Syllabus 2019.

Sample Questions - Intermediate Level

Stem Graphic
Syllabus Question Chapter Section
Mock Questions D1 Graphic D2 Graphic D3 Graphic D4 Graphic
Ref Num Description Description

Revocation of an amateur licence is likely to occur if

A. the annual fee is not paid
Nature of amateur radio, types of Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1A4 1 B. the amateur’s details are not updated at least once per year
licence and call signs identification
C.*the amateur’s details are not updated at least once every five years
D. no transmissions have been made in a two year period.

As an intermediate licence holder you are directly supervising another UK licenced amateur. He/she must
A. Obey the terms of their licence.
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1B1 1 Operators and supervision B.* Obey the terms of your licence.
identification
C. Obey the terms of either licence.
D. Give both callsigns as identification.

You are visiting your friend who is a Full licence holder and using his transmitter at 200 watts. Your friend
leaves the room. You may continue operating
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station A. at 200 Watts because your friend is still on the premises
1B2 1 Operators and supervision
identification B. at 200 Watts because your friend is supervising you using a hand-held.
C.* but must use your own callsign and licence conditions.
D. at the same power but must use your own callsign.
In times of a national disaster an Intermediate licensee may
A.* pass messages on behalf of non licenced persons
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1C1 2 Messages B. use any radio frequency requested
identification
C. only use bands with Primary status
D. only transmit if asked by a User Service
Which of the following is NOT a User Service?
A. The Salvation Army.
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1C2 2 Messages B. The Royal Voluntary Service.
identification
C. The Fire Brigade.
D.* The Office of Communications.
You are providing an on-air talk in to guide club members to a camp site. As other members drive into range
and wish to speak they MUST
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station A. exchange callsigns with you as the leader of the group.
1C3 2 Messages
identification B. await their turn to call in to join the group
C. just chip in giving their name on the first over.
D.* exchange callsigns with any member of the group.
You may be required to reduce power by
A. a member of the user services.
Apparatus, inspection and Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1D1 3 B. a neighbour complaining about your installation.
closedown identification
C. your local authority.
D.* a person authorised by Ofcom.
You must stop operating your station if
A.* directed by a person authorised by Ofcom.
Apparatus, inspection and Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1D2 3 B. you receive a complaint from a neighbour.
closedown identification
C. ordered to do so by the RSGB.
D. requested to so by the local police.
To set up a beacon used for direction finding you must have
A. a Foundation licence.
Unattended and remote control Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1E1 4 B.* at least an Intermediate licence.
operation identification
C. only a Full licence.
D. any licence.

An Intermediate licensee may set up a remotely operated transmitter provided that

A. the remote control is connected using secure encryption.
Unattended and remote control Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1E2 4 B. the remote control is connected using a secure internet connection.
operation identification
C. the remote control is transmitted on amateur band at less than 10W p.e.p. e.r.p.
D. the remote control is transmitted on amateur band at no more than 500 mW p.e.p. e.r.p.

You wish to travel abroad and take your transmitter with you. If you wish to use your transmitter you must
A.* seek permission of the licencing authority in the countries you are visiting before using your transmitter.
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1F1 5 CEPT and international B. notify Ofcom of the counties that you will be visiting.
identification
C. check that your transmitter can operate on the frequencies permitted in the country you are visiting.
D. check to see that the country you are visiting is covered by the C.E.P.T. agreement.

Which amateur band is allocated to the Amateur Service on a Primary basis but not at all for satellite use?
A 1.850 -2.000MHz
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station
1G1 6 Licence schedule B* 7.100 - 7.200MHz
identification
C 10.100 - 10.150MHz
D 24.890 - 24.990MHz

Which amateur band is allocated on a Primary basis but where amateurs must accept interference from ISM
users.
Section 1 – Licensing conditions and station A.* 24000 - 24050MHz
1G2 6 Licence schedule
identification B. 5830 - 5850MHz
C. 5755 - 5765MHz
D.50 - 51MHz
Which capacitor, when accurately measured is within tolerance if marked as 3.3mF ± 20%?
A 4.4mF
2A1 7 Fundamental theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B* 3.9mF
C 2.6mF
D 2.5mF
 You have a three resistors with the values 10Ω, 20Ω and 60Ω. What is the minimum resistance that these
resistors can be connected together to provide.
A. 30Ω
2C1 7 Resistance Section 2 – Technical aspects
B.* 6Ω
C. 90Ω
D. 10Ω
+15V

3k 
What are the maximum and minimum output voltages as the potentiometer is adjusted?
A Max 15 Min 0 Vout
10k 
2C2 8 Resistance Section 2 – Technical aspects B Max 12 Min 1
C Max* 12 Min 2
D Max 10 Min 2 2k 
0V

A radio receiver draws 2A from a 12V power supply. However when the radio is turned off the supply voltage
increases to 13V. What is the source resistance?
A 6.5Ω
2C3 8 Resistance Section 2 – Technical aspects
B 1.0Ω
C 2.0Ω
D* 0.5Ω
The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the
A charging current and voltage.
2D1 9 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects B* material between the plates .
C thickness of the plates.
D frequency of the applied signal.

