Warmup Mock 03 (CLAT) 2025

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the
questions that follow.

Passage – 1

India is committed to the targets set in the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) held at Paris in 2005 of reducing emissions by 33 percent to 35
percent of its gross domestic product (GDP) by 2030 from 2005 levels and achieve 40
percent of installed power capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030 (Ministry of Environment
2018). Being the third largest emitter of Green House Gases (GHGs) and second-most
populous country in the world, it becomes imperative for India to review the progress of its
target achievement and renewal of its targets. For this reason, biennially the progress is
assessed. As per the second biennial update report to UNFCCC on Climate Change
submitted in 2018 (Ministry of Environment, 2018), it was assessed that India has achieved
a reduction in emission intensity of GDP by 21 percent over the period 2005-2014 which is
on track to meet Copenhagen targets to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 20-25
percent in 2020 below 2005 levels. But to meet Paris commitments and to implement
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC), India needs additional financial, technological,
and capacity-building support. Due to the limitation of resources it is important to have
harmonized strategies for mitigation of both GHG emissions and air pollutants. But to have
such strategies it is important to understand the close relation between GHGs and Air
Pollution. The main cause of CO2 emissionsextraction and burning of fossil fuels also are a
major source of air pollution. Air Pollutants too affect the incoming sunlight thus warming
and cooling the Earth. The health hazards of air pollution are high as it leads to premature
deaths.

Therefore, the interaction between GHG emissions and air pollution is an open research
question to explore in general, and has not been discussed before. We focus on this, from
Indian perspective, because air pollution is a major issue in India, particularly in large cities,

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though the government has extensively focused on climate change mitigation activities,
such as reducing GHG emissions. Such focus has intensified after India's commitment to
Paris Accord. We aim at analyzing the impact of Paris Accord commitments to reduce CO2
emissions, on other GHG emissions and air pollution. This is a unique study in this regard,
because such interaction studies between different types of emissions and air pollution
have not been done in the context of any country to the best of our knowledge, more so for
India, for whom this is crucial given the rapid economic growth in this country fueling all
types of emissions in the absence of ramped up efficiencies and investments in renewables
and other cleaner sectors in terms of GHG emissions and air pollution.
Q 1. 30642205 From the passage, it can be inferred that:

a) Only developed countries emit greenhouse gases.

b) It is impossible to stop the emission of greenhouse gases.

c) Greenhouse gases can only be stopped by afforestation.

d) India is one of the major producers of greenhouse gases in the world.

Q 2. 30642205 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate antonym of the
word 'mitigation' as used in the passage?

a) Augment b) Litigate c) Pontificate d) Frigate

Q 3. 30642205 As per the passage, what can be an effect of air pollution?

a) Malnutrition b) Early ageing c) Early fatalities d) Mental retardation

Q 4. 30642205 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?

a) It is impossible to meet the targets set by the UNFCCC.

b) There is a connection between Greenhouse gases and air pollution.

c) The United Nations is not interested to counter global warming.

d) Burning of fossil fuels takes place mostly in developing countries.

Q 5. 30642205 As per the author, what can be a possible challenge that India might face
while countering pollution?

a) b) c) Urban challenges d)

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An uncooperative Lack of support from Technological
media the youth challenges

Q 6. 30642205 Which of the following summarises the passage correctly?

a)
India's commitment to UNFCCC involves reducing emissions and increasing non-fossil fuel
capacity by 2030. Progress, aligned with Copenhagen targets, emphasizes the need for
additional support to address GHG emissions and air pollutants.
b)
India aims to meet UNFCCC targets by cutting emissions and increasing non-fossil fuel
power by 2030. Progress, marked by a 21% reduction in emission intensity, underscores
the interconnected nature of GHGs and air pollution, stressing the importance of
harmonized strategies.
c)
As the third-largest GHG emitter, India commits to UNFCCC targets, seeking emission
reduction and non-fossil fuel power growth by 2030. Progress highlights success in meeting
Copenhagen targets.
d)
India, the third-largest emitter, commits to UNFCCC targets, striving for emission reduction
and nonfossil fuel power growth by 2030. Progress, a 21% reduction in emission intensity,
underscores the importance of understanding the interrelation between GHG emissions and
air pollution for effective mitigation strategies.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the
questions that follow.

Passage – 2

We focus on this, from Indian perspective, because air pollution is a major issue in India,
particularly in large cities, though the government has extensively focused on climate
change mitigation activities, such as reducing GHG emissions. Such focus has intensified
after India's commitment to Paris Accord. We aim at analyzing the impact of Paris Accord
commitments to reduce CO2 emissions, on other GHG emissions and air pollution. This is a
unique study in this regard, because such interaction studies between different types of

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emissions and air pollution have not been done in the context of any country to the best of
our knowledge, more so for India, for whom this is crucial given the rapid economic growth
in this country fueling all types of emissions in the absence of ramped up efficiencies and
investments in renewables and other cleaner sectors in terms of GHG emissions and air
pollution.

One of India's biggest challenges today is how it reconciles the pursuit of economic growth
with the protection of its ecological integrity. To make economic growth and human
development sustainable requires the identification, understanding and alleviation of the
ecological costs of growth and development without forsaking their benefits. The spike in
India's growth over the last decade has involved a considerable expansion of infrastructural
development projects. Among these, road and highway projects, which provide the vital
foundation on which other sectors of the economy can be built, have received a huge
boost. Several international donor and lending agencies have provided the economic
impetus for the expansion of the road networks. During 2008-2011, the Indian Government
itself allocated a budget of US$ 13.67 billion for the development of roads. This, in turn, has
triggered a rapid growth of motor vehicles in India at 12% per year and further intensified
the demand for better roads. Unlike in many forested tracts of Africa, South America or
South East Asia, where road projects have opened up frontier areas to markets, road and
highway projects in India have primarily involved an enhancement in the quality of existing
roads, setting off proximate increases in vehicular activity, rather than fundamentally
altering connectivity patterns, although important exceptions exist. Road improvement and
highway development projects are now increasingly being proposed within India's protected
area (PA) network, which forms a mere 4% of the country's landscape. Although these
roads enhance connectivity between key economic centres, the upgrading of minor roads to
high-speed highways also poses a serious threat to wildlife in and around the PAs. In India,
the impact of roads or vehicular traffic on wildlife has received little research attention.
Despite the fact that roads could affect numerous endangered wildlife species, there have
been virtually no studies assessing their impacts, especially on large-bodied animals. As a
result, the impact of roads and vehicular traffic on larger endangered species remains
poorly understood in India.
Q 7. 30642205 From the passage, it can be understood that:

a) In India, wildlife protection laws are stringent.

b) Substantial infrastructural growth has taken place in India.

c) Endangered wildlife is often illegally hunted in India.

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c) Endangered wildlife is often illegally hunted in India.

d) Most developing nations of South Asia have witnessed infrastructural development.

Q 8. 30642205 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?

a) High speed expressways can affect wild animals.

b)
In the recent past, the Indian has hardly allocated any fund for the development of road
network.
c) The Protected Area network comprises 1/10th of India's landmass.
d) India should build rail network in order to improve connectivity.

Q 9. 30642205 As per the passage, which one of the following statements is true?

a)
The automobile industry has grown in India and as a result, the public transportation system
has become affected.
b)
Banks provide soft loans to customers and so, the automobile industry has received a
boost.
c) The automobile industry has shrunken in India.

d) The automobile industry has grown in India.

Q 10. 30642205 Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'boost'
as used in the passage?

a) Belie b) Thrust c) Banal d) Truncate

Q 11. 30642205 Out of the following options, which one is true about the expansion of road
networks in India?

a) International agencies have been reluctant to help India.

b) India road network is considered to be the best in the entire world.

c) International agencies have assisted India in expanding road networks.

d) International agencies have supplied India with cheap labour.

Q 12. 30642205 What is the antonym of the word "intensified" as used in the passage?

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Q 12. 30642205 What is the antonym of the word "intensified" as used in the passage?

a) Weakened b) Augmented c) Amplified d) Bolstered

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the
questions that follow.

Passage – 3

The year 1192 was a significant date in the history of India. Mohhamad, a Turk commander
born in the Seljuks tribe, together his armed troops conquered the coalition of Indian rulers
in the Tarin flatland, north of Delhi. As the result, the Muslim culture including arts, flooded
in India together with Arab conquerors. The Islam brought cult architecture in India, the
main types of which were formed by the end of the 8th century, i.e. long before the
conquest of India. The Muslim architecture was basically represented by three main
complexes: a mosque, minaret and mausoleum (tomb). A mausoleum is a monumental
tomb construction, originating from the tomb of Mausolus, the ruler of Caria, in
Halicarnassus (4th century B.C.). Although Islam implies a traditional burying in graves,
with facing to Mecca, the mausoleum in Muslim countries grabs the attention of architects.
Works of the Muslim architecture represents Islam. They are cultural texts which reflect
specific features of the Islamic worldview, of the historic period when they were created,
and the artistic thinking of Muslim architects. The cultural-semiotic and art analysis of the
Islamic architecture will allow us to understand the specific character of the history of Islam
in Hindustan as well as how the Islamic religion developed in this particular era.
Undoubtedly, the Islamic architecture enriched the culture in Hindustan. Some significant
sites of the Islamic architecture established in the Middles Ages in the territory of
Hindustan, represent masterpieces of the world architecture.

