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Ncaa questions

Flight Dispatch (Nigerian College of Aviation Technology)

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ADVANCE FLIGHT DISPATCHERS NCAA PREPARATORY EXAMINATION

(PART 1B) TIME ALLOWED: 0200HRS

1. The number and composition of the flight Crew shall not be less than that specified in the
a. Nigerian CARS
b. Certificate of Regulation
c. Flight Manual or other documents associated with the certificate of Airworthiness

2. The Minimum number of flight Crew required for IFR commercial air transport operation, unless the
Authority has issued a deviation is
a. Three
b. Two
c. Four

3. No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight Crew member of a civil aircraft of
Nigerian registry unless
a. He or She carries on board the aircraft the appropriate and current logbook
b. He or She carries on board the aircraft a valid medical Certificate and current License issued by
ICAO contracting state
c. He or She carries on board the aircraft the appropriate and current license issued by the
authority for flight crew position for the types of aircraft and valid medical certificate.

4. No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight Crew member of a civil aircraft of
foreign registry unless
a. He or She carries on board the aircraft a valid License issued by NCAA
b. He or She carried on board the aircraft a valid medical Certificate and current License issued
by ICAO contracting state
c. He or She carried on board the aircraft a valid License for that type of aircraft issued to him or
her by the state in which the aircraft is registered.

5. No person shall act as PIC of an airplane under IFR, or in weather conditions less than the minimum
prescribed for VFR unless
a. The pilot holds CPL License with Instrument ratings
b. The Pilot holds ATP License with an appropriate aeroplane category, class and type ratings for
any type of aeroplane
c. The pilot holds an instrument rating or ATP license with an appropriate aeroplane category,
class and type (if required) rating for the aeroplane being flown

6. The kind of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
a. Certificate holder’s operation specifications
b. Application submitted for an air Carrier or operating certificate by applicant
c. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate

7. No person shall act as PIC of a civil aircraft in a category II or III operation unless
a. He or she is instrument rated on the aircraft type for the category II AND III
b. He or She is medical fit and hold valid license issued by NCAA
c. He or She has a current category II&III pilot authorization for that type of aircraft

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8. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crew member in re-
establishing receny of experience?
a. At least one take-off must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine
b. At least on ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder and a
landing from that approach
c. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop

9. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of
experience?
a. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach
b. At least one full stop landing must be made
c. At least one precision approach must be made to lowest minimums authorized for the
certificate holder

10. No pilot shall act as pilot in Command of an instrument approach in IMC unless the pilot has within
the preceding 90 days completed at least?
a. 2 actual approaches n IMC
b. 2 simulated approaches
c. 1 actual approach in IMC

11. No Aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being equipped with?
a. A seat belt
b. A safety harness for all crew members
c. A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight doc

12. Load sheets are required for every aircraft of more than 1600kg in?
a. The air transport category
b. All categories
c. All categories except private
13. Before carrying passengers the pilot in command of an aircraft must have completed, on the aircraft
type in which he intends carrying passengers
a. 5 take offs and landing in the preceding 90 days
b. 5 takes offs and landings in the preceding 6 months
c. 3 take offs and landing in the preceding 90 days

14. An airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, approved flight simulators or other approved
flight training devices under Nigeria CAR part 2
a. For more than 8 hours in any 30-consecutive hours period
b. For more than 36 hours in any 7- consecutive day period
c. For more than 8 hours in any 24- consecutive hours period

15. For aeroplanes having a crew of one or two pilots the maximum flying time in 7 consecutive days is
a. 32 hours
b. 34 hours
c. 24 hours

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16. A pilot who has completed instrument competency check with the Authority retains currency of IFR
operations with effect from the date the check was done for a period of
a. 3 months
b. 6 moths
c. 12 months

17. As state in parts 8 CAR’S the pilot of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen available if flights
in a non-pressurized aircraft are contemplated
a. Above 10,000 feet
b. Above 14,000 feet
c. Above 18,000 feet

18. If a flight plan is to be filled in flight according to CAR’S part 8, at least how long must it be filled
before entering controlled or advisory air space
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 10 minutes

19. Critical phase of flight includes all ground operations and taxi, take-off and climb to cruise
a. Up to 1500 feet
b. Above 10, 000 feet
c. Up to 10,000 feet

20. Flight data recorders systems shall be recalibrated at least every

a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years

21. Under part 8 of Nigerian Civil Aviation Regulations the minimum of crew required for IFR commercial
air transport operation is
a. 3 flight crew
2 flight crew
c. 1 flight crew

22. Under part CAR’S an AOC holder shall relieve the flight operation of office from all duties for;
a. For 30 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period
b. For 8 consecutive hours in any consecutive day period
c .For 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period