Approximately, what is the maximum capacitance that can be achieved by the arrangement of capacitors
shown in the diagram?
A. 150pF.
2D2 9 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects
B.* 77pF.
C. 310pF.
D. 170pF.

Which type of capacitor must be connected the correct way round?

A.* Electrolytic.
2D3 9 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects B. Variable.
C. Ceramic.
D. Polyester

Forming a wire into a coil in an inductor causes

A.* the magnetic field to be concentrated.
B. a decrease in capacitance between turns.
2D4 10 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects
C. a reduction of resistance.
D. a reduction of the stored charge.

What is the minimum inductance of a circuit containing inductors of 1H, 2H and 3H?
A* 0.55H
2D5 10 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects B 1.83H
C 1H
D 0.5H
Which of the following increases the inductance of a coil?
A. reducing coil diameter.
2D6 10 Reactive components Section 2 – Technical aspects B.* increasing coil diameter.
C. decreasing the number of turns in the coil.
D. increasing the spacing between turns in the coil.
A capacitor is able to
A.* pass an alternating current.
2E1 11 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B. pass a direct current.
C. store energy in a magnetic field.
D. only operate if air spaced.
The periodic time for a frequency of 10MHz is
A.* 0.1μs
2E2 11 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B. 1.0μs
C. 1.0ms
D. 0.1ms
1 4
3
The current through and voltage across a component which is a pure reactive (L or C) are displayed on a 2

screen. The bold line shows the current, which line will correctly shown the voltage?
A line 1.
2E3 11 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects
B line 2.
C line 3.
D* line 4.

The ratio of the RMS potential difference and the RMS current in a capacitor is known as
A.* reactance.
2E4 12 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B. resistance.
C. inductance.
D. capacitance.
The reactance of an inductor is a measure of
A. the amount of energy stored in its magnetic field.
2E5 12 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B. the quantity of charge stored in its electric field.
C.* the ratio of the RMS current and RMS voltage.
D. The ratio of the RMS current to the peak current.
The circuit shown energy is transferred to heat in
A. C and stored in R and L.
2E6 12 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B.* R and stored in L and C.
C. L and C and stored in R.
D. L and stored in R and C.
 A radio broadcast is on 15.1 metres. What is the frequency of transmission?
A. 21MHZ.
2E7 13 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects B. 18.15MHz.
C* 19.86MHz.
D. 1.98MHz.
A long twin wire feeder connects a 30m broadcast transmitter to its antenna. A probe shows the voltage on
the line to be at its positive peak at a certain instant in time. A similar probe 15m towards the antenna will, at
the exact same time, shows
2E8 13 AC theory Section 2 – Technical aspects A the same size positive peak.
B * the same size negative peak.
C zero.
D about half voltage.
A good audio signal is being sampled to convert it to digital for storage and playback later when it sounds
distorted. To try to solve the problem the sample rate is doubled but it still sounds distorted. What should be
tried next?
2F1 14 Digital signals Section 2 – Technical aspects A Try halving the sample rate to reduce the amount of data.
B Re-recording the original analogue signal and re-sample.
C* Increase the number of data bits to record each sample.
D Reverse the polarity of the audio leads to the sampling device.
The energy is coupled from the primary to the secondary windings of a transformer by
A capacitive coupling
2G1 15 Transformers Section 2 – Technical aspects B* via the magnetic field
C the alternating voltage
D frequency resonance
In the graph shown, the frequency indicated at fa is known as
A. the reactance frequency.
2H1 16 Tuned circuits and resonance Section 2 – Technical aspects B.* the resonant frequency.
C. the critical frequency.
D. the cut off frequency.

In a tuned circuit the graph shows.

A.* L and C in series.
2H2 16 Tuned circuits and resonance Section 2 – Technical aspects B. L and C in parallel.
C. L and R in series.
D. L and R in parallel

In a tuned circuit, the resonant frequency will be increased by

A. increasing either L or C.
2H3 16 Tuned circuits and resonance Section 2 – Technical aspects B.* decreasing either L or C
C. increasing the voltage across either L or C.
D. decreasing the voltage across either L or C.

Which tuned circuit has the greatest selectivity.

A.
2H4 16 Tuned circuits and resonance Section 2 – Technical aspects B.
C.
D.*

Which of the following diagrams is a high pass filter.

A.* 1
2H5 16 Tuned circuits and resonance Section 2 – Technical aspects B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A semiconductor diode, when the voltage applied exceeds the forward voltage
A.* will conduct current in one direction only
2I1 17 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B. conducts current in both directions.
C. amplifies the current.
D. blocks the current in both directions.
The capacitance of a variable capacitance diode
A. increases with increasing voltage when forward biased.
2I2 17 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B. decreases with increasing voltage when forward biased.
C. increases with increasing voltage when reverse biased.
D.* increases with decreasing voltage when reverse biased.

