquake resistant wall
b. Shear wall
c. Horizontal diaphragm wall
d. Diaphragm
228. The effect of delaying the onset of hardening and usually also for reducing the rate
of the reaction of cement.
a. Pozzoland
b. Lime
c. Plasticizer
d. Retardant
229. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which tendons are tensioned
after the concrete has hardened enough to sustain this jacking force?
a. Freyssinet
b. Pretensioning
c. Prestressed concrete
d. Post tensioning
230. The required maximum finished dimension size of wooden support in meters for a one-
storey house having a total maximum height of 5.50 m and spacing of post at 1.60 m as per
national building code.
a. 0.15 x 0.15
b. 0.20 x 0.20
c. 0.25 x 0.25
d. 0.125 x 0.125
231. What is the minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connections and
fastening in accordance with NSCP?
a. 10 mm
b. 12 mm
c. 16 mm
d. 20 mm
232. What is the force per unit area?
a. Stress
b. Strain
c. Yield force
d. Load
233. In pretensioning, a device used to anchor tendon during hardening of concrete
a. Clip angle
b. Base jack
 c. Standard hook
d. Anchorage device
234. Nominal strength multiplied by a strength reduction factor.
a. Required strength
b. Calculated strength
c. Design strength
d. Reduced strength
235. An assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and resist
lateral forces.
a. Frame
b. Grid
c. Structure
d. System
236. It is a space frame in which the members and joints are capable of resisting
forces primarily by flexure.
a. Bearing wall system
b. Bracing system
c. Vertical load carrying space frame
d. Moment resisting space system
237. The boundary element of a diaphragm or shear wall which is assumed to take
axial stresses analogous to the flanges of the beam.
a. Diaphragm strut
b. Drag strut
c. Horizontal brace
d. Diaphragm chord
238. It is defined as the total designed lateral force or shear at the base of the structure.
a. Gravity force
b. Base shear
c. Cantilever effect
d. P-delta forces
239. Support for concrete formwork or for an arch during construction
a. Flushing
b. False work
c. Gantry
d. Trestle
240. A piece of steel plate, usually roughly rectangular or triangular, which connects
the members of a truss.
a. Base plate
b. Lacing
c. Tie plate
d. Gusset plate
241. Light metal members fixed diagonally to two channels or four angle sections to form
a composite strut.
a. Tie plates
 b. Shear connectors
c. Lacing
d. Base plates
242. A column that fails when overloaded by buckling rather by crushing.
a. Intermediate column
b. Short column
c. Long column
d. Pedestal
243. A unit of force in the SI system equal to 0.225 lb.
a. Kilo newton
b. Newton
c. Mega pascal
d. Kilo pascal
244. A stress that remains in a material from its manufacturing process.
a. Buckling stress
b. Residual stress
c. Resilience
d. Salinity
245. A column when overloaded will fail not by crippling but by crushing.
a. Intermediate column
b. Short column
c. Long column
d. Pedestal
246. A small member, such as an angle, welded to a slender beam or column web to prevent
buckling of the web. These are often placed under concentrated loads.
a. Buckler
b. Stiffener
c. Lacing
d. Capping
247. A beam or wall projecting above a slab and monolithic with it.
a. Canopy
b. Parapet
c. Upstand
d. Underpin
248. The load reduction factor for a reinforced concrete subjected to bearing is .
a. 0.90 FLEXURE
b. 0.75 AXIAL COMPRESSION OF TIED
c. 0.85 SHEAR AND TENSION
d. 0.70
249. The allowable tensile stress applied on the net area of a pin connected steel member is
.
a. 0.45 fy
b. 0.66 fy
c. 0.60 fy
 d. 0.50 fy
250. It is an iron block which is raised by means of a hoist and allowed to drop freely on
the head of a pile in order to drive in into the ground.
a. Drive pipe
b. Drop hammer
c. Drop panels
d. Driving cap
251. What is the maximum permissible water-cement ratio for air-entrained concrete when
strength data from field experience or trial mixtures are not available if f’c=25 Mpa
a. 0.60
b. 0.39
c. 0.50
d. 0.49
252. It is a system of slab construction in which there are no beams or other projections
below the bottom surface of the slab.
