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Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 1

Answer all questions.

1. Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life?

a. Cobalt 60
b. Iridium 192.
c. Ytterbium 169.
d. Selenium 75.

2. The half-life of an isotope is dependent upon:

a. The source to film distance.

b. The initial intensity of the isotope.
c. The physical size of the isotope.
d. The isotope type.
e. All of the above

3. If an exposure time of 2 minutes were necessary using a 3 metre source-to-film distance for a
particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 6 metre source-to-film distance is used
and all other variables remain the same?

a. 12 minutes.
b. 4 minutes.
c. 8 minutes.
d. 6 minutes.

4. If we start with 50 curies of Co60, what will the activity be at the end of 15.9 years?

a. 12.5 curies.
b. 6.25 curies.
c. 3.125 curies.
d. 1.75 curies.

5. The number 60 in cobalt 60 is:

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a. The number of neutrons added to the number of protons.

b. The number of neutrons only.
c. The number of protons only.
d. Dictates the element type

6. Ytterbium 169 is a gamma source which:

a. Produces relatively good quality radiographs at the correct exposure when compared
with radiographs produced with Ir192.
b. Produces very short wave length radiation.
c. Is generally used a materials over 30 mm in thickness.
d. All of the above.

7. From an exposure chart for a ffd of 1 m, an exposure time of 12 minutes is indicated. What
will the new exposure time be at 600 mm?

a. 2.3 minutes.
b. 4.3 minutes.
c. 8 minutes.
d. 23 minutes.

8. What is the relationship between gigabecquerels and

curies? a. 3.7 1010 GBq = 1 Ci

b. 2.7 1010 GBq = 1 Ci
c. 37 GBq = 1 Ci
d. 109 GBq = 1 Ci

9. X-ray and gamma rays are types of:

a. Electromagnetic and ionising radiation.

b. Electromagnetic and corpuscular radiation.
c. Ionising and corpuscular radiation.
d. All of the above.

10. If it were necessary to radiograph a 7-inch thick steel product, which of the following
gamma ray sources would most likely be used?

a. Co60.
b. Ir192.
c. Ce137
d. Yb169.

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10. Which of the following defects are likely to be missed using x-ray as the inspection medium?

a. Plate laminations, lack of side wall fusion on a single U butt weld and cap overlap.
b. Toe cracks, plate laminations and lack of side wall fusion on a single U butt weld.
c. Plat laminations, lack of inter run fusion using the MIG/MAG welding process and
cap overlap.
d. All defects are always detected using x-rays.

12. Which of the following is the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on a
radiograph taken of a single V butt weld?

a. A dark straight line with a light root.

b. A dark straight line with a root of higher density.
c. A dark root with straight edges.
d. A dark uneven line with a light root.

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13. Which of the following defects would show up as light indications?

a. Copper inclusions, slag inclusions and excessive root penetration.

b. Tungsten inclusions, spatter and lack of root penetration.
c. Tungsten inclusions, excessive root penetration and spatter.
d. Excessive cap height, copper inclusions and underflushing.

14. If an exposure time of 3 minutes and 30 seconds were necessary using a 5-metre source to film
distance for a particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 3-metre source to film
distance is used and all other variables remain the same?

a. 1 minute 43 seconds.
b. 1 minute 15 seconds.
c. 65 minutes 12 seconds.
d. 2 minutes 55 seconds.

15. The part of an atom, which carries a positive charge, is called?

a. Positron.
b. Neutron.
c. Proton.
d. Electron.

16. A radiograph shows a single, dark parallel indication with straight edges, down the centre of
the weld area. What is the probable defect?

a. Misalignment.
b. Cap undercut.
c. Lack of root penetration.
d. Lack of root fusion.

Incomplete Penetration (IP) or lack of penetration (LOP)Lack of penetration allows a natural stress riser
from which a crack may propagate. The appearance on a radiograph is a dark area with well defined,
straight edges that follows the land or root face down the center of the weldment.

17. Which of the following gamma sources would be preferred for radiography of an 6 mm
thick weld, single wall technique, a good quality radiograph is required:

a. Co60.
b. Ir192.
c. Yb169.
d. Tm170.

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18. Cold lap in a weld is a commonly used definition for which of the following?

a. Undercut.
b. Hydrogen cracking.
c. Lack of side wall fusion.
d. Lack of fusion at the weld toes.

19. Which of the following defects would not be expected in a weld made by the
MIG/MAG welding process (solid wire)?

a. Porosity.
b. Undercut.
c. Slag inclusions.
d. Lack of root fusion.

20. Which of the following weld defects would show up on a radiograph as, a dark irregular line
of various thickness running along the edge of the cap or the root?

a. Undercut
b. Lack of fusion, root or cap.
c. Slag inclusions.
d. All of the above could appear as above.

21. A good cobalt radiograph is made on a 30-inch steel weld using an exposure time of 10 minutes
and a source to film distance of 36 inches. It is necessary to change the source to film distance
to 24 inch, what exposure time would be used to produce a similar radiograph if all other
considerations remain the same?

a. 1 minute 36 seconds.
b. 4 minute 26 seconds.
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c. 4 minute 40 seconds.
d. 5 minutes.

22. After a period of 296 days the activity of an iridium 192 source, activity 400 Gbq would be:

a. 100 Gbq.
b. 50 Gbq.
c. 25 Gbq.
d. 12.5 Gbq.

23. If an iridium 192 isotope 1200 GBq activity, what would be its activity be after 370 days?

a. 1.0 curies.
b. 2.0 curies.
c. 10.0 curies.
d. 10 Bq.

24. Which of the following are reasons for insufficient density on a radiograph?

a. Over development and insufficient final wash.

b. Low kilovoltage and excessive exposure times.
c. Developer temperature to low and under exposure.
d. Under development and developer temperature to high.

25. Exposure time is directly proportional to

a. Film to focus distance.

b. Intensity.
c. Wavelength.
d. All of the above.

26. The welding process which is most suited to the joining of thin plate materials such
as aluminium, copper, stainless steel:

a. Flux core MAG.

b. MMA.
c. Sub-arc.
d. TIG/TAG.

27. The wave length of an x-ray radiation beam affects which of the following?

a. The quantity of x-rays produced.

b. The quality of x-rays produced.
c. The amount of development time required.
d. All of the above.

28. Isotopes of a single element differ only in the number of:

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a. Protons.
b. Neutrons.
c. Electrons.
d. Positrons.

29. Which of the following units is used for measuring the amount of absorbed dose?

a. Sievert.
b. Rem.
c. Roentgen.
d. Gray.

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30. The penetrating ability of an x-ray beam is governed by:

a. The intensity of the beam.

b. The wave length of the beam.
c. The thickness of the material under test.
d. All of the above

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Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 2

Answer all questions.

1. The effective focal spot size is affected by?

a. The f.f.d and o.f.d.

b. The total area of the tungsten target.
c. The angle of the tungsten target
d. The distance between the anode and specimen.

2. In order to reduce penumbra (Ug):

a. The object could be made artificially thicker.

b. The radiation should proceed through a large focal spot size.
c. The film should be placed as far from the object as possible.
d. The distance from the radiation source to film should be as long as practicable

3. If it is required to increase definition a large source size can be compensated by:

a. Increasing the source to specimen distance.

b. Addition of lead screens.
c. Increasing the specimen to film distance.
d. Increasing penumbra.

4. Which of the following will have no effect on film contrast

a. Wave length of radiation used

b. Film density
c. Film type.
d. All of the above will effect film contrast

5. When producing radiographs with x-ray equipment, if the KV’s are increased:

a. The radiographic contrast reduces

b. The subject contrast increases.
c. The film contrast increases
d. The film contrast reduces
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6. Movement, geometry and screen contact are three factors, which affect:
a. Contrast.
b. Definition.
c. Density.
d. All of the above

7. Two different isotopes of the same activity:

a. Will produce different wave lengths

b. Will produce the same quality radiographs.
c. Will produce the same intensity of radiation.
d. All of the above

8. A good quality radiograph is produced using the following exposure conditions, 4 minutes at 3
mA. What exposure time would be needed if the mA were reduced to 2 mA?

a. 6 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 2 minutes.
d. 4 minutes.

9. Why are radiographs of densities less than 1.5 and below usually rejected

a. Because the radiographic density is too high.

b. Because the subject contrast is too low regardless of the light density of the viewer.
c. Because the radiographic contrast is impaired.
d. Radiographs of these densities are not normally rejected.

10. Anodes are normally fitted with targets made from what material

a. Steel.
b. Lead.
c. Copper.
d. Tungsten.

11. The velocity of electrons striking the target in an x-ray tube is a function of?

a. The amount of mA used

b. The amount of KV’s used
c. The distance between the anode and cathode.
d. The target material.
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12. The purpose of circulating oil in some types of x-ray tubes is:

a. To dissipate heat.
b. For lubrication.
c. To reduce scatter radiation.
d. To reduce the current values.

13. If a 200mm f.f.d, 20mm o.f.d using a 4mm source size, it is calculated that the penumbra
value is 0.4mm. Assuming the source size and the o.f.d can not be altered what will be the
required
f.f.d to reduce the penumbra value to a level of 0.25mm?

a. 340mm
b. 251mm.
c. 288mm.
d. 388mm.

14. In an x-ray tube, the filament and focusing cup are two essential parts of the:

a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Control panel.
d. None of the above

15. An x-ray tube with a small focal spot size will produce radiographs with:

a. Better subject contrast

b. Better radiographic contrast.
c. Better definition
d. Improved density

16. A radiographic absorption of a material will become less dependent upon the materials
density and thickness when:

a. The kilovoltage is increased.

b. The kilovoltage is reduced.
c. The source to film distance is reduced.
d. The intensity of radiation is increased

17. Radiation of a single wave length is known as:

a. Real time radiation

b. Microscopic radiation
c. Heterogeneous radiation.
d. Monochromatic radiation.
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18. The properties of a material to block or partially block the passage of x-rays and gamma rays
is termed:

a. Absorption
b. Latitude.
c. Attenuation.
d. Penetration.

19. If the original exposure was 5 mA at 12 minutes, what would the new mA be for an
exposure time of 4 minutes?

a. 10 mA
b. 15 mA.
c. 18 mA.
d. 20 mA.

20. Which of the following has the shortest half life?

a. Yb 169.
b. Se 75.
c. Ir 192.
d. Co 60.

21. As x-ray energy increases wave length will:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change to the wave length.
d. Increase in beam width.

22. Approximately what is the thickness range of Ir 192?

a. 2mm to 12mm.
b. 50mm to 200mm.
c. 12mm to 80mm.
d. 10mm to 150mm.

23. Which of the following are reasons for setting the anode target at an angle?

a. To reduce exposure times.

b. To improve overall radiographic contrast.
c. To reduce actual focal spot size.
d. To reduce the effective focal spot size.
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24. At approximately what percentage of cobalt 60 isotope intensity will be lost after 2.5 years:

a. 50%.
b. 25%.
c 100%.
d. 75%.

25. Which of the following welding processes uses a none consumable electrode:

a. MAG.
b. MMA.
c. Sub-arc.
d. TIG/TAG.

26. Ytterbium 169 is an ideal isotope for thin materials because:

a. It produces hard radiation

b. It produces soft radiation.
c. It has got a high deterioration.
d. It produced short wave length radiation

27. Which of the following defects normally will not be detected by radiographic inspection:

a. Centre line cracking.

b. Lack of side wall fusion with associated slag.
c. Plate laminations (significant in area).
d. Cluster porosity.

28. Which of the following units is used to measure the activity of a radioactive isotope?

a. Curie.
b. Rem.
c. Rad.
d. Roentgen.

29. In an x-ray tube head the filament in the cathode is usually made from:

a. Copper.
b. Steel.
c. Tungsten.
d. Titanium.
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30. In welding which of the following processes is the most likely to cause slag inclusions?

a. MMA.
b. SAW.
c. TIG.
d. MAG.
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Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 3

Answer all questions.

1. The interval between the time the film is placed in the fixer solution and the time when
the original milky image disappears is known as:

a. The fixing time.

b. The clearing time.
c. The developing time
d. The development time

2. When carrying out radiography on a carbon steel butt weld using Ir192 as the source, how
many IQI wires must be visible on the radiograph for the technique to be acceptable in
most circumstances?

a. 5.
b. 3.
c. 7.
d. None of the above can be selected not enough information is given.

3. Images of discontinuities close to the source side of the specimen become less clearly
defined as:

a. Source to object distance increases.

b. The thickness of the specimen increases.
c. The size of the source decreases.
d. The thickness of the specimen reduces.

4. Radiographic films with larger grain size when compared to films with small grain sizes:

a. Will produce radiographs of a better quality

b. Will produce radiographs with a reduced quality
c. Will have slower film speeds
d. Will reduce development times

5. In most cases which of the following is applicable to the double wall double
image radiographic technique:

a. Should not be used on pipe diameters less than 100mm.

b. Should not be used on pipe diameters more than 100mm.
c. May be used on any pipe diameter providing the contrast is acceptable.
d. Should be used on plate butt welds.

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6. In most cases which of the following radiographic techniques will require the IQI to be placed
on the film side:

a. SWSI panoramic
b. DWSI
c. SWSI.
d. Both a and b.