23. The authority will consider flight crew members to be on continuous duty aloft unless he or she
receives a rest of
a. 10 consecutive hours on the ground
b. 9 consecutive hours on the ground
c. 8 consecutive hours on the ground

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24. Who is responsible for designing a qualified person to exercise the functions and Responsibilities for
operational control of each flight in commercial transport?
a. The director of operation
b. The managing director
c. AOC holders

25. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a category 11 authorization, what recent
instrument approach experience is required?
a. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the
Category 1 DH by the use of an approach coupler
b. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the
category 1 DH
c. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by the use of an
approach coupler to the Category 11 DH

26. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two
pilots?
a. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments
b. One half the time flight is on an IFR flight plan
c. One-half the time the airplane is in actual conditions

27. Which is o e of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crew member in re-
establishing recency of experience?
a. At least one takeoff must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine
b. At least one full stop landing must be made
c. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the
certificate holder

28. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150 – foot DH may be approved after the pilot in
command has
a. Logged 90 hours flight time, 10 takeoffs and landing in make and model airplane and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR condition with 150- foot DH since the
beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121
b. Made at least six category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the
preceding 12 calendar months
c. Logged 100 hours flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three
Category II ILS approaches in actual or stimulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the
beginning of the sixth preceding month

29. The Maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a
two pilot crew for a flag air carrier is
a. 35 hours
b. 32 hours
c. 30 hours

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30. Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any
30 consecutive days as a member of a flight crew that consist of two pilots and at least one additional
flight crewmember ?
a. 100 hours
b. 120 hours
c. 300 hours

31. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier
flight?
a. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and Crew members
b. Names of all passengers on board and maximum fuel supply
c. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of aircraft

32. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial
operator carries to the destination airport?
a. Cargo and passenger distribution information
b. Copy of flight plan
c. Names of all crew members and designated pilot in command

33. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carrier and commercial operators
that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carrier is the
a. Weather reports and forecasts
b. Names of all crew members.
c. Minimum fuel supply

34. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is
a. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the
alternate airport
b. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to fuel required to fly to and land at the
most distant alternate airport
c. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate
airport

35. A turbine-engine-powered flag airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.
What is the required fuel reserve?
a. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption
b. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption
c. 30 minutes plus 10 percent imo of total flight time

36. A certificate holder is notified that a person specially authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be
abroad an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be
notified?
a. Notification is not required; if there certificate holder has a security coordinator
b. A minimum of 1 hour
c. A minimum of two hours

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37. What restriction applies to a cargo bin in passenger compartment? The bin
a. May have an open top if it placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a
cargo net
b. Must withstand the load factor required of passengers seats, multiplied 1.15, using the
combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin
c. Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed

38. How many portable battery – powered mage phone are required on an air carrier airplane with a
seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers on a trip segment when 75
passengers are carried?
a. Two, one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the
passenger cabin
b. Two, one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin
c. Two, one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger
cabin

39. A crew member interphone system is required on which plane

a. A large airplane
b. A turbojet airplane
c. Any airplane with more than 19 passenger seats

40. Each air carrier flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask
that can be rapidly put on his face when operating at flight altitudes
a. Of FL 260
b. Of FL 250
C. Above FL 250
EQUIPMENTS, NAVIGATIONS AND FACILITIES

41. You are on the final approach to a runaway with a standard 3 bar VASI lighting system, The 2 rows of
lights closet to the aircraft are indicating white. Your action should be
a. Climb as you are below the glide slope
b. Continue as you are on the glide slope
c. Descend as you are above the glide slope

42. If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the
proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
a. When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR en route
b. in VFR conditions
c. in day VFR conditions

43. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
alerting system.
a. All turbine powered airplanes
b. Passengers-carrying turbine- powered airplane only
c. Large turbine powered airplane only

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44. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne
weather radar becomes inoperative en route on IFR flight or which weather reports indicates possible-
thunderstorms?
a. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land
b. Process in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the
operations manual for such event
C. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is
enough fuel remaining

45. When is DME required for an instrument flight/

a. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigator equipment is required
b. in terminal radar service area
c. Above 12, 400 feet MSL

46. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor airways”. Which navigation
equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
a. VOR
b. ADF
c. VOR and DME

47. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are

a. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet
b. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet
C. DH 150 FEET AND RVR 1,500 feet

48. Identify REIL

a. Amber lights f for the first 2,000 feet of runway
b. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runaway
c. synchronized flashing lights laterally at each slide of the runaway threshold

49. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runaway served by a VASI shall
a. Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received
b. Use the Vasi only when weather conditions are below basic VFR
C. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe
landing

50. What does the Tri- VASI consist of?

a. Three light bars; re, green, and amber
b. One light projector with three colors; red, green, amber
c. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red green amber

