June 2006 UGC NET Paper I

1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill?

(A) Black Board writing
(B) Questioning
(C) Explaining
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach.
(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D) Teachers are born.
Answer: (B)

3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:

(A) Megasthanese
(B) Fahiyan
(C) Huan Tsang
(D) Kalhan
Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
Answer: (A)

5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?

(I) Define noun.
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(II) Define noun in your own words.

(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?
(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.
(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity.
(A) IV, II and I
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and III
(D) II, III and IV
Answer: (A)

7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List - I List - II
(Interviews) (Meaning)
(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach
(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be answered
(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience
(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question
(v) non-directive
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
Answer: (A)

8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?

(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
(C) To over simplify the problem of research.
(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.
Answer: (A)

9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:

(A) improve data interpretation
(B) eliminate spurious relations
(C) confirm triangulation
(D) introduce new variables
Answer: (B)

10. The depth of any research can be judged by:

(A) title of the research.
(B) objectives of the research.
(C) total expenditure on the research.
(D) duration of the research.
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of,
elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the
Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent
constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured
by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner
shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the
Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his
appointment.
In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court
directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments
dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any
other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the
election authorities under the commission.

11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:

(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Answer: (D)

12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority.
This is under Article No.
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161
Answer: (A)
13. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status.
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers.
(D) have political powers.
Answer: (A)

14. Fair and free election means:

(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups
Answer: (B)

15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
(D) 324
Answer: (D)

16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues,
events and societal developments is known as:
(A) content supply
(B) surveillance
(C) gratification
(D) correlation
Answer: (A)

17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as:
(A) cybernetics
(B) reverse communication
(C) selectivity study
(D) response analysis
Answer: (A)

18. Networked media exist in inter-connected:

(A) social environments
(B) economic environments
(C) political environments
(D) technological environments
Answer: (D)

19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is

referred to as:
(A) online communication
(B) integrated media
(C) digital combine
(D) convergence
Answer: (D)

20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in
various forms is described as:
(A) man-machine speak
(B) binary chat
(C) digital talk
(D) interactivity
Answer: (D)
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21. Insert the missing number: 16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34 ?

(A) 19/35
(B) 19/30
(C) 18/35
(D) 18/30
Answer: (D)

22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994?
(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)

23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is:
(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 28
Answer: (C)

24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code?
(A) VNLDM
(B) FHQKN
(C) XPNFO
(D) VLNDM
Answer: (A)

25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(A) 45 min. past 4
(B) 40 min. past 4
(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4
(D) 54 6/11 min. past 4
Answer: (D)

26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.
(A) Only (I) is implied
(B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (C)

27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?
(A) Any MLA
(B) Chief of Army Staff
(C) Solicitor General of India
(D) Mayor of Delhi
Answer: (C)

28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.
(A) only (I) is implied
(B) only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (B)

29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks
(B) increases the weight of the overburden
(C) enhances chemical weathering
(D) is a universal solvent
Answer: (B)

30. Direction for this question:

Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the
statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given
statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion :
Statements:
(a) all businessmen are wealthy.
(b) all wealthy people are hard working.
Conclusions:
(i) All businessmen are hard working.
(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy
(A) Only (i) follows
(B) Only (ii) follows
(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Answer: (A)

31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called:

(A) cyber venting
(B) cyber ranting
(C) web hate
(D) web plea
Answer: (A)

32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is
termed:
(A) poor recall
(B) web crawl
(C) poor precision rate
(D) poor web response
Answer: (A)

33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

(A) virtual reality
(B) fuzzy logic
(C) Bluetooth technology
(D) value added networks
Answer: (D)

34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet applicance is called:

(A) voice net
(B) voice telephone
(C) voice line
(D) voice portal
Answer: (C)

35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed live casting is called:
(A) virtual video
(B) direct broadcast
(C) video shift
(D) real-time video
Answer: (D)
36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
(A) Tripura
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Manipur
Answer: (A)

37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
(A) high evaporation
(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells
(D) seepage of sea water
Answer: (D)

38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the
Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys
(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Answer: (A)

39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:
(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
(B) inundation of land by sea water
(C) traditional agriculture practices
(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland
Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government
of India?
(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi
(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Answer: (C)
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41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: (A)

42. 'SITE' stands for:

(A) System for International technology and Engineering
(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(C) South Indian Trade Estate
(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Answer: (B)

43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting
Research at Antarctic?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Yamunotri
(C) Uttari Gangotri
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:

(A) With the prior permission of the President.
(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
(D) At the request of two or more States.
Answer: (D)

The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular
year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number 46 to 50.

46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is:
(A) 1:15
(B) 1:1
(C) 15:1
(D) 3:20
Answer: (B)

47. if the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on
basket ball?
(A) Rs. 9,50,000
(B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs. 12,00,000
(D) Rs. 15,00,000
Answer: (D)

48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Answer: (C)
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49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :

(A) Hockey and Tennis
(B) Golf and Basket ball
(C) Cricket and Football
(D) Hockey and Golf
Answer: (B)

50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket
and hockey together was:
(A) Rs. 60,00,000
(B) Rs. 50,00,000
(C) Rs. 37,50,000
(D) Rs. 25,00,000
Answer: (A)

December 2006 UGC NET Paper I

1. Which of the following is not instructional material?
(A) Over Head Projector
(B) Audio Cassette
(C) Printed Material
(D) Transparency
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
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(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge

(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Answer: (A)

3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following indicates evaluation?

(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

6. Research can be conducted by a person who:

(A) has studied research methodology
(B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
(D) is a hard worker
Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

(A) Observation
(B) Historical
(C) Survey
(D) Philosophical
Answer: (A)

9. Research can be classified as:

(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

10. The first step of research is:

(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem
(D) Identifying a problem
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15:
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the
Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four
soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining
who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and disham-disham
tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the
projector rolls: as a nation, who are we? As a people, where are we going?
The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to
pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project
the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer
Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the
saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib,
but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of
countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti,
but an honourable friend.
This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, not contentious politics;
balle balle, not bombs: no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness).
All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable,
committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even
has a grown up name: Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new
heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the
stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce?

(A) Bling + bling
(B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz
(D) Dooriyan
Answer: (B)

12. Who made Lamhe in 1991?

(A) Subhash Ghai
(B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra
(D) Sakti Samanta
Answer: (B)

13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar?

(A) Jewel in the Crown
(B) Kisna
(C) Zaara
(D) Desh Ki dharti
Answer: (D)

14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra?

(A) Deewar
(B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge
(D) Veer Zaara
Answer: (D)

15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara?

(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D) Traditional Madras Clothes
Answer: (C)

16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?

(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Answer: (A)

17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

(A) Zee News
(B) NDTV 24×7
(C) CNBC
(D) India News
Answer: (C)

18. Consider the following statements in communication:

(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only
Answer: (B)

19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) N. Ram: The Hindu
(B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy: NDTV 24×7
(D) Prabhu Chawla: Aaj taak
Answer: (B)

20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by:

(A) The Times of India
(B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express
(D) Hindustan Times
Answer: (D)
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21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is:
(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 32
Answer: (C)

22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19,
20, 9 and 8:
(A) PLANE
(B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR
(D) TONGA
Answer: (B)

23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, what is the
right choice for the second set?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)

24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 38
(D) 39
Answer: (B)

25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of
the smallest side is:
(A) 9 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm
(D) 12 cm
Answer: (D)

26. Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Answer: (B)
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27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory?

(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
28. Which of the following statements say the same thing?
(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi)
(D) (v) and (vi)
Answer: (B)

29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing?

(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE?

(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) alone
Answer: (A)

Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33:

31. In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) f
Answer: (D)

32. In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
Answer: (A)

33. In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum average percent
profit?
(A) f
(B) e
(C) d
(D) b
Answer: (A)

34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:
(A) UNDP
(B) WTO
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
Answer: (A)

35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks obtained by
each of the class are given below:
Class A Class B Class C Class D
Number of students 10 40 30 20
Arithmetic mean 20 30 50 15
The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be:
(A) 32
(B) 50
(C) 20
(D) 15
Answer: (A)

36. LAN stands for:

(A) Local And National
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network
(D) Live Area Network
Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system
(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer?

(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and
quantitative data quickly and accurately.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative
data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only
qualitative information
Answer: (B)
39. Information and Communication Technology includes:
(A) On line learning
(B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?

(A) www_mail.com
(B) [email protected]
(C) [email protected]
(D) www.mail.com
Answer: (B)
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41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
(A) change in weather
(B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation
(D) extinction of animals
Answer: (A)

42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be:
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) increase in salinity
(C) growth of phytoplankton
(D) rise in sea level
Answer: (C)

43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct
answer from the code given below:
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7
(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)

44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by:
(A) Coal
(B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning
(D) Vegetable waste product
Answer: (A)

45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain:
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(A) faster than that in rural areas

(B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas
(D) cooler than that in rural areas
Answer: (A)

46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of:
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
Answer: (A)

47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of
Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 29
(C) Article 30
(D) Article 31
Answer: (C)

48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the
code given below:
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Answer: (B)

49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Answer: (C)

50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Central Election Tribunal
Answer: (C)

June 2007 UGC NET Paper I

1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

(A) simple
(B) more knowledgeable
(C) quicker
(D) interesting
Answer: (D)

2. The teacher's role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students
(B) promote self-learning in students
(C) encourage healthy competition among students
(D) help students to solve their personal problems
Answer: (B)
3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:
(A) punctual
(B) having research aptitude
(C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy
(D) who often amuses his students
Answer: (B)

4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching
(B) after the practice-teaching
(C) before the practice-teaching
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students
(B) maintaining discipline in the class
(C) lecturing in impressive way
(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board
Answer: (A)

6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

(A) t test
(B) ANOVA
(C) X2
(D) factorial analysis
Answer: (B)

7. A research problem is feasible only when:

(A) it has utility and relevance
(B) it is researchable
(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)

8. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher
(B) helps those interested in further research
(C) has no relevance to research
(D) all the above
Answer: (B)

9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

(A) Synthesize new ideals
(B) Expound new principles
(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research
(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics
Answer: (B)

10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as:
(A) Survey Research
(B) 'Ex-post Facto' Research
(C) Historical Research
(D) Summative Research
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public power.
Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests. Corruption is one
symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals
and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue.
They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at inflated prices and get
concessions and privatised firms at low prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials - both
bureaucrats and elected officials - may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few
public benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of
bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to promote 'good
governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns. Governments may be honest but
inefficient because no one has an incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the
state and exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit
those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption
cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private benefits are
positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral
into an even worse situation.

11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private wealth and public
power are likely to become:
(A) Functional
(B) Dysfunctional
(C) Normal functioning
(D) Good governance
Answer: (B)

12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

(A) Corruption
(B) High taxes
(C) Complicated rules and regulations
(D) High prices
Answer: (A)

13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many opportunities for:
(A) Public benefits
(B) Public profit
(C) Private profit
(D) Corporate gains
Answer: (C)

14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indicatives for:
(A) Efficient government
(B) Bad governance
(C) Inefficient government
(D) Corruption
Answer: (A)

15. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by promoting:

(A) Private profit
(B) Anti-corruption campaign
(C) Good governance
(D) Pay-offs and kick backs
Answer: (A)

16. Press Council of India is located at:

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Delhi
Answer: (D)

17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:
(A) Photo cutting
(B) Photo bleeding
(C) Photo cropping
(D) Photo adjustment
Answer: (C)

18. Feed-back of a message comes from:

(A) Satellite
(B) Media
(C) Audience
(D) Communicator
Answer: (A)

19. Collection of information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as:
(A) Feed-back
(B) Feed-forward
(C) Research study
(D) Opinion poll
Answer: (D)

20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

(A) 4:3
(B) 4:2
(C) 3:5
(D) 2:3
Answer: (A)
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21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4
Answer: (C)

22. If in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how would MADRAS be

coded?
(A) 834536
(B) 834538
(C) 834530
(D) 834539
Answer: (A)

23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data does not explain one
of the following:
(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another independent variable
'K' or 'M'?
(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?
Answer: (D)

24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
(A) Saturday
(B) Friday
(C) Sunday
(D) Thursday
Answer: (B)

25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on
Wednesday?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet both can be false.
Choose the right pair:
(i) All men are mortal
(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal
(A) (i) and(ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and(iii)
(D) (ii) and(iv)
Answer: (D)

27. A Syllogism must have:

(A) Three terms
(B) Four terms
(C) Six terms
(D) Five terms
Answer: (B)

28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
(A) Subject and predicate
(B) Known and unknown
(C) Major premise and minor premise
(D) Subject and object
Answer: (A)

29. "E" denotes:

(A) Universal Negative Proposition
(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
(D) Particular Negative Proposition
Answer: (A)

30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is the sister of 'D', how
is 'B' related to 'E'?
(A) daughter
(B) husband
(C) sister-in-law
(D) brother-in-law
Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map of India showing
urban density of population:
(A) Quartiles
(B) Quintiles
(C) Mean and SD
(D) Break - point
Answer: (A)

32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of crops being grown
in a region?
(A) Choropleth
(B) Chorochromatic
(C) Choroschematic
(D) Isopleth
Answer: (A)

33. A ratio represents the relation between:

(A) Part and Part
(B) Part and Whole
(C) Whole and Whole
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number. If the
average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:
(A) 4.5
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: (C)

35. Circle graphs are used to show:

(A) How various sections share in the whole?
(B) How various parts are related to the whole?
(C) How one whole is related to other wholes
(D) How one part is related to other parts?
Answer: (B)

36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which stands for:
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and makes decisions:
(A) Arithematic Logic Unit
(B) Alternating Logic Unit
(C) Alternate Local Unit
(D) American Logic Unit
Answer: (A)

38. "Dpi" stands for:

(A) Dots per inch
(B) Digits per unit
(C) Dots pixel inch
(D) Diagrams per inch
Answer: (A)

39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and photographs is involved
in
(A) Deck Top Publishing
(B) Desk Top Printing
(C) Desk Top Publishing
(D) Deck Top Printing
Answer: (C)

40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(B) Dodgy Data Exchange
(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange
(D) Dynamic Data Exchange
Answer: (D)
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41. Tsunami occurs due to:
(A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
(B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
(C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains
(D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
Answer: (B)

42. Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?
(A) Cyclones
(B) Floods
(C) Earthquakes
(D) Landslides
Answer: (B)

43. Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:

(A) the whole year
(B) three seasons excluding monsoon
(C) any three seasons
(D) the worst season
Answer: (A)

44. Sea level rise results primarily due to:

(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Melting of glaciers
(C) Submarine volcanism
(D) Seafloor spreading
Answer: (B)

45. The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:
(i) Buoyancy
(ii) Atmospheric stability
(iii) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct code:
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (B)

46. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen
(B) Successful businessman
(C) Popular teacher
(D) Efficient manager
Answer: (A)

47. Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as:

(A) Inflibnet
(B) Libinfnet
(C) Internet
(D) HTML
Answer: (A)

48. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is:
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
(B) I.G.N.O.U.
(C) University of Pune
(D) Annamalai University
Answer: (B)
49. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the
year:
(A) 1980
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
Answer: (D)

50. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
(A) Central Universities
(B) Deemed Universities
(C) Residential Universities
(D) Open Universities
Answer: (A)

December 2007 UGC NET Paper – I

1. Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:

(A) Aptitudes
(B) Skills
(C) Attitudes
(D) Relationship
Answer: (B)

2. Which is the most important aspect of the teacher's role in learning?

(A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to be avoided
(C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
(D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help
Answer: (A)

3. The most appropriate purpose of learning is:

(A) personal adjustment
(B) modification of behaviour
(C) social and political awareness
(D) preparing oneself for employment
Answer: (B)

4. The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:
(A) encouraged to find answer independently
(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C) encouraged to continue questioning
(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture
Answer: (A)

5. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

(A) discussion method
(B) lecture method
(C) audio-visual aids
(D) text book method
Answer: (A)

6. Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:

(A) Data analysis and interpretation
(B) Parameter inference
(C) Statistical inference
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
7. The experimental study is based on:
(A) The manipulation of variables
(B) Conceptual parameters
(C) Replication of research
(D) Survey of literature
Answer: (A)

8. The main characteristic of scientific research is:

(A) empirical
(B) theoretical
(C) experimental
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)

9. Authenticity of a research finding is its:

(A) Originality
(B) Validity
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)

10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

(A) Area Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique
(C) Systematic Sampling Technique
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human beings need rather
than what they want. His early introduction to the teachings of Jains, Theosophists, Christian
sermons, Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most significantly the Bhagavad Gita, were to have profound
impact on the development of Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological
interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an
ambience for an alternative social thinking that was at once far-sighted, local and immediate. For
Gandhi was acutely aware that the demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life,
compounded by the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of nature.
This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but such pronouncements were as rare as they
were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and
modernist designs, of the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a
community flourishing within ecologically-sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence, especially in
the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based on nature-blind technology and
the enslavement of human spirit and energies.
Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active non-violence, derived
from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another being. The most refined expression of
this value is in the great epic of the Mahabharata, (c. 100 BCE to 200 CE), where moral development
proceeds through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness endemic to human
life. One's action is judged in terms of consequences and the impact it is likely to have on another.
Jainas had generalized this principle to include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike.
Advanced Jaina monks and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even bacteria.
Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.