7. Which of the following criteria are important considerations when selecting the correct IQI
to use?
a. The wire shall have a coefficient of absorption as close as possible to that of the
material under test.
b. The wire shall be made from the same material as the material under test.
c. The wire can be made from any material providing the desirable image quality is achieved.
d. The wire is always made from stainless steel to prevent rusting occurring.

8. Density is a logarithmic ratio of:

a. The transmitted light compared with light from the viewer.

b. The incident light divided by the transmitted light.
c. The light from the viewer divide by the incident light
d. The transmitted light multiplied by the incident light.

9. When struck by x-rays or gamma rays lead screens emit:

a. Electromagnetic energy.
b. Electrons.
c. Protons.
d. All of the above

10. The half value thickness of a material depends upon:

a. Exposure time.
b. The intensity of radiation used.
c. The wave length of radiation used.
d. All of the above.

11. When using the same light source, a film that transmits 1/10 of the incident light, another
film transmits 1/100 of the incident light, what is the density of the second film?

a. 2.0.
b. 4.0
c. 1.0
d. 100.
12. The welding process most suited to the joining of thin materials such as copper, stainless steel
and aluminium:

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a. MMA
b. SAW
c. TIG
d. FCAW

13. What is the IQI sensitivity if wire number 10 is visible using DIN 62 IQI series on
a panoramic shot 36 inch diameter vessel, 500mm f.f.d and a 30mm wall thickness?

a. 1.3%
b. 1.06%
c. 0.6
d. From the following information IQI sensitivity can not be calculated.

14. Lead foil in direct contact with x-ray film:

a. Intensifies the primary radiation.

b. Filters out scatter radiation.
c. Increases radiographic contrast.
d. All of the above

15. What is the amount of penumbra for the following conditions, size of source 4mm,
wall thickness 75nn, source to object distance 15m and exposure 28 mA minutes.

a. 0.2mm.
b. 0.02mm.
c. 2.0mm.
d. 2.1mm.

16. Which of the following radiographic techniques would be most likely used when carrying out
radiography on a 300mm diameter pipe to pipe weld (circumferential) with no internal
access?

a. DWDI.
b. DWSI.
c. SWSI (panoramic).
d. SWSI.

17. Under most conditions, which of the following would give a SWSI multiple image technique?

a. The radiographic examination of a plate butt weld over 40 metres in length

b. The radiographic examination of a pipes girth weld, full circumference less than
90mm diameter, no internal access.
c. The radiographic examination of a pipes girth weld, full circumference over
500mm diameter, both internal and external access.
d. The radiographic examination of the same conditions as for “c” but no internal access.

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18. A graph showing the relationship between material thickness, kilovoltage and exposure
is called a:

a. Characteristic curve.
b. Bar chart.
c. Exposure chart.
d. H and D curve.

19. Excessive exposure of a film to light before development of the film will most likely result in:

a. A fogged film
b. Yellow stains.
c. White streaks
d. Dark streaks.

20. Radiographic contrast is affected by:

a. The thickness of the specimen.

b. Scatter radiation.
c. The intensity of the radiation used.
d. Both a and b.

21. As x-ray energy decreases wave length will:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change to the wave length.
d. Increase in beam width.

22. Approximately what is the thickness range of Co 60?

a. 2mm to 12mm.
b. 50mm to 200mm.
c. 12mm to 80mm.
d. 10mm to 150mm.
23. Which of the following is naturally occurring radioisotope?

a. Iridium 192
b. Cobalt 60.
c. Radium 226.
d. Ytterbium 169.

24. A demsitometer is:

a. A meter used to measure x-ray intensity.

b. An instrument for measuring film density.

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c. A meter used to measure radiation exposure.

d. A meter used to measure current.

25. All most all radiography is performed with

a. Naturally occurring isotopes.

b. Artificially produced isotopes
c. Thulium 170
d. None of the above.

26. The time required for a one half of the atoms in a sample of radioactive material
to disintegrate is called:

a. The inverse square law.

b. The curies.
c. The half life.
d. The half value thickness.

27. The primary form of energy conversion produced when electrons strike a target in an x-ray
tube:

a. Secondary X-rays.
b. Primary x-rays.
c. Electrons.
d. Heat.

28. Scattered radiation from the floor or walls is referred to as:

a. Primary radiation
b. Reflected radiation.
c. Back scatter radiation
d. Particulate radiation.

29. The density difference between two selected areas of a radiograph is know as:

a. Radiographic contrast
b. Definition.
c. Film density.
d. Specific density.

30. The sharpness of an image at the edge of a density field is referred to as?

a. Definition
b. Subject contrast
c. Radiographic contrast
d. Film density.

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Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 4

Answer all questions.

1. What qualities would a radiograph of a 10mm thick steel weld possess if it had been
produced using a 30 Ci cobalt source exposed for over 5 minutes?

a. High contrast, when compared to a radiograph produced using a 10 Ci cobalt source.

b. It would have high density unless solarisation had taken place.
c. It would have high definition.
d. It would probably be blank.

2. Which of the following information can be obtained from a films characteristic curve?

a. Changing the exposure time if the f.f.d changes.

b. Determining the films definition.
c. Determining the film contrast
d. Determining the radiographic sensitivity.

3. The slop or steepness of a characteristic curve is a measure of:

a. Definition.
b. Film contrast.
c. Film speed.
d. Film sensitivity.

4. Ammonium thiosulphate and sodium thiosulphate are chemicals used in:

a. Fixers.
b. Developers.
c. Film emulsions
d. Stop baths

5. The use of salt intensifying screens instead of lead screens will:

a. Reduce development times.

b. Increase definition.
c. Increase radiographic contrast.
d. Reduce exposure times.

6. Mottling due to diffraction can be reduced and in some cases eliminated by:
a. Reducing the wavelength
b. Changing the radiation angle about 5o
c. Increasing the wavelength
d. Both a and b.

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7. Which of the following film types will give the best film quality?

a. Ultra fine grain.

b. Coarse grain.
c. Medium grain.
d. The fastest film possible.

8. The focusing cup functions as an electrostatic lens whose purpose:

a. Direct x-rays towards the anode.

b. Direct a stream of electrically charged particles towards the anode.
c. To shorten the wavelength.
d. Both a and b.

9. When manually developing radiographic films:

a. Developer temperature 20oC for 4 to 5 minutes

b. Developer temperature 28oC for 4 to 5 minutes.
c. Developer temperature 20oC for 4 to 5 seconds.
d. Any of the above can be used developer time and temperature depends on the operator

10. The purpose of the fixer is to:

a. Remove all the undeveloped silver salts of the emulsion.

b. To leave the developed silver as a permanent image
c. To harden the emulsion
d. All of the above

11. Water spots can be minimised by:

a. Rapid drying
b. Immersing the wet film in a wetting agent before drying
c. By using a fresh fixer solution.
d. By cascading water during the rinse cycle.

12. What is the appearance of dichroic fog on a radiograph placed on a viewer?

a. Green/yellow.
b. Pink.
c. Mottled.
d. Dark grey/black

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13. What would be the result if a film was placed in a developer solution and allowed to
develop without any agitation?

a. Bromide streaking.
b. Diffraction mottle
c. Yellow fogging
d. White spots.

14. What is the purpose of tapping the film hangers on the side of the development tank
before fixing the film?

a. To reduce the chance of bromide streaking.

b. To dislodge any air bubbles that may cause white spots on the radiograph.
c. To avoid static discharge from occurring.
d. All of the above.

15. Yellow fogging is most likely due to:

a. The use of out of date film.

b. Film stored in damp conditions
c. Insufficient final was
d. Out of date fixer.

16. Dark crimping marks that may occur on a radiograph are most likely to occur because of:

a. Crimping the radiograph after exposure.

b. Crimping the radiograph before exposure.
c. Crimping the radiograph during exposure.
d. Bad film storage

17. Ionisation of a film emulsion causes the film to be:

a. Processed
b. Fixed.
c. Developed.
d. Exposed.

18. The purpose of the stop bath during film processing is to:

a. Change the exposed silver salts to black metallic salts.

b. Neutralised the developer tank.
c. Neutralise the development process.
d. Remove the subbing layer from the film.

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19. The fixing solutions used in film processing are:

a. Acidic.
b. Alkaline.
c. Neutral
d. Basic.

20. When producing radiographs, if the kilovoltage is increased:

a. The subject contrast decreases.

b. The film contrast decreases.
c. Subject contrast increases.
d. The film contrast increases.

21. Three liquids, which are essential to process an exposed film correctly, are:

a. Stop bath, acetic acid and water.

b. Developer, stop bath and water.
c. Developer, fixer and water
d. Acetic acid, fixer and stop bath.

22. The ability to detect a small discontinuity or flaw on a radiograph is called?

a. Radiographic contrast.
b. Radiographic sensitivity.
c. Film density.
d. Radiographic definition.

23. Static marks, which may occur on a radiographic, are caused by

a. Film being pulled quickly from between the intensifying screens in humid conditions
b. Foreign material or dirt on the screens during exposure.
c. Scratches on the lead screens
d. Contaminated developer solution.

24. A penetrameter is used to measure:

a. The quality of the radiographic technique.

b. The size of any discontinuities in a part
c. The amount of film contrast.
d. Both a and b.

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25. Which of the following materials has the greatest half value thickness for a given wavelength?

a. Steel.
b. Concrete
c. Tungsten
d. Aluminium.

26. A radiograph of a 10mm thick steel weld, 2mm cap reinforcement, has IQI wire number 13
visible (Din 62). What is the IQI sensitivity?

a. 1.6%.
b. 2.0%.
c. 2.08%.
d. 1.3%.

27. Which of the following are considerations to determine the minimum number of
exposures required to cover a 500mm diameter pipe to pipe weld DWSI technique:

a. Development conditions, material type and f.f.d.

b. Material thickness, pipe diameter and f.f.d.
c. Pipe diameter, material type and f.f.d.
d. All of the above.

28. How many wires are in the Din 62 IQI series:

a. 7
b. 21.
c. 16.
d. 10.

29. The degree of darkness on a radiograph is referred to as:

a. Radiographic contrast
b. Definition.
c. Radiographic density.
d. Specific density.

30. A requirement for the generation of x-rays is:

a. A copper target
b. A target of a suitably high melting point material
c. A target of a low-density material.
d. Both a and b

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Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 1

Answer all questions.

1. Which of the following Standards is entitled “Non-destructive testing-general principles for

the radiographic examination of metallic materials using X-and gamma-rays”.
a. BS EN 1435.
b. BS EN 462-4.
c. BS EN 444.
d. BS EN 473.

2. Why are x-ray beams sometimes collimated when taking exposures of welds?
a. To intensify the effective radiation.
b. To restrict the beam for safety reasons and to reduce scatter.
c. To reduce penumbra thereby increasing radiographic definition.
d. To allow the kV to be reduced.

3. Unless otherwise specified, radiography shall be carried out?

a. After the final stage of manufacture, e.g. after grinding and heat treatment.
b. Always on clean surfaces with coatings if applicable removed.
c. At regular intervals throughout the manufacturing of the product.
d. All of the above.

4. The interval between the time the film is placed in the fixer solution and the time when
the original milky image disappears is known as:
a. The fixing time.
b. Clearing time.
c. Hardening time.
d. Development time.

5. Which of the following information could be obtained from a films characteristic curve?
a. Changing the exposure times and determining the films speed.
b. Determining the subject contrast and the films speed.
c. Determining the film contrast and readjusting exposure times when a new density
is required.
d. Determining the contrast sensitivity and the optimum contrast range of the film.

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6. Which of the following film types would you expect to have a factor of 25?
a. Ultra fine grain.
b. Fast speed.
c. Medium speed.
d. Medium grain.

7. When carrying out radiography on a carbon steel butt weld using Ir 192 as the source, how
many IQI wires must be visible on the radiograph for the technique to be acceptable, in
most circumstances?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 7
d. None of the above can be considered not enough information given.

8. Which of the following material(s) are collimators made from?

a. Tungsten.
b. Lead.
c. Copper
d. Any dense material is suitable for a collimator.

9. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for interpretation
is a measure of the:
a. Subject contrast of a radiograph.
b. Film contrast of a radiograph.
c. Latitude of a radiograph.
d. Definition of a radiograph.

10. Images of discontinuities close to the source side of the specimen become less clearly
defined as:
a. Source-to-object distance increases.
b. The thickness of the specimen increases.
c. The size of the source decreases.
d. The thickness of the specimen decreases.

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11. As the effective energy of the radiation increases up to about 300 kV:
a. Film graininess increases.
b. Film graininess decreases.
c. Film contrast decreases.
d. Radiographic definition decreases.

12. X-ray films with larger grain size:

a. Will produce radiographs of better definition.
b. Reduce subject contrast.
c. Have slower speeds than those with relatively small grain size.
d. None of the above.

13. When radiographing a steel weld 10mm thick, in accordance with BS EN 1435
which isotope(s) are recommended to be used?
a. Se 75.
b. Yb 169.
c. Tm 170.
d. Both a. and b.
e. All of the above.

14. For practical purposes, the shape of the characteristic curve of an x-ray film:
a. Is drastically changed when the wavelength of radiation is shortened.
b. Is primarily dependent on the subject contrast.
c. Is independent of the quality of x-ray or gamma radiation.
d. Is independent of the type of film.

15. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which of the following is applicable for a double-wall
penetration double image (source and film outside)?Should not be used on pipe diameters
>100mm with a minimum of two exposures.

a. Should not be used on pipe diameters > 90mm with a minimum of three exposures.
b. May be used on any wall thickness providing the contrast is acceptable to
specification requirements.
c. All of the above.