The Muslim troops came to the territory of Hindustan in the very end of the 12th century.
Step by step, they moved to the East and South. Islam bucked up Hindustan. It infused new
life on this territory and gave an impulse to the society that had already almost lost the
ability to any improvements. A new phenomenon in the world culture, the Indo-Muslim art,
appeared. Indian masters and constructors were inspired by new ideas brought by Islam.
During Mahmud's reign, Al-Biruni, an outstanding scientist and philosopher, came also to
Punjab. He mastered Sanskrit and read all the main philosophic, scientific and art books
written by Hindus by himself.

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The Great Mughals dynasty was well famous in the whole Asia and Europe. All in all, there
were six outstanding rules in this dynasty, and then the Empire came apart and Marathas
together with Sikhs found their own state. The first ruler from the Great Mughals - Babur -
was a direct descendent from the family of Genghis Khan and Timur. He died in 1530. The
next person to whom Babur bequeathed his empire was Humayun, a man of education and
culture, but not of a war. In 1540, Shere-Khan, the ruler of Afghan, defeated and exiled him.
The second Great Mughals' Emperor became a tramp, who had to live a vagabond life and
suffer all kinds of asperities.
Q 13. 30642205 In the light of the passage, which of the following options is true?

a) Al-Biruni converted to Hinduism. b) Al-Biruni wrote Sanskrit books.

c) Al-Biruni was a Sanskrit teacher. d) Al-Biruni was conversant in Sanskrit.

Q 14. 30642205 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate synonym of the
word 'asperity' as used in the passage?

a) Acrimony b) Placid c) Braid d) Attestation

Q 15. 30642205 The author of the passage seems to imply that:

a) At times, Hindu memorials are also called mausoleums.

b) Mausoleum was a typical structure of Muslim architecture.

c) Corinthian columns were a typical structure in Muslim architecture.

d) Maximum number of mausoleums was built after the death of Aurangzeb.

Q 16. 30642205 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

a) The Marathas proved to be unpopular rulers.

b) The British gained power after the decline of the Mughals.

c) After the decline of the Mughals, the Marathas gained foothold.

d) The Marathas gained power in India after defeating the Sikhs.

Q 17. 30642205 The author of the passage is most likely a/an:

a) Minstrel b) Historian c) Psychologist d) Economist

Q 18. 30642205 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?

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a)
The Great Mughals dynasty had a total of six rulers before it disintegrated, leading to the
formation of independent states by the Marathas and Sikhs.
b)
Babur, the first ruler of the Great Mughals dynasty, was a direct descendant of Genghis
Khan and Timur, but he faced defeat and exile by Shere-Khan in 1540.
c)
The Great Mughals dynasty, known throughout Asia and Europe, eventually fell apart,
leading to the emergence of independent states ruled by Marathas and Sikhs.
d)
Humayun, the successor to Babur, was a ruler of education and culture but faced defeat by
Shere-Khan in 1540, leading to a period of hardship and exile.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the
questions that follow.

Passage – 4

So what was the concept put forward by Gaudapada? As we know, ideas can be either
supported or opposed. Especially in modern times when individuality is encouraged, there
is greater opportunity for holding different views. However, this can give rise to challenges
when two opposing ideas come into conflict with each other. When confronted with two
conflicting ideas, we can often endorse one viewpoint and distance ourselves from the
other. But there are instances where we cannot set aside either and need to deal with both.
This demands a special cognitive competence, for which we can look towards Gaudapada.
His significant contribution was to formulate a way of resolving two fundamentally
incompatible views.

Gaudapada established a method of comparing two incompatible Indian schools of

philosophy, namely, Buddhism and Vedanta, the latter a dominant school of philosophy
rooted in the Vedas and the Upanishads. Lord Buddha attacked and comprehensively
rejected Vedanta and proposed an alternative, radically different, philosophy. Vedanta and
Buddhism were thus made mutually exclusive. It was against this background of radical
polarisation of philosophy that Gaudapada undertook the arduous task of understanding the
essentials of both Vedanta and Buddhism. He went one step further and identified a

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common denominator based on which the profound differences between these two
incompatible schools could be compared and contrasted.

He chose the MandukyaUpanisad, where he identifies four states of consciousness: Visva

(waking state), Taijasa (dream state), Prajna (deep sleep) and Turiya (non-dual).
Recognising this common denominator against the background of an extreme polarised
scenario is a huge challenge. By considering both sides, establishing a common
denominator, and relating one with the other, Gaudapada introduced a third possibility, a
radical concept that immensely enriched philosophy in India.

This comparative approach of Gaudapada is different from Plato's Dialogues, where

differences are resolved, quite predictably and monotonously, in favour of Socrates. There
are two aspects to Plato's Dialogues - the process of dialogue and the conclusions. The
process can continue, with each side displaying novel ideas and incisive arguments at
different times. There can be tentative or even no conclusions. However, due to his
preoccupation with conclusions, Plato terminates dialogues that have the potential to
restate positions.

Gaudapada's comparative method is also different from Hegel's thesis, antithesis, and
synthesis dialectics. Architecturally, it is the opposite of dialectics. In dialectics, the thesis -
for instance, Vedanta- and the anti-thesis - that is, Buddhism - can get synthesised
subsequently. In the process, they also lose their previous identity. In contrast,
Gaudapada's comparative method seeks to establish a common denominator at the bottom
that provides a base retrospectively.

After downloading these two incompatible schools of philosophy onto a common platform,
one can begin to relate these two opposed schools and philosophies. The process enabled
by the common denominator keeps them engaged with each other, with tentative success
but promising, ongoing debate. Unlike in a dialogue where one of the views is defeated or
in dialectics where both are synthesised at a higher level, in Gaudapada's comparative
method, both remain critically engaged, a method that is perhaps unprecedented in the
world.

This unique contribution deserves to be highlighted in philosophical circles at the global

level.
Q 19. 30642205 Which set of keywords below most closely captures the main essence of

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Q 19. 30642205 Which set of keywords below most closely captures the main essence of
the passage?

a) b)
Inclusive, paradoxical, philosophical, Underrated, knowledge, conceptual,
underrated. revelation.
c) Comparative, broad, conscious, unique. d) Bland, territorial, nationalistic, forced.

Q 20. 30642205 All of the following statements, maybe considered valid inferences,
EXCEPT:

a)
Plato erroneously forced false conclusions on arguments just for the sake of concluding
them.
b) Gaudapada's system could be a new approach in philosophy if explored.

c) The Vedanta and Buddhist school of thoughts are incomparable.

d) Hegel saw newness in polarity.

Q 21. 30642205 "Unlike in a dialogue where one of the views is defeated or in dialectics
where both are synthesised at a higher level, in Gaudapada's comparative method, both
remain critically engaged, a method that is perhaps unprecedented in the world." None of
the following statements can be viewed as true, EXCEPT:

a)
Synthesis is a process in philosophy whereby one view point is defeated in favour of
another.
b)
Two polarising systems of philosophy are compared only to produce a hierarchical
structure.
c) Hegel's comparative method is resolved through dialogue.

d) Opposing thoughts can be compared without ascertaining a hierarchy.

Q 22. 30642205 Based on your understanding of the passage which of the following is the
correct inference of the second last paragraph?

a)
Gaudapada's system promises engagement even in the face of incompatible polarisation.
b) Gaudapada's system focuses on dialogue between two parties.

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b) Gaudapada's system focuses on dialogue between two parties.

c) Gaudapada's system is all about resolving differences.

d)
Gaudapada's system is critical about engaging two oppositional ideas without a solid
foundation.

Q 23. 30642205 Based on your understanding of the passage, which one of the following
instances may require Gaudapada's comparative system?

a)
A criminal accused of murder may have a compelling back story as to why they committed
the crime.
b) Sports where the concept of tie is present is influenced by Gaudapada.

c)
In our globalized world, a war between two nations may not be understood by discarding
one nation in favour of the other.
d)
The partition of India could have avoided had the leaders applied Gaudapada's system of
philosophy while looking at the Hindu-Muslim polarity.

Q 24. 30642205 What is the synonym for the word "enriched" as used in the passage?

a) Enhanced b) Diminished c) Depleted d) Stagnated

Current Affairs Including General

Knowledge
Passage – 1

On 1 January 2024 at 16:10 (Japan Standard Time), a magnitude 7.6 earthquake struck the
Noto Peninsula in Ishikawa Prefecture, Japan. As the epicenter was very shallow, large
tremors were observed in many places and a tsunami warning was issued. Since then,
1,444 aftershocks have followed the main shock.

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The tsunami damaged at approximately 160 hectares in Suzu City and Noto City. Power
and water supplies were still cut, communications were disrupted. Some districts are
isolated with roads cut off and food, water, blanket and fuel, basic needs are still in short
supply. The quake caused fires in some cities and it is estimated that hundreds of houses
were burnt down. According to the Japan Nuclear Regulation Authority, no issues have
been found with reactors at nuclear power plants in the affected area, including the Shika
nuclear power plant in Ishikawa Prefecture. The Japanese Government applied the
Disaster Relief Act towards 35 cities, 11 towns and 1 village in 4 prefectures including
Niigata, Toyama, Ishikawa and Fukui in order to lead the national-level relief operations. As
of 9:00 on 18 January, the local government confirmed 232 deaths in Ishikawa prefecture.
Q 25. 30642205 Which of the following prefectures of Japan was majorly affected by an
earthquake on January 1, 2024?

a) Ishikawa b) Tokyo c) Hiroshima d) Fukushima

Q 26. 30642205 Why is Japan prone to earthquakes and tsunamis?

a) Proximity to the Arctic Circle b) Location along the 'Pacific Ring of Fire'

c) Presence of large freshwater lakes d) Being situated on a desert belt

Q 27. 30642205 The 2011 tsunami in Japan led to a nuclear meltdown at the__________.

a) b) c) d)
Fukushima power Yangjiang Nuclear Shin Kori Nuclear Hanul Nuclear Power
plant Power Plant Power Plant Plant

Q 28. 30642205 What is a tsunami?

a) A strong ocean current

b) A series of giant ocean waves caused by earthquakes or volcanic eruptions

c) A type of tropical storm

d) A phenomenon related to lunar cycles

Q 29. 30642205 What tragic event in 2011 resulted in the loss of around 18,000 lives in
Japan?

a) Tornado outbreak b) Hurricane strike

c) 9.0 magnitude earthquake and tsunami d) Volcanic eruption

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Q 30. 30642205 Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is an
autonomous body under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth
System Science Organisation (ESSO). ESSO-INCOIS was established in 1999 under the
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is located__________.

a) Chennai b) Mumbai c) Kolkata d) Hyderabad

Passage – 2

The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences 2023 has been awarded to [1] "for having
advanced our understanding of women's labour market outcomes." Over the years,
spanning from 1969 to 2022, a total of 54 Nobel Prizes in Economic Sciences have been
awarded. Out of 92 laureates, 25 have had the honour of receiving this prestigious award
as sole recipients. Only two women, Elinor Ostrom in 2009 and Esther Duflo in 2019, have
been recognised with the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences for their exceptional
contributions. [1] becomes the third woman to be acknowledged in this field.

The Nobel Prize 2023 announcements which commenced on October 2, 2023, concluded
with the last announcement of the year in the field of Economic Sciences. These latest
awards follow those in medicine, physics, chemistry, literature, and peace that were
announced. The laureates of last year's Economic Sciences prize, Ben Bernanke, Douglas
Diamond, and Philip Dybvig, were recognised for their groundbreaking work on "bank
failures and their profound impact on America's response to the 2007-2008 financial crisis."
Q 31. 30642205 The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences 2023 has been awarded
to [1] "for having advanced our understanding of women's labour market outcomes". Who
among the following recipients names has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) David Card b) Joshua D Angrist c) Claudia Goldin d) Guido W Imbens

Q 32. 30642205 The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences was first awarded in
1969 to Dutch economist _____________ and Norwegian economist Ragnar Frisch "for
having developed and applied dynamic models for the analysis of economic processes".

a) Jan Tinbergen b) George Wald c) Linus Pauling d) David Baltimore

Q 33. 30642205 The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, officially the
___________in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel is an economics award
administered by the Nobel Foundation.

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a) b) Global Economy Prize
Deutsche Bank Prize in Financial Economics c)
Jensen Prize
d) Sveriges Riksbank Prize

Q 34. 30642205 Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee is an India-born naturalized American economist.

He shared the 2019 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences with Esther Duflo and
Michael Kremer "for their experimental approach to ______________".

a) alleviating corruption in the economy b) alleviating global poverty

c) alleviating bad loans from the banks d)

alleviating financial stress in the corporate
governance

Q 35. 30642205 Amartya Kumar Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher, he was
awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in ____________ and India's
Bharat Ratna in 1999 for his work in welfare economics.

a) 1990 b) 1998 c) 1995 d) 1999

Q 36. 30642205 Who was the first woman to receive the Nobel Memorial Prize in
Economic Sciences?

a) Joan Robinson b) Elinor Ostrom c) Esther Duflo d) Amartya Sen

Passage – 3

The year 2020 marked 100 years of the [1] launched by Mahatma Gandhi as part of the
Indian independence movement. A 100 years on, Indians are beginning to rediscover that
even though we have stepped into a new century, the troubles we face stay the same, and
so does our way of protesting.

In 1919, the British imperial legislature passed the infamous [2] as it was later called. It
allowed the government to try political cases without juries and also imprison suspects
without any trial. The new Act was strongly opposed by the Indian freedom fighters who
questioned the validity of the law. It was at a protest against the [2] at Jallianwala Bagh in
Amritsar where the British police closed the exit gates and fired at unarmed protestors,
leading to 379 deaths and over 1200 injuries.

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It was in 1917 when Mahatma Gandhi saw the condition of farmers in Champaran in Bihar
who were forced to grow indigo on part of their lands, even though it was not viable. The
movement is known as the Champaran Satyagraha and was the beginning of the
noncooperation movement. The movement gathered steam and became a national protest
in 1919 when the British colonial rulers refused to withdraw the draconian [2]. The
noncooperation movement and the emergence of Gandhi on the Indian political scenario
marked the third phase of Indian nationalism.

As a result, a nationwide strike was organised on August 1, 1920, to mark the beginning of
the noncooperation movement. The movement led to a total boycott of schools, colleges,
law courts, and the legislative councils. Titles granted by the British were surrendered, the
Durbars or meetings between social leaders and the British government officials rejected,
elections boycotted and Indians refused to serve the British Indian Army outside India,
notably in Mesopotamia. The [1] was withdrawn because of the [3] incident. Although
Mahatma Gandhi had stopped the national revolt single-handedly, on 10 March 1922,
Gandhi was arrested. On 18 March 1922, he was imprisoned for six years for publishing
seditious materials. This led to suppression of the movement and was followed by the
arrest of other leaders.
Q 37. 30642205 The year 2020 marked 100 years of the [1] launched by Mahatma Gandhi
as part of the Indian independence movement. Which of the following movements is
redacted with [1] in the above passage?

a) b) c) d)
Home Rule Civil Disobedience Non-Cooperation Swadeshi movement
Movement Movement Movement

Q 38. 30642205 In 1919, the British imperial legislature passed the infamous [2]. Which of
the following is redacted with [2] in the above passage?

a) Ilbert Bill b) Rowlatt Act c) Pitts India act d)

Government of India
Act, 1909

Q 39. 30642205 The [1] was withdrawn in year 1922 due to [3] incident. Which of the
following incidents is redacted with [3] in the above passage?

a) b) c) Communal Award d)

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Jallianwala Bagh Alipore bomb case Chauri Chaura
massacre incident

Q 40. 30642205 The [1] was launched on 1st August 1920. Who among the following
independence activists was died on the same day?

a) Bipin Chandra Pal b) c) d) Rash Behari Bose

Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Krishna
Gokhale

Q 41. 30642205 Which of the following party was formed by Indian politicians and
members of the Indian National Congress who had opposed Mahatma Gandhi suspension
of all civil resistance in response to the [3]?

a) Ghadar Party b) c) Swaraj Party d) Bharat Kranti Dal

Liberation Party of
India

Q 42. 30642205 Who among the following was the Viceroy during the Non-cooperation
Movement?

a) Lord Reading b) Lord Minto c) Lord Dalhousie d) Lord Ripon

Passage – 4

Angola has announced it is leaving the oil producers' organisation Opec over a dispute on
output quotas. It follows last month's decision by the 13-member cartel and 10 allied nations
to further slash oil production in 2024 to prop up volatile global prices.

Angola currently produces about 1.1 million barrels per day, of the 30 million from the whole
of Opec. Angola's decision to withdraw from Opec came at Thursday's cabinet meeting.
"We feel that at this moment Angola gains nothing by remaining in the organisation and, in
defence of its interests, it decided to leave," Mineral Resources and Petroleum Minister
Diamantino Azevedo said afterwards.

"If we remained in Opec... Angola would be forced to cut production, and this goes against
our policy of avoiding decline and respecting contracts." The minister added that the
decision was not taken lightly. Angola and Nigeria are the two biggest oil exporters in sub-

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Saharan Africa.

Both countries have been unhappy at being asked to cut production at a time when they
need to increase their foreign currency earnings. Angola has vast mineral and petroleum
reserves, and its economy is among the fastestgrowing in the world - but economic growth
is highly uneven. Much of its oil wealth lies in its separate Cabinda province, where a
decades-long separatist conflict simmers. Angola - which had been an Opec member for 16
years - is not the first country to leave the cartel. Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar have all
done the same.
Q 43. 30642205 Why has Angola decided to withdraw from OPEC?

a) Disagreement on output quotas and commitment to avoiding decline

b) Pursuit of bilateral agreements with other oil-producing nations

c) Pressure from non-OPEC oil-producing countries

d) Intent to join another international oil organization

Q 44. 30642205 When was the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
founded, and where is its headquarters located?

a) Founded in 1960 in Vienna, Austria b) Founded in 1960 in Baghdad, Iraq

c) Founded in 1970 in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia d) Founded in 1980 in Tehran, Iran

Q 45. 30642205 Which of the following countries were the founding members of OPEC?

a) b)
Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Saudi Arabia, Russia, Iraq, Iran, and Nigeria
Venezuela c)
Algeria, Libya, Nigeria, Angola, and
Venezuela
d)
Kuwait, UAE, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and
Oman

Q 46. 30642205 What is the primary objective of OPEC, as mentioned in the information?

a) Enhance global oil production

b) Ensure dominance in oil reserves

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c) Coordinate and unify petroleum policies for fair and stable prices

d) Advocate for environmental sustainability

Q 47. 30642205 What is OPEC+, and how is it different from OPEC?

a) OPEC+ is a subgroup of OPEC, focusing on environmental policies.

b) OPEC+ is an expanded version of OPEC, with a larger membership.

c) OPEC+ includes non-OPEC members and was formed to coordinate oil production.

d) OPEC+ is an initiative for OPEC countries to share technological advancements.

