A.K.

T IIT-NEET ACADEMY,
KALLAKURICHI

GRAND TEST-04
CLASS: LT MARKS: 720 marks
DATE: 01.04.2024 TIME : 3.20 min

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
hc

x
1. In the formula F  A.e , where h is Planck’s constant, and c is speed of light. The dimensional
formula for x is
1) [ M 0 L0T 0 ] 2) [M 1 L3T 2 ] 3) [M 0 LT
1 0
] 4) [M 1 L2T 2 ]
2. The centripetal acceleration of a particle, moving in a circle of radius 12m, varies with time t as
shown in diagram. If the particle starts from the rest then speed of particle after 1 s is

1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 6 m/s

3. A container filled with a liquid of density 2 is as shown in figure. The velocity of efflux through
orifice is nearly (  density of water, g = 10 m s 2 )

1) 14.1 m/s 2) 28 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) 20 m/s

3
4. The length of sonometer wire is 0.75 m and it’s material density is 9 10 kg / m 3 . It can bear
maximum stress of 8.1 108 N m 2 without exceeding elastic limit. Fundamental frequency that can
be produced in the wire is
1) 200 Hz 2) 230 Hz 3) 400 Hz 4) 900 Hz
5. Rain is falling vertically downwards with speed 4 km/h. A boy moves on a straight horizontal road
with velocity of 4 km/h. What is apparent velocity of rain w.r.t. boy?
1) Zero 2) 8 km/h 3) 5 km/h 4) 4 2 km/h
6. The electric field lines distribution due to two charges is shown in the figure. Which of the following
is correct?

1) | q A || qB | 2) | q A || qB | 3) | q A || qB | 4) 2 | q A || qB |

7. A pendulum vibrate with a time period of 1 second. The sound produced in it is in the range of
1) supersonic 2) ultrasonic 3) audible 4) infrasonic
Pg. 1
8. Which among the following diode, is forward biased?
1) 2)

3) 4)

1
9. The distance travelled by a particle in t time is given by s  ut  at 3 , where u is the velocity and a
2
is the acceleration. The equation is
1) Dimensionally true 2) Dimensionally false
3) Correct equation 4) (1) and (3) are correct
10. Statement I: A device in which heat measurement can be made is called calorimeter.
Statement II: Skating is possible on snow due to the formation of water below the skates. Water is
formed due to the increase of temperature and ice melts.
Statement III: Two bodies at different temperature are mixed in a calorimeter. Total internal energy
of the two bodies remains conserved.
Which of the following is correct?
1) Statement I, II and III are true
2) Statements I is true, but statements II and III are false
3) Both statements I and II are true, but statements III is false
4) Both statements I and III are true, but statements II is false
11. Assertion (A): Though the same current flows through the line wires and the filament of the bulb but
heat produced in the filament is much higher than that in line wires.
Reason (R): The filament of bulbs is made of a material of high resistance and low melting point.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
12. A point source of power 16 W is emitting sound waves. The intensity at a distance 100 m from
source will be
1) 4 104W / m2 2) 2 104W / m2
3) 9 102W / m2 4) 8 103W / m2
13. In a Young’s double slit experiment setup, if the distance between the slit plane and screen is
doubled and the distance between the slits is halved, then the distance between first maxima and
third minima on same side of the central maxima
1) Will remain unchanged 2) Will become four times of initial value
3) Will become two times of initial value 4) Will become half of initial value
0
14. The angle of prism is equal to 60 and the refractive index is 2 . The angle of incidence for the
condition of minimum deviation will be
1) 45o 2) 60o 3) 30o 4) 90o
15. The electric field at a distance 3R from centre of a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R is E.
R
The electric field at a distance from the centre will be
4
E E
1) 2) 3) 3E 4) Zero
2 4
16. In the following circuit, the rms value of the current through the source will be

1) 60 A 2) 55 A 3) 78 A 4) 110 A

Pg. 2
17. For which of the following values of A and B, would the value of Y be high (1)?

1) A = 1, B = 1 2) A = 0, B = 1 3) A = 1, B = 0 4) All of these
18. Centre of mass is a point
1) which is the geometric centre of a body
2) which is the origin of reference frame
3) where the whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated
4) from which distances of all particles are same
19. Assertion (A): Angular speed, linear speed as kinetic energy change with time but angular
momentum about the sun remains constant for a planet orbiting the sun.
Reason (R): Angular momentum about the sun is constant as no torque acts on the planet.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
20. A solid sphere is set into motion on a rough horizontal surface with a linear speed v in the forward
v
direction and an angular speed in the anticlockwise direction as shown in figure. Find the linear
R
v
speed of the sphere when it stops rotating and  
R

3v 2v 4v 7v
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 3 3
21. A pendulum is swinging in an elevator. Its period will be greatest when the elevator is
1) moving upwards at constant speed 2) moving downwards
3) moving downwards at constant speed 4) accelerating downwards
22. Match the following diagrams with the correct statement
List I List II
(a) (i) image on the other side of lens and inverted.

(b) (ii) Positive magnification m > 1

(c) (iii) Real image

(d) (iv) No image

1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
Pg. 3
23. Glass has refractive index '  ' with respect to air and the critical angle for a ray of light going from
glass to air is ' ' . If a ray of light is incident from air on the glass with angle of incidence ' ' ,
corresponding angle of refraction is
 1   1  1
1) sin 1 
    
2) sin 1  3) sin 1  2 
 
4) sin 1  

 
24. Assertion (A) : The air bubble shines in water.
Reason (R): Air bubble in water shines due to refraction of light.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
25. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point where the path difference is
 I
(  =wavelength of the light) is I. If I 0 denotes the maximum intensity, then is equal to
6 I0
1 3 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 4
26. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for silver is 0 . The energy of the electron ejected from the
surface of silver by an incident wavelength     0  will be:
hc h     
1) hc  0    2) 3)  0  4) hc  0 
0   c  0   0 
27. From the figure describing photoelectric effect we may infer correctly that:

1) Na and Al both have the same threshold frequency

2) maximum kinetic energy for both the metals depend linearly on the frequency
3) the stopping potential are different for Na and Al for the same change in frequency
4) Al is a better photo sensitive material than Na
28. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a 50 keV X-ray photon. The ratio of
the energy if the photon to the kinetic energy of the electron is (the energy equivalent of electron
mass is 0.5 MeV)
1) 1 : 50 2) 1 : 20 3) 20 : 1 4) 50 : 1
29. An electron is moving is an orbit of a hydrogen atom from which there can be a maximum of six
transition. An electron is moving in an orbit of another hydrogen atom from which there can be a
maximum of three transition. The ratio of the velocities of the electron in these two orbits is:
1 2 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 1 4 4
30. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is  13.6eV . When its electron is in the first excited state,
its excitation energy is
1) 3.4 eV 2) 6.8 eV 3) 10.2 eV 4) Zero
31. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, its radius is
1) four times, its ground state radius 2) twice, its ground state radius
3) same as its ground state radius 4) half of its ground state radius

Pg. 4
32. Assume that each diode as shown in the figure has a forward bias resistance of 50  and an infinite
reverse bias resistance. The current through the resistance 150  is

1) 0.66 A 2) 0.05 A 3) zero 4) 0.04 A

33. The barrier potential of p-n junction depends on
(i) type of semiconductor material
(ii) amount of doping
(iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (ii) only
3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
34. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the surface of the earth and at a depth h
below the surface of the earth h << R, radius of earth
1) is constant 2) increase linearly with h
3) decreases linearly with h 4) decreases parabolically with h
35. A solid cylinder at rest at top of an inclined plane of height 2.7m, rolls down without slipping. If the
same cylinder has to slide down a frictionless inclined plane and acquire the same velocity as that
acquired by centre of mass of rolling cylinder, at the bottom of inclined plane, the height of the
inclined plane should be
1) 6 ms 1 , 1.5 m 2) 7 ms 1 , 2.5 m 3) 6 ms 1 , 1.8 m 4) 3 ms 1 , 1.2 m
SECTION-B
36. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius R. Which one of the following statement
is true?
1
1) Angular momentum varies as 2) Linear momentum varies as R
R
1 1
3) Frequency of revolution varies as 2 4) Kinetic energy varies as
R R
37. A uniform rod is suspended horizontally from its mid-point. A piece of metal whose weight is w is
suspended at a distance l from the mid-point. Another weight W1 is suspended on the other side at a
distance l1 from the mid-point to bring the rod to a horizontal position. When w is completely
immersed in water, w1 needs to be kept at a distance l2 from the mid-point to get the rod back into
horizontal position. The specific gravity of the metal piece is
w wl1 l l
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 1
w1 wl  w1l2 l1  l2 l2
38. A soap bubble of radius 1.0 cm is formed inside another soap bubble of radius 2.0 cm. The radius of
an another soap bubble which has the same pressure difference as that between the inside of the
smaller and outside of large soap bubble, in meters is
1) 6.67 103 2) 3.34 103 3) 2.23103 4) 4.5 103
39. Match the following List-I with the List-II
List I List II
(A) Equation of continuity (I) Less than critical velocity
(B) Bernoulli’s theorem (II) Formation of eddies and vortices
(C) Turbulent flow (III) Law of conservation of mass
(D) Stream line flow (IV) Law of conservation of energy
The correct answer is
1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) 2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) 4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Pg. 5
40. Match the column I with column II and select the correct choice out of the three options
Column I Column II
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (i) Change in internal energy is zero
(b) First law of thermodynamics (ii) Defines internal energy
(c) In a complete cycle of changes (iii) Give us the concept of temperature
1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) 2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) 4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
41. Tangential and angular acceleration of a particle are 10 m / s 2 and 5 rad / s 2 respectively. What is its
distance from rotational axis?
1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m 3) 2 m 4) 4 m
42. Assertion (A): The heat supplied to a system is always equal to the increase in its internal energy.
Reason (R): When a system change from one thermal equilibrium to another, some heat may be is
absorbed by it.
1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
43. Match the following with correct sequence
Column I Column II
(a) F (i) m  v
(b) P (ii) Momentum after collision are equal
p  p1
(c) P (iii) 2
t
(d) Momentum before collision (iv) m  a
1) a(iv), b(i),c(iii), d(ii) 2) a(ii), b(iv),c(i), d(iii)
3) a(iii), b(ii),c(iv), d(i) 4) a(i), b(iii),c(ii), d(iv)
44. A body kept on a smooth inclined plane having inclination 1 in s will remain stationary relative to
inclined plane if the body is given a horizontal acceleration equal to

g gs g s2 1
1) 2) 3) 4) g s 2  1
2
s 1 2
s 1 s
45. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure, the vector from the central point of the face ABOD to the
central point of the face BEFO will be

1 ˆ ˆ 1 1 1
1)
2

a i k  
2) a ˆj  iˆ
2
 
3) a ˆj  kˆ
2
 
4) a kˆ  iˆ
2

46. A drunker takes a step of 1 m in 1s. He takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. The
time taken by him to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start is
1) 26 s 2) 31 s 3) 37 s 4) 32 s
Pg. 6
47. Two masses A and B of 15 kg and 10 kg are connected with a string passing over a frictionless
pulley fixed at the corner of a table (as shown in figure). The coefficient of friction between the table
and block is 0.4. The minimum mass of C, that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is:

1) 10 kg 2) 5 kg 3) zero 4) 15 kg
48. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall its lower end at a distance 5m from the wall.
The minimum coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor so that the ladder remains in
equilibrium is nearly
1) 0.52 2) 0.72 3) 0.21 4) 0.36
49. A bullet of mass 25g moves horizontally at a speed of 250 m/s is fired into a wooden block of mass 1
kg suspended by a long string. The bullet crosses the block and emerges on the other side. If the
centre of the mass of the block rises through a height of 20cm. The speed of the bullet as it emerges
from the block is (take, g = 10 m / s 2 )
1) 300 m/s 2) 220 m/s 3) 150 m/s 4) 170 m/s
50. The average speed of the bob of a simple pendulum oscillating with a small amplitude A and time
period T is
4A 2 A 4 A 2A
1) 2) 3) 4)
T T T T
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which of the following reagents/ reactions will convert 'A' to 'B'?