The drawing shows a transistor working properly in a circuit. What is the value of b for the transistor?
A* 15
2I3 17 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B 16
C 45
D 48

The diagram shows part of a transistor amplifier circuit with all the designed values. The base current is
designed to be 100mA but the resistor is at the limit of its tolerance and the actual base current is 110mA.
What will the actual collector voltage be?
2I4 18 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects A 6V
B 6.6V
C* 5.4V
D 3.0V
What is the purpose of biasing a transistor?
A To prevent it causing RF interference to other parts of the circuit.
2I5 18 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B* To ensure it works as the circuit designer had intended.
C To suppress any tendency to oscillate if the value of b is higher than expected.
D To ensure correct matching to the following stage of the overall circuit.
 What is the function of the crystal in the circuit shown?
A To set the correct biasing for the transistor.
2I6 18 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B To avoid key clicks when the circuit is used for CW.
C To stabilise the amplitude of the output signal.
D* To set the frequency at which the circuit will operate.

The photograph shows an electronic component often referred to as a

A semiconductor device
2I7 20 Semiconductor devices Section 2 – Technical aspects B* integrated circuit
C surface mount component
D monolithic device

Rechargeable batteries are often marked with a value quoted in Ampere-hours. What does this value mean.
A.* An indication of the stored energy when fully charged.
2J1 19 Cells and power supplies Section 2 – Technical aspects B. The time after which the battery should be recharged.
C. The time for which the battery will power the connected device.
D. The maximum charging current at which the battery can be safely charged.

Part of a mains powered DC power supply is shown in the diagram. The smoothing capacitor is missing, where
should it be inserted?
A Between points 1 and 2.
2J2 19 Cells and power supplies Section 2 – Technical aspects
B Between points 2 and 3.
C Between points 1 and 3.
D* Between points 4 and 5.

Which waveform will be seen across the output terminals of this mains powered power supply?
A Waveform 1.
2J3 19 Cells and power supplies Section 2 – Technical aspects B Waveform 2.
C Waveform 3.
D* Waveform 4.

What type of component is in the box marked X?

2J4 20 Cells and power supplies Section 2 – Technical aspects

A Filter.
B* Transformer. X
C Digital controller.
D Smoothing capacitor.

If an AM transmission has a Depth of Modulation of 0.1 then the audio signal will be
A* fairly quiet.
3A2 21 Transmitter concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B quite loud.
C low in frequency.
D high in frequency.

Compared to AM, SSB has

A the sidebands removed.
3A3 21 Transmitter concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B one sideband removed.
C the carrier reduced in amplitude.
D* one sideband and no carrier.
One of the functions shown in the block diagram of an SSB transmitter has been put in the wrong place. Which
one?
A.* A crystal oscillator.
3B1 21 Transmitter architecture Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B. An audio amplifier.
C. The frequency synthesiser.
D. The mixer.
Which statement about VFO and crystal oscillators is correct?
A. A VFO is very stable and a crystal oscillator is tuneable.
3C1 21 Oscillators Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B.* A VFO is tuneable and a crystal oscillator is very stable.
C. The stability of the VFO and crystal oscillators are similar.
D. The tuning range of a crystal oscillator is greater than a VFO.
The stability of an oscillator can be improved by
A locating the oscillator next to the power amplifier it is intended to drive.
3C2 21 Oscillators Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B running the local oscillator from the common DC supply to the control circuitry.
C keeping audio and RF circuits housed in separate ventilated enclosures.
D* running the oscillator from its own power supply separate from other circuits.
A direct digital synthesiser generates sine waves by
A* relying on a look-up table of the voltages levels required to form a sine wave.
3C3 21 Oscillators Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B calculating the required voltage levels from downloaded software routines.
C digitising the levels generated by a controlled variable frequency oscillator.
D digitally mixing two signals and selecting either the sum or difference output.
The output from a balanced modulator contains
A the carrier modulated with the audio modulating signal.
Microphone amplifiers and
3E1 22 Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B* two sidebands but with the carrier suppressed.
modulators
C two sidebands but only one of which is modulated.
D one modulated sideband with the carrier suppressed.
The SSB filter in a transmitter removes
A the carrier from the output of the modulator.
Microphone amplifiers and
3E2 22 Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B the carrier and one of the two sidebands.
modulators
C one sideband leaving the carrier and other sideband.
D* one of the two sidebands from the modulator.
Frequency modulation is achieved by
A mixing the audio and carrier signals in a mixer circuit.
Microphone amplifiers and
3E3 22 Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B adding the audio signal to the ALC feedback from the modulator.
modulators
C combining the audio and carrier signals in a frequency discriminator.
D* using a variable capacitance diode to control an LC oscillator.
 The power amplifier in a transmitter has an efficiency of 60% and provides 50W of RF at its output. How much
power is lost as heat?
A 84W
3F1 22 RF power amplifiers Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B 30W
C* 33W
D 20W
A 2m transceiver uses an oscillator and frequency modulator at 48MHz which is then mixed up to 145MHz for
transmission. One risk with this design is that
A the RF signal is likely to drift in frequency.
3G2 23 Transmitter interference Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B* there will spurious signals around 144MHz.
C the received audio will be horribly distorted.
D the RF output power will be difficult to control.
The purpose of a notch filter is to attenuate
A all signals below a set frequency.
3G3 23 Transmitter interference Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B all signals above a set frequency.
C signals above and below a set frequency.
D* signals at and close to a set frequency.
The drawing shows the envelope of a CW (Morse) transmitter. A likely problem with this transmission is
A* key clicks occurring over several kHz each side of the intended transmission.
3G4 23 Transmitter interference Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B key clicks occurring on harmonics of the intended transmission.
C chirp affecting the sound of the received Morse signal.
D chirp affecting signals on harmonics of the Morse signal.

