ORAL DIAGNOSIS, ORAL SURGERY & ROENTGENOLOGY

1. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the:

a. Thyroid Notch
b. Throid Membrane
c. Cricoid cartilage
d. Cricothyroid ligament
e. Thyroepiglottis ligament

2. An antrostomy is commonly used.

a. To remove high maxillary third molar
b. To expose a tooth root for apicoectomy
c. Following closure of an oroantral fistula
d. To establish drainage of an alveolar abscess
3. Bibeveled chisels are used primarily to:
a. Remove bone
b. Establish purchase points
c. Split teeth
d. Sharpen line angles
4. Corrective procedure for lengthening tissues:
a. Y-plasty
b. Z-plasty
c. Y-V plasty
d. V-Y plasty
e. Double Y incision
5. Surgical flap is most often done to:
a. Retain tissue layer
b. Obtain adequate visualization
c. Gain access
d. Both B & C
e. All of these
2. In the treatment of cellulites, penrose drain usually remains in place for:
a. 2-5 days
b. 1-2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 week
3. drug of choice used as a prophylactic regimen for patients with infectious
endocarditis
a. antibiotics
b. anti-inflammatory
c. analgesics
d. antihistamine
4. the longest duration period of stabilizing dentoalveolar injuries takes place in:
a. mobile tooth
b. tooth displacement
 c. root fracture
d. replanted tooth
5. caused by injury to the tooth-supporting structure
a. concussion
b. extrusion
c. mobility
d. lateral displacement
e. avulsion

6. the primary and secondary intent of dressing is:

a. to immobilize tissue
b. keep surgical field free from traumatic process
c. slow down rapid healing of oral mucosa
d. all of the above
7. involves the outer layer of epidermis with tenderness & pain
a. 3rd degree burn
b. secondary intention
c. 2nd degree burn
d. all of the above
e. 1st degree burn
8. the most dramatic emergency situation that occurs within seconds after parenteral
administration of antigenic medication characterized by malaise, skin signs, stridor,
cyanosis and total airway obstruction
a. seizure
b. anaphylaxis
c. hyperventilation
d. foreign body aspiration
e. vasovagal syncope
9. a disorder caused by injury-induced brain damage or damage from ethanol. Having
symptoms like patient seemed frightened with contortion of extremities and/or
blank stare
a. seizure
b. anaplylaxis
c. hyperventilation
d. foreign body aspiration
e. vasovagal syncope
10. condition of patient characterized by talkativeness, confusion, slurring of speech
and anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision and headache.
a. Seizure
b. Syncope
c. Hyperventilation
d. Anesthetic toxicity
11. The most common cause of a transient loss of consciousness triggered by
stressful dental treatment characterized by sweating, a decrease in peripheral
vascular resistance, tachycardia and decrease blood pressure:
a. seizure
 b. anaplylaxis
c. hyperventilation
d. foreign body aspiration
e. vasovagal syncope
12. removal of the entire lesion with a margin of clinically uninvolved tissue. This
procedure is made to be both diagnostic and therapeutic?
a. Punch biopsy
b. Brush biopsy
c. Incisional biopsy
d. Excisional biopsy
e. Oral cytology
13. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity
a. Comminuted
b. Simple
c. Complicated
d. Greenstick
e. Compound
14. A gunshot wound would most commonly result to:
a. Comminuted
b. Simple
c. Complicated
d. Greenstick
e. Compound
15. Type of fixation used for a fractured symphysis of mandible:
a. Plates and screw
b. Ivy loop
c. Head bandage
d. Circumferential wiring
e. Risdon
16. An acceptable surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cyst is:
a. Enucleation
b. Fulguration
c. Marsupialization
d. Incision and drainage
e. Injection of sclerosing solution

17. A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the
surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth.
a. Transosseous
b. Subperiosteal
c. Endosseous
d. Osteointegration

18. A type of implant that are surgically inserted in the jaw bone
a. Transosseous
b. Subperiosteal
 c. Endosseous
d. Osteointegration

19. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the
entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin
a. Transosseous
b. Subperiosteal
c. Endosseous
d. Osteointegration
20. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly
associated with:
a. Angular cheilitis
b. Perleche
c. Candidiasis
d. Addisons diseases
e. Syphlytic lesion
21. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is
a. Smooth pink with fissuring
b. Bright pink, few dilated veins and nodules prominences
c. Keratinized pale pink with bluish gray hue
d. Dark pink with yellowish hue
22. timing of surgical repair of clefts for baies follows “rule of 10” which means the
following except:
a. 10 months old
b. 10 gm of hemoglobin
c. 10 lbs in body weight
d. 10 weeks old
23. a paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to a specific nerve
branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region:
a. neuritis
b. hyperesthesia
c. neuralgia
d. paralysis
24. a wound resulting from tear
a. contusion
b. penetrating wound
c. abrasion
d. gun shot, missile and war wounds
e. laceration
25. Injured epithelium has a genetically programmed regenerative ability that allows it
to reestablish its intergrity through proliferation, migration and a process known as:
a. contact inhibition
b. inhibition
c. contact imbibition
d. imbibition
26. it is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three dimensional;
images of the joint, bony relation & bone quality of the TMJs:
a. orthopantograms
b. CT scan
c. Arthrography
d. MRI