1) PCC oxidation 2) Ozonolysis


3) BH 3 , H 2O2 / OH followed by PCC oxidation
4) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K 2Cr2O7
52. The conversion of propan-1-ol to n-butylamine involves the sequential addition of reagents. The
correct sequential order of reagents is
1) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN , (iii) H 2 / Ni, Na  Hg  / C2 H 5OH
2) (i) HCl (ii) H 2 / Ni ,(iii) Na(Hg)/ C 2 H 5OH
3) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN, (iii) CH 3 NH 2 4) (i) HCl (ii) CH 3 NH 2
53. The IUPAC name of ethylidene chloride is :-
1) 1-Chloroethene 2) 1-Chloroethyne 3) 1,2-Dichloroethane 4) 1,1-Dichloroethane
54. Consider the following pairs of electrons
(A) (i) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
(B) (i) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = –1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –1, ms = –1/2
(C) (i) n = 4, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +1/2
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +1/2
The pairs of electron present in degenerate orbitals is/are
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) B and C
Pg. 7
55. Identify the incorrect statement
1) Noble gases being monoatomic have no interatomic forces except weak dispersion forces and
therefore, they are liquefied at very low temperatures
2) Bromine and iodine are only sparingly soluble in water but are insoluble in organic solvents such
as chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, carbon disulphide and hydrocarbons to give coloured solutions
3) The large difference between the melting and boiling points of oxygen and sulphur may be
explained on the basis of their atomicity
4) In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in acid solution.
56. Halogenation of which one of the following will yield m-substituted product with respect to methyl
group as a major product ?

1) 2) 3) 4)

57. Which statement is not correct for benzenesulphonyl chloride ?

1) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent
2) It is used to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines
3) On treatment with secondary amine, it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali
4) It doesn’t react with tertiary amines
58. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin, that is not excreted easily ?
1) Vitamin B2 2) Vitamin B1
3) Vitamin B6 4) Vitamin B12
59. The ratio of number of oxygen atoms (O) in 16.0g ozone ( O3 ), 28.0 g carbon monoxide (CO) and
16.0 oxygen ( O2 ) is (Atomic mass : C = 12, O = 16 and Avogadro’s constant N A = 6.0 1023 mol 1 )
1) 3 : 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1 : 2 3) 3 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 1 : 1

60. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF3 , NH 3 , PF3 and I3 is :
1) I 3  BF3  NH 3  PF3
2) BF3  I 3  PF3  NH 3
3) BF3  NH 3  PF3  I3
4) I 3  NH 3  PF3  BF3
61. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly from 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done involved in the
process is
1) –5.74 J 2) –5.74 kJ 3) –57.4 kJ 4) –57.4 J
62. For the reaction A(g) →2B(g)
∆U = 2 kcal, ∆S = 15 cal K 1 at 300 K
∆G for the above reaction is
1) –1.5 kcal mol 1 2) –1.9 kcal mol 1
3) –3.5 kcal mol 1 4) –3.8 kcal mol 1
63. Identify the incorrect statement.
1) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability
to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes
2) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped
inside the crystal lattices of metals
3) The oxidation state of chromium in CrO42  and Cr2 O72  are not the same
4) Cr 2   d 4  is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2   d 6  in water

Pg. 8
64. Arrange the following conformational isomers of n-butane in order of their increasing potential
energy :

1) II < III < IV < I 2) I < IV < III < II

3) II < IV < III < I 4) I < III < IV < II
3
65. If the molar conductivity of 10 M HA is 39 S cm 2 mol 1 , then its dissociation constant will be
[Given 0m  HA  390 S cm2 mol 1 ]
1) 107 M 2) 106 M 3) 108 M 4) 105 M
66. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg  s   2 Ag   0.0001M   Mg 2   0.130 M   2 Ag  s  . Calculate its Ecell if Eocell   3.17V . (
log1.3  0.1139 )
1) 3.17 2) 2.96 3) 0.21 4) 3.38
67. For the non-equilibrium process,
A  B  products,
the rate is first-order w.r.t. A and second-order w.r.t. B. If 1.0 mole each of A and B introduced into a
1.0 L vessel and the initial rate was1.0  10 2 mol L1 s 1 , rate when half reactants have been turned
into products is :
1) 1.25  10 3 mol L1s 1 2) 1  10 2 mol L1 s 1
3) 2.50  10 3 mol L1s 1 4) 2.0  10 2 mol L1s 1
68. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 103 s 1 . How long will 5g of this reactant take to
reduce to 3g ?
1) 444 sec 2) 222 sec 3) 400 sec 4) 333 sec
69. Which of the following is a Transuranium element ?
1) Tb 2) W 3) Th 4) Np
70. Which among the following complexes shows optical isomerism ?
1) [ Pt  NH3 2 ClBr ] 2) [Co  NH 3 6 ]Cl3
3) [Co  en 3 ]Cl3 4) [ Fe  H 2O 5 NO]SO4
71. Which of the following alkyl halides is most reactive towards S N 1 reaction ?
1) CH 2  CH  CH 2  Cl 2) CH 3  CH 2  Cl
Cl
3) 4) |
CH 3  CH  CH 3
72. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 9
73. Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability.