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AERODYNAMICS

51. When C.G is aft longitudinal stability is

a. Reduced
b. Increased
c. Not affected

52. The principal purpose of flap it to:

a. Reduce stalling speed
b. increase drag while lift is also augmented
c. Reduce Camber

53. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustment trim tab move when
the control surface is moved?
a. Same direction
b. Opposite direction
c. Remains fixed for all positions

54. Which is the purpose of leading –edge slats on high performance wings?
a. increase lift at relative low speeds
b. improve aileron control during low angels of attack
c. direct air from the low pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing

55. During the acceleration from subsonic to supersonic speed, the center of pressure will:
a. Move forward
b. Move rearward
c. Remain the same

56. The purpose of vortex generator is

a. To reduce drag by delaying boundary layer separation
b. to increase the lift of the wing
c. To counteract the effect of the wing tip vortices

57. High speed flight requires a wing with

a. A low thickness/chord ratio
b. A high thickness/chord ratio
c. A high coefficient of lift

58. As CP Moves rearwards when an A/C reaches supersonic its longitudinal stability will
a. increase
b.Increase
c. Remain the same

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59. An aircraft flying at 330kts (TAS) in an area where the spread of sound is 661kts is flying at:
a.Transonic speeds
b. M 0.5
C. M5.o

60. A swept wing has:

a. Less drag at low Mach No. more drag at high Mach no.
b. More drag at low Mach No. less drag at high Mach no
c. More drag at low and high Mach no

PERFORMANCE QUESTIONS

61. Which takeoff computation must exceed the length of the runway for a turbine-engine powered
small transport category airplane?
a. Takeoff Distance
b. Acceleration Stop distance
c. Acceleration-Climb distance

62. What is the definition of Vref?

a. 1.3 Vso
b. 1.3 Vstall
c. 1.3 APP

63. When does third segment climb end?

a. Flaps up
b. V2
c. Landing gear up

64. The following details apply to a certain Runway 15/33. Runway length 9200ft. Runway 15 has a
displaced threshold of 400ft. Runway 33 has Stop way 250ft and Clearway 600ft.
What is the Landing Distance Available on Runway 15?
a. 9200ft
b. B.8800ft
c. C. 9600ft

65. With references to question 6 above, what is the Take-off Distance Available on runway 33?
a. 8600ft
b. 9300ft
c. 9800ft

66. The following dimensions apply to Runway 09/27.

Runway length 2000m
09 : Displaced threshed 200m. Stopway 300m, Clearway 580m
27 : Stopway 250m Clearway 350m.
What is Take-off Distance Available on Runway 09?

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a. 2000m
b. B. 1420m
c. 2580m

67. During which segment will the W.A.T limit apply for take off
a. 1st segment
b. 2nd segment
c. 3rd segment

68. What effect would change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine-engine
performance?
a. As air density decreases, thrust increases
b. As temperature increase, thrust increases
c. As temperature increases, Thrust decreases

69. What effect, if any does high ambient temperature has upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
a. Thrust will be reduced due to decrease in air density
b. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher
c. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air

70. For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff
weight limitation?
a. Passenger – carrying transport aircraft
b. U.S certified air carrier airplanes
c. Turbine-engine-power transport airplanes

71. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if
the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
a. 70 percent of the actual runway available
b. 150 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway
c. 115 percent of the runway length required for a runway

72. When computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective tailwind component which
may be applied to the “still air” data?
a. Not less than 150 percent
b. Not more than 100 percent
c. Not more than 50 percent

73. When computing the takeoff data, what is percentage of the effective tailwind component which
may be applied to the “still air’ data?
a. Not less than 150 percent
b. Not more than 100 percent
c. Not more than 50 percent

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HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATION

74. The body’s internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
a. West
b. North
c. East

75. A blocked Eustachian tube

a. Can cause severe pain in the descent
b. Normally only causes severe pain during climb
c. Can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the outside air

76. Decompression sickness is cause by

a. Nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in the body tissues
b. The pressure of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts
c. Over breathing, thereby exceeding the to breathing rate needed to maintain the correct
amount of carbon- dioxide in the blood

77. The permanent denial of flying license will be the result of a pilot suffering from;
a. Anxiety and phobic
b. Depression
c. Schizophrenia and Manic Depression

78. The amount of stress experience with a particular Task is dependent on;
a. The actual demand of the task and the flight dispatcher’s perception of his ability
b. The perceived demands of the task and the flight dispatcher’s actual ability
c. The perceived demands of the task and the flight dispatcher’s perception of his ability

79. if an aircraft with a gross weight of 3000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 9000 pounds in
flight, the load factor will be
a. 2 Gs
B. 3 Gs
c. 9 GS

80. The best way in which to overcome hyperventilation is to

a. Increase stress and activity levels
b. Breath normally
c. Declare emergency landing.

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