11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of Gandhi's holistic
thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelations?
(A) Jain teachings
(B) Christian sermons
(C) Bhagavad Gita
(D) Ruskin and Tolstoy
Answer: (C)
12. Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human beings’:
(A) need
(B) desire
(C) wealth
(D) welfare
Answer: (A)

13. Gandhiji's deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an
ambience for an alternative:
(A) rural policy
(B) social thinking
(C) urban policy
(D) economic thinking
Answer: (B)

14. Colonial policy and modernisation led to the destruction of:

(A) major industrial infrastructure
(B) irrigation infrastructure
(C) urban infrastructure
(D) rural infrastructure
Answer: (D)

15. Gandhi's active non-violence is derived from:

(A) Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B) Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
(C) Freedom of action
(D) Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies
Answer: (A)

16. DTH service was started in the year:

(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2004
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)

17. National Press day is celebrated on:

(A) 16th November
(B) 19th November
(C) 21th November
(D) 30th November
Answer: (A)

18. The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 20
Answer: (A)

19. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:
(A) 19 (2) (a)
(B) 19(16)
(C) 19(2)
(D) 19(1) (a)
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Answer: (D)

20. Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
(A) Enriching curriculum based instruction
(B) Replacing teacher in the long run
(C) Everybody having access to a radio set
(D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
Answer: (C)
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21. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the
following series: 5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139
(A) 149
(B) 79
(C) 49
(D) 69
Answer: (D)

Questions 22 to 24 are based on the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles I,
S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different
regions in the figure are lettered from a to f

22. The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians:
(A) f
(B) d
(C) a
(D) c
Answer: (A)

23. The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor Politicians:
(A) g
(B) c
(C) f
(D) a
Answer: (B)

24. The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as Scientists:
(A) b
(B) c
(C) a
(D) d
Answer: (C)

25. Which number is missing in the following series?

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50,…?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)
26. The function of measurement includes:
(A) Prognosis
(B) Diagnosis
(C) Prediction
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

27. Logical arguments are based on:

(A) Scientific reasoning
(B) Customary reasoning
(C) Mathematical reasoning
(D) Syllogistic reasoning
Answer: (D)

28. Insert the missing number: 4 : 17 : : 7 : ?

(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 50
(D) 51
Answer: (C)

29. Choose the odd word:

(A) Nun
(B) Knight
(C) Monk
(D) Priest
Answer: (B)

30. Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
(A) 49
(B) 63
(C) 77
(D) 81
Answer: (D)

31. Probability sampling implies:

(A) Stratified Random Sampling
(B) Systematic Random Sampling
(C) Simple Random Sampling
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

32. Insert the missing number: 36/62, 39/63, 43/61, 48/64, ?

(A) 51/65
(B) 56/60
(C) 54/65
(D) 33/60
Answer: (C)

33. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(A) 40 minutes past three
(C) 50 minutes past three
(B) 45 minutes past three
(D) 55 minutes past three
Answer: (C)

34. Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three children is a boy?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 1
Answer: (Wrong question)
Description:
1. The probably of a boy are bbb, bbg, bgb, gbb, bgg, gbg, ggb, ggg, which is 8 'equally likely' cases,
one meets desired criteria, probability of desired criteria is 1/8 .
2. Probability that first child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that second child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that third child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that none of the three children is a boy= 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2= 1/8

35. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by:
(A) 125 per cent
(B) 100 per cent
(C) 75 per cent
(D) 50 per cent
Answer: (A)

36. CD ROM stands for:

(A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
(B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory
(C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory
(D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Answer: (C)

37. The 'brain' of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is called:
(A) Common Power Unit
(B) Common Processing Unit
(C) Central Power Unit
(D) Central Processing Unit
Answer: (D)

38. Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as :

(A) Compact Disk Recordable
(B) Computer Disk Rewritable
(C) Compact Disk Rewritable
(D) Computer Data Rewritable
Answer: (C)

39. RAM means:

(A) Random Access Memory
(B) Rigid Access Memory
(C) Rapid Access Memory
(D) Revolving Access Memory
Answer: (A)

40. www represents:

www.netugc. com

(A) who what and where

(B) weird wide web
(C) word wide web
(D) world wide web
Answer: (D)
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41. Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:

(A) Soil erosion
(B) Landslides
(C) Loss of bio-diversity
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
42. Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing highest human disaster?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Snow-storms
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Tsunami
Answer: (D)

43. Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
(A) International AID
(B) Timely Warning System
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Community Participation
Answer: (B)

44. Slums in metro-city are the result of:

(A) Rural to urban migration
(B) Poverty of the city-scape
(C) Lack of urban infrastructure
(D) Urban-governance
Answer: (A)

45. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:

(A) Thar Desert of India
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
(D) Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot
Answer: (A)

46. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
(A) SATEDU
(B) INSAT - B
(C) EDUSAT
(D) INSAT-C
Answer: (C)

47. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:

(A) GyanDarshan
(B) Cyan Vani
(C) DoorDarshan
(D) Prasar Bharati
Answer: (A)

48. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:
(A) Sevagram
(B) New Delhi
(C) Wardha
(D) Ahmedabad
Answer: (C)

49. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutes) (Locations)
(a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages
(b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad
(c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi
(d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)

50. The aim of vocationalization of education is:

(A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
(B) converting liberal education into vocational education
(C) giving more importance to vocational than general education
(D) making liberal education job-oriented
Answer: (D)

June 2008 UGC NET Paper -I

1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and guide" because:
(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot
Answer: (B)

2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of:
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(A) inter personal relationship

(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the students
Answer: (B)

3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:

(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide
(D) becoming a friend to the students
Answer: (B)

4. Education is a powerful instrument of:

(A) Social transformation
(B) Personal transformation
(C) Cultural transformation
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

5. A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the student is affected
through:
(A) Constant fulfilment of the students' needs
(B) Strict control of class-room activities
(C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes
(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards
Answer: (C)

6. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:

(A) Researcher's interest
(B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance
(D) Availability of relevant literature
Answer: (C)

7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)

8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

(A) Survey method
(B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies
(D) Normative studies
Answer: (B)

9. Field-work based research is classified as:

(A) Empirical
(B) Historical
(C) Experimental
(D) Biographical
Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst
male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006?
(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable
classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must satisfy the twin tests of
classification being founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that
are grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a
rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14
is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature
of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare State will have to strive by both
executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so
that the social and economic inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a
legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the
object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is
likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically
appraising the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on which the State
action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of
classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help
weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour. Legislative
and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable
classification and the rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality among human
beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment
contra-distinguished from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law
should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should be treated alike.
Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different shall be as though they are
the same. It of course means denial of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The
legislation as well as the executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of
an infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making special laws, to
attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or
classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.

11. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the constitution under Part III,
Article:
(A)12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (C)

12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:

(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) absolute equality
(D) special privilege by reason of birth
Answer: (B)

13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by:
(A) executive and legislative action
(B) universal suffrage
(C) identical treatment
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:

(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical treatment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations, the
government
(A) must have the power of making special laws
(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

16. Communication with oneself is known as:

(A) Group communication
(B) Grapevine communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Intrapersonal communication
Answer: (D)

17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?

(A) NTSE
(B) PAL
(C) SECAM
(D) NTCS
Answer: (B)

18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:

(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service
(D) All India Broadcasting Service
Answer: (C)

19. The biggest news agency of India is:

(A) PTI
(B) UNI
(C) NANAP
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (A)
20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:
(A) 1995
(B) 1997
(C) 1999
(D) 2001
Answer: (B)
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21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based
upon a sample is known as:
(A) Sample parameter
(B) Inference
(C) Statistics
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
(A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.
Answer: (C)

23. The F-test:

(A) is essentially a two tailed test.
(B) is essentially a one tailed test.
(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.
Answer: (C)

24. What will be the next letter in the following series?

DCXW, FGVU, HGTS
(A) AKPO
(B) JBYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)

25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small circles represent
formal class-room education and distance education and the big circle stands for university system
of education, which figure represents the university systems?

Answer: (B)

26. The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a:

(A) Moral judgement
(B) Factual judgement
(C) Religious judgement
(D) Value judgement
Answer: (A)

27. Assertion (A): Man is a rational being.

Reason (R): Man is a social being.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (B)

28. Value Judgements are:

(A) Factual Judgements
(B) Ordinary Judgements
(C) Normative Judgements
(D) Expression of public opinion
Answer: (C)

29. Deductive reasoning proceeds from:

(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general
(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Answer: (A)

30. AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:
(A) 1641
(B) 1416
(C) 1441
(D) 1461
Answer: (D)

31. Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
(A) National Family Health Surveys
(B) National Sample Surveys
(C) Census
(D) Demographic Health Surveys
Answer: (C)

32. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?

(A) Sample units must be clearly defined
(B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Answer: (B)

33. If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)

34. Insert the missing number in the following series:

4 16 8 64 ? 256
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 20
Answer: (A)

35. If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling price in order to earn a
profit of 11%?
(A) Rs. 222.50
(B) Rs. 267
(C) Rs. 222
(D) Rs. 220
Answer: (C)

36. WYSIWYG - describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually print:
(A) What you state is what you get
(B) What you see is what you get
(C) What you save is what you get
(D) What you suggest is what you get
Answer: (B)

37. Which of the following is not a Computer language?

(A) PASCAL
(B) UNIX
(C) FORTRAN
(D COBOL
Answer: (B)

38. A key-board has at least:

(A) 91 keys
(B) 101 keys
(C) 111 keys
(D) 121 keys
Answer: (B)

39. An E-mail address is composed of:

(A) two parts
(B) three parts
(C) four parts
(D) five parts
Answer: (A)

40. Corel Draw is a popular:

(A) Illustration programme
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(B) Programming language

(C) Text programme
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
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41. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
(A) l-2 KHz
(B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz
(D) 13-16 KHz
Answer: (Wrong question)

42. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
(A) decibel
(B) Hz
(C) Phon
(D) Watts/m2
Answer: (A)

43. If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield:
(A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C) depends on growth rates.
(D) depends on the initial population.
Answer: (A)

44. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:

(A) high temperature
(B) strong wind action
(C) heavy rainfall
(D) glaciation
Answer: (C)

45. Structure of earth's system consists of the following:

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone) List-II (Chemical Character)
(a) Atmosphere (i) Inert gases
(b) Biosphere (ii) Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c) Hydrosphere (iii) Organic substances, skeleton matter
(d) Lithosphere (iv) Light silicates
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (B)

46. NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:

(A) ICSSR
(B) CSIR
(C) AICTE
(D) UGC
Answer: (D)

47. National Council for Women's Education was established in:

(A) 1958
(B) 1976
(C) 1989
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)

48. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?

(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
Answer: (D)

49. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:

(A) Administration
(B) Policy-making
(C) Finance
(D) Curriculum development
Answer: (D)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Institutions) List-II (Locations)
(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai
(b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda
(c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur
(d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (vi) (iv)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)

December 2008 UGC NET Paper – I

1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher's success depends on:

(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others
(B) His professional training and creativity
(C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God
(D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?

(A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
(B) A loving teacher
(C) A teacher who is disciplined
(D) A teacher who often amuses his students
Answer: (B)

3. A teacher's most important challenge is:

(A) To make students do their home work
(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
(C) To maintain discipline in the class room
(D) To prepare the question paper
Answer: (B)

4. Value-education stands for:

(A) making a student healthy
(B) making a student to get a job
(C) inculcation of virtues
(D) all-round development of personality
Answer: (C)

5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would:
(A) pull up the student then and there
(B) talk to the student after the class
(C) ask the student to leave the class
(D) ignore the student
Answer: (B)

6. The research is always -

(A) verifying the old knowledge
(B) exploring new knowledge
(C) filling the gap between knowledge
(D) all of these
Answer: (D)

7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and more clear ideas
about the problem is:
(A) Applied research
(B) Action research
(C) Experimental research
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling
method is:
(A) Cluster Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Convenient Sampling
(D) Lottery Method
Answer: (B)

9. The process not needed in experimental research is:

(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation and replication
(C) Controlling
(D) Reference collection
Answer: (A)

10. A research problem is not feasible only when:

(A) it is researchable
(B) it is new and adds something to knowledge
(C) it consists of independent and dependent variables
(D) it has utility and relevance
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 11 to 15:

Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum increase in
respiratory diseases all part of the environmental doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out
in South Asia. According to a United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-
kilometer deep blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and other
particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already struggling to cope with a drought, the
implication of this are devastating and further crop failure will amount to a life and death question
for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will have adverse social and economic
consequences and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health
system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate India has always
been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll of the
assembly line without proper pollution control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple
technologies, which could make a vital difference to people's lives and the environment.
However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act, skeptics might question the
timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is
set for the usual battle between the developing world and the West, particularly the Unites States of
America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which would mean a
change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report will likely find a place in the U.S.
arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly
deny its own dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas.
Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and continue to pollute.
Rather than try to get the better of developing countries, who undoubtedly have taken up
environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with the West, the USA should take a look at the
environmental profigacy, which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil
exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush's policies are not exactly
beneficial, not even to America's interests. We realize that we are all in this together and that
pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there will only be more tunnels at the end
of the tunnel.

11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

(A) Failure of Monsoon
(B) Poverty and Inequality
(C) Slowdown in Industrial Production
(D) Mention of Clean Technology
Answer: (D)

12. If the rate of premature death increases it will:

(A) Exert added burden on the crumbling economy
(B) Have adverse social and economic consequences
(C) Make positive effect on our effort to control population
(D) Have less job aspirants in the society
Answer: (C)
13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not adequately concerned about:
(A) Passenger safety on the roads
(B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner
(C) Pollution control system in the vehicle
(D) Rising cost of the two wheelers
Answer: (B)

14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the Kyoto meet?
(A) United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A.
(B) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A.
(C) Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment degradation.
(D) U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet
Answer: (D)

15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South Asia?
(A) Social and economic inequality
(B) Crumbling health care system
(C) Inadequate pollution control system
(D) Radically changing monsoon pattern
Answer: (D)

16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:
(A) Local audience
(B) Education
(C) Entertainment
(D) News
Answer: (A)

17. Orcut is a part of:

(A) Intra personal Communication
(B) Mass Communication
(C) Group Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: (D)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List - II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute
(b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song
(c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting
(d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat Natyam
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (A)

19. Which is not correct in latest communication award?

(A) Salman Rushdie - Booker's Prize - July 20, 2008
(B) Dilip Sanghavi - Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008
(C) Tapan Sinha - Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008
(D) Gautam Ghosh - Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008
Answer: (D)

20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:

(A) Unauthorized attacks
(B) Virus attacks
(C) Data-driven attacks
(D) Fire-attacks
Answer: (A)
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21. Insert the missing number in the following:

2/3, 4/7, ? , 11/21, 16/31
(A) 10/8
(B) 6/10
(C) 5/10
(D) 7/13
Answer: (D)

22. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would DISCLOSE be written in
that code?
(A) IDSCOLSE
(B) IDCSOLES
(C) IDSCOLES
(D) IDSCLOSE
Answer: (A)

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the
right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)

24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

(A) 2,9,16,23,30
(B) 3,10,17,24
(C) 4,11,18,25
(D) 1,8,15,22,29
Answer: (B)

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence:

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165
Answer: (D)

26. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E is below A and B is
below E. Which is at the bottom?
(A) E
(B) B
(C) A
(D) C
Answer: (B)

27. Logical reasoning is based on:

(A) Truth of involved propositions
(B) Valid relation among the involved propositions
(C) Employment of symbolic language
(D) Employment of ordinary language
Answer: (B)

28. Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms but different in quality are:
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Subaltern
(D) Identical
Answer: (C)

29. The premises of a valid deductive argument:

(A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion
(B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion
(C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion
(D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion
Answer: (D)

30. Syllogistic reasoning is:

(A) Deductive
(B) Inductive
(C) Experimental
(D) Hypothetical
Answer: (A)

Study the following Venn diagram and answer questions nos. 31 to 33.
Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES are intersecting. The
intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g and h. Which part best represents the statements in
questions 31 to 33?

31. Some Graduates are Government employees but not as Clerks.

(A) h
(B) g
(C) f
(D) e
Answer: (C)

32. Clerks who are graduates as well as government employees:

(A) e
(B) f
(C) g
(D) h
Answer: (D)

33. Some graduates are Clerks but not Government employees.

(A) f
(B) g
(C) h
(D) e
Answer: (D)

Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 34 to 35:
34. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006?
(A) ab
(B) ce
(C) cd
(D) ef
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007?
(A) bdf
(B) acf
(C) bed
(D) ace
Answer: (A)

36. The accounting software 'Tally' was developed by:

(A) HCL
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) Wipro
Answer: (B)

37. Errors in computer programmes are called:

(A) Follies
(B) Mistakes
(C) Bugs
(D) Spam
Answer: (C)

38. HTML is basically used to design:

(A) Web-page
(B) Web-site
(C) Graphics
(D) Tables and Frames
Answer: (A)

39. 'Micro Processing' is made for:

(A) Computer
(B) Digital System
(C) Calculator
(D) Electronic Goods
Answer: (B)

40. Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation is called:
(A) Multiprogramme
(B) Multifacet
(C) Multimedia
(D) Multiprocess
Answer: (C)
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41. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes is incorrect?
(A) Plastic - 9-12%
(B) Metals - 1-2%
(C) Ceramic - 8-10%
(D) Biodegradable - 35-40%
Answer: (A)

42. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at:

(A) -4° C
(B) 0° C
(C) 4° C
(D) -2.5° C
Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?

(A) Focus
(B) Epicenter
(C) Seismograph
(D) Swells
Answer: (D)

44. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region:
(A) Equatorial region
(B) Temperate region
(C) Monsoon region
(D) Mediterranean region
Answer: (B)

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List - II
(National Parks) (States)
(a) Periyar (i) Orissa
(b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala
(c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan
(d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (A)

46. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:

(A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony
(B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics, administration,
industry and commerce
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

47. The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

(A) Delhi University
(B) a Deemed University
(C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU
(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture
Answer: (D)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutions) (Locations)
(a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla
(b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal
(c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad
(d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (D)

49. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) State Election Commission
(C) District Collector and District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Returning Officer
Answer: (B)

50. Which opinion is not correct?

(A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of India
(B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body
(C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of concurrent list
(D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to research in social sciences
Answer: (C)
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June 2009 UGC NET Paper I

1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:

(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject
Answer: (D)

2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?

(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students' attention
(D) To make students attentive
Answer: (B)

3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

(A) Learning
(B) Research
(C) Heredity
(D) Explanation
Answer: (A)

4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Answer: (B)
5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes
(B) Concepts
(C) Knowledge
(D) Maturation
Answer: (D)

6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

(A) Through its impartiality
(B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)

7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above
Answer: (B)

8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:

(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research?

(A) Philosophical research
(B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

10. We use Factorial Analysis:

(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did
help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive
institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the
British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and
is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the
pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict
instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which
got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others
constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is
regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule
by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion
among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on
different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form
a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in
opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an
adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus
persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on
the same side if there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail
in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought
about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is
a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons
into consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules
(consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and
who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons
etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups
were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different
times.
Answer the following questions:

11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Answer: (B)

12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?

(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Answer: (B)

13. Democracy is practiced where:

(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (A)

15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
Answer: (D)

16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout
the world?
(A) TPS
(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Answer: (C)

17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?

(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel
Answer: (D)

18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:

(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only
Answer: (B)

19. In communication chatting in internet is:

(A) Verbal communication
(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Answer: (C)

20. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I the correct answer using the codes List-II
List – I List - II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist
(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (C)
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21. Insert the missing number in the following:

3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Answer: (C)

22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Answer: (C)

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the
right choice for the second set: BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL
(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Answer: (C)

24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?
(A) Friday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Wednesday
Answer: (Wrong question)

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Answer: (B)

26. In a deductive argument conclusion is:

(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Answer: (C)

27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:

(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal
(D) No mortal is man
Answer: (A)

28. A deductive argument is valid if:

(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Answer: (D)

29. Structure of logical argument is based on:

(A) Formal validity
(B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression
(D) Aptness of examples
Answer: (A)

30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table.
No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is
facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there are three intersecting
circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working
as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.
31. If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be
selected?
(A) g
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
Answer: (C)

32. If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region
is to be selected?
(A) e
(B) g
(C) b
(D) a
Answer: (B)

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.

33. In which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2004
(D) 2007
Answer: (B)

34. In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous
year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)

35. In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Answer: (C)
36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser
(C) a web server
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)

37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar
(B) BPL
(C) Hutchison
(D) Airtel
Answer: (B)

38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:

(A) Bangalore
(B) Sri Harikota
(C) Chennai
(D) Ahmedabad
Answer: (B)

39. What is blog?

(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Answer: (C)

40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Answer: (D)
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41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)

42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:

(A) nearby water bodies
(B) melting
(C) rain fall only
(D) sea only
Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland
(B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region
(D) Indian desert
Answer: (C)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)

45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:

(A) 2005
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Answer: (B)

46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:

(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Answer: (A)

47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?