a. Flat slab
b. Ribbed slab
c. One way slab
d. Flat plates
253. It is an aggregate with a dry, loose weight of 1100 kg/cu.m or less. 1120 in NSCP
a. Lightweight aggregate
b. Dry weight aggregate
c. Heavy weight aggregate
d. Substandard aggregate
254. Those structures are necessary for emergency post-earthquake operations
a. Hazardous facilities
b. Standard facilities
c. Essential facilities
d. Non-occupant facilities
255. What is the least number of bars in a spiral column as provided by the ACI specification?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 4
d. 10
256. In floor design where partition locations are subject to change, how much load is
added as a uniformly distributed dead load in addition to all other loads?
a. 500 Pa
b. 1500 Pa
c. 2000 Pa
d. 1000 Pa
257. Concrete with a very low water cement ratio used for binding concrete, base
courses and roller compacted concrete.
a. Lightweight concrete
b. Aerated concrete
 c. Lean concrete
d. Air-entrained concrete
258. If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air dried for
days before test and shall be tested dry.
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 20 days
d. 28 days
259. Concrete cover for pipes, conduits and fitting shall not be less than for concrete
exposed to earth or weather.
a. 40 mm
b. 30 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 50 mm
260. Any condition, as fracturing, buckling, or plastic deformation that renders a
structural assembly, element or joint incapable of sustaining the load carrying function for
which it was designed.
a. Structural failure
b. Structural strain
c. Structural fatigue
d. All of the above
261. A beam extending over more than 2 supports in order to develop greater rigidity and
smaller moments than a series of simple beams having similar spans and loading. Both fixed end
and continuous beams are indeterminate structures for which the values of all reactions, shears
and moments are dependent not only on span and loading but also on cross sectional shape
and material.
a. Continuous beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Two way slab
d. One way slab
262. Where will you locate the soil test holes? WITHIN BUILDING AREA
a. Anywhere within the site
b. Under the columns
c. Outside the building
d. NOTA
263. Who will conduct the soil bearing test? OR CIVIL ENGINEER
a. Geodetic engineer
b. Geotechnical engineer
c. Structural engineer
d. Architect
264. Which column span will not accommodate a 2 car parking?
a. 6.50 m
b. 6 m
c. 5.50 m
 d. 4.50 m
265. What type of road pavement will least allow water percolation?
a. Asphalt
b. Concrete
c. Sand
d. Aggregate
266. What is the nominal thickness of CHB for exterior wall without plastering?
a. 150 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 200 mm
d. NOTA
267. In case of budgetary constraints, what is the foundation system that can be used for soft
soil?
a. Driven foundation
b. Isolated footing with tie beam
c. Floating foundation
d. Continuous footing
268. What is a foundation wall that encloses a usable area under the building?
a. Basement wall
b. Cellar
c. Crawl space
d. Retaining wall
269. A slight convex curvature intentionally built into a beam, girder or truss to
compensate for an anticipated deflection.
a. Camber
b. Deflection
c. Inflation
d. Inflection
270. What type of foundation is normally used for a project at 35% sloping site?
a. Cantilever footing
b. Floating foundation
c. Isolated footing with tie beam
d. Matt foundation
271. What type of foundation is normally used for a residential project with a hard soil?
a. Isolated footing
b. Floating foundation
c. Isolated footing with tie beam
d. Matt foundation
272. What is the coincidence of the natural period of structure with the dominant
frequency in the ground motion?
a. Structural vibration effects
b. Harmonic motion
c. Soil-structure resonance
d. Frequency equivalence
273. Which if the following criterion is not applicable for the plug and slot welds?
a. The diameter of the holes for the plug weld shall be not less than the thickness of the
part containing it plus 8 mm nor greater than 2 ¼” thickness of the weld metal.
b. The minimum center-to-center spacing of plug welds shall be 4 times the diameter
of the hole.
c. The minimum spacing of the lines of slot welds in a direction transverse to their length
shall be 8 times the width of the slot
d. The length of the slot weld shall not exceed 10 times the thickness of the weld.
274. This element at any transverse cross section of a straight beam is the algebraic sum
of the moments taken about an axis passing through the centroid of the cross section, of all
the loads and reactions applied to the portion of the beam on either side of the cross
section?
a. Resisting moment
b. External moment
c. Bending moment
d. Reaction
275. Which standard specification should quality deformed steel welded wire fabric
for concrete reinforcement conform to?
a. ASTM A 496:1985
b. ASTM A 706:1986
c. ASTM A 497:1986
d. ASTM A 615:1987
276. The modulus of elasticity of concrete in MPa is equal to .
a. 1000 sqrt of f’c
b. 15100 sqrt of f’c
c. 0.17 sqrt of f’c
d. 4700 sqrt of f’c