1) B > A > C 2) A > B > C 3) C > B > A 4) C > A > B

3
74. The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic with Al is:
1) Br  and Be2 2) Cl  and Li 
3) S 2 and K  4) O2 and Mg 2 
75. The intermediate X, in the reaction

is

1) 2) 3) 4)

76. Match List-I with List-II

List I List-II
2
A. [ PtCl4 ] (i) sp 3 d
B. BrF5 (ii) d 2 sp 3
C. PCl5 (iii) dsp 2
D. [Co  NH3 6 ]3 (iv) sp 3 d 2
1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
77. Match the compounds given in column I with the reagents (Which can distinguish the compounds)
given in column II
Column I Column II
CH 3  C  H CH 3  C  CH 3
(A) || || (p) Tollen’s reagent
O O
I II

(B) (q) I 2 / NaOH

OH O
(C) | || (r) Lucas reagent
CH 3  CH  CH 3 , CH 3  C  CH 3
I II
CH 3  CH 2  C  H CH 3  C  H
(D) || || (s) Neutral FeCl3
O O
I II

Pg. 10
 Choose the correct code:
1) (A)-(p), (B)-(s), (C)-(r), (D)-(q)
2) (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(s)
3) (A)-(s), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(p)
4) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(s), (D)-(r)
78. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to
deviate easily from +3 oxidation state ?
1) Ce (At. No. 58) 2) La (At. No. 57) 3) Lu (At. No. 71) 4) Gd (At. No. 64)
79. Which of the following statements /relationships is not correct in thermodynamic changes ?
1)  U  0 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V
2) w   nRT in 2 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V1
V
3) w  nRT in 2 (isothermal reversible expansion of a gas)
V1
4) For a system of constant volume heat involved directly change to internal energy
80. Conjugate acid and bases for H 2 PO4 ion respectively are
1) H 3 PO4 and H 3 PO2 2) H 3 PO4 and PO43 
3) H 3 PO3 and HPO42 4) H 3 PO4 and HPO42
81. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane 2) n-Heptane
3) n-Butane 4) n-Hexane

82. During the change of O2 to O2 the incoming electron goes to the orbital:
1)  2 p y 2)  * 2 pz 3)  * 2 px 4)  2 p x
2
 
83. Fe  SCN   Fe  SCN  
3
 aq 

 aq 
Yellow  deep red   aq 
Colourless

The equilibrium can be shifted in the opposite direction (i.e., decrease in intensity of red colour) by
adding reagents like
1) Mercuric chloride 2) Potassium thiocyanate
3) Oxalic acid 4) Both (1) and (3)
84. Oxidation number of potassium in K 2 O , K 2O2 and KO2 , respectively is
1) +2, +1 and +1/2 2) +1, +1 and +1 3) +1, +4 and +2 4) +1, +2 and +4
85. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89600. What
is the number of iron atom per molecule of haemoglobin? (atomic weight Fe = 56)
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
SECTION-B
86. 3 p z orbital has
a) One radial node b) Two radial nodes
c) One angular node d) Two angular nodes
1) b and d only 2) a and c only 3) b and c only 4) a and d only
87. Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC official name
A. Unnilunium i. Mendelevium
B. Unniltrium ii. Lawrencium
C. Unnilhexium iii. Sea borgium
D. Unununnium iv. Darmstadtium
1) A - i 2) B - ii 3) C - iii 4) D – iv
88. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:
(A) LiCl (B) NaCl (c) KCl (d) CsCl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1) (A)>(C)>(B)>(D) 2) (B)>(A)>(C)>(D)
3) (A)>(B)>(C)>(D) 4) (A)>(B)>(D)>(C)
Pg. 11
89. If the sparingly soluble salts M 2 X , QY2 and PZ 3 have the same solubilities, their K sp values are
related as: (S << 1)
1) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3  2) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3 
3) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3  4) K sp  M 2 X   K sp  QY2   K sp  PZ 3 
90. Assertion : The relative stability of +1 oxidation state progressively increases for heavier elements:
Al  Ga  In  Tl .
Reason: Down the group, due to poor shielding effect of intervening d and f orbitals, the increased
effective nuclear charge holds ns electrons tightly (responsible for inert pair effect) and thereby,
restricting their participation in bonding.
1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion .
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false, but reason is true
91. Statement I: GeX 4 is more stable than GeX 2 .
Statement II: All tetrachlorides of group 14 elements are easily hydrolysed by water because the
central atom can accommodate the lone pair of electrons from oxygen atom of water molecule in d
orbital.
1) Both statement I and statement II are true
2) Statement I is true, statement II is false
3) Statement I is false, statement II is true
4) Both statement I and statement II are false
92. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) 4-methyl-2-nitro-5-oxohept-3-enal
2) 4-methyl-5-oxo-2-nitrohept-3-enal
3) 4-methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
4) 6-formyl-4-methyl-2-nitrohex-3-enal
alcoholic KOH Br2 Zn
93. CH 3  CH 2 Cl   A  B 

C
1) Acetylene 2) Ethane 3) Ethene 4) Methane
94. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B
exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour ?
1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
2) ∆mixH = 0 at constant T and P
3) ∆mixV = 0 at constant T and P
4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B
95. Which will have largest Tb ?
1) 180 g glucose in 1 kg water
2) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
3) 18 g of sucrose in 100 g of water
4) 65 g of urea in 1 kg of water
96. In the given reaction,

The number of electrons present in the product ‘P’ is ___

1) 6e– 2) 4e– 3) 8e– 4) 2e–
Pg. 12
97. Ethanoic acid cannot be obtained by which of the following reaction?
( i ) KCN
(i) C2 H 5Cl 
( ii ) H O 

3
( i ) aq . KOH
(ii) CH 3Cl ( ii ) PCC


KMnO4 / H
(iii) CH 3CH  CH 2 
( i ) Mg
(iv) CH 3 Br 
( ii ) CO2

( iii ) H 3O 

1) (iii) and (iv) only 2) (i) and (ii) only

3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i) and (iv) only
98. In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the
properties indicated against it
1) CO2  SiO2  SnO2  PbO2  increasing oxidising power
2) HF  HCl  HBr  HI  increasing acidic strength
3) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te  increasing pKa value
4) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3  increasing reducing power
99. In solid state PCl5 is a _____.
1) covalent solid
2) Octahedral structure
3) ionic solid with [ PCl6 ] octahedral and [ PCl4 ] tetrahedra
4) ionic solid with [ PCl4 ] octahedral and [ PCl6 ] octrahedra
100. Consider the following reaction sequence
HgSO4 CH 3 MgBr
CH 3  C  CH  dil . H 2 SO4
 X 
H O
Y
3