Chirp is caused by
A Locating the oscillator too close to the power amplifier.
3G5 23 Transmitter interference Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B Failing to screen the audio oscillator circuity from the power amplifier stages.
C* Running the oscillator from the same DC supply as the power amplifier.
D Leaving the oscillator running all the time on transmit and receive.
The direct conversion receiver shown is receiving a signal at 7.1MHz, what frequency should the local oscillator
be set to correctly receive and copy the signal?
A 3kHz.
3H2 24 Receiver concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B* 7.1MHz
C 465kHz
D 7.565MHz
The sensitivity of a radio receiver is a guide to its ability to
A reject unwanted signals on adjacent frequencies.
3H3 24 Receiver concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B withstand strong signals without causing reception problems.
C demodulate signals, especially SSB, clearly and correctly.
D* receive weak signals without them being drowned in noise.
If the tuning sections of a radio receiver have a relatively low Q-factor then
A* adjacent RF signals are more likely to interfere with the wanted signal.
3H4 24 Receiver concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B adjacent RF signals are less likely to interfere with the wanted signal.
C careful tuning is essential to pick up all the wanted signal.
D background radio frequency noise will be markedly reduced.
In the medium wave band up to 3MHz a tuned radio frequency, TRF, receiver can work adequately. Above that
it is necessary to move to a Superhet architecture. Why?
A Achieving sufficient gain at higher frequencies is not easy.
3I1 25 Superheterodyne concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B* A TRF receiver does not have adequate selectivity at higher frequencies.
C Radio noise gets worse at higher frequencies and needs to be filtered out.
D It is not possible to provide automatic gain control in a TRF receiver.
A Superhet receiver is tuned to 14.1MHz and the Intermediate frequency is 460kHz. A suitable frequency for
the Local Oscillator is
A 14.1MHz
3I2 25 Superheterodyne concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B 460kHz
C* 13.64MHz
D 14.46MHz
In a Superhet receiver the Intermediate Frequency
A keeps in step with the tuning of the receiver.
3I3 25 Superheterodyne concepts Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B* remains on a fixed frequency as the receiver is tuned.
C is a constant offset in frequency from the local oscillator.
D is midway between the tuned frequency and the local oscillator.
A Superhet receiver is tuned to 14.0550MHz and its Intermediate Frequency is 460kHz. A suitable frequency
for the Beat Frequency Oscillator is
A 14.0550MHz
3K1 26 Demodulation Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
B 14.0557MHz
C 460kHz
D* 459.3kHz
The signal for the Automatic Gain Control, AGC, is derived
A* at the detector stage and controls the gain of the IF amplifier.
3L1 26 Automatic gain control (AGC) Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B in the RF amplifier and controls the gain of the IF amplifier.
C at the input to the audio amplifier and controls the gain of the RF amplifier.
D in the IF amplifier and controls the gain of the audio amplifier.
One advantage of a software defined radio receiver is that
A the receiver is inherently much more sensitive.
3M1 27 SDR transmitters and receivers Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B two RF signals on the same frequency can be separated out.
C a digital frequency display simplifies tuning to the wanted signal.
D* the intermediate frequency filters can be much more selective.
The drawing shows a signal in the frequency domain, which time domain signal was it derived from?
A Signal 1.
B Signal 2.
3M2 27 SDR transmitters and receivers Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers
C * Signal 3.
D Signal 4.
Note: The four answers may not be in numerical order.

