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ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT 10 CHUYÊN ANH

The document is a practice test for a specialized high school entrance exam in Vietnam. It contains four sections: Listening, Phonetics, Grammar and Vocabulary, and Reading. The Listening section contains three passages and 20 multiple choice questions to test comprehension. The Phonetics section contains exercises on pronunciation. The Grammar and Vocabulary section contains tasks involving verbs, words, corrections, and gaps. The Reading section is not included in full.

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Thanh Nguyen
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
575 views8 pages

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT 10 CHUYÊN ANH

The document is a practice test for a specialized high school entrance exam in Vietnam. It contains four sections: Listening, Phonetics, Grammar and Vocabulary, and Reading. The Listening section contains three passages and 20 multiple choice questions to test comprehension. The Phonetics section contains exercises on pronunciation. The Grammar and Vocabulary section contains tasks involving verbs, words, corrections, and gaps. The Reading section is not included in full.

Uploaded by

Thanh Nguyen
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CÁC MÔN THI VÀO LỚP 10

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN


Năm học: 2024 - 2025
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh chuyên
(Đề thi có 08 trang) Ngày thi: 07/ 04/ 2024
Thời gian làm bài:150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

PART A: LISTENING (20 points)


Section 1
Questions 1 – 5. You will hear an excerpt from a radio programme about living forever.
Choose the most suitable answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)
1. According to some scientists, technology that allows people to live for thousands of
years_________.
A. has already existed
B. existed 30 years ago
C. will exist after 30 years
D. may exist within 30 years
2. According to the speaker, why are scientists closer to finding this technology?
A. They are beginning to understand why and how our bodies age.
B. They are stopping cells from working.
C. There are more old people in our societies.
D. Scientists have controlled the aging process.
3. Why are some people worried about immortality?
A. People will celebrate Christmas many times.
B. The world will be overpopulated.
C. People can’t meet all their great grandchildren.
D. People will have too much free time.
4. What might people have to agree to do, before being allowed to live forever?
A. not invest in space exploration.
B. not have too many children.
C. not commit any serious crimes.
D. not use natural resources.
5. Some people say that immortality would be pointless because ________.
A. only the very rich would be able to afford it
B. you wouldn’t use your time effectively
C. you would only remember a part of your life
D. you would get up in thousands of mornings in the same way

Section 2
Questions 6 – 15. You will hear a part of a lecture about conserving energy. Listen and
complete each blank with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER. (10 points)
6. According to Dr. Sophia Martin, environmental crisis facing us today is ________.
7. An individual can help protect the environment by taking some simple ________.
8. Carbon footprint is the ________ of greenhouse gas emitted into the atmosphere as a result
of individual day-to-day activities.
9. From energy conservation ________, we are using inefficient insulation system in our
homes.
10. Fitting adequate insulation in the ________ and exterior walls can reduce heating costs
by as much as 25%.

1
11. Those who want to get their homes reinsulated can receive ________ from the
government.
12. ________ walls shouldn’t be painted in dark colors which absorb more heat than others.
13. Energy consumption stays almost the ________ whether your washing machine is full or
not.
14. Domestic ________ should only be used when necessary.
15. Replacing a normal light bulb with an energy-saving one could save you ________ over
the lifetime of the bulb.

Section 3
Questions 16 – 20. You will hear a psychologist, Robert Wiseman talking about some research he
did into why some people believe in the existence of good and bad luck. Listen and decide
whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (5 points)
16. Robert’s advertisement on student noticeboard received many responses.
17. A majority of people are fully aware of the origin of their luck.
18. In his first experiment, lucky people took less time to finish their task than unlucky ones.
19. According to personality tests, unlucky people were too anxious to notice unforeseen
opportunities.
20. Robert notices that lucky people often look on the bright side.

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)


Questions 21 – 23. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
21. A. disguise B. inquire C. guidance D. pursuit
22. A. marriage B. massage C. courage D. hostage
23. A. receipt B. abrupt C. psychic D. cupboard
Questions 24 – 25. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the
others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (2 points)
24. A. enter B. envy C. enrol D. entrance
25. A. obstinacy B. geography C. equality D. prosperity

PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 points)


Questions 26 – 30. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (5 points)
26. When Tina was a little child, she always (take) ________ things apart to see how they
worked.
27. As her family still struggles to make ends meet, she (not spend) ________ money on the
bag which cost her a fortune.
28. The student (sit) ________ next to me in the exam cheated without getting caught.
29. The Amazon rainforest fire is thought (cause) ________ by human action.
30. He (follow) ________his teacher’s advice, he would have passed the exam with flying
colors.