The number of (C – H)  -bonds in ‘Y’ is

1) 10 2) 12 3) 11 4) 9
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Microphylls are found in
1) Selaginella 2) Pteris 3) Dryopteris 4) Adiantum
102. Identify the given organism and label A, then select the suitable option

Organism Label A
(a) Laminaria Stipe
(b) Porphyra Frond
(c) Fucus Air bladder
(d) Polysiphonia Branches
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
103. Select the set of organisms in which flagellated gametes are not formed.
1) Ulothrix, Volvox, Spirogyra 2) Porphyra, Gelidium, Spirogyra
3) Sargassum, Fucus, Ulothrix 4) Ulothrix, Chara, Chlamydomonas
Pg. 13
104. “Protoxylem lies towards the A in stem. Such arrangement of xylem is called B . Select the
correct option for A and B.
1) A-Centre, B-Exarch 2) A-Periphery, B-Exarch
3) A-Centre, B-Endarch 4) A-Periphery, B-Endarch
105. A few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of the guard cells become specialized in their shape and size,
are known as
1) Subsidiary cells 2) Complementary cells
3) Bulliform cells 4) Passage cells
106. Companion cells
1) Are specialized sclerenchymatous cells
2) Are closely associated with sieve tube elements
3) Lack nucleus at maturity
4) Are found in gymnosperms
107. Read the given statements and select the correct ones regarding viroids.
(a) A protein coat is present
(b) Smallest self replicating particle
(c) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(d) They infect plants
1) Only (a) & (b) 2) Only (b) & (c)
3) Only (b), (c) & & (d) 4) Only (c) & (d)
108. Assertion (A): Members of kingdom fungi show a great diversity in their morphology and habitat.
Reason (R): Fungi are cosmopolitan and prefer to grow in cool and humid places only.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
109. Spores in slime moulds
1) Are formed during unfavourable conditions
2) Are without cell wall
3) Are dispersed with the help of flagella
4) Are formed in gemmae cups
110. Match the columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Polyandrous condition (i) Sepals united
b. Polyadelphous condition (ii) Filaments are united into more than two
bundles
c. Epiphyllous stamen (iii) Free stamens
d. Gamosepalous condition (iv) Stamen is attached to perianth
1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
111. Flowers of which of the given plants are asymmetric?
(a) Canna (b) Cassia (c) Bean (d) Mustard
(e) Datura
1) Only (b) 2) Both (c) and (e) 3) Both (d) and (e) 4) Only (a)
112. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation
1) Tomato – Axile 2) Mustard – Parietal
3) Marginal – Pea 4) Free central – Sunflower
113. Select the incorrect statement
1) Split-gene arrangement is a characteristic feature of eukaryotes
2) During splicing introns are removed and exons are joined
3) In prokaryotes, mRNA does not require any processing to become active
4) For the transmission of genetic information, DNA is better material
114. The protein encoded by gene crylAb controls
1) Mosquito 2) Beetles 3) Corn borer 4) Flies

Pg. 14
 115. RNA interference has been used in the development of tobacco plants resistant to
1) Nematodes 2) Armyworm 3) Beetles 4) Flies
116. The correct floral formula of sunhemp is-
1) 2)

3) 4)
117. Number of androecium in mustard is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 5
118. How many ATP molecules are required for regeneration of 6 molecules of RuBP during regeneration
step of C3 cycle?
1) 18 2) 3 3) 6 4) 1

119. The transmembrane channel embedded into the thylakoid membrane that carries out facilitated
diffusion of protons across the membrane into the stroma of the chloroplast is
1) CF1 -particle 2) CF0 -particle 3) Cytochrome b0 f 4) PQ
120. Which of the following pairs represents the cyanobacteria used as biofertilizers?
1) Anabaena and Oscillatoria 2) Rhizobium and Nostoc
3) Glomus and Aulosira 4) Azotobacter and Pinus
121. Pectinases and proteases are used for
1) Clarification of bottled juices 2) Lowering cholesterol levels of blood
3) Suppressing the immune system of the body 4) Primary treatment of sewage
122. Parthenocarpic fruit is
1) Develop after fertilization from ovary 2) Develop without fertilization
3) Develop after fertilization from thalamus 4) A & C both
123. Select the correct option representing hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending
order.
1) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
2) Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
3) Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species
4) Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom
124. Diplotene stage of meiosis
1) Involves crossing over between homologous chromosome
2) Can last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates
3) Involves synapsis of homologus chromosomes 4) Represents transition to metaphase I
125. Enzyme recombinase activity is seen in
1) Pachytene 2) Zygotene
3) Leptotene 4) Diplotene
126. Match column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. S-phase (i) Actual cell division
b. G2 -phase (ii) Centriole duplication
c. G1 -phase (iii) Tubulin protein synthesis
d. M-phase (iv) Duplication of most of the cell organelles
1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

Pg. 15
127. Select the odd one out w.r.t. functions of mesosomes
1) They help in cell wall formation
2) They help in DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells
3) They help in respiration and secretion process
4) They decrease the surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic content
128. Which of the following cell organelles is bounded by a single membrane?
1) Chloroplasts 2) Mitochondria
3) ER 4) Nucleus
129. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The cell wall of a young plant cell is capable of growth
(b) Secondary cell wall holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together
(c) Middle lamella is formed on the inner side of the plant cell
(d) The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by plamodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cell
1) One 2) Three 3) Four 4) Two
130. ‘P’ is the complex nitrogen containing homopolysaccharide that forms
1) Fungal cell wall 2) Reserve food material in plants
3) Energy storing material in mammals
4) Most abundant organic compound in biosphere
131. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