(A) Delhi University
(B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (D)

48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators”?

(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Answer: (D)

49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social
practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A
(B) Article 371 B
(C) Article 371 C
(D) Article 263
Answer: (A)

50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information
(B) Citizens' Charter
(C) Social Auditing
(D) Judicial Activism
Answer: (D)
 December 2009 UGC NET Paper – I

1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Answer: (D)

2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the
classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Answer: (C)

3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC
(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Answer: (B)

4. The primary duty of the teacher is to

(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Answer: (C)

5. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Answer: (B)

6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

(A) Idealist philosophy
(B) Compassion
(C) Discipline
(D) Entertaining
Answer: (C)

7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Answer: (A)

8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research
(D) Content analysis
Answer: (B)

9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Answer: (B)

10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is

(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Answer: (B)

11. Manipulation is always a part of

(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research
Answer: (C)

12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Answer: (A)

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter
of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively
described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials
of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining
without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort,
Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal,
Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for
the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also
joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there
has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say,
sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva
Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling
among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is
Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’
The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in
January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had
been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.

13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?

(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners
Answer: (C)

14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Answer: (C)

15. I.N.A. stands for

(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association
(D) Indian National Army
Answer: (D)

16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is
safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Answer: (D)

17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both
Answer: (B)

18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

19. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the
world is
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) China
Answer: (C)

20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Answer: (A)
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21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?

(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
Answer: (D)

22. Communication becomes circular when

(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Answer: (A)

23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut
(B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)

24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the
projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)

25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (B)

26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage error (%)
in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: (C)

27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be

(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 76
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in
(A) 20 ways
(B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways
(D) 1024 ways
Answer: (D)

29. What will be the next term in the following?

DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO
(B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)

30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11
hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290
(B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360
(D) Rs. 440
Answer: (B)

31. Deductive argument involves

(A) sufficient evidence
(B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations
(D) repeated observation
Answer: (C)

32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes

(A) uniformity of nature
(B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature
(D) laws of nature
Answer: (A)

33. To be critical, thinking must be

(A) practical
(B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying
(D) analytical
Answer: (B)

34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?

(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
Answer: (A)

Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting
circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T representing The Times of
India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the
number of persons reading the newspapers.

35. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers?

(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 29
Answer: (C)

36. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers?

(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 48
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behaviour of the variable
f(t)?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C)

Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40:

38. In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)

39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000
(B) 6000
(C) 4000
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)

40. In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (D)
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41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection?
(A) Census of India
(B) National Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Answer: (C)

42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?

(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
Answer: (D)

43. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption
(B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding
(D) Information Retrieval
Answer: (D)

44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

(A) Terabyte
(B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte
(D) Gigabyte
Answer: (A)

45. bit stands for

(A) binary information term
(B) binary digit
(C) binary tree
(D) Bivariate Theory
Answer: (B)

46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

(A) Array
(B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue
(D) Stack
Answer: (B)

47. Which one of the following is not a network device?

(A) Router
(B) Switch
(C) Hub
(D) CPU
Answer: (D)

48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language
(B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language
(D) Natural language
Answer: (A)

49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in

(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast
(D) Delta regions
Answer: (A)

50. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which
mountain peak?
(A) Kanchenjunga
(B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna
(D) Dhaulavira
Answer: (B)

51. Maximum soot is released from

(A) Petrol vehicles
(B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles
(D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: (D)

52. Surface Ozone is produced from

(A) Transport sector
(B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry
(D) Chemical industry
Answer: (A)

53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most
economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: (A)

54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is

(A) Earthquakes
(B) Floods
(C) Landslides
(D) Volcanoes
Answer: (B)

55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500
Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: (B)

56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be
transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: (C)

57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?

(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Lecture
(D) Group Discussion
Answer: (D)

58. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: (C)

59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education
and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures
of enrolment in higher education
Answer: (B)

60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of
teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)

June 2010 UGC NET Paper – I

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: (C)

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with

(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community
Answer: (B)

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
Answer: (C)

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry
Answer: (B)

5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: (C)

6. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Answer: (A)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go
about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the
infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to
observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every
microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that
the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or
because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language;
their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can
remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of
the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events.
The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described
as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images,
which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite
clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different
mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct
observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental
images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the
generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to
accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional
career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts
and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process (B) human behaviour (C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion
Answer: (C)

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language (D) To gain knowledge
Answer: (B)

9. Concept means
(A) A mental image (B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above
Answer: (C)

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Answer: (C)

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
Answer: (C)

12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum (D) An abstract image
Answer: (B)

13. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Answer: (C)

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Answer: (A)

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes
more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

18. Normal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed
Answer: (D)

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income
Answer: (A)

20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television
Answer: (D)

21. Didactic communication is

(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational
Answer: (B)

22. In communication, the language is

(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code
Answer: (B)

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following:

(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Answer: (A)

24. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a
square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2
(C) 1 (D) 2
Answer: (C)

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) Saturday (D) Sunday
Answer: (B)

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the
following grows a fruit?
(A) Water (B) Tree (C) World (D) Earth
Answer: (C)

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law
Answer: (D)

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?

(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
Answer: (D)
30. Find the next number in the following series:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63 (B) 65
(C) 67 (D) 69
Answer: (B)

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument?

(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
Answer: (B)

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because

(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational
Answer: (D)

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the
statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions:
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (C)

34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological
Answer: (B)

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three
intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and
circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f (B) d
(C) a (D) c
Answer: (A)

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A) b (B) c
(C) a (D) d
Answer: (C)
37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below:

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot?

(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.
Answer: (D)

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw
Timber in per tones. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period?
(A) Saw timber
(B) Plywood
(C) Log
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: (D)

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
Answer: (A)
42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data
points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points,
is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
Answer: (B)

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?

(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows
Answer: (D)

45. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the following is different from other members?

(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac
Answer: (A)

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?

(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk
Answer: (C)

48. Computers on an internet are identified by

(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
Answer: (B)

51. Dioxins are produced from

(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Answer: (D)

52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme
Answer: (A)

53. The main constituents of biogas are

(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Answer: (A)

54. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several
decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)

55. Climate change has implications for

1. soil moisture 2. forest fires
3. biodiversity 4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)

56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs
from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not
a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the
institution concerned.
Answer: (C)

57. Which option is not correct?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment.
Answer: (C)

58. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Answer: (A)

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)

(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals

(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively
without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council
Answer: (C)

December 2010 UGC NET Paper I

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Attitude
Answer: (D)

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be
classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey
(B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study
(D) Ethnography
Answer: (B)

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of

(A) Qualitative Research
(B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study
(D) Probability Sampling
Answer: (A)

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study

(A) Vocational Interest
(B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations
(D) Achievement Motivation
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was
essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and
to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that
movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he
became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the
Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National
Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in
doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by
every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-
reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar
hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an
amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world
conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of
circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that
imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great
feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to
make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups
with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those
conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the
conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught
the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital.
Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in.
But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very
exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to
understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning
of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British
Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?

(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.
Answer: (B)

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical
(B) Cultural
(C) Technological
(D) Psychological
Answer: (D)

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong

because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement
(D) movement represented by Gandhi
Answer: (B)
8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality
(B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress
Answer: (B)

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses
Answer: (A)

10. The author concludes the passage by

(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Answer: (C)

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
(A) Networked media
(B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media
(D) Multimedia
Answer: (A)

12. The information function of mass communication is described as

(A) diffusion
(B) publicity
(C) surveillance
(D) diversion
Answer: (C)

13. An example of asynchronous medium is

(A) Radio
(B) Television
(C) Film
(D) Newspaper
Answer: (D)

14. In communication, connotative words are

(A) explicit
(B) abstract
(C) simple
(D) cultural
Answer: (D)

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as

(A) embedded text
(B) internal text
(C) inter-text
(D) sub-text
Answer: (D)

16. In analog mass communication, stories are

(A) static
(B) dynamic
(C) interactive
(D) exploratory
Answer: (A)

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the
following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
(A) often : rarely
(B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently
(D) intermittently : casually
Answer: (A)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence: 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Answer: (B)

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 39
(D) 41
Answer: (B)

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the
right choice for the second set: AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO
(B) NP
(C) OR
(D) TV
Answer: (D)
www.netugc. com

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (A)

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in
both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Answer: (D)

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the
statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ? Statements:
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions:
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (D)
24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) only
Answer: (B)

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal
statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: (B)

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a
duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 4
(D) 3
Answer: (D)

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B?
(A) Tailor and barber
(B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook
(D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following methods serves to measure correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram
(B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table
(D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: (D)

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India
(D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: (D)

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9 , A – F
(C) 0 – 7, A – F
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
(A) 11110001
(B) 11110000
(C) 10001111
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)

32. 1 GB is equal to
(A) 230 bits
(B) 230 bytes
(C) 220 bits
(D) 220 bytes
Answer: (B)

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
(A) Compiler system
(B) Operation system
(C) Operating system
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for

(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government
of India?
(A) Solar power
(B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (D)

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L
(B) 400 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L
(D) 200 mg/L
Answer: (A)

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by

(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt
(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Answer: (D)

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2 and O3
(B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN
(D) SO2 and SPM
Answer: (C)

39. Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.

Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)

40. Volcanic eruptions affect

(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Answer: (D)
www.netugc. com

41. India’s first Defence University is in the State of

(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (D)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: (D)

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of
India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: (B)

47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle
represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are
mortal.’ ?
Answer: (C)

The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during
the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52:
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
TV 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000
LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000

48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?

(A) 2006
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (C)

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008?
(A) 3000
(B) 2867
(C) 3015
(D) 2400
Answer: (Wrong question)

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010?
(A) 2007
(B) 2006
(C) 2009
(D) 2008
Answer: (B)

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010?
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 2 : 3
Answer: (B)

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007?
(A) 6 : 7
(B) 7 : 6
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
Answer: (C)

53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children
(A) Are gifted
(B) Come from rich families
(C) Show artificial behaviour
(D) Create indiscipline in the class
Answer: (A)
54. The most important quality of a good teacher is
(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students’ welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities
Answer: (A)

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate
(B) Limited to classroom only
(C) Cordial and respectful
(D) Indifferent
Answer: (C)

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it
(D) interact with teachers frequently
Answer: (A)

57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Answer: (C)

58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination, the
teacher should
(A) try to help him
(B) ask him not to talk in those terms
(C) refuse politely and firmly
(D) ask him rudely to go away
Answer: (C)

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity
(B) Objective Observation
(C) Trial and Error
(D) Problem Solving
Answer: (B)

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?

(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude
Answer: (B)

June 2011 UGC NET Paper I

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research
Answer: (C)

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus
for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)

4. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10:

All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or
parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to
understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical
trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim
of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other
disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning
that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent
subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a
certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be
seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the
common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of
‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having
exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does
seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered.
The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an
unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by
the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were
‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to
have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if
there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were
somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent
years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one
is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

Answer the following questions:

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions
(C) historical trends (D) his enquiries
Answer: (A)

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation
Answer: (D)
7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs
Answer: (D)

8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
Answer: (D)

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of

(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
Answer: (D)

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by
a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Answer: (D)

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
Answer: (C)

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelisation
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding
Answer: (A)

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
(C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment
Answer: (C)

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an
individual’s
(A) personality
(B) expectation
(C) social status
(D) coding ability
Answer: (D)

15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become

(A) myths
(B) reasons
(C) experiences
(D) convictions
Answer: (C)

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity
(D) ethnicity
Answer: (C)

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then
select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :
(A) fraction : decimal
(B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom
(D) dividend : divisor
Answer: (D)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 (B) 142
(C) 153 (D) 165
Answer: (D)

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as
(A) BOBY (B) COBY
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY
Answer: (B)

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the
right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18
(C) 11/19 (D) 10/19
Answer: (B)

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8
(A) Plane
(B) Moped
(C) Motor
(D) Tonga
Answer: (B)

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio
between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6
Answer: (C)

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately
followed by 3 ?
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 3
Answer: (A)

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the
shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle
(B) Circle
(C) Point
(D) Triangle
Answer: (C)
25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops
as provided in the standard classification of crops in India?
(A) Pie diagram
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method
Answer: (B)

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?
(A) Qualitative
(B) Normative
(C) Spatial
(D) Quantitative
Answer: (C)

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data?

(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey
Answer: (A)

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement
are/is true?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only
Answer: (D)

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols:

(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9
(C) 0 – 9, A – F
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100
(B) 11101101
(C) 10010011
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)

31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System
(B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
Answer: (A)
33. Which of the following is type of LAN?
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring
(C) FDDI
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating system.
(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.
Answer: (B)

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
(C) 1990
(D) 1992
Answer: (A)

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in
India :
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind
(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal
Answer: (B)

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes

(A) Skeletal damage
(B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
Answer: (C)

38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N2O and hydrocarbons
(B) NOx and hydrocarbons
(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons
(D) SO2 and ozone
Answer: (B)

39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
Answer: (A)

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste
(D) commercial sector
Answer: (C)

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management
education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Answer: (C)

44. Consider the following statements :

Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer: (C)

45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer: (D)

Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking
circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons.
Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f:

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors.
(A) d
(B) e
(C) b
(D) g
Answer: (B)

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) g
Answer: (A)

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.
(A) e
(B) f
(C) c
(D) g
Answer: (C)

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :

Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M.
The data, thus, obtained is as follows:
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68, 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 67
(D) 66
Answer: (B)

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63
(B) 62
(C) 61
(D) 60
Answer: (C)

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66
(B) 65
(C) 64
(D) 63
Answer: (B)

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what they like.
(B) Deal with the students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem to solve.
(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.
Answer: (D)

54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking
(B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all students
(D) easy to prepare and use
Answer: (B)

55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them
(B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades
(D) take classes on extra tuition fee
Answer: (B)

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids
(B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence
(D) strict discipline
Answer: (B)

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should
(A) ask them to meet after the class
(B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start teaching
(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand
Answer: (B)

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher
(A) frequently talks about values
(B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons
(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
Answer: (B)

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)

60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge
II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree
IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge
Which of the above are correct?
(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV
(C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV
Answer: (D)

December 2011 UGC NET Paper I

1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
Answer: (D)

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by

(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media
Answer: (B)

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?

(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Tamil
Answer: (B)

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is

(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 2 : 4
Answer: (A)

5. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
Answer: (D)

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
Answer: (C)

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 50
Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series

MPSV..…
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) A
Answer: (B)

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given
code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 4
Answer: (C)

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names
Answer: (D)

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (C)

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is

(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive
Answer: (D)

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following
inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (A)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition: ‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs.
10,000.
(A) persuasive
(B) precising
(C) lexical
(D) stipulative
Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
Answer: (A)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of
classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of
classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra
of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra
of classes.
Answer: (B)

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may

(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
Answer: (D)

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of
ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10!
Answer: (B)
www.netugc. com

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180
Answer: (B)

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read
by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
Answer: (C)

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the
percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?

(A) 1.5 mmt
(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt
(D) 0.75 mmt
Answer: (D)

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt
(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt
(D) 4 mmt
Answer: (A)

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?

(A) Windows Vista
(B) Android
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all?
(A) (1111)2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111)16
Answer: (A)

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the
following?
(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler
Answer: (B)

28. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server
Answer: (C)

29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
Answer: (A)

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols
Answer: (C)

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Answer: (B)

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?

(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?

(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
Answer: (D)

36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Answer: (A)

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is

(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Answer: (A)

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
Answer: (B)

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: (D)
40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Commissions and Committees) (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (B)
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41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Answer: (C)

42. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Answer: (D)

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
Answer: (C)

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house
for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Answer: (D)

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making
mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?

(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe
Answer: (C)

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask

(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Answer: (A)

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?

(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
Answer: (C)

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law
(B) canon
(C) postulate
(D) supposition
Answer: (D)

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one
of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Answer: (B)

51. Controlled group condition is applied in

(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
Answer: (C)

52. Workshops are meant for

(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
Answer: (D)

53. Which one of the following is a research tool?

(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram
Answer: (C)

54. Research is not considered ethical if it

(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60 :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society,
political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the
transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of
human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of
enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy
state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are
est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values
(Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new
science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the
wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter
is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The
encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and
will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to
the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature.
Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on

(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
Answer: (D)

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means

(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
Answer: (A)

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes

(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
Answer: (D)

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Answer: (A)

59. The contents of the passage are

(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Answer: (D)

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that

(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
Answer: (B)

June 2012 UGC NET Paper I

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication :
(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at

(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai (D) Mumbai
Answer: (B)

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 (B) 1936
(C) 1946 (D) 1956
Answer: (B)

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?

(A) NTCS (B) PAL
(C) NTSE (D) SECAM
Answer: (B)

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Answer: (D)

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for

(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points
Answer: (D)

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70
Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………

(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) L
Answer: (B)

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’
means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)

10. The basis of the following classification is:

‘first President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who
work hard’
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description
Answer: (C)

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive
Answer: (D)

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes
being committed than ever before.
Reason (R): Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is
correct ? Choose from the code given below:
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
Answer: (B)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:

“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical
Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Answer: (B)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
Answer: (A)

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to

(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety
Answer: (C)

18. Which of the following statements are false? Choose from the code given below:
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Answer: (C)

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D,
F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E
Answer: (C)

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the
consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%
Answer: (A)

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an
integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Answer: (A)

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at
6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM
The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is
indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below:

Answer: (C)

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
Answer: (A)

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity
generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
Answer: (B)

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

(A) Phone lines
(B) LAN
(C) Internet
(D) a Server
Answer: (C)

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following is not a programming language?

(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++
Answer: (B)

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer: (D)

29. Internet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address
Answer: (C)

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Answer: (C)

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (C)

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?

(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (C)

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?

(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil (C) Fresh water (D) Salt
Answer: (D)

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Density
Answer: (D)

35. S and P waves are associated with

(A) floods
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes
(D) tidal energy
Answer: (C)

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Answer: (A)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan
(D) Chandigarh
Answer: (B)

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08
Answer: (A)

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer: (B)

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
Answer: (B)

42. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
Answer: (D)

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what
type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
Answer: (D)

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?