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16. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which of the following techniques require lead
identification letter “f” to indicate IQI placed film side?
a. Single-wall penetration of curved objects.
b. Double-wall penetration double image on curved objects.
c. Double-wall penetration single image of curved objects for evaluation of the wall next
to the film.
d. Both b and c.

17. In accordance with BS EN 1435 what is the maximum permitted x-ray voltage which may be
used on a steel weld 12mm weld thickness, technique to use double-wall penetration double
image on a curved object.
a. 175kV.
b. 220kV.
c. 350kV.
d. 300kV.

18. What is the ratio of the light intensity transmitted through adjacent areas of a
radiograph having densities of 3.0 and 1.0?
a. 20.
b. 10.
c. 100.
d. 2.

19. Black crescent-shaped marks that may appear on a radiograph will most likely have
been resulted from:
a. Crimping the film before exposure.
b. Crimping the film after exposure.
c. Sudden extreme temperature changes while processing.
d. Warm or exhausted fixer.

20. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which wire type IQI pack would expect to be placed on a
steel weldment 20mm thick (single wall technique)?
a. W 10.
b. W 6.
c. W 6 or W10.
d. W 10 or W13.

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21. Which of the following criteria are important considerations when selecting the correct IQI
to use.
a. The wire shall have a coefficient of absorption as close as possible to that of the
material under test.
b. The wire shall be made from the same material as the material under test.
c. The IQI can be made from any material providing the desirable image quality is achieved.
d. The wire material is almost always made from stainless steel to prevent rusting
from occurring.

22. Subject contrast is affected by:

a. The thickness differences in the specimen.
b. The intensity of the radiation used.
c. The grain size of the film.
d. All of the above.

23. The slope (steepness) of a characteristic curve is a measure of:

a. Radiographic contrast.
b. Subject contrast.
c. Film contrast.
d. All of the above.

24. The depth of a defect all ready detected may be estimated by making two exposures on a
single film from different positions of the x-ray tube. The depth of the defect is then computed
from the shift in the shadow of the defect with respect to the images of fixed markers on the
front and back of the specimen. The method is referred to as:
a. Stereoradiogrphy
b. Sandwich technique.
c. Fluoroscopy.
d. Parallax technique.

25. What do you understand by the term solarization?

a. Another term given to fog.
b. It is the main cause of dichroic fog.
c. It is where a radiographic film becomes lighter instead of darker, due to excessively
high exposures.
d. It relates to the intensification of scatter radiation more than primary radiation.

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26. Fluorometalic intensifying screens will:
a. Partially filter out scatter radiation.
b. Transform x-ray and gamma ray radiation in to visible or UVA light.
c. Improve the quality of the radiograph when compared to no screens.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

27. Density is a logarithmic ratio of:

a. The transmitted light compared with light from the radiograph.
b. The incident light divided by the transmitted light.
c. The light from the viewer divided by the incident light.
d. The transmitted light multiplied by the incident light

28. How is it possible to compensate for a large focal spot size to reduce penumbra?
a. Reduce the kilovoltage.
b. Use a larger object-to-film distance.
c. Reduce the focal spot to film distance.
d. None of the above.

29. When struck by x-rays or gamma rays lead screens emit:

a. Electromagnetic radiation.
b. Negatively charged particles.
c. Positively charged particles.
d. Particles carrying no overall charge.

30. Ammonium thiosulphate and sodium thiosulphate are chemicals used in:
a. Photographic emulsions.
b. Thermo-luminescent dosemeters.
c. Fixers.
d. Developers.

31. The use of salt intensifying screens instead of lead screens will:
a. Reduce developing times.
b. Produce radiographs with a better definition.
c. Require an increase in exposure times.
d. Cause failure of the reciprocity law.

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32. The tenth value thickness of a material depends on:
a. Exposure time
b. The intensity of the primary radiation.
c. The wavelength of radiation.
d. All of the above.

33. When using the same light source, a film that transmits 1/10 of the incident light,
another radiograph transmits 1/100 of the incident light, what is the density of the
second film? a. 2.0
b. 4.0
c. 1.0
d. 100

34. Exposure time is directly proportional to:

a. Film to focus distance.
b. Intensity.
c. Wavelength.
d. All of the above.

35. The welding process which is most suited to the joining of thin plate materials such
as aluminium, copper, stainless steel:
a. Flux core MAG.
b. MMA.
c. Sub-arc.
d. TIG/TAG.

36. What is the IQI sensitivity if wire number 10 is visible using the DIN 62 IQI series on
a panoramic shot 36 inch diameter vessel, 500mm f.f.d., 30 mm wall thickness?
a. 1.3%.
b. 1.06%.
c. 0.6%.
d. From the following information the IQI sensitivity can not be determined.

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37. Lead foil in direct contact with radiographic film:
a. Intensifies the primary radiation more than the scatter radiation.
b. Decreases the contrast of the radiographic image.
c. Intensifies the scatter radiation more than the primary radiation.
d. Should never be used when the kV’s exceed 120.
e. Both a and b.

38. A fluorescent intensifying screen will:

a. Transform x-ray energy into visible light.
b. Improve overall radiographic sensitivity.
c. Result in the formation of dense patches.
d. Intensify the primary radiation by emitting particulate radiation to which the film
emulsion is sensitive.

39. Mottling due to diffraction can be reduced and, in some cases, eliminated by:
a. Reducing the wavelength.
b. Changing the radiation angle slightly, e.g. 5o
c. Increasing the wavelength.
d. Both a and b.
e. Both b and c.

40. What is the amount of penumbra for the following conditions, size of source 4mm,
wall thickness 75mm, source to object distance 15m and exposure 28 mA minutes.
a. 0.2 mm
b. 0.02 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 2.1 mm

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Radiographic Interpretation
Level 2 General and Specific Theory RI-1
This column is for official use only
Name: ……………………….…………… Results
Signed: ……………………………………. Marker 1:

Date: ……………………………………. Marker 2:

1. If it were necessary to radiograph a 7-inch thick steel product, which of the following
gamma ray sources would most likely be used?
a. Co60.
b. Ir192.
c. Ce137
d. Yb169.

2. The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube effects:

a. The quality of the x-ray beam.
b. The quantity of the x-ray beam.
c. Has no effect on subject contrast.
d. All of the above.

3. Isotopes of a single element differ only in the number of:

a. Protons.
b. Neutrons.
c. Electrons.
d. Positrons.

4. Low energy ionising radiation:

a. Are scattered more easily than high energy x-rays.
b. Are scattered less than high energy x-rays.
c. Produce lower contrast radiographs.
d. None of the above.

5. Alpha particles are emitted:

a. After gamma rays and x-rays.
b. After gamma rays
c. Before gamma rays
d. Only by natural isotopes.

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6. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which of the following are the recommended minimum and
maximum thickness values for Ir192 (test class a).
a. 50mm to 100mm.
b. 12mm to 50mm.
c. 40mm to 200mm.
d. 20mm to 100mm.

7. The half-life of a source is dependent on;

a. It’s original intensity.
b. The source to film distance.
c. The physical size of the isotope.
d. The isotope.

8. The Z number is:

a. The atomic mass number.
b. The total number of electrons + neutrons.
c. The total number of neutrons + protons.
d. Dictates the element type.

9. Which of the following has the least penetrating properties?

a. X-rays.
b. Alpha particles.
c. Beta particles.
d. Gamma rays.

10. An atom which has lost an orbiting electron is said to be:

a. Radioactive.
b. A negative ion.
c. Ionised.
d. A nucleus.

11. Which of the following units is used for measuring the amount of absorbed dose?
a. Sievert.
b. Rem
c. Roentgen.
d. Gray.

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12. Linear volumetric defects associated with welds are?

a. Linear from at least one direction.
b. Linear from at least one direction with volume.
c. Equal from all directions.
d. Could be all of the above.

13. Which of the following defects are likely to be missed using x-ray as the inspection medium?
a. Plate laminations, lack of side wall fusion on a single U butt weld and cap overlap.
b. Toe cracks, plate laminations and lack of side wall fusion on a single U butt weld.
c. Plat laminations, lack of inter run fusion using the MIG/MAG welding process and
cap overlap.
d. All defects are always detected using x-rays.

14. Which of the following is the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on a
radiograph taken of a single V butt weld?
a. A dark straight line with a light root.
b. A dark straight line with a root of higher density.
c. A dark root with straight edges.
d. A dark uneven line with a light root.

15. Which of the following defects would show up as light indications?

a. Copper inclusions, slag inclusions and excessive root penetration.
b. Tungsten inclusions, spatter and lack of root penetration.
c. Tungsten inclusions, excessive root penetration and spatter.
d. Excessive cap height, copper inclusions and underflushing.

16. If an exposure time of 3 minutes and 30 seconds were necessary using a 5-metre source to film
distance for a particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 3-metre source to film
distance is used and all other variables remain the same?
a. 1 minute 43 seconds.
b. 1 minute 15 seconds.
c. 65 minutes 12 seconds.
d. 2 minutes 55 seconds.

17. The part of an atom, which carries a positive charge, is called?

a. Positron.
b. Neutron.
c. Proton.
d. Electron.

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18. Alpha particles:
a. Have a short wavelength when compared to x-rays.
b. Have very high velocity and are very highly penetrating.
c. Penetrate more than beta particles
d. Are ejected as a helium atom minus any electrons.

19. The penetrating ability of gamma rays is governed by:

a. The isotopes activity.
b. Time plus activity.
c. The isotopes half-life.
d. The atomic number of the element used for the isotope.

20. Two different gamma isotopes of the same activity:

a. Will produce different wavelengths of radiation.
b. Will produce the same quality of radiation.
c. Will produce the same intensities and wavelengths of radiation.
d. Will produce only electromagnetic and ionising radiation.

21. A good radiograph is produced using the following exposure conditions, 4 minutes at 3
mA. What exposure time would be needed if the mA were reduced to 2mA?
a. 6 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 2 minutes.
d. 4 minutes.

22. A x-ray tube emits 4 msv per hour of radiation at an auto-monitored distance of 1m. What
is the distance where safety barriers are to be erected at 7.5 sv per hour?
a. 533.3m.
b. 1.35m.
c. 23m.
d. 0.73m.

23. The A number of an element is:

a. The number of neutrons plus protons.
b. The number of electrons plus protons.
c. The number of neutrons only.
d. Dictates the element type.

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24. X-rays and gamma rays are:
a. Corpuscular and ionising radiation.
b. Particulate and ionising radiation.
c. Particulate and corpuscular radiation.
d. Electromagnetic and ionising radiation.

25. In the electromagnetic spectrum light rays have:

a. A shorter wave length than x-rays.
b. The same frequency as x-rays.
c. The same wavelength as x-rays
d. A lower frequency than x-rays

26. Gamma rays:

a. Have a large mass when compared to alpha particles.
b. Travel at the speed of light.
c. Generally Produce much better quality radiographs when compared with low energy
x- rays.
d. Both a and b.

27. The absorption of gamma rays from a given source when passing through matter depends on:
a. The atomic number, density and thickness or the matter.
b. The Youngs modulus value of the matter.
c. The specific activity value of the source.
d. All of the above.

28. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionise and become electrical
conductors makes them useful in:
a. X-ray transformers.
b. X-ray tubes.
c. Radiation detection equipment.
d. Radiographic film.

29. An unshielded isotope source gives a dosage rate of 700 mr per hour at 7 feet. What would
the unshielded dosage rate be at 29 feet.
a. 12014.2 mr per hour.
b. 168.96 mr per hour.
c. 40.78 mr per hour.
d. 22.8 mr per hour.

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30. Which of the following defects are considered to be the most detrimental to the service life
of an item?
a. Porosity.
b. Non-equiaxed (planar) defects open to the surface.
c. Equiaxed (rounded ) defects open to the surface.
d. Linear volumetric defects.

31. What would be the new exposure time for the following conditions?
Old time = 3 mins 45secs. New mA = 5. Old mA = 4. New f.f.d. = 24". Old f.f.d. = 30".
a. 1.77 minutes.
b. 2.2 minutes.
c. 2 minutes 24 seconds
d. 1 minute 55 seconds.

32. A radiograph shows a single, dark parallel indication with straight edges, down the centre of
the weld area. What is the probable defect?
a. Misalignment.
b. Cap undercut.
c. Lack of root penetration.
d. Lack of root fusion.

33. Which of the following gamma sources would be preferred for radiography of an 6 mm
thick weld, single wall technique, a good quality radiograph is required:
a. Co60.
b. Ir192.
c. Yb169.
d. Tm170.

34. Cold lap in a weld is a commonly used definition for which of the following?
a. Undercut.
b. Hydrogen cracking.
c. Lack of side wall fusion.
d. Lack of fusion at the weld toes.

35. Which of the following defects would not be expected in a weld made by the
MIG/MAG welding process (solid wire)?
a. Porosity.
b. Undercut.
c. Slag inclusions.
d. Lack of root fusion.

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36. Which of the following weld defects would show up on a radiograph as, a dark irregular line
of various thickness running along the edge of the cap or the root?
a. Undercut
b. Lack of fusion, root or cap.
c. Slag inclusions.
d. All of the above could appear as above.

37. Which of the following standards relates to welding terms and

symbols? a. BS 5135.
b. BS 499.
c. BS 2901
d. BS 5500.