132. Choose the basic amino acid among the following

1) Glutamic acid 2) Lysine
3) Valine 4) Glycine
133. Experimental verification chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
1) Bateson and Punnet 2) T.H. Morgan
3) Watson and Crick 4) Sutton and Boveri
134. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Primary constriction (i) Kinetochores
(b) Beyond secondary constriction (ii) Satellite
(c) Disc shaped structures on the sides of primary (iii) Telomere
constriction
(d) End of the chromosome (iv) Centromere
1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
135. Complete the analogy and select the correct option.
Lysozyme : Bacteria : : Chitinase : ______
1) Plant cell 2) Fungus 3) Animal cell 4) Protozoan

Pg. 16
 SECTION-B
136. Restriction enzyme whose restriction site is represented by the region marked ‘A’ is

1) Pvu I 2) Bam HI 3) Pst I 4) Hind III

137. DNA that is isolated with the help of enzymes and chilled ethanol can be removed by a glass rod,
process called
1) Elution 2) Dialysis 3) Spooling 4) Cloning
138. Find the incorrect pair of the scientists and the plant material they worked on w.r.t. discovered of
plant growth regulators
1) F.W. Went - Oat seedling
2) E. Kurosawa - Rice seedling
3) F. Skoog - Ripened orange
4) Francis Darwin - Canary grass
139. Arrange the RQ of the following substrates in ascending order and select the correct option
a. Oxalic acid b. Tripalmitin c. Glucose d. Albumin
1) a < c < d < b 2) b < d < c < a 3) a < d < c < d 4) b < c < d < a
140. In one of the events related to translation of mRNA, the release factor can bind to all of the following
codons, except
1) UAG 2) UAA 3) UGG 4) UGA
141. Assertion (A): Pollen tube enters the ovule usually through micropylar end.
Reason (R): Embryo sac is mostly formed by functional megaspore present towards micropylar pole
of ovule.
Find the correct option w.r.t. above Assertion (A) and reason (R)
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
142. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
1) Serve as a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins
2) Includes two steps of substrate level phosphorylation reactions
3) Involves action of succinate dehydrogenase which is found in mitochondrial matrix
4) Is also known as gateway reaction
143. Cytochrome a, a3 and two copper centres constitutes
1) Complex IV of ETS that receives electron directly from cytochrome c
2) Complex V of ETS that receives electron directly from ubiquinone
3) Complex II of ETS that receives electron directly from NADH 2
4) Complex III of ETS that receives electron directly from FADH 2
144. Choose the incorrect match
1) Auxin - Controls xylem differentiation
2) ABA - Overcome apical dominance
3) Gibberellic acid - Speeds up malting process
4) Ethylene - Promotes abscission in plants
145. Which among the following is not a dedifferentiated tissue?
1) Interfascicular vascular cambium 2) Wound cambium
3) Cork 4) Cork cambium

Pg. 17
146. A person has both I A and I B alleles of gene I. His blood group will be A due to B . Select the
correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
A B
1) AB Incomplete dominance
2) A Pleiotropy
3) B Dominance
4) AB Co-dominance
147. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Non-histone chromosomal proteins (i) Nucleotide polymerization
b. Severe Ochoa enzyme (ii) Extrachromosomal DNA
c. H2A, H2B protein (iii) Involved in packaging of chromatin
d. Plasmids (iv) Present in Nucleosome
1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
148. RNA polymerase I transcribes all of the following except
1) 5.8S rRNA 2) 18 S rRNA 3) 5S rRNA 4) 28S rRNA
149. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of
1) Watson and Crick 2) Avery, Macleod, McCarty
3) Hershey and Chase 4) Meselson and Stahl
150. Sigma   factor and Rho    factor in prokaryotes are involved in transcription, respectively in
1) Termination and initiation 2) Elongation and termination
3) Initiation and termination 4) Termination and elongation
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Choose wrong statement for symmetry of animals.
(i) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
(ii) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
(iii) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and Echinoderms have bilateral symmetry.
(iv) Animals like annelids, arthropods have radial symmetry.
(v) The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit bilateral
symmetry.
1) (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
152. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilaginous fish from given statements.
(i) Petromyzon and Myxine are cartilaginous fish.
(ii) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(iii) Gill slits are separate and without operculum.
(iv) The skin is tough, containing minute cycloid/ctenoid scaled
(v) Due to the air bladder, they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
(vi) They have internal fertilization and many of them are viviparous.
1) (iv), (v) and (vi)
2) All except (iii) and (v)
3) All except (ii), (iii) and (vi)
4) All of the above
153. Which of the following not true for reproductive system of frog:
1) Vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s canal.
2) In the male frogs two ureters emerge from the kidneys and ureters act as urinogenital duct which
opens into the cloaca.
3) Functional connection present between kidneys and ovaries, oviduct arising from the ovaries
opens into the cloaca with ureters.
4) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.

Pg. 18
154. What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilization, (ii) Cryo presentation and (iii) tissue
culture?
1) All are in situ conservation methods
2) All are ex situ conservation methods
3) All require ultra modern equipment and large space
4) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms only

155.

Select the correct option w.r.t. age pyramids

1) A – Expanding, B-Stable, C-Declining 2) A-Stable, B-Expanding, C-Declining
3) A-Stable, B-Declining, C-Expanding 4) A-Declining, B-Stable, C-Expanding
156. Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by:
dN K  N  dN  N
(i)  rN   (ii)  rN 1  
dt  K  dt  K
dN dN N K 
(iii)  rN (iv)  rN 
dt dt  N 
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 2) (i) and (ii) are correct
3) (ii) and (iv) are correct 4) (i) and (iii) are correct
157. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(2) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(3) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(4) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (1) and (4) only 2) (2) and (4) only 3) (2) and (3) only 4) (1), (3) and (4) only
158. Assertion: Transgenic animals are used for chemical safety testing.
Reason: Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic
substances.
Mark the correct choice from given options:
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
159. Identify the molecules shown below and select the right option which giving their correct source and
use.