27. Any fracture distal to 2nd molar, from the retromolar pad area to the inferior border
of the body and posterior border of the ramus.
a. Condylar fracture
b. Ramus fracture
c. Angle fracture
d. Body fracture
e. Symphysis fracture
28. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root of a multirooted tooth due
to periodontal disease:
a. Crown sectioning
b. Hemisection
c. Trepination
d. Replantation
e. transplantation
29. when draining pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an
intraoral approach, the muscle most likely to be incised is the:
a. masseter
b. buccinators
c. temporal
d. medial pterygoid
e. lateral pterygoid

30. before performing preposthetic surgery to a new patient, the dentist should:
I. Obtain a complete medical history
II. Record temperature, BP, pulse and respiration rate
III. Obtain a complete blood count, plus bleeding and coagulation
IV. Order an electrocardiogram and chest xray
V. Consult patient’s physician if any significant medical problem exist

a. I,II,III
b. I,II & IV
c. II, III,IV
d. I,II,V
e. I,II,III,V
35. The aluminum filter in the x-ray tubehead functions to:
I. reduce exposure to patients skin
II. absorb long wavelength photons referentially
III. absorb shortwave photons preferentially
IV. increase penetrability of the beam
V. decrease penetrability of the beam

a. I,II,V
b. I,IV & V
c. II, IIII & IV
d. II, IIII, & V
e. II, IV & V

36. Untoward effects of therapeutic irradiation to the head and neck including:

I. agenesis of the roots of teeth

II. squamous cell carcinoma
III. hemangiona
IV. sialolithiasis
V. micrognathia –

a. I,II & V
b. I, IV& V
c. II, III & IV
d. II, IIII & V
e. II, IV & V

37. Cross sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

a. The hyoid bone
b. The mental foramen
c. Maxillary sinus mucoceles
d. Sialoliths in stensens duct
e. Sialoliths in whartons duct

2. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right angle radiographic technique to:
a. Reduce secondary radiation
b. Avoid distortion of image shape
c. Facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone
d. Avoid magnification of the images
e. Avoid superimposition of anatomic structure
3. A radiograph of the tmj will not show:
a. Lipping of the condyle
b. The articular eminence
c. The meniscus
d. Fracture of the neck of the condyle
4. It is localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical
bone into cancellous bone:
a. Exostoses
b. Tuberosity
c. Torus palatinus
 d. Torus mandibularis

5. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus

a. J-shell electron
b. K-shell electron
c. L-shell electron
d. Q-shell electron

6. If the mental foramen is superimposed over the apex of a root, it maybe mistaken
as:
a. Odontoma
b. Rarefaction due to infection
c. Cementoma
d. Supernumerary teeth

7. Radiograph shows treatment needed for the large residual cyst to prevent jaw
fracture:
a. Enucleation
b. Caldwell luc
c. Marsupialization
d. Incision & drainage

8. Soap bubble radiolucency of the mandible

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Compound odontoma
d. Dentigerous cyst

9. Groud glass radiopacity of the maxilla

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Compound odontoma
d. Dentigerous cyst

10. Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph

a. Pagets disease
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Compound odontoma
d. Dentigerous cyst

11. Methods of object localization

a. 2 films at right angle
b. clarks technique
c. tube shift technique
d. buccal object rule
e. all of these
12. methods to reduce magnification
1. use of small focal spot
2. increase focal spot to film distance
3. increase FSFD
4. Decrease object to film distance
5. Increase object to film distance
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 3 & 4
d. 4 & 5
MAGNIFICATION CAN BE PRODUCED BY INCREASING THE OBJECT TO FILM
DISTANCE

49. SLOB means:

e. Side of lingual opposite of buccal
f. Same lingual over buccal
g. Same left opposite the buccal
h. Same lingual opposite buccal

13. The central ray and film in paralleling technique are:

a. Perpendicular
b. Parallel
c. Side by side
d. Along the long axis

14. Made of molybdenum

a. Filament
b. Focusing cup
c. Target
d. Anode
e. Cathode

15. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam:
a. Collimation
b. Ionization
c. Filtration
d. Excitation

16. ALARA means

a. As little as reasonably achievable
b. As little as reasonably applicable
c. As low as reasonably applicable
d. As low as reasonably achievable

17. Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures:
 a. Periapical film
b. Bitewing film
c. Occlusal film
d. Screen film

18. Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography

a. Periapical film
b. Bitewing film
c. Occlusal film
d. Screen film

19. Localized foreign bodies in the jaw and stones in the salivary ducts
a. Periapical film
b. Bitewing film
c. Occlusal film
d. Screen film

20. It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the surrounding structures:

a. Periapical film
b. Bitewing film
c. Occlusal film
d. Screen film

21. It is sensitive to this blue light and exposed rapidly by it.

a. Periapical film
b. Bitewing film
c. Occlusal film
d. Screen film

22. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an xray beam?

a. Milliamperage
b. Exposure time
c. H & D curve
d. Machine output
e. Half value layer

23. Which of the following examples of non-particulate radiation energy

I. X-RAYS -
II. ELECTRONS -
III. GAMMA RAYS -
IV. BETA RAYS -
a. I & II
b. I & III
c. I & IV
d. II & III
 e. II & IV

61. Which of the following structures appear radiolucent on an oral radiograph

I. Hamular process
II. Genial tubercle
III. Mandibular canal
IV. Anterior nasal spine
V. Medial palatine suture
f. I & II
g. II & III
h. II & IV
i. III & IV
j. III & V

62. The advantage of paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:
k. The increase anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image
l. The increase object-film distance
m. The greater the magnification of the image
n. That the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half
the angle between the long axis of the teeth and the film

24. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique

because
a. Position the film is easier
b. It uses slow film
c. It gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth
d. It cuts developing time
e. a, b & c

25. cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by:

a. underexposure
b. improper exposure technique
c. a damaged cone
d. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation

26. eruption of several vesicles with erythematous borders caused by coxackie virus
is:
a. infected tonsils
b. enlarge tonsillitis
c. thrush
d. herpangina

27. brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly

associated with:
a. angular cheilitis
b. perleche
 c. candidiasis
d. addisons disease
e. syphylytic lesion

28. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is

a. Smooth pink with fissuring
b. Bright pink, few dilaed veins and nodules prominences
c. Keratinized pale pink with bluish gray hue
d. Dark pink with yellowish hue

29. White patch which can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa
is:
a. Pachyderma oris
b. Leukoplakia
c. Lichen planus
d. Ptyalism

30. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For
definitive diagnosis serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish
between the granuloma and:
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
e. Pagets disease of bone

31. The earliest common symptom of acute pulpitis secondary to carious lesion is:
a. Continuous pain
b. Aerodontalgia
c. Tooth discoloration
d. Thermal sensitivity
e. Pain on percussion

32. A geriatric male patient has an ulcerated, 3 cm lesion on the lateral border of the
tongue. The recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is:
a. Excise the entire lesion
b. Perform an incisional biopsy
c. Take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area

33. The following are requirements of an adequate flap design:

I. Base wider than free margin
II. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum
III. Base containing blood supply
IV. Flap wider than the body defect that will be present at the conclusion of
the operation
a. I II & III
 b. I II & IV
c. II III & IV
d. I III & IV
e. I II III & IV

73. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the
rate of tooth movement
f. Decortification
g. Corticotomy
h. Alveoloplasty
i. Ostectomy
j. Osteotomy

34. Translucent bluish lesion found at the ducts of the submandibular and sublingual
gland is often caused by trauma is:
a. Ranula
b. Dermoid cysts
c. Ludwigs angina
d. Sialolithiasis

35. Mass or dough like produced by the sebaceous glands found on the floor of the
mouth is:
a. Ranula
b. Dermoid cysts
c. Ludwigs angina
d. Sialolithiasis

36. Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with pouched out interdental papilla

a. ANUG
b. Dilantin hyperplasia
c. Hyperplastic gingivitis
d. Pubertal gingivitis

37. Epileptic patient having tough gingiva

a. ANUG
b. Dilantin hyperplasia
c. Hyperplastic gingivitis
d. Pubertal gingivitis
e. Gingivofibromatosis

38. Bluish red gingival which tends to bleed easily and is due to hormonal imbalance
a. ANUG
b. Dilantin hyperplasia
c. Hyperplastic gingivitis
d. Pubertal gingivitis
e. Gingivofibromatosis
39. The systemic visual purpose of oral diagnosis is:
a. Suggest and provide a basis for the most suitable plan of treatment
b. Excise a malignant neoplasm of the oral tissue
c. Identify the abnormality
d. Recognize the disease by its physical appearance

