BASIC PARAMEDIC

PRACTICE FOR
QATAR
PROMETRIC EXAM

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01. What is the normal respiration rate for adults?
a) 5 to 10 breaths per minute
b) 10 to 20 breaths per minute
c) 12 to 20 breaths per minute
d) 15 to 30 breaths per minute
e) 25 to 50 breaths per minute
The correct answer is "12 to 20 breaths per minute".

02. Which of the following is not in the upper airway?

a) Larynx
b) Nasopharynx
c) Pharynx
d) Trachea
The correct answer is "Trachea". Some texts consider the larynx to be a part of the lower airway, but the trachea is
undeniably in the lower airway.

03. Which of the following is the most important during an assessment:

a) Getting a prompt SAMPLE history
b) Keeping the patient comfortable
c) Maintaining an open airway
d) Obtaining verbal consent
e) Performing a rapid body assessment
All of these items are important, but the most important task is to “maintain an open airway”. Of course, this does not
prevent you from performing the other tasks.

04. The right atrium sends blood to the:

a) Aorta
b) Inferior Vena Cava
c) Left Ventricle
d) Right Atrium
e) Right Ventricle
The correct answer is "Right Ventricle"

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05. Which vein carries oxygen-rich blood?

a) Superior vena cava

b) Left ventricle vein
c) Left pulmonary vein
d) Left pulmonary artery
e) None of the above.
The pulmonary veins (both left and right) carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.

06. How often should you give breaths to an adult when ventilating?
a) Once every 1 to 3 seconds
b) Once every 4 to 5 seconds
c) Once every 5 to 6 seconds
d) Once every 6 to 7 seconds
e) Once every 8 to 10 seconds
The American Heart Association's 2015 update says 1 breath every 5-6 seconds during CPR

07. A febrile seizure is typically associated with:

a) Cerebrovascular Accident
b) Fever
c) Head Injury
d) Heart Attack
e) Pregnancy
The correct answer is "Fever". Febrile seizures are convulsions brought on by a fever in infants or small children.
During a febrile seizure, a child often loses consciousness and shakes, moving limbs on both sides of the body.

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08. A child's EpiPen contains how much epinephrine?

a) 0.10 mg
b) 0.15 mg
c) 0.20 mg
d) 0.25 mg
e) 0.30 mg
The correct answer is "0.15 mg".

09. Passive rewarming of a hypothermic patient includes placing heat-packs or hot water bottles near the patient's
axillary and groin.
a) True
b) False
The correct answer is "False". Passive rewarming refers to removing wet clothing and adding insulation to prevent
further heat loss. Active rewarming refers to applying heat sources.

10. How many ribs do men have?

a) Fewer than women

b) The same as women
c) More than women
The correct answer is : The same as women

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11. HIV can be transmitted by inhalation.
a) True
b) False
The correct answer is "False". HIV (the AIDS virus) can be transmitted by blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast
milk.

12. Your patient is showing signs of accessory muscles and nasal flaring. You suspect:
a) Appendicitis
b) Cardiac Insufficiency
c) Respiratory Distress
d) Upper Airway Blockage
The correct answer is. "Respiratory Distress".

13. What is the period when stimulation will not produce any polarization of the heart?
a.) Concrete refractory
b.) Relative refractory
c.) Partial refractory
d.) Absolute refractory
The correct answer is: d.) Absolute refractory

14. What portion of angina patients only feel pain in the chest?
a.) 1/2
b.) 2/3
c.) 1/4
d.) 1/3
The correct answer is: d.) 1/3

15. What is the sac that contains the heart?

a.) Pericardium
b.) Myocardium
c.) Epicardium
d.) Endocardium
The correct answer is: a.) Pericardium

16. Which age group is abdominal aneurysm most prevalent in?

a.) 60-70
b.) 30-40
c.) 50-60
d.) 40-50
The correct answer is: a.) 60-70

17. Which condition can be evidenced in the ankles of the patient?

a.) Peripheral/presacral edema
b.) Red blood cell oxygenation
c.) Subtle cardiac disease indicators
d.) Jugular venous distention
The correct answer is: a.) Peripheral/presacral edema

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18. What is the delay of impulses between the atria and the ventricles?
a.) NA block
b.) DI block
c.) AV block
d.) SA block
The correct answer is: c.) AV block

19. How many PVC's per minute is considered significant?

a.) 5
b.) 6
c.) 4
d.) 3
The correct answer is: b.) 6

20. Which cause of cardiac arrest does NOT require special treatment due to the underlying mechanism of arrest?
a.) Traumatic arrest
b.) ASHD
c.) Hypothermia
d.) Drowning
The correct answer is: b.) ASHD

21. Which medication is NOT used to treat myocardial ischemia and the relief of pain?
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitroglycerin
c.) Dobutamine
d.) Morphine sulfate
The correct answer is: c.) Dobutamine

22. What type of rhythm is seen in a patient with sinus tachycardia?

a.) Occasionally irregular
b.) Irregularly irregular
c.) Regular
d.) Regularly irregular
The correct answer is: c.) Regular

23. Which is NOT a common ratio of conduction with a second-degree AV block?

a.) 3:2
b.) 4:3
c.) 5:5
d.) 2:1
The correct answer is: c.) 5:5

24. What is a rare ratio of impulses allowed by the AV junction in a patient with an atrial flutter?
a.) 4:1
b.) 1:1
c.) 2:1
d.) 3:1
The correct answer is: b.) 1:1

25. Which is NOT considered a cause of wandering pacemaker?

a.) Ischemic heart disease
b.) Variant of sinus dysrhythmia

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c.) Common in the very young
d.) Excessive vagal tone
The correct answer is: d.) Excessive vagal tone

26. Which part of the heart fails that can lead to pulmonary edema?
a.) Right ventricle
b.) Left atrium
c.) Right atrium
d.) Left ventricle
The correct answer is: d.) Left ventricle

27. What is the average stroke volume?

a.) 70 mL
b.) 60 mL
c.) 90 mL
d.) 80 mL
The correct answer is: a.) 70 mL

28. Which medication is NOT used to control or suppress cardiac dysrhythmias?

a.) Adenosine
b.) Procainamide
c.) Lidocaine
d.) Isoproterenol
The correct answer is: d.) Isoproterenol

29. What pressure reading (mmHg) mark the beginning of hypertension?

a.) 140/90
b.) 130/90
c.) 120/80
d.) 110/80
The correct answer is: a.) 140/90

30. Which medication is NOT given to treat the dysrhythmia?

a.) Nalbuphine
b.) Lidocaine
c.) Epinephrine
d.) Verapamil
The correct answer is: a.) Nalbuphine

31. What is the heart rate (bpm) of a patient with an accelerated junction rhythm?
a.) 20-60
b.) 60-100
c.) 100-140
d.) 140-200
The correct answer is: c.) 100-140

32. What is the hear rate (bpm) in a patient with a junctional rhythm?
a.) 20-40
b.) 80-100
c.) 60-80
d.) 40-60

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The correct answer is: d.) 40-60

33. What is the mainstay of cardiac arrest therapy?

a.) Basic life support
b.) Pacemaker placement
c.) Medication administration
d.) Surgical removal of affected part
The correct answer is: a.) Basic life support

34. Which is NOT a location that the pain of myocardial infarction radiates?
a.) Back
b.) Arms
c.) Neck
d.) Legs
The correct answer is: d.) Legs

35. Which cranial nerve is involved with the parasympathetic control of the heart?
a.) 11th
b.) 10th
c.) 8th
d.) 9th
The correct answer is: b.) 10th

36. What degree incline should the MI patient be placed in ideally?

a.) 60 degree
b.) 90 degree
c.) 45 degree
d.) 30 degree
The correct answer is: d.) 30 degree

37. What is the smallest part of the arterial system?

a.) Arterioles
b.) Arteries
c.) Capillaries
d.) Venules
The correct answer is: c.) Capillaries

38. What is a blood clot that lodges in a pulmonary artery, blocking blood flow through that vessel?
a.) Traumatic aortic aneurysm
b.) Dissecting aortic aneurysm
c.) Acute arterial occlusion
d.) Acute pulmonary embolism
The correct answer is: d.) Acute pulmonary embolism