Questions 31 – 35. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (5 points)
31. His crowning achievement is earning a ________at Harvard University. (DOCTOR)
32. It is believed that ________ cars will be increasingly popular in the future. (DRIVE)
33. Despite certain drawbacks, this plan still has a number of ________. (PROPOSE)
34. They plan to ________ the president’s new policy in the next conference. (VEIL)
35. Her poor health condition makes this a(n) ________ difficult time for her. (MEASURE)
2
Questions 36 – 40. There are six mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. The first one has been done for you as an example. (5
points)
Example: Line 1: are ->is
Line
1 Virtually every child, the world over, plays. The drive to play are so intense that
children will do so in any circumstances, for instance when they have no real toys, or
when parents do not active encourage the behavior. In the eyes of a young child,
running, pretending, and building are fun. Researchers and educators know that these
5 playful activities benefit the development of the whole child across social, cognitive,
physical, and emotional domains. Indeed, play is so an instrumental component to
healthy child development that the United Nation High Commission on Human Rights
(1989) recognized play as a fundamental right of every child.
Yet, while experts continue to expound a powerful argument for the importance of play
10 in children’s lives, the actual time children spend play continues to decrease. Today,
children play eight hours less each week than their counterparts did two decades ago
(Elkind 2008). Under pressure of risen academic standards, play is being replaced by
test preparation in kindergartens and grade schools, and parents who aim to give their
preschoolers a leg up are led to believe that flashcards and educational ‘toys’ are the
15 path of success. Our society has created a false dichotomy between play and learning.

Questions 41 – 50. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following
sentences and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
41. I don’t suppose there is anyone there, ________?
A. do I B. isn’t there C. is there D. don’t I
42. In a football match, both teams hope that they can ________ the lead in the first half.
A. take B. get C. make D. have
43. If they want to get a place in the final round of the tournament, they will have to come
________ fierce competition.
A. in for B. up with C. down with D. up against
44. The political reform can have ________ implications for the future of the country.
A. far-flung B. far-fetched C. far-reaching D. far-sighted
45. The severity of our financial problems has been ________ exaggerated by the rival company.
A. harshly B. wildly C. strongly D. deeply
46. After a prolonged period of recession, economic recovery is already ________ way.
A. on B. under C. in D. up
47. Mai and Linh are greeting each other on the first day of the New Year.
- Mai: “Happy New Year!”
- Linh: “________”
A. The same to you! B. Happiness with you!
C. You are the same! D. Same for you!
48. It was wondered whether the government would ________ foreign qualifications for teachers.
A. perceive B. realize C. comprehend D. recognise
49. The sales of model T car followed the upward trend, ________ that of model F car observed
a reverse pattern.
A. whereas B. because C. albeit D. however
50. Teenagers find it easier to confide in their friends rather than their parents, because people of
the same generation are often ________.
A. out of question B. in fine feather
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C. on the same wavelength D. at odds with each other

PART D: READING (30 points)


Questions 51 – 58. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable
word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (8 points)
Not having a regular sleeping pattern could have an adverse effect on our health. So
says a study ____________ (51) in The European Journal of Nutrition this week. The study
suggests irregular sleeping patterns could increase the abundance of harmful species of
bacteria in the gut. Altering the time we sleep on ____________ (52) and at weekends causes
a shift in our internal body clock. Researchers call this "social jet lag". It ____________ (53)
to a poorer quality diet, with a higher consumption of sugary snacks, and lower intakes of
fruit and vegetables. Study author and nutrition scientist Dr Kate Bermingham said: "Social
jet lag can encourage bacteria species which have unfavourable associations with your
health."
The effects of social jet lag are __________ (54) those of jet lag we get after long
airline flights. Jet lag is extreme tiredness and other physical effects caused by flying across
different __________ (55) zones. After a long flight, sufferers often opt __________ (56)
unhealthy comfort foods. Social jet lag can be more problematic, as it is ingrained in our
daily routines. It can elevate the __________ (57) of diabetes, heart problems, and weight
gain. The researchers say a 90-minute difference between sleeping and waking times can
send the body's biological rhythms into disarray. Another nutritionist said: "Maintaining
regular sleep pattern is an easily adjustable lifestyle behaviour we can all do, that may impact
your health via your gut for the ___________ (58)."
Questions 59 – 66. Read the passage and choose the most suitable word from the ones given
below to fill in each gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (8 points)
The rise of podcasts
Back in the early 2000s, when podcasting first took ________ (59), investors didn't
believe that it would be that a lucrative form of entertainment compared to what already
existed in the market. How ________ (60) they were! A quick online search for podcasts
nowadays will reveal an industry that is still going ahead.
And which generates vast profits. There are around 2,000 episodes released each
week, covering a range of topics that would ________ (61) anyone's mind in terms of its
diversity. So, it's clear that podcasting is _________ (62) and very much here to stay.
The beauty of podcasts lies in two key areas. Firstly, they are largely inexpensive to
produce, and, secondly, very little technical ________ (63) is required to get started. And
these factors mean that they are able to target ________ (64) in a way that more traditional
forms of entertainment cannot. That's not to say that all podcasts have small, like-minded
groups of listeners - in fact, far from it. According to recent research ________ (65) by a
consulting company, the most popular podcasts can attract well over a million listeners.
________ (66), professionals working in the podcast industry have issued a word of
caution for those about to jump on the bandwagon: Analyse what's on offer at the moment.
Then, ensure that what you offer is unique enough to appeal to potential listeners scrolling
through countless options on their smartphones.
59. A. up B. on C. into D. off
60. A. wrong B. sad C. serious D. alarming
61. A. rush B. split C. alarm D. blow
62. A. assertive B. thriving C. comparative D. fertile
63. A. qualification B. expertise С. regulation D. cooperation
64. A. witnesses B. onlookers C. audiences D. spectators
65. A. addressed B. conducted C. urged D. instructed
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66. A. However B. Therefore C. But D. Fortunately