An SDR receiver is shown in the diagram. What function is performed in the blank box?
A Fourier transform.
3M3 27 SDR transmitters and receivers Section 3 – Transmitters and receivers B Sampling.
C* Low-pass filtering.
D High-pass filtering.
 Waveguide size WG13 has internal dimensions of approximately 40.4 x 20.2 mm. What is the lowest frequency
mm
AMATEUR band for which it is suitable? 40.4
A 3.71GHz 20.2mm
4A1 28 Feeders Section 4 – Feeders and antennas
B* 5.65GHz
C 7.43GHz
D 10GHz
An advantage of using twin feeder over coax is that,
A it is much easier to bend round corners.
4A2 28 Feeders Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B is unaffected by nearby metallic objects.
C* it usually has a lower RF loss than coax.
D it is much cheaper.
The characteristic impedance of a feeder is,
A normally 50Ω for twin feeder and 600Ω for coax.
4A3 28 Feeders Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B independent of the diameter and spacing of its wires.
C* dependent on the diameter and spacing of its wires.
D determined solely by the material used for its insulation.
A choke balun is used on a coax feeder to
A. amplify any common mode currents.
4B1 28 Baluns Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B. balance the forward and reflected currents.
C.* attenuate the current on the outside of the coax braid
D choke off the signal from a nearby transmitter
The beam width of a Yagi antenna is the
A. average width of the reflector and director elements.
4C2 29 Antenna concepts Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B . thickness of the load bearing pole.
C.* angle between the half power points of the radiated RF
D . length of the RF driven element.
An isotropic radiator is
A. real and has measurable dimensions
4C3 29 Antenna concepts Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B.* a theoretical point source of equal radiation in all directions
C. said to have a gain of 2.15 dB compared to a dipole
D. used only in the troposphere.
The angle of radiation of a vertical antenna is the angle
A. between the vertical antenna and the direction of radiated RF.
4C4 29 Antenna concepts Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B.* between the ground and the direction of radiated RF
C. the angle in the horizontal plane in which there is maximum field
D. the recommended angle at which the supporting guy ropes are set.
4C5
A centre fed half wave dipole will have a feed point impedance of
A.* 73Ω in free space at its design frequency
4C5 29 Antenna concepts Section 4 – Feeders and antennas
B. 73Ω in air and at any frequency
C. 50Ω near the ground at any frequency
D. 50Ω in free space
A Yagi antenna has a
A. half wave driven element with slightly longer director elements
4D1 30 Types of antenna Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B. full wave driven element and a shorter reflector element
C. half wave driven element with several reflecting elements
D.* half wave driven element, a longer reflector and shorter reflecting elements.
An antenna trap is a parallel tuned circuit that
A. stops spurious signals being radiated from the transmitter
4D2 30 Types of antenna Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B.* enables two bands to be received on a single dipole
C. stops birds sitting on a dipole at high voltage
D. prevents RF from electric motors reaching the feeder
Standing waves are formed on a feeder when,
A.* reflected waves from the antenna combine with those from the transmitter.
4E1 31 Standing waves Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B. when the feed impedance of the antenna and feeder are 50Ω.
C. the feeder loss for the reflected wave is greater than that for the forward wave.
D. when the SWR is less than 1.0.
A modern transceiver will have a built in AMU to ensure that the
A. impedance of the antenna, feeder, and transceiver is less than 50 Ω
4F1 31 Antenna matching units Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B.* load presented to the transceiver is exactly 50Ω impedance. is matched to its output
C. antenna feed point is perfectly matched to the feeder
D. internal components of the transceiver work within their tolerances
A dummy load consists of a resistor mounted on a heat sink. The resistor
A. is wire wound to give minimal reactance.
4G1 31 Dummy loads Section 4 – Feeders and antennas B. changes electrical energy to very low frequency RF.
C.* has a purely resistive impedance of 50Ω.
D. is rated at 50% of the maximum power load.
The single most important reason for using a PL259 plug and SO 239 socket to connect an antenna feeder to a
transceiver is to
A. minimise the chance of accidental disconnection.
4H1 31 Plugs and sockets Section 4 – Feeders and antennas
B.* contain the RF signal within the connection.
C. ensure electrical contact is only made via soldered joints.
D. match 75Ω feeder to the 50Ω output of the transceiver.
The skip distance is the distance between the
A. end of ground wave reception and start of sky wave reception.
5A2 32 Radio propagation: key concepts Section 5 – Propagation B. transmitting antenna and the end of ground wave reception.
C.* transmitting antenna and start of sky wave reception.
D. end of ground wave reception and the end of sky wave reception.
The signal strength received from a ground wave
A. gets weaker with greater distance and weaker with lower frequency.
5A3 32 Radio propagation: key concepts Section 5 – Propagation B.* gets weaker with greater distance and stronger with lower frequency.
C. gets stronger with greater distance when there are lots of sun spots.
D. gets stronger with higher frequency when there are lots of sun spots.

Which of the following statements is true about electro-magnetic waves?