39. What heart rate (bpm) is found in the patient suffering from paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?
a.) 40-80
b.) 60-90
c.) 100-140
d.) 150-250
The correct answer is: d.) 150-250

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40. Which is NOT a location that a lead is connected to in the field?
a.) Right leg
b.) Left leg
c.) Right arm
d.) Left arm
The correct answer is: a.) Right leg

41. Which is NOT a method of effectively interpreting the ECG strip?

a.) Analyze a given rhythm strip according to specific format
b.) Identify dysrhythmia based on similarly established rules
c.) Eyeballing it looking for a pattern
d.) Memorize the rules for each dysrhythmia
The correct answer is: c.) Eyeballing it looking for a pattern

42. What is the sensation that the heart is pounding?

a.) Palpation
b.) Conduction
c.) Dyspnea
d.) Syncope
The correct answer is: a.) Palpation

43. Which can result in cardiac standstill and escape rhythm?

a.) Sinus arrest
b.) Sinus dysrhythmia
c.) Sinus bradycardia
d.) Sinus tachycardia
The correct answer is: a.) Sinus arrest

44. Which valve in the heart separates the left atrium from the left ventricle with two leaflets?
a.) Pulmonic
b.) Mitral
c.) Semilunar
d.) Tricuspid
The correct answer is: b.) Mitral

45. What do the P waves reflect?

a.) Atrial depolarization
b.) Ventricular depolarization
c.) Atrial polarization
d.) Ventricular polarization
The correct answer is: a.) Atrial depolarization

46. Which part of the heart is NOT supplied with by the left coronary artery?
a.) Part of the right atrium
b.) Left ventricle
c.) Interventricular system
d.) Part of right ventricle
The correct answer is: a.) Part of the right atrium

47. What is the first phase of the cardiac cycle called?

a.) Preload

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b.) Afterload
c.) Diastole
d.) Systole
The correct answer is: c.) Diastole

48. What is the appearance of P waves seen in a patient with ventricular escape complexes?
a.) None
b.) Inverted
c.) Fibrillated
d.) Fluttering
The correct answer is: a.) None

49. Which chemical neurotransmitter acts on the heart rate?

a.) Norepinephrine
b.) Dopamine
c.) Epinephrine
d.) Adenosine
The correct answer is: a.) Norepinephrine

50. Which is NOT a dysrhythmia resulting from disorders of conduction?

a.) Disturbances of ventricular conduction
b.) Pre-excitation syndrome
c.) Premature junctional contractions
d.) AV blocks
The correct answer is: c.) Premature junctional contractions

51. What is the intrinsic rate of self-excitation of the SA node in the heart?
a.) 20-40 beats per minute
b.) 40-60 beats per minute
c.) 100-140 beats per minute
d.) 60-100 beats per minute
The correct answer is: d.) 60-100 beats per minute

52. What is the normal electrical state of cardiac cells?

a.) Automatic potential
b.) Action potential
c.) Resting potential
d) Polarized potential
The correct answer is: c.) Resting potential

53. What is the ballooning of an arterial wall which results from a defect called?
a.) Embolism
b.) Dilation
c.) Occlusion
d.) Aneurysm
The correct answer is: d.) Aneurysm

54. What is the P-R interval in a patient with a third-degree AV block?

a.) Greater than 0.20 sec (diagnostic)
b.) Constant for conducted beats

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c.) Progressively longer until the QRS complex is dropped
d.) No relationship present
The correct answer is: d.) No relationship present

55. What is the heart rate (bpm) of the patient in ventricular fibrillation?
a.) 40-60
b.) 70-100
c.) No organized rhythm
d.) 10-30
The correct answer is: c.) No organized rhythm

56. What should the treatment be of a patient who is NOT tolerating the rapid heart rate of paroxysmal junction
tachycardia?
a.) Vagal maneuvers
b.) Observe and reassure the patient
c.) Electrical therapy
d.) Pharmacological therapy
The correct answer is: a.) Vagal maneuvers

57. What is the minimum heart rate (bpm) that must be present before electrical therapy may be initiated to treat
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?
a.) 130
b.) 140
c.) 120
d.) 150
The correct answer is d.) 150

58. What is the normal range for the P-R interval?

a.) 0.01-0.08 sec
b.) 0.12-0.20 sec
c.) 0.08-0.13 sec
d.) 0.15-0.30 sec
The correct answer is: b.) 0.12-0.20 sec

59. Which step is NOT involved in placing the quick-look paddles?

a.) Apply conducting gel to the paddle surface
b.) Turn on oscilloscope power
c.) Observe the monitor and obtain tracing
d.) Apply electrodes to the skin surface
The correct answer is: d.) Apply electrodes to the skin surface

60. Which is NOT considered a treatment option when confronted with a patient with cardiac arrest secondary to
pulseless electrical activity?
a.) IV fluid challenge
b.) Rapid transport
c.) Medication administration
d.) PASG
The correct answer is: c.) Medication administration

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61. What is the mortality rate from cardiogenic shock with the best technology readily available?
a.) 50%-60%
b.) 60%-70%
c.) 70%-80%
d.) 80%-90%
The correct answer is: d.) 80%-90%

62. What rate should the pacemaker be set to when using a transcutaneous cardiac pacemaker?
a.) 80-100 bpm
b.) 60-80 bpm
c.) 40-60 bpm
d.) 100-120 bpm
The correct answer is: b.) 60-80 bpm

63. What is the heart rate (bpm) of the patient suffering from a paroxysmal junction tachycardia?
a.) 260-340
b.) 100-180
c.) 20-100
d.) 180-260
The correct answer is: b.) 100-180

64. Which condition results in cardiac arrest?

a.) Asystole
b.) Ventricular tachycardia
c.) Junctional rhythm
d.) Atrial fibrillation
The correct answer is: a.) Asystole

65. Which is NOT a factor when calculating cardiac output?

a.)Preload
b.) Stroke volume
c.) Heart rate
d.) Systemic vascular resistance
The correct answer is: d.) Systemic vascular resistance

66. Which condition involves a blood clot in a vein?

a.)Hypertensive encephalopathy
b.) Deep venous thrombosis
c.) Varicose veins
d.) Peripheral arterial atherosclerotic disease
The correct answer is: b.) Deep venous thrombosis

67. Where are the largest vessels in the body located?

a.) Base of the feet
b.) Center of the neck
c.) Base of the heart
d.) Left of the pelvis
The correct answer is: c.) Base of the heart

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68. What is it called when every other beat is a PVC?
a.) Quadrigeminy
b.) Trigeminy
c.) Repetitive
d.) Bigeminy
The correct answer is: d.) Bigeminy

69. Which item is NOT something that needs to be used when treating a patient?
a.)Known allergies
b.) Serious illness
c.) Current symptoms
d.) Medical history
The correct answer is: d.) Medical history

70. What level of P-R interval is common to all dysrhythmias that originate in the AV junction?
a.)0.22 sec
b.) 0.42 sec
c.) 0.32 sec
d.) 0.12 sec
The correct answer is: d.) 0.12 sec

71. Which results from a single electrical impulse originating in the atria outside the SA node, which in turn causes a
premature depolarization of the heart before the next
expected sinus beat?
a.) Premature atrial contraction
b.) Wandering pacemaker
c.) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
d.) Atrial flutter
The correct answer is: a.) Premature atrial contraction

72. What is the atrial rate (bpm) in a patient with atrial fibrillation?

a.)150-550
b.) 250-650
c.) 350-750
d.) 50-450
The correct answer is: c.) 350-750

73. Which is NOT something you need to determine when confronted with dyspnea in a patient?
a.)Duration of the dyspnea
b.) Anything that aggravates the dyspnea
c.) Any associated symptoms
d.) Maintenance medications for dyspnea
The correct answer is: d.) Maintenance medications for dyspnea

74. Which classification of rhythm irregularity is characterized by group beating?

a.)Irregularly irregular
b.) Regularly irregular
c.) Occasionally irregular
d.) Intermittently irregular
The correct answer is: b.) Maintenance medications for dyspnea