Q 48. 30642205 The OPEC bloc is nominally led by_________.

a) China b) USA c) Saudi Arabia d) Russia

Passage – 5

The walled city of [1], known for its iconic architectural legacy and vibrant culture, made its
entry into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list and leaders across the political spectrum
welcomed the signal honour to the historical city. The decision was taken at the 43rd
session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, which is taking place in Azerbaijan
from June 20 to July 10. In addition to [1], the Committee examined 36 nominations for
inscription UNESCO 's World Heritage List during the session.

Welcoming the Unesco announcement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi tweet said that [1] is
a city associated with culture and valour. Elegant and energetic, [1]'s hospitality draws
people from all over. Glad that this city has been inscribed as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO."

The city was proposed to be nominated for its value of being an exemplary development in
town planning and architecture that demonstrates an amalgamation and important
exchange of ideas in the late medieval period, UNESCO had said. "In town planning, it
shows an interchange of ancient Hindu, Mughal and contemporary Western ideas that
resulted in the form of the city."

[1] City is also an exceptional example of a late medieval trade town in South Asia and
defined new concepts for a thriving trade and commercial hub. In addition, the city is

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associated with living traditions in the form of crafts that have national and international
recognition, it added.
Q 49. 30642205 What is the name of the city whose name has been redacted with [1] in
the passage above?

a) Ahmedabad b) Varanasi c) Jaipur d) Chennai

Q 50. 30642205 Recently, which of the following countries have quit the membership of
UNESCO?

a) USA and UK b) USA and France c) Israel and France d) Israel and USA

Q 51. 30642205 Which of the following National Parks has been inscribed as India's first
"Mixed World Heritage Site" on UNESCO World Heritage List?

a) b) c) d)
Khangchendzonga Jim Corbett National Kaziranga National Ranthambore
National Park Park Park National Park

Q 52. 30642205 The first Indian city to get the 'World Heritage City' tag by UNESCO
is__________.

a) Ahmedabad b) Jaipur c) Varanasi d) Chennai

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.

Passage – 1

"Force Majeure" or "Act of God'' - this standard clause present in most contracts, which is
not commonly invoked, is in the minds of most corporates and commercial lawyers, as
economic activities and commercial transactions world over have come to a standstill. In
simple terms, 'Force Majeure' clause is a provision in a contract that exempts a party from

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performing his contractual obligations which have become impossible or impracticable due
to an event or effect which the parties could not have foreseen or controlled. This clause is
usually couched in general, inclusive terms to cover unforeseeable incidents such as
natural calamities, war, sudden change of government policies etc. It will be interesting to
note that the Indian Contract Act, 1872 - the 148 years old law governing contracts in India -
does not expressly refer to 'Force Majeure'. However, there are two Sections which can
become relevant in such situations - Section 32 and Section 56. Section 32 deals with
"contingent contracts'', in which the performance of the contractual obligations is contingent
on the happening or non-happening of an event. If the event becomes "impossible", the
contract becomes "void" under this Section. As far as general contracts are concerned,
Section 56 is relevant. This provision embodies the "doctrine of frustration".

It says:
(1) An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.
(2) A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or by
reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent, unlawful, becomes void when
the act becomes impossible or unlawful.

The roots of this doctrine of frustration are in the common law decision Taylor vs. Caldwell.
Prior to this decision, the law of contracts in England was extremely rigid. A contract had to
be performed, no matter what the unforeseen circumstances which render its performance
impossible. This rigidity was loosened somewhat by the decision in Taylor vs. Caldwell in
which it was held that if some unforeseen event occurs during the performance of a
contract which makes it impossible of performance, in the sense that the fundamental basis
of the contract goes, it need not be further performed, as insisting upon such performance
would be unjust.

Edited and extracted from- https://livelaw-cnlu.refread.com/know-the-law/force-majeure-act-

of-god-doctrine-offrustration- under-indian-contract-act-explainer-154452
Q 53. 30642205 Ram and Shyam are living in the suburbs of Janakpuri. Ram entered into
a contract with Shyam to deliver him 2 liters of milk every day. Shyam owned a dozen cows
and was known for his high-quality milk. After three months Shyam intends to cancel the
contract as it has turned out impossible to be performed. The direct route between Shyam
and Ram's house was destroyed due to heavy rains and now Shyam would have to detour
for two kms. Decide the validity of Shyam's argument.

a)

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a)
Shyam's argument is valid and the doctrine of frustration under section 56 of the Indian
contract act is applied.
b) Shyam's argument is valid and the contract has become impossible in the given case.

c)
Shyam's argument is invalid and the doctrine of impossibility cannot be applied for the
contract.
d)
Shyam's argument may or may not be valid depending upon the analysis of the argument
by the court.

Q 54. 30642205 Ram and Shyam are living in the suburbs of Janakpuri. Ram entered into
a contract with Shyam according to which Shyam had to fetch a rare plant breed from the
forests of Janakpuri. Within a couple of days after entering into agreement, the Janakpuri
government announced that civilian activity in the forest is strictly prohibited. Now Shyam
seeks to nullify the contract owing to its impossibility. Decide.

a) Yes, Shyam's can nullify the contract owing to its impossibility in the given case.

b) No, Shyam cannot nullify the contract owing to its impossibility in the given case
c)
No, Shyam cannot nullify the contract as he can still access the forest without noticing the
authorities.
d) Both (b) and (c)

Q 55. 30642205 Ram and Shyam are living in the suburbs of Janakpuri. Ram entered into
a contract with Shyam according to which Shyam had to fetch a rare plant breed from the
forests of Janakpuri. The contract stated that Shyam had to wait for the official government
notification which would arrive in a week. If the government prohibited the access to the
forest, he was to drop the contract and if the government allowed the access he was to
carry on with the work. What type of contract have Ram and Shyam agreed to in the given
case?

a) Ram and Shyam have agreed to a contingent contract under sec 32 of the contract act.

b) Ram and Shyam have agreed to a frustrating contract under sec 56 of the contract act.

c) Ram and Shyam have agreed to a contingent contract under sec 36 of the contract act.

d) Ram and Shyam have agreed to a frustrating contract under sec 52 of the contract act.

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d) Ram and Shyam have agreed to a frustrating contract under sec 52 of the contract act.

Q 56. 30642205 Tinki and Bunny were madly in love with each other. Tinki turned eighteen
in a months' time. Bunny promised Tinki that he would gift her anything that she wants for
her birthday. Tinki asks Bunny to gift her the moon. Bunny was not able to gift her the
moon. Now Tinky wants to enforce the specific performance of the contract. Decide

a) Tinki can seek specific performance of the contract in the given case.

b) Bunny ought to gift Tinky the moon in the given case.

c) Tinky cannot seek specific performance of the contract in the given case

d) Bunny has not entered the contract out of an actual will to perform.

Q 57. 30642205 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above given
passage?

a)
The roots of this doctrine of frustration are in the common law decision Taylor vs. Caldwell.
b)
"Force Majeure" and "Act of God" are two different concepts all together and cannot be
considered one and the same.
c) Taylor vs. Caldwell brought a negative impact upon the doctrine of frustration.

d) Indian contract act expressly refers to the concept of 'Force Majeure'.

Q 58. 30642205 What was the significance of the Taylor vs. Caldwell decision in the
context of contract law?

a)
It established that contracts must be performed under all circumstances, including
unforeseen events
b) It introduced the concept of 'Force Majeure' into common law

c)
It highlighted that if an unforeseen event makes the performance of a contract impossible,
the contract need not be performed
d)

It ruled that financial compensation is mandatory for non-performance due to unforeseen

events

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events

Q 59. 30642205 How does the Indian Contract Act, 1872 address contracts where the
performance is contingent on an event happening or not happening?

a) Through the 'Force Majeure' clause in Section 148

b) By the 'doctrine of frustration' in Section 56

c) With the concept of 'contingent contracts' in Section 32

d) By enforcing performance under all circumstances in Section 151

Q 60. 30642205 What is the primary purpose of a 'Force Majeure' clause in a contract?

a) To increase the financial obligations of the parties involved

b)
To exempt a party from performing contractual obligations due to unforeseen or
uncontrollable events
c) To legally bind parties to perform under any circumstances
d) To allocate extra time for the completion of contractual obligations

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.

Passage – 2

The term "Bailment" is derived from the French word 'Bailer', which means to deliver. A
bailment is a contract where goods are delivered from one person to another for a particular
purpose. The definition of bailment is given under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act,
1872. In the Contract of Bailment, the parties are referred to as Bailor (one who delivers)
and Bailee (to whom goods are delivered). Deliveries of clothes to the laundry for ironing,
delivery of refrigerator for repairing, parking a car in a paid parking area are all examples of
bailment. Essentials of bailment includes-
(1) Delivery: Delivery to Bailee by the Bailor is the first essential element of Bailment.
Section 149 explains the meaning of delivery. The delivery to the bailee may be made by

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doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended
Bailee. Delivery of possession is of two kinds. One is the Actual delivery and the other is
Constructive delivery. When the physical possession of the goods is handed over to the
Bailee then it is the actual delivery.
(2) Delivery should be upon a Contract: Delivery of goods should be made for some
purpose and upon a contract that when the purpose is accomplished the goods shall be
returned to the Bailor. When delivery of goods is done without any contract, then it is not a
Bailment within the meaning as given under Section 148. (3) Delivery should be upon some
purpose: Delivery of goods should be upon some purpose and when the purpose is
accomplished, the good is returned to the Bailor.

A bailee has various duties that need to be followed. This includes-

(1) Care to be taken by the Bailee: The first and foremost duty of the Bailee is to take
reasonable care of the goods bailed. In all cases of bailment, the bailee is bound to take as
much care of goods bailed to him as a man of ordinary prudence would under similar
circumstances take of his goods of the same bulk, quality, and value as the goods bailed
(Section 151) .
(2) Duty not to make unauthorized use (Section 154): If the Bailee makes unauthorized use
of the goods which is not according to conditions of the bailment, he is liable to make
compensation to the Bailor for any damage occurred to goods for unauthorized use.

Edited and extracted from- https://lawcolloquy.com/publications/blog/contract-of-bailment/81

Q 61. 30642205 X was a cowboy living in the state of Ohio. X had a horse named 'Speed'.
X loved his horse very much. The horse was very popular and loved by all. Once, X was
traveling out of the village for a week. X asked his neighbor Y to keep an eye out on his
horse and feed him. The horse was left in the property of X and there were other laborers to
look after as well. When X returned from his trip, 'speed' was missing. Now X wants to file a
case for breach of contract against Y. Is there a bailment in the given case?
i. Yes, there is a contract of bailment between X and Y in the given case.
ii. No, there is no contract of bailment between X and Y in the given case
iii. No, there is no delivery of possession and hence no contract of bailment.
iv. There is an implied delivery of possession and hence there is contract of bailment.

How many of the below given statements are true?

a) Only (i) b) Both (ii) and (iii) c) Only (iv) d) Either (iii) or (iv)

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Q 62. 30642205 X was a cowboy living in the state of Ohio. X had a horse named 'Speed'.
X loved his horse very much. The horse was very popular and loved by all. Once, X was
traveling out of the village for a week. X asked his neighbor Y to keep an eye out on his
horse and feed him. X delivered the horse to Y's possession. This type of arrangement
used to happen regularly between X and Y as they were good friends. The horse was
stolen from Y. X wants to enforce breach of contract of bailment. Decide.

a) Yes, there is breach of contract of bailment in the given case.

b)
Yes, there is breach of contract of bailment as there was delivery of possession in the given
case,
c) No, there is no breach of contract of bailment in the given case.
d) Both (a) and (b)

Q 63. 30642205 X was a cowboy living in the state of Ohio. X had a horse named 'Speed'.
X loved his horse very much. The horse was very popular and loved by all. Once, X was
traveling out of the village for a week. X asked his neighbor Y to keep an eye out on his
horse and feed him. X delivered the horse to Y's possession. Y utilized the horse for horse
racing and horse rally courses during his possession and thereby injured the horse. The
horse was no longer able to work in the field. Can X sue Y for breach of duty?

a) No, X cannot sue for breach of bailment against Y in the given case.

b) Yes, X can sue for breach of bailment against Y in the given case.

c) No, X had handed over the possession of the property taking a leap of faith.

d) Yes, Y has recklessly injured the horse and thereby caused loss to X.

Q 64. 30642205 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the light of the above
given passage?

a) Under the contract of bailment, delivery of goods should be upon some purpose.

b) Section 151 specifies the care to be taken by the bailee.

c) The term 'bailment' is derived from the Latin word Bailer.

d) Bailee has a duty not to make unauthorized use of the goods bailed to him.

Q 65. 30642205 Which of the following is not an example for bailment of goods?

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a) The delivery of a car for servicing at the service center.

b) The delivery of clothes for laundry with the washerman.

c) The possession of pre-paid ordered food from a restaurant with the delivery boy.

d) Utilizing the shortcut from the neighbor's home to reach the office.

Q 66. 30642205 What does the term 'delivery' in the context of bailment refer to, as per
Section 149 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a) The act of selling goods from one person to another

b) The transfer of risk from the Bailor to the Bailee

c)
The process of putting goods in the possession of the intended Bailee, either actually or
constructively
d) The formal signing of a contract between Bailor and Bailee

Q 67. 30642205 Under Section 151 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the primary
duty of a Bailee regarding the care of bailed goods?

a) To ensure the goods are returned in a better condition than when received

b)
To take as much care of the goods as a man of ordinary prudence would under similar
circumstances
c) To insure the goods against all possible risks

d) To use the goods to generate a profit for the Bailor

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.

Passage – 3

Indian penal code deals with various punishments which vary from case to case. But it is

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not always necessary that a person gets punished for a crime which is committed by him.
The Indian penal code, 1860 recognizes defences in Chapter IV under "General
Exceptions".

Section 76 to 106 covers all the defences which are based on the presumption that a
person is not liable for the crime which he had committed. These defences depend upon
the circumstances prevailing at that point of time when a particular offence took place i.e.,
Mens Rea (guilty mind) of the person and the reasonableness of his action.

Section 76 states that, Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself
bound, by law- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of
a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be,
bound by law to do it.

Section 79 states that, Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself
justified, by law- Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law,
or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith,
believes himself to be justified by law, in doing it.

Section 77: Act of judge when acting judicially- It states that nothing is an offence done by a
judge when acting judicially in the exercise of his any power, which he believes that the
power to him to do so is given by law. Section

Section 78: Act done in pursuant to the judgement or order of court - This section protects
the person who executes an order/judgement of the court. The section states that when an
order or judgement is in force, any performance done for the same is not an offence. Even
when it is beyond jurisdiction and the person believes in good faith to be in jurisdiction then
also he is not liable for any offence.

Section 80: it includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act -Nothing is an
offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or
knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper
care and caution.

Edited and extracted from- https://hindlawedu.com/indian-penal-code/general-exceptions-

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under-the-indian-penalcode/
Q 68. 30642205 D was a police officer. D was known for his honest and great work ethics.
He was also awarded the best police officer of Dholakpur award for the year 2022. He was
also the father of two children. Once he was asked to arrest A and was given the warrant to
do the same. The warrant had the wrong house number written upon it. D arrested B
instead of A. Now B wants to file a case against D. Decide.

a) B can file a case against D as ignorance of law is not an excuse.

b)
B cannot file a case against D as he is protected under section 76 of the Indian penal code.
c) B cannot file a case against D as there was no mens rea in the first place.

d) B can file a case against D as section 76 does not protect the police officers.

Q 69. 30642205 D was a police officer in the town of Dholakpur. Once D was walking in the
streets of tun tun nagar. He saw two drunkards fighting in the street. D immediately started
thrashing them. Then he was told that A and B were practising for a skit and not drunk.
Dholakpur had a law which prohibited the police from thrashing civilians. Now B wants to
file a criminal case against D. Decide.

a)
B can file a criminal case against D in the given case as he has committed a wrongful act.
b)
B cannot file a criminal case against D as he is protected under section 76 of the Indian
penal code.
c)
B cannot file a criminal case against D as he is protected under section 79 of the Indian
penal code.
d)
B can file a criminal case as long as he can prove that he was actually practising for a skit
and was not drunk.

Q 70. 30642205 There was a civil suit between A and B. The decree mentioned that the B
was to pay 50000 rupees to A failing which the land of B will be confiscated and put up for
auction. B failed to pay the money. A approached the court for execution of decree. The

court sent one D to put up the confiscatory notice upon B's land. B entered the land and put

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the confiscatory notice. Now B wants to file a case of criminal trespass against D. Decide.

a)
B can file a case of criminal trespass against D as the same is not connected with the
decree which is under execution.
b)
B cannot file a case of criminal trespass as D is protected under general defences of IPC.
c) B can file a case of civil trespass but not of criminal trespass in the given case.

d) Both (b) and (c)

Q 71. 30642205 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the light of the above
given passage?

a)
Section 76 to 106 covers all the defences which are based on the presumption that a
person is not liable for the crime which he had committed.
b) Section 78 protects only the person who executes a judgement or an order.

c)
Act of a judge when acting judicially is not subject to general exceptions but is inherently a
part of defence under IPC.
d) Only chapter-IV of the Indian penal code covers general exceptions.

