TEST 2

SECTION I. LISTENING (5 points)

Part 1. You will hear a conversation about a job interview. For questions 1 to 10, listen and complete the
notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
CYCLE TOUR LEADER: APPLICANT ENQUIRY
Example
Name: Margaret.Smith.
About the applicant:
• wants a 1. ________________ job
• will soon start work as a 2. ________________
• has led cycle trips in 3. ________________
• interested in being a leader of a cycling trip for families
• is currently doing voluntary work with members of a 4. ________________ club
• available for five months from the 5. ________________ of May
• can’t eat 6. ________________
Contact details:
• address: 27 7. ________________ Place, Dumfries
• postcode: 8. ________________
Interview:
• interview at 2.30 pm on 9. ________________
• will plan a short 10. ________________ about being a tour guide
Part 2. You will hear an interview with someone who has started a magazine for children. For questions
11 to 15 choose the correct answer from A, B or C according to what you hear.
11. When talking about her job as a primary school teacher, Kate emphasizes ______.
A. how good she was as a teacher
B. how difficult the children could be
C. how much effort the job required
12. What does Kate say about enthusiasm?
A. Children can not maintain it for long.
B. Children respond positively to it.
C. Children experience it more than adults.
13. Kate says that she learned from her research that children ______.
A. don’t like texts that have too much serious content
B. don’t know some words that she had expected them to know
C. don’t want to feel that they are being considered inferior
14. Kate says that the magazine makes use of the Internet because ______.
A. some children prefer using it to learn about subjects
B. some subjects can not be covered fully in the magazine
C. it is used a great deal in connection with some school work
15. Kate says that one of her aims for the magazine is to ______.
A. include subjects that children don’t normally read about
B. encourage children to choose what they want as an career
C. create an interest in subjects some children consider boring
Part 3. You will listen to a recording about improving listening skills. For questions from 16 to 20, decide
whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) by putting a tick (√) in the corresponding
column.
Statements T F
16. The interviewer finds speaking the most difficult.
According to the interviewer, asking for someone to say the same thing again
17.
is one way to solve the problem.
Gabriella recommends pretending to understand if a conversation is too
18.
difficult.
Gabriella's strategy for managing important conversations sounds strange to
19.
the interviewer at first.
20. Gabriella's idea involves asking a lot of questions.

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Part 4: You will hear part of a radio talk about how to choose houseplants. For questions 21-25, complete the
sentences that summarize what the speaker says with NO MORE THAN THREE words.
Before you get the plant, choose the 21. ______.
You must make sure there is enough sunlight.
Check that plants have been well looked after at the garden centre.
Plants in poor condition mean the garden centre might not be 22. ______.
Choose plants with healthy green 23. ______.
It could take months or years for a plant to reach the size you want.
It may be better to buy a large plant even if it is more expensive.
Do not buy plants that have just been put in 24. ______.
It is not a good idea to buy plants in plastic bags.
You should look under the leaves for unwanted 25. ______.
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (6 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 70.
(61) ______ popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course,
there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has
(62) ______ up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical (63)
______. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster. However, it is
hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what
tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to (64) ______.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the
website will manage to run (65) ______. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to
manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally. Finally, the
responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the
firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create requiring (66)
______ knowledge of the latest computer applications. (67) ______, there are also online jobs available for
which traditional skills remain in high (68) ______. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good
sense of the web as a "new media".
The term "new media" is difficult to define because it encompasses a (69) ______ growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it (70) ______ websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration,
video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.
61. A. Apart from B. Contrary to C. Prior to D. In contrast to
62. A. taken B. sped C. set D. opened
63. A. expertise B. master C. efficiency D. excellency
64. A. conduct B. undergone C. perform D. overtake
65. A. on B. over C. in D. with
66. A. built-in B. up-market C. in-service D. in-depth
67. A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Then
68. A. content B. demand C. reference D. requirement
69. A. constantly B. continually C. increasingly D. invariably
70. A. consists B. involves C. contains D. includes
Part 2: For questions 71-80, fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage.
Write the answers in the spaces provided.
Man probably could not live without the help of animals. The (71) ______ of animals in the balance
of nature ranks as their most important service to man. Animals also serve man by (72)______ him with many
foods and other useful products. (73) ______ animals, man would have no meat, milk, eggs, or honey, or wool,
fur, or silk. For thousands of years, man has caused changes in the animal kingdom. He has tamed many kinds
of animals and used (74) ______ for food and clothing. He has killed and driven away animals (75) ______
once attacked him or interfered with his use of land. Today, he tries to protect many kinds of animals that are in
(76) ______ of dying out. Like man, most plants depend on animal for many of their basic needs. Without
animals, many plants could not easily reproduce. For (77) ______, many plants with flowers depend on bees
and other insects to (78) ______ their pollen from plant to plant. Many oak trees grow from acorns that
squirrels burry and then forget, or from acorns that deer step on a push deep into the soil. Birds often fly from