38. Which of the following is applicable to hydrogen cracking?

a. It’s a hot crack.
b. The most common type of crack that occurs in C- Mn steels.
c. Only occurs in the HAZ of steel weldments.
d. Only occurs weld centre line.

39. Which of the following discontinuities is caused by insufficient cleaning between runs in
a MMA butt weld?
a. Undercut
b. Incomplete filled groove
c. Porosity.
d. Slag inclusions.

40. Welding on rolled plate with poor through thickness ductility can cause which of
the following?

a. Cold laps.
b. Laminations.
c. Lamellar tearing.
d. Slivers.

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Radiographic Interpretation
URRRrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrhh
Level 2 General and Specific Theory RI-2

This column is for official use only

Name: ……………………….…………… Results
Signed: ……………………………………. Marker 1:

Date: ……………………………………. Marker 2:

1. What qualities would a radiograph of a 10mm thick steel weld possess, if it had been
produced using 30-curie cobalt source over 5 minutes?
a. High contrast relative to a radiograph produced using a 10-curie cobalt source.
b. It would have high density unless solarisation has occurred.
c. It would have high definition.
d. It will probably be blank.

2. What quality must a radiograph of a weld possess if the main aim is to try and evaluate
the through thickness depths of defects?
a. It must possess high contrast and good definition.
b. It must possess a sensitivity greater than 1.7%.
c. It must possess wide latitude and a lower contrast.
d. Non of the above.

3. Why are radiographic densities in the weld area of approximately 1.5 and below are
usually considered too low for acceptance of the radiograph?
a. Because the radiographic definition is too low
b. Because the subject contrast is too low regardless of the light intensity of the viewer used.
c. Because the radiographic contrast is impaired.
d. Radiographs with these densities in the weld are not usually considered unacceptable.

4. Low voltage x-ray tubes are generally fitted with windows made of:
a. Tungsten.
b. Lead.
c. Steel.
d. Beryllium.

5. The velocity of electrons striking the target in a x-ray tube is a function of?
a. The atomic number of the material.
b. The amount of current flowing through the filament.

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c. The amount of current in the cathode.
d. The potential difference across the cathode and anode.

6. Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life?

a. Cobalt 60.
b. Cesium 137.
c. Iridium 192.
d. Thulium 170.

7. The primary form of energy conversion when elements strike a target in an x-ray tube results
in the production of:
a. Long wavelength radiation.
b. Soft radiation.
c. Primary x-rays.
d. Heat.

8. The purpose of circulating oil in some types of x-ray tubes is:

a. To dissipate heat.
b. For lubrication purposes.
c. To reduce the chance of scatter radiation reaching the tube head.
d. To reduce the need of high currents.

9. A good cobalt radiograph is made on a 30-inch steel weld using an exposure time of 10
minutes and a source to film distance of 36 inches. It is necessary to change the source to
film distance to 24 inch, what exposure time would be used to produce a similar radiograph if
all other considerations remain the same?
a. 1 minute 36 seconds.
b. 4 minute 26 seconds.
c. 4 minute 40 seconds.
d. 5 minutes.

10. After a period of 296 days the activity of an iridium 192 source, activity 400 Gbq would be:
a. 100 Gbq.
b. 50 Gbq.
c. 25 Gbq.
d. 12.5 Gbq.

11. The effect when all of a photons energy is lost on impact caused through ejecting an electron
is termed:
a. Pair production.
b. Compton effect

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c. Rayleigh scattering.
d. Photoelectric effect.

12. An increase in kilovoltage will result in: (if all other considerations remain the same)
a. A reduction in film contrast.
b. An increase in radiographic contrast.
c. No overall change to the radiographs definition.
d. A reduction in subject contrast.

13. If a 200mm f.f.d, object to film distance 20mm using a 4mm source size, it is calculated
that the geometric unsharpness is 0.4mm. Assuming the source size and object to film
distance can’t be altered what will be the required f.f.d. to reduce the unsharpness to an
acceptable level of 0.25mm:
a. 340mm
b. 251mm
c. 288mm
d. 388mm

14. A lead sheet containing a pin hole may be placed half way between x-ray tube and the film
in order to:
a. Measure the intensity of radiation. (central beam)
b. Used to set up exposure times.
c. Reduce secondary radiation.
d. Determination of focal spot size.

15. From a radiograph it has been determined that the penumbra is 0.3 using the following
factors, size of source 3mm, focal spot to film distance 268mm and the object to film distance
27mm. In order to ensure that the penumbra levels do not exceed 0.25mm what will be the
new minimum focal spot to film distance?
a. 324mm.
b. 351mm.
c. 268mm.
d. 386mm.

16. Which of the following applies to constant potential x-ray tubes?

a. Thicker cables and larger tube heads.
b. Faster sets and more commonly used on site.
c. More robust and lighter sets.
d. Faster sets and smaller tube heads.

17. If an iridium 192 isotope 1200 GBq activity, what would be its activity be after 370 days?

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a. 1.0 curies.
b. 2.0 curies.
c. 10.0 curies.
d. 10 Bq.

18. Which of the following are reasons for insufficient density on a radiograph?
a. Over development and insufficient final wash.
b. Low kilovoltage and excessive exposure times.
c. Developer temperature to low and under exposure.
d. Under development and developer temperature to high.

19. A large physical source size may produce an equivalent quality radiograph if:
a. The source to film distance is increased.
b. The object to film distance is increased.
c. Exposure times are reduced.
d. A faster film speed is used.

20. The general method of producing x-rays involves the sudden deceleration of high velocity
electrons in a solid body called:
a. Focusing cup.
b. Filament.
c. Target.
d. Cathode.

21. In an x-ray tube, the filament and focusing cup are the two essential parts of the:
a. Anode.
b. Cathode.
c. Rectifier.
d. Control panel.

22. An x-ray tube with a small focal spot is considered better than one with a large focal spot
size when it is desired to obtain:
a. Greater penetration.
b. Better geometric unsharpness.
c. Better inherent film unsharpness.
d. Improved radiographic contrast.

23. One method of reducing radiographic contrast is to:

a. Increase the distance between the radiation source and the object.
b. Decrease the distance between the radiation source and the object.
c. Increase the potential difference between the anode and cathode.

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d. Increase development time within manufactures recommendations.

24. In x-ray radiography, alternating current must be changed to pulsating direct current in order
to satisfy the need for fast and more efficient x-ray sets, this change may be accomplished
by:
a. Transformers.
b. Rectifiers.
c. Inverters.
d. Filaments.

25. Two isotopes of the same element have two different specific activity values. The source
with the higher specific activity value will:
a. Produce radiation with a shorter wavelength.
b. Have a shorter half-life than the source with a lower specific activity.
c. Will increase the half value thickness of most materials.
d. None of the above.

26. The radiographic absorption of a material will tend to become less dependent upon the
materials density and thickness when:
a. The kilovoltage is increased.
b. The kilovoltage is reduced.
c. The source to film distance is reduced.
d. The intensity of radiation is increased.

27. Two factors which greatly effect the suitability of the target material in an x-ray tube are:
a. The melting point and magnetic strength.
b. Electrical resistance and the melting point.
c. The materials Z number and the melting point.
d. All of the above.

28. An x-ray tube which is designed to operate in large diameter pipes and cylindrical vessels
which produces a panoramic x-ray beam over the full 360o is termed:
a. Biopolar.
b. Rod anode.
c. High voltage generator.
d. Betatron.

29. Filters used at the port of the x-ray tube:

a. Intensify the x-ray beam by intensifying the secondary radiation.
b. Filter out hard radiation and secondary radiation.
c. Filter out short wavelength radiation to provide softer radiation.
d. Filter out soft radiation and secondary radiation.

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30. Which of the following best describes Characteristic x-rays.

a. X-rays consisting of discrete wavelengths which are characteristic of the emitting material.
b. X- radiation that is sometimes classed as secondary radiation.
c. X-radiation arising from the retardation of moving charged particles.
d. A term used to describe very penetrating x-rays.

31. A filter in the primary radiation beam will:

a. Reduce exposure time.
b. Increase the effective energy of the beam and reduce radiographic contrast.
c. Increase the scatter radiation that the radiographic film is subjected to.
d. Decrease the effective energy of the beam and increase overall radiographic contrast.

32. The specific activity of a gamma source is usually measured in which of the following units?
a. Curies per gram.
b. Counts per second.
c. Mega electron volts.
d. Roentgens per hour.

33. Radiation of a single wavelength is know as:

a. Real time radiation.
b. Microscopic radiation.
c. Heterogeneous radiation.
d. Monochromatic radiation.

34. Gamma rays emitted from radio-isotopes consist of:

a. A broad spectrum of wavelengths, range of which depends on the isotopes
specific activity.
b. Single wavelengths beams, the wavelength of which depend on the particular
isotopes activity.
c. Small particles of sub-atomic matter.
d. One or more discrete wavelengths depending on isotope type.

35. The property of a material to block or partially block the passage of x-rays and gamma
rays is termed:
a. Absorption.
b. Latitude.
c. Attenuation.
d. Penetration.

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36. If the original exposure was 5 mA at 12 minutes, what would the new mA be for an
exposure time of 4 minute?
a. 10 mA.
b. 15 mA.
c. 18 mA.
d. 20 mA.

37. Which of the following has the shortest half-life?

a. Ca 137
b. Ir 192.
c. Co 60.
d. Yb 169.

38. In welding the most likely cause for a burn through is:
a. Small root face and excessive current values.
b. Small root gap and excessive current values.
c. Loss of welding gas shield and excessive current values.
d. All of the above.

39. Beta particles:

a. Do not penetrate as for as alpha particles.
b. Travel and penetrate further than alpha particles.
c. Generally have a larger wavelength than alpha particles.
d. Carry a positive charge.

40. As x-ray energy increases, wavelength will:

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. No change to the wavelength.
d. Increases in mass.

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 R&TPO-msr RI-3
Date: 08/02/2000 issue 3.

Radiographic Interpretation
Level 2 General and Specific Theory RI-3
This column is for official use only
Name: ……………………….…………… Results
Signed: ……………………………………. Marker 1:

Date: ……………………………………. Marker 2:

1. Which of the following Standards is entitled “Non-destructive testing-general principles for

the radiographic examination of metallic materials using X-and gamma-rays”.
a. BS EN 1435.
b. BS EN 462-4.
c. BS EN 444.
d. BS EN 473.

2. Why are x-ray beams sometimes collimated when taking exposures of welds?
a. To intensify the effective radiation.
b. To restrict the beam for safety reasons and to reduce scatter.
c. To reduce penumbra thereby increasing radiographic definition.
d. To allow the kV to be reduced.

3. Unless otherwise specified, radiography shall be carried out?

a. After the final stage of manufacture, e.g. after grinding and heat treatment.
b. Always on clean surfaces with coatings if applicable removed.
c. At regular intervals throughout the manufacturing of the product.
d. All of the above.

4. The interval between the time the film is placed in the fixer solution and the time when
the original milky image disappears is known as:
a. The fixing time.
b. Clearing time.
c. Hardening time.
d. Development time.

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5. Which of the following information could be obtained from a films characteristic curve?
a. Changing the exposure times and determining the films speed.
b. Determining the subject contrast and the films speed.
c. Determining the film contrast and readjusting exposure times when a new density
is required.
d. Determining the contrast sensitivity and the optimum contrast range of the film.

6. Which of the following film types would you expect to have a factor of 25?
a. Ultra fine grain.
b. Fast speed.
c. Medium speed.
d. Medium grain.

7. When carrying out radiography on a carbon steel butt weld using Ir 192 as the source, how
many IQI wires must be visible on the radiograph for the technique to be acceptable, in
most circumstances?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 7
d. None of the above can be considered not enough information given.

8. Which of the following material(s) are collimators made from?

a. Tungsten.
b. Lead.
c. Copper
d. Any dense material is suitable for a collimator.

9. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory
for interpretation is a measure of the:
a. Subject contrast of a radiograph.
b. Film contrast of a radiograph.
c. Latitude of a radiograph.
d. Definition of a radiograph.

10. Images of discontinuities close to the source side of the specimen become less clearly
defined as:
a. Source-to-object distance increases.
b. The thickness of the specimen increases.
c. The size of the source decreases.
d. The thickness of the specimen decreases.

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11. As the effective energy of the radiation increases up to about 300 kV:
a. Film graininess increases.
b. Film graininess decreases.
c. Film contrast decreases.
d. Radiographic definition decreases.

12. X-ray films with larger grain size:

a. Will produce radiographs of better definition.
b. Reduce subject contrast.
c. Have slower speeds than those with relatively small grain size.
d. None of the above.

13. When radiographing a steel weld 10mm thick, in accordance with BS EN 1435 which
isotope(s) are recommended to be used?
a. Se 75.
b. Yb 169.
c. Tm 170.
d. Both a. and b.
e. All of the above.

14. For practical purposes, the shape of the characteristic curve of an x-ray film:
a. Is drastically changed when the wavelength of radiation is shortened.
b. Is primarily dependent on the subject contrast.
c. Is independent of the quality of x-ray or gamma radiation.
d. Is independent of the type of film.

15. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which of the following is applicable for a double-wall
penetration double image (source and film outside)?
a. Should not be used on pipe diameters >100mm with a minimum of two exposures.
b. Should not be used on pipe diameters > 90mm with a minimum of three exposures.
c. May be used on any wall thickness providing the contrast is acceptable to
specification requirements.
d. All of the above.