Q 72. 30642205 C was a police officer. C was known for his dutiful mindset and always
considered to be a vigilant officer. Once while patrolling C found one X hiding a pack of
cocaine. C immediately sprang into action to catch X. X started running. The chase went on
for a while and the spectators of this chase told that it was more impressive than the chase
scenes of Tom Cruise in Mission impossible. Finally, C caught X but not without a fight. All
this chase and fight led to a broken bone for X for which now he wants to file a criminal
case against C. Decide.

a) X can file a criminal case against C in the given case.

b)
X can file a criminal case against C as a police officer is not expected to injure the accused
as it will lead to tampering of witness.
c) Both (a) and (b)

d) X shall be protected under section 80 of the Indian penal code.

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d) X shall be protected under section 80 of the Indian penal code.

Q 73. 30642205 What does Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, state about acts
done under a mistake of fact?

a) It states that any act done under a mistake of fact is always punishable.

b)
It declares that an act done by a person who believes in good faith, by mistake of fact and
not by mistake of law, to be bound by law, is not an offence.
c) It requires mandatory imprisonment for any act done under a mistake of fact.
d) It refers to acts done under a mistake of fact as minor offences.

Q 74. 30642205 Section 80 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, deals with which type of
incidents?

a) Intentional harm caused during a lawful act

b) Accidents occurring in the performance of an unlawful act

c)
Accidents occurring in the performance of a lawful act without criminal intention or
knowledge
d) Deliberate acts of negligence during a lawful act

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.

Passage – 4

Volenti Non fit injuria, which means one who consents and has knowledge that something
can happen cannot complain. It is an exception under IPC. Section 87 deals with acts done
without intention of causing death- 'Any act that can cause death or serious hurt such that
which is not in the knowledge of the doer, which is likely to cause death or grievous hurt, is
not an offence. If it is performed with the consent of a person who is over eighteen years of
age.' Section 87 gives exemption where consent is given in general but Section 88, 89, and

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92 are the exceptions for the cases where the act is done in good faith for the benefit of the
person who has given the consent, in doing such act if any harm is caused when there is no
criminal liability intended. Any person who communicates information that causes harm to
another but this act done by him is in good faith and for the benefit of the individual, then
such an act is not an offence. If a doctor tells his patient, he is going to die due to a
particular disease, hearing that the patient dies from a heart attack. It was the duty of the
doctor to communicate such information and he did it in good faith. Then there is duress
and trifles as defences. Duress means any illegal act or omission done in compulsion, due
to the threat of instant death. Reasonable apprehension must be caused and also the
offence of murder and offence punishable by death is excluded. Trifles can be explained by
"De minimis non-curat lex" which means that the law is not concerned about trifles. The
harm is slight and no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain that such harm
will not be an offence. The constitution of India provides us with various rights and the
Indian Penal code also has given a Right to private defence. An act done in private defence
is not an offence when it is done in order to protect a person or one's property. It can also
be used conditioned to unsound mind or intoxicatedness or infancy of the accused. This
right is to be exercised subject to certain restrictions such as against a public servant
performing his duty, any person working under his direction, and when there is no danger of
grievous harm and one can call for help from a public authority.

Edited and extracted from- https://lexforti.com/legal-news/general-exceptions-under-indian-

criminal-justice-system/
Q 75. 30642205 X a nineteen years old entered into a boxing match. During boxing X was
hit in the head by his opponent Y and got a severe concussion leading to his demise
ultimately. Now the family of X wants to file a case against Y for causing the death of X.
Decide.

a)
Y shall be held liable for causing the death of X as he hit on the head of X and caused his
death.
b)
Y shall be held liable for causing the death as he should have been more careful while
boxing.
c)

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Y shall not be held liable for causing the death as he is protected under section 87 of the
IPC.
d)
Y shall not be held liable causing the death as he is protected under section 86 of the IPC.

Q 76. 30642205 C was an expert lock breaker. Once C was relaxing in his office on a lazy
afternoon watching the G-20 summit that was being hosted in Delhi. He was listening to the
speech of PM Darendra Godi. Suddenly, he was kidnapped in a Tata Venture car by a
group of bandits. He was taken to a house and with a gun pointed to his head asked to
open the lock of a house. C did as he was asked. Then the bandits robbed the house. Can
C be held for his house breaking in the given case?

a)
Yes, C can be held liable for housebreaking in the given case as he had the knowledge and
intention to do the act.
b)
No, C cannot be held liable for housebreaking in the given case as he had committed the
crime under duress.
c)
Yes, C can be held liable for housebreaking in the given case as threat cannot be a
justification for criminal act.
d)
No, C cannot be held liable for housebreaking in the given case as he was not the brain
behind the plan.

Q 77. 30642205 A and B were in a relationship for 5 years. Their relationship was looked
upon in jealousy by everyone. They were the perfect couple for their university. Once A and
B playfully started hitting each other. This playful act turned into a fight and B slapped A. A
being the boy thought it is not right to hit her back. So, he wanted to file a case of battery
and assault. Can there be a case against B in the given case?

a) Yes, there can be a case of battery and assault against A in the given case.

b) No, there cannot be a case of assault and a battery against women in IPC.

c)
Yes, there can be a case of battery and assault if A can prove that there were any visible
injuries in the said case.

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d) No, there cannot be a case against B as the act shall fall under the category of trifles.

Q 78. 30642205 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the light of the above
given passage?

a)
Volenti fit non-injuria, which means one who consents and has knowledge that something
can happen cannot complain.
b)
The constitution of India provides us with various rights and the Indian Penal code also has
given a Right to private defence.
c) Duress cannot be a justification for causing the death of the other individual.

d) None of the above

Q 79. 30642205 How does section 87 of the IPC differ from other similar provisions such
as section 88, 89 etc.?

a)
Section 87 gives exemption where consent is given in general but Section 88, 89 are the
exceptions for the cases where the act is done in good faith for the benefit of the person
who has given the consent, in doing such act if any harm is caused when there is no
criminal liability intended.
b)
Section 87 gives exemption where consent is for a specific act but Section 88, 89 are the
exceptions for the cases where the act is done in good faith for the benefit of the person
who has given the consent and in doing so harm is caused by the negligence of the person
given.
c)
Section 87 gives exemption where consent is given in general but Section 88, 89 are the
exceptions for the cases where the act is done in good faith for the benefit of the person
who has given the consent, in doing such act if any harm is caused but the criminal liability
cannot be determined.
d)
Section 87 gives exemption where consent is for a general or specific act but Section 88,
89 are the exceptions for the cases where the act is done in good faith for the benefit of the
person who has given the consent and in doing so harm is caused by the negligence of the

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person who has given the consent and in doing so harm is caused by the negligence of the
person given case and hence the burden is discharged.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.

Passage – 5

The Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with offences against the State under Chapter VI
(Section 121 to Section 130). The purpose of these codes is to ensure the safety of the
State as a whole. The existence of the State can be safeguarded by giving severe
punishments in case of offences against the State such as life imprisonment or the death
penalty. Section 121 to Section 123 of the Code deals with waging war against the
Government of India. Here, the phrase 'Government of India' is used in a much wider
sense, that is, to imply the Indian State which derives the right and power of authority from
the will and consent of its people. In other words, this expression signifies that although the
State derives the power of authority from Public International Laws, however, such authority
is vested by the people of the territory and is exercised by the representative government.
Under Section 121, the following are considered as essentials of the offences as they need
to be proved in order to constitute an offence for waging war against the Government of
India:

The accused must have:

1. Waged war; or
2. Attempted to wage war; or
3. Abetted the waging of war. – Such a war must be against the state.

The phrase 'waging war' must be understood in the general sense and can only mean
waging war in the manner usual in war. It doesn't include overt acts like collection of men,
arms and ammunition. Also, in the international sense, the inter-country war involving
military operations between two or more countries is not included under this type of war.
Under Section 121 it has been made clear that 'war' is not conventional warfare between
countries, however, joining or organising an insurrection against the Government of India is

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a form of war. Waging war is a way to accomplish any purpose of public nature by violence.
Section 124A of IPC deals with sedition. This offence means that the intention is to bring
hatred or contempt or excite disaffection (including disloyalty and a feeling of enmity)
against the Government of India. In a case under Section 121 of IPC if the charge doesn't
set out the speeches to be seditious, then this doesn't spoil or affect the proceedings. Thus,
it can be concluded that there is a difference between sedition and abetting war.
Q 80. 30642205 C was a citizen of Civilia. One ISISIS was an organisation whose major
motto was to destroy the government of Civilia. The said organisation was banned in the
country. C, secretly joined the organisation as its member. It was found out and C is taken
to the court. Decide the liability of C?

a) C shall be held liable for betraying the state under IPC.

b) C shall be held liable under section 122 of the Indian Penal code.
c) C shall be held liable under section 121 of the IPC for waging war against the state.

d) C shall be held liable but not under IPC as he has not waged a war against the state.

Q 81. 30642205 C was a citizen of Civilia. Once the government of civilia brought in a law
on Uniform civil code which was controversial. C assembled ten of his friends and was
discussing the code. C was arrested on the grounds of waging war against the state.
Decide.

a)
Yes, C was waging war against the state and shall be held liable under section 121 of the
IPC.
b)
No, C was not waging war against the state and therefore shall not be held liable under
IPC.
c)
Yes, C was waging war against the state and shall be held liable under section 122 of the
IPC.
d)
No, C was not waging a war but shall be held liable for unlawful assembly under Indian
Penal code.