40. A comparison of the different disease and contrasted by the use of the clinical
pathologic and laboratory examination is _____ diagnosis is.
a. Differential
b. Final
c. Tentative
d. Prognosis
e. Referral
41. Prospect as to the recovery from a disease as indicated by the nature and
symptoms is: _____ diagnosis
a. Differential
b. Final
c. Tentative
d. Prognosis
e. Referral
42. The only potential complication associated with hepatitis is:
a. Impaired healing
b. Abnormal bleeding
c. Presence of erythematous candidiasis
d. Burning mouth

VIT K. INSUFFICIENCY
43. A subjective symptoms maybe defined as:
a. An individualized reaction experienced by the patient and elicited from
the patient
b. A clinical manifestation that is detected by examiner during examination of
the patient
c. A clinical reaction detected by the examiner by inspection, palpitation and
auscultation
d. An observable clinical manifestation of a systemic disease.
44. Auscultation is a valuable clinical examination technique and can have application
in detecting:
a. TMJ dysfunction
b. Speech impediments due to poor dentition
c. Inflammation of the periapical tissues
d. Abnormal breathing sounds
e. Both a & d

45. The drug of choice in management of patient with an acute allergic reaction
involving bronchospasm and hypotension is:
 a. Epinephrine
b. Aminophylline
c. Dexamethasone
d. Diphenhydramine

46. Masticatory space infections have as their hallmarks

a. Dyspnea
b. Trismus
c. Erythema
d. Hematemesis

47. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a BP of 120/80, warm pink
extremities and pupils that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. Myopia
b. Diabetes
c. Normal patient
d. Acute anxiety syndrome
e. Coronary artery disease

48. The most sensitive technique for palpation of submandibular gland is:
a. Bimanual, simultaneous intraoral and extraoral palpation
b. Bimanual, extraoral palpation with the patients head tipped forward
c. Intraoral palpation with the patients head tipped forward
d. Intraoral palpation with the patients head unsupported
e. Monomanual, extraoral palpation with the patients head tipped forward and
toward the same side

49. The most reliable test for lues is:

a. Biopsy
b. Darkfield examination
c. Oral exfoliative cytology
d. Serology

50. A patient has a history of two block dyspnea, two pillow orthpnea, ankle edema
and palpitation
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Respiratory failure
c. Hepatic failure
d. Uremia

51. The lymph from the middle part of the lower lip will drain into the:
a. Infrahyoid lymph node
b. Submandibular lymph node
c. Submental lymph node
 d. Superficial cervical lymph node

52. Anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient states
that she has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings include
tremors, tachycardia warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Diabetes
b. Gastritis
c. Renal disease
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Cushing disease

53. A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding
from the gingiva. She complains of weakness and anorexia. Results of her
hemoglobin show:
Hb – 12 grams Lymphocytes: 9 %
WBC – 100,000 Monocytes: 1%
Neutrophils – 90% Eosinophils: 0%
a. Myelogenous leukemia
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Thrombocytopenic purpura
d. Gingivitis of local etiologic origin

94. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
a. Anemia RBC
b. Eosinophilia WBC
c. Spherocytsis TYPES OF ANEMIA - RBC
d. Vitamin deficiency TYPES OF ANEMIA (MEGALOBLASTIC
ANEMIA) - RBC
e. Thmrobocytopenic purpura PLATELETS

54. A 35 year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent infections and
has lost weight. His appetite is good but he has polydipsia. The most probable
diagnosis is:
a. Malignancy
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Hodkin’s disease
e. Acute glomerulonephritis

96. Examination of a 79 year old man reveals a 3 cm flat, mottled, brown-black

splotchy lesion on the left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not
palpable. The patient states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10
years. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Age spot
b. Lentigo maligna
 c. Nodular melanoma
d. Junctional nevus
e. Superficial spreading melanoma

55. The characteristic oral clinical feature of peutz-jeghers syndrome is:

a. Macrognathia
b. Melanin pigmentation of the lips
c. Yellowish spots on the oral mucosa
d. Small, papillary lesion son the palate
e. A rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue

56. A 14 year old boy has a bilateral, pearly white thickening of the buccal mucosa.
The boy has had the lesions since birth. His younger brother also has similar
lesions. History and clinical findings are consistent with a diagnosis of:
a. Leukoedema
b. Lichen planus
c. Mucous patches
d. White sponge nevus

99. Oral examination of a 3 year old child reveals only primary canines and first molars
present. General observation of the child reveals a very light complexion, fine and
light hair, and the overall facial appearance of an older person. Which of the
following conditions is suggested?
a. Down syndrome
b. Hypopituitarism
c. Crouzons disease
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
e. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia

57. A painful crater like 1.5 cm ulcer developed within one week in the mucous of the
left hard palate of a 40 year old woman. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. actinomycosis
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. adenoid cystic carcinoma
e. necrotizing sialometaplasia