UNIT:- REPRODUCTION

DPP AND PYQS

6. How many of the above statements are true

with respect to the human reproductive system?
a. Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous.
1. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
b. The ovaries in human females produce only hormones.
present on
c. The mammary glands are one of the female
(a) Vitelline membrane
secondary sexual characters.
(b) Perivitelline space
d. A normal human sperm is composed of a
(c) Zona pellucida
head, neck, and middle piece only.
(d) Corona radiata

A. 1
2. Which of these is not an important
B. 3
component of initiation of parturition in humans?
C. 2
(a) Synthesis of prostaglandins
D. 4
(b) Release of Oxytocin
(c) Release of Prolactin
7. I. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
(d) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
II. The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable
indicator of virginity.
3. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
A. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
relaxin during the later phase of pregnancy?
B. Both I and II are correct and II does not explain I.
(a) Corpus luteum
C. I is correct but II is incorrect.
(b) Foetus
D. Both I and II are incorrect
(c) Uterus
(d) Graffian follicle
8. Select the correct option of haploid cells from
the following groups
4. Which of the following hormone levels will
(a) Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body, Ovum
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
(b) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Spermatid
graffian follicle?
(c) Primary spermatocyte, Secondary
(a) High concentration of Progesterone
spermatocyte, Second polar body
(b) Low concentration of LH
(d) Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
(c) Low concentration of FSH
(d) High concentration of Estrogen
9. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system
5. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
(a) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia → Rete testis
completed
--> Inguinal canal → Urethra
(a) At the time of copulation
(b) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
(b) After zygote formation
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(c) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
--> Urethral meatus --- >Ejaculatory duct
(d) Prior to ovulation
(c)Seminiferous tubules -->Vasa efferentia → Epididymis
(d) Testis -->Epididymis -->Vasa efferentia →
Vas deferens -->Urethra -->Ejaculatory duct -->
Inguinal canal → Urethral meatus
10. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs 15. Which of the following statements are true for
(a) After entry of sperm but before fertilisation spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(b) After fertilisation A. It results in the formation of haploid gametes.
(c) Before entry of sperm into ovum B. Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
(d) Simultaneously with first cleavage completion of meiosis.
C. Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically
11. Hormones secreted by the placenta to dividing stem cell population.
maintain pregnancy are D. It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH)
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin by the anterior pituitary.
(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens E. It is initiated at puberty.
(d) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids A. A, B and D
B. B,C and E
12. The difference between spermiogenesis and C. C and D
spermiation is D. A and E
(a) In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while
in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed 16. Capacitation occurs in
(b) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, (a) Rete testis
while in spermiation, spermatids are formed (b) Epididymis
(c) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa from sertoli (c) Vas deferens
cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous (d) Female Reproductive tract
tubules, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are
formed 17. Assertion(A): Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
(d) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, Reason (R) : During fertilisation, a sperm comes in
while in spermiation, spermatozoa are released contact with the zona pellucida layer of ovum and
from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous induces changes in the membrane that blocks the
ttubules entry of additional sperms.
A. Both are correct and correct explanation
13. The amnion of mammalian embryo is B. Both are correct but not explanation
derived from C. Assertion is true but reason is false
(a) Ectoderm and mesoderm D. Both are false
(b) Endoderm and mesoderm
(c) Mesoderm and trophoblast 18. Identify the correct statement on inhibin
(d) Ectoderm and endoderm (a) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
(b) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and
14. In the process of oogenesis, a polar body : inhibits the secretion of FSH.
I. is formed before fertilization. (c) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and
II. Is formed after fertilization. inhibits the secretion of LH
III. Normally receives most of the cytoplasm (d) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits
of the cell. the secretion of LH
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct 19. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is
C. Only I and II are correct controlled by circulating levels of :
D. I, II, and III are correct (a) Estrogen and progesterone
(b) Estrogen and inhibin
(c) Progesterone only
(d) Progesterone and inhibin
20. Select the incorrect statement : 26. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle
a) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in is acelluar?
spermiogenesis (a) Theca interna
b) LH triggers ovulation in ovary (b) Stroma
c) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the (c) Zona pellucida
follicular phase (d) Granulosa
d) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the
Leydig cells 27. Which of the following events is not associated
with ovulation in human female?
21. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible (a) Full development of Graffian follicle
only if (b) Release of secondary oocyte
(a) The sperms are transported into vagina just (c) LH surge
after the release of ovum in fallopian tube (d) Decrease in estradiol
(b) The ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of 28. Select the correct option describing
the fallopian tube gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female
(c) The ovum and sperms are transported to (a) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of
ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix endometrium
simultaneously (b) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
(d) The sperms are transported into cervix within thickening of endometrium
48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus (c) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation
of the embryo
22. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive (d) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
and urinary system in the human male is estrogen and progesterone
(a) Urethra
(b) Ureter 29. The main function of mammalian corpus
(c) Vas deferens luteum is to produce
(d) Vasa efferentia (a) Relaxin only
(b) Estrogen only
23. Capacitation refers to changes in the (c) Progesterone
(a) Ovum after fertilisation (d) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) Sperm after fertilisation
(c) Sperm before fertilisation 30. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(d) Ovum before fertilisation (a) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa Spermatocyte,
Spermatid,
24. Which of the following cells during (b) Spermatid, Spermatozoa Spermatocyte,
gametogenesis is normally diploid? Spermatogonia,
(a) Spermatogonia (c) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa,
(b) Secondary polar body Spermatid
(c) Primary polar body (d) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte,
(d) Spermatid Spermatid