(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity (C) Ambiguity (D) Validity
Answer: (C)

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

(A) Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector
Answer: (B)

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Answer: (D)

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Answer: (D)

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means

(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Answer: (D)

49. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research
Answer: (A)

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following
expressions is used?
(A) ibid (B) et.al (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.
Answer: (A)

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study
Answer: (B)

52. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

53. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
Answer: (A)

54. Research ethics do not include

(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves
with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient
smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has
traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is
necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major
step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their
lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is
significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see
the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument
for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will
be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation,
whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in
Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in
letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny,
Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores
which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records.
This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be
required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency
and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
Answer: (A)

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
Answer: (A)

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and
effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
Answer: (B)

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
Answer: (C)

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Answer: (D)

December 2012 UGC NET Paper I

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the
masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is

(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation
Answer: (B)

7. The missing number in the series:

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
Answer: (D)

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The
number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
Answer: (B)

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the
average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6
Answer: (C)

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR (C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3.
The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15 (C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
Answer: (A)

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/) and D means plus (+).
The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
Answer: (D)

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below:
Assertion–I: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But
thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not
because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Answer: (B)

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is
contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)

15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor –?
(A) Customer (B) Path-finder (C) Perceiver (D) Disciple
Answer: (D)

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the
following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes:
(A) I & II (B) II & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV
Answer: (C)

18. Choose the right code:

A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) All the above
Answer: (A)

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24:
Government Expenditures on Social Services
(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl. No. Items 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11
Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
(a) Education, sports & youth affairs 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
(b) Health & family welfare 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
(c) Water supply, housing, etc. 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
(d) Information & broadcasting 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
(e) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63
(f) Labour and employment 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
(g) Social welfare & nutrition 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
(h) North-eastern areas 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) Other social services 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
Total Government expenditure 100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One (B) Three (C) Five (D) All the above
Answer: (D)

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11
Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in
the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in
expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure
during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)

25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)

27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these
Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2
Answer: (D)

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.

(A) .pdf (B) .doc (C) .docx (D) .txt
Answer: (C)

30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP (C) SMTP (D) POP
Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
Answer: (A)

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Cadmium (D) Zinc
Answer: (B)

33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.
Answer: (A)

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?

(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Answer: (C)

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A. (C) Australia (D) Canada
Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while
interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim 3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
Answer: (D)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and motivation
Answer: (D)

44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)

45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Answer: (D)

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Answer: (C)

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
Answer: (A)

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing
for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.
Answer: (B)

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association
(APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:

1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Answer: (B)

54. Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further
investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that
despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental
degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness,
traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over
the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder
really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and
sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a
large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s
largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to
improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the
last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been
provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of
sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million
citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of
rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and
quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to
2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million (C) 50 million (D) 60 million
Answer: (A)

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
Answer: (A)

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities (D) All the above
Answer: (A)

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Answer: (C)

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress (D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)

June 2013 UGC NET Paper I

1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer: (D)

2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q
related to T
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer: (B)

3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Answer: (B)

4. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is
diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical
syllogism.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B)

5. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) Unity in human nature.
(B) Integrity in human nature.
(C) Uniformity in human nature.
(D) Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C)

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11:

Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)

Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total Horticulture
Area
2005-06 53 72 1 187
2006-07 56 75 1 194
2007-08 58 78 2 202
2008-09 61 79 2 207
2009-10 63 79 2 209

6. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the
total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D)

7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are
respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-
10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: (C)

9. Find out the horticultural crops that have recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from
2005-06 to 2009-10.
(A) Fruits
(B)Vegetables
(C) Flower
(D)Total horticulture
Answer: (B)

10. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total
horticulture in 2007-08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: (B)

11. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Answer: (A)

12. ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Answer: (C)

13. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Answer: (B)

14. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine languages
is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)

15. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)
16. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language
(D) words to bits
Answer: (B)

17. Virtual memory is

(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)

18. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of

(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
Answer: (C)

19. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (C)

20. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface
ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (A)

21. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to
humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D)

23. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C)
24. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11
was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)

25. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission
(UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D)

26. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)

27. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)

29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)

30. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for

(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C)

31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (C) and (D) Both

32. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D)

33. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D)

34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B)

35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C)

36. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C)

37. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the
relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the
colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?

(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C)

39. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA)
format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D)

40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for
solving a specific problem.
Answer: (D)

41. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (42 to 47):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble
structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the
gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an
area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other
structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures
of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s
support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary
Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis, it is
generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then
residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a
spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was
transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated
south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the
time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although
contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans
(imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the
mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued
between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble
from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and
Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the
tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs
ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

42. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain
of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Answer: (B)
43. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travellers
Answer: (D)

44. Point out the true statement from the following:

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quatered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the “Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal”.
Answer: (C)

45. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Answer: (D)

46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632-1636 A.D.
(B) 1630-1643 A.D.
(C) 1632-1643 A.D.
(D) 1636-1643 A.D.
Answer: (C)

47. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

48. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
Answer: (C)

49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: (B)

50. Press censorsip in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: (C)

51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony
is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communication
Answer: (B)

52. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: (B)

53. __________________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.

(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: (B)

54. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by

(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSE
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSE
Answer: (A)

55. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of
the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 210
Answer: (B)

56. The missing number in the series

40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Answer: (B)

57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending
order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Answer: (C)

58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is 100. IF c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Answer: (D)

59. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Answer: (D)

60. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be
true. Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B)

September 2013 UGC NET Paper I

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential
growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a
factor 16?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
Answer: (A)

2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Answer: (A)

3. Means of grapevine communication are

(A) formal
(B) informal
(C) critical
(D) corporate
Answer: (B)

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by

(A) ILO
(B) ITU
(C) UNDP
(D) UNESCO
Answer: (D)

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with

(A) reality
(B) falsity
(C) negativity
(D) passivity
Answer: (A)

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Answer: (D)

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective
(B) affective
(C) cognitive
(D) non-selective
Answer: (C)

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Answer: (C)

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14
metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres
and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 52
(D) 24
Answer: (D)

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C
is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) F
Answer: (D)

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is

(A) 238
(B) 432
(C) 542
(D) 320
Answer: (A)

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance
travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey
of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236
(B) 240
(C) 248
(D) 256
Answer: (B)

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK
(B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK
(D) RWUKQ
Answer: (A)

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play
football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes
plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav
(B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh
(D) Kamal
Answer: (B)

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :

(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Answer: (B)

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater
frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (B)

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the
two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Answer: (B)

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the
correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Answer: (B)

19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (A)

In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the
table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

Year Coal & Lignite Crude Natural Gas Electricity Total

Petroleum (Hydro &
Nuclear)
2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868

2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547

2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277
2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889
2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) 2010–11
Answer: (C)

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to
2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Answer: (A)

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in
production in 2008–09?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Answer: (A)

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of
crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?
(A) 2006–07
(B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09
(D) 2009–10
Answer: (C)

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called

(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Answer: (B)

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as

(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Answer: (C)

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term

(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Answer: (C)

27. GIF stands for

(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Answer: (D)

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?

(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Answer: (D)

29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: (D)

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the
benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was
chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives
from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the
leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike.
It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect
and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the
oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the
mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer
succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate.
Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s
advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs
etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common
people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?

(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Answer: (B)

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?

Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Answer: (A)

37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Answer: (B)
38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Answer: (B)

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from

(A) 1985 – 2002
(B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000
(D) 1989 – 2001
Answer: (C)

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were

(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

41. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Answer: (B)

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Answer: (C)

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is

(A) Circular
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional
(D) Influential
Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide
continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation?

(A) Macro teaching
(B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching
(D) Micro teaching
Answer: (D)

46. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Answer: (C)

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method?

(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Answer: (B)

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test?

(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Run test
Answer: (A)

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R): Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic
institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection
Answer: (A)

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in

(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature
Answer: (D)

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated?

(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis
Answer: (B)

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent
variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable
Answer: (D)
54. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling method?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Answer: (D)

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Answer: (C)

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
Answer: (D)

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
Answer: (A)

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Biosphere Reserve) (Area of Location)
a. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula
b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh
c. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya
d. Achankmar- Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat
Codes :
abcd
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (D)

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does
not form part of G5?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
Answer: (C)
 December 2013 UGC NET Paper I

1. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
Answer: (A)

2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
Answer: (B)

3. Internal communication within institutions done through

(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Answer: (A)

4. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
Answer: (C)

5. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (D)

6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given
below:
(i) Limits to Growth
ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)

7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
Answer: (A)

8. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
Answer: (B)

9. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Answer: (A)

10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is
one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
Answer: (D)

11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
Answer: (B)

12. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG
Answer: (B)

13. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation
Council?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)

15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls
under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
Answer: (C)

16. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the
president of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)

18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey
across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer: (A)

19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of
mango is Rs 5/-
If the person has Rs. 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (D)

21. A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife," The lady is
related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
Answer: (D)
22. In this series 6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6.
How many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C)

23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65; The mean marks of half of the students
is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 65
Answer: (A)

24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present
age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following is a social network?

(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)

26. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is
known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics
Answer: (D)

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 27 to 32

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the
Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property. (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global
conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian
conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated
that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no
less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to
the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that
await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are
only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the
emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better
sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering Institutes, as has
been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real
challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot
limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures which international
charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based. It must also serve as a means to
improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task
therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people
living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in
India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by
the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive
substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it
with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation
could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

27. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and
Restoration of Cultural Property
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
Answer: (A)

28. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of

(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration
Answer: (B)

29. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be

(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance.
Answer: (C)

30. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected
monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected
monuments percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 13 percent
Answer: (B)

31. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose the correct statement
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)

32. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of
INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
Answer: (D)
33. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Answer: (C)

34. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher's satisfaction.
(B) Teacher's honesty and commitment
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.
Answer: (C)

35. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Answer: (B)

36. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Answer: (D)

37. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
Answer: (C)

38. Teacher's role at higher education

(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Answer: (B)

39. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social scientists
(B) American philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian political Analysts
Answer: (A)

40. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
Answer: (A)

41. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation
Answer: (D)

42. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Answer: (D)

43. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
Answer: (B)

44. The Principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
Answer: (B)

45. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
Answer: (B)

46. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
Answer: (D)

47. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations
Answer: (B)

48. In communication myths have power but are

(A) uncultural
(B) insignificant
(C) imprecise
(D) unprefered
Answer: (C)

49. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (C)

50. Organisational communication can be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication
(B) inter personal communication
(C) group communication
(D) mass comrnunication
Answer: (C)

51. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial
of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alteration
Answer: (A)

52. Ananaya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana
does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with
Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
Answer: (C)

53. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Answer: (D)

54. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the
argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Answer: (C)

55. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around
the sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth
is
What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
Answer: (C)

56. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four
codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes
(A) All saints are honest
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(C) All religious persons are honest
Answer: (C)

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different
regions of the’ world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60
based on this table.
Region Number of Foreign Tourist Arrival
2007 2008 2009
Western Europe 1686083 1799525 1610086
North America 1007276 1027297 1024469
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East Asia 303475 332925 348495
East Asia 352037 355230 318292
West Asia 171661 215542 201110
Total FTAs in India 5081504 5282603 5108579

57. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in
India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals in India in 2009?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
Answer: (D)

59. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist
arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia
Answer: (A)

60. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth
rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia
Answer: (C)

June 2014 UGC NET Paper I

This page will provide solved question papers of previous years or old question paper with answer
keys of National Eligibility Test (NET) Examination of University Grants Commission (UGC) June 2014
for paper 1, Test Booklet Code (Set or Series) W. The paper I is the general or compulsory for all
subjects with the subject code 00. The question and answer of Set X, Y and Z are not mentioned as
they are same with that of Set W.
1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short Circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
Answer: (A)

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of

(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
Answer: (A)

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar
(B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle
(D) Gulzar
Answer: (D)

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) Publish
(B) Secure
(C) Decode
(D) Change
Answer: (B)

5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) Sparks
(B) Green Dots
(C) Snow
(D) Rain Drops
Answer: (C)

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) Noise
(B) Audience
(C) Criticality
(D) Feedback
Answer: (A)

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The

exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29
Answer: (A)

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the
code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
Answer: (C)

9. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is
not a term of this series?
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 35
Answer: (C)

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP: ..:........by choosing one of the following option given :
(A) TS
(B) ST
(C) RS
(D) SR
Answer: (A)

11. A man started walking frorn his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left
walked 5 Km after. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and
continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 6 km
Answer: (C)

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been
written?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38
Answer: (A)

13. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into
small units of soldiers. It loses its strength." The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
(C) Statistical
(D) Casual
Answer: (A)

14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a
characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment
Answer: (A)

15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but cannot
both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern
Answer: (C)

16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code
that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No Dogs are cats
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D)

17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each of Indians. The circle B
represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p,q,r,s... represent
different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists
who are not politicians.

www.netugc. com

(A) q and s only

(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Answer: (B)

Read the following table and answer question no 18-22 based on table:
Tube wells
Government Private Other
Year Tanks and other Total
Canals Canals sources
wells
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in
Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06?
(A) Government Canals
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other Sources
Answer: (A)

19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of
percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government Canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other Sources
Answer: (B)
20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
Answer: (A)

21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in
terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A) Government Canals
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer: (A)

22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated
area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
Answer: (D)

23. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
Answer: (A)

24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG
(B) GIF
(C) BMP
(D) GUI
Answer: (D)

25. The first Web Browser is

(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
Answer: (B)

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by

(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM
(D) TCP
Answer: (A)

27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
www.netugc. com

(C) Physical address

(D) IP address
Answer: (D)

28. Identify the IP address from the following

(A) 300 .215.317.3
(B) [email protected]
(C) 202.50.20.148
(D) 202-50-20-148
Answer: (C)

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person
per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of
carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
Answer: (D)

30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
Answer: (C)

31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is

(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
Answer: (C)

32. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong wind and water waves
Answer: (A)

33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement
among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.50 C to 20C
(B) 2.00C to 3.50C
(C) 0.50C to 1.0oC
(D) 0.250C to 0.50C
Answer: (A)

34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
Answer: (C)

35. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(a) Flood (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
(b) Drought (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
(c) Earthquake (3) A vent through which molted substances come out
(d) Valcano (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer: (A)

36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the
atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (C)

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B)

38. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State of Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer: (B)

39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer: (C)

40. Which of the following are Central Universities?

1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (A)

41. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer: (B)

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of
Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer: (A)

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
Answer: (C)

46. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Answer: (C)

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of
Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (A)

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
Answer: (B)
49. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
Answer: (C)

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) The appendix
(B) A separate chapter
(C) The concluding chapter
(D) The text itself
Answer: (D)

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
Answer: (A)

52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural
settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
Answer: (D)

53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
Answer: (B)

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous
feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative
Answer: (C)

55. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
Answer: (B)

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60:
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the
geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of
leadership which we call the 'State'. The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps
mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually
adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in
social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain
rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of hwo the loin-cloth is tied,
or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and
therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four
centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as
a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became
established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state
dichotomy.
Modem Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to
make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed
tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at
once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth
century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the
basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at
once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absense of bigotry and
institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which
link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?

(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
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(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other
in a geographical, economical and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
Answer: (B)

57. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight

(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty
(D) Dependence of religion
Answer: (A)

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'secularism'?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
Answer: (A)

59. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers
(C) Social inequality in India
(D) European perception of Indian State
Answer: (A)

60. What is the striking feature of modern India?

(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform Laws
(C) Adherance to traditional values
(D) Absense of Bigotry
Answer: (A)
 Other than UGC NET Paper I Questions & Answers

2012 AP SET Paper I

1. Teaching is best described as a

(A) Occupation
(B) Vocation
(C) Profession
(D) Career
Answer: (C)

2. The chief objective of teaching is

(A) Transmission of existing knowledge
(B) Stimulate curiosity of students to discover knowledge
(C) Help children to do well in examinations
(D) To facilitate research
Answer: (B)

3. A “Good” learner is one who

(A) Listens attentively to teachers
(B) Has a questioning frame of mind
(C) Spends considerable time in library
(D) Prepares well for examination
Answer: (B)

4. Identify any three factors which contribute to effective teaching

(i) Art of communication
(ii) Subject mastery
(iii) Smart and handsome looks
(iv) Rapport with students
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)

5. Programmed instruction is based on the principles of learning which is known as

(A) Software learning
(B) Motivation
(C) Reinforcement
(D) Systematic programming
Answer: (C)

6. Sentence completion tests are objective type of tests which measure

(A) Recognition ability
(B) Sentence knowledge
(C) Association skill
(D) Recall ability
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Answer: (D)

7. Three of the following four attributes characterise research. Identify the one which is not an
attribute of research
(A) Research is purposive
(B) Findings of research can be generalised for all contexts
(C) Research is logical and objective
(D) Research is based on accurate data
Answer: (B)
8. Match the following:
List I List II
(a) Experimental (p) Continuity of Method observations over time
(b) Descriptive (q) Internal Method criticism of data
(c) Historical (r) Stratified Method sample
(d) Longitudinal (s) Equivalence of Method groups
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)
(B) (br), (cq), (dp) and (as)
(C) (cp), (dq), (as) and (br)
(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) and (ar)
Answer: (B)

9. Reorganise the following in an appropriate sequence

(i) Analysis and interpretation of data
(ii) Preparation of Research Report
(iii) Identification and selection of a problem
(iv) Formulation of a research design
(v) Collection of data
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) and (v)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)
Answer: (D)

10. One of the following behaviour does not confirm to research ethics. Identify the behaviour
(A) Copying passages from a book along with acknowledgement
(B) Arriving at a generalisation which the researcher feels as truth even though data do not support
it
(C) Formulating hypothesis which is not confirmed by review of literature
(D) Using statistical techniques in qualitative research
Answer: (B)

11. One of the following forums will be directly relevant for administrative actions
(A) Seminar
(B) Conference
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
Answer: (C)

12. Quality of a good thesis is judged by three of the following four qualities
(i) Coherence across objectives and findings
(ii) Consistency between data, analysis and interpretation
(iii) A comprehensive review of literature
(iv) Number of references cited in the thesis
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)

Read the following passage and answer question numbers from 13 to 18:
Often, as I (Nehru) wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours,
of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race.
Sometimes as I reached a gathering, a great roar of welcome would greet me: Bharat Mata Ki Jai –
‘Victory to Mother India’. I would ask them unexpectedly what they meant by that cry, who was this
Bharat Mata, Mother India, whose victory they wanted? My question would amuse them and
surprise them, and then, not knowing exactly what to answer they would look at each other and at
me. I persisted in my questioning. At last a vigorous Jat, wedded to the soil from immemorial
generations, would say that it was the dharti, the good earth of India, that they meant. What earth?
Their particular village patch, or all the patches in the district or province, or in the whole of India?
And so question and answer went on, till they would ask me impatiently to tell them all about it. I
would endeavour to do so and explain that India was all this that they had thought, but it was much
more. The mountains and the rivers of India, and the forests and the broad fields, which gave us
food, were all dear to us, but what counted ultimately were the people of India, people like them
and me, who were spread out all over this vast land. Bharat Mata, Mother India, was essentially
these millions of people, and victory to her meant victory to these people. You are parts of this
Bharat Mata, I told them, you are in a manner yourselves, Bharath Mata and as this idea slowly
soaked into their brains, their eyes would light up as if they had made a great discovery.