A.* The electric field defines the polarisation of the wave and the magnetic field is at right angles to it.
5A4 32 Radio propagation: key concepts Section 5 – Propagation B. The magnetic field defines the polarisation of the wave and the electric field is at right angles to it.
C. the electric field defines the polarisation of the wave and the magnetic field leads it by 180 degrees.
D. the magnetic field defines the polarisation of the wave and the electric field leads it by 180 degrees.
 The ionosphere is made up of
A. radioactive gases
5B1 33 Ionosphere Section 5 – Propagation B.* conductive gases
C. ozone
D water vapour
The sunspot cycle is approximately
A. 1 year.
5B2 33 Ionosphere Section 5 – Propagation B. 5 years.
C.* 11 years
D. 76 years.
The F1 and F2 layers of the ionosphere combine
A. during daylight hours.
5B3 33 Ionosphere Section 5 – Propagation B.* during night time hours.
C. in the summer months.
D. in the winter months.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The D layer absorbs higher frequencies and tends to disappear during the day.
5B4 34 Ionosphere Section 5 – Propagation B.* The D layer absorbs lower radio frequencies and tends to disappear at night.
C. The LUF must be higher than the MUF for ionospheric propagation to occur.
D. The LUF is higher than the MUF in winter.
In the 24MHz and 28MHz bands propagation can be significantly
A.* improved by highly ionised gases in the E layer.
5B5 34 Ionosphere Section 5 – Propagation B. improved by thunderstorms.
C. degraded by highly ionised gases in the E layer.
D. degraded by bright sunshine.
Multiwave propagation arises when
A. two amateurs are transmitting on the same frequency at the same time.
5C3 34 VHF and above Section 5 – Propagation B. signals are reflected off buildings or aircraft when there is no direct signal path.
C. signals are received from ground wave and sky wave propagation,
D.* signals are reflected off buildings or aircraft in addition to the un-reflected signal.
A basic principle of Electromagnetic compatibility is that apparatus should
A.* function normally in its electromagnetic environment and without causing undue interference.
6A1 35 EMC concepts Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. not generate electromagnetic radiation other than through an antenna.
C. withstand all electromagnetic radiations from other sources.
D. not generate RF energy greater than that stipulated in the licence schedule.

The immunity of a receiving device can be improved by

A. screening the transmitter.
6A2 35 EMC concepts Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B.* filtering power, signal and control leads.
C. transmitting on a lower frequency.
D. transmitting on a lower power.
Modern receiving equipment may still be subject to interference
A. if the SWR level at the transmitter is 1:1
6A3 35 EMC concepts Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. if it bears the CE quality control mark.
C.* because transmitters in domestic environments produce stronger RF fields than the agreed limits.
D. because the household has a Protective Multiple Earth (PME) earthing system.

New electronic equipment should meet the immunity standards as defined by

A. Ofcom.
6A4 35 EMC concepts Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. The British Standards Institute.
C. The BBC.
D. The RSGB.
Which mode of transmission is most likely to induce speech like sounds in audio equipment or landline
phones?
Sources of interference and their A.* SSB.
6B1 36 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC)
effects B. FM.
C. CW.
D. PSK.
Which of the following non radio sources is least likely to cause interference.
A. A plasma TV.
Sources of interference and their
6B2 36 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B.* A soldering iron.
effects
C. LED lighting.
D. An electric motor.
Interference to Digital Audio Broadcast (DAB) receivers and digital TV sets is often characterised by
A. random voice sounds on DAB equipment and a herringbone pattern on digital TV.
Sources of interference and their
6B3 36 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. random channel switching on both DAB equipment and digital TV.
effects
C. humming noises on DAB equipment and horizonal lines on digital TV.
D.* drop out of sound on DAB equipment, frozen or pixelated pictures on digital TV.

Direct pickup
A.* is independent of the transmitted frequency.
6C1 36 Routes of entry Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. depends on the transmitted frequency.
C. can be reduced by fitting a filter to the mains lead of the receiver.
D. can be reduced by fitting a filter to the mains lead of the transmitter.
One effect of fitting a masthead TV amplifier is that
A. the TV picture becomes brighter.
6C2 36 Routes of entry Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. ghost images may appear on the TV screen
C. immunity from amateur signals is improved
D.* the TV input can be overloaded by amateur signals
Which of the following will help prevent RF interference entering the mains wiring.
A. Fitting ferrite chokes to the mains leads of receiving equipment.
6D1 37 Filtering and remedial measures Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B.* Fitting ferrite chokes to the mains leads of the transmitter power supply.
C. Connecting the RF earth of the transmitter to the mains earth.
D. Fitting a ferrite choke to the download of the TV antenna.
Fitting a choke or balun on a feeder can be used to attenuate
A.* common mode currents.
6D2 37 Filtering and remedial measures Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. differential mode currents.
C. direct currents.
D. balanced currents.
 Tests to detect harmonic emissions can be carried using
A. an SWR meter on multiples of the frequency being tested.
6D3 37 Filtering and remedial measures Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. a general coverage receiver tuned in to the transmitted signals frequency.
C.* a general coverage recover tuned into multiples of the transmitted signals frequency.
D. a dummy load on multiples of the frequency being tested.
You suspect that radiated RF interference may be getting into a domestic radio via the mains wiring. To test
this you could
A.* fit a dummy load to the antenna of the transmitter to see if the interference stops.
6D4 37 Filtering and remedial measures Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC)
B. reduce the transmitted power until the interference stops.
C. connect the earth terminal of the transmitter to the mains earth.
D. fit a filter to the transmitters mains power lead.
Which of the following types of antenna installation are likely to give rise to the LEAST amount of RF
interference?
Station design and antenna A.* A balanced dipole.
6E1 38 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC)
placement/general principles B. A long wire antenna, end fed at a point closest to the house.
C. A long wire antenna, end fed at a point furthest from the house.
D. A 1/4 wave vertical dipole *
A good RF earth is achieved by connecting the earth terminal of the transmitter to
A. the mains earth using very thick cable.
Station design and antenna
6E2 38 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. a tent peg in the ground using co-axial cable.
placement/general principles
C.* a long piece of buried copper rod using a short thick cable
D. the metalwork of the rising water mains through a coil of wire.