25. In human females, meiosis-II in not complete

until
A. Fertilisation
B. Implantation
C. Primary polar body
D. Spermatid
31. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of 37. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent
(a) Vasopressin (a) Coitus
(b) Progesterone (b) Egg formation
(c) FSH (c) Fertilisation
(d) Oxytocin (d) Embryonic development

32. The secretory phase in the human menstrual 38. Oral contraceptives are used by females to check
cycle is also called (a) Gestation
(a) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days (b) Fertilisation
(b) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days (c) Ovulation
(c) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days (d) Entry of sperms in vagina
(d) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
39. Hepatitis-B and HIV can be transmitted from
33. Assertion(A): All copulations do not lead to one person to other by
fertilisation and pregnancy. (a) Sharing of injection needles, surgical
Reason (R) : Fertilisation can occur only if the ovum instruments, etc., with infected person
and sperms are transported simultaneously to (b) Transfusion of blood
ampullary isthmic junction. (c) From infected mother to the foetus
A. Both are correct and correct explanation (d) All of the above
B. Both are correct but not explanation
C. Assertion is true but reason is false 40-Sexually transmitted disease affecting both
D. Both are false males and female genitals which often damages
eyes of babies born to infected mothers is
34. Signals for parturition originate from (a) Syphilis
(a) Fully developed foetus only (b) Gonorrhoea
(b) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (c) Hepatitis
(c) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (d) AIDS
(d) Placenta only
41-Which of the following represents the correct
35. The Leydig cells as found in the human body match of sexually transmitted disease with its
are the secretory source of : pathogen?
(a) Androgens (a) Syphilis Treponema pallidum
(b) Progesterone (b) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Intestinal mucus (c) Urethritis Bacillus arthracis
(d) Glucagon (d) Soft sore Bacillus brevis

36. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of 42-Which of the following is correct regarding HIV,
total gonadotropin activity was assessed. hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis?
The result expected was : (a) Trichomoniasis is an STD, whereas others are not
(a) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate (b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others
estrogen and progesterone synthesis are bacterial
(b) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo (d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas
(c) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate others are not
endometrial thickening
(d) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate
endometrial thickening
43. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their 49. Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
incidences are reported to be very high among person partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
in the age group of sperm counts! In the ejaculates, could be corrected by
(a) 12-18 years (a) AI
(b) 18-21 years (b) ICSI
(c) 21-35 years (c) IUT
(d) 15-24 years (d) ZIFT

44- A person could be free of STDs by : 50-Stage transferred to uterus after induced
(a) Avoiding sex with unknown partners/multiple fertilisation of ova in the laboratory is
partners (a) Embryo at two-blastomere stage
(b) Always using condoms during coitus (b) Morula
(c) In case of doubt, person should go to a qualified (c) Zygote
doctor for early detection and get complete (d) Embryo at four blastomere stage.
treatment if diagnosed with disease
(d) All of the above 51. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to :
(a) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
45- Diseases or infections which are transmitted (b) Only the wall of the sporangium
through sexual intercourse are called (c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases (STD)s (d) Wall and the tapetum
(b) Venereal diseases (VD)
(c) Reproductive tract infections (RTI) 52. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their male
(d) All of the above gametes into the :
(a) Central cell
46- Female who cannot produce ovum, but can (b) Antipodal cell
provide suitable environment for fertilisation and (c) egg cell
further development, could be assisted by (d) Synergids
(a) ZIFT
(b) GIFT 53. What is the direction of micropyle in
(c) ICSI anatropous ovule?
(d) IUI (a) Upward
(b) Downward
47-In ZIFT method, there is : (c) Right
(a) Transfer of embryo into uterus (d) Left
(b) Transfer of morula into fallopian tube.
(c) Transfer of zygote or early embryo upto 8 54. In angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad
blastomeres are covered by a layer which is formed by :
(d) All of the above (a) Pectocellulose
(b) Callose
48-Which of the following is a method of birth control? (c) Cellulose
(a) IUDs (d) Sporopollenin
(b) GIFT
(c) HTF
(d) IVF-ET
55. Anemophily type of pollination is found in : 62. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another
(a) Salvia flower of the same plant is :
(b) Bottle brush (a) Autogamy
(c) Vallisneria (b) Allogamy
(d) Coconut (c) Xenogamy
(d) Geitonogamy
56. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are :
(a) Always tetrasporic 63. Fertilization involving carrying of male gametes
(b) Always monosporic by pollen tube is :
(c) always bisporic (a) Porogamy
(d) Sometime monosporic, sometimes bisporic (b) Siphonogamy
and sometimes tetrasporic (c) Chalazogamy
(d) Syngamy
57. The endosperm of gymnosperm is :
64. One of the most resistant biological material is
(a) Triploid
(a) Lignin
(b) Haploid
(b) Hemicellulose
(c) Diploid
(c) Lignocellulose
(d) Polyploid
(d) Sporopollenin

58. Flowers showing characteristic like ornithophily

65. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac,
show few characteristics like :
chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight line. It is :
(a) Blue flower with nectaries at base of corolla
(a) Orthotropous
(b) Red sweet scented flower with nectaries (b) Anatropous
(c) bright red flower into thick inflorescence (c) Campylotropous
(d) White flowers with fragrance (d) Amphitropous

59. How many pollen grains will be formed after 66. Number of meiotic divisions required to
meiotic division in ten microspore mother cells? produce 200/400 seeds of Pea would be :
(a) 10 (a) 200/400
(b) 20 (b) 400/800
(c) 40 (c) 300/600
(d) 80 (d) 250/500

60. In an angiosperm, how many microspore 67. Meiosis is best observed in dividing :
mother cells are required to produce 100 (a) Cells of apical meristem
pollen grains : (b) Cells of lateral meristem
(a) 25 (c) microspores and anther wall
(b) 50 (d) Microsporocytes
(c) 75
(d) 100 68. Pollination occurs in
(a) Bryophytes and angiosperms
61. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are : (b) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
(a) Butterflies (c) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(b) Bees (d) Angiosperms and fungi
(c) Moths
(d) Beetles
69. Embryo sac occurs in : 76. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is :
(a) Embryo (a) Chalazogamy
(b) Axis part of embryo (b) Mesogamy
(c) Ovule (c) Porogamy
(d) Endosperm (d) Pseudogamy