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75. Which heart sound is associated with congestive heart failure?
a.)S1
b.) S4
c.) S3
d.) S2
The correct answer is: c.) S3

76. What is the most common cause of a first-degree AV block?

a.)Necrosis at the AV junction
b.) Ischemia at the AV junction
c.) Drug toxicity
d.) Degenerative disease at the AV junction
The correct answer is: b.) Ischemia at the AV junction

77. Which pulses can be diminished when a dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs?
a.)Head and neck
b.) Lower extremity
c.) Upper extremity
d.) Abdominal
The correct answer is: b.) Lower extremity

78. Which is the next positive wave after the P wave?

a.)R
b.) S
c.) Q
d.) T
The correct answer is: d.) T

79. What heart rate (bpm) is indicative of sinus bradycardia?

a.)80 or more
b.) 60 or less
c.) 60-70
d.) 70-80
The correct answer is: b.) 60 or less

80. What minimal length QRS complex is commonly seen with disturbances of ventricular conduction?
a.) 0.12
b.) 0.32
c.) 0.22
d.) 0.42
The correct answer is: a.) 0.12

81. What results from the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output?
a.)Venous congestion
b.) Tachycardia
c.) Peripheral edema
d.) Liver engorgement
The correct answer is: b.) Tachycardia

82. What is the capability of self-depolarization of the pacemaker cells in the heart called?
a.) Automaticity
b.) Conductivity

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c.) Polarity
d.) Excitability
The correct answer is: a.) Automaticity

83. What degree angle should the patient be placed when checking for jugular venous distention?
a.)25 degree
b.) 45 degree
c.) 90 degree
d.) 60 degree
The correct answer is: b.) 45 degree

84. What is the first step when performing carotid sinus massage?
a.)Have atropine sulfate readily available
b.) Firmly massage the artery by pressing it against the vertebral body
c.) Maintain pressure on the artery for 15-20 seconds
d.) Initiate IV, oxygen, and ECG monitoring
The correct answer is: d.) Initiate IV, oxygen, and ECG monitoring

85. What timeframe does sudden death occur within?

a.)3 hours
B.) 4 hours
C.) 2 hours
D.) 1 hour

The correct answer is: d.) 1 hour

86. Which pacemaker failure generally results from a pacemaker not capturing?
a.)Asystole
b.) Bradycardia
c.) Fibrillation
d.) Tachycardia
The correct answer is: b.) Bradycardia

87. Which type of angina is associated with exercise?

a.) Stable
b.) Chronic
c.) Unstable
d.) Acute
The correct answer is: a.) Stable

88. What is the most common presenting sign of cardiac disease?

a.) Chest pain
b.) Syncope
c.) Dyspnea
d.) Neck pain
The correct answer is: a.) Chest pain

89. Which medication increases the force of cardiac contraction and output?
a.)Nifedipine
b.) Bretylium

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c.) Digitalis
d.) Propranolol
The correct answer is: c.) Digitalis

90. Which type of dysrhythmia originates in the SA node?

a.)Atrial flutter
b.) Sinus arrest
c.) Pre-excitation syndrome
d.) Asystole
The correct answer is: b.) Sinus arrest

91. Which muscular layer in the heart has electrical properties like smooth muscles?
a.)Pericardial
b.) Epicardial
c.) Myocardial
d.) Endocardial
The correct answer is: c.) Myocardial

92. Which term refers to the heart rate?

a.) Chronotrophy
b.) Triadotrophy
c.) Inotrophy
d.) Exotrophy
The correct answer is: a.) Chronotrophy

93. What is a graphic recording of the heart's electrical activity?

a.)Activitogram
b.) Echocardiogram
c.) Electrocardiogram
d.) Polarizogram
The correct answer is: c.) Electrocardiogram

94. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?
a.)Right ventricle
b.) Right atrium
c.) Left atrium
d.) Left ventricle
The correct answer is: b.) Right atrium

95. What power of the vessel's radius is blood flow directly proportionate to according to Poiseuille's Law?
a.) 4th
b.) 2nd
c.) 6th
d.) 8th
The correct answer is: a.) 4th

96. Which functions to prevent cardiac standstill?

a.)Ventricular rescue rhythms
b.) Atrial escape rhythms
c.) Atrial rescue rhythms
d.) Ventricular escape rhythms

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The correct answer is: d.) Ventricular escape rhythms

97. Which medication works by dilating peripheral arteries and veins?

a.)Morphine sulfate
b.) Nitroglycerin
c.) Diazepam
d.) Nitrous Oxide
The correct answer is: b.) Nitroglycerin

98. In which scenario will fibrillation be more effective?

a.) 4 minutes after onset of fibrillation

b.) 12 minutes after onset of fibrillation
c.) 16 minutes after onset of fibrillation
d.) 8 minutes after onset of fibrillation
The correct answer is: a.) 4 minutes after onset of fibrillation

99. Which item CANNOT be obtained from a single lead?

a.) Presence of an infarct
b.) Time it takes to conduct the impulse through various parts of the heart
c.) Regularity of the heartbeat
d.) Rate of the heartbeat
The correct answer is: a.) Presence of an infarct

100. Which is the most used medication for the treatment of atrial fibrillation?
a.)Quinidine
b.) Diltiazem
c.) Verapamil
d.) Procainamide
The correct answer is: b.) Diltiazem

101. Which is NOT an indicated usage of emergency synchronized cardioversion?

a.) Perfusing ventricular bradycardia
b.) Rapid arterial fibrillation
c.) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
d.) 2:1 atrial flutter
The correct answer is: a.) Perfusing ventricular bradycardia

102. Which is the most common cause of the acute arterial occlusion?
a.)Trauma
b.) Embolus
c.) Thrombosis
d.) Tumor
The correct answer is: b.) Embolus

103. What is the first thing to look at when analyzing the ECG strip?
a.) Rate
b.) P-R interval
c.) P waves
d.) Rhythm
The correct answer is: a.) Rate

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104. Which is the most severe form of pump failure?
a.) Cardiac arrest
b.) Right ventricle failure
c.) Cardiogenic shock
d.) Left ventricle failure
The correct answer is: c.) Cardiogenic shock

105. Which medication is NOT generally indicated for use with left ventricle failure?
a.) Dobutamine
b.) Morphine sulfate
c.) Flurosemide
d.) Lidocaine
The correct answer is: d.) Lidocaine

106. What is a progressive, degenerative disease of the medium-sized and large arteries?
a.) Atherosclerosis
b.) Claudication
c.) Angina
d.) Arteriosclerosis
The correct answer is: a.) Atherosclerosis

107. Which type of discs connect cardiac muscle fibers and conduct electrical impulses quickly between fibers?
a.)Inotrophic
b.) Intercalcated
c.) Anastomosic
d.) Syncytium
The correct answer is: b.) Intercalcated

108. What type of pause follows an ectopic beat where the SA node is unaffected and the cadence of the heart is
uninterrupted?
a.) Compensatory
b.) Nonpolarizing
c.) Noncompensatory
d.) Polarizing
The correct answer is: a.) Compensatory

109. What is the initial charge that should be used in a child

when performing defibrillation?
a.)6 joules/kg
b.) 8 joules/kg
c.) 4 joules/kg
d.) 2 joules/kg
The correct answer is: d.) 2 joules/kg

110. What is it called when cardiac depolarization results from cells in the heart depolarize that are not part of the
pacemaker cells?
a.)Tachycardia
b.) Ectopic beat
c.) Reentry
d.) Tachydysrhythmia
The correct answer is: b.) Ectopic beat

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111. Which type of dysrhythmia tends to have an asymptomatic patient?
a.) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
b.) Bundle branch block
c.) Artificial pacemaker rhythm
d.) Ventricular fibrillation
The correct answer is: a.) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

112. What is the process of passing an electrical current to depolarize a critical mass of myocardial cells?
a.) Defibrillation
b.) Cardiac pacing
c.) Carotid sinus massage
d.) Cardioversion
The correct answer is: a.) Defibrillation