Questions 67 – 74. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that
follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (8 points)
For many, the surprise of finding a McDonalds outlet in Moscow or Beijing provides
no greater symbol of the spread of globalisation. Used to explain all manner of economic,
cultural and political change that has swept over the world in recent decades, globalisation is
a term that continues to cause intellectual debate. Some see it as inevitable and desirable, but
it is a contentious issue with an increasing number of individual citizens around the world
questioning whether or not the implications of globalisation, in terms of international
distribution of income and decreasing poverty, are effective.
The beginning of globalisation is inextricably linked to technological improvements
in the field of international communications and a fall in the cost of international transport
and travel. Entrepreneurs and power-brokers took advantage of these advances to invest
capital into foreign countries. This became the basic mechanism for globalisation with the
trading of currencies, stocks and bonds growing rapidly.
Breaking down the barriers through the free movement of capital, free trade and
political cooperation was seen as a positive move that would not only increase living
standards around the world, but also raise political and environmental awareness, especially
in developing countries. Predictions were that nations would become more outward-looking
in their policy-making, as they searched for opportunities to increase economic growth.
Roles would be assigned to various players around the globe as capital providers, exporters
of technology, suppliers of services, sources of labour, etc. Consequently, countries and
economies could concentrate on what they were good at and as a result, markets would
experience increased efficiency.
The process of economic globalisation was without doubt led by commercial and
financial power-brokers but there were many others who supported the integration of world
economies. As multinational companies searched for new work-forces and raw materials,
non-government organizations and lobby groups were optimistic that in the wake of global
business, indigenous cultures might be given a reprieve with an injection of foreign capital.
This would, in turn, provide local employment opportunities. By spreading trade more evenly
between developed and developing nations, it was touted that poverty would decrease and
living standards would rise.
Governments saw the chance to attract multinational companies with tax-breaks and
incentives to set up in-country, effectively buying employment opportunities for their
constituents. By the late 1990s, some trepidation started to surface and globalisation faced its
most public setback. The spectacular economic collapses in Korea, Brazil, Thailand and
other countries were considered, rightly or wrongly, to be caused by the outwardly-oriented
trade policies that globalisation espoused such as the growth of exports. These countries had
enjoyed record growth for a relatively short time, but when faced with difficulties, the growth
appeared unsustainable. The vulnerability and risk associated with reliance on exports and
international markets was made clear. Meanwhile though, through the 1990s and early 2000s,
multinational companies continued to do well financially. Profits were increasing, keeping
shareholders happy, but the anticipated spin-offs were not being felt at the workers' level or
in local communities in the form of increased employment. These successful companies did
not want to share the benefits of the increased efficiency they were receiving as a result of
introducing their own work practices. The multinationals were setting their own agendas,
with governments, in many cases, turning a blind eye fearing that they might pull out and
cause more unemployment. Free trade was now accused of restricting governments, who

5
were no longer setting the rules, and domestic markets felt increasingly threatened by the
power that the multinationals had.
67. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Benefits of globalisation in developing countries
B. Drawbacks of globalisation
C. International companies contribute to the expansion of globalisation.
D. Will the expectations of globalisation come to effect?
68. Why is “technological improvements ” mentioned in the paragraph 2?
A. It praises the development of technology.
B. It explains the occurence of globalisation.
C. It criticizes globalisation.
D. It is linked to international communication.
69. According to the passage, the following statements are true, EXCEPT ________.
A. Technical advances were vital to the growth and expansion of globalisation.
B. Power businessmen focused their investment on their countries.
C. Barriers were removed to boost free trade.
D. Nations made use of their advantages to enhance economic growth.
70. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. predictions B. opportunities C. policies D. nations
71. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. Globalisation led to a drop in national transportation expenditures.
B. Advocates of globalisation predicted an improvement in living standards worldwide.
C. Governments significantly raised taxes on multinational companies.
D.The expansion of international markets proved beneficial for exporting countries
permanently.
72. The word “indigenous” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. native B. rich C. supporting D. sustainable
73. It can be inferred from paragraph 5 that ________.
A. globalisation did not raise any concerns in the public by the late 1990s.
B. globalisation did not bring about more job opportunities as expected.
C. governments strictly controlled the agendas of multinational companies.
D. multinational companies were willing to share benefits they received.
74. The word “anticipated” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. ensured B. questioned C. predicted D. protected

Questions 75 – 80. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable
clause/sentence from A – G to fill in each gap. There is one extra option that you don’t
need to use. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (6 points)

A. she released a pure pop record, "1989", in 2014


B. It has generated more than $780 million in sales so far
C. Her success is a big question
D. the big story at the moment is her Eras tour
E. None of that seems to have put the fans off
F. she will reinvent herself again
G. she pulled her entire catalogue from Spotify in protest over the streaming service's low
royalty payouts

Taylor Swift is always in the news: so much so that USA Today recently advertised
for a dedicated Taylor Swift reporter. But ________ (75), a 149-date global extravaganza
6
that will go on until the end of next year. ________ (76), making it the second-highest
grossing tour of all time, behind only Elton John's Farewell Yellow Brick Road. She sold
more than two million tickets in one day, causing Ticketmaster to crash. Dancing fans at one
concert, in Seattle in July, created seismic activity equivalent to a 2.3 magnitude earthquake.
She has had a "seismic" effect on the music business, in everything from the way that
she cultivates her fanbase, to artists' rights, says Billboard. In 2014, ________ (77).
"Valuable things should be paid for," she said, and maintained the boycott for almost three
years. After the rights to her first six albums were sold, against her wishes, to Scooter Braun's
Ithaca Holdings in 2019, Swift announced that she would re-record the songs. These new
"Taylor's versions" now outsell the originals. This profusion of sponsorship deals, album
formats and merchandise has given her a reputation for "fan gouging". ________ (78). They
regard her proudly as a "capitalist queen".
Swift's career is so varied that each album constitutes its own "era" (hence the name
of the current tour). Having started her career as a country singer, ________ (79), cementing
her superstar status. Recently, with "Evermore" and "Folklore", she moved into ruminative
indie folk, and has collaborated with artists ranging from hip-hop superstar Kendrick Lamar
to the "sad dad" band The National. There have been murmurings about "over-exposure",
particularly since her latest high-profile romance, with the NFL player Travis Kelce. But
________ (80). "She is a snake in the most positive way," the publicist Lauren Beeching
told The Guardian. "She sheds her skin and becomes a new version of herself to fit in with
today's culture. You never know what will come next, which is what keeps her fans so
engaged."

PART E: WRITING (20 points)


Questions 81 – 85. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
the same as the sentence printed above it. Write the answers your answer sheet. (5 points)
81. “I admit that I forgot to turn on the alarm system” said Robert
Robert confessed to ______________________________________________.
82. The thief didn’t plead guilty until the police confronted him with evidence.
Only when _____________________________________________________.
83. It was the goalkeeper who saved the match for us.
If it hadn’t _____________________________________________________.
84. You will be able to take a rest soon if we finish our work as quickly as possible.
The more quickly _______________________________________________.
85. It is essential that this door is kept unlocked.
On no account __________________________________________________.

Questions 86 – 90. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given words so that it
keeps the same meaning. Do not change the form of the words given. Write the answers
your answer sheet. (5 points)
86. Erica and her sister look very much alike.
Erica ________________________________________________________. (STRIKING)
87. It didn’t take her long to learn how to use the new equipment.
She soon _____________________________________________________. (HANG)
88. His success can largely be attributed to his willingness to work hard.
His success can _______________________________________________. (PUT)
89. Geogre and Mary have refused to talk to each other since the argument.
Geogre and Mary ______________________________________________. (TERMS)
90. Students at the school are not allowed to go into the Rainbow Disco.
The Rainbow Disco ____________________________________________. (BOUNDS)
7
Essay writing (10 points)

Some people believe that students should be required to do volunteer work as a compulsory
part of school programs.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write an essay of 200-220
words to express your own ideas and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
…………………………………………….. Hết ………………………………………………
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm

Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................ Số báo danh: ................................


Chữ kí của giám thị số 1 : …………………………………………………………………..
Chữ kí của giám thị số 2: ……………………………………………………………………

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