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one place (79) ______ another with seeds clinging to their feet. Toe seeds may sprout a great (80)_____ from
the parent plant.
Your answers:
71.___________ 72.___________ 73.___________ 74.__________ 75.___________
76.____________ 77.____________ 78.___________ 79.__________ 80.___________
Part 3. Read the following passage then decide whether the following statements are True (T), False (F)
or Not given (NG). For questions from 81 to 85, put a tick (√) in the corresponding column.
Half a billion people in Asia and Africa depend on bananas. Bananas provide the largest source of
calories and are eaten daily. Its name is synonymous with food. But the day of reckoning may be coming for the
Cavendish and its indigenous kin. Another fungal disease, black Sigatoka, has become a global epidemic since
its first appearance in Fiji in 1963. Left to itself, black Sigatoka, which causes brown wounds on leaves and
premature fruit ripening – cuts fruit yields by 50 to 70 percent and reduces the productive lifetime of banana
plants from 30 years to as little as 2 or 3.
Commercial growers keep Sigatoka at bay by a massive chemical assault. Forty sprayings of fungicide a
year is typical. But despite the fungicides, diseases such as black Sigatoka are getting more and more difficult
to control. “As soon as you bring in a new fungicide, they develop resistance,” says Frison. “One thing we can
be sure of is that the Sigatoka won’t lose in this battle.” Poor farmers, who cannot afford chemicals, have it
even worse. They can do little more than watch their plants die. “Most of the banana fields in Amazonia have
already been destroyed by the disease,” says Luadir Gasparotto, Brazil’s leading banana pathologist with the
government research agency EMBRAPA. Production is likely to fall by 70 percent as the disease spreads, he
predicts. The only option will be to find a new variety.
No Statements T F NG
.
81. Bananas are among the most commonly consumed fruits in Asia and Africa.
Black Sigatoka is a common leaf-spot disease in banana plants caused by
82.
Fungus Mycosphaerella fijiensis.
Due to the Black Sigatoka, banana plants’ lifetime decreases from 30
83.
years to 2 or 3 years.
Frison says that the banana fields in Amazonia have been affected by the
84.
black Sigatoka.
According to Luadir’s predictions, if the black Sigatoka spreads,
85.
production will drop down by 70%.
Part 4. Read the following passage. For questions from 86 to 90, choose the correct answer by circling its
corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
The great debate, “Is cheerleading a sport?” It’s the topic that will get any cheerleader fired up and
ready to defend their side. The definition of sport from the Oxford Dictionary is “An activity involving physical
exertion and skill in which an individual or team competes against another or others for entertainment.” Cheer
has a competitive nature and it takes both mental and physical ability to succeed. Hollywood has made the
“cheerleading character” into a fantasy where all the boys are after them, they’re dumb and they parade around
in short skirts. Of course you should never trust the appearance of movies because it’s Hollywood and not
reality.
First off, cheerleading has a purpose. The purpose is to encourage positivity and entertain at athletic
games and events. Without cheerleaders the “circle of energy” in a game would be non-existent. It is a sporting
event tradition that has lasted for over 100 years.
Also cheerleaders do train for what they do. Just as a football player would, cheerleaders train too. How
else do you think the girls get thrown in the air and come down safely? Cheerleaders have to lift weights and do
cardio just as any other athlete would. Stunting is the most exciting, entertaining, and dangerous part of
cheerleading. Most injuries from cheer end up being concussions, broken bones, stitches, and not to mention the
endless bruises. It ranks 1st in the catastrophic sports injuries for women and 2nd in all sports combined next to
football.
I believe every sport should have support from others because the athletes care and are passionate about
what they do. Cheerleading has its challenges and rewards like every other sport and I believe it’s time for
cheerleaders to be recognized for their hard work.
86. The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. The gendered politics of sport. B. Why cheerleading is a sport.
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C. Catastrophic cheerleading injuries. D. The masculine aspect of cheerleading.
87. According to paragraph 1, in what sense is cheerleading considered a sport?
A. Competitive cheerleading is a spiritually and corporeally demanding sport.
B. Cheerleading’s primary purpose is to compete in skills, and supporting athletic teams comes second.
C. Cheerleading has outstanding aestheticism to make up for its lack of athleticism.
D. It is governed by rules that explicitly define the time, space, and purpose of the contest.
88. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Cheerleading B. Game C. Football D. Positivity
89. The word “bruises” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. laceration B. scratch C. trauma D. contusion
90. According to paragraph 3, what activity is NOT included in cheerleading training?
A. Stunting and tumbling. ` B. Dumbbell exercise.
C. Powerlifting exercise. D. Cardiorespiratory
Part 5. Choose the correct heading for sections A-D and F from the list of headings below. Write the correct
number i-ix in boxes 91-96 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings

i The probable effects of the new international trade agreement

ii The environmental impact of modern farming
iii Farming and soil erosion
iv The effects of government policy in rich countries
v Governments and management of the environment
vi The effects of government policy in poor countries
vii Farming and food output
viii The effects of government policy on food output
ix The new prospects for world trade

Section A
The role of governments in environmental management is difficult but inescapable. Sometimes, the state tries
to manage the resources it owns, and does so badly. Often, however, governments act in an even more
harmful way. They actually subsidise the exploitation and consumption of natural resources. A whole range
of policies, from farm-price support to protection for coal-mining, do environmental damage and (often) make
no economic sense. Scrapping them offers a two-fold bonus: a cleaner environment and a more efficient
economy. Growth and environmentalism can actually go hand in hand, if politicians have the courage to
confront the vested interest that subsidies create.
Section B
No activity affects more of the earth's surface than farming. It shapes a third of the planet's land area, not
counting Antarctica, and the proportion is rising. World food output per head has risen by 4 per cent between
the 1970s and 1980s mainly as a result of increases in yields from land already in cultivation, but also because
more land has been brought under the plough. Higher yields have been achieved by increased irrigation, better
crop breeding, and a doubling in the use of pesticides and chemical fertilisers in the 1970s and 1980s.

Section C
All these activities may have damaging environmental impacts. For example, land clearing for agriculture is
the largest single cause of deforestation; chemical fertilisers and pesticides may contaminate water supplies;
more intensive farming and the abandonment of fallow periods tend to exacerbate soil erosion; and the spread
of monoculture and use of high-yielding varieties of crops have been accompanied by the disappearance of old
varieties of food plants which might have provided some insurance against pests or diseases in future. Soil
erosion threatens the productivity of land in both rich and poor countries. The United States, where the most
careful measurements have been done, discovered in 1982 that about one-fifth of its farmland was losing
topsoil at a rate likely to diminish the soil's productivity. The country subsequently embarked upon a program
to convert 11 per cent of its cropped land to meadow or forest. Topsoil in India and China is vanishing much
faster than in America.

Section D
Government policies have frequently compounded the environmental damage that farming can cause. In the
rich countries, subsidies for growing crops and price supports for farm output drive up the price of land. The
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annual value of these subsidies is immense: about $250 billion, or more than all World Bank lending in the
1980s. To increase the output of crops per acre, a farmer's easiest option is to use more of the most readily
available inputs: fertilisers and pesticides. Fertiliser use doubled in Denmark in the period 1960-1985 and
increased in The Netherlands by 150 per cent. The quantity of pesticides applied has risen too: by 69 per cent
in 1975-1984 in Denmark, for example, with a rise of 115 per cent in the frequency of application in the three
years from 1981.
In the late 1980s and early 1990s some efforts were made to reduce farm subsidies. The most dramatic
example was that of New Zealand, which scrapped most farm support in 1984. A study of the environmental
effects, conducted in 1993, found that the end of fertiliser subsidies had been followed by a fall in fertiliser
use (a fall compounded by the decline in world commodity prices, which cut farm incomes). The removal of
subsidies also stopped land-clearing and over-stocking, which in the past had been the principal causes of
erosion. Farms began to diversify. The one kind of subsidy whose removal appeared to have been bad for the
environment was the subsidy to manage soil erosion.In less enlightened countries, and in the European Union,
the trend has been to reduce rather than eliminate subsidies, and to introduce new payments to encourage
farmers to treat their land in environmentally friendlier ways, or to leave it fallow. It may sound strange but
such payments need to be higher than the existing incentives for farmers to grow food crops. Farmers,
however, dislike being paid to do nothing. In several countries they have become interested in the possibility
of using fuel produced from crop residues either as a replacement for petrol (as ethanol) or as fuel for power
stations (as biomass). Such fuels produce far less carbon dioxide than coal or oil, and absorb carbon dioxide
as they grow. They are therefore less likely to contribute to the greenhouse effect. But they are rarely
competitive with fossil fuels unless subsidised - and growing them does no less environmental harm than
other crops.