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16. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which of the following techniques require lead
identification letter “f” to indicate IQI placed film side?
a. Single-wall penetration of curved objects.
b. Double-wall penetration double image on curved objects.
c. Double-wall penetration single image of curved objects for evaluation of the wall next
to the film.
d. Both b and c.

17. In accordance with BS EN 1435 what is the maximum permitted x-ray voltage which may be
used on a steel weld 12mm weld thickness, technique to use double-wall penetration double
image on a curved object.
a. 175kV.
b. 220kV.
c. 350kV.
d. 300kV.

18. What is the ratio of the light intensity transmitted through adjacent areas of a
radiograph having densities of 3.0 and 1.0?
a. 20.
b. 10.
c. 100.
d. 2.

19. Black crescent-shaped marks that may appear on a radiograph will most likely have
been resulted from:
a. Crimping the film before exposure.
b. Crimping the film after exposure.
c. Sudden extreme temperature changes while processing.
d. Warm or exhausted fixer.

20. In accordance with BS EN 1435 which wire type IQI pack would expect to be placed on a
steel weldment 20mm thick (single wall technique)?
a. W 10.
b. W 6.
c. W 6 or W10.
d. W 10 or W13.

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21. Which of the following criteria are important considerations when selecting the correct IQI
to use.
a. The wire shall have a coefficient of absorption as close as possible to that of the
material under test.
b. The wire shall be made from the same material as the material under test.
c. The IQI can be made from any material providing the desirable image quality is achieved.
d. The wire material is almost always made from stainless steel to prevent rusting
from occurring.

22. Subject contrast is affected by:

a. The thickness differences in the specimen.
b. The intensity of the radiation used.
c. The grain size of the film.
d. All of the above.

23. The slope (steepness) of a characteristic curve is a measure of:

a. Radiographic contrast.
b. Subject contrast.
c. Film contrast.
d. All of the above.

24. The depth of a defect all ready detected may be estimated by making two exposures on
a single film from different positions of the x-ray tube. The depth of the defect is then
computed from the shift in the shadow of the defect with respect to the images of fixed
markers on the front and back of the specimen. The method is referred to as:
a. Stereoradiogrphy
b. Sandwich technique.
c. Fluoroscopy.
d. Parallax technique.

25. What do you understand by the term solarization?

a. Another term given to fog.
b. It is the main cause of dichroic fog.
c. It is where a radiographic film becomes lighter instead of darker, due to excessively
high exposures.
d. It relates to the intensification of scatter radiation more than primary radiation.

26. Fluorometalic intensifying screens will:

a. Partially filter out scatter radiation.
b. Transform x-ray and gamma ray radiation in to visible or UVA light.
c. Improve the quality of the radiograph when compared to no screens.

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d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

27. Density is a logarithmic ratio of:

a. The transmitted light compared with light from the radiograph.
b. The incident light divided by the transmitted light.
c. The light from the viewer divided by the incident light.
d. The transmitted light multiplied by the incident light

28. How is it possible to compensate for a large focal spot size to reduce penumbra?
a. Reduce the kilovoltage.
b. Use a larger object-to-film distance.
c. Reduce the focal spot to film distance.
d. None of the above.

29. When struck by x-rays or gamma rays lead screens emit:

a. Electromagnetic radiation.
b. Negatively charged particles.
c. Positively charged particles.
d. Particles carrying no overall charge.

30. Ammonium thiosulphate and sodium thiosulphate are chemicals used in:
a. Photographic emulsions.
b. Thermo-luminescent dosemeters.
c. Fixers.
d. Developers.

31. The use of salt intensifying screens instead of lead screens will:
a. Reduce developing times.
b. Produce radiographs with a better definition.
c. Require an increase in exposure times.
d. Cause failure of the reciprocity law.

32. The tenth value thickness of a material depends on:

a. Exposure time
b. The intensity of the primary radiation.
c. The wavelength of radiation.
d. All of the above.

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33. When using the same light source, a film that transmits 1/10 of the incident light,
another radiograph transmits 1/100 of the incident light, what is the density of the
second film? a. 2.0
b. 4.0
c. 1.0
d. 100

34. Exposure time is directly proportional to:

a. Film to focus distance.
b. Intensity.
c. Wavelength.
d. All of the above.

35. The welding process which is most suited to the joining of thin plate materials such
as aluminium, copper, stainless steel:
a. Flux core MAG.
b. MMA.
c. Sub-arc.
d. TIG/TAG.

36. What is the IQI sensitivity if wire number 10 is visible using the DIN 62 IQI series on
a panoramic shot 36 inch diameter vessel, 500mm f.f.d., 30 mm wall thickness?
a. 1.3%.
b. 1.06%.
c. 0.6%.
d. From the following information the IQI sensitivity can not be determined.

37. Lead foil in direct contact with radiographic film:

a. Intensifies the primary radiation more than the scatter radiation.
b. Decreases the contrast of the radiographic image.
c. Intensifies the scatter radiation more than the primary radiation.
d. Should never be used when the kV’s exceed 120.
e. Both a and b.

38. A fluorescent intensifying screen will:

a. Transform x-ray energy into visible light.
b. Improve overall radiographic sensitivity.
c. Result in the formation of dense patches.
d. Intensify the primary radiation by emitting particulate radiation to which the film
emulsion is sensitive.

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39. Mottling due to diffraction can be reduced and, in some cases, eliminated by:
a. Reducing the wavelength.
b. Changing the radiation angle slightly, e.g. 5o
c. Increasing the wavelength.
d. Both a and b.
e. Both b and c.

40. What is the amount of penumbra for the following conditions, size of source 4mm,
wall thickness 75mm, source to object distance 15m and exposure 28 mA minutes.
a. 0.2 mm
b. 0.02 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 2.1 mm

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 R&TPO-msr-RI-4.
Date: 09/02/2000 issue 3.

Radiographic Interpretation
Level 2 General and Specific Theory Paper RI-4

This column is for official use only

Name: ……………………….…………… Results
Signed: ……………………………………. Marker 1:

Date: ……………………………………. Marker 2:

1. When attempting to radiograph a butt weld made on 4 mm carbon steel plate, which of
the following exposure conditions are most likely to be used?
a. 400 kV, 12 mAmins, salt screens, 900 ffd.
b. 120 kV, 6 mAmins, no screens, 900 ffd.
c. 160 kV, 6 mAmins, lead screens, 900 ffd.
d. 80 kV, 12 mAmins, no screens, 900 ffd.

2. Which of the following radiographic techniques would most likely be used when carrying
out radiography on a 300mm-diameter pipe to pipe weld (circumferential) no internal
access?
a. D.W.D.I.
b. S.W.S.I. (panoramic)
c. D.W.S.I.
d. D.W.D.I. (perpendicular)

3. In accordance with BS EN 1453 what is the minimum exposures required for a

D.W.D.I. perpendicular technique:
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. As many shots as possible to give full coverage of the weld giving acceptable radiographs.

4. In accordance with BS EN 1453 what is the thickness range for selenium 75?
a. Less than 15mm
b. The same as iridium 192.
c. 20 to 100mm.
d. 10 to 40mm.

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 R&TPO-msr-RI-4.
Date: 09/02/2000 issue 3.

5. Under most circumstances, which of the following conditions would give a single wall single
image multiple exposures.
a. The radiographic examination of a plate weld over 40 metres in length.
b. The radiographic examination of a pipes girth weld, full circumference less than
90mm diameter, no internal access.
c. The radiographic examination of a pipes girth weld, full circumference over
500mm diameter, both internal and external access.
d. The radiographic examination of the same conditions as for “c” but with no
internal access.

6. Which of the following materials may be used for the manufacture of the anode target used in
conventional x-ray tube heads?
a. Tungsten and copper.
b. Tungsten and aluminium.
c. Tungsten and platinum.
d. Tungsten is the only material that can be used for the anode targets.

7. Which of the following are reasons for setting the anode target at an angle?
a. To reduce the amount of heat produced in the anode.
b. To improve overall contrast.
c. To reduce the actual focal spot size.
d. To reduce the effective focal spot size.

8. Which of the following factors will give the best film image sharpness:
a. Small actual focal spot size, long o.f.d. and a long f.f.d.
b. Short o.f.d, short f.f.d. and a small effective focal spot size.
c. The use of shorter wavelength radiation, long f.f.d. and a small actual focal spot size.
d. Long f.f.d, short o.f.d, and the use of longer wavelength radiation.

9. Lead plates or sleeves used in x-ray tube-heads are for the purpose of:
a. Shielding to prevent unwanted radiation spread.
b. Directing x-rays towards the desired direction i.e. towards the window or tube port.
c. To dissipate heat which is created in the tube-head.
d. Both a and b.

10. At approximately what percentage of a cobalt 60 isotope intensity will be lost after 2.5
years? a. 50%.
b. 25%.
c. 100%.
d. 75%.

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11. Ytterbium 169 is an ideal isotope for thin material:

a. Because it produces hard radiation.
b. Because it produces soft radiation.
c. Because of its high deterioration.
d. Both a and b.

12. Which of the following will give the highest subject contrast?
a. Ultra fine grain film, slow film speed.
b. Large grain film, fast film speed.
c. Medium grain film, medium film speed.
d. None of the above.

13. Which of the following defects (in most circumstances) will not be detected using x-rays?
a. Centre line-cracking open to the surface.
b. Lack of side-wall fusion with associated slag.
c. Plate laminations (significant in area).
d. Cluster porosity.

14. Which of the following x-ray machines are most commonly used on site?
a. Constant potential.
b. Conventional.
c. Linear accelerators.
d. Betatron accelerators.

15. A positron is best described as:

a. A particle carrying a unit positive electrical charge, one atomic mass unit.
b. A positive charged particle, equal atomic mass unit to one neutron.
c. A particle carrying a unit negative electrical charge, one atomic mass unit.
d. A positive charged particle, equal atomic mass unit to one electron.

16. Two isotopes sources of the same material with the same activity:
a. Generally the one with the largest specific activity will produce radiographs with
highest definition.
b. Generally the one with the smallest specific activity will produce radiographs with
highest definition.
c. Both isotopes regardless of specific activity if every thing else is the same will
produce radiographs of the same definition.
d. None of the above.

17. Which of the following applies to alpha particles:

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 R&TPO-msr-RI-4.
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a. Negatively charged having a mass equal in magnitude to that of an electron.

b. Positively charged consisting of two neutrons and two protons.
c. Positively charged having a mass equal in magnitude to that of a proton.
d. No overall charge having a mass equal in magnitude to that of a neutron.

18. The most common source of man made radioactive isotopes is?
a. From a nuclear reactor involving the fission of uranium 235.
b. By accelerating the disintegration of uranium 236 to produce other radioactive
elements such as iridium 192 and caesium 137.
c. By directing a stream of quickly charged particles (usually electrons) at certain elements.
d. From neutron bombardment with an elements nuclei (neutron capture).

19. Which of the following are most likely to produce yellow stains on radiographs?
a. Touching undeveloped film with chemical contamination.
b. Non-uniform development and depleted developer solution.
c. Failure to use stop bath or insufficient final wash.
d. Over development and developer solution too strong.

20. Which of the following are probable causes for frilling?

a. Out of date film.
b. Overly warm or depleted fixer solution.
c. Insufficient final wash.
d. Incorrect drying conditions.

21. In accordance with BS EN 1453 which IQI wire must be visible on a radiograph taken of a
weld, total weld thickness 40mm, single wall technique test class A:
a. W8.
b. W9.
c. W10.
d. W11.

22. The IQI system of BS EN 462 is based on a series of how many wires?
a. 7.
b. 21.
c. 19.
d. 14.

23. The purpose of agitating radiographic films during development is to:

a. Reduce exposure times
b. Renew the developer at the surface of the film

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c. Disperse unexposed silver grains on the films surface

d. All of the above.

24. Which of the following applies to fluoroscopy?

a. It’s a radiographic technique used to determine depths of defects already detected.
b. It’s a process where x-rays are produced by neutron bombardment for use on thick
specimens.
c. It’s a technique used to some extent to save time when carrying out radiography
on complex shaped specimens with various thickness.
d. It’s a process in which x-rays produce images that are observed visually on
fluorescent screens.

25. Which of the following are reasons for using a high-vacuum environment for the tube
envelope in x-ray tube-heads?
a. To permit ready passage of the electron beam without ionisation of the tube gas.
b. To provide electrical insulation between the electrodes.
c. To prevent oxidation of the electrode materials.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

26. Which of the following standards is entitled Image quality of radiographs image quality
indicators-duplex wire type?
a. BS EN 462-1.
b. BS EN 462-5.
c. BS EN 462-4.
d. BS EN 462-3.

27. In x-ray tube-heads the filament in the cathode is usually made from:
a. Copper.
b. Tungsten.
c. Titanium.
d. Glass (Pyrex).

28. The focusing cup functions as an electrostatic lens whose purpose:

a. Direct x-rays towards the anode.
b. Direct a stream of electrically charged particles towards the anode.
c. To shorten the radiation’s wavelength.
d. Both a and b.

29. When manually developing radiographic film:

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a. Developer temperature 20 oC for 4 to 5 minutes.

b. Developer temperature 28 oC for 4 to 5 minutes.
c. Developer temperature 20 oC for 4 to 5 seconds.
d. Any of the above could be used developer temperature and development time is not
so critical.