113. What portion of angina patients only feel pain in the chest?
a.)1/2
b.) 2/3
c.) 1/4
d.) 1/3
The correct answer is: d.) 1/3

114. Which is NOT considered a treatment option when confronted with a patient with cardiac arrest secondary to
pulseless electrical activity?
a.)IV fluid challenge
b.) Rapid transport
c.) Medication administration
d.) PASG
The correct answer is: c.) Medication administration

115. What is the heart rate (bpm) of a patient with an accelerated junction rhythm?
a.)20-60
b.) 60-100
c.) 100-140
d.) 140-200
The correct answer is: b.) 60-100

116. Which step is NOT involved in placing the quick-look paddles?

a.)Apply conducting gel to the paddle surface
b.) Turn on oscilloscope power
c.) Observe the monitor and obtain tracing
d.) Apply electrodes to the skin surface
The correct answer is: d.) Apply electrodes to the skin surface

117. What type of pause follows an ectopic beat where the SA node is unaffected and the cadence of the heart is
uninterrupted?
a.) Compensatory
B.) Nonpolarizing
C.) Noncompensatory
D.) Polarizing
The correct answer is: a.) Compensatory

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118. What heart rate (bpm) is indicative of sinus bradycardia?
a.)80 or more
b.) 60 or less
c.) 60-70
d.) 70-80
The correct answer is: b.) 60 or less

119.What should be the first line of treatment for an unstable patient with ventricular tachycardia?
a.)Administer lidocaine
b.) Cardioversion
c.) DC countershock
d.) Initiate CPR
The correct answer is: b.) Cardioversion

120. Which type of discs connect cardiac muscle fibers and conduct electrical impulses quickly between fibers?
a.)Inotrophic
b.) Intercalcated
c.) Anastomosic
d.) Syncytium
The correct answer is: b.) Intercalcated

121.Which condition results in cardiac arrest?

a.) Asystole
b.) Ventricular tachycardia
c.) Junctional rhythm
d.) Atrial fibrillation
The correct answer is: a.) Asystole

122. Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with pneumonia?

a.) "Bed shaking" chills
b.) Deep, productive cough
c.) Recent fever
d.) Loud, snoring breathing
The correct answer is: d.) Loud, snoring breathing

123. Which condition is NOT indicated when there is a dull sound upon chest percussion?
Pulmonary edema
b.) Emphysema
c.) Pneumonia
d.) Hemothorax
The correct answer is: b.) Emphysema

124. What color is the skin when carbon monoxide poisoning has gone on for a long period of time?
a.) Bright cherry red
b.) Deep ocean blue
c.) Radiant sunshine yellow
d.) Dull pea soup green
The correct answer is: a.) Bright cherry red

125. When examining a patient with toxic inhalation, which area is NOT of primary concern?
a.) Neck
b.) Mouth

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c.) Throat
d.) Face
The correct answer is: a.) Neck

126. What action should NOT be taken with a hyperventilating patient?

a.) Assist in respirations
b.) Give the patient reassurance
c.) Rebreathing using a paper bag
d.) Administer supplemental oxygen
The correct answer is: c.) Rebreathing using a paper bag

127. Which statement is true in regards to administering oxygen?

a.) Every patient with respiratory distress should receive oxygen
b.) If the patient presents with hypoxic symptoms, they should not receive oxygen
c.) No patient should receive oxygen until in the emergency department
d.) Only patients without COPD can receive oxygen supplementation
The correct answer is: a.) Every patient with respiratory distress should receive oxygen

128. What condition is the result of destruction of the alveolar walls distal to the terminal bronchioles?
a.) COPD
b.) Bronchitis
c.) Emphysema
d.) Asthma
The correct answer is: c.) Emphysema

129. What is a decrease in the amount of oxygen and an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide as a result of some
interference with respiration called?
a.) Cyanosis
b.) Asphyxia
c.) Hypoxia
d.) Hemoptysis
The correct answer is: b.) Asphyxia

130. Which piece of the chest should be palpated first when performing the secondary survey?
a.) Left
b.) Front
c.) Right
d.) Back
The correct answer is: b.) Front

131. Which is NOT a side effect of terbutaline?

a.) Palpitations
b.) Headache
c.) Anxiety
d.) Dizziness
The correct answer is: d.) Dizziness

132. What age group has seen the largest increase in asthma related deaths?
a.)20-35 years old

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b.) 45 years and younger
c.) 45 years and older
d.) 2-18 years old
The correct answer is: c.) 45 years and older

133. Where should the thrusts be administered to a pregnant woman who is choking and cannot speak?
a.) Side
b.) Abdomen
c.) Back
d.) Chest
The correct answer is: d.) Chest

134. How many ventilations should be attempted in an unconscious, choking patient?

a.) 4
b.) 2
c.) 8
d.) 6
The correct answer is: b.) 2

135. Which condition is the result of an increased production of mucous in the respiratory tree?
a.) COPD
b.) Emphysema
c.) Asthma
d.) Chronic bronchitis
The correct answer is: d.) Chronic bronchitis

136. Which is NOT a history question you need to ask the patient who presents with a respiratory problem?
a.) Does the patient have any allergies?
b.) Has the patient been coughing?
c.) When was the last time food was ingested?
d.) How long has the dyspnea been present?
The correct answer is: c.) When was the last time food was ingested?

137. What are the rattling sounds in the larger airway called?
a.) Snoring
b.) Wheezing
c.) Stridor
d.) Rhonchi
The correct answer is: d.) Rhonchi

138. What gives the emphysema patient a pink color?

a.) Hypoxia
b.) Asphyxia
c.) Polycythemia
d.) Dyspnia
The correct answer is: c.) Polycythemia

139. Which is NOT something that is done in the prehospital setting for a suspected pulmonary embolism?
a.) Administer medication to dissolve the clot

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b.) Establish and maintain the patient's airway
c.) Establish an IV of lactated Ringer's saline
d.) Administer supplemental oxygen at the highest concentration
The correct answer is: a.) Administer medication to dissolve the clot

140. Which condition is a resultant symptom of dyspnea?

a.) Difficulty speaking
b.) Patient discomfort
c.) Position of the patient
d.) Alert verbal responses
The correct answer is: a.) Difficulty speaking

141. What concentration of oxygen should be administered to the asthmatic patient in distress?
a.) 100%
b.) 50%
c.) 70%
d.) 80%
The correct answer is: a.) 100%

142. Which is the most common upper airway obstruction?

a.) Dentures
b.) Relaxed tongue
c.) Toys
d.) Food
The correct answer is: b.) Relaxed tongue

143. What is the subcutaneous dosage of epinephrine 1:1000?

a.) 0.3-0.5 mg
b.) 0.5-0.7 mg
c.) 0.9-1.1 mg
d.) 0.7-0.9 mg
The correct answer is: a.) 0.3-0.5 mg

144. What does noisy breathing nearly always mean?

a.) Partial obstruction
b.) Illness of the patient
c.) No obstruction
d.) Complete obstruction
The correct answer is: a.) Partial obstruction

145. Which word is associated with fluid in the smaller airways?

a.) Rhonchi
b.) Friction rub
c.) Stridor
d.) Rales
The correct answer is: d.) Rales

146. What should be put into the IV line when a nervous system dysfunction is suspected?
a.) Lactated Ringer's solution
b.) 5 percent dextrose in water
c.) Normal saline with anticonvulsant medication
d.) Normal saline
The correct answer is: b.) 5 percent dextrose in water

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147. Which is NOT considered a toxic material when inhaled?
a.) Carbon dioxide
b.) Sulfur trioxide
c.) Nitrogen oxide
d.) Ammonia
The correct answer is: a.) Carbon dioxide

148. How is albuterol administered?

a.) Subcutaneous injection
b.) IM injection
c.) Inhaled
d.) IV
The correct answer is: c.) Inhaled

149. What is the name for a prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to repeated doses of epinephrine?
a.) Status epinephricus
b.) Status asthmaticus
c.) Status repeaticus
d.) Status prolongicus
The correct answer is: b.) Status asthmaticus

