PART-A: MULTIPLE QUESTIONS

1. The dynamic pressure of an air mass increases proportionally with:

a. Velocity and density. b. Density and the square of the velocity.
c. The static pressure. d. Velocity and the square of the density.

2. Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:

(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure)
a. pt = q – ps b. pt = q + ps c. pt = ps – q d. pt +ps = q

3. Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an aerofoil and the:
a. Horizon b. Datum line connecting leading and trailing edge of the fuselage.
c. Direction of relative wind. d. Mean camber line.

4. If continuity equation is applicable to an incompressible air flow in a tube at low subsonic speed, if
the diameter of the tube increases the speed of the flow:
a. increases b. becomes sonic c. decreases d. remains the same

5. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of
air will be subjected to which of the following:
a. Dynamic pressure b. Static Pressure
c. Static pressure and dynamic pressure d. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure

6. The angle between the longitudinal axis of an airplane and the chord line of the wing is the:
a. angle of attack b. climb path angle c. pitch angle d. angle of incidence

7. The aspect ratio of a wing is the ratio between the (1) ………and the (2) ……...
a. (1) mean chord; (2) the root chord. b. (1) wing span; (2) the mean geometric chord.
c. (1) wing span; (2) the root chord. d. (1) tip chord; (2) the wing span.

8. The static pressure of the flow in a tube:

a. decreases when diameter decreases
b. is total pressure plus dynamic pressure
c. is the pressure at the point at which the velocity is zero
d. increases when the diameter decreases.

9. Regarding a Venturi in a subsonic air flow, which of the following statements is correct?
(i) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed air flow and the airflow in the throat are equal.
(ii) The total pressure in the undisturbed air flow and in the throat are equal.
a. (i) correct; (ii) correct b. (i) correct; (ii) incorrect
c. (i) incorrect; (ii) incorrect d. (i)incorrect; (ii) correct

10. Air flow over the upper surface of a cambered wing

a. increases in velocity and pressure
b. increases in velocity and decreases in pressure
c. reduces in velocity and increases in pressure
d. both velocity and pressure remain unchanged

11. A high aspect ratio wing is a wing with

a. long span, long chord b. long span, short chord
c. short span, long chord d. moderate chord and moderate span

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12. For a cambered wing section, the zero-lift angle of attack will be:
a. zero b. 4 degrees c. negative d. none of the above

13. What is the sea level pressure in standard atmosphere?

a. 1013.2 mb b. 1012.3mb c. 1032.2mb d. 1015.00mb

14. If the velocity in a stream tube is increased, the streamlines:

a. remain the same b. move further apart
c. are not affected by the velocity d. move closer together

15. The line joining the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil that is precisely midway between the
upper and lower surfaces is the:
a. mean aerodynamic chord
b. average camber line
c. mean camber line
d. chord line

16. When does the angle of incidence change?

a. when aircraft attitude changes b. when the aircraft is ascending or descending
c. it never changes. d. whenever pilot wants to.

17. The difference between IAS and TAS will:

a. increase with temperature decrease b. increase with increasing air density
c. decrease at high speed d. decrease with decreasing altitude

18. Given 2 wings, the first with a span of 12m and a chord of 2m. The second has a span of 6m and a
chord of 1m. How do their aspect ratios compare?
a. The first is higher
b. The second is higher
c. They are the same.

19. The CP of a positive cambered wing at an increasing angle of attack will:

a. move aft b. move spanwise c. move forward d. not move

20. The greatest flow velocity over a cambered wing at a positive angle of attack is:
a. at the stagnation point b. over the upper surface
c. under the lower surface d. in front of the stagnation point

21. At zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a symmetrical aerofoil section would
be:
a. greater than atmospheric pressure. b. equal to atmospheric pressure.
c. less than atmospheric pressure. d. nonexistent.

22. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The stagnation point moves downward on a wing profile as the angle of attack increases
b. The CP is the point on the leading edge of a wing where airflow splits up
c. The stagnation point is another name for the CP
d. The stagnation point is always situated above the chord line, the CP is not.

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23. Why do lower layers contain greater proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere?
a. because air is very viscous
b. because air is compressible
c. because of greater levels of humidity at low altitude
d. because air has very little mass

24. Which will weigh the least?

a. 98 parts of dry air and two parts of water vapour
b. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapour
c. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapour.

25. When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere and comparing it with the actual
atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct?
1) Temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the actual atmosphere.
2) A requirement exists for a hypothetical ‘standard’ atmosphere.
3) The values given in the international standard atmosphere exists at the same altitude in the actual
atmosphere
4) The International Standard Atmosphere was designed for calibration of pressure instruments and the
comparison of aircraft performance calculations
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

1. When considering relationship between different types of air speed:

1) True air speed (TAS) is read directly from the air speed indicator (ASI).
2) Equivalent air speed is indicated air speed corrected for position error
3) Indicated air speed is not a speed at all, it’s a pressure.
4) True air speed is the speed of the aircraft through the air
Which of the above statements is true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

1. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift acts is the:

a. The midpoint of the chord
b. Centre of gravity
c. Centre of pressure
d. Aerodynamic centre

1. In International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), values of pressure, temperature and density represent:
a. Actual condition
b. Average condition
c. Weather condition.

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2. Which of the following statements is true?
1. Relative air flow, free stream flow, relative wind and aircraft flight path are parallel
2. Aircraft flight path, relative air flow, relative wind and free stream air flow are parallel, but the
aircraft flight path is opposite in direction.
3. The pressure, temperature and relative velocity of the free stream flow are unaffected by the
presence of the aircraft.
4. The relative wind is produced by the movement of the aircraft through the air.
5. The direction of flight is parallel with and opposite to the relative air flow.
a. 5 only
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2, 3 , 4 and 5

1. The relationship between EAS and TAS is given by:

a. EAS = TAS√ (ρ0 /ρ)
b. TAS = EAS√ (ρ/ρ0)
c. TAS = EAS√ (ρ0/ρ)

1. An aircraft’s mass is the result of:

a. Its weight
b. How big it is
c. How much matter it contains
d. Its volume

2. Unit of mass is:

a. Joule
b. Watt
c. Newton
d. Kilogram

1. The definition of a force is:

a. That which causes a reaction to take place
b. Thrust and drag only
c. A push or a pull
d. The result of an applied input

2. Unit of force is:

a. Mass kilogram
b. Newton meter
c. Joule
d. Newton

3. Weight is the result of:

a. Force on mass due to gravity
b. Action of a falling mass
c. How much matter the object contains
d. Rate of mass per unit volume

4. If a force is applied to a mass and mass does not move:

a. Work is done even though there is no movement of mass
b. Work is done only if mass moves a long way
c. Power is exerted but no work is done
d. No work is done
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5. The definition of power is:
a. The rate of force applied
b. The rate of movement per second
c. The rate of doing work
d. The rate of applied force

6. When considering kinetic energy:

1 - a moving mass can apply a force by being brought to rest
2 - kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of its motion
3 - if a body's kinetic energy is increased, a force must have been applied
4 - kinetic energy =1/2 m V2 joules
The combination of correct statements is:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 2 and 4

7. The property of inertia is said to be:

a. The energy possessed by a body because of its motion
b. The opposition which a body offers to a change in motion
c. That every action has an equal and opposite reaction
d. The quantity of motion possessed by a body

8. Considering Newton’s second law of motion:

1 - every action has an equal and opposite reaction
2 - if the same force is applied, the larger the mass the slower the acceleration
3 - if two forces are applied to the same mass, the bigger the force the greater the acceleration
4 - the acceleration of a body from a state of rest, or uniform motion in a straight line, is
proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the mass
The combination of true statements is:
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4

9. The definition of velocity is:

a. Rate of change of acceleration
b. Rate of change of displacement
c. The quantity of motion possessed by a body
d. The acceleration of a body in direct proportion to its mass

10. When considering acceleration:

1 - acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
2 - the units of acceleration are metres per second
3 - the units of acceleration are kilogram-metres per second
4 - the units of acceleration are seconds per metre per metre
Combination of correct statements is:
a. 4 only
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 2