Section E
In poor countries, governments aggravate other sorts of damage. Subsidies for pesticides and artificial
fertilisers encourage farmers to use greater quantities than are needed to get the highest economic crop yield.
A study by the International Rice Research Institute of pesticide use by farmers in South East Asia found that,
with pest-resistant varieties of rice, even moderate applications of pesticide frequently cost farmers more than
they saved. Such waste puts farmers on a chemical treadmill: bugs and weeds become resistant to poisons, so
next year's poisons must be more lethal. One cost is to human health. Every year some 10,000 people die
from pesticide poisoning, almost all of them in the developing countries, and another 400,000 become
seriously ill. As for artificial fertilisers, their use world-wide increased by 40 per cent per unit of farmed land
between the mid 1970s and late 1980s, mostly in the developing countries. Overuse of fertilisers may cause
farmers to stop rotating crops or leaving their land fallow. That, in turn, may make soil erosion worse.

Section F
A result of the Uruguay Round of world trade negotiations is likely to be a reduction of 36 per cent in the
average levels of farm subsidies paid by the rich countries in 1986-1990. Some of the world's food
production will move from Western Europe to regions where subsidies are lower or non-existent, such as the
former communist countries and parts of the developing world. Some environmentalists worry about this
outcome. It will undoubtedly mean more pressure to convert natural habitat into farmland. But it will also
have many desirable environmental effects. The intensity of farming in the rich world should decline, and the
use of chemical inputs will diminish. Crops are more likely to be grown in the environments to which they
are naturally suited. And more farmers in poor countries will have the money and the incentive to manage
their land in ways that are sustainable in the long run. That is important. To feed an increasingly hungry
world, farmers need every incentive to use their soil and water effectively and efficiently.
SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (4 points)
Part 1. Choose one word or phrase which best completes each sentence. For questions from 26 to 50,
circle its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer.
26. By the end of next month, we ______ our project to investigate the negative effects of air pollution.
A. will be finished B. will have finished C. will finish D. Finish
27. It’s no use ______ Gorgh to come back. He has planned to go abroad.
A. to persuade B. persuade C. to be persuade D. persuading
28. Suddenly, the fire alarm ______ and everyone had to leave the building.
A. went off B. called off C. took off D. showed off
29. In most developed countries, up to 50% of ______ population enters higher education at some time in their
lives.
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A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
30. ______ it’ not a good job for me, I feel contented with what I have.
A. In spite of B. Because C. Although D. However
31. When he came home yesterday, he found that his wife ______ away with all his treasures.
A. went B. had gone C. has gone D. would go
32. You have to study hard to ______ your classmates.
A. catch up with B. catch on with C. catch with D. catch up
33. Julia: “I’ve passed my driving test.” Henrich: “______”
A. It’s nice of you to say so. B. Do you think so?
C. Congratulations! D. That’s a good idea.
34. Ann: “It is a good idea for students to balance between studying and relaxing?”
Peter: “______.”
A. Sorry to hear that B. I can’t agree with you more
C. The more time the better D. I have no idea for it
35. Had Mr. Minh not made a good plan, he ______ his difficulty now.
A. will overcome B. overcame
C. would not overcome D. would overcome
36. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class; he ______ a lot recently.
A. should have studied B. can’t have studied
C. must have studied D. might have studied
37. The faster we finish, ______.
A. the sooner we can leave B. we can leave sooner and sooner
C. the more soon can we leave D. we can leave the sooner
38. When I last saw Carrie, she told me she ______ of applying for another job, but now she's changed her
mind.
A. has thought B. is thinking
C. was thinking D. has been thinking
39. Thousands of people are reported ______ in the tsunami last month.
A. being died B. to have died
C. to die D. to have been dying
40. Scientists ______ on the site found many ancient tools, tombs and pottery, and made some important
archaeological discoveries.
A. worked B. to be working C. to work D. working
41. Hardly _______ from university when many companies offered him a well-paid job.
A. has Nhat Minh graduated B. had Nhat Minh graduated
C. Nhat Minh had graduated D. did Nhat Minh graduate
42. During the last year of his life, he occupied a ______ of rooms in the Sorbonne, where he lived simply and
unostentatiously.
A. suite B. flight C. plague D. choir
43. The most powerful force in a teenager’s life is probably______ pressure.
A. friend B. peer C. company D. youth
44. Time was running out, so the committee had to make a ______ decision.
A. snap B. brief C. sharp D. curt
45. I refuse to believe a word of it; it's a cock-and-______story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
46. I offered to do the job, but soon found that I was _______ as it was more difficult than I had thought.
A. pushing up daisies B. knocking on wood
C. in over my head D. off their hands
47. I was disappointed that the restaurant had _____ flowers on the table.
A. artificial B. false C. untrue D. forged
48. If factories pump their raw ______ into the sea, many fish will die out.
A. water B. trash C. sewage D. spill
49. Why not buy the dress on ______ then you can take it back if it doesn’t fit your mother?
A. agreement B. approval C. affirmation D. affection
50. Scientists are predicting that the volcano might erupt so people have been _____ from the area.
A. escaped B. emigrated C. exported D. evacuated