150. Which medication can be used to treat asthma and congestive heart failure?
a.) Terbutaline
b.) Methylprednisolone
c.) Aminophylline
d.) Isoetharine
The correct answer is: c.) Aminophylline

152. What flow rate should supplemental oxygen be started for a patient with chronic bronchitis?
a.) 26 liters/min
b.) 10 liters/min
c.) 18 liters/min
d.) 2 liters/min
The correct answer is: d.) 2 liters/min

153. Which can stimulate the thyroid to release it's hormones?

a.) Heat
b.) Brightness
c.) Cold
d.) Darkness
The correct answer is: c.) Cold

154. Which condition occurs when insulin levels are excessive?

a.) Neuritis
b.) Empty sella
c.) Hypoglycemia
d.) Diabetes
The correct answer is: c.) Hypoglycemia

155. Which gland controls the other endocrine glands?

a.) Hypothalamus

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b.) Pituitary
c.) Adrenal
d.) Thyroid
The correct answer is: b.) Pituitary

156. What percentage of the adrenal cortex's hormone production is composed of glucocorticoids?
a.) 95%
b.) 85%
c.) 75%
d.) 65%
The correct answer is a.) 95%

157. What is the most common form of sugar in the bloodstream?

a.) Fructose
b.) Glucose
c.) Galactose
d.) Lactose
The correct answer is: b.) Glucose

158. What is a key difference between the presentation of hypoglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.) Hypoglycemia can come on quickly
b.) Hypoglycemia presents with dry, warm skin
c.) Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with cold, clammy skin
d.) Diabetic ketoacidosis can come on quickly
The correct answer is: a.) Hypoglycemia can come on quickly

159. Which type of cell within the pancreas releases insulin?

a.) Beta
b.) Alpha
c.) Delta
d.) Theta
The correct answer is: a.) Beta

160. Which endocrine disorder is characterized by inadequate insulin production by the beta cells of the islets of
Langerhans in the pancreas?
a.) Grave's disease
b.) Diabetes mellitus
c.) Hypoglycemia
d.) Thyrotoxicosis
The correct answer is: b.) Diabetes mellitus

161. Which is NOT a clinical presentation of diabetic ketoacidosis in the early stages?
a.) Decreased hunger
b.) Malaise
c.) Increased thirst
d.) Increased urination
The correct answer is: a.) Decreased hunger

162. What type of vision does a person suffering from a hypoglycemic episode present with?
a.) Double
b.) Single
c.) Bright
d.) Dim

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The correct answer is: a.) Double

163.Which type of diabetes mellitus requires a daily dose of insulin?

a.) III
b.) I
c.) II
d.) IV
The correct answer is: b.) I

164. What sign does NOT help to determine that a patient is in ketoacidosis?
a.) Nausea and vomiting
b.) Kussmaul's respirations
c.) Foul smell on the breath
d.) Weakness
The correct answer is: c.) Foul smell on the breath

165. Which regulates the amount of calcium in the body?

a.) Gonad
b.) Adrenal gland
c.) Pancreas
d.) Parathyroid
The correct answer is: d.) Parathyroid

166. How many milliliters of 50 percent dextrose should be administered by IV to a patient with a blood glucose reading
of less than 60 mg/dl?
a.) 150-200
b.) 100-150
c.) 200-250
d.) 50-100
The correct answer is d.) 50-100

167. What is a series of two or more generalized motor seizures without any intervening periods of consciousness that
can be life threatening due to period of apnea?
a.) Status epilepticus
b.) Cerebrovascular accident
c.) Korsakoff's psychosis
d.) Transient ischemic attack
The correct answer is: a.) Status epilepticus

168. Which type of posture is characteristic of a patient with a lesion at or above the upper brainstem?
a.) Korsakoff
b.) Decerebrate
c.) Glasgow coma
d.) Decorticate
The correct answer is: d.) Decorticate

169. What is the pediatric dosage for Naloxone?

a.) 0.01 mg/kg
b.) 0.03 mg/kg
c.) 0.07 mg/kg
d.) 0.05 mg/kg
The correct answer is: a.) 0.01 mg/kg

Page 26 of 45
170. Which type of peripheral nerve carries impulses to the skeletal muscles?
a.) Visceral motor
b.) Visceral sensory
c.) Somatic motor
d.) Somatic sensory
The correct answer is: c.) Somatic motor

171. Which item is NOT part of the Glasgow coma scale?

a.) Motor response
b.) Eye opening
c.) Breathing
d.) Verbal response
The correct answer is: c.) Breathing

172. Which is a characteristic of a seizure?

a.) Usually begins in a standing position
b.) Patient remembers a warning beforehand
c.) Results in jerking during unconsciousness
d.) Patient regains consciousness when suspine
The correct answer is: c.) Results in jerking during unconsciousness

173. In a stroke patient with unequal pupils, which eye will have the larger pupil?
a.) Both eyes will be large
b.) The pupils are always pinpoint
c.) Side of the hemorrhage
d.) Side opposite the hemorrhage
The correct answer is: c.) Side of the hemorrhage

174. Which type of CNS cause is metabolic in nature?

a.) Anoxia
b.) Shock
c.) Trauma
d.) COPD
The correct answer is: a.) Anoxia

175. What is the adult dosage of Thiamine?

a.) 300 mg
b.) 200 mg
c.) 400 mg
d.) 100 mg
The correct answer is: d.) 100 mg

176. Which type of breathing pattern is characterized by ineffective thoracic muscular coordination?
a.) Central neurogenic
b.) Ataxic
c.) Apneustic
d.) Cheyne-Stokes
The correct answer is: b.) Ataxic

177. What is helpful to reduce the intracranial pressure?

a.) Hyperventilation
b.) Hypoventilation

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c.) Hyperadministration
d.) Hypoadministration
The correct answer is: a.) Hyperventilation

178. Which is the most common cause of a seizure?

a.) Hypoxia
b.) Sudden elevation of temperature
c.) Idiopathic epilepsy
d.) Vascular disorder
The correct answer is: c.) Idiopathic epilepsy

179. What can be an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure?

a.) Blood pressure
b.) Spinal alignment
c.) Respiratory rate
d.) Pupil size
The correct answer is: d.) Pupil size

180. Which of the following vital signs is the only one that is increased in a patient with increased intracranial pressure?
a.) LOC
b.) Blood pressure
c.) Pulse
d.) Respirations
The correct answer is: b.) Blood pressure

181. Which type of seizure usually originates in the temporal lobe and is characterized by an aura and alterations in
mood?
a.) Hysterical
b.) Grand mal
c.) Psychomotor
d.) Petit mal
The correct answer is: c.) Psychomotor

182. What is the first priority when assessing a patient with a possible CNS injury?
a.) Draw blood and determine blood glucose
b.) Immobilize the cervical spine
c.) Secure the patient's airway
d.) Monitor the cardiac rhythm
The correct answer is: b.) Immobilize the cervical spine

183. Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling respiration, cardiac activity, and vasomotor activity?
a.) Medulla oblongata
b.) Pons
c.) Brainstem
d.) Cerebrum
The correct answer is: a.) Medulla oblongata

184. Which usually implies the patient has sustained a structural brainstem injury?
a.) Motor findings
b.) Respiratory patterns
c.) Dysconjugate gaze
d.) Constriction of the pupils
The correct answer is: c.) Dysconjugate gaze

Page 28 of 45
185. Which is NOT considered a common symptom of a transient ischemic attack?
a.) Aphasia
b.) Numbness
c.) Staggering
d.) Hypersensitivity
The correct answer is: d.) Hypersensitivity

186. What part of the brain governs all sensory and motor actions?
a.) Cerebrum
b.) Medulla oblongata
c.) Midbrain
d.) Cerebellum
The correct answer is: a.) Cerebrum

187. Which part of the nervous system controls the involuntary bodily functions?
a.) Autonomic
b.) Sympathetic
c.) Parasympathetic
d.) Central
The correct answer is: a.) Autonomic

188. Which type of stroke generally occurs while the patient is asleep?
a.) Embolic
b.) Intracerebral
c.) Transient
d.) Thrombotic
The correct answer is: d.) Thrombotic

189. Which nerve fibers carry impulses from the body to the brain?
a.) Afferent
b.) Efferent
c.) Dermatome
d.) Midbrain
The correct answer is: a.) Afferent

190. Which question should be asked if the neurological emergency is due to a trauma?
a.) Was any loss of consciousness?
b.) Have these symptoms occurred before?
c.) What is the chief complaint?
d.) Is the a pertinent underlying medical problem?
The correct answer is: a.) Was any loss of consciousness?