70. Which of the following pair has haploid 77. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a
structures? normal pollen tube was still formed because :
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells (a) Vegetative cell is not damaged
(b) Antipodal cells and egg cell (b) Contents of killed generative cell stimulate
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell pollen growth
(d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus (c) Laser beam stimulates growth of pollen
tube
71. Point out the odd one? (d) The region of emergence of pollen tube is
(a) Nucellus not harmed
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Micropyle 78. Which is correct ?
(d) Pollen grain (a) Gametes are invariably haploid
(b) Spores are invariably haploid
72. Syngamy means : (c) Gametes are generally haploid
(a) Fusion of gametes (d) Both spores and gametes are invariably
(b) Fusion of cytoplasms
(c) Fusion of two similar spores 79. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed
(d) Fusion of two dissimilar spores as
(a) Four celled pollen grain
73. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in (b) Three celled pollen grain
anther cultures? (c) Microspore mother cell
(a) Anther wall (d) Anther
(b) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(c) Connective tissue 80. Total number of meiotic division required
(d) Young pollen grains for forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of
wheat is :
74. Male gametophyte of (a) 100
angiosperms/monocots is : (b) 75
(a) Microsporangium (c) 125
(b) Nucellus (d) 50
(c) Microspore
(d) Stamen 81. Double fertilization is :
(a) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube
75. Female gametophyte of angiosperms with two different eggs
is represented by : (b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(a) Ovule nuclei
(b) Megaspore mother cell (c) Syngamy and triple fusion
(c) Embryo sac (d) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(d) Nucellus
82. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid 87. Double fertilization and triple fusion were
male plant are crossed. The ploidy of discovered by :
(a) Hofmeister
endosperm is
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(a) Tetraploid
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(b) Triploid (d) Strasburger
(c) Diploid
(d) Pentaploid 88. Double fertilization is fusion of :
(a) Two eggs
83. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of (b) Two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei
endosperm in Angiosperms require : (c) One male gamete with egg and other with
synergid
(a) Fusion of one polar nucleus and the
(d) One male gamete with egg and other with
second
secondary nucleus
male gamete only
(b) Fusion of two polar nuclei and the second 89. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of :
male gamete (a) Male gamete
(c) Fusion of four or more polar nuclei (b) Pollen tube
and the (c) Water
(d) Gases
second male gamete only
(d) All the above kinds of fusion in different
90. Which one of the following statements
angiosperms regarding post-fertilisation development in
flowering plants is incorrect?
84. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid (a) Ovary develops into fruit.
and (b) Zygote develops into embryo.
female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of (c) Central cell develops into endosperm.
endosperm will be : (d) Ovules develop into embryo sac.

(a) Haploid
(b) Triploid
(c) Tetraploid
(d) Pentaploid

85. In angiosperms, triple fusion is

required for
the formation of :
(a) Embryo
(b) Endosperm
(c) Seed coat
(d) Fruits wall

86. Double fertilization is characteristic of :

(a) Angiosperms
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Bryophytes
1. C 31. B 61. AB
61.
2. C 32. C 62. D
62. D
3. A 33. A 63. C
63. B
4. D 34. B 64. D
64. D
5. C 35. A 65. A
65. A
6. C 36. A 66 C
66. D
7. C 37. C 67. A
67. D
8. A 38. C 68. C
68. C
9. B 39. D 69.
69. CD
10. A 40. B 70. C
70. B
11. C 41. A 71. B
12. D 42. C
71. D
72. B
13. A 43. D 72.
73. C
A
14. A 44. D 73.
74. B
D
15. B 45. D 74.
75. AC
16. D 46. B 75.
76. DC
17. A 47. C 76.
77. DC
18. B 48. A 77.
78. AA
19. A 49. A 78.
79. BA
20. C 50. B 79.
80. AB
21. B 51. D
51. B 80.
81. CC
22. A 52. C
52. D 82. A
81. C
23. C 53. A
53. B 83. D
82. A
24. A 54. C
54. B 84. C
83. B
25. A 55. D
55. D 85. D
84. D
26. C 56. D
56. D 86. C
85. B
27. D 57. A
57. B 87. B
86. A
28. D 58. B
58. B 88. B
87. B
29. C 59. A
59. C 89. A
88. D
30. A 60. A
60. A 90.
89. CA
90. D