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Part 2: Give the correct form of the words in the brackets to fill in the gaps. For questions from 51 to 55,
write your answers in the spaces provided.
51. I had some fried chicken with vegetables, and my friend had
what he said was the ______ curry he’d ever tasted. SPICE
52. I am not particularly concerned about becoming rich but I would like
to have a ______ income - enough to live comfortably. REASON
53. Sandra seems to have ______ my keys. She can't find them LAY
anywhere. SATISFACTORY
54. The boy tried his best studying to ______ his parents. ACCURATE
55. I regret to inform you that your report is full of ______.
Part 3: There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and
correct them. For questions from 56 to 60, write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number
(00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage

1 The position of sport in today’s society has changed out of all recognisation. People no
2 longer seem to think about sport as ‘just a game’ – to be watched or played for the sake of
3 enjoyment. Instead, it has become large business worldwide. It has become accepted
4 practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of
5 money to screen important matches. The result has been huge financial awards for athletes,
6 some of whom are now very wealthy, particularly top football players, golfers and tennis
7 players. In addition, it is not unusual for some athletes receive large fees on top of their
8 salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances. A trend towards shorter
9 working hours mean that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and
10 to take part in sporting activity.
SECTION IV. WRITING (5 points)
Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word
given.
1. I’m never going to forget to consider Darren's views when I make a decision again. account
=> That's the last time I ...............................................when I make a decision.
2. I don’t know how on earth she thinks of such brilliant plots for her novels. come
=> How on earth .............................................such brilliant plots for her novels?
3. I’m sure Nancy is still presuming that the party starts at nine. impression
=> I’m sure Nancy.................................................................. that the party starts at nine.
4. Sean, do you know yet what you’re doing this evening? mind
=> Sean, ................................................ yet what you’re doing this evening?
5. I told Jeanne, thinking that she’d be supportive - how wrong I was! belief
=> I told Jeanne.............................that she’d be supportive - how wrong I was!
6. There’s no way that you're staying out all night with your friends, I'm afraid. question
=> Your staying out all night with your friends............................, I'm afraid.
7. I’m glad you now see sense and agree that your parents are right. senses
=> I’m glad ...................................................... and agree that your parents are right.
8. I think you think - wrongly - that this is all a conspiracy against you. misapprehension
=> I think.................................................................that this is all a conspiracy against you.
9. Don’t act fast, you might make a mistake. HASTE
=> _________________________________________________________________________
10. She could not answer the merchants in their own language. ABLE
=> _________________________________________________________________________
11. We were asking ourselves if they were really there. WONDERING
=> _________________________________________________________________________
12. Don’t you think we should ask the price? HAD BETTER
=> _________________________________________________________________________
13. We can’t buy the house because the down payment is so high. SO … THAT
=> _________________________________________________________________________
14. She is not a young woman which is not important because her admirers find her ageless. NO
MATTER
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 => _________________________________________________________________________
15. It is really difficult to control the increase of vandalism. RISING TIDE
=> _____________________________________________________________________
Part 2. ‘Books are the best source of knowledge’. In 150-180 words, write a paragraph about what
schools should do to encourage students to read more.

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