191. How many systems supply the brain with blood?

a.) 4
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 1
The correct answer is: b.) 2

192. What is the nerve cell called?

a.) Atom

Page 29 of 45
b.) Neuron
c.) Nucleus
d.) Proton
The correct answer is: b.) Neuron

193. Which item is NOT a principle treatment of a simple seizure?

a.) Establish IV line
b.) Airway maintenance
c.) Protect patient from injury
d.) Administer supplemental oxygen
The correct answer is: a.) Establish IV line

194. How many degrees should the patient's head be elevated if they have suffered a CVA or TIA?
a.) 15
b.) 35
c.) 25
d.) 45
The correct answer is: a.) 15

195. What protects most of the central nervous system?

a.) Musculature
b.) Thick tissue
c.) Fluid filled cavities
d.) Bony structures
The correct answer is: d.) Bony structures

196. What is the space outside of the dura mater called?

a.) Subdural
b.) Epiarachnoid
c.) Epidural
d.) Subarachnoid
The correct answer is: c.) Epidural

197. During which phase of a grand mal seizure is the patient confused and fatigued?
a.) Clonic
b.) Hypertonic
c.) Postictal
d.) Aura
The correct answer is: c.) Postictal

198. Which is the most serious male reproductive system emergency?

a.) Mittelschmerz
b.) Prostatitis
c.) Epididymitis
d.) Testicular torsion
The correct answer is: d.) Testicular torsion

199. What is contraction of the abdominal muscles in response to severe abdominal pain?
a.) Protecting
b.) Acute abdomen
c.) Guarding
d.) Watching

Page 30 of 45
The correct answer is: c.) Guarding

200. Which is a solid organ within the abdomen?

a.) Gall bladder
b.) Liver
c.) Ureters
d.) Stomach
The correct answer is b.) Liver

201. What connects the bladder to the outside of the body?

a.) Urethra
b.) Ureters
c.) Urinary bladder
d.) Kidneys
The correct answer is a.) Urethra

202. What should be done if a pulsatile mass when palpating a patient's abdomen?
a.) Complete the exam and transport
b.) Stop the exam and immediately transport
c.) Complete the exam and start treatment
d.) Stop the exam and maintain pressure
The correct answer is b.) Stop the exam and immediately transport

203. Which type of treatment is NOT necessary in a patient who has abdominal pain but no signs of hemorrhage?
a.) Monitor vital signs
b.) Administer high-flow oxygen
c.) Keep the patient suspine
d.) Provide immediate transport

The correct answer is b.) Administer high-flow oxygen

204. What is cut to perform a vasectomy?

a.) Epididymis
b.) Urethra
c.) Vans deferens
d.) Testes
The correct answer is c.) Vans deferens

205. With which condition does abdominal pain accompany ovulation?

a.) Pelvic inflammatory disease
b.) Mittelschmerz
c.) Ovarian cyst
d.) Ectopic pregnancy
The correct answer is b.) Mittelschmerz

206. What is the superior part of the uterus called?

a.) Introitus
b.) Cervix
c.) Fundus
d.) Prepuce
The correct answer is c.) Fundus

207. Where does an upper GI hemorrhage originate?

Page 31 of 45
a.) Colon
b.) Rectum
c.) Distal small intestine
d.) Esophagus
The correct answer is d.) Esophagus

208. What location is the major site of digestion and absorption?

a.) Stomach
b.) Esophagus
c.) Pancreas
d.) Intestine
The correct answer is d.) Intestine

209. Which condition is an infection of the kidney?

a.) Urinary tract infection
b.) Renal failure
c.) Pyelonephritis
d.) Kidney stone
The correct answer is c.) Pyelonephritis

210. Which is NOT a cause of hypotension in a patient who has undergone dialysis?
a.) Potassium intoxication
b.) Blood loss
c.) Dehydration
d.) Sepsis
The correct answer is a.) Potassium intoxication

211. Which condition is an inflammation of the lining of the stomach?

a.) Peptic ulcer
b.) Diverticulitis
c.) Gastritis
d.) Appendicitis
The correct answer is c.) Gastritis

212. What system collects blood from parts of the abdominal viscera and transports it to the liver?
a.) Liberal
b.) Transport
c.) Portal
d.) Jump
The correct answer is c.) Portal

213. Which location should NOT be used to start an IV in a dialysis patient with a shunt in the left arm?
a.) Left leg
b.) Left arm
c.) Right arm
d.) Right leg
The correct answer is b.) Left arm

214. What is the medical procedure that removes waste products with a machine that are normally removed by the
kidneys?

Page 32 of 45
a.) Hemodialysis
b.) Dialysate
c.) Hemorrhaging
d.) Hematuria
The correct answer is a.) Hemodialysis

215. Which condition is frequently associated with chronic alcohol consumption?

a.) Aortic aneurysm
b.) Hepatitis
c.) Pancreatitis
d.) Cholecystitis
The correct answer is c.) Pancreatitis

216. Which is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?

a.) Impacted fecal matter
b.) Prior abdominal surgery
c.) Ingested foreign bodies
d.) Tumors

The correct answer is b.) Prior abdominal surgery

217. Which is NOT part of chronic renal failure presentation?

a.) Uremic pericarditis
b.) Fluid overload
c.) Increased calcium levels
d.) Pericardial tamponade
The correct answer is c.) Increased calcium levels

218. Which antibody responds immediately?

a.) IgA
b.) IgD
c.) IgM
d.) IgG
The correct answer is c.) IgM

219. What is the initial exposure of a person to an antigen that results in an immune response?
a.) Antigenization
b.) Sensitization
c.) Allergic reaction
d.) Hypersensitization
The correct answer is b.) Sensitization

220. Which is the most frequently used beta agonist used to treat the bronchospasms that can accompany an allergic
reaction?
a.) Albuterol
b.) Atarax
c.) Hydroxyzine
d.) Vistaril
The correct answer is a.) Albuterol

221. What is the second line drug for treating allergic reactions?
a.) Methylprednisolone

Page 33 of 45
b.) Diphenhydramine
c.) Epinephrine
d.) Albuterol
The correct answer is b.) Diphenhydramine

222. Which is NOT a principle body system affected by anaphylaxis?

a.) Respiratory system
b.) Nervous system
c.) Skin
d.) Skeletal system
The correct answer is d.) Skeletal system

223. Which is the most common manifestation of anaphylaxis?

a.) Itching
b.) Laryngeal edema
c.) Vasodilation
d.) Dizziness
The correct answer is a.) Itching

224. What is a product of mast cells and basophiles that causes vasodilation, capillary permeability, bronchoconstriction,
and contraction of the gut?
a.) Allergy
b.) Atopy
c.) Itching
d.) Allergan
The correct answer is c.) Itching

225. What is the primary drug for treating anaphylaxis?

a.) Albuterol
b.) Epinephrine
c.) Methylprednisolone
d.) Diphenhydramine
The correct answer is b.) Epinephrine

226. Which item is NOT part of the secondary assessment of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis?
a.) Hives or skin rash
b.) Nausea or vomiting
c.) Patent airway
d.) Peripheral pulses
The correct answer is c.) Patent airway

227. What percentage of pit viper snake bite deaths occur within 48 hours after the bite?
a.) 100%
b.) 80%
c.) 70%
d.) 90%
The correct answer is d.) 90%

228. How long after being bitten by a coral snake can symptoms start?
a.) 36-48 hours
b.) 48-72 hours

Page 34 of 45
c.) 12-24 hours
d.) 24-36 hours
The correct answer is c.) 12-24 hours

229. Which is the most common route of entry for toxic exposures?
a.) Ingestion
b.) Absorption
c.) Inhalation
d.) Injection
The correct answer is a.) Ingestion

230. What is a substance that neutralizes a poison?

a.) Antidote
b.) Allergan
c.) Venom
d.) Poison
The correct answer is a.) Antidote

231. Which type of food poisoning can be fatal?

a.) Botulism
b.) E. coli
c.) Salmonella
d.) Shigella
The correct answer is a.) Botulism

232. Which group contains animals were both the male and female sting or bite?
a.) Bees
b.) Hornets
c.) Spiders
d.) Yellow jackets
The correct answer is c.) Spiders

233. How can the gag reflex be checked for?

a.) Place pen in the mouth
b.) Snap next to the ear
c.) Palpate the jugular vein
d.) Brush the eye lashes
The correct answer is d.) Brush the eye lashes

234. Which is characteristic of an allergic reaction to a bee sting?

a.) Hypotension
b.) Swelling
c.) Localized pain
d.) Redness
The correct answer is a.) Hypotension

235. Where should a band be tied when a scorpion sting is being treated?
a.) On top of
b.) Above
c.) Next to
d.) Below

Page 35 of 45
The correct answer is b.) Above

236. When dealing with which type of inhaled poison agent should sparks be avoided?
a.) Carbon monoxide
b.) Methylene chloride
c.) Ammonia
d.) Cyanide
The correct answer is b.) Methylene chloride

237. What does NOT pertain to the skin of a patient that has been poisoned?
a.) Pallor
b.) Needle marks
c.) Syanosis
d.) Hives
The correct answer is d.) Hives

238. How long after being bitten by a brown recluse does localized swelling appear?
a.) 2-8 minutes
b.) 2-8 days
c.) 2-8 hours
d.) 2-8 weeks
The correct answer is c.) 2-8 hours

239. What acronym can be used to remember the presentation of organophosphate poisoning?
a.) DRUDGE
b.) SLUDGE
c.) PUDGE
d.) MUDGE
The correct answer is b.) SLUDGE

240. How long after ingestion is alcohol absorbed from the stomach and intestinal tract?
a.) 120-210 minutes
b.) 60-150 minutes
c.) 30-120 minutes
d.) 90-180 minutes
The correct answer is c.) 30-120 minutes

241. Which is a general principle of poisoning management?

a.) Limit absorption
b.) Limit elimination
c.) Increase response
d.) Increase ingestion
The correct answer is a.) Limit absorption

242. Which poison should have vomiting induced?

a.) Heavy metals
b.) Hydrochloric acid
c.) Antiemetics
d.) Hydrocarbons
The correct answer is a.) Heavy metals

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243. What is the recommended dosage of atropine sulfate for an adult who has been exposed to organophosphates?
a.) 2-5 mg every 5-10 minutes
b.) 5-10 mg every 2-5 minutes
c.) 2-5 mg every 10-15 minutes
d.) 10-15 mg every 2-5 minutes
The correct answer is c.) 2-5 mg every 10-15 minutes

244. Which is NOT an extrapyramidal effect?

a.) Difficulty speaking due to a "thick" tongue
b.) Head deviation to one side or the other
c.) Hip deviation
d.) Involuntary arm or leg twitching/jerking
The correct answer is c.) Hip deviation

245. When is it acceptable to induce vomiting in a patient that has ingested an antiemetic?
a.) Ingestion was less than 30 minutes ago
b.) Ingestion was less than 45 minutes ago
c.) Ingestion was less than 75 minutes ago
d.) Ingestion was less than 60 minutes ago
The correct answer is a.) Ingestion was less than 30 minutes ago

246. Where are muscle spasms common in a patient that has been bitten by a black widow spider?
a.) Face
b.) Back
c.) Leg
d.) Arm
The correct answer is b.) Back

247. What timeframe after poison ingestion is it possible that poison control will recommend inducing vomiting before
arriving at the hospital?
a.) 75-105 minutes
b.) 45-75 minutes
c.) 60-90 minutes
d.) 30-60 minutes
The correct answer is c.) 60-90 minutes

248. What should NOT be done when treating a patient that has been bitten by a pit viper?
a.) Transport to ED
b.) Start IV with crystalloid fluid
c.) Apply high-flow oxygen
d.) Apply electrical stimulation
The correct answer is d.) Apply electrical stimulation

249. What can be used to relieve the pain of and inactivate the venom of marine animal injection?
a.) Light
b.) Dark
c.) Cold
d.) Heat
The correct answer is d.) Heat

Page 37 of 45
250. Which is NOT part of the general alcoholic profile?
a.) Cigarette burns on clothing
b.) Chronically pale face and palms
c.) Tremulousness
d.) Drinks early in the day
The correct answer is b.) Chronically pale face and palms

251. What percentage of all attempted suicides involve a drug overdose?

a.) 75%
b.) 95%
c.) 60%
d.) 80%
The correct answer is d.) 80%

252. Which is NOT considered a consequence of chronic alcoholism?

a.) Poor nutrition
b.) Hyperglycemia
c.) Pancreatitis
d.) Rib fractures
The correct answer is b.) Hyperglycemia

253. Which route of poisoning occurs through a break in the skin?

a.) Injection
b.) Inhalation
c.) Ingestion
d.) Absorption
The correct answer is a.) Injection

254. Which is NOT a sign of cyanide poisoning?

a.) Pulmonary edema
b.) Hypertension and tachycardia
c.) Sweet smell on the breath
d.) Headache, combative behavior
The correct answer is c.) Sweet smell on the breath

255. Which area of the body is involved in the coarse tremors associated with the withdrawal syndrome of an alcoholic?
a.) Throat
b.) Feet
c.) Chin
d.) Tongue
The correct answer is d.) Tongue

256. Which is a sign of carbon monoxide poisoning?

a.) Altered mental status
b.) Bradycardia
c.) Seizures
d.) Respiratory collapse
The correct answer is a.) Altered mental status

257. Which is NOT a symptom of a coral snake bite?

a.) Localized numbness
b.) Sweating and/or chills

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c.) Loss of consciousness
d.) Respiratory failure
The correct answer is b.) Sweating and/or chills

258. What is the first priority when treating patients who have inhaled toxic gases?
a.) Perform primary assessment
b.) Administer CPR if needed
c.) Establish and maintain airway
d.) Removal from the environment
The correct answer is d.) Removal from the environment

259. Which is a sedative that can cause respiratory depression?

a.) Serax
b.) Halcion
c.) Xanax
d.) Valium
The correct answer is c.) Xanax

260. Which is NOT a sign of methanol poisoning?

a.) Abdominal pain
b.) Apparent signs of intoxication
c.) Renal damage
d.) Nausea, vomiting
The correct answer is c.) Renal damage

261. When does delirium tremens occur after alcohol cessation begins?
a.) 36-48 hours
b.) 48-72 hours
c.) 24-36 hours
d.) 72-90 hours
The correct answer is b.) 48-72 hours

262. What is the average incubation period for HIV?

a.) 2 years
b.) 4 years
c.) 8 years
d.) 10 years
The correct answer is a.) 2 years

263. How long is the incubation period for tuberculosis?

a.) 8-16 weeks
b.) 4-12 weeks
c.) 10-18 weeks
d.) 6-14 weeks
The correct answer is b.) 4-12 weeks

264. Who should be wearing a mask if the patient is suspected of having tuberculosis?
a.) Both patient and paramedic
b.) Paramedic only
c.) No one needs a mask
d.) Patient only

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The correct answer is a.) Both patient and paramedic

265. What is an infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord?
a.) Tuberculosis
b.) Hepatitis
c.) Scabies
d.) Meningitis
The correct answer is d.) Meningitis

266. Which type of infection causing agent are present throughout the environment and are smaller than red blood
cells?
a.) Parasites
b.) Viruses
c.) Bacteria
d.) Fungi
The correct answer is c.) Bacteria

267. What is the incubation period of chicken pox?

a.) 21-32 days
b.) 1-12 days
c.) 10-21 days
d.) 32-43 days
The correct answer is c.) 10-21 days