Q 82. 30642205 X was a political leader. Once while giving a speech, he mentioned that

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his country had gone to dogs and was good for nothing. The country should be invaded by
the neighbouring countries through the use of navy and air force. Decide whether X has
committed any offence?

a) Yes, X has committed an offence against the state under section 121 of the IPC.

b) No, X has not committed an offence against the state under section 121 of the IPC.
c) Yes, X has committed an offence against the state under section 124A of the IPC.

d) Yes, X has committed an offence against the state under section 122 of the IPC.

Q 83. 30642205 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the light of the above
given passage?

a) Offences against state under Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been dealt under chapter- VI

b) Under section 121 the phrase government of India is used in a much wider sense.

c)
It cannot be concluded that there is a difference between sedition and waging of war and
they are invariably the same.
d) Attempt to wage war is also covered under section 121 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

Q 84. 30642205 How should the phrase 'waging war' under section 121 should be
understood according to the passage?

a)
The phrase 'waging war' must be understood in the general sense and can only mean
waging war in the manner usual in war.
b)
The phrase 'waging war' must be understood in a special sense and not in a general sense
c)
The phrase 'waging war' must be understood in a general sense and can mean a war
between two countries with individuals involved in it.
d)
The phrase 'waging war' must be understood in a special sense which means a group or an
entity fighting against the government of a country.

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 Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

Indian Predator recounts the investigation into Chandrakant Jha, one of the most gruesome
serial killers in the country's history. He was convicted in 2013 for three gruesome killings
between 2003 and 2007. The case's popularity has diminished over the years, and this also
doesn't favour the makers. A lot of time hadn't passed since the Burari incident, and hence
it had the advantage of being popular in the public consciousness.

The wonderful title design that we then get gives some hope, even reminding one of a
Hannibal Lecter-like figure, but the first episode hardly breaks out of the cliche.

The material in hand is potent, but director Ayesha Sood hardly scratches the story beyond
the surface. While experts keep track of the investigations, we are repeatedly shown blood-
splattering recreations of the gruesome murders. The actor who plays Chandrakant even
looks the part, but he hardly has anything to do, other than appear randomly and bludgeon
men to death. Beyond a point, it gets too monotonous and even becomes a disturbance to
the narrative at times.

The second and third episodes do get better, especially when the investigation goes back to
his roots, unravelling the other alleged crimes of the killer. The portions set in Bihar,
particularly, give us a deeper understanding of the killer's psyche. Even here, it is
disappointing that we never get to see an actual mental health professional speak about
what made Chandrakant who he is. We instead get expert opinions from police officials and
a forensic investigator, who beat around the same bush for quite some time.
Q 85. 30642205 What according to you is the objective of the study of the present
passage?

a)
To map the relevance of creating a true crime documentary when the incidents are no
longer popular.

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b) To offer a critique of a show whose content had once captured popular imagination.

c) To navigate the pitfalls which a creator of a documentary usually face.

d) To show how seemingly ordinary people are capable of indulging in heinous crimes.

Q 86. 30642205 Which factors as per the author hinder a successful crime documentary?

a) Avoiding overused depictions and discarding monotony.

b) Placing emphasis on caricatures rather than true resemblances.

c) Dabbling in stereotypes and unnecessary spectacles.

d) Trying to recreate true to life scenarios.

Q 87. 30642205 Suggest a suitable title for the passage from amongst the given titles:

a) The Hannibal Lecter of India.

b) Reviewing Evil: How to understand the mind of a notorious killer.

c) Delhi's Butcher and the Burari Incident: A Review.

d) Indian Predator: Reviewing the Butcher of Delhi.

Q 88. 30642205 Which of the following falls closest to the underlying assumption in the
present passage?

a) Navigating incidents in depth makes a crime documentary fetching.

b) Successful crime shows follow a steady pattern set by preceding shows.

c) Crime shows are supposed to offer the internal actions of the criminals.

d) True crime is more about the community than about the crime.

Q 89. 30642205 Which factor according to the author may impede the creation of a
comprehensive portrait of the criminal?

a) Delving into their personal history. b)

Not paying heed to their psychological
aspect.
c) d)
Treating them as another element of society. Denying basic human rights while they are
incarcerated.

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Q 90. 30642205 Assertion: The portrayal of Chandrakant Jha in the initial episodes of
"Indian Predator" is criticized for lacking depth and becoming monotonous.
Reasoning: The actor playing Chandrakant has limited involvement, with repetitive scenes
of blood-splattering recreations, diminishing the narrative's impact.

a)
Both the assertion and reasoning are true, and the reasoning provides a valid explanation
for the assertion.
b) The assertion is true, but the reasoning is false.

c) Both the assertion and reasoning are false.

d) The assertion is false, but the reasoning is true.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

On the one hand, his comparative method was certainly driven by empathy for ancient
India-though this feeling did not extend to a support for Indian decolonisation. On the other,
Müller's idea that Hindu mythology, indeed mythology in general, epitomised a process of
decay, an obfuscation of a primordial monotheistic religion centred on the Sun, which had
arisen through his study of language in the Rgveda, seems less motivated by fellow feeling
and more so, one may venture to suggest, by his Christianity.

Müller's study of Rg Vedic Sanskrit, especially his ideas on personification in that work, had
led him to the important linguistic conclusion that all language was figurative. Ancient
humans attribute linguistic gender and other personifying elements to make abstract
concepts and natural phenomena concrete, a tendency evinced in the hymns of the
Rgveda, one of the earliest examples of human literature in which the gods primarily
personify natural events and elements, such as thunder, dawn, fire and rain. Müller argued
that over time the original meanings of words were forgotten so that greater mythologising
eventually led to concepts that had deviated from their original intentions. Beginning with
the addition of gender to nouns, the creation of more elaborate narratives of personification
epitomised to him a long-term process of language degeneration.

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From this position, Müller made a deeply problematic second step in his reasoning. If all
language is eventually falsifying, then Hindu mythologies are useless, indeed 'ridiculous',
and Hindu polytheism itself, playing out in a panoply of myths, was a corruption of the
original monotheistic religion, which ancient Hindus were trying to put to words. Müller
reduced the various ways myths can be appreciated to a single interpretation. On the one
hand, he acknowledges the poetic capacity of language, while on the other, he betrays a
suspicion of the poetic mind of non-monotheistic religions, and, indeed, appears to believe-
puritanically-- that all mythology is depravity.
Q 91. 30642205 The objective behind the information furnished in the passage is:

a)
to give the world an access to the complexities of the Europeans' understanding of myth
making.
b) to show the tension between scholarship and its barriers in the form of subjective bias.

c)
to help the reader understand why Max Muller considered Christianity to be superior to
other religions.
d) to provide a picture of European orientalism operating in colonised India.

Q 92. 30642205 Based on the ideas presented in the paragraph, it will not be possible to
draw out the use of ancient myths in understanding science unless:

a) in situations where Gods are used to symbolise cosmic occurrences.

b) in places where archaeology is yet to get access to.

c) they are used as essences of natural occurrences.

d) they help us understand the anthropological basis of language.

Q 93. 30642205 Which of the following is a correct inference from the given passage?

a) Subjugation of India for Muller was an incontestable fact.

b) Muller considered Christianity to be the most modern of religions.

c) Myth making is a corrupted form of monotheism.

d) Gender in ancient India was an abstract concept.

Q 94. 30642205 In the light of the information presented in the passage, which of the

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following is true about ancient myth making?

a) Science and religion often gets interchanged in ancient myth making.

b) It is almost impossible to find out the intentionality of myth making.

c) Myth making involved equating gender with abstractions perceived by the maker.

d) Myth making more often than not leads to debauchery.

Q 95. 30642205 Which of the following is a valid assumption which can help us understand
Muller's psychology?

a) Polytheism encourages degenerative ideals.

b) For Muller, myth making is an immoral activity.

c) Christianity is a way of reducing immorality spread by pagan religions.

d) Muller suffered from a tension between poetry and religion.

Q 96. 30642205 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?

a)
Müller acknowledges the poetic capacity of language but views all mythology, particularly
Hindu polytheism, as corrupt and ridiculous due to a belief that all language eventually
becomes falsifying.
b)
Müller appreciates the diversity in the ways myths can be interpreted and recognizes the
value of poetic expressions in non-monotheistic religions.
c)
Müller, despite acknowledging the poetic capacity of language, holds a neutral stance on
the value of Hindu mythology, recognizing it as a valid expression of cultural beliefs.
d)
Müller views Hindu polytheism as a faithful representation of the original monotheistic
religion, considering the variety in mythologies as a natural evolution of linguistic
expressions.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that
follow.

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Passage – 3

This column once recounted how a leading Calcutta barrister, Sachin Chaudhuri, dissuaded
a European adventuress from suing me for defamation by citing another distinguished
lawyer, N.C. Chatterjee, who famously insisted that there could be no defamation unless
the complainant's own "famation" was impeccable. That elusive attribute is in question now
in London where a successful defamation suit warns that even a venerable institution like
the British Broadcasting Corporation can throw famation to the winds when it scents a
scoop.

The BBC is trying desperately to distance itself from that abysmal dereliction of values by
shifting the guilt to an ingenious but utterly unscrupulous employee called Martin Bashir
who interviewed Princess Diana on November 20, 1995. Sadly, Bashir is effectively
incapable of defending himself, which probably helps. Google says "he has been diagnosed
with a brain tumour affecting his pituitary gland, was reported to be 'seriously unwell' with
the coronavirus in October 2020, and underwent quadruple heart bypass surgery in late
2020 and further surgical procedures in spring 2021." Even if he had been in sound health,
Bashir's Pakistani origins and antecedents in an unfashionable London suburb might put off
classy British audiences rather like Rishi Sunak's ethnicity, teetotalism and addiction to the
Bhagwad Gita may explain his falling rating among the blue-rinsed women in twin sets and
pearls among 160,000 Conservative Party members.

History is made in bed, it's been said. Take away the bed and history evaporates. That was
a risk that even the staid BBC was apparently not prepared to take.
Q 97. 30642205 Which of the following is a correct expression of the author's opinion as
stated in the passage?

a) History is created by those who are prone to libel.

b) Character assassination if done incorrectly will put you in the bad side of history.
c) History is operated and controlled by those who are impeccable themselves.

d) History cannot be compartmentalised to allow imaginary happenings to take place.

Q 98. 30642205 Read the following and select the best answer.
I. N. C Chatterjee was of the opinion that defamation suits can be countered by piling up
more infamy on the complainant.

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II. BBC have concealed their guilt by scapegoating Bashir.

a) I is true. b) II is true. c) Both are false. d) Both are true.

Q 99. 30642205 Which of the following is a valid inference?

a) Conservative party members' character assessment is guided by snobbery.

b) Society does not permit impeccability to thrive.'

c) Institutions are hypocritical about holding on to values.

d) Lawyers thrive by twisting the character of their opponent.

Q 100. 30642205 What is the main purpose of the passage?

a) To show the process of history making. b)

to show how corrupt the BBC is as an
institution.
c) d)
To show how big institutions are a study in To show how endangered character
hypocrisy. impeccability is.

Q 101. 30642205 Which of the following is an incorrect inference based on the given
passage?

a)
An employee's behaviour cannot be looked at separately from the institute which provides
them employment.
b) The Conservative Party has attacked Bashir due to his Pakistani origin.

c)
Ideally someone with an infallible character record should sue someone for spreading libel.
d) History without a solid foundation becomes baseless.

Q 102. 30642205 Assertion: The BBC is attempting to distance itself from a defamation
scandal by attributing the blame to its employee Martin Bashir.
Reasoning: Martin Bashir, the BBC employee in question, faces health issues, and his
Pakistani origins and antecedents may contribute to the BBC's attempt to shift the blame.

a)

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Both the assertion and reasoning are true, and the reasoning provides a valid explanation
for the assertion.
b) The assertion is true, but the reasoning is false.

c) Both the assertion and reasoning are false.

d) The assertion is false, but the reasoning is true.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

In her 18-minute speech at Parliament's Central Hall after assuming office, Ms. Murmu
highlighted the glorious contribution to the country's freedom struggle by tribal communities
and mentioned Santhal, Paika, Kol and Bhil revolutions that happened in various regions.

"All these revolutions had strengthened the tribal contribution to the freedom struggle. We
derived inspiration from the sacrifice of 'Dharti Aaba' Bhagwan Birsa Munda ji for social
upliftment and patriotism. I am happy that many museums are being built across the
country dedicated to the role of the tribal communities in our freedom struggle," she said,
referring to Birsa Munda, a revered figure from the tribal community, who led an uprising
against the British.

Sharing her personal journey, Ms. Murmu, who hails from the Santhal tribe, mentioned that
she was the first person from her village to get a college education.

"And it is a matter of great satisfaction for me that those who have been deprived for
centuries and those who have been denied the benefits of development, those poor,
downtrodden, backward communities and tribals are seeing their reflection in me," she said.

The President also recalled her stint as a teacher at Sri Aurobindo Integral School in
Rairangpur and stressed the importance of education and youth in shaping the future of the
country.

Dwelling upon the tribal tradition of living in forests and in harmony with nature, Ms. Murmu

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said: "We take necessary resources from nature and serve nature with equal reverence.
This sensitivity has become a global imperative today. I am happy that India is guiding the
world in the field of environmental protection."

Talking about public service in her journey so far, she quoted famous poet Bhim Bhoi, who
also came from a tribal community and said, ' Mo jeeban pachhe narke padi thau, jagato
uddhar heu' which translates as "working for the welfare of the world is far greater than
one's own interests".
Q 103. 30642205 Which of the following can be inferred from the opening paragraph of the
passage?

a) Tribal revolutions happened all over India.

b) Maximum of her 18minute speech was on Tribal revolutions.

c) Majority of India's fight for Independence was brought about by the indigenous societies.

d) None of the above.

Q 104. 30642205 Which of the following if true supports the statement made by the newly
elected President?

a)
One cannot ignore the contributions of indigenous tribal communities towards social
upliftment of the nation.
b) College education for a Santhali indigenous person is rare these days.

c)
Sri Aurobindo Integral School in Rairangpur provides quality education compared to other
schools.
d) Ms. Murmu belongs to the Paika tribe which is a part of Santhal tribe.

Q 105. 30642205 Which of the following is a valid inference?

a) Ms. Murmu was influenced by the poet Bhim Bhoi.

b) Being the President of India is her first public service designation.

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the above

Q 106. 30642205 Read the following and select the best answer.

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Q 106. 30642205 Read the following and select the best answer.
I. India is progressing quite smoothly in the field of environmental protection.
II. It is our duty as people living on this planet to understand the importance of natural
resources.

a) I is correct. b) II is correct c) Both are false. d) Both are correct.

Q 107. 30642205 Which of the following will strengthen the claims made by the President
in the passage?

a) The tribals will look up to her as their representative.

b)
Ms.Murmu is ready to work and contribute for the Santhal tribe that has been struggling for
centuries.
c) Her work will not be restricted to certain sections but to the entire country.
d) None of the above.

Q 108. 30642205 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?

a)
Ms. Murmu emphasizes the importance of environmental protection and India's role as a
global guide in this regard.
b)
The President believes that public service and working for the welfare of the world are of
greater significance than personal interests.
c)
Ms. Murmu quotes poet Bhim Bhoi to express her dedication to personal interests rather
than public service.
d)
The President highlights the challenges faced by tribal communities and their struggles for
education and development.

Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

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The total voting population of a district having 5 cities - A, B, C, D, and E - is 6 lakh out of
which two-thirds are male voters. The total number of voters in A and B is 3 lakh whereas
the total number of voters in A is 60,000 more than that in B. C and D have 15% and 12%
of the total number of voters.

One-fourth of the total number of male voters are in B whereas one-fifth are in C. D has
13% of the total number of male voters. The number of male voters in E is half that of A.
Q 109. 30642205 What is the absolute difference between the total number of voters in
cities E and A?

a) 32000 b) 36000 c) 40000 d) 42000

Q 110. 30642205 Which city has the lowest number of female voters?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

Q 111. 30642205 The total number of male voters in D and E is what percentage of the
total number of male voters of the district?

a) 24% b) 25% c) 26% d) 27%

Q 112. 30642205 If 15% of male voters and 20% of females voters from city C did not turn
up for voting, then find the percentage voter turnout in city C?

a) 84.44% b) 78.28% c) 80.20% d) 86.66%

Q 113. 30642205 What is the ratio of male voters in C to female voters in E respectively?

a) 20 : 21 b) 45 : 41 c) 40 : 41 d) 28 : 5

Q 114. 30642205 Which two cities have an equal number of female voters?

a) A and E b) B and D c) D and E d) C and D

Directions for questions 115 to 120: Read the following information carefully and solve
the questions that follow.

In a maths tuition, there are four batches - A, B, C, and D. The distribution of students in
these batches is in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 2 : 3. A test of 100 marks was conducted among all
students across four batches. The average score in batch A is 75, which is 10 marks higher

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than the average score in B. The average score in batch C is 80, which is 5 marks higher
than the average score in D.

In batch A, 24% of the students failed, while in batch B, 20% of the students failed. In batch
C, 16% of the students failed the test, while in batch D, 20% of the students failed.

The total number of students who passed in all four batches is 480. The overall passing
percentage for all the batches combined is 80%. Atleast 40% of maximum marks is
required to be passed in the test. All students scored non-zero integral score in the test.
Q 115. 30642205 What is the total marks obtained by all the students in batch A?

a) 15000 b) 13500 c) 11250 d) 9000

Q 116. 30642205 How many more or less students failed in batch C as compared to batch
D?

a) 21 b) 15 c) 18 d) 24

Q 117. 30642205 What can be the maximum number of students in batch B to score 35
marks given all students who passed in batch B scored an average of 75 marks?

a) 12 b) 11 c) 10 d) 9

Q 118. 30642205 The students that passed from batches A and B forms what percentage
of the total number of students at the tuition?

a) 27% b) 29% c) 34% d) 23%

Q 119. 30642205 In the next test, 70% of the total students who failed in the first test,
passed while 20% of the total students who passed in the first test, failed. What is the ratio
of the total number of students who passed to the total number of students who failed in the
next test?

a) 13 : 3 b) 33: 10 c) 34 : 13 d) 39 : 11

Q 120. 30642205 What can be the maximum average score (to the nearest integer) of the
students who passed in Batch C?

a) 90 b) 93 c) 95 d) 96

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