The most important risk of placing a transmitting antenna in the loft close to mains wiring and TV aerials is that
A. the noise of the mains wiring will be heard on the amateur receiver, masking weak signals.
Station design and antenna
6E3 38 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B. the roof will cause considerable loss of signal strength both on transmit and receive.
placement/general principles
C. the TV signals are likely to interfere with the amateur radio equipment when receiving.
D.* amateur transmissions will be picked up by the mains TV wiring and conducted into other devices.

When installing an amateur radio transceiver in a motor vehicle care should be taken, as far as possible, to
A. run the transceiver and antenna wiring in parallel with the vehicle wiring.
Station design and antenna
6F2 38 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B.* run the transceiver and antenna wiring at 90 degrees to the vehicle wiring.
placement/mobile installations
C. tape the transceiver and antenna wiring to the vehicle wiring.
D. run the transmitter and antenna wiring underneath the vehicle.

Which of the following diagrams shows the best position for mounting an amateur radio antenna on a vehicle?
A. 1
Station design and antenna
6F3 38 Section 6 – Electro magnetic compatibility (EMC) B.* 2
placement/mobile installations
C. 3
D. 4

*
You are having a conversation with PA1ABC. PA1ABC is located in
A. Papua New Guinea.
Good operating practices and
7A3 39 Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B. The Philippines.
procedures
C. The Netherlands.
D. Canada.
During a contest, radio amateurs usually exchange signal strength (RST) information and which of the
following?
Good operating practices and A.* Serial number.
7A4 39 Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures
procedures B. Postal address.
C. Postcode.
D. Frequency of transmission.
In which of the following bands is it permissible to hold an SSB contest.
A. 30 Metres.
7B1 39 Band plans Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B.* 20 Metres.
C. 17 Metres.
D. 12 Metres
You are engaged in a contact with another amateur radio and he requests you to QRO. You are being asked to
A. change frequency.
7E1 40 Codes and abbreviations Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B.* increase power.
C. acknowledge the contact.
D. suspend operation of your station.

When connecting the sound output from your computer to the microphone input of your transceiver
A. the transmitter will automatically adjust the input gain to prevent over driving.
7F2 40 Digital interfaces Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B.* programs running on the PC may cause unwanted sounds to be transmitted.
C. transmissions must be in FM
D. transmissions must be in AM.

You are listening to a transmission from an amateur satellite and observe that the receive frequency appears
to be increasing. The satellite is
A. in geostationary orbit
7G1 40 Satellites Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures
B. always within transmission range of Europe.
C. only within transmission range on certain days
D.* only within transmission range for a few minutes.
When communicating with an amateur satellite, the uplink and downlink frequencies are
A. Always in the same amateur band.
7G2 40 Satellites Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B. Generally in the same amateur band.
C.* Generally in different amateur bands.
D. Always in different amateur bands.
When communicating with an amateur satellite that is only within range for a few minutes, the signal received
will appear
A. stronger at the end of the transmission and weaker at the start
7G3 40 Satellites Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures
B. stronger at the start of the transmission and weaker at the end
C. at a lower frequency at the start of the transmission and higher at the end.
D.* at lower frequency at the end of the transmission and higher at the start
 When communicating through an amateur satellite your transmit
A.* power should be as low as possible.
7G4 40 Satellites Section 7 – Operating practices and procedures B. power should be as high as possible.
C. frequency should be as low as possible.
D. frequency should be as high as possible.
when designing high voltage circuits it is a good idea to place suitable resistors
A.* in parallel with smoothing capacitors.
8A1 41 Electricity Section 8 – Safety B. in parallel with all capacitors.
C. in series with smoothing capacitors.
D. in series with all capacitors.

The symbol shown on an item of mains powered electrical apparatus indicates that
A. The equipment must be connected to an RF earth.
8A2 42 Electricity Section 8 – Safety B. The equipment must be connected to the mains earth.
C.* The equipment does not need to be connected to the mains earth.
D. The equipment requires a waveguide to operate correctly.