268. When performing endotracheal intubation, which piece of protective equipment is NOT required as a basic item for
infection control?
a.) Disposable gloves
b.) Mask
c.) Protective eyewear
d.) Gown
The correct answer is d.) Gown

269. Which type of hepatitis is most severe and presents with a high level of jaundice?
a.) A
b.) E
c.) C
d.) B
The correct answer is d.) B

270. How should contaminated sharps be disposed of?

a.) Remove the needle from the syringe
b.) Bend the needle and place in bag
c.) Recap the needle and put in trashcan
d.) Place in puncture-resistant container
The correct answer is d.) Place in puncture-resistant container

271. What are most infectious diseases caused by?

a.) Fungi
b.) Viruses
c.) Bacteria
d.) Parasites
The correct answer is b.) Viruses

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272. Which stage of syphilis can be fatal if left untreated?
a.) Secondary
b.) Primary
c.) Tertiary
d.) Dorsalary
The correct answer is c.) Tertiary

273. Which bodily fluid is theoretically able to transmit HIV?

a.) Vaginal secretions
b.) Blood
c.) Cerebrospinal fluid
d.) Breast milk
The correct answer is d.) Breast milk

274. What is the strength or ability of an organism to infect the body?

a.) Dosage
b.) Transmission
c.) Virulence
d.) Host resistance
The correct answer is c.) Virulence

275. How long should an item be placed in an EPA-approved sterilizing agent?

a.) 10-14 hours
b.) 2-6 hours
c.) 6-10 hours
d.) 14-18 hours
The correct answer is c.) 6-10 hours

276. Which type of herpes simplex is responsible for "cold sores"?

a.) Type IV
b.) Type I
c.) Type II
d.) Type III
The correct answer is b.) Type I

277. Which is the most common form of hepatitis?

a.) C
b.) D
c.) B
d.) A
The correct answer is d.) A

278. When should the paramedic's hands be washed?

a.) After the paperwork is completed
b.) Immediately after patient contact
c.) When there is a chance to stop
d.) Before and after each shift
The correct answer is b.) Immediately after patient contact

279. What are protein complexes produced by the immune system in response to the proteins on the
surface of bacteria?
a.) Antigens
b.) Allergans
c.) Antibodies
d.) Antibiotics
The correct answer is c.) Antibodies

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280. What is it called when a person has been exposed to a disease and develops antibodies to it?
a.) Seroconversion
b.) Incubation period
c.) Infection
d.) Window phase
The correct answer is a.) Seroconversion

281. Which level of decontamination can only destroy most bacteria and some viruses?
a.) Intermediate-level
b.) Sterilization
c.) Low-level
d.) High-level
The correct answer is c.) Low-level

282. What is the target temperature (degrees Fahrenheit) of a patient suffering from heat stroke?
a.) 103
b.) 105
c.) 102
d.) 104
The correct answer is c.) 102

283. Which condition is characterized by a temperature over 106 degrees Fahrenheit and is generally NOT
seen outside of the hospital setting?
a.) Hyperthermia
b.) Pyrogena
c.) Pyrexia
d.) Hyperpyrexia
The correct answer is d.) Hyperpyrexia

284. What condition can result if water intake exceeds water loss in a hot environment?
a.) Water exhaustion
b.) Heat cramps
c.) Water intoxication
d.) Heat stroke
The correct answer is c.) Water intoxication

285. How often should pulse and respirations be assessed in a patient with severe hypothermia?
a.) 4-5 minutes
b.) 1-2 minutes
c.) 3-4 minutes
d.) 2-3 minutes
The correct answer is b.) 1-2 minutes

286. What is contraindicated when treating a drown victim?

a.) 100% oxygen
b.) Long backboard
c.) Heimlich maneuver
d.) CPR
The correct answer is c.) Heimlich maneuver

287. Which is NOT generally a location that heat cramps occur?

a.) Abdominal muscles
b.) Fingers
c.) Back muscles
d.) Arms

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The correct answer is c.) Back muscles

288. Where does barotrauma occur during a dive?

a.) During descent
b.) On the bottom
c.) While swimming
d.) On the surface
The correct answer is a.) During descent

289. What is the production of heat, especially within the body?

a.) Thermodynamics
b.) Thermoambient
c.) Thermogenesis
d.) Thermogradient
The correct answer is c.) Thermogenesis

290. How long after submersion will the victim attempt to keep their head above water due to an involuntary reflex?
a.) 3 minutes
b.) 7 minutes
c.) 5 minutes
d.) 9 minutes
The correct answer is a.) 3 minutes

291. Which is NOT a symptom of an air embolism?

a.) Sharp, tearing pain
b.) Narrow pulse pressure
c.) Pulmonary collapse
d.) Unequal pupils
The correct answer is b.) Narrow pulse pressure

292. Which should NOT be administered when treating a patient with decompression sickness?
a.) Ringer's lactate
b.) 5 percent dextrose in water
c.) Normal saline
d.) 5 percent dextrose in normal saline
The correct answer is b.) 5 percent dextrose in water

293. Which is NOT generally seen as a symptom of Type I decompression sickness?

a.) Chest pain
b.) Pruritus
c.) Extremity pain
d.) Pitting edema
The correct answer is a.) Chest pain

294. Which is NOT considered part of the treatment of frostbite?

a.) Cover with loose, dry, sterile bandages
b.) Administer analgesia prior to thawing
c.) Elevate the thawed part
d.) Immerse in water between 70-90 degrees Fahrenheit
The correct answer is d.) Immerse in water between 70-90 degrees Fahrenheit

295. Which is considered an indirect effect of decompression sickness?

a.) Blood flow will be decreased
b.) Vertigo can occur

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c.) Tissues are displaced
d.) Plasma loss causing edema
The correct answer is d.) Plasma loss causing edema

296. Which procedure is NOT necessary when warming a patient with mild/moderate hypothermia?
a.) Monitor the cardiac rhythm
b.) Remove all wet clothes
c.) Administer warmed oxygen
d.) Maintain horizontal position
The correct answer is c.) Administer warmed oxygen

297. What do most patients with mild to moderate hypothermia present with?
a.) Temperature less than 86 degrees Fahrenheit
b.) General disorientation
c.) Uncoordinated physical activity
d.) Shivering and mental dullness
The correct answer is d.) Shivering and mental dullness

298. After which type of ionizing radioactive accident is the patient no longer radioactive when
decontaminated?
a.) Clean
b.) Sanitary
c.) Filthy
d.) Dirty
The correct answer is a.) Clean

299. Which area of the body does the most serious barotraumas affect?
a.) Lung
b.) Legs
c.) Brain
d.) Heart
The correct answer is a.) Lung

300. Which law states that the amount of gas dissolved in a given volume of fluid is proportional to the pressure of the
gas with which it is in equilibrium?
a.) Frank's Law
b.) Boyle's Law
c.) Charlie's Law
d.) Henry's Law
The correct answer is d.) Henry's Law

301. What is the cutoff percentage of humidity that the body can effectively reduce heat via perspiration?
a.) 75%
b.) 45%
c.) 55%
d.) 65%
The correct answer is a.) 75%

302. Which type of radioactive substance can be stopped by paper or clothing?

a.) Neutrons
b.) Alpha particles
c.) Gamma rays
d.) Beta particles
The correct answer is b.) Alpha particles

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303. Which is NOT a basic principle in limiting the exposure of rescue personnel to ionizing radiation?
a.) Shielding
b.) Topography
c.) Time
d.) Distance
The correct answer is b.) Topography

304. Which type of heat loss occurs as air currents pass over the body?
a.) Evaporation
b.) Radiation
c.) Conduction
d.) Convection
The correct answer is d.) Convection

305. After what timeframe of being submersed under cold water is the resuscitation rate poor?
a.) 15 minutes
b.) 30 minutes
c.) 60 minutes
d.) 45 minutes
The correct answer is c.) 60 minutes

306. What prevents death in some near-drowning victims?

a.) Swallowing reflex
b.) Laryngospams
c.) Hypoxia
d.) Bronchospams
The correct answer is b.) Laryngospasms

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