13. How did people greet Nehru when he went to address them? They greeted him with
(A) Bharat Mata Ki Jai
(B) Victory to Mother India
(C) Jai Bharat Mata Ki
(D) Victory to Bharat Mata
Answer: (A)

14. Who was the person that gave the reply:

Bharat Mata means “Dharti”?
(A) everybody
(B) a Jat
(C) a stranger
(D) Nehru himself
Answer: (B)

15. When the villagers were questioned on their concept of ‘Dharti’, one of the following answers
was not included
(A) Village patch
(B) All patches of the district
(C) Mother Earth
(D) Whole of India
Answer: (C)

16. Which part of Dharti gives us food?

(A) Mountains
(B) Rivers
(C) Forests
(D) Broad fields
Answer: (D)

17. Victory to ‘Bharat Mata’ means, victory to

(A) People of the village
(B) All the people of India
(C) Millions of people
(D) Freedom fighters of India
Answer: (B)

18. What was the great discovery made by the villagers?

(A) We are all Bharat Mata
(B) Mother Earth is Bharat Mata
(C) Mountains, rivers, forests and fields are Bharat Mata
(D) The good earth of India is Bharat Mata
Answer: (A)

19. Effective classroom communication of a teacher depends upon three of the following four
qualities. They are
(i) Content mastery
(ii) Clarity in language teaching
(iii) Consistency in presentation
(iv) Completing portions in time
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv) and (i)
Answer: (A)

20. Three of the following four attributes of a teacher will become barriers in effective
communication. Identify them
(i) Pronunciation of the teacher
(ii) Caste status of a teacher
(iii) Facial expressions of the teacher
(iv) Choice of words
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)
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21. Match the following behaviours of teachers with their communication-type

Behaviours Type
(a) Teacher asks a (p) Symbolic question
(b) Teacher writes a (q) Digital diagram on the black board
(c) Teacher shows a (r) Written CD to children
(d) Teacher beckons (s) Oral a student to draw a graph on the black board
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)
(B) (ar), (bs), (cp) and (dq)
(C) (as), (br), (cq) and (dp)
(D) (ap), (bq), (cr) and (ds)
Answer: (C)

22. The technique adopted to find out the level of acceptability of an individual by members of a
group is
(A) Personality testing
(B) Projective techniques
(C) Psychometry
(D) Sociometry
Answer: (D)

23. Some of the following constraints are faced by first generation learners in college and university.
Identify them.
(i) Sub-optimal command over English Language
(ii) Divergences in pronunciation of words
(iii) Not being pro-active in conversations
(iv) Not having proper height and weight
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (iv), (i) and (ii)
Answer: (A)

24. Who among the following distinguished scholars is considered as the father of communication
science?
(A) B. F. Skinner
(B) Jerome Bruner
(C) Wilbur Schramm
(D) Kurt Lewin
Answer: (C)

25. In a certain code CLOCK is KCOLC. How is STEPS written in the same code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Answer: (C)

26. In the sequence of numbers

5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, .... the value of X is
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 29
Answer: (B)

27. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the
right choice for the second set BF : GK : : LP : ?
(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ
Answer: (B)

28. Select the pair of words which is different from the others
(A) Hard and soft
(B) Hot and cold
(C) Come and arrive
(D) Right and wrong
Answer: (C)

29. In an examination 25% of the candidates failed in Mathematics and 12% in English. If 10% of the
candidates failed in both the subjects and 292 passed in both the subjects, the total number of
candidates appeared in the examination was
(A) 300
(B) 400
(C) 460
(D) 500
Answer: (Wrong question)

30. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (A)

31. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T were travelling in a car. There were two ladies in the group. Of the
three who knew car driving, one was a lady. There was one couple, of which only the wife could
drive the car. P is brother of S. Q, wife of S, drove at the beginning. T drove at the end. Who was the
other lady in the group?
(A) T
(B) S
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
Answer: (C)

32. All the students are boys. All boys are dancers. Which of the following inferences definitely
follows from the above two statements?
(A) All dancers are boys
(B) All boys are students
(C) All dancers are students
(D) All students are dancers
Answer: (D)
33. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the
shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle
(B) Circle
(C) Point
(D) Triangle
Answer: (C)

34. Manisha is eleventh from either end of a row of girls. How many girls are there in that row?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 22
Answer: (C)

35. A student who completes any graduate studies course shall develop three of the following four
essential attributes. They are
(i) A questioning frame of mind
(ii) Skills of survey techniques
(iii) Good communication skills
(iv) Sensitivity to social problems
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (iv) and (ii)
Answer: (C)

36. There are 600 students in a college. 325 are boys and 275 are girls, each represented by a big
circle, out of which 50 boys and 40 girls are from rural areas, represented by a small circle. Which of
the following diagram best represents the distribution in the college?

Answer: (D)
Or
For visually handicapped candidates:
36. Data in tables of a research report show that 20 out of 60 students in the first year of B.A. class
of a college are girls. On a particular day of visit it is observed that 12 students are absent of whom
08 are girls. Attendance behaviour is poorer among girls than others. This observation is a case of
(A) Deductive logic
(B) Transductive logic
(C) Inductive logic
(D) Inferential logic
Answer: (D)

37. Which of the following sources of data can be classified as a primary source of data ?
(A) Data available in UGC reports
(B) Data collected by interviews of UGC experts
(C) Data available from socio-cultural tables of census of India, 2011
(D) Data on Educated unemployment available in Directorate of Employment and Training
Answer: (B)

38. External and internal criticism of data is a standard measure engaged for validation of data in
(A) Historical Research
(B) Philosophical Research
(C) Descriptive Research
(D) Experimental Research
Answer: (A)

39. Identify the parameter which does not measure central tendency among the following
parameters
(A) Statistical mean
(B) Arithmetic mean
(C) Mode
(D) Average deviation
Answer: (D)

40. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

(A) Quartile Deviation
(B) Standard Deviation
(C) Kurtosis
(D) Chi-square
Answer: (D)
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41. The Universe for a research study comprises of 60000 students from rural and urban colleges,
boys and girls, students of various social groups. Identify the best method of sampling.
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (D)

42. Identify the verbal test from the given standard tests used in educational research
(A) Make a Picture Story Test (MAPS)
(B) Koh’s Block Design Test
(C) Attitude scale
(D) Raven’s Progressive Matrices
Answer: (C)

43. Match the following activities:

List-I List-II
(a) Print media (p) Kuchipudi Dance
(b) Electronic (q) Telugu media News Paper
(c) Folk media (r) Tele conferencing by IGNOU
(d) Mass media (s) Street plays
(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)
(B) (ar) (bp) (cq) (ds)
(C) (aq) (br) (dp) (cs)
(D) (aq) (br) (cp) (ds)
Answer: (A)

44. 2 GB RAM, 3MB RAM, are common terms used while checking on the efficiency of a computer.
RAM means
(A) Read All Materials
(B) Random Access Materials
(C) Random Access Memory
(D) Reliable Access Memory
Answer: (C)

45. You need to send an executive summary of 12 pages of a report of 120 pages on ICT in college
education to 20 experts in the field by E-Mail. Identify the appropriate sequence from the following
steps
(i) E-Mail Id
(ii) Attachment
(iii) Send
(iv) Compose
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv) , (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(D) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
Answer: (B)

46. Information Technology is the generic name performing the following functions
(A) Data storage
(B) Data retrieval
(C) Data communication
(D) All of above
Answer: (D)

47. Information is stored in a computer in

(A) Random Access Memory
(B) CD-ROM
(C) Read Only Memory
(D) All of above
Answer: (Wrong question)

48. The best economic method of Data Processing is

(A) Batch processing
(B) Transaction processing
(C) Distributed processing
(D) Real time processing
Answer: (A)

49. Of the total energy consumption in India, domestic consumption is in the range of
(A) 10 to 15 percent
(B) 25 to 40 percent
(C) 40 to 60 percent
(D) 60 to 70 percent
Answer: (A)

50. Identify from the following the disease which is independent of pollution
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Bronchitis
(C) Peptic ulcer
(D) Gastroenteritis
Answer: (C&D)

51. Identify the fossil fuels from the following contributors to global warming
(i) Coal
(ii) Oil
(iii) Gas
(iv) Bio-waste
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)

52. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(a) Hydro-Electric (p) Depleting source of source of Energy raw material
(b) Solar Energy (q) Expensive per unit cost
(c) Thermal Energy (r) Difficult to get raw materials
(d) Nuclear Energy (s) Sustainable source
(A) (aq) (br) (cs) (dp)
(B) (ar) (bs) (cp) (dq)
(C) (aq) (bs) (cp) (dr)
(D) (ar) (bp) (cs) (dq)
Answer: (C)

53. Identify the chief sources of pollution from the following:

(A) Autorickshaws, lorries and coal operated trains
(B) Food, air and water
(C) Uncovered sewage tracks, tank-beds of stagnant ponds and public wells
(D) Hotels, hospitals and cremation grounds
Answer: (A)

54. The slogan ‘A tree for each child’ was coined for
(A) Social Forestry Programme
(B) Clean Air Programme
(C) Social Conservation Programme
(D) Environmental Protection Programme
Answer: (D)

55. Identify any three common problems of distance education courses from the following :
(i) Study materials are not easily available
(ii) Study centres are not adequately equipped
(iii) Academic guidance and counseling by expert teams is inadequate
(iv) There is no regular personal contact with teachers
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)

56. Corporate Governance in Higher Education means

(A) Governance of Colleges/Universities by Corporate Houses (industries)
(B) Participation of university faculty in governance of Colleges/Universities
(C) Inclusion of Corporate Houses as members on governing councils of Colleges/Universities
(D) Financing of Universities/Colleges by Corporate Houses
Answer: (B)

57. The famous statement ‘Tolerance, Humanism and Universal Reason’ are the values symbolised
by University Education was made by
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Dr. D.C. Kothari
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (C)

58. Identify the pure discipline of knowledge as against applied disciplines

(A) Medical Education
(B) Technical Education
(C) Management Education
(D) General Education
Answer: (D)

59. ICSSR means

(A) Indian Centre for Science and Society Research
(B) Indian Council of Social Sciences Research
(C) Indian Conference of Social Sciences Research
(D) Indian Council for Science, Society and Rehabilitation
Answer: (B)

60. NAAC means

(A) National Assessment and Accreditation Council
(B) National Assessment and Accreditation Centre
(C) National Aviation and Aeronautics Centre
(D) National Accreditation and Accountability Council
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Answer: (A)

December 2013 CG (Chhattisgarh) SET Paper I

1. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:

(i) Listing of research objectives
(ii) Identification of research problems
(iii) Collection of data
(iv) Methodology
(v) Data analysis
(vi) Results and discussion
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (vi)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) (vi)
Answer: (C)

2. Mind map is a technique of:

(A) Discussion Method
(B) Active Learning Method
(C) Problem Solving Method
(D) Heuristic Method
Answer: (C)

3. Which one for the following references is written according to American Psychological Association
(APA) format?
(A) Cohen, S. (1985). Social support and health. New York: Academic Press.
(B) Cohen, S. 1985. Social support and health. New York: Academic Press.
(C) Cohen, S. 1985. Social support and health, New York: Academic Press.
(D) Cohen, S. (1985), Social support and health. New York: Academic Press.
Answer: (A)

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Pavlov (i) Insight
(b) Skinner (ii) Operant Conditioning
(c) Kohler (iii) Contiguity
(d) Guthrie (iv) Classical Conditioning
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)

5. If all the factors being equal which of the following correlation co-efficient is the strongest?
(A) 0.00
(B) +1.05
(C) +0.75
(D) -0.88
Answer: (D)

6. Choose the correct option from the followings

(A)Ex post facto research – direct control of independent variables. Experimental research – no
direct control of independent variables.
(B) Ex post facto research – no direct control of independent variables. Experimental research- direct
control of independent variables.
(C) Ex post facto as well as experimental research- direct control of independent variables.
(D) Ex post facto research as well as experimental research – no direct control of independent
variables.
Answer: (B)

7. According to Right to Education Act (2009), the ratio between teacher and students up to primary
level (class I to V) should be:
(A) 1: 25
(B) 1:30
(C) 1:35
(D) 1:40
Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the following option is wrong?

A scientific research is:
(A) Systematic
(B)Intuitive
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(C) Controlled
(D) Empirical
Answer: (B)

9. The most appropriate meaning of learning is:

(A) Personal adjustment
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Enhancement of knowledge
(D) Acquisition of skills
Answer: (B)

10. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B)Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous and Comprehensive evaluation.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C)

11. In Herbert Lesson Plan numbers of steps are:

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
Answer: (B)

12. The ethics in research is not related to:

(A) Human behaviour
(B) Self interest
(C) Scientific method
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

Directions for question number 13 to 18:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
A manned expedition to Mars is on the cards. Dr. Ernst Stuhlinger, an American space-scientist,
believes that from every point of view Mars is more interesting than the moon. A manned Mars-
probe might uncover traces of a civilization there that died when the weak gravity could no longer
retain oxygen. There might well be archaeological remains to prove it.
For Mars is the only planet where some form of advanced life could once have been
sustained. Indeed as early as 1965, the unmanned craft Mariner 4 observed the planet from just
over 6,000 miles away and made a discovery that could lend support to theories about life on Mars.
Observation revealed that there were for fewer craters made by meteorites than had been
predicted. Thus most of craters must have been eroded, possibly by wind and water. Other
unmanned crafts have since been sent to Mars. But, in the long run, only a manned expedition can
settle the enigma of whether life exists outside our own world
A manned trip to Mars has been declared to be the next logical step. It has been suggested
that colonizing the planet is within the realms of possibility. The first such journey is likely to take
place in the late 1980s, 1980 to be precise, when Mars is closest to Earth at 35 million miles.
To carry out this mission economically, to have the crew back after only eighteen months,
special electric rocket propulsion would have to be used. This would be the spaceship to reach the
relatively fantastic speeds of between 32,000 and 112,00m/hour. Ambitious though this may sound,
Mars itself would be merely a stepping-stone actual fact.
Flight to the stars is the real and ultimate objective of all manned space programmes. Yet at
present the very idea of inter-stellar flight sounds too far- fetched for space officials to talk about it
often.
Answer the following questions, choose the most suitable alternatives.

13. Dr. Stuhlinger believes that.

(A) Traces of civilization must be oncover
(B)Weak gravitation retains oxygen
(C) Martians had a civilization
(D) Martians were interested in archaeology
Answer: (A)

14. Which is not the objective of manned expedition to Mars?

(A) To confirm the existence of life on Mars
(B) To find the possibility of human settlement on Mars
(C) To make flight to stars possible
(D) To study about the craters and meteorites
Answer: (C)

15. Which is not the use of electric rocket propulsion in the mission to Mars?
(A) To save money
(B) To enable the crew to return in comparatively less time
(C) Relatively high speed can be reached
(D) Inter-stellar flights will become frequent
Answer: (D)

16. Inter-stellar travel is:

(A) Out of the question
(B) Rarely discussed by space-scientists
(C) On everybody’s lips
(D) Not yet a respectable subject for scientific discussion
Answer: (B)

17. The 1965 Mars-Probe indicated that:

(A)further investigation is pointless
(B)the craters could have been eroded by wind and rain
(C) Mars has few predicated meteorites
(D)the craters were not all made by meteorites
Answer: (B)

18. Mars itself would ultimately be:

(A)not worth-while to live
(B)an American colony
(C)an industrial and scientific outpost
(D)a preparatory stage for longer journeys
Answer: (D)

19. University means:

(A) University established under a State Act
(B) University established under a Central Act
(C) University established under a Central Act or Provincial Act or a State Act
(D) University established under a Central Act or Provincial Act or State Act and be recognized by the
University Grants Commission.
Answer: (D)

20. National Knowledge Commission was constituted in:

(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)
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21. The Chairman of the first University Education Commission set up by Government of India was
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. ZakirHussain
(C) Dr. MeghnadSaha
(D) Dr. A. LakshmanswamiMudhaliar
Answer: (A)

22. Five girls took part in a race. Rajani finished before Preeti, but she was behind Geeta; while
Aruna finished before Chandra but she was behind Preeti. Who won the race?
(A) Chandra
(B)Geeta
(C)Rajani
(D)Aruna
Answer: (B)

23. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as:

(A) Information power
(B) Non-Pervasive communication
(C) Limited judgement
(D) Cultural capital
Answer: (D)

24. Find the next number in the following series:

1, 3, 7, 13, …
(A) 25
(B) 21
(C) 32
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

25. The Internet is an example of a:

(A) Packet switched network
(B) Circuit switched network
(C) Cell switched network
(D) Free switched network
Answer: (A)

26. The most economic method for desalination of water is:

(A) Distillation
(B)Electrodialysis
(C) Reverse Osmosis
(D) Filtration
Answer: (B)

27. The selection of sources of information and taking decision about the type of data (Primary or
Secondary) to be collected is based on:
(A) The objective of the research work
(B) The expected results of the survey
(C) The budget and time allocated for the research work
(D) Above all
Answer: (D)

28. Tabulation of collected data is essential because:

(A) Data can be presented in organized and systematic way on the basis of objectives.
(B)Ellaborated information should be presented in summerised and easily understable form
(C) Comparative study is possible directly after tabulation of data
(D) On the basis above all points the main table can be maintained
Answer: (D)

29. National Assessment and Accreditation Council is:

(A) An autonomous institution
(B) An autonomous institution of University Grants Commission
(C) An autonomous institution of All India Council for Technical Education
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

30. Diagramatic representation of data gives a method for presentation of data, as

(A)Attractive and effective means of presentation of data at a glance
(B) To facilitates comparisons between different types of data collected
(C) It gives a general idea about the nature of data
(D) Above all is applicable
Answer: (D)

31. The most safest method for disposal of biomedical waste is:
(A) Open dumping
(B) Disposal in river
(C) Incineration
(D) Digging in land
Answer: (C)

32. Which of the following is not a version of the Android mobile operating system?
(A) Cup cake
(B) Dairy-milk
(C) Donut
(D)Eclair
Answer: (B)

33. Rohini is married to Vishal and Akash is her brother. Nayan is Vishal’s son and Anuradha is his
maternal grandmother. How is Akash related to Anuradha?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Maternal Uncle
(D) Son
Answer: (D)
34. ‘DVD’ stand for:
(A) Direct Visual Disc
(B) Digital Visual Daily
(C) Direct Video Disc
(D) Digital Video Disc
Answer: (D)

35. In communication, the language is:

(A) Iconic code
(B) Verbal code
(C) Non-verbal code
(D) Symbolic code
Answer: (B)

36. What is ‘context’ in communication?

(A) Effective communication
(B) Verbal and non-verbal responses to messages
(C) A physical and psychological environment for conversation
(D) An interference with message reception
Answer: (C)

37. Information communication network within the organization is known as:

(A) Interpersonal Communication
(B) Intra-personal Communication
(C) Mass Communication
(D) Grape-vine Communication
Answer: (D)

38. In atmosphere, Ozone is found in the region:

(A) Troposphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Answer: (C)

39. Selective retention in communication implies:

(A) Retain only what one would like to
(B) Retain only visuals
(C) Retain message in full
(D) Retain only verbal messages
Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following pairs shows the same relationship as that of ‘team’ and ‘leader’?
(A) Family and Father
(B) Director and Film
(C) Group and Captain
(D) Government and Minister
Answer: (C)
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41. Value education can be imparted to students by focusing which of the following:
(A) Individual values
(B) Classroom values
(C) College/School values
(D) Individual, classroom, college/school and community values
Answer: (D)