A transceiver powered from the mains uses 15 watts on receive and 750 watts on transmit. Which of the
following fuses would be suitable for the mains plug.
A. 3 amps.
8A4 42 Electricity Section 8 – Safety
B.* 5 amps.
C. 10 amps.
D. 13 amps
If working on live equipment, you should
A. ensure that your body is fully earthed.
8A6 41 Electricity Section 8 – Safety B. wear protective goggles
C. use both hands.
D. *be completely isolated from earth.
The main hazard when wearing metal jewellery or watch straps whilst working on vehicle electric systems is
A. electrocution due to the high voltages.
8A8 42 Electricity Section 8 – Safety B.* burns or fire due to high currents.
C. static electricity shocks.
D. explosion caused by Helium emitted from the battery.

To avoid injury when using screwdrivers, saws and similar tools it is advisable to
A. keep your tools sharp.
8B2 43 Using tools Section 8 – Safety B.* work from behind the tool.
C. keep your tools in a toolbox.
D. use a tool belt.
When using a saw or a drill on an item, to ensure safety you should
A. wear gloves and a face mask.
8B3 43 Using tools Section 8 – Safety B.* secure the item in a vice or clamp.
C. ensure the items is earthed.
D. ensure plenty of ventilation.
Before applying power to an electric drill ensure that
A. the drill is fully earthed.
8B4 43 Using tools Section 8 – Safety B.* any chuck key used is removed.
C. any chuck key is fully tightened.
D. the drill is set to rotate anti-clockwise.
The correct use of a centre punch will
A.* reduce the chance of a drill bit slipping
8B5 43 Using tools Section 8 – Safety B. ensure accurate sawing
C. make small holes when required
D. assist accurate marking out
A bench mounted pillar drill is safer to use because
A. it does not generate swarf or sharp particles.
8B6 43 Using tools Section 8 – Safety B. it is quieter to use.
C.* it is easier to control.
D. both hands are needed to operate it.
A gas discharge arrestor is used to
A. prevent a lightning strike.
8E1 41 Lightning Section 8 – Safety B.* protect against build up of static charges.
C. prevent static interference to reception.
D. prevent surges in the mains supply.
You wish to measure the voltage in a mains power supply using an analogue multi meter. Which of the
following settings would be the most appropriate for your initial measurement.
A. 1,000 ohms.
9A1 44 Measurements Section 9 – Measurements and construction
B.* 1,000 volts AC.
C. 25 volts AC.
D. 25 amps DC.
In the circuit shown
A. Meter 1 is a voltmeter and meter 2 an ammeter.
9A2 44 Measurements Section 9 – Measurements and construction B.* Meter 1 is a ammeter and meter 2 is a voltmeter
C. Meter 1 and meter 2 are both ammeters
D. Meter 1 and meter 2 are both voltmeters
The range on your digital multimeter is set to 480 volts. What is the voltage indicated on the reading shown in
the diagram.
A. 60 volts.
9A3 44 Measurements Section 9 – Measurements and construction
B. 120 volts.
C.* 240 volts.
D. 20 volts.
Which diagram shows the correct way to connect a volt meter and am ammeter to measure the power
9A5 44 Measurements Section 9 – Measurements and construction
dissipated by the resistor. *
A transmitter has an output of 15 watts which is connected to a feeder with a loss of 3dB and finally into an
antenna with a gain of 17dB. What is the effective radiated power from the antenna?
A. 30 Watts.
9B1 45 Decibels Section 9 – Measurements and construction
B. 150 Watts.
C.* 375 Watts.
D. 210 Watts.
 A resistor is marked 5k6. Its resistance will be close to
A. 56 ohms
9C1 46 Components Section 9 – Measurements and construction B. 560 ohms.
C.* 5600 ohms.
D. 56,000 ohms.
Thin metal sheet is often used in the construction of radio equipment to
A.* reduce unwanted radiation between stages.
B. assist with component cooling.
9D1 46 Construction Section 9 – Measurements and construction
C. isolate high voltages from low voltages.
D. increase the rigidity of the radio chassis.

Soldering is a method of
A. heating flux to form glue which holds the items to be connected together
9E1 46 Soldering Section 9 – Measurements and construction B. using a hot iron to fuse the wires being connected together.
C. welding metal surfaces being connected together
D.* melting a metal alloy to flow around the components being connected together.
Flux is used when soldering to:
A.* help prevent an oxide layer forming on the surfaces to be soldered.
9E2 46 Soldering Section 9 – Measurements and construction B. reduce the temperature required for soldering.
C. stick the surfaces together so that they do not move when being soldered.
D. clean the surfaces of the components being soldered.
Which of the following metals is the easiest to solder in radio circuitry?
A. Aluminium.
9E3 46 Soldering Section 9 – Measurements and construction B. Stainless Steel.
C. Copper.
D. Cast iron.
When in use, the tip of a soldering iron should be kept clear of oxide and tinned to
A.* improve the conduction of heat into the soldered joint.
9E4 46 Soldering Section 9 – Measurements and construction B. prevent the soldering iron from overheating.
C. help solder flow from the tip to the soldered joint.
D. reduce the amount of flux used.