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11. Definition of momentum is:
a. The quantity of mass possessed by a body
b. The quantity of inertia possessed by a body
c. The quantity of motion possessed by a body
d. The opposition which a body offers to a change in velocity

12. High humidity causes air density to

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same

3. The amount of water vapor in the air is called:

a. Dampness
b. Relative humidity
c. Humidity
d. The degree of saturation

4. If the temperature increases, the take-off distance required

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same

5. Compared to sea level airport, the takeoff distance required at a high elevation airport is:
a. Greater
b. Less
c. The same

6. Engine performance and airframe aerodynamic performance are poorer at high altitude mainly
because of:
a. The lower temperature
b. The higher pressure
c. The lower density
d. The higher relative velocity

7. Aircraft performance deteriorates at:

a. High temperature
b. Low temperature
c. No effect of temperature

8. The lower the air density, the performance of airframe and engine is:
a. Poorer
b. Better
c. No effect of temperature

9. Dynamic pressure is:

a. Density times speed squared
b. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared
c. Half the true airspeed times the density squared
d. Half the density times the true airspeed squared

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10. A tube facing an air flow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to:
a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
d. The difference between total pressure and static pressure

11. A steady flow of molecules around the aerofoil where succeeding molecules follow each other is
called
a. Unsteady flow
b. Turbulent flow
c. Streamline flow

12. A disturbed flow with eddying is called

a. Streamlined flow
b. Turbulent flow
c. Free stream flow

13. Static pressure in the air is exerted:

a. In all direction
b. Down
c. Up

14. Dynamic pressure is the pressure due to

a. Motion
b. No motion
c. Weight of the air

15. Bernoulli’s principle describes that in a stream line flow, the total pressure energy:
a. Changes
b. Remains constant
c. Is very high

16. Total pressure energy is:

a. Static pressure + dynamic pressure
b. Static vent
c. Pitot pressure – pressure at static vent

17. In a stream line flow, if dynamic pressure increases then, for total pressure to remain constant, the
static pressure will
a. Remain constant
b. Decrease
c. Also increase

18. If the relative velocity between the airflow and the aerofoil increases, then dynamic pressure will:
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Remain constant

19. If velocity increases, static pressure:

a. Increases
b. Remains unchanged
c. Decreases

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20. Increasing curvature of the upper surface of the wing causes the air flow over it to:
a. Speed up
b. Slow down
c. No changed in the flow parameters

21. Curvature of the wing surfaces is called:

a. Camber
b. Mean camber
c. Symmetrical wing surfaces

22. The line drawn half way between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing is called:
a. Camber
b. Mean chord
c. Mean camber line

23. The straight line joining the leading edge and trailing edge of an aerofoil is called:
a. Camber line
b. Chord line
c. Mean camber line

24. The greatest distance between upper and lower surfaces of a wing is called:
a. Camber
b. Chord
c. Thickness

25. As the air flow accelerates over the upper surface of a well-cambered wing, the static pressure:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unchanged

26. In a normal flight, the static pressure over the top surface of a well-cambered wing as compared to
the static pressure beneath the wing is:
a. Lesser
b. Greater
c. The same

27. The difference between the static pressure above and below the wing generates:
a. Lift force
b. Drag force
c. Total reaction force

28. The angle between the chord line and the direction of the relative airflow is called:
a. Angle of flight
b. Angle of incidence
c. Angle of attack

29. If the angle of attack is increased gradually, the lifting ability of the wing
a. Decreases
b. Remains the same
c. Increase

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30. At a critical angle of attack known as stalling angle, the streamline airflow breaks down and becomes
turbulent and lifting ability of the wing:
a. Increase
b. Remains good
c. Decreases

31. The forces acting on an aerofoil in-flight as a result of changes in static pressure around it, may be
considered to act through a point known as:
a. Centre of gravity
b. Centre of forces
c. Centre of pressure

32. As the angle of attack is gradually increased in the normal flight range, the lifting ability of the wing
increases and the centre of pressure:
a. Moves forward
b. Stays in the same place
c. Moves rewards

33. Beyond stalling angle of attack, the lifting ability of the wing decreases markedly and the CP:
a. Moves forward
b. Moves rewards
c. Remains stationary

34. The angle of attack and the wing shape determine the profile that the aerofoil presents to the air
flow determines:
a. Profile drag of the wing
b. Lifting ability of the wing
c. Flying ability of the wing

35. The lifting ability of the wing is given the technical name:
a. Coefficient of lift
b. Coefficient of drag
c. Coefficient of total reaction

36. The velocity of airflow(V) and the air density(ρ) are combined in the one expression (½ρV 2) which is
called:
a. Kinetic pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Dynamic pressure

37. CL (coefficient of lift) is determined by the wing shape and angle of attack(α). The pilot in a flight can
change:
a. Wing shape
b. Angle of attack
c. Both a and b

38. If the pilot increases the angle of attack so that lifting ability (CL)of the wing is increased, the same lift
force can be generated by the wing at a:
a. Higher velocity
b. Lower velocity
c. Same velocity

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39. At zero angle of attack, the lifting ability (CL) of a well cambered aerofoil will be:
a. Zero
b. Some negative value
c. Some positive value

40. At zero angle of attack, the lifting ability (CL) of a well cambered aerofoil will be:
a. Zero
b. Some negative value
c. Some positive value

41. Lift acts at 900 to:

a. Chord line
b. Relative airflow
c. Longitudinal axis

42. Lift generated by an aerofoil is:

a. Proportional to velocity squared(V2)
b. Proportional to velocity(V)
c. Inversely proportional to air density(ρ)
d. Inversely proportional to wing surface area(S)

43. If cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:

a. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases
b. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases
c. The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases
d. The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases

44. The statement “pressure plus kinetic energy remains constant” refers to:
a. Bernoulli's theorem
b. The principle of continuity
c. Newton's second law of motion
d. The Magnus effect

45. The definition of lift is:

a. the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
b. the aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil
c. the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
d. the aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow

46. On an aerofoil section, lift acts perpendicular to, and drag acts parallel to the:
a. Flight path
b. Longitudinal axis
c. Chord line
d. Aerofoil section upper surface

47. The angle between the chord line of the aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is
known as:
a. The angle of attack
b. The angle of incidence
c. The dihedral angle
d. The angle of sweep back

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48. At zero angle of attack, pressure along the upper surface of a symmetrical aerofoil section would be:
a. Greater than atmospheric pressure
b. Equal to atmospheric pressure
c. Less than atmospheric pressure
d. Non existent

49. The force used to overcome drag in straight and level cruising flight is:
a. Thrust
b. Lift
c. Total reaction

50. Thrust can be kept low by keeping:

a. Lift low
b. Drag low
c. Velocity low

51. Drag produced in the generation of lift is known as:

a. Induced drag
b. Profile drag
c. Pressure drag

52. Drag which is not associated with the generation of lift is known as:
a. Induced drag
b. Surface friction drag
c. Profile drag

53. Profile drag consists of

a. Induced drag, interference drag and vortex drag
b. Surface friction drag, interference drag and form drag
c. Surface friction drag, form drag and induced drag

1. Flush riveting and polishing of the wing surface reduce:

a. Surface friction drag
b. Induced drag
c. Form drag

2. As airspeed increases, drag due to skin friction:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same

3. Form drag occurs when airflow:

a. Becomes turbulent over the wing surface
b. Separates from the wing surface
c. Reattaches the wing surface

4. To reduce form drag, separation of the boundary layer flow from the wing surface should be:
a. Stopped
b. Encouraged
c. Delayed

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5. Streamlining the shapes reduces:
a. Interference drag
b. Surface friction drag
c. Form drag

6. As the aircraft flies faster the profile drag:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

7. The pressure difference between upper and lower surfaces of the wing is greatest at:
a. High angle of attack
b. Low angle of attack
c. Normal operating range of angle of attack

8. The formation of wing tip vortices and induced drag is greatest at

a. Moderate angle of attack
b. High angle of attack
c. Low angle of attack

9. In straight and level flight, high angles of attack are associated with:
a. Low airspeed
b. Medium airspeed
c. High airspeed

10. Vortices that are generated at the wingtips:

a. Cause much of drag at low speed
b. Cause much of drag at high speed
c. Cause a decrease in drag

11. The designer can help minimize the formation wing tip vortices and induced drag by:
a. Using wings of high aspect ratio
b. Using washout and wing tip modifications
c. Both a and b

12. A wing with washout has lower angle of attack at the:

a. Wing root
b. Wing mid-section
c. Wing tip

13. Induced drag increases with

a. High speed
b. Low speed
c. Independent of speed

14. Parasite drag increases with

a. High speed
b. Low speed
c. Independent of speed

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15. The total drag of an aircraft is at a minimum at:
a. High speed
b. A speed where induced drag is equal to profile drag
c. Low speed

16. At high angles of attack and low airspeeds:

a. The induced coefficient of drag is high
b. The induced coefficient of drag is low
c. The parasite coefficient of drag is high
d. All of the above are incorrect

17. By changing angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control aircraft’s:
a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag
b. Lift, gross weight and drag
c. Lift, airspeed and drag
d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

18. On a wing lift acts perpendicular to, and drag acts parallel to:
a. Flight path
b. Longitudinal axis
c. Chord line

19. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as:

a. square of the chord to the wingspan.
b. wingspan to the wing root.
c. area squared to the chord.
d. wingspan to the mean chord.

20. The angle of attack that gives the best L/D ratio is the:
a. Most efficient angle of attack
b. Least efficient angle of attack
c. None.

21. If you fly at the speed obtained at the best L/D ratio, then the required lift is obtained for the
a. Maximum drag
b. Minimum drag
c. None.

22. The best L/D ratio for an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is:
a. a minimum.
b. less than induced drag.
c. greater than induced drag.
d. equal to induced drag.

23. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for
maximum L/D ratio?:
a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
b. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
c. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
d. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.

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24. An aircraft will stall at the same:
a. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
b. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
d. indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor

25. If the weight of an aircraft is increased without change in CG position, the stalling angle of attack
will:
a. remain the same.
b. decrease.
c. increase.
d. the position of the CG does not affect the stall speed.

26. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a. lift and drag will both decrease.
b. lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c. lift will increase and drag will decrease.
d. lift and drag will both increase.

27. For an aircraft in steady turn the stalling speed will be:
a. the same as in level flight
b. at a lower speed than in level flight
c. at a higher speed than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack.
d. at a higher speed than in level flight and at the same angle of attack.

28. Formation of ice on wing leading edge will:

a. not affect the stalling speed.
b. cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a higher angle of attack.
c. cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack.
d. cause the aircraft to stall at a lower speed.

29. Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by:

a. increasing the adverse pressure gradient
b. increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c. distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d. increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer

30. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence:
a. simultaneously across the whole span.
b. at the centre of the span.
c. at the root.
d. at the tip.

31. Sweepback on a wing will:

a. reduce induced drag at low speed.
b. increase the tendency to tip stall.
c. reduce the tendency to tip stall.
d. cause the stall to occur at a lower angle of attack.

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32. A wing with washout would have:
a. the tip chord less than the root chord.
b. the tip incidence less than the root incidence.
c. the tip incidence greater than the root incidence.
d. the tip camber less than the root camber.

33. On an untapered wing without twist the downwash:

a. increases from root to tip.
b. increases from tip to root.
c. is constant across the span.
d. is greatest at centre span, less at root and tip.

34. Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by:

a. Increasing leading edge camber.
b. delaying separation.
c. Reducing the effective angle of attack.
d. Reducing span-wise flow.

35. A rectangular wing, when compared with other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at:
a. wing root providing adequate stall warning
b. wingtip providing inadequate stall warning
c. wingtip providing adequate stall warning
d. leading edge, where the wing root joins the fuselage

36. Aircraft nose movement up and down is in the pitching plane. It involves angular movement of the
aircraft around its CG and its:
a. Lateral axis
b. Longitudinal axis
c. Normal axis

37. A stabilator is:

a. A balancing weight
b. A vertical fin
c. A fixed tailplane and moveable elevator
d. A moveable horizontal stabilizer

38. At normal flight speeds for the right wing to rise, the right aileron will:
a. Go down
b. Rise
c. None.

39. Aircraft can get rid of adverse aileron yaw by the use of:
a. Fries aileron
b. Differential aileron
c. Both

40. If the differential ailerons are used to counter adverse aileron yaw, one aileron will rise by an
amount
a. Greater than the other aileron is lowered
b. Less than the other aileron is lowered
c. The same as the other aileron is lowered

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41. Movement of flight control surfaces is:
a. Limited by air loads
b. Limited by mechanical stops
c. Not limited

42. Increased airflow over control surfaces:

a. Increases their effectiveness
b. Decreases their effectiveness
c. No effect

43. At high speeds control surfaces, as compared low airspeeds, are:

a. More effective
b. Less effective
c. None

44. Slipstream from the propeller over the rudder and elevators:
a. Increases their effectiveness
b. Decreases their effectiveness
c. Does not affect

45. Aerodynamic balance designed to assist a pilot in deflecting a flight control surface may be:
a. A trim tab
b. An anti-balance tab
c. A mass placed forward of hinge line
d. A balance tab or some part of the surface placed ahead of the hinge line.

46. The correct method of using an elevator trim in an aircraft is to:

a. Change the attitude with the elevator and/ or the power with the throttle, allow the aircraft to
settle down, and then use the trim to remove steady control column pressure.
b. Change the attitude with the trim
c. Change the attitude, power and trim simultaneously

47. An anti-balance tab may be designed into a flight control surface to:
a. Provide a feel to the pilot and prevent excessive control movements
b. Prevent control surface flutter
c. Reduce the balancing moment required from the tailplane
d. aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the flight control surface

48. If the elevator is moved in the preflight external inspection, then the balance tab should:
a. Move in the same direction.
b. Move in the opposite direction.
c. Not move

49. Mass balance is used to:

a. Stop flutter of the control surface when the aircraft is parked.
b. Prevent control surface flutter in flight.
c. Keep the control surface flared in the flight.
d. Relieve control pressure on the pilot.

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50. An elevon is:
a. an all moving tailplane that has no elevator
b. the correct name for a V - tail
c. a surface that extends into the airflow from the upper surface of the wing to reduce the lift
d. a combined aileron and elevator fitted to an aircraft that does not have conventional
horizontal stabilizer (tailplane)

51. Control surface which gives longitudinal control is:

a. the rudder.
b. the ailerons.
c. the elevators.
d. the flaps.

52. Ailerons give:

a. lateral control about the lateral axis.
b. longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
c. lateral control about the longitudinal axis.
d. directional control about the normal axis.

53. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur:

a. with a rigid wing at high speed.
b. with a flexible wing at high speed.
c. with a rigid wing at low
d. with a flexible wing at low speed.

54. Yawing is a rotation around:

a. the normal axis obtained by elevator.
b. the lateral axis obtained by rudder.
c. the longitudinal axis obtained by ailerons.
d. the normal axis obtained by rudder.

55. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
b. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
c. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator down.
d. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.

56. The secondary effect of yawing to the port wing is:

a. roll to starboard
b. pitch nose up
c. roll first to starboard and then to port
d. roll to port

57. If an aileron is moved downward:

a. the stalling angle of that wing is increased
b. the stalling angle of that wing is decreased
c. the stalling angle is not affected but the stalling speed is decreased.

58. The purpose of differential aileron is to:

a. give a yawing moment which opposes the turn
b. reduce the yawing moment which opposes the turn
c. give a pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn
d. improve the rate of roll
17
59. The purpose of aerodynamic balance is:
a. to get the aircraft into balance.
b. to prevent flutter of the flying control.
c. to reduce the control load to zero.
d. to make the control easier to move.

60. A horn balance on a control surface is:

a. an arm projecting upward from the control surface to which the control cables are attached.
b. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
c. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
d. a projection of the leading edge of the control surface below the wing undersurface.

61. A control surface is mass balanced by:

a. fitting a balance tab.
b. attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line.
c. attaching a weight acting on the hinge line.
d. attaching a weight acting behind the hinge line.

62. The purpose of anti-balance tab is to:

a. trim the aircraft
b. reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds
c. reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only
d. give more feel to the controls

63. When the control column is pushed forward a balance tab on the elevator:
a. will move up relative to the control surface.
b. will move down relative to the control surface.
c. will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d. moves to the neutral position.

64. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a. to assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
b. to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
c. to provide feel to the controls at high speed.
d. to increase the effectiveness of the controls.

65. In an aircraft CP is after CG and thrust line is lower than the drag line. If there is a sudden loss of
thrust from the engine propeller, the nose would:
a. Pitch up
b. Pitch down
c. Neither

66. If L-W and T-D couples do not balance each other out, then there is a resultant pitching moment that
will raise or lower the nose of the aircraft. A small balancing force with a long moment arm is
provided by the:
a. Vertical stabilizer
b. Horizontal stabilizer
c. Rudder

18
67. For an aircraft to be in equilibrium in level flight:
a. Lift exceeds weight, and thrust equals drag.
b. Lift equals weight, and thrust equals drag.
c. Lift equals drag, and thrust exceeds drag.
d. Lift, drag, thrust and weight are all equal.

68. If the aircraft is loaded incorrectly so that CG is forward of the allowable range, then the elevator
force required to flare the aircraft for landing will be:
a. The same as usual
b. Greater than usual
c. Less than usual

69. Directional stability is improved with a:

a. moderate fin length
b. large fin
c. small fin

70. Lateral stability is increased if a wing has:

a. dihedral
b. washout
c. anhedral

71. An aircraft which is inherently stable will:

a. require less effort to control.
b. be difficult to stall.
c. not spin.
d. have a built - in tendency to return to its original state following the
removal of any disturbing force.

72. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:
a. statically and dynamically unstable.
b. statically stable but dynamically unstable.
c. statically unstable but dynamically stable.
d. statically and dynamically stable.

73. Longitudinal stability is given by:

a. the fin.
b. the wing dihedral.
c. the horizontal tailplane.
d. the ailerons.

74. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide:

a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
c. lateral stability about the normal axis.
d. directional stability about the normal axis.

75. Lateral stability is reduced by increasing:

a. Anhedral .
b. Dihedral .
c. Sweepback.
d. Fuselage and fin area.

19
76. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft:
a. is reduced by the effects of wing downwash.
b. is increased by the effects of wing downwash.
c. is not affected by wing downwash.
d. is reduced for nose up displacements, but increased for nose down
displacements by the effects of wing downwash.

77. To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of CG:
a. must always coincide with the AC.
b. must be forward of the Neutral Point .
c. must be aft of the Neutral Point .
d. must not be forward of the aft CG limit .

78. When the CG is very close to the forward limit:

a. very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
b. longitudinal stability is reduced.
c. very high stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.
d. stick forces are the same as for an aft CG.

79. If a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

a. wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which reduces the sideslip.
b. the fin will cause a rolling moment which reduces the sideslip.
c. dihedral will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip.
d. dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment .

80. A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have:
a. washout .
b. taper .
c. sweep.
d. anhedral .

81. If thrust line is not aligned with the drag line, then any power change:
a. Will cause a tendency for nose to pitch
b. Will not cause a tendency for nose to pitch
c. Will cause a tendency to roll.

82. Stability is the natural ability of an aircraft to return to its original condition after a disturbance like a
gust:
a. With any action being taken by the pilot
b. Without any action being taken by the pilot
c. None of the above

83. The most important factor contributing to the longitudinal stability of an aircraft:
a. Main wing
b. Tail wing
c. Fin

84. The restoring moment arm of the tail plane is greatest when the CG is :
a. Well forward
b. Well after
c. Somewhat after

20
85. In most training aircraft, the CP is:
a. Ahead of CG
b. Behind CG
c. At the same position as CG

86. A high wing aircraft is laterally stable with a high CP and a:

a. High CG
b. Low CG
c. Medium CG

87. The two types of stability characteristics interacting with each other are:
a. Longitudinal stability and directional stability
b. Longitudinal stability and lateral stability
c. Lateral stability and directional stability

88. If an aircraft is disturbed in roll by a gust and a wing drops, then it will:
a. Stall
b. Sideslip
c. Pitch down

89. At a high sideslip angle(large disturbance in yaw),stall occurs at:

a. Ventral fin
b. Dorsal fin
c. Vertical stabilizer

90. If flaps increase the lifting ability of a wing, then the required lift can be obtained at a:
a. Higher speed
b. Lower speed
c. None

91. The extension of flap:

a. Decreases the stalling speed
b. No effect on stalling speed
c. Increases the stalling speed

92. Trailing edge flaps :

a. Increases lift and decreases drag
b. Increases drag and decreases coefficient of lift
c. Increases lift and increases drag

93. Extension of flaps on a glide approach allows a:

a. Quicker descent
b. Steeper flight path
c. Flatter flight path

94. With flaps extended, the nose attitude of the aircraft is:
a. Unchanged
b. Higher
c. Lower

21
95. Extending flaps to an appropriate take off setting:
a. Does not affect the ground run
b. Shortens the ground run
c. Lengthens the ground run

96. When flaps are lowered stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a. remains the same, but CLmax increases.
b. increases and CLmax increases.
c. decreases, but CLmax increases.
d. decreases, but CLmax remains the same.

97. A split flap is:

a. a flap divided into sections which open to form slots through the flap.
b. a flap manufactured in several sections to allow for wing flexing.
c. a flap which can move up or down from the neutral position.
d. a flap where the upper surface contour of the wing trailing edge is fixed and only the
lower surface contour is altered when the flaps are lowered.

98. If landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a. reduced.
b. increased.
c. the same as for a landing with flaps.
d. the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.

99. Short period oscillation is:

a. Oscillation in yaw
b. Oscillation in roll
c. Oscillation in pitch

100. It is preferable to have a wing designed so that it stalls first near the:
a. Wing tip
b. Wing root
c. Wing trailing edge

101. With an increase in aircraft weight, minimum drag speed (VIMD):

a. Will be at the same value
b. Will be at a lower speed
c. Will be at a higher speed

102. Inset hinge provides:

a. Mass balance to assist control movement
b. Aerodynamic balance to prevent flutter
c. Aerodynamic balance to prevent control snatch
d. Aerodynamic balance to assist in control movement

103. Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is
correct?
a. The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero
b. At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is the lowest
c. The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases
d. The highest value of the lift/drag is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft weight

22
104. With increasing air speed, the transition point moves towards the leading edge resulting:
a. Decrease in skin friction drag
b. Increase in skin friction drag
c. Separation of boundary layer
d. Increase in form drag

105. Which flap configuration is characterized by large increases in CLMAX with minimum changes in
drag?
a. Plain flap
b. Split flap
c. Slotted flap
d. CLMAX does not increase when flaps are extended

106. Induced downwash:

a. reduces effective angle of attack of the wing
b. increases effective angle of attack of the wing
c. has no effect on angle of attack of the wing

107. At the same IAS, but at different altitudes the angle of attack will be:
a. comparatively higher at higher altitudes
b. comparatively lower at higher altitudes
c. same at all altitudes

108. A straight rectangular wing, without any twist, will:

a. have greater angle of attack at the tip
b. have the same angle of attack at all points along the span
c. have less angle of attack at the tip

d. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) To generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in IAS must be accompanied by a change in
angle of attack.
2) For a constant lift force, each IAS requires a specific angle of attack.
3) Minimum IAS is determined by CL MAX'
4) The greater the operating weight, the higher the minimum IAS.
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

109. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as
altitude is increased?
a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
a. Constant angle of attack and true air speed.

110. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aircraft's:
a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b. Lift, gross weight, and drag.
c. Lift, airspeed, and drag.
d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.

23
111. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack:
a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient

112. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.
b. Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.
c. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
a. Higher pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.

1. If more lift force is required because of greater operating weight, what must be done to fly at the
angle of attack which corresponds to CLMAX?
a. Increase the angle of attack
b. Nothing, the angle of attack for CLMAX is constant.
c. It impossible to fly at angle of attack which corresponds to CLMAX.
d. Increase the Indicated Air Speed (IAS)

1. At zero angle of attack, the lifting ability (CL) of a well cambered aerofoil will be:
a. Zero
b. Some negative value
c. Some positive value

2. Lift generated by an aerofoil is:

a. Proportional to velocity squared(V2)
b. Proportional to velocity(V)
c. Inversely proportional to air density(ρ)
d. Inversely proportional to wing surface area(S)

3. The angle of attack which gives the best L/D ratio:

a. Decreases with decrease in density
b. Is unaffected by density changes
c. Increases with a decrease in density

4. The upper part of the wing in comparison to the lower:

a. Generates more lift
b. Generates the same lift
c. Generates less lift

5. When aircraft stalls:

a. Lift and drag increases
b. Lift increases and drag decreases
c. Lift decreases and drag increases

6. The lift/drag ratio at the CLMAX:

a. Is maximum
b. Decreases
c. Unchanged

24
7. The amount of lift generated by a wing is:
a. Constant along the span
b. Greatest at the tip
c. Greatest at the root

8. The optimum angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle of attack at which:

a. The aerofoil produces maximum lift
b. The aerofoil produces zero lift
c. The highest lift/drag ratio is produced

9. A straight rectangular wing without any twist, will:

a. Have greater angle of attack at the tip
b. Have same angle of attack at all points along the span
c. Have less angle of attack at the tip

10. Drag produced by the production of lift is called:

a. Induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in air speeds.
b. Induced drag, and is not affected by changes in air speeds.
c. Parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in air speeds.
d. Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to square of velocity.

11. The best L/D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is:
a. A minimum
b. Less than induced drag
c. Greater than induced drag
d. Equal to induced drag

12. The resistance, or skin friction, due to viscosity of air as it passes along the surface of a wing is a type
of:
a. Induced drag
b. Form drag
c. Parasite drag
d. Interference drag

13. Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and air speed?
a. Parasite drag varies inversely as the square of the air speed
b. Induced drag increases as the square of the air speed
c. Parasite drag increases as the square of lift coefficient divided by the aspect ratio
d. Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the air speed.

14. Drag which is not associated with the generation of lift is known as:
a. Induced drag
b. Surface friction drag
c. Profile drag

15. Form drag occurs when airflow:

a. Becomes turbulent over the wing surface
b. Separates from the wing surface
c. Reattaches the wing surface

25
16. Streamlining the shapes reduces:
a. Interference drag
b. Surface friction drag
c. Form drag

17. The formation of wing tip vortices and induced drag is greatest at
a. Moderate angle of attack
b. High angle of attack
c. Low angle of attack

18. The designer can help minimize the formation wing tip vortices and induced drag by :
a. Using wings of high aspect ratio
b. Using wing washout
c. Wing tip modifications
d. All are correct

19. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an
aircraft:
a. Decreases because of lower parasite drag.
b. Increases because of increased parasite drag.
c. Increases because of increased induced drag.
a. Decreases because of lower induced drag.

20. The best L/D ratio of an aircraft in a given configuration is a value that:
a. Varies with Indicated Air Speed.
b. Varies depending upon the weight being carried.
c. Varies with air density.
d. Remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes.

21. What happens to total drag when accelerating from CLMAX to maximum speed?
a. Increases.
b. Increases then decreases.
c. Decreases.
d. Decreases then increases.

22. At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low
aspect ratio wing):
a. Increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.
b. Decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
c. Increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
d. Decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack.

23. Which statement is true regarding aircraft flight at L/Dmax?

a. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases parasite drag.
b. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift/drag ratio.
c. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases total drag for a given aircraft's lift.
a. Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases the lift and reduces the drag

26
24. As Indicated Air Speed increases in level flight, the total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than
the total drag produced at the maximum lift/drag speed because of the:
a. Decrease in induced drag only.
b. Increase in induced drag.
c. Increase in parasite drag.
d. Decrease in parasite drag only.

25. CL can be increased by either the extension of flap or by:

a. increasing the angle of attack
b. increasing the TAS
c. decreasing the ‘nose-up’ trim
d. increasing the CAS

26. Trailing-edge-flap extension will (i). . .. . .. . .. . .. . ..the critical angle of attack

and(ii). . .. . .. . .. . .. . .. .. . .the value of Clmx:
a. (i) decrease; (ii) decrease
b. (i) increase: (ii) decrease
c. (i) decrease; (ii) increase
d. (i) increase; (ii) increase

27. The maximum angle of attack for the flap-extended configuration when compared with the flap-
retracted configuration is:
a. smaller or larger, dependent on the angle of flap deflection
b. smaller
c. larger
d. unchanged

28. A slotted flap will increase the Clmax by:

a. decreasing the skin friction
b. increasing the camber of the aerofoil only
c. increasing the critical angle of attack
d. increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer

29. At a constant angle of attack, when trailing-edge flaps are extended Cl will:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain constant
d. vary as the square of the IAS

30. The movement of Fowler flaps when they are extended is that they first move (i). . .. . .. and then
move (ii). . .. . .. . .
a. (i) downwards; (ii) backwards
b. (i) backwards; (ii) downwards
c. (i) forwards; (ii) downwards
d. (i) downwards; (ii) forwards

31. The aerodynamic centre (AC) is the point at which:

a. Cl is the same for all angles of attack
b. all aerodynamic forces are the same for any angle of attack
c. the lift for any angle of attack is the same
d. the pitching moment is constant for all normal angles of attack

27
32. The effect that a ventral fin has on static stability is (i) Directional (ii) Lateral (iii) Longitudinal.
a. (i) none; (ii) negative; (iii) positive
b. (i) positive; (ii) negative; (iii) none
c. (i) negative; (ii) none; (iii) none
d. (i) positive; (ii) none; (iii) none

33. How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase?
a. The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
b. The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabilizer
c. The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change
d. Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab

34. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

a. camber.
b. meters.
c. degrees cross section tail angle.
d. % chord.

35. If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect

a. the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
b. the effective angle of attack is decreased.
c. the induced angle of attack is increased.
d. drag and lift are reduced.

36. The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the
wing and its direction of movement goes from:
a. beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
b. the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
c. beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
d. the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge

37. VA is:
a. the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
b. the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.
c. the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
d. the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.

38. Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?
a. Increased wing span.
b. Anhedral.
c. Dihedral.
d. High wing

39. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

a. The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.
b. The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
c. The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
d. The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.

28
40. There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the
turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that:
a. it has less tendency to separate from the surface
b. it is thinner
c. skin friction drag is less
d. energy is less

41. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

a. Is also known as dynamic pressure.
b. Is also known as static pressure.
c. Is greater at altitude than at sea level.
d. Is also known as total pressure.

42. The properties of earth’s atmosphere which influence the performance of aircraft are:
a. Its temperature, pressure and humidity.
b. Its oxygen content, pressure, and water vapour content.
c. Its water vapour content, temperature, pressure and density.
d. Its nitrogen content, oxygen content, temperature and pressure.

43. The horizontal stabilizer usually provides a downwards load in level flight because:
a. The main plane lift is always positive.
b. The lift/weight and thrust/drag couples combine to give a nose down pitch.
c. The lift produced is greater than required at high speed.
d. This configuration gives less interference.

44. The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a
definition of:
a. Laminar flow.
b. Turbulent flow.
c. Free stream flow.
d. Wind.

45. Which answer option most correctly completes the sentence?

The amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:
a. The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure
b. The square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it
c. The air density
d. The air temperature

46. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface
b. Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface
c. Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface
d. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge

47. The max speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:
a. VYSE
b. VFE
c. VNE
d. VNO

29
48. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:
a. The rudder
b. The horizontal tailplane
c. The rudder trim tab
d. The fin

49. By design, the CP on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircraft’s CG. If the aircraft is
longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch, nose down, by turbulence:
a. The tailplane will generate an upward force.
b. Neither an upward force nor a downward force will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft
will already be in equilibrium.
c. The aircraft will maintain its nose down attitude
d. Tailplane will generate a downward force

50. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no
dihedral, will provide:
a. Greater longitudinal stability.
b. The same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives
longitudinal stability.
c. Less lateral stability
d. Greater lateral stability.

51. Loading an aircraft so that the CG exceeds the aft limits could result in:
a. Loss of longitudinal stability and the nose pitching up at slow speeds.
b. Excessive upward force on the tail, and nose pitching down.
c. Excessive load factor in turns.
d. High stick forces.

52. Wing dihedral produces a stabilizing rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:
a. On the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls.
b. On the up-going wing when the aircraft is side slipping.
c. On the lower wing when the aircraft is side slipping.
d. On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.

53. Lowering flaps during a landing approach:

a. Permits approach at a higher IAS.
b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power.
c. Eliminates floating.
d. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

54. Stability around normal axis:

a. Is increased if the keel surface behind the CG is increased.
b. Is given by the lateral dihedral.
c. Depends on longitudinal dihedral.
d. Is greater if the wing has sweepback.

55. With the ailerons away from the neutral, induced drag is:
a. Higher on the lower wing plus profile drag increases.
b. Unchanged but profile drag is higher.
c. Higher on the upper wing plus profile drag increases.

30
56. The angle at which the chord line of the aerofoil is presented to the airflow is known as.
a. Angle of attack.
b. Resultant.
c. Angle of incidence.

57. The imaginary straight line which passes through an aerofoil section from leading edge to trailing
edge is called.
a. the chord line.
b. the direction of relative airflow.
c. centre of pressure.

58. A wing section suitable for high speed would be:

a. thin with high camber.
b. thick with high camber.
c. thin with little or no camber.

59. A straight rectangular wing, without any twist, will.

a. have less angle of attack at the tip.
b. have greater angle of attack at the tip.
c. have the same angle of attack at all points along the span.

26. Which will weigh the least?

a. 98 parts of dry air and two parts of water vapour
b. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapour
c. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapour.

113. An elevon is:

a. an all moving tailplane that has no elevator
b. the correct name for a V - tail
c. a surface that extends into the airflow from the upper surface of the wing to reduce the lift
d. a combined aileron and elevator fitted to an aircraft that does not have conventional horizontal
stabiliser (tailplane)

60. A straight rectangular wing, without any twist, will:

a. stall equally along the span of the wing.
b. stall first at the tip.
c. stall first at the root.

61. A swept wing tends to stall first at the:

a. centre section.
b. root.
c. tip.

62. The speed of air over a swept wing which contributes to the lift is:
a. less than the aircraft speed.
b. the same as the aircraft speed.
c. more than the aircraft speed.

63. If an aileron is moved downward:

a. the stalling angle of that wing is increased.
b. the stalling angle is not affected but the stalling speed is decreased.
c. the stalling angle of that wing is decreased.

31
64. If the wing loading of an aircraft were reduced the stalling speed would:
a. increase.
b. not be affected.
c. decrease.

65. Induced drag can be reduced by the use of:

a. streamlining.
b. high aspect ratio wings.
c. fairings at junctions between fuselage and wings.

66. _______ angle of attack is known as optimum angle of attack:

a. 5 to 7 degrees.
b. 3 to 4 degrees.
c. 10 to 12 degrees.

67. Induced drag is ________ at root:

a. lowest.
b. greatest.
c. neutral.

68. Profile drag is _______ to speed:

a. neutral.
b. inversely proportional.
c. proportional.

69. What produces the most lift at low speeds?

a. High camber.
b. Low aspect ratio.
c. High aspect ratio.

70. If the angle of attack is zero, but lift is produced, the wing:
a. is symmetrical.
b. is cambered.
c. has positive angle of incidence.

71. When is the angle of incidence the same as the angle of attack?
a. Never.
b. In descent.
c. When relative airflow is parallel to longitudinal axis.

32
 PART-2 : TRUE/FALSE

1. The straight line joining the ends of the mean camber line is called the chord. T
2. The thickness of an aerofoil is the distance between the upper and lower surfaces. F
3. Increasing the curvature of the upper surface of the wing causes the airflow over it to speed up.T
4. Air flow accelerates over upper surface of positively cambered aerofoil from leading edge to
maximum camber point due to negative pressure gradient. F
5. An airspeed indicator, calibrated to ISA, mean sea level conditions records dynamic pressure as a
speed. T
6. Maximum value of CL and minimum value of CD are not obtained at the best L/D. T
7. A decrease in thickness of a symmetrical aerofoil gives a higher CLMAX. F
8. Strong adverse pressure gradient causes the separation of boundary layer from the aerofoil surface.
T
9. Fineness ratio which is the measure of streamlining is given by the ratio “Depth/Length”.F
10. The higher the IAS, the stronger are the vortices-the greater is the induced drag. F
11. An aeroplane can be stalled at any airspeed or attitude. T
12. At speeds close to stall ailerons must be used with caution.T
13. Lowering of flap increases the maximum obtainable Lift/Drag ratio.F
14. Aerodynamic Centre (AC) is a stationary point located at the quarter chord, only when airflow is
subsonic.T
15. Large stability helps controllability of the aeroplane. F
16. Stability is the natural ability of an aircraft to return to its original condition of flight after being
disturbed with actions being taken by the pilot.F
17. Controllability refers to the ease with which the pilot can maneuver the aircraft using control
surfaces.T
18. Most aircraft are designed with only weak positive lateral stability and have slight tendency to spiral
instability.F
19. It is safe to fly with a load factor above the limit load factor because there is a safety factor of 1.5.F
20. Dynamic stability is reduced at high altitude due to reduced aerodynamic damping.T
21. EAS is equal to IAS at airspeeds less than 300knots, and is equal to TAS in standard atmosphere at
sea level only.T
22. The higher the temperature the lower the density-and the higher the aircraft performance.F
23. Daniel Bernoulli showed that in any kind of flow total energy remains constant.F
24. As angle of attack increases, the CL increases proportionally up to 160 angle of attack.F
25. A wing with washout has a lower angle of attack at the wing root.F
26. The most efficient angle of attack is the angle that gives the best lift/drag ratio.T
27. A mass balance is used to relieve control pressures on the pilot.F
28. When trailing edge flaps are deployed the centre of pressure moves after and the aircraft pitches
nose up.F
29. The higher the weight, the better is the climb performance.F
30. Wing design features such as anhedral, sweepback, high keel surface and low CG correct uninvited
roll of an aircraft.F