42. Statement I: Workers are more committed to organization than the managers are.
Statement II: Some managers are good decision makers.
If both these statements are facts then which of the conclusions follow/s?
Conclusion I: Workers are more loyal to organization than the managers are.
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Conclusion II: Some good decision makers are managers.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusion I and II follow
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (C)

43. Pointing to a photograph Raju says, “It is a photograph of my mothers’ brother’s only sister”. The
person in the photograph is related to Raju as:
(A) Grandfather
(B) Mother
(C) Grandmother
(D) Aunt
Answer: (B)

44. Find the number, which will occupy the blank space:
2 3 5 16
1 4 6 23
2 3 1 12
0 3 9 ?
(A) 42
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

45. Which of the following is called as protocol in the URL http://www.edulearn.com

(A) ://
(B)http
(C)www
(D) .com
Answer: (B)

46. The science of communication control systems in society is called:

(A) Cybernetics
(B) Information science
(C) Super highway
(D) Semiotics
Answer: (A)

47. Average solar radiation energy available in India in a year is about:

(A) 20 MJ per m2 per day
(B) 40 MJ per m2 per day
(C) 50 MJ per m2 per day
(D) 100 MJ per m2 per day
Answer: (A)

48. The only statistical average that is used for statistical analysis of qualitative data is:
(A) Arithmetic Mean
(B) Geometric Mean
(C) Median
(D) Mode
Answer: (C)

49. If football is heavier than cricket ball, and it is lighter than basket ball. If tennis ball is heavier
than Basket Ball, and it is lighter than cricket ball. Then which of the following statements is false?
(A) Basket ball is lightest of all
(B) Tennis ball is heavier than cricket ball
(C) Basket Ball is lighter than tennis ball
(D) Football is heavier than cricket ball
Answer: (B)

50. Statement I: Girls are more studious than boys.

Statement II: Girls are more emotional than boys.
If both these statements are facts then which of the conclusion/s follows?
Conclusion I: Boys are better managers than girls.
Conclusion II: Girls score better than boys in an examination.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusion I and II follow
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (B)

51. The data collected on the basis of time and area (field) which have two or more related
information can be represented by the:
(A) Simple Bar diagram
(B) Component Bar diagram
(C) Percentage Bar diagram
(D) Multiple Bar diagram
Answer: (D)

52. ‘Twitter’ a micro-blogging is used within the boundary of:

(A) 140 Characters
(B) 120 Characters
(C) 122 Characters
(D) 230 Characters
Answer: (A)

53. Which of the letter series will complete the following series?
FGE, IJH, …, OPN, RSQ
(A) LMK
(B) KMN
(C) MKL
(D) KLN
Answer: (A)
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54. To test the significance of qualitative data, we obtain:

(A) Calculation of Association of attributes
(B) Calculation of Disassociation of attributes
(C) Calculation of coefficient of correlation between attributes
(D) Calculation of Independence of attributes
Answer: (A)

55. Low level pesticides can be estimated successfully by:

(A) X-rays fluorescence
(B) HPLC
(C) GC
(D) AAS
Answer: (C)

56. Errors in computer programme are referred as:

(A) Follies
(B) Spam
(C) Virus
(D) Bugs
Answer: (D)

57. Which of the numbers will complete the following series?

10, 15, 22, 31, …, 55.
(A) 38
(B) 40
(C) 31
(D) 42
Answer: (D)

58. The regulatory body for teacher education is:

(A) UGC
(B) SCERT
(C) NCTE
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

59. Which indicator is used in COD estimation?

(A) Methyl orange
(B)Phenophthalein
(C)Erichrome Black T
(D)Ferroin
Answer: (D)

60. In a certain code language, DEB is coded as 674. In the same language what could be the code for
FIK?
(A) 81113
(B) 71014
(C) 81013
(D) 71114
Answer: (A)

December 2013 G (Gujarat) SET Paper I

1. Learning takes place when:

(A) There is a match between ‘what’ and ‘how’ students learn
(B) The teacher presents the content accurately
(C) The learning experience is organized within a stipulated time
(D) Teacher’s focus is on completion of syllabus
Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following does not justify teaching as a profession?

(A) Specialized knowledge
(B) Specialized skills
(C) Marked Training Institution
(D) Market oriented effort
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Answer: (D)

3. Which is not a significant challenge faced by a beginner teacher?

(A) Content Mastery
(B) Use of ICT in teaching
(C) Following policy of the institution
(D) Classroom management
Answer: (C)

4. It has been usually opined that ‘learning in the educational institutions these days is wasted’
because:
(A) Subjects are boring
(B) Teachers communicate their subject thoroughly
(C) Subjects are not communicated in life relevant ways
(D) Most teachers are well acquainted with their subject
Answer: (C)
5. A teacher uses local language to raise the effectiveness in class. This refers to:
(A) Effective encoding
(B) Effective decoding
(C) Effective encoding and decoding
(D) Effective media interlink
Answer: (C)

6. Which of the following ensures greater participation of students in classroom?

(A) Lecture by the teacher
(B) Discussion organized by the teacher
(C) Field trip organized by the teacher
(D) Class notes given by the teacher
Answer: (B)

7. A characteristic to be ascertained initially in a good research is:

(A) Well formulated hypothesis
(B) A good research supervisor
(C) Adequate library work
(D) A well formulated problem
Answer: (D)

8. You want to study the opinion of students of Gujarat regarding introduction of ‘choice based
credit system’ in higher education. The most appropriate sampling technique for the purpose is:
(A) Multistage Random Sampling
(B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Snowball Sampling
Answer: (A)

9. The research that generated new ideas, principles and theories providing foundation for progress
and development in different fields is called:
(A) Empirical Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Experimental Research
Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following is not the basis of scientific method?

(A) Empirical evidence
(B) Opinions and responses of people
(C) Laboratory experimentations
(D) Objective considerations
Answer: (B)

11. Researcher carries out Review of Related Literature. This helps here in many ways. But one of the
following is not covered by the review of related literature:
(A) Finding gaps in research
(B) Getting research questions
(C) Framing hypothesis
(D) Implications of research
Answer: (D)

12. ……. Is unsuitable for graphical representation of continuous data.

(A) Histogram
(B) Polygon
(C) Bar Chart
(D) Ogive
Answer: (C)
13. Which of the following arrangements from the smallest to the largest unit of storage holds good
in information technology?
(A) Kilobyte, Gigabyte, Megabyte, Terabyte
(B) Kilobyte, Terabyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte
(C) Kilobyte, Terabyte, Gigabyte, Megabyte
(D) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte
Answer: (D)

14. Which one of the following is not a network device?

(A) Router
(B) Switch
(C) CPU
(D) Hub
Answer: (C)

15. Universities in India can launch their own FM radio stations. The objective is to:
(A) Entertain students
(B) Expose students to further information
(C) Provide students chances to compare
(D) Provide students chances to sing
Answer: (B)

16. Find the odd one out:

(A) Windows
(B) Linux
(C) Mac
(D) Google
Answer: (D)

17. Genuine communication cannot be planned because:

(A) Many channels need to be utilized
(B) It is difficult to stick to the pre-decided topic
(C) Language is a very poor medium of expression
(D) The cycle of messages depends on spontaneous, verbal and non-verbal feedback chain
Answer: (D)

18. The full form of ‘http’ is:

(A) Hypertext technology program
(B) Hypertext transfer program
(C) Hypertext topology protocol
(D) Hypertext transfer protocol
Answer: (D)

19. Communication is a process of transferring information from one source to other individual, in
which:
(A) Sender should understand the information under transfer
(B) Receiver should understand the information under transfer
(C) Sender sends the information to receiver
(D) Both should understand the information under transfer
Answer: (D)

20. Video Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication:
(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)
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21. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is the use of internet protocol networks to carry voice phone
calls. Which of the following would not normally be regarded as an advantage of VoIP
(A) Low cost telephony
(B) Increased portability
(C) Increased geographical anonymity
(D) Greater functionality
Answer: (C)

22. The process of understanding information within oneself is called:

(A) Interpersonal communication
(B) Inter-group communication
(C) Intrapersonal communication
(D) Interactive communication
Answer: (C)

23. ‘Bluetooth’ technology allows:

(A) Landline phone to mobile phone communication
(B) Signal transmission on mobile phone only
(C) Wireless communication between equipments
(D) Landline transmission only
Answer: (C)

24. Communication will be effective if:

(A) It is delivered slowly and clearly
(B) It is delivered in a calm situation
(C) It reaches the receiver completely
(D) It reaches the receiver as intended by the sender
Answer: (D)

25. Insert the missing number in the following sequence:

5, 11, 23, …., 95, 191
(A) 57
(B) 47
(C) 44
(D) 49
Answer: (B)

26. Letters in the set ARUTF: DSXUI have certain relationship. Under the same relationship, mark the
correct choice for the letters of the set PQRSF: ………..
(A) SRUTI
(B) SRUVI
(C) RSUTI
(D) RSUVG
Answer: (A)

27. In a certain code RSDFRBMUG means SREESANTH, then how FIXING can be written in the same
code?
(A) EJWHPF
(B) GHYHOF
(C) EJWJMH
(D) GHWJMH
Answer: (C)

28. At what time between f4 and 5 o’clock the minute and hour hands of a clock point in opposite
directions?
(A) 45 minutes past 4
(B) 40 minutes past 4
(C) 50 4/11 minutes past 4
(D) 54 6/11 minutes past 4
Answer: (D)

29. If PEN=25 and HEN=17, then MEN=?

(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 32
(D) 30
Answer: (B)

30. In a row of girls, Bindu is twelfth from either end of the row. How many girls are there in the
row?
(A) 13
(B) 24
(C) 23
(D) 25
Answer: (C)

Read the following text and answer the questions from 31 to 36:
Investigators have noticed some similarities between the fantastic events in fairy tales and
those in adult dreams- the fulfillment of wishes, winning over all competitors and the destruction of
enemies. There are, of course, very significant differences also. For example, in dreams more often
than not the wish fulfillment is disguised, while in fairy tales much of it is openly expressed. To a
considerable degree, dreams are the result of inner pressures which have found no relief, and of
problems which beset a person to which he knows no solution and to which the dream finds none.
The fairy tale does the opposite; it projects the relief of all pressures and not only offers ways to
solve problems, but promises a happy solution. We cannot control what goes on in our dreams.
Although our inner censorship influences what we may dream, such control occurs at an
unconscious level. The fairy tale, on the other hand, is the result of conscious and unconscious
content having been shaped by the conscious mind, not of one particular person but of many in
regard to what they view as universal human problems. Only if a fairy tale met the conscious and
unconscious needs of many people, would it be told and retold with great interest.

31. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s interest in fairy tales centres chiefly on
their:
(A) Literary qualities
(B) Historical background
(C) Factual accuracy
(D) Psychological relevance
Answer: (D)

32. Which of the following is common in dreams and fairy tales?

(A) Destruction of enemies
(B) Solution of universal human problems
(C) Unconscious requirement of many people
(D) Subject to inner censorship
Answer: (A)

33. According to the passage, fairy tales differ from dreams in which of the following characteristics?
(I) The communal nature of their creation
(II) Their convention of happy ending
(III) Their enduring general appeal.
(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) (I) and (II) only
(D) (II) and (III) only
Answer: (C)

34. Which of the following is not true?

(A) Fairy tales offer solutions to human problems
(B) All tales are retold with great interest
(C) Dreams and fairy tales differ in some ways
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(D) Dreams are subject to inner censorship

Answer: (B)
35. In the context of this passage, the relationship between dreams and fairy tales is:
(A) Cause and effect
(B) Comparison and contrast
(C) General principle and example
(D) Similar examples of a general principle
Answer: (B)

36. An appropriate title for the passage would be:

(A) Psychology of dreams
(B) Dreams and fairy tales
(C) How the Unconscious Manifests
(D) Solve your problems through dreams and stories
Answer: (A)

37. Cigarette smoking is banned in public places in India because it:

(A) Irritates non-smokers
(B) Suffocates non-smokers
(C) Creates headache to non-smokers
(D) Harms lungs of non-smokers
Answer: (D)

38. Waste management has been one of the most current issues being tackled at present. Which of
the following is a good example for it?
(A) Keep parks and roads clean
(B) Use less water to clean vessels
(C) Recycle biodegradable waste
(D) Reduce use of electronic gadgets
Answer: (C)

39. A few actions of youth that point to their environmental insensitivity are given below. Which
does not belong to this category?
(A) Grafitti on the walls and desks
(B) Playing audio loud
(C) Going on strike
(D) Riding motorbikes without silencers
Answer: (C)

40. Promotion of non-conventional sources of energy is advocated in day to day life now-a-days. This
will reduce”
(A) Cost of petrol and diesel
(B) Consumption of crude oil
(C) Dependency on electricity and petroleum based fuels
(D) Cost of electricity
Answer: (B)
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41. ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan” was triggered due to:

(A) Disproportionate sharing of Narmada water with neighboring states
(B) Disturbances and rehabilitation issues
(C) Water pollution to the farming land
(D) Ill-treatment to farmers
Answer: (B)

42. Which of the following is the cause of change in seasons?

(A) The tilt of the earth’s axis
(B) The rotation of the earth
(C) Distance of the place from equator
(D) Prevailing winds blowing across land and water
Answer: (A)
43. Evaluate the following statements in terms of whether each is a Fact, Opinion, Prejudice or
Advice by choosing correct alternative:
(i) Union elections in universities should not be held.
(ii) Students leaders are never able to perform well in the study.
(iii) Do study for few hours a day regularly even if exams are far away.
(iv) Unless necessary credits are earned, degree cannot be awarded.
Opinion Prejudice Fact Advice
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (B)

44. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Travellers, Train and Bus?

Answer: (C)

45. Of the following statements there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can
be false.
Which are these two statements?
(i) All the cricketers are match fixers.
(ii) Some cricketers are involved in match fixing.
(iii) No cricketer is involved in match fixing.
(iv) Some cricketers are dedicated to cricket.
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (D)

46. Consider the following statement followed by two assumptions (i) and (ii). Choose the correct
answer.
Statement: Success is how much a person bounces up after hitting the bottom.
Assumptions:
(i) A person can totally fail.
(ii) It is possible for a person to rise again after failure.
(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit.
(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit.
(C) Both the assumptions (i) and (ii) are implicit.
(D) None of the assumptions (i) and (ii) is implicit.
Answer: (C)
47. In the following, a statement is followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Decide which conclusion
is valid.
Statement: Out of 200 runs made by a team in a one day cricket match, 160 runs were made by
spinners.
Conclusions:
(i) 80% of the team consists of spinners.
(ii) The opening batsmen were spinners.
(A) Only conclusion (i) follows.
(B) Only conclusion (ii) follows.
(C) Either conclusion (i) or conclusion (ii) follows.
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) follows.
Answer: (D)

48. P, Q, R and S are statements such that if P is true, then Q is true and if P is false, then Q is false.
The statements P and Q are:
(A) Independent
(B) Equivalent
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Contradictory
Answer: (B)

49. A magazine printed a survey in its monthly issue and asked reader to fill it out and send it in.
Over 1000 students did so. This type of sample is called:
(A) A cluster sample
(B) A self-selected sample
(C) A stratified sample
(D) A simple random sample
Answer: (B)

A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data is then categorized into the
following table of counts showing the relationship between age group and response
Age Exceed Limit if Possible Total
Always Not Always
Under 30 100 100 200
Over 30 40
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160 200
Total 140 260 400

Read the above table and answer the Question Nos. 50 to 54:

50. Among the people with age under 30, what are the odds that they always exceed the speed
limit?
(A) 1 to 2
(B) 2 to 1
(C) 1 to 1
(D) 50%
Answer: (C)

51. What is the % different in the positive attitude of over 30 people towards not exceeding speed
limit?
(A) 60%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 30%
Answer: (D)

52. Overall, what is the “risk” of always exceeding the speed limit?
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.35
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.5
Answer: (B)

53. What is the relative risk of always exceeding the speed limit for people under 30 compared to
people over 30?
(A) 2.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.5
(D) 30%
Answer: (A)

54. Among the people with age over 30, what is the “risk” of always exceeding the speed limit?
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.40
(C) 0.33
(D) 0.50
Answer: (A)

55. Open learning system means:

(A) Students can take up any number of programmes at a time.
(B) Student can join a programme at any time.
(C) Student can join any programme at any time
(D) Student can appear in the examination at any time.
Answer: (C)

56. ‘Impact Factor’ in research is linked with:

(A) Published books
(B) Research journals
(C) Research papers
(D) Research thesis
Answer: (B)

57. The birthday of late Dr. Abul Kalam Azad is celebrated as …. in India.
(A) Teachers’ Day
(B) National Higher Education Day
(C) National Education Day
(D) National Education Policy Day
Answer: (C)

58. In the credit based grading system (CGS) the term ‘credit’ refers to the number of hours assigned
for:
(A) A course per day
(B) A course per month
(C) A course per week
(D) The entire course
Answer: (C)

59. Private universities are being established in Gujarat. These come into existence on the basis of:
(A) Public demand
(B) State Legislative Act
(C) Government order
(D) UGC Directive
Answer: (B)

60. NAAC accreditation of a university reveals:

(A) The level of quality in the university
(B) The merits of the university
(C) The weakness of university
(D) The advice given to the university
Answer: (A)
 2013 December K (Karnataka) SET Paper I

1. Electronic funds transfer system makes use of

(A) MICR
(B) Mark sensing
(C) Port-a-punch
(D) None of the above
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Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following is used for serial access storage only?