30. Which of the following standard(s) has BS EN1435 superseded?

a. BS 2600.
b. BS 2910.
c. BS 3971.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

31. The constant potential circuit of an x-ray generator is also known as:
a. An unrectified circuit.
b. The villard type circuit.
c. A half wave rectified circuit.
d. The greinacher circuit.

32. What does the developer supply to the film emulsion to initiate the chemical change
that makes the latent image visible?
a. Neutrons.
b. Bromide.
c. Electrons.
d. Positive ions.

33. Pair production, compton effect, photoelectric effect are three examples of:
a. Chemical reactions which play a major role in developing a film.
b. Methods used to make a radiograph.
c. Interactions which attenuate x-rays or gamma rays.
d. Chemical reactions which create a latent image,

34. Developer preferentially reduces:

a. Unexposed silver ions over exposed silver ions.
b. Bromide ions over silver ions.
c. Exposed silver ions over bromide ions.
d. Silver ions over bromide ions.

35. When the minute silver grains on which the x-ray film is formed group together in relatively
large masses, they produce a visual impression called:

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a. Frilling.
b. Fogging.
c. Graininess.
d. Reticulation.

36. If a satisfactory radiograph has been achieved using the following exposure details,
exposure time = 2 min 45 seconds, mA = 3, f.f.d. = 10 inch, calculate a new exposure time
for the following changes, mA = 4.5, f.f.d. = 12 inch
a. 1.27 minutes.
b. 2 minutes 38 seconds.
c. 2.35 minutes
d. 1 minute 27 seconds.

37. The purpose of fixation is to:

a. To remove all the undeveloped silver salts of the emulsion.
b. To leave the developed silver as a permanent image.
c. To harden the gelatine.
d. All of the above.

38. Water spots can be minimised by:

a. Rapid drying of the wet film.
b. Immersing the wet film for one or two seconds in a wetting agent.
c. By using a fresh fixer.
d. By cascading water during the rinse cycle.

39. A graph showing the relationship between material thickness, kilovoltage and exposure
is called a:
a. Bar chart.
b. Exposure chart.
c. Characteristic curve.
d. H and D curve.

40. Excessive exposure of a film to light prior to development of the film will most likely
result in:
a. A fogged film.
b. Poor definition.
c. Yellow streaks.
d. Yellow stains.

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Level 2 QU Paper RI-4 8 of 8

 THE WELDING INSTITUTE

Radiographic Interpretation Assessment

Multi – Choice Question Paper (MSR-ARI-1)

Name: ………………………………………………

1. If an exposure time of 2 minutes were necessary using a 3 metre source-to-film distance for a
particular exposure, what time would be necessary if a 6 metre source-to-film distance is used
and all other variables remain the same?

a. 12 minutes.
b. 4 minutes.
c. 8 minutes.
d. 6 minutes.

2. The characteristic curve of a fast film superimposed on a graph containing a

characteristic curve of a slow film, the fast film will?

a. Will be superimposed on top of the curve for the slow film but with a steeper gradient.
b. Will be superimposed on top of the curve for the slow film, but the length of the curve
will be different.
c. Will lie to the right of the curve for the slow film.
d. Will lie to the left of the curve for the slow film.

3. If we start with 50 curies of Co60, what will the activity be at the end of 15.9 years?

a. 12.5 curies.
b. 6.25 curies.
c. 3.125 curies.
d. 1.75 curies.

4. In welding which of the following processes may be considered for the welding of very
thick materials in excess of 100mm?

a. MMA (SMAW)
b. Electro-slag (ESW)
c. TIG (GTAW)
d. Plasma arc (PAW)

5. What are gamma rays?

a. They are the disintegration of a radionuclide.

b. They are a form of excess energy emitted because of certain disintegrations of a
radionuclide.
c. They are the sub-atomic particles which are emitted when a radio-isotope disintegrates
d. Gamma rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation emitted from all isotopes.

6. Which of the following types of crack is the most common type encountered, associated with
welds made on C-Mn steels?

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 THE WELDING INSTITUTE

a. Re-heat cracking.
b. Lamellar tearing.
c. Solidification cracking.
d. Hydrogen related cracks.

7. The number 60 in cobalt 60 is:

a. The number of neutrons added to the number of protons.

b. The number of neutrons only.
c. The number of protons only.
d. Dictates the element type

8. What is the appearance of diffraction mottle?

a. Yellow stain
b. Fine porosity.
c. Lightning like
d. Pink.

9. The projected (effective) focal spot size of an x-ray tube is determined by:

a. F.f.d and o.f.d.

b. The total area of the tungsten target set into the anode.
c. The angle of the tungsten target and the size of the electron beam.
d. The distance between cathode and anode.

10. A crater crack may also be described as:

a. Cold crack.
b. Tearing.
c. Star crack.
d. Fatigue crack.

11. Which unit has replaced the Rad?

a. The sievert.
b. The roentgen.
c. The gray.
d. The Becquerel.

12. The absorption of radiation by a material varies:

a. Directly with the square of the distance from the source.

b. Directly with the thickness of the material.
c. Inversely with the amount of scattering in the material.
d. In an approximately exponential manner with the thickness of the material.

13. Ytterbium 169 is a gamma source which:

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 THE WELDING INSTITUTE

a. Produces relatively good quality radiographs at the correct exposure when compared
with radiographs produced with Ir192.
b. Produces very short wave length radiation.
c. Generally used with fluorometallic screens.
d. All of the above.

14. A trace on a radiograph which shows the relationship between the logarithm of the
exposure applied to a photographic film and the resulting photographic density is called:

a. A bar chart.
b. An exposure chart.
c. A logarithmic chart.
d. A characteristic curve.

15. In order to reduce penumbra:

a. The object could be made artificially thicker.

b. The radiation should proceed from as large a focal spot as other considerations will allow.
c. The film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed.
d. The distance from the radiation source to the film should be as long as practicable.

16. Which of the following are reasons for fixation?

a. To remove the undeveloped silver halides in the emulsion.

b. To dissolve silver halide crystals which have an excessive photographic density.
c. To reduce the surface tension of the solution.
d. All of the above.

17. A large source size can be compensated for by:

a. Increasing the source-to-specimen distance.

b. The addition of lead filters.
c. Increasing the specimen-to-film distance.
d. None of the above.

18. What is the relationship between gigabecquerels and

curies? a. 3.7 1010 GBq = 1 Ci

b. 2.7 1010 GBq = 1 Ci
c. 37 GBq = 1 Ci
d. 109 GBq = 1 Ci

19. Lead screens used in industrial radiography:

a. To improve the quality of the radiograph by preferentially reducing the effect of scatter.
b. To reduce exposure times.
c. To reduce development times.
d. Both a and b.

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 THE WELDING INSTITUTE

e. All of the above

20. The steeper the gradient of the straight line portion of a specific films characteristic curve:

a. The wider the films latitude.

b. The higher the films definition.
c. The higher the film contrast
d. The lower the film contrast.

21. Which of the following has no effect on film contrast?

a. Wavelength of the radiation used.

b. Film density.
c. Film type.
d. All of the above.

22. A constant potential circuit of x-ray equipment is known as:

a. A half-wave rectified circuit.

b. AC circuit
c. An unrectified circuit.
d. A Greinacher circuit.

23. The atomic number of an atom is known as its:

a. A number.
b. Atomic mass number.
c. Z number.
d. N number.

24. Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life?

a. Caesium 137.
b. Thulium 170
c. Cobalt 60
d. Iridium 192.

25. When producing radiographs with x-ray equipment, if the kilo-voltage is increased:

a. The radiographic contrast decreases.

b. The subject contrast increases.
c. The film contrast increases.
d. The film contrast decreases.

26. If a satisfactory radiograph has been achieved using the following exposure details,
exposure time = 2 min 45 seconds, mA = 3, f.f.d. = 10 inch, calculate a new exposure time
for the following changes, mA = 4.5, f.f.d. = 12 inch

a. 1.27 minutes.

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 THE WELDING INSTITUTE

b. 2 minutes 38 seconds.
c. 2.35 minutes
d. 1 minute 27 seconds.

27. What would be the result if a film is placed in a developer solution and allowed to develop
without any agitation and tapping?

a. Dichroic fog and mottling.

b. Reticulation and white spots
c. Yellow fog and dark spots.
d. Bromide streaking and white spots

28. X-ray and gamma rays are types of:

a. Electromagnetic and ionising radiation.

b. Electromagnetic and corpuscular radiation.
c. Ionising and corpuscular radiation.
d. All of the above.

29. Inherent unsharpness is:

a. Another term given to penumbra.

b. Is caused through the use of large focal spot sizes.
c. To some degree is always present in a radiographic image.
d. All of the above.

30. Which standard is entitled “Non-destructive testing Image quality indicators?

a. BS EN 2910
b. BS EN 2600
c. BS EN 1435
d. BS EN 462

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 WORLD CENTRE FOR MATERIALS JOINING TECHNOLOGY

Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 2

Answer all questions

1. Besides serving as a filter, screens of high atomic number, such as lead and lead antimony,
also:

a) Decrease the source-to-film distance needed for a proper radiograph

b) Provide some image intensifying action
c) Permit the use of higher speed film
d) Decrease the graininess in a radiograph

2. X-ray films with large grain size:

a) will produce radiographs with better definition than film with small grain size
b) have slower speeds than those with a relatively small grain size
c) have higher speeds than those with a relatively small grain size
d) will take longer to expose properly than film with relatively small grain size

3. The uneven distribution of developed grains within the emulsion of a processed X-ray film
causes the subjective impression of:

a) graininess
b) streakiness
c) spots
d) white scum

4. A good radiograph is obtained at an amperage of 15 ma and a time of 1 min. If the amperage

is changed to 5 ma and all other conditions remain the same what exposure time will be
necessary to obtain the a radiograph of the same quality?

a) 4 minutes
b) 1 minutes
c) 3 minutes
d) 10 seconds

5. In order to achieve uniformity of development over the area of an X-ray film during
manual processing:

a) the film should be placed in a dryer after being developed

b) the developer should be agitated by means of mechanical stirrers or pumps
c) the film should be agitated while in the developer
d) the film should be transferred directly from the developer to the fixer.

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6. The density difference between two selected areas of a radiograph is known as:

a) unsharpness
b) radiographic contrast
c) specific activity
d) subject density

7. When producing radiographs, if the kilovoltage is increased:

a) the subject contrast decreases

b) the film contrast decreases
c) the subject contrast increases
d) the film contrast increases

8. Accidental movement of the specimen or film during exposure or the use of too small an
FFD will:

a) produce a radiograph with poor contrast

b) make it impossible to detect large discontinuities
c) result in unsharpness of the radiograph
d) result in a fogged radiograph

9. The normal development time for manually processing X-ray film is:

a) Is dependant on temperature of developer

b) Is not dependant on temperature of developer
c) Dependant on temperature of fixer
d) Dependant on exposure time

10. Lead screens in contact with the film during exposure increase film density because:

a) they emit electrons when exposed to X and gamma rays.

b) they absorb the shorter wavelength radiation more than the long wavelength primary
radiation
c) they intensify the photographic effect of the scattered radiation.
d) none of the above.

11. The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of:

a) subject contrast
b) radiographic definition
c) radiographic contrast
d) film contrast

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12. The amount of unsharpness or blurring of a radiograph is:

a) directly proportional to the OFD and inversely to the size of the focal spot
b) directly proportional to the size of the focal spot and inversely proportional to the source-
to-object distance
c) inversely proportional to the OFD and directly proportional to the source-to-object
distance
d) inversely proportional to the size of the focal spot and the object-to-film distance

13. The range of thickness over which densities are satisfactory for interpretation is a measure
of the:

a) subject contrast of a radiograph

b) sensitivity of a radiograph
c) latitude of a radiograph
d) definition of a radiograph

14. The slope of a straight line joining two points of specified densities on a characteristic
curve of a film is known as the:

a) speed of the curve

b) latitude
c) average gradient
d) density

15. In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed:

a) between the intensifying screen and the film

b) on the source side of the test object
c) on the film side of the test object
d) between the operator and the radiation source

16. Three liquids which are essential to process an exposed film properly are:

a) stop bath, acetic acid and water

b) developer, stop bath, and H0
c) developer, fixer and water
d) acetic acid, fixer and stop bath

17. The two most common causes for excessively high density radiographs are:

a) insufficient washing and overdevelopment

b) contaminated fixer and insufficient washing
c) overexposure and contaminated fixer
d) overexposure and overdevelopment

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18. The ability to detect a small discontinuity or flaw is called:

a) radiographic contrast
b) radiographic sensitivity
c) radiographic density
d) radiographic resolution

19. Movement, geometry and screen contact are 3 factors that affect radiographic:

a) contrast
b) unsharpness
c) reticulation
d) density

20. The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called:

a) Radiographic contrast
b) subject contrast
c) film contrast
d) definition

21. To prevent back scatter from reaching an X-ray film, it is customary to:

a) back the exposure holder with a thick sheet of lead

b) place a mask between the specimen and the front surface of the film
c) back the exposure holder with a thick layer of cardboard
d) place a filter near the X-ray tube

22. Static marks, which are black tree-like or circular marks on a radiograph, are often caused by:

a) film being bent when inserted in a cassette or holder

b) foreign material or dirt embedded in screens
c) scratches on lead foil screens
d) improper film handling techniques

23. The purpose of agitating an X-ray film during development is to:

a) protect the film from excessive pressure

b) renew the developer at the surface of the film
c) disperse unexposed silver grains on the film surface
d) prevent reticulation

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24. A penetrameter is used to measure:

a) the size of discontinuities in a part

b) the density of the film
c) the amount of film contrast
d) the quality of the radiographic technique

25. A fluorescent intensifying screen will:

a) transform X-ray energy into visible or ultraviolet light to which a photographic

emulsion is sensitive
b) result in reticulation
c) decrease the graininess of the image when using gamma rays
d) increase the definition in a radiograph

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 WORLD CENTRE FOR MATERIALS JOINING TECHNOLOGY

Radiographic Interpretation
Coursework 3

Answer all questions

1. Kilovoltage, exposure time and source to film distance are three of three most important X-ray
exposure factors. A fourth such exposure factor is:

A. focal spot size

B. temperature
C. filament-to-focal spot distance
D. milliamperage

2. In making an isotope exposure in an unshielded area, you find the dose rate 6 feet from the
source is 1200 Mr/hr. What would be the dose rate at 24 feet?