33
PART-3: BROAD QUESTIONS

1. Distinguish between Indicated Air Speed (IAS) and True Air Speed (TAS). (2)
2. What are Free Stream Airflow, Steady Streamline Airflow and Turbulent Airflow? (1+1 +1)
3. How does pressure distribution over an aerofoil change as we increase the angle of attack from
negative values to beyond the stalling angle? (3)
4. If the drag of an aircraft is equal to the thrust in straight and level flight, what makes the aircraft go
forward? (2)
5. What is the difference between Troposphere and Stratosphere? (2)
6. What is the meaning of (a) Sub Sonic Speed and (b) Supersonic Speed? (2)
7. What is “position error”? (1)
8. Give a list of important factors upon which aerodynamic force” Lift” depends. (3)
9. What is “Coefficient of Lift”. (1)
10. What is the relationship between Coefficient of Lift and Angle of Attack? (2)
11. Define Induced Drag. (1)
12. What is Coefficient of Induced Drag? (1)
13. What is the relationship between Induced Drag and Velocity(IAS) (2)
14. Write the formula for Coefficient of Drag (CD). (1)
15. What is the relationship between Coefficient of Drag and Angle of Attack? (2)
16. What do you understand by the term “Streamline Shape”? (1)
17. What is the significance of Aspect Ratio? (1)
18. What is the cause for stall? (2)
19. How do you recover from the stall? (2)
20. What is the behavior of the aeroplane close to the stall? (2)
21. What is the purpose of high lift devices? (1)
22. Make a comparative study of trailing edge flaps with the help of lift curves for the same flap
deflection angle. (2)
23. What are the main effects of ice and frost on the aircraft? (2)
24. What are the different types of aircraft stability? (2)
25. What are the aircraft reference axes and motions about these axes? (2)
26. Define ‘Load Factor’. (2)
27. What is the relationship between load factor and maneuver stalling speed? (3)
28. What do you understand by ‘Maneuver Envelope’ of an aircraft? (2)
29. Give an sketch of a Maneuver Envelope highlighting ‘g-Limits’ and Speed Limits of a training aircraft
with a given weight and clean configuration. (4)
30. Define the terms ‘Static Stability’ and ‘Dynamic Stability’ of an aircraft. (2)
31. Write down the names of the factors affecting Lateral Static Stability of an aircraft. (4)
32. Explain how ‘Wing Dihedral’ contributes to Lateral Static Stability of an aircraft. (4)
33. What are ‘Static Pressure’ and ‘Dynamic Pressure”? (2)
34. Define ‘Equivalent Air Speed (EAS)’ and ‘True Air Speed (TAS)’. (2)
35. Write down the relation between EAS and TAS? (2)
36. What is ‘International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)’? (2)
37. Write down the values of pressure, temperature and density of a standard atmosphere at mean sea
level. (2)
38. Define the terms ‘aspect ratio’, ‘taper ratio’, ‘mean aerodynamic chord ‘and ‘wing loading’.(2)
39. State ‘Equation of Continuity’ and ‘Bernoulli’s Theorem’. (2)
40. Name the factors upon which lift generated by a wing depends. (2)
41. Write down the components of Total Drag of an aircraft. (2)
42. Write down the formula for Induced Drag. (2)
43. Give a sketch for Drag Curves of aircraft. (2)
44. Write down the names of devices used with aircraft for lift augmentation. (2)
45. Define ‘Static Stability’ and ‘Dynamic Stability’ of aircraft. (2)
46. Name the methods used by the designers to increase the Lateral Stability of aircraft. (2)
34
47. What is stall? How do you recover from a stall? (2)
48. What are the forces acting on the aircraft in a steady climb? How are these forces balanced?(2)
49. What are the forces acting on the aircraft in a steady climb? How are these forces balanced?(2)
50. What are the forces acting on the aircraft in a steady power off glide? How are these forces
balanced?
51. What type of drag is not associated with lift? What is it made up of?
Ans:- Parasite drag. It is made up of:
a. Form
b. Interference
c. Skin friction
52. What is aileron drag?
Ans: - It's just another name for adverse aileron yaw. It occurs when banking as one aileron goes down
creating more lift but also more drag. This extra drag is more than the opposing upward going aileron
and the aircraft yaws in the opposite direction of the turn
53. Why is aileron drag/adverse aileron yaw most noticeable at low airspeeds?
Ans: - Because it is mainly induced drag that changes with aileron movement (i.e. the movement of the
aileron changes the camber of the wing increasing lift and induced drag), and induced drag is dominant
at low speed
54. What are Frise ailerons and how do they help to eliminate aileron drag/adverse aileron yaw?
Ans:- Frise ailerons are designed to increase the amount of drag on the upward going aileron (or the
downward going wing).As the opposite aileron goes up the front of the aileron moves into the airflow
underneath the wing increasing drag to that of the downward going aileron. Thereby, decreasing the
adverse yaw.
55. What are differential ailerons and how do they help to decrease the effects of aileron drag/adverse
aileron yaw?
Ans:-Differential ailerons like Frise ailerons add extra drag to the upward going aileron/downward going
wing.
They do this by increasing the height of the upward going aileron trailing edge (i.e. it moves a greater
distance into the airflow than the downward going aileron). As the tip is increased into the airflow it
creates more drag on the upward going aileron and minimises the yaw in the opposite direction of the
turn.
56. What is a spiral dive & how do they develop?
Ans- It is where the aircraft is descending in a steeply banked, tightening turn, with increasing airspeed
and load factor.
They develop from a mishandled steep turn or turn in cloud
57. Why in a spiral dive does the downward turn tighten?
Ans: - This is because the aircraft is usually trimmed for level flight to a particular AoA, as the aircraft
enters the spiral dive the nose will drop and the pre-trimmed aircraft will have a nose-up tendency
which will tighten the turn
58. What is a spin?
Ans: - it is when the aircraft begins a spiral descent after a wing drop has occurred during a stall.
In order for the aircraft to spin it must first be stalled
59. How does a spin occur?
Ans: - it occurs when the aircraft is in a stall (i.e. low airspeed, high AoA) which had an associated wing
drop.
The dropping wing will commence an autorotatation (self roll & yaw) due to the dropping wing
becoming further stalled/won't unstall (less lift, more drag)
1. True or False: The tail plane aerofoil is usually a symmetrical aerofoil.
How does this affect tail down forces?
Ans:-True, because a symmetrical aerofoil produces zero (0) lift a 00AoA
For e.g. if 40 AoA is held, the tailplane would be positive and would provide lift, thereby, lowering the
nose and counteracting the main plane lift force.

35
 2. What is wing washout? Why is it used?
Ans: - washout is where the wing root has a decreasing angle of incidence from the wing root to the
wing tip ( i.e. it is twisted)
It is used to ensure that the wing tip will not stall before the wing root, aiding in aileron effectiveness
and spin recovery during the stall.
It also reduces induced drag along the wing but this is only noticeable at low speeds.
3. (a) If a wing is said to be dihedral, which way are the wings pointing? Up or down?
(b) Why is it that high wing aircraft generally have a smaller dihedral angle than low wing aircraft?
Ans: - (a) The wing is point up. (b) Because high wing aircraft have most of the weight (CG) below the lift
(centre of pressure), lift-weight couple, this causes the high wing aircraft to have stronger lateral
stability. I.e. the greater weight below forces the aircraft back to equilibrium .Weight must always act
straight down so during a wing drop and subsequent side slip weight moves to the right (left wing drop)
but wants to move back to the left so weight is acting straight down. This is also known as the pendulum
effect.
4. Why does an aircraft yaw after you commence a roll?
Ans:-Because when you roll you start to side slip into the turn which exposes larger keel surfaces behind
the CG causing the airflow to push against the tail plane and yaw the aircraft into the direction of the
roll. Or another way of saying it is- it causes the directional stability to induce yaw.
5. What is the main theory behind directional stability?
Ans:-Whenever the relative airflow strikes the aircraft from a direction other than in front of the nose, all
of the surfaces aft of the line passing through the CG act to stabilize the aircraft I.e. push the nose into
wind. Any surface forward of the CG hit by a change in relative airflow, will destabilize the aircraft.
6. Does having a dihedral or swept back wing help directional stability? If so how?
Ans: -Yes it does, the increase in lift on the into-wind or dropped wing is accompanied by an increase in
drag which pulls the wing back yawning the nose into wind.

7. What is the recovery technique for a spin?

Ans: - The following is a general recovery procedure for erect spins:-

1. Move the throttle or throttles to idle.

2. Neutralise the ailerons.
3. Apply full rudder against the spin.
4. Move the elevator control briskly to approximately the neutral position.
5. Hold the recommended control positions until rotation stops.
6. As rotation stops, neutralise the rudder.
7. Recover from the resulting dive with gradual back pressure on the pitch control.
8. What are the characteristics of a spiral dive?
Ans:- There are three:-
(a) the wings are NOT stalled
(b) the airspeed is high & rapidly increasing
(c) the loads on the airframe are dangerously high!
9. What is the recovery technique for a spiral dive?
Ans:-The recovery technique are as below:
(a) Power off
(b) locate the horizon & level the wings
(c) return the nose to the level attitude
10. What is the purpose of a balance tab? In regards to the elevator, which way is the balance tab turned if
the elevator moves up or down?
Ans:--It helps elevate a heavy or hard to deflect elevator which requires a lot of force by the pilot.
As the elevator moves up, the balance tab moves down.
As the elevator moves down, the balance tab moves up.
36
11. What is the purpose of the anti-balance tab?
In regards to the elevator, which way is the anti-balance tab turned if the elevator moves up or down?
Ans:-It helps to increase the force on the controls thereby increases the “feel” so that the pilot can't
deflect them as easy, just in case to much pressure is applied.
As the elevator moves up, the tab moves up.
As the elevator moves down, the tab moves down.
12. What happens to longitudinal stability (lateral/pitch axis) if you move the CG forward or backward?
Why?
Ans: - More forward CG= increased longitudinal stability and decrease controllability/maneuverability.
More aft CG= decreased longitudinal stability and increase controllability/maneuverability. As the CG is
moved forward there is a greater distance (moment) between the tailplane and the CG, therefore, a
longer arm and little force gives a big aerodynamic change. More aft CG is the opposite, which is why aft
CG decreases longitudinal stability and increase controllability/maneuverability.
1. How does the tail of an airplane help it during flight?
Ans:-The tail of an airplane serves several purposes, but the main purpose is to provide stability for the
airplane, meaning that if the airplane is tilted off course by a gust of wind, it can return to its original
position. The tail includes control surfaces to control the plane. There's the vertical stabilizer, which is
the "tail fin" of the plane. This keeps the plane in line with the direction of motion. In other words, it
controls yaw. To change yaw, a pilot moves the rudder, also found on the tail. Also on the tail is the
horizontal stabilizer, or "rear wing", which controls pitch. To change pitch, a pilot moves the elevator.
2. Why do planes have two independent ailerons to each wing?
Ans:- Planes have an aileron on each wing because they act in conjunction with one another to
allow the plane to move along its roll axis (which runs along the length of the fuselage). If the
plane only had an aileron on one wing, the plane would not roll along the roll axis, but rather,
around a point off the edge of the far wing. This would mean that planes would make much
wider turns.
3. What are some examples of how drag helps a plane?
Ans:-Most of the time, pilots want the least amount of drag possible on their plane, so it can fly
faster and farther, more efficiently. However, drag is quite useful for helping an aircraft
slow down. Pilots can lift special flaps on the airplane's wing to increase the drag and help
brake the plane.
The Space Shuttle would deploy a parachute (also called a drag chute) when landing to help
slow it down, as re-entry speeds were so fast, it needed help from extra drag to slow down all
the way to a stop.
4. If two wings (with high and low aspect ratio) have the same lift Coefficient, how are their aspect
ratio and angle of attack are related?
Ans:- A wing of low aspect ratio will require a higher angle of attack than a wing of higher aspect
ratio in order to produce the same lift coefficient.
5. Why induced drag is said to be due to lift?
Ans:- Induced drag is the consequence of the wing tip vortices which are
produced by the difference in pressure between upper and lower surface of
the wing. The lift is also produced by the same pressure difference. Hence the
cause of induced drag is closely associated with the production of lift in a finite
wing.
6. Aspect ratio of a conventional aircraft should have a compromise between aerodynamic and
structural requirements – discuss briefly.
Ans:- Larger the aspect ratio, smaller will be the induced drag coefficient and vice
versa. Hence there is reduction in induced drag. In a design of high aspect ratio
wing becomes slender and has poor structural strength. A compromise
between these two should be aimed while designing the aspect ratio of a wing.

37
7. What is geometric twist? Differentiate between “wash out” and “wash in”.
Ans:-The wings of an aircraft are slightly twisted from fuselage towards the tip so
that the angle of incidence of the individual aerofoil sections are different at
various span wise stations. If the tip of the wing is at lower angle of incidence
than the root, the wing is said to ‘wash out’ and if the tip is at higher angle of
incidence than the root, the wing is said to have ‘wash in’.
8. Why large spacing is to be provided to aircrafts for landing and takeoff together?
Ans:- Wing tip vortices are essentially like tornadoes that trail downstream of the
wing. These vortices can sometimes cause flow disturbance to aeroplane
following close to it. Hence to avoid such accidents large spacing is preferred
between aircraft during takeoff and landing.
9. What is meant by streamlining a body?
Ans:- Stream lining a body in a fluid flow minimises the drag due to friction by
providing the body such a shape that the boundary of the body permits
gradual divergence of flow with no separation of the boundary layer.
10. What is the basic difference between compressible and incompressible airflow?
ANS:- In a compressible airflow velocity is appreciable compared with that of sound, density is
not constant and compressibility factor is greater than one. In a incompressible airflow velocity
is small compared with that of sound, density is constant and compressibility factor is one.
11. Distinguish between static and stagnation pressures.
ANS:- In stag pressure states, velocity of flowing air is zero whereas, in static pressure state, the
air velocity is not zero.
12. How are wing tip vortices formed? – explain in brief.
ANS:- Due to larger pressure below the wing surface than on the top surface,
some flow is there from bottom to top round the wing tips for a finite wing.
This produces velocity sideways over most of the wing surface. These causes
a surface discontinuity in the air leaving the wing which rolls up to distinct
vortices.
13. Differentiate between steady and unsteady flows
ANS:- In a steady flow fluid characteristics velocity, pressure, density, etc. at a
point do not change with time but for unsteady flow these characteristics
would change with time.

38
ANSWERS TO SPECIMEN MCQ:

Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS

1 B 21 C 41 B 61 C 81 C
2 B 22 A 42 C 62 A 82 C
3 C 23 B 43 D 63 A 83 B
4 C 24 B 44 B 64 C 84 A
5 C 25 C 45 C 65 B 85 D
6 D 26 C 46 A 66 C 86 A
7 B 27 C 47 A 67 B 87 D
8 A 28 B 48 C 68 A 88 A
9 D 29 D 49 A 69 A 89 B
10 B 30 C 50 A 70 C 90 C
11 B 31 C 51 B 71 C 91 A
12 C 32 D 52 C 72 C 92 B
13 A 33 C 53 C 73 C 93 A
14 D 34 D 54 B 74 A 94 C
15 C 35 A 55 A 75 B 95 B
16 C 36 D 56 A 76 A 96 A
17 D 37 C 57 B 77 A 97 A
18 C 38 B 58 A 78 C 98 B
19 C 30 B 59 B 79 B 99 C
20 B 40 C 60 B 80 A 100 C

Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS

101 A 121 B 141 A 161 B 181 B
102 A 122 D 142 A 162 B 182 C
103 B 123 C 143 B 163 B 183 B
104 A 124 D 144 B 164 B 184 C
105 A 125 B 145 D 165 A 185 B
106 C 126 B 146 C 166 D 186 A
107 C 127 B 147 C 167 B 187 C
108 B 128 B 148 B 168 C 188 B
109 A 129 B 149 D 169 A 189 C
110 B 130 A 150 B 170 A 190 B
111 A 131 A 151 D 171 A 191 C
112 C 132 D 152 B 172 B 192 D
113 A 133 A 153 B 173 C 193 B
114 D 134 C 154 D 174 A 194 C
115 A 135 A 155 B 175 D 195 B
116 B 136 B 156 B 176 A 196 C
117 D 137 A 157 D 177 B 197 D
118 A 138 A 158 A 178 B 198 B
119 C 139 A 159 B 179 A 199 B
120 A 140 D 160 B 180 B 200 C

39
Q NO ANS Q NO ANS
201 A 218 C Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS
202 C 219 A 234 A 248 A 261 C 274 C
203 C 220 D
235 C 249 A 262 D 275 C
204 D 221 C
236 B 250 B 263 A 276 B
205 A 222 D
206 C 223 C 237 D 251 C 264 C 277 B
207 C 224 B 238 A 252 B 265 A 278 A
208 C 225 C 239 B 253 A 266 A 279 C
209 D 226 B 240 D 254 B 267 C 280 A
210 C 227 D
241 B 255 B 268 A 281 B
211 A 228 C
242 D 256 B 269 B 282 C
212 B 229 A
213 A 230 D 243 D 257 D 270 D

214 C 231 B 245 A 258 D 271 C

215 B 232 C 246 C 259 D 272 C
216 C 233 C
247 B 260 D 273 A
217 C 234 A

TRUE/FALSE

Q NO ANS Q NO ANS Q NO ANS

1 T 11 T 21 T

2 F 12 T 22 F

3 T 13 F 23 F

4 F 14 T 24 F

5 T 15 F 25 F

6 T 16 F 26 T

7 F 17 T 27 F

8 T 18 F 28 F

9 F 19 F 29 F

10 F 20 T 30 F

40