1) Cocaine – Erythroxylon coca – Interferes the transport of dopamine

2) Heroin – Cannabis sativa – Depressant and slows down body functions
3) Cannabinoids – Atropa belladonna – Produces hallucinations
4) Morphine – Papaver somniferum – Sedative and painkiller
Pg. 19
160. What will be the cardiac output of a person if both ventricles of heart totally pump 200 ml blood
during one cardiac cycle and the rate of heart beat is 77/minute?
1) 15400 ml/minute 2) 5040 ml/minute 3) 6000 ml/minute 4) 7700 ml/minute
161. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or
4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place
1) Stabilising selection 2) Disruptive selection
3) Cyclical selection 4) Directional selection
162. Assertion : Gene flow increases genetic variations.
Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the
donor population affects allele frequency.
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
163. Which of the following statements are incorrect for Natural selection?
(i) Natural selection is based on certain observations which are factual.
(ii) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuation, means that there had been
competition for resources.
(iii) Variation is the most fundamental evolutionary factor and all variations are inherited to the
progeny.
(iv) Variations which are heritable and which make resource utilization better for few (adapted to
habitat better) will enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny.
(v) Herbicides, pesticides etc., resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or
years and not centuries.
(vi) Appearance of herbicides, pesticides etc., resistant organisms/cells are examples of evolution by
anthropogenic action.
1) (i), (ii) and (vi) 2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vii)
3) Only (iii) 4) All of these
164. Assertion : Sequences in DNA fragment in HGP were arranged based on some overlapping regions
present in them.
Reason : Alignment of these sequences was humanly not possible. Therefore, specialized computer
based programmes were developed.
1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
165. How many statements are correct?
(i) Satellite DNA used as probe in DNA fingerprinting shows very high degree of polymorphism.
(ii) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite.
(iii) Their copy number varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
(iv) The size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb.
(v) DNA from a single cell is not enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
(vi) DNA fingerprinting can be used to determine population and genetic diversities.
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Only two
166. Identify the correct statement:
(i) Henking could trace a specific nuclear structure all through spermatogenesis in a few insect and
named it a X body.
(ii) In XX + XY type of sex determination both males and females have usually unequal number of
chromosome.
(iii) Grasshopper is an example of XO-XX type of sex determination.
(iv) In XO and XY type of mechanism male heterogamety is observed.
(v) Sex chromosome of a female bird is designated to be Z and Y chromosomes.
1) (i), (ii), (iii) 2) (i), (iv), (v) only
3) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) 4) All are correct
Pg. 20
167. Haemophilic female marries normal male, the theoretical ratio of their offsprings regarding
haemophilia will be
1) All offsprings are haemophilic 2) All girls are haemophilic
3) All sons are haemophilic 4) Half daughters and half sons are haemophilic
168. Given below is a pedigree chart with symbols for sex-linked trait in humans. The trait of the above
pedigree chart is:

1) Recessive Y-linked 2) Recessive X-linked

3) Dominant Y-linked 4) Dominant X-linked
169. Match the columns and select correct option:
Column I Column II
(A) Chemical (i) Tubectomy and vasectomy
(B) IUDs (ii) Copper T and Lippes loop
(C) Barriers (iii) Condom and cervical cap
(D) Sterilization (iv) Spermicidal jelly and foam
(v) Coitus interrupts and calendar method
1) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i) 2) A(iv), B(v), C(ii), D(iii)
3) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(v) 4) A(iv), B(ii), C(v), D(i)
170. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
(B) Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptives.
(D) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) A, C 2) A, B 3) B, C 4) C, D
171. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction acts on:
1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.
2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin
172. Read the following statements:
(i) Each seminiferous tubules is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and
Sertoli cells.
(ii) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions and provide nutrition to the germ cells.
(iii) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial space, contain interstitial cells for
secretion of inhibin.
(iv) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
(v) The male sex accessory ducts include epididymis and vas deferens.
(vi) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
How many statements are correct?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six

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173. Fertilization is fusion of
1) Diploid spermatozoa with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
2) Haploid spermatozoa with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
3) Diploid spermatozoa with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
4) Haploid spermatozoa with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote.
174. Testis and ovary performs dual function as a primary sex organ as well as an endocrine gland. Select
incorrect statements for gonads:
(i) The testis secretes androgens mainly testosterone.
(ii) Androgens stimulate the development, maturation and functions of the male accessory sex organs
and secondary sex characters of the male.
(iii) Testosterone stimulates spermatogenesis, male sexual behavior (libido) and erythro-poiesis.
(iv) The ovary secretes estrogen and progesterone.
(v) Estrogen stimulates growth and development of female accessory sex organs and secondary sex
characters.
(v) Progesterone plays a major role in the maintenance of pregnancy as well as in mammary gland
development and lactation.
(vi) Gonadial hormones produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate
metabolism.
1) (vi) and (vii) 2) (iii) and (vi) 3) (iii), (v) and (vii) 4) None of these
175. According to the accepted concept of hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target
organs, then the target organ will:
1) Continue to respond to hormone but in opposite way
2) Continue to respond to the hormone without any difference
3) Continue to respond to hormone but will require higher concentration
4) Not respond to the hormone
176. PTH causes
1) Hypercalcaemia 2) Hypocalcaemia
3) Hyperglycacemia 4) All of these
177. Low heartbeat, low body temperature and retarded sexual and neural development are indications of
1) Thyroxine deficiency 2) Deficiency TCT
3) PTH deficiency 4) Melatonin deficiency
178. How many statements are incorrect for neuron?
(i) Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a polarized state.
(ii) Different types of ion channels are present on the neural membrane.
(iii) Ion channels are selectively permeable to different ions.
(iv) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse the axonal membrane is comparatively less
permeable to K  and nearly impermeable to Na  .
(v) Resting membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
(vi) The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions
by the sodium-potassium pump.
(vii) In sodium-potassium pump 2 Na  transported outward and 3 K  into the cell.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
179. Mammals have the ability to produce a concentrated urine. Which statement does not match with
production of concentrated urine?
(i) The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this.
(ii) Concentration of urine occurs by removal of water.
(iii) Osmolarity increasing from cortex to medulla.
(iv) Osmolarity increasing from 300 mos mol L1 in the cortex to about 1200 mos mol L1 in the inner
medulla.
(v) Osmolarity gradient from cortex to medulla is mainly caused by urea and HCO3 .
(vi) Presence of osmolarity gradient helps in formation of dilute urine.
(vii) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
1) (iv) and (v) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (v) and (vii) 4) (v) and (vi)

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180. Osteoporosis is a
1) Inflammation of joints
2) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
3) Age-related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures
4) All of the above
181. Assertion: For a recipient to receive blood from a donor, the recipients plasma must not have an
antibody, cause the donor’s cells to agglutinate.
Reason: The possibility of blood clumping does not depends on anti A and anti B antibody and blood
type.
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
182. Read the following statements:
(i) The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve.
(ii) Bicuspid or mitral valve guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
(iii) The openings of the right and the left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
respectively are provided with the semilunar valves.
(iv) Only ventricle of heart is made of cardiac muscles.
(v) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
(vi) A specialized cardiac musculature present in the right upper corner of the right atrium called the
atrio-ventricular node (AVN).
Which option contain only wrong statement?
1) (i), (ii) and (v) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3) (iv) and (vi) 4) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

183. Low PO2 , high PCO2 , high H concentration and higher temperature, the conditions are favourable for
the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin?
1) In the alveoli 2) In the tissues
3) In the both tissues and alveoli 4) None of the above
184. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on their habitats
and levels of organization, which option contain all correct statements?
(i) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 and CO2 by simple
diffusion over their entire body surface.
(ii) Earthworms use their moist cuticle for exchange O2 with CO2 .
(iii) Insects have tracheal tubes to transport atmospheric air within the body.
(iv) Special vascularised structures called gills are used by most of the aquatic arthropods and
molluscs.
(v) Terrestrial forms use vascularised bags called lungs for the exchange of gases.
(vi) Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire through lungs
and also use skin for respiration.
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) 2) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 4) All of the above
185. Which characters for cell junctions are correct from given characters?
(i) Three types of cell junctions are found in the epithelium and other tissues, these are called as
tight, adhering and gap junctions.
(ii) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iii) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
(iv) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
(v) Rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules takes place through
adhering junctions.
1) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

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 SECTION-B
186. Assertion : Generally, a woman do not conceive during lactation period.
Reason: The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.
Mark the correct choice from given options:
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
187. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g;
Primary consumer : 60 g;
Primary producer : 10 g;
1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
2) Inverted pyramid of energy
3) Upright pyramid of numers
4) Upright pyramid of biomass
188. The process of mineralization by micro-organisms helps in the release of
1) Inorganic nutrients from human
2) Both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
3) Organic nutrients from humus
4) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
189. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors.
What do A, B and C represent respectively?

1) A-Regulator, B-Partial regulator, C-Conformer

2) A-Partial regulator, B-Regulator, C-Conformer
3) A-Regulator, B-Conformer, C-Partial regulator
4) A-Conformer, B-Regulator, C-Partial regulator
190. Haemozoin is a toxic substance formed in case of malaria. It is produced from
1) Glycogen of RBC
2) Coloured pigment of RBC
3) Dead WBC
4) Cryptozoites
191. Identify correct statement regarding to a particular type of immunity
1) Cellular barriers – Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes
2) Active immunity – Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections
3) Physical barriers – Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes
4) Physiological barriers – Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogential tract and the HCl in
stomach
192. The child affected with Down’s syndrome has:
1) Flattened nasal bridge, open mouth with protruding tongue
2) Small forehead, bulging eyes and raised nasal bridge
3) Habitually open mouth with long protruding tongue, bulging eyes and small forehead
4) Large forehead, raised nasal bridge and long included tongue
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193. How many statements are true for reproduction in Periplaneta americana?
(i) Anterior part of female genital pouch contains female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collateral
glands.
(ii) In males, genital pouch or chamber lies the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th
terga and ventrally by the 9th sternum.
(iii) Males, genital pouch contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis.
(vi) Males bear a pair of short, threat like anal styles which are absent in females.
(v) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five
194. How many statements are not correct for transport of oxygen?
(i) About 97 per cent of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood.
(ii) Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2 .
(iii) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2 .
(iv) Partial pressure of CO2 , hydrogen ion concentration and temperature are the other factor which
can interfere with this binding.
(v) A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted
against the PO2 .
(v) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of CO2 to the lungs under normal
physiological conditions.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
195. Assertion: Medulla is considered as a respiratory centre in animals.
Reason : Rate of breathing is regulated by medulla because of the changes in O2 content of blood.
1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
196. I. Effect of increased ventricular B.P. on AV valves.
II. Effect of increased ventricular B.P. on semilunar valves.
1) I and II are same and II generates dubb sound
2) I and II are opposite and I generates no sound
3) I and II are same but II generates no sound
4) I and II are opposite and I generates lubb sound
197. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Read
following statements.
(i) Eelctrocardiograph machine is used to obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
(ii) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads one to
each wrist and to the left ankle.
(iii) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
(iv) The P wave represents the repolarization of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the
atria.
(v) The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular
contraction.
(vi) The T wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
Which of the followign option contain correct statements:
1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
3) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
198. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption, then which of the following will not help in
the maintenance of blood volume?
1) Decreased glomerular filtration 2) Increased ADH secretion
3) Decreased arterial pressure in kidney 4) Increased arterial pressure in kidney
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199. During the transmission of nerve impulse, which of the following takes place?
1) Flux of Na  inwards and K  outwards
2) Flux of K  inwards and Na  outwards
3) Flux of K  inwards and Na  inwards
4) Flux of K  outwards and Na  outwards
200. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
1) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
2) First negative, then positive and continued to be positive
3) First positive, then negative and continue to be positive
4) First negative, then positive and continue to be negative

* * All the Best * *

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