A. 75 mr/hr
B. 100 mr/hr
C. 200 mr/hr
D. 300 mr/hr

3. A source of iridium-192, whose half life is 75 days, provides an optimum exposure of a given
test object today with an exposure 20 minutes. Five months from now, what exposure time
would be required for the same radiographic density, under similar exposure conditions?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 1 hour and 20 minutes
D. 6 hours

4. In an X-ray tube, the filament and focusing cup are the two essential parts of the:

A. anode
B. cathode
C. rectifier
D. X-ray transformer

5. The absorption of gamma-rays from a given source when passing through matter depends on:

A. the atomic number, density and thickness of the matter

B. the Young's modulus value of the matter
C. the Poisson's ratio value of the matter
D. the specific activity value of the source

6. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionise and become electrical conductors

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make them useful in:

A. X-ray transformers
B. X-ray tubes
C. masks
D. radiation detection equipment

7. Cobalt-60 has a half life of 5.3 years. By how much should exposure time be increased (over
that used when the source was new) when the source is two years old?

A. no change in exposure time is needed

B. exposure time should be about 11 per cent longer
C. exposure time should be about 37 per cent longer
D. exposure time should be from 62 to 100 per cent longer

8. The focal spot in an X-ray tube:

A. is inclined at an angle of 30 from the normal to the tube axis

B. is maintained at a high negative voltage during operations
C. should be as large as possible to ensure a narrow beam of primary radiation
D. should be as small as possible without unduly shortening the life of a tube.

9. Materials which are exposed to gamma or X-rays below a few million volts:

A. should not be handled for at least 3 minutes after exposure has ceased.
B. should be stored in a lead-lined room
C. will not be dangerous to handle after exposure to radiation has ceased
D. should be monitored by means of a Geiger counter.

10. If an exposure time of 60 seconds was necessary using a 50cm SFD for a particular exposure,
what time would be necessary if a 25cm SFD distance is used and all other variables remain
the same?

A. 120 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 240 seconds

11. If it was necessary to radiograph a 7 inch thick steel product, which of the following gamma-
ray sources would most likely be used?

A. cobalt-60
B. thulium-170
C. iridium-192
D. caesium-137

12. An iridium 192 gamma-ray source has a practical thickness limit of:

A. 2 inches of steel or its equivalent

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B. 3 inches of steel or its equivalent
C. 4 inches of steel or its equivalent
D. 5 inches of steel or its equivalent

13. The velocity of electrons striking the target in an X-ray tube is a function of:

A. the atomic number of the cathode material

B. the atomic number of the filament material
C. the voltage difference between the cathode and anode
D. the current flow in the rectifier circuit

14. Two x-ray machines operating at the same nominal kV and ma settings:

A. will produce the same intensities and qualities of radiation

B. will produce the same intensities and may produce different qualities of radiation
C. will produce the same qualities but may produce different intensities of radiation
D. may give not only different intensities but also different qualities of radiation.

15. When referring to a 1T,2T or 4T hole in the ASME Boiler Code, ASTM, or armed
forces penetrameter, the T refers to:

A. the part thickness

B. the penetrameter thickness
C. the time of exposure
D. the time for developing

16. Images of discontinuities close to the source side of the specimen become less clearly defined
as:

A. source-to-object distance increases

B. the thickness of the specimen increases
C. the size of the focal spot decreases
D. the thickness of the specimen decreases

17. A general rule governing the application of the geometric principles of shadow formation
states that:
A. the X-rays should proceed from as large a focal spot as other consideration will allow
B. the distance between the radiation source and the material examined should be as small as
practical
C. the film should be as far as possible from the object being radiographed
D. the central ray should be as nearly perpendicular to the film as possible, to preserve
spatial relationships.

18. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial
radiography, they are most usually used to:

A. improve definition and resolution in radiographic images

B. improve contrast in radiographic images
C. increase exposure speed

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D. make films respond to multi-million volt radiation.

19. Excessive exposure of film to light prior to development of the film will most likely result in:

A. a foggy film
B. poor definition
C. streaks
D. yellow stain

20. White crescent-shaped marks on an exposed film are most likely caused by:

A. crimping film after exposure

B. crimping film before exposure
C. sudden extreme temperature change while processing
D. warm or exhausted fixer

21. Reticulation resulting in a puckered or netlike film surface is probably caused by:

A. crimping film after exposure

B. sudden extreme temperature change while processing
C. water or developer on unprocessed film
D. excessive object-film distance

22. Frilling or loosening of the emulsion from the base of the film is most likely caused by:

A. water or developer on unprocessed film

B. low temperature of processing solutions
C. developer solution contamination
D. warm or exhausted fixer solution

23. As a check on the adequacy of the radiographic technique, it is customary to place a standard
test piece on the source side of the specimen.This standard test piece is called a:

A. reference plate
B. lead screen
C. penetrameter
D. illuminator

24. If a viewer is reflecting an incident light of 3000cd/m2, when a radiograph is placed on a

viewer the transmitted light was 120cd/m2 . Calculate the density of the radiograph.

A. 1.39
B. 2.39
C. 1.15
D. 1.30

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25. Lead foil screens are used in radiography:

A. to improve the quality of the radiograph by preferentially reducing the effect of scatter
radiation
B. to reduce the exposure time
C. both A. and B. are reasons for using lead foil screens
D. neither A. nor B. are reasons for using lead foil screens

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 PERSONNEL CERTIFICATION IN NDT GENERAL PAPER 1

INSTRUCTIONS ARE PRINTED ON THE COVER SHEET OF THIS EXAMINATION PAPER

Candidate are advised to read them carefully before commencing the examination

1) The constant potential circuit of an X-ray generator is also known as :

a) The Villard type circuit
b) An unrectified circuit
c) A half wave rectified circuit
d) The greinacher circuit.

2) Artificial isotopes are created by bombarding an element with :

a) atoms
b) electrons
c) neutrons
d) protons

3) if the ½ life of thulium 170 is 130 days and the initial source strength is 50 curie, what will
the activity be at the end of 520 days ?
a) 12.5 curies
b) 6.25 curies
c) 3.125 curies
d) 1.6625 curies

4) why is the anode of an x-ray tube usually made from a material which has a high thermal
conductivity ?
a) to help retain the large amount of heat needed to produce a constant stream of electrons
b) to remain a high working temperature within the tube
c) so that heat dissipate from the surface of the anode more quickly
d) anode of high thermal conductivity generate more X-ray and increase output

5) In an X-ray tube, the angle of the target relative to the flow of electrons determines the size
of the effective focal spot :
a) true
b) false
c) true for rotating anode sets only
d) false, the focal spot will be the same size as the target

6) When a gas is bombarded by electromagnetic radiation it :

a) stabilizes
b) energies
c) ionizes
d) changes state

7) Alpha particle are emitted :

a) only by material isotopes
b) before gamma particles
c) before gamma ray
d) after gamma particles

1
8) Beta particles :
a) Travel and penetrate further than alpha particles
b) Do not penetrate as far as alpha particles
c) Travel and penetrate gasses only
d) Travel and penetrate the same as X-rays

9) If all factors remain the same, what affect will increasing the kilo voltage finished radiograph ?
a) increase contrast within affecting the previous film density
b) decrease film density without affecting the previous contrast
c) increase film density without affecting the previous contrast
d) decrease contrast and increase film density

10) thin sheets of lead foil in close contrast with the X-ray film during exposure increase because
they:
a) fluoresce when exposed to X and gamma radiation
b) absorb scattered radiation
c) percent back scattering of radiation
d) emit electrons when exposed to X and gamma radiation

11) A radiographic film with an ultra-fine grain size would normally be expected to give:
a) poor definition
b) low contrast
c) high speed
d) none of the above

12) Use of lead foil screens will, in the correct circumstances, permit reduction of the :
a) kv
b) ffd
c) exposure time
d) development time

13) The atomic number is also referred to as the :

a) A number
b) Atomic mass number
c) Z number
d) X number

14) The number 60 in “cobalt 60” defines the:

a) number of neutrons in each cobalt 60 atom
b) number of protons in each cobalt 60 atom
c) number of neutrons added to the number of protons in each cobalt 60 atom
d) total number of atom in a cobalt 60 molecule

15) Gamma ray are :

a) particle emitted when a radio-nuclide disintegrates
b) very high energy X-rays
c) a form of excess energy emitted during disintegrations of a radio-nuclide
d) X-ray that are emitted by all isotope

16) Which metallic salt is used in salt screens ?

a) lithium fluoride
b) cellulose triacetate
c) calcium Tung state
d) sodium thiosulphate

2
17) Another term for solarisation is ?
a) penumbra
b) reversal
c) reticulation
d) dichotic fog

18) What is the main advantage of using a constant potential X-ray unit ?
a) higher contrast on resultant radiography
b) smaller focal spot
c) more portable
d) reduced exposure time

19) What does the developer supply to the film emulsion to initiate the chemical change that makes
the latent image visible ?
a) neutrons
b) electrons
c) bromine
d) positive ions

20) Which of the following statement is true ?

a) a 6 curie cobalt 60 source produce radiation of the same wavelength as those from a 6
curie iridium 192 source
b) all other factor being equal, a 6 curie cobalt 60 source would produce the same
radiographic film density as a 6 curie iridium 192 source
c) a 6 curie cobalt 60 source and a 6 curie iridium 192 source have the same activity
d) all the above

21) What would be the effect of changing lead intensifying screens for fluorometallic intensifying
screen during a run of identical exposures ?
a) higher image definition
b) new exposure calculation could not be derived from the old values using the law of
reciprocity
c) the developing time would need to be reduced
d) the exposure time would need to be increased

22) What effect does fixer have on the unexposed silver halide crystals present on the surface of the
radiographic film during development?
a) make them water soluble so that they will dissolve in the fixer tank
b) reduce their adhesive properties so that they drop off in the fixer tank
c) converts them from green to black metallic silver to form a background for the image
d) converts them from green to black metallic silver to form the image

23) Pair production, Compton scattering and the photoelectric effect are tree example of :
a) chemical reaction which create a latent image
b) interaction which attenuation X-Ray or gamma ray
c) chemical reaction which play a major role in developing a film
d) method used to make a radiograph

24) the difference in density between two adjacent area on a radiograph is termed :
a) brightness
b) image contrast
c) radiation contrast
d) radiographic contrast

3
25) in the electromagnetic spectrum light ray have :
a) a higher frequency than X-rays
b) a lower frequency than X-rays
c) the same frequency to X-rays
d) a short wavelength than X-rays

26) A filter in the primary radiation beam will.

a) decrease the effective energy of the beam and increase radiographic contrast
b) increase the effective energy of the beam and reduce radiographic contrast
c) reduce exposure time
d) increase the amount of scattered radiation

27) The specific activity of a gamma source is usually measured in :

a) electron volts
b) curies per gram
c) roentgens per hour
d) counts per second

28) Radiation at a single wavelength is known as :

a) microscopic radiation
b) monochromatic radiation
c) heterogeneous radiation
d) fluoroscopic radiation

29) Characteristic X-ray have :

a) low energy and are of primary use in radiography
b) low energy and are of little use in radiography
c) high energy and are of primary use in radiography
d) high energy and are of little use in radiography

30) for a given thickness, which of the following materials …..

a) concrete
b) iron
c) copper
d) aluminum

31) As X-ray energy increase, wavelength will :

a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same
d) fluctuate

32) A fundamental requirement for generation of X-ray as :

a) source of neutrons
b) electromagnetic flux
c) temperature differential
d) source of electron

33) During manual film processing the purpose of the stop bath is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

4
34) Fixer solution used on in the processing of radiographic are :
a) Alkaline
b) Neutral
c) Acidic
d) Basic

35) X-ray , gamma ray and alpha particle all have, which of the following in :
a) particle radiations
b) electromagnetic radiation
c) microwave radiation
d) ionizing radiation

5
 PERSONNEL CERTIFICATION IN NDT GENERAL PAPER 2

INSTRUCTIONS ARE PRINTED ON THE COVER SHEET OF THIS EXAMINATION PAPER

Candidate are advised to read them carefully before commencing the examination

1) The constant potential circuit of an X-ray generator is also known as :

a. The Villard type circuit
b. An unrectified circuit
c. A half wave rectified circuit
d. The greinacher circuit.

2) All electromagnetic waves travel through air at the same speed, which is :
a) dependent on the frequency of the wave
b) the speed of light
c) the speed of sound
d) not true, the speed of electromagnetric wave is variable

3) The law of reciprocity links:

a) exposure and distance
b) exposure and time
c) time and distance
d) film speed and contrast

4) When a gas is bombarded by electromagnetic radiation it:

a) stabilizes
b) energizes
c) ionizes
d) changes state

5) X-ray intensity is a term used to describe:

a) the penetrating power of the beam
b) the magnitude of the applied voltage
c) the number of rays striking a defined area in a given unit of time
d) the filament current

6) An X-ray tube with a small focal spot is considered better than one with a larger spot
because it will give
a) greater penetrating power
b) better definition
c) less contrast
d) greater film density

7) The absorption of radiation by a material varies:

a) directly with the square of the distance from the source
b) directly with the thickness of the material
c) inversely with the amount of scattering in the material
d) in an approximately exponential manner with the thickness of the material

8) Gamma rays are:

a) particles emitted when a radio-nuclide disintegrates
b) very high energy X-rays
c) a form of excess energy emitted during disintegrates
d) X-ray that are emitted by all isotopes

6
9) What would the ratio of intensity be for light transmitted through adjacent areas of a
radiograph with respective density of 2.0 and 1.0 ?
a) 2
b) 10
c) 20
d) 100

10) The wavelength of x-ray generated by conventional industrial equipment will cover:
a) various wavelength depending on mA
b) a broad range across the spectrum
c) a single wavelength
d) a narrow line spectrum

11) Heavy duty X-ray machines are often cooled by circulating:

a. air round the head
b. a mixture of oil and water around the head
c. water cooled oil around the head
d. inert gas ground the head

12) The increase the flow of electrons in X-ray tube, which of the following parameters must
also be increased?
a) potential in the tube filament
b) charge on the tube filament
c) current in the tube filament
d) voltage in the tube filament

13) The conventional method of producing X-rays involves the sudden deceleration of high
velocity electron by a solid body called a:
a) focus cup
b) filament
c) target
d) cathode

14) A good radiograph is produced in 3 minute 15 mA, What exposure time would be needed if
the mA were reduced to 5 mA
a) 1 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 9 minutes
d) 10 minutes

15) The calculated geometric unsharpness generated by a 4 mm. Ø source, with an object to film
distance of 20 mm. and a source to film distance of 500mm. would be:
a) 0.167 mm.
b) 0.057 mm.
c) 0.25 mm.
d) 1.67 mm.

16) An X-ray film having wide latitude also has, by definition:

a) poor definition
b) low contrast
c) high speed
d) none of the above

7
17) The projected effective focal spot size of an X-ray tube is determined by:
a) the total of the tungsten insert in the anode
b) angle of the tungsten target and size of the electron beam
c) the window aperture size in the tube-shield
d) the distance between anode and specimen

18) The exposure chart indicates an exposure time of 12 minutes at an ffd of 1 m but calculation
show that a satisfactory Ug can be obtained at a 600 mm ffd. What new exposure time is
required for this new distance
a) 43 minutes
b) 7.2 minutes
c) 4.3 minutes
d) 2 minute

19) Which of the following are the most important consideration when changing ffd or sfd?
a) The penumbra and inverse square law
b) Development time and temperature
c) film type and screen combination
d) inherent unsharpness and film contrast

20) How is the size of the projected focal spot from an X-ray tube determined?
a) by measuring the penumbra on a resultant radiograph and transposing the
penumbra formula
b) by placing a sheet of lead containing a small hole halfway between the focal spot
and film measuring the dimensions of the resultant image and deducting twice the
hole diameter
c) by placing a sheet of metal containing a 1 mm. diameter hole on the film and
exposing it at an ffd of 300 mm. and then repeating the process using progressively
large holes until the image equals the dimensions of both the umbra and penumbra.
This hole diameter then equals the size of the projected focal spot
d) the maximum projected focal spot dimension is equal to the width of the beam at the
film, minus the tubehead diameter

21) An electron has:

a) a single positive charge
b) no charge at all
c) a single negative charge
d) a charge that can be positive or negative

22) Which of the following atomic attenuation processes is described?

a) pair production
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) The photoelectric effect
d) Compton scattering

23) The half-value thickness of material depends on :

a) the kV used
b) the mA used
c) the exposure time
d) the film type used

24) Lead screen intensify the image by :

a) filtering out secondary radiation
b) emitting ultraviolet light to which the film is sensitive
c) emitting electrons when they are struck by radiation of sufficient energy
d) all the above

8
25) What is the main advantage of using an X-ray unit with a greinacher circuit over an X-ray
tube with a self rectified circuit?
a) smaller focal spot
b) more portable
c) reduced exposure time
d) higher contrast on resultant radiographs

26) For a given technique, as compared with gamma radiation low energy x-rays produce
radiographs having:
a) better sensitivity
b) less contrast
c) greater contrast
d) A and C

27) The term “reduction factor” applies to:

a) the action of a developer on an exposed film
b) the amount of radiation intensity absorbed by a material
c) a function of activity and radiation output
d) a function of dose rate and distance

28) The nucleus of an atom is made up to basic atomic particles combining protons and :
a) electron
b) ions
c) neutrons
d) photons

29) The penetrating power of radiation emitted by Iridium 192 is :

a) approximately equivalent to that of X-ray generated at 200 KV
b) suitable for radiography of steel between 12 mm. and 60 mm. thick
c) will vary as the source decays
d) similar to that of Cobalt 60

30) The area of a film that receives most exposure to radiation will:
a) be processed more quickly
b) be the lightest area
c) be that darkest area
d) contain the most silver halides

31) A densitometer is used to assess:

a) exposure time
b) film thickness
c) film density
d) sensitivity

32) Movement, geometry and careen contrast are three factors that affect radiographic:
a) contrast
b) unsharpness
c) reticulation
d) density

33) The most commonly used target material in an X-ray tube is :

a) copper
b) carbon
c) carbide
d) tungsten

9
34) Film density :
a) decrease as exposure to radiation in creases
b) can be directly related to material density
c) increase as exposure to radiation decrease
d) increase as exposure to radiation increase

35) When an electron is removed from a neutral atom, the result is called a(n):
a) photon
b) alpha partical
c) ion
d) isotope

10
 PERSONNEL CERTIFICATION IN NDT GENERAL PAPER 3

INSTRUCTIONS ARE PRINTED ON THE COVER SHEET OF THIS EXAMINATION PAPER

Candidate are advised to read them carefully before commencing the examination

1) The part of an atom that carries a positive charge is called

a) A neutron
b) A photron
c) An electron
d) A proton

2) Artificial isotopes are created by bombarding an element with:

a) atoms
b) electrons
c) neutrons
d) protons

3) all electromagnetic waves travel through air at the same speed, which is :
a) dependent on the frequency of the waves
b) the speed of light
c) the speed of sound
d) not true, the speed of electromagnetic waves is variable

4) As the X-ray tube voltage increases:

a) wavelength increases
b) wavelength decreases
c) wavelength could increase depending on the type of X-ray
d) there is no change in wavelength

5) When a gas is bombarded by electromagnetic radiation it :

a) stabilizes
b) energizes
c) ionizes
d) changes state

6) X-ray intensity is a term used to describe:

a) the penetrating power of the beam
b) the magnitude of the applied voltage
c) the number of rays striking a defined area in a given unit of time
d) the filament current

7) In radiography, the inverse square law is applicable to :

a) kilovoltage and exposure time
b) milliamparage and kilovoltage
c) film focus distance and exposure time
d) film focus distance and kilovoltage

8) the absorption of radiation by a material varies:

a) directly with the square of the distance from the source
b) directly with the thickness of the material
c) inversely with the amount of scattering in the material
d) in an approximate exponential manner with the thickness of the material

11
9) The quantitative measure of film blackening is referred to as:
a) geometric unsharpness
b) photographic density
c) film contrast
d) radiation absorbtion

10) Ammonium thiosulphate and sodium thiosulphate are chemicals used in :

a) the manufacture of film bases
b) photographic developers used to reduce the amount of development fog
c) thermo-luminescent dosemeters
d) fixers for converting developed silver halides to water soluble compounds

11) Which of the following will not affect film contrast?

a) wavelength
b) film density
c) film type
d) all the above affect film contrast

12) What would the ratio of intensity be for light transmitted through adjacent areas of a
radiograph with respective densities of 2.0 and 1.0 ?
a) 2
b) 10
c) 20
d) 100

13) What is the appearance of reticulation on a radiograph?

a) a net light structure or an appearance of grainy leather on the radiograph
b) a black lightning like indication
c) a white lightning like indication
d) it could appear as any of the above

14) Alpha particles:

a) penetrate more than beta particles
b) penetrate denser materials better than x-rays
c) have the shorter wavelength
d) have very high velocity but low penetrate

15) Which metallic salt is used in salt screen?

a) lithium fluoride
b) cellulose
c) calcium tungstate
d) sodium thosulpate

16) An X-ray beam consist of electromagnetic radiation with a:

c) spectrum of wavelength similar a wave light

17) The atomic number determines the :

a) type of atom
b) type of element
c) number of nuclear in the atom
d) mass of atom

12
18) What type of radiation is emitted by Pb screen when
a) secondary x-ray or gamma rays and beta particle

19) A satisfactory radiograph is produced in 4 minutes at 6 mA . Assuming that all other factors
remain the same, what exposure time is require if the mA is halved ?
a) 2 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 8 minutes
d) 10 minute

20) The characteristic curve of light contrast film will:

a) have a steeper gradient compared to a curve for a low contrast film
b) be a straight line
c) always be on the left side of graph showing a characteristic curve for a film with
lower contrast
d) reflect all of the above

21) Gamma rays emitted from radio-isotope have:

a) a single wavelength, which is dependent on the isotope’s activity
b) one or more discrete wavelength dependent on the type of isotope
c) a broad spectrum of wavelength, which is dependent on the isotope’s activity
d) a broad spectrum of wavelength, which is determined by the atomic number or the
isotope

22) X-radiation arising from the retardation of moving charged particle is termed:
a) Compton scatter
b) Sievert
c) Bremsstrahlung
d) Secondary radiation

23) The unsharpness resulting from difference in film speed is also termed:
a) penumbra
b) inherent unsharpness
c) undercut
d) solarisation

24) The used of salt intensifying screens instead of lead intensifying screens will:
a) require an increase in exposure
b) create an image higher in definition
c) cause failure of the reciprocity law
d) reduce film processing time

25) Photographic developer is :

a) an acid
b) an alkali
c) neutral
d) any of the above depending on type

13
26) The contrast arising from a variation in radiation transmission through an object because of
thickness and/or material density difference is specifically termed:
a) film contrast
b) subject contrast
c) radiographic contrast
d) contrast sensitivity

27) Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal kV and mA settings:
a) will produce the same intensities but may produce different qualities of radiation
b) will produce the same intensities and qualities of radiation
c) may give not only different intensities but also different qualities of radiation
d) will produce the same qualities but may produce different intensities of radiation

28) Neglecting their charge, beta particle are identical to high speed:
a) protons
b) neutrons
c) electrons
d) any of the above depending on the type of beta particle

29) What is meant by the term “specific activity” in relation to a radio-isotope?

a) it is the activity per unit mass of a radio-isotope
b) it is the full name for what is normally termed the activity of a radio-isotope
c) it is the activity of a radio-isotope compared to the activity of an X-ray tube
d) it is the activity relative to 1 becquerel

30) Photographic fixer is :

a) an acid
b) an alkali
c) neutral
d) any of the above depending on type

31) The tenth-value thickness of a material depends on the :

a) mA used
b) Kv used
c) film type used
d) exposure time

32) Which of the following is commonly used for the measurement of X-ray and gamma ray
wavelength ?
a) sieverts
b) becquerels
c) nanometers
d) roentgens

33) If the kilovoltage across an X-ray tube is increased:

a) the speed of electrons traveling from the cathode to the anode will increase
b) the wavelength of the resultant X-ray will increase
c) the half-value thickness of the material being examined will reduce
d) all the above

14
34) The formation of a latent image in some of the silver halide grains of a film during storage is
described as:
a) inherent fogging
b) dichroic fogging
c) mottling
d) film unsharpness

35) An increase in Kv will cause:

a) an increase in film unsharpness
b) a reduction in definition
c) a reduction in radiographic contrast
d) all the above

36) Pair production, Compton scattering and the photoelectric effect are three examples of :
a) chemical reactions which create a latent image
b) interactions which attenuate X-rays or gamma rays
c) chemical reactions which play a major role in developing a film
d) methods used to make a radiograph

37) The exposure chart indicates an exposure time of 12 minutes at an ffd of 1 m but calculations
show that a satisfactory Ug can be obtain at a 600 mm. ffd. What new exposure time is required
for this new distance?
a) 43 minutes
b) 7.2 minutes
c) 4.3 minutes
d) 2 minutes

38) An electron has:

a) a single positive charge
b) no charge at all
c) a single negative charge
d) a charge that can be positive or negative

39) The most commonly used target material in an X-ray tube is :

a) copper
b) carbon
c) carbide
d) tungsten

40) The property of a material to block or partially block the passage of X-ray and gamma ray is
termed:
a) penetration
b) absolution
c) absorption
d) latitude

15