(A) RAM
(B) Magnetic disc
(C) Core memory
(D) Magnetic tape
Answer: (D)

3. One of the non structural methods for controlling flood damage is ______
(A) Maintaining wet lands
(B) Improved drainage
(C) Improving flow conditions
(D) Constructing reservoir
Answer: (A)

4. Among the following which is an example of “Ecosystem people”?

(A) Formers involved in intensive agriculture
(B) Formers practicing organic forming for export
(C) Tribals collecting resources from forests
(D) Cattle ranchers involved in mass production
Answer: (C)

5. National council of Higher Education and Research is being set up by the MHRD to
(A) Develop a national and uniform system of higher education in the country
(B) Ensures comparable standards of certification in higher education and research
(C) Engage in research in higher education that is of national value
(D) To regulate and control higher education institutions all over the country
Answer: (B)

6. A private school asks teachers to attend duties if necessary even during holidays. Management
supports this action by saying that they were being paid for their holidays too. This situation refers
to
(A) Lack of professional standards
(B) Lack of respect for professional rights of teachers
(C) Lack of will on the part of teachers to refuse
(D) Apathy of management towards teacher’s plight
Answer: (Wrong question)

7. Which is the correct abbreviation for the apex institute of educational planning administration in
India?
(A) IIEPA
(B) NUEPA
(C) NIEPA
(D) IIEPAM
Answer: (B)

8. Private enterprise is highly prominent in India at the level of

(A) School education
(B) Graduate level general education
(C) Professional education
(D) Nursery education
Answer: (C)

9. Reservation in professional higher education opportunities is adopted in India because

(A) It helps to please political groups of the country
(B) It enables lower strata of society for a better standard of living
(C) It compensates for social and economic handicaps of certain sections of the population
(D) It reflects the commitment of the government of the poor people
Answer: (C)

10. Mass Communication refers to

(A) Reaching a small group
(B) Communicating within a state
(C) Communicating with a small community
(D) Communicating with huge and diverse audience simultaneously
Answer: (D)

11. “Infotainment” indicates

(A) Predominant entertainment
(B) Information oriented content
(C) Combining information and entertainment content
(D) Public issues and problems
Answer: (C)

12. One of the primary components for effective communication is

(A) Planning the message
(B) Attractive personality
(C) Using of microphones
(D) The age of the communicator
Answer: (A)

13. In communication ‘channel’ refers to

(A) The medium employed
(B) Content of the message
(C) Noise in the message
(D) Signals in the message
Answer: (A)

14. Intrapersonal communication means

(A) When one person communicates with other
(B) Two people interacting with a group
(C) When a person communicates with himself
(D) A typical classroom communication
Answer: (C)

15. The concept of “global Village” gained acceptance mainly because of the developments in the
field of
(A) Sea transport
(B) Printing
(C) Communication
(D) Aviation
Answer: (C)

16. Which of the following is the most important quality for a teacher?
(A) Punctuality
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and communication competency
(D) Socially
Answer: (C)
17. Curriculum means
(A) All the experience to which students get exposed in a college
(B) Subjects that are transacted by faculty
(C) Syllabus prescribed for the course
(D) Classroom experiences, sports and games
Answer: (A)

18. Integrating any kind of technology in teaching-learning automatically enhances the learning level
of students because
(A) Teacher uses technology knowing the needs of classroom
(B) A suitable instructional plan is developed by integrating technology
(C) Use of technology caters to the individuals differences of the learners
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

19. Most important and essential characteristic that student should possess
(A) Self-motivation to learn
(B) Patience with failures
(C) Ability to memorise subjects
(D) Prepare for examinations
Answer: (A)

20. Inspite of providing training in use of technology, a teacher is not coming out freely to use
technology while teaching which of the following situations are responsible for the status?
(A) Lack of confidence
(B) Fear of failure
(C) Lack of facilities
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
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21. Progammed instruction is based on the following principle of learning

(A) Primary reinforcement
(B) Secondary reinforcement
(C) Continuous reinforcement
(D) Instruction based on programmes
Answer: (B)

22. Among the four terms marked A – D, three terms are similar and one is dissimilar, find the one
that is not similar.
(A) August
(B) September
(C) October
(D) November
Answer: (A)

23. Below an incomplete statement is followed by four possible alternative choices. Select the most
appropriates that completes the statement.
In order to achieve success in life one should
(A) Have plenty of money
(B) Have contacts with influential persons
(C) Work hard day and night
(D) Be honest and sincere
Answer: (C)

24. Choose the pair of words which shows the same relationship as given at the top.
Glove : Hand
(A) Neck : Coller
(B) Socks : Feet
(C) Tie : Shirt
(D) Coat : Pocket
Answer: (B)
25. The average age of 10 boys in a hostel comes out to be 14. A new admission brought down their
average age by one year. How old the new recruit must be?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 12
Answer: (C)

26. From the following table, compute the percentage of women watching television (TV) between
15H and 29H per week.
Hours per week watching T.V. Number of housewives
5-9 19
10-14 35
15-19 66
20-24 81
25-29 48
30-34 33
35-39 18
(A) 60
(B) 50
(C) 65
(D) 70
Answer: (C)

27. The amounts of rainfall (in mm) in a town on 10 consecutive days are given below.
9.5, 0.5, 6.8, 3.2, 4.8, 10.5, 86.2, 9.4, 1.2 and 1.0.
The most appropriate measure of central tendency is
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Third quartile
Answer: (A)

28. A company regularly updates a user reference guide. Some staffs are confused about which of
the printed documents is the most current. What feature should be included in the reference guide
to eliminate this confusion?
(A) Date printed
(B) Version number
(C) Author’s name
(D) Copyright information
Answer: (B)

29. An input device which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper
(A) OCR
(B) OMR
(C) MSI
(D) POS
Answer: (A)

30. Data integrity refers to

(A) Privacy of data
(B) Security of data
(C) Validity of data
(D) Simplicity of data
Answer: (C)

31. Why would a switch be used in a network in preference to a hub?

(A) To reduce network traffic
(B) To prevent the spread of all viruses
(C) To connect a computer directly to the internet
(D) To manage password security at a workstation
Answer: (A)

32. One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable waste is _________
(A) Burning
(B) Dumping
(C) Burying
(D) Recycling
Answer: (D)

33. Karnataka state falls in the seismic zone of ___________

(A) I and IV
(B) II and III
(C) I and V
(D) IV and V
Answer: (B)

34. An indicator of air pollution is________

(A) Algae
(B) Eiohhornia
(C) Fungi
(D) Lichens
Answer: (D)

35. An antidote for cyanide poisoning

(A) Sulphate
(B) Paracetamol
(C) Fluoride
(D) Thiosulphate
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Answer: (D)

36. “The medium of instruction should be the mother tongue” resolution was passed by
(A) Woods Despatch
(B) Wardha Scheme
(C) Hartog Committe
(D) Maculay’s Minute
Answer: (B)

37. A researcher is generally expected to

(A) Study the existing literature in a field
(B) Generate new principles, theories and validate
(C) Synthesize the ideas given by others
(D) Evaluate the findings of a study
Answer: (B)

38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
a) Experimental i) External validity
b) Historical ii) Sampling
c) Philosophical iii) Matching of groups
d) Descriptive iv) Coherence
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) iii i iv ii
Answer: (D)

39. Stratified sampling is adopted when

(A) The universe is homogeneous
(B) The universe is heterogeneous
(C) Selected groups need to be studied
(D) Data about universe is not available
Answer: (B)

40. Which is the correct sequence of steps in descriptive research in code numbers if collection and
processing of data stands for 1, interpretation of results is 2, identification of a problem is 3, arriving
at generalisations is 4, drafting of the report is 5, and formulation of hypothesis is 6.
(A) 6, 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
(B) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(C) 3, 6, 1, 5, 2, 4
(D) 3, 6, 1, 2, 4, 5
Answer: (D)
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41. Arrange the following measures of variability in a sequence if standard deviation stands for 1,
Range is 2, quartile deviation is 3 and average deviation is 4.
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: (A)

42. When the research checks the genuineness and authenticity of the source material it is called
(A) Internal criticism
(B) External criticism
(C) Internal and external criticism
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

43. On January 12, 1980, it was Saturday. The day of the week on January 14, 1981 was
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Monday
(D) Tuesday
Answer: (Wrong question)

44. The radius of a circle was increased by 1%. The percentage increased in the area is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2.01
(D) 1.01
Answer: (C)

45. E is the son of A and D is the son of B. C is the daughter of A and is married to D. How D is related
to E?
(A) Brother
(B) Brother in law
(C) Uncle
(D) Father
Answer: (B)

46. If earth is called food – food is called tree, tree is called water, water is called world, which is the
following grows apple?
(A) Earth
(B) Food
(C) Water
(D) World
Answer: (B)
47. If KSET 2011 is coded as LUHX 3122 then how TREE 4233 will be coded?
(A) UTHH 5344
(B) TUHH 4122
(C) HHTU 4122
(D) THHU 5344
Answer: (A)

48. The tenth number in the following series:

0, 2, 6, 12, 10, .... is
(A) 70
(B) 80
(C) 90
(D) 100
Answer: (Wrong question)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question 49 to 54:
A knowledge society is a formal association of people with similar interests, who try to make
effective use of their combined knowledge about their areas of interest, and in the process
contribute to this knowledge. In this sense, knowledge is the psychological and useful result of
perception, learning and reasoning.
Knowledge societies have the characteristic that knowledge forms the major component of any
activity, particularly economic activities. Economic, social, cultural, and all other human activities
become dependent on a huge volume of knowledge and information. A knowledge society/economy
is one in which knowledge become a major product and raw material.
Knowledge societies are not a new occurrence. For example, fishermen have long shared the
knowledge of predicting the weather to their community, and this knowledge gets added to the
social capital of the community. What is new is that with current technologies, knowledge societies
need not be constrained by geographic proximity. Current technology offers much more possibilities
for sharing, archiving, and retrieving knowledge. Knowledge has become the most important capital
in the present age, and hence the success of any society lies in harnessing it.
Knowledge and information are vital components of the formation of any society because every
society is formed around some shared concepts. One of the contributions of Globalistion and new
ICT is creation of a global society with a shared knowledge of issues and possibilities.
In the same way, as the unequal distribution of materials (wealth in generalised term) caused
unbalanced and inappropriate development of society to date, imbalances in the knowledge
distribution, knowledge availability, knowledge sharing, etc., hinder the economic/cultural/social
development of human societies. The knowledge societies first realise the importance of proper
knowledge distribution, sharing and building for social development.
Knowledge by nature is free for better benefit of society. It should be free for better development
and crystallisation of knowledge. The argument that freeing knowledge kills motivation for creating
knowledge should be addressed.

49. A knowledge society is one which

(A) Produces multi-disciplinary knowledge
(B) Uses information technology
(C) Emphasizes learning
(D) Uses knowledge as resource
Answer: (D)

50. According to the passage a knowledge society is

(A) A historically evolved institution
(B) A natural phenomenon
(C) Consciously created
(D) A reaction against to past
Answer: (A)

51. A modern knowledge society does not require

(A) Information technology
(B) People from various knowledge backgrounds
(C) People who live close to one another
(D) Growth of knowledge
Answer: (C)

52. According to the passage globalisation

(A) Is conductive to sharing knowledge
(B) Is inimical to knowledge society
(C) Creates inequality in knowledge society
(D) Leads to the digital divide
Answer: (A)

53. The writers find it necessary to

(A) Define the nature of knowledge
(B) Examine the benefits of freeing knowledge
(C) Analyse the relationship between freedom and motivation
(D) Understand the dangers of free knowledge
Answer: (C)

54. The passage says that we should harness knowledge because

(A) It is potentially dangerous
(B) It is our most important resource now
(C) It is under threat of extinction
(D) It is a human need
Answer: (B)

55. If “We are coming” is closed as ygctgeqokpi what does fcpigtcjgcf stand for?
(A) Danger ahead
(B) Eating meals
(C) Danger point
(D) Tigers ahead
Answer: (A)

56. Two statements I and II given below are followed by one conclusion suppose the statements are
correct which conclusions can be drawn?
I: Most graduates get jobs.
II: He is a graduate.
Conclusion:
He will get job.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Definitely false
(C) Probably true
(D) Probably false
Answer: (C)

57. The average of the project grants received by a university was Rs. 5.56 crores. The average grants
(in crores of rupees) received by the science departments and other departments were 5.2 and 5.8
respectively. What percentage of the beneficiaries were science departments?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
Answer: (A)
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58. An opinion survey was conducted to know the preference of a new toothpaste. Totally, 2878
persons participated of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the toothpaste of
which 796 were males. 1510 persons preferred the new toothpaste. 41 females were undecided in
their opinion. The percentage of males among those preferring the toothpaste is
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 55
(D) 50
Answer: (D)

59. As high as 45% of the patients, brought to the outdoor clinics of 4 major staterun hospitals in
Karnataka last year, were found to have cancer. What can be said about the incidence of cancer
among the patients of Bangalore City?
(A) Must be alarmingly high
(B) Must be less than 45%
(C) Must be equal to 45%
(D) The given data is insufficient to draw a valid conclusion
Answer: (D)

60. The price of commodity first fell by 25% and then rose by 33 1/3%. What is the increase in price
compared to the original price?
(A) 8 1/3%
(B) 0%
(C) 29 1/6%
(D) 33%
Answer: (B)

2013 December WB SET Paper I

1. Interaction in the classroom should generate

(A) Arguments
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following is an indication of the quality of research journal?

(A) Impact factor
(B) H-index
(C) G-index
(D) J10-index
Answer: (A)

3. A strategy that is integrated into communication for development is

(A) Religious lecture
(B) Propaganda
(C) Social marketing
(D) Rural publicity
Answer: (C)

4. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a prefixed time and place and
prepared a syllabus for a new innovative course. The process may be termed as
(A) Workshop
(B) Conference
(C) Seminar
(D) Symposium
Answer: (A)

5. Name of the mass medium which has the highest reach in India
(A) Newspaper
(B) Radio
(C) Television
(D) Internet
Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following rights was considered the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr.
B. R. Ambedkar?
(A) Freedom of speech
(B) Right to equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)
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7. Computer virus is a
(A) Hardware
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

8. Match the two lists given below:

List–1 List–2
(a) London I. St. Peter’s Square
(b) Vatican City II. Times Square
(c) Moscow III. Trafalgar Square
(d) New York IV. Red Square
a b c d
(A) III I IV II
(B) IV II I II
(C) I III II IV
(D) II III IV I
Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is the World’s biggest Book Fair in terms of the number of publishing
companies represented? The Book Fair opened on October, 8, 2013—
(A) Frankfurt Book Fair
(B) Kolkata Book Fair
(C) New Delhi Book Fair
(D) London Book Fair
Answer: (A)

10. Who was the first recipient of the ‘Bharat Ratna’ award posthumously?
(A) K. Kamaraj
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Rajib Gandhi
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (B)

11. Which of the following individuals was instrumental in getting C. V. Raman and Sarvapalli Radha
Krishnan to teach in the University of Calcutta?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Gurudas Banerjee
(C) Asutosh Mookherjee
(D) Lord Mountbatten
Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following became the first Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State?
(A) S. Jayalalitha
(B) Nandini Satpathy
(C) Sucheta Kripalani
(D) Sheila Dixit
Answer: (C)

13. Which among the following was the first Woman Nobel Laureate?
(A) Marie Curie
(B) Dorothy Hodgkins
(C) Irene Joliot Curie
(D) Aung San Suukyi
Answer: (A)

14. The capitals of Assam and Manipur are

(A) Guwahati and Itanagar
(B) Dispur and Imphal
(C) Dispur and Aizwal
(D) Guwahati and Imphal
Answer: (B)

15. The total number of Central Universities in India as on 31st December 2010 was
(A) 18
(B) 35
(C) 42
(D) 45
Answer: (C)

16. Delhi University is a

(A) State University
(B) Deemed University
(C) Central University
(D) Open University
Answer: (C)

17. Which is the largest State of India in area?

(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Answer: (D)

18. The President of India is entitled to a monthly salary of

(A) Rs.1,25,000
(B) Rs.1,50,000
(C) Rs.1,75,000
(D) Rs.2,00,000
Answer: (B)

19. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (A)

20. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India is

(A) The Chief of the Army Staff
(B) The Defence Minister
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The President of India
Answer: (D)
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21. How many languages have been recognised by the Indian Constitution?
(A) 14
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 26
Answer: (C)

22. Higgs-Boson has been discovered in

(A) Large Hadron Collider of CERN
(B) Fermi Lab in USA
(C) Cavendish Lab in UK
(D) Max- Planck Institute in Germany
Answer: (A)

23. Indian space vehicle Mangalyyan has been launched from a centre, which is named after
(A) Vikram Sarabhai
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Satish Dhawan
(D) Homi J. Bhabha
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage and answer the question No. 24-29.
Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon which at a certain stage in a country’s history gives
life, growth and unity but, at the same time, it has a tendency to limit one, because one thinks of
one’s country as something different from the rest of the world. One’s perspective changes and one
is continuously thinking of one’s own struggles and virtues to the exclusion of other thoughts. The
result is that the same nationalism which is the symbol of growth for a people becomes a symbol of
the cessation of that growth. Nationalism, when it becomes successful sometimes goes on spreading
in an aggressive way and becomes a danger internationally. Whatever line of thought you follow,
you arrive at the conclusion that some kind of balance must be found. Otherwise, something that
was good can turn into evil. Culture, which is essentially good becomes not only static but aggressive
and something that breeds conflict and hatred when looked at from a long point of view. How do
you find a balance, I don’t know. Apart from the political and economic problems of the age,
perhaps, that is the greatest problem today because behind it there is tremendous search for
something which it cannot find. We turn to economic theories because they have an undoubted
importance. It is folly to talk of culture or even god, when human beings starve and die. Before one
can talk about anything else one must provide the normal essentials of life of human beings. That is
where economics comes in. Human beings today are not in a mood to tolerate this suffering,
starvation and inequality when they see that the burden is not equally shared. Others profit while
they only bear the burden.

24. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage refers to the question
(A) How to mitigate hardship to human being
(B) How to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism
(C) How to share the economic burden equally
(D) How to curb international harted
Answer: (B)

25. Negative national feelings can make a nation

(A) Selfish
(B) Self-centred
(C) Indifferent
(D) Dangerous
Answer: (D)

26. Which of the following would be a suitable title for this passage?
(A) Nationalism breeds unity
(B) Nationalism—a road to world unity
(C) Nationalism is not enough
(D) Nationalism and national problems
Answer: (C)

27. The last sentence of the passage starts with the word “Others” which refers to
(A) Other people
(B) Other nations
(C) Other communities
(D) Other neighbours
Answer: (A)
28. Aggressive nationalism
(A) breeds threat to international relations
(B) leads to stunted growth
(C) endangers national unity
(D) isolates a country
Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following is nearly the opposite of the meaning of the word ‘cessation’ used in the
passage?
(A) Block
(B) Continuance
(C) Balance
(D) Retardation
Answer: (B)

30. The following statements are made for (1) Solar Photovoltaic, (2) Wind Turbine, (3) Coal, and (4)
Oil
Statement A: All produce energy
B: 1 and 2 make less pollution; 3 and 4 add to pollution
C: 1 and 2 produce cheaper energy than 3 and 4 do
D: 1 and 2 are less developed; 3 and 4 are widely used
Choose the correct statement:
(A) A, B and D are correct
(B) Only A and D are correct
(C) All statements are incorrect
(D) Only A is correct
Answer: (A)

31. The following four may be accessed via internet

1. Facebook, 2. Twitter, 3. Linkedin, 4. Google Scholar
One amongst these four does not fit into the group of the rest three. Choose the correct reason for
this from the following:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are social network sites; 4 is related to search of specialised information
(B) 1 and 2 are social network sites; 3 and 4 are not
(C) Only 1 is meant for social networking; the other three are for information retrieval
(D) 1 and 4 are for social networking; 2 and 3 are for communication between two persons
Answer: (A)

32. Galileo was an Italian Astronomer who

(A) Developed the Telescope
(B) Discovered four satellites of Jupiter
(C) Discovered that the movement of Pendulum produces a regular time measurement
(D) Discovered all of the above
Answer: (D)

33. Famous sculptures built sometime during 950 A.D.–1050 A.D. depicting the art of love are seen
in
(A) Khajuraho Temples
(B) Taj Mahal
(C) Mahabalipuram Temples
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)

34. The first Film and TV Institute of India was established at

(A) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(B) Kolkata (West Bengal)
(C) Pune (Maharashtra)
(D) Rajkot (Gujarat)
Answer: (C)
35. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds Sanctuary
(B) Tiger Project in Sunderban
(C) Relation between organisms and their environment
(D) Tissue Culture
Answer: (C)

36. The National Anthem of Independent India ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was first sung in the year
(A) 1911
(B) 1913
(C) 1935
(D) 1942
Answer: (A)

37. Did any of the following Indians win the Nobel Prize in Physics?
(A) Sir J. C. Bose
(B) Dr. Hargobinda Khorana
(C) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

38. Who is the author of ‘India Wins Freedom’?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (B)

39. Generally Curriculum Planning is considered as Subsystem of

(A) Educational Management
(B) Education infrastructural facilities
(C) Educational Communication
(D) Educational Innovation
Answer: (D)

40. The UGC had made a provision to reserve 10 % of the total Budget during 10th Five Year Plan for
(A) Border Universities and their constituent Colleges
(B) Central Universities
(C) North Eastern Universities and their constituent Colleges
(D) Southern Universities and their constituent Colleges
Answer: (C)
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41. The National Library in Kolkata was originally called

(A) Belvedere Library
(B) Imperial Library
(C) Calcutta Public Library
(D) Hastings House Library
Answer: (B)

42. The Regulatory Body of India’s Capital market is

(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) SEBI
(D) ICRA
Answer: (C)
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43. GDP of a country tries to measure

(A) Annual output
(B) Domestic price level
(C) Annual growth rate
(D) Domestic investment
Answer: (A)

44. The Historical method is related with

(A) The history oriented research only
(B) The researches of History and Archaeology
(C) The historical researches conducted in all the disciplines
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

45. Half of 1 per cent written as a decimal is

(A) 0·005
(B) 0·05
(C) 0·02
(D) 0·2
Answer: (A)

46. If x and y be two odd numbers, then which of the following is even?
(A) x + y
(B) x + y + 1
(C) xy
(D) xy + 2
Answer: (A)

47. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having its diagonal double than the other is
(A) 2:1
(B) 2:3
(C) 3:1
(D) 4:1
Answer: (D)

48. The number that does not match in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63—
(A) 15
(B) 24
(C) 34
(D) 48
Answer: (C)

49. Two fair coins are tossed. The probability of getting at least one head is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/4
Answer: (D)

50. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its

(A) Birth rate
(B) Death rate
(C) Limiting resource
(D) Population growth rate
Answer: (C)

51. Which number will replace the question mark: 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43,?
(A) 45
(B) 53
(C) 43
(D) 51
Answer: (B)
52. From 9 to 79, how many numbers are such which are divisible by 4 as well by 6?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Answer: (B)

53. Which will replace the question mark: Violet-Yellow, Blue-Red, Indigo– ?
(A) White
(B) Yellow
(C) Black
(D) Orange
Answer: (D)

54. Statements: Some leaves are green. Some mangoes are leaves.
Conclusions: (1) Some mangoes are green.
(2) Some leaves are yellow.
(A) Only Conclusion (1) follows
(B) Only Conclusion (2) follows
(C) Either (1) or (2) follows
(D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Answer: (D)

55. A, B and C are intelligent; A, D and E are laborious; and D, C and E are honest; and A, B and E are
ambitious. Which of the following are not honest?
(A) A and B
(B) A and C
(C) A and E
(D) A, B and C
Answer: (A)

56. What will go into the empty space?

(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 2
(D) 15
Answer: (A)

57. What is the name of the device that connects two computers by means of a telephone line?
(A) Modem
(B) Tape
(C) Bus
(D) Cable
Answer: (A)

58. A computer performs its all mathematical and logical calculations through
(A) CPU
(B) LAN
(C) Memory Unit
(D) Visual Display Unit
Answer: (A)
59. As 513 is related to 8 and 344 is related to 7, in the same way 126 is related to
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(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
Answer: (B)

60. Which will replace the question mark: Video: Cassette::Computer:?

(A) Reels
(B) Floppy
(C) Recording
(D) J Files
Answer: (B)

2013 February M (Maharashtra) SET Paper I

1. Major role of a teacher is to:

(A) Provide the students up-to-date knowledge
(B) Provide the students accurate knowledge
(C) Assist the students to acquire and reorganise knowledge
(D) Assist the students to remember given knowledge for a long time.
Answer: (C)

2. The learner characteristics that impacts learning the most are:

(A) Social and economic background
(B) Intelligence and study habits
(C) Aptitude and motivation
(D) Age and health
Answer: (C)

3. The main drawback of lecture is that:

(A) The students get bored and become inattentive consequently
(B) The students get readymade answers and become lazy
(C) The students become passive receivers and do not think
(D) The students get engaged in taking notes and become tired
Answer: (C)

4. If ‘Learning to know’ is aim of education, then students should be:

(A) provided with latest global knowledge
(B) taught with the help of latest technology
(C) given more indepth assignments
(D) encouraged for self-learning
Answer: (D)

5. Which effort will promote use of library by students?

(A) Development of skills and interest in reading
(B) Attractive display of new books and journals
(C) Reading assignments given by teacher
(D) Appointment of student representatives on library committee
Answer: (A)

6. Present evaluation system has limitations regarding:

(A) Predicting success in academic courses
(B) Predicting success in life and vocation
(C) Measuring development of skills
(D) Judging academic achievement
Answer: (B)

7. Knowledge unlike belief refers to:

(A) Values
(B) Perceptions
(C) Facts
(D) Myths
Answer: (C)

8. One of the main aims of science is :

(A) Persuasion
(B) Prediction
(C) Postdiction
(D) Assertion
Answer: (B)

9. The stage at which the researcher makes his/her observations and records them, is called as:
(A) Data Measurement
(B) Data Analysis
(C) Data Processing
(D) Data Collection
Answer: (D)

10. A set of interrelated concepts, definitions, and propositions that present a systematic view of
phenomena by specifying relations among variables is called:
(A) Procedure
(B) Theory
(C) Method
(D) Causation
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Answer: (B)

11. An exhaustive and critical reading of the available literature on the research topic prior to its
investigation is called as:
(A) Researching of literature
(B) Review of literature
(C) Assessment of literature
(D) Classification of literature
Answer: (B)

12. A ‘focus group discussion’ includes about .......................... participants.

(A) 6–8
(B) 22–26
(C) 2–4
(D) 10–15
Answer: (A)

Answer question Nos. 13 to 18 based either on the English or the Marathi passage:
As matters stand today, many teachers are unable to do the best of which they are capable. For this
there are a number of reasons, some more or less accidental, others very deep-seated. To begin
with the former, most teachers are overworked and are compelled to prepare their pupils for
examinations rather than to give them a liberalizing mental training. The people who are not
accustomed to teaching—and this includes practically all educational authorities—have no idea of
the expense of spirit that it involves.
Clergymen are not expected to preach sermons for several hours every day, but the analogous effort
is demanded of teachers. The result is that many of them become harassed and nervous, out of
touch with recent work in the subjects that they teach, and unable to inspire their students with a
sense of the intellectual delights to be obtained from new understanding and new knowledge.
This, however, is by no means the bravest matter. In most countries certain opinions are recognized
as correct, and others as dangerous.
Teachers whose opinions are not correct are expected to keep silent about them. If they mention
their opinions it is propaganda, while the mentioning of correct opinions is that the inquiring young
too often have to go outside the classroom to discover what is being taught by the most vigorous
minds of their own time. There is a subject called civics, in which, perhaps more than in any other,
the teaching is expected to be misleading. The young are taught a sort of copybook account of how
public affairs are supposed to be conducted, and are carefully shielded from all knowledge as to how
in fact they are conducted. When they grow up and discover the truth, the result is too often a
complete cynicism in which all public ideals are lost; whereas if they had been taught the truth
carefully and with proper comment at an earlier age they might have become men able to combat
evils in which, as it is, they acquiesce with a shrug.

13. The author regrets the fact that:

(A) clergymen are not expected to preach everyday
(B) many teachers are not able to realise their full potential
(C) some teachers are better than the others
(D) teachers are expected to train students’ minds
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Educational authorities are effective teachers
(B) In all countries certain opinions are recognised as correct
(C) Civics is unnecessarily taught in some contexts
(D) Most teachers are forced to prepare their students for examinations
Answer: (D)

15. Teachers are expected to:

(A) discover the truth
(B) be cynical about public ideals
(C) lecture for many hours everyday
(D) inspire their students to work hard
Answer: (C)

16. Teachers are out of touch with:

(A) the recent developments in their own subjects
(B) the latest encyclopaedias
(C) the reality of the world
(D) propaganda
Answer: (A)

17. The teaching of Civics is problematic because students realise that:

(A) they cannot combat the evils of society
(B) they cannot formulate correct opinions about society
(C) what they were taught is different from reality
(D) they cannot take delight in new knowledge
Answer: (C)

18. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage from the following:
(A) Difficulties faced by teachers
(B) The teaching of civics
(C) Students’ duties
(D) Teaching as a noble profession
Answer: (A)

19. In which of the following types of communication the sender and receiver very rarely share the
same time and space continuum and interact in a considerable way?
(A) Interpersonal Communication
(B) Group Communication
(C) Mass Communication
(D) Verbal Communication
Answer: (C)

20. We generally and unknowingly tend to believe non-verbal clues more than verbal clues of a
person because:
(A) verbal clues are generally difficult to understand
(B) non-verbal clues are more involuntary than verbal
(C) verbal clues are highly culture sensitive
(D) non-verbal clues are highly controllable
Answer: (B)
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21. Which of the following are examples of non-verbal communication?

(i) Grunt
(ii) Emoticon
(iii) Letter
(iv) Sigh
(A) only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) only (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: (D)

22. On the criteria of interactivity and dynamism of communication which of the following is the
best situation for teaching?
(A) Face-to-face classroom teaching
(B) Video lecture with talk back
(C) A simulated virtual classroom
(D) Distance education
Answer: (A)

23. Which year marked the arrival of private satellite television channels in India?
(A) 1982
(B) 1985
(C) 1991
(D) 1995
Answer: (C)

24. In the context of Indian media identify the correct alternative: Newspaper : IRS :: TV : ?
(A) TRP
(B) TPR
(C) TVN
(D) TAE
Answer: (A)

25. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following series : 32 33 37 46
62?
(A) 85
(B) 87
(C) 94
(D) 99
Answer: (B)

26. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative in the following letter series:
AZ DW GT JQ?
(A) LD
(B) MN
(C) MO
(D) NM
Answer: (B)

27. In a certain code language, PUNE is written as SXQH. How would you write DELHI in this
language?
(A) FGNJL
(B) FGNJK
(C) GHOKM
(D) GHOKL
Answer: (D)

28. Find the odd man out:

(A) 6
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 36
Answer: (C)

29. Find the wrong term in the following series:

68 66 62 59 56 53
(A) 59
(B) 62
(C) 66
(D) 68
Answer: (C)

30. P is the brother of Q; Q is the son of R; S is R’s father. What is P of S?

(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Grandson
(D) Grandfather
Answer: (C)

31. In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions, I and II. Decide which of the
assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement. Indicate your answer by choosing one of the
alternatives:
Alternatives:
Mark :
(A) if assumption I only is implicit.
(B) if assumption II only is implicit.
(C) if both I and II are implicit.
(D) if neither I nor II is implicit.
Statement:
Children are influenced more by their teachers.
Assumptions:
I : A large amount of time is spent at school by the children.
II : Children consider their teachers as role models.
Answer: (B)

32. In this question, two statements numbered 1 and 2 are followed by two conclusions P and Q. You
have to take the two statements to be true and then decide which of the two conclusion/s
necessarily follow/s from the two given statements. Indicate your answer by using the appropriate
alternative:
Alternatives:
Mark:
(A) if only conclusion P follows.
(B) if only conclusion Q follows.
(C) if both conclusions P and Q follow.
(D) if neither conclusion P nor Q follows.
Statements:
(1) All guilty men are prisoners.
(2) No prisoners are educated.
Conclusions:
(P) Some educated persons are prisoners.
(Q) Some educated persons are guilty.
Answer: (D)

33. Replace the question mark (?) by an appropriate alternative:

Yard : ? :: Quart : Litre
(A) Metre
(B) Pint
(C) Pound
(D) Foot
Answer: (A)

34. Find the odd man out:

(A) Zinc
(B) Iron
(C) Iodine
(D) Mercury
Answer: (C)

35. In a junior college with 500 students, 250 students study Mathematics and 200 students study
Biology. One hundred students study neither Mathematics nor Biology. How many students study
both Mathematics and Biology?
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 250
Answer: (A)

36. Select the same relationship from the given four alternatives as given in the original pair. Square
: Cube
(A) Triangle : Prism
(B) Circle : Sphere
(C) Sphere : Earth
(D) Line : Cylinder
Answer: (B)

Yearly income of three men and two women is given in the following table. Read the table and
answer questions 37 to 39 :
Income (in thousand rupees)
Person 1990 1991 1992 1993
Mohan 120 160 200 240
Hariprasad 100 140 160 200
Laxman 90 120 150 200
Smt. Meenakshi 200 250 300 370
Km. Radha 120 120 150 170

37. Who has the average income of Rs. 1,40,000 for all the four years ?
(A) Mohan alone
(B) Mohan and Hariprasad both
(C) Laxman and Km. Radha both
(D) Km. Radha alone
Answer: (C)

38. How high is the total average income for four years of men compared to that of women (in
thousand rupees)?
(A) 213.334
(B) 350.044
(C) 432.054
(D) 544.082
Answer: (A)

39. What is, in round figures, the ratio between the total income of men and that of women for all
years?
(A) 14 : 15
(B) 15 : 16
(C) 23 : 21
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(D) 16 : 14
Answer: (D)

The following table shows the percent change in monthly value of inventory at six businesses from
April to June (for Q. Nos. 40 to 42):
Percent Change
Business From April to May From May to June
P +6 +8
Q +5 –5
R +2 +12
S +8 –5
T +14 0
U +2 –10

40. If the value of inventory at Business Q was Rs. 30 lakh for April, what was its value for June ?
(A) Rs. 22.500 lakh
(B) Rs. 29.925 lakh
(C) Rs. 30.000 lakh
(D) Rs. 33.000 lakh
Answer: (B)
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41. Which of the six businesses had the greatest percent change in value of inventory from April to
June ?
(A) P
(B) R
(C) T
(D) P, R and T
Answer: (A)

42. The value of inventory for May as percentage of the value of inventory for June is maximum for
Business:
(A) Q
(B) S
(C) T
(D) U
Answer: (D)

43. .doc is a:
(A) Word file
(B) Picture file
(C) Deleted file
(D) Driver file
Answer: (A)

44. In computer terminology which one of the following is the largest in terms of data capacity?
(A) KB
(B) TB
(C) MB
(D) GB
Answer: (B)

45. Skype is usually used for:

(A) social networking
(B) interpersonal communication
(C) virtual classroom
(D) actual classroom
Answer: (B)

46. Statistical tables can be generally generated on:

(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Excel
(C) PowerPoint
(D) Paint Brush
Answer: (B)

47. Identify the incorrect form of addressing any dignitory:

(A) Cabinet Minister—Honourable
(B) Mayor—Honorable
(C) Governor—Your Excellency
(D) Judge—Your Excellency
Answer: (D)

48. A speech generally includes the following parts:

(i) Introduction
(ii) Statement of the central idea
(iii) The main body
(iv) Conclusion
(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) All the four are correct
Answer: (D)

49. Reduction in earth’s ozone layer leads to:

(A) Increase in smog concentration
(B) Increase in sea levels
(C) Increase in UV radiation on the earth’s surface
(D) Reduction in oxygen level on the earth’s surface
Answer: (C)

50. The following are alternate sources of energy:

(i) Solar
(ii) Nuclear
(iii) Wind
(iv) Sea waves
(A) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
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(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: (C)

51. CEE is an organization associated with:

(A) Civil engineering
(B) Environmental education
(C) Coastal environment
(D) Commerce and economics
Answer: (B)

52. Richter scale is used to measure:

(A) Wind velocity
(B) Siesmic vibrations
(C) Intensity of light
(D) Volume of water
Answer: (B)

53. High tide and low tide is influenced by:

(A) Rotation of the earth
(B) Revolution of the earth
(C) Phases of the moon
(D) Supernatural forces
Answer: (C)

54. The key controversy regarding the Narmada Dam Project focused on:
(A) Electricity production
(B) Water distribution
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Poverty
Answer: (C)

55. Which of the following is untrue about Deemed University?

(A) It has full autonomy in setting course work
(B) It prepares own guidelines for admissions and fees
(C) It can affiliate other institutions
(D) It can award degrees under its own name
Answer: (C)

56. Which of the following is not a Professional Course?

(A) Pharmacy
(B) Law
(C) Engineering
(D) Fine Arts
Answer: (D)

57. The right of minorities to establish educational institutions in India is provided by:
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles
(D) Human Rights
Answer: (A)

58. The process of making new syllabus of any course begins in:
(A) Faculty
(B) Board of Studies
(C) Academic Council
(D) Research and Recognition Committee
Answer: (B)

59. The apex institution/institutions for engineering education and research in India is/are:
(A) Indian Institutes of Technology
(B) Indian Institutes of Information Technology
(C) Indian Institute of Advanced Study
(D) Association of Indian Universities
Answer: (A)

60. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities:
(i) Promote and co-ordinate higher education.
(ii) Maintain standard of teaching, examination and research in universities.
(iii) Provide funds for higher education.
(iv) Advise Central and State Government on measures to be taken for improving higher education.
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) All four are correct
Answer: (D)

2013 September AP (Andhra Pradesh) SET Paper I

1. The most polluted places in India are

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(A) Gwalior and Bhopal

(B) Vapi and Sukinda
(C) Ranchi and Nasik
(D) Surat and Rampur
Answer: (B)

2. Which is the correct order of the degree of weathering of the following rocks?
(A) Dunite > Basalt > Granite > Rhyolite
(B) Basalt > Dunite > Granite > Rhyolite
(C) Granite > Basalt > Dunite > Rhyolite
(D) Rhyolite > Granite > Dunite > Basalt
Answer: (C)

3. In a weight reduction experiment, an overweight individual was given what the researcher called a
new type of diet tablet that would help curb the desire to eat. In fact the tablet contained powdered
milk, but ever since the individual started taking the tablet, he as reported that his desire to eat has
decreased. This illustrates the
(A) Curvilinear relationship
(B) Effect of extraneous variables
(C) A natural experiment
(D) Placebo effect
Answer: (D)

4. Communication will be effective if it is

(A) Delivered slowly and clearly
(B) Delivered using appropriate media
(C) Received a intended by the sender
(D) Received immediately
Answer: (C)

5. Arrange the following steps of teaching in logical sequence:

1. Relating the present knowledge with previous knowledge
2. Evaluation
3. Re-teaching
4. Formulating objectives
5. Presentation of materials
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(C) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
Answer: (D)

6. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research
Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following Pie-chart carefully to answer these questions
(Percentagewise Distribution of teachers who teach six different subjects)
Total number of Teachers = 1800
7. What is the difference between the total number of teachers who teach English and Physics
together and the total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together?
(A) 16
(B) 26
(C) 28
(D) 18
Answer: (D)

8. What is the ratio of the number of teachers who teach Mathematics to the number of teachers
who teach Hindi?
(A) 10:7
(B) 17:13
(C) 17:26
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

9. If the percentage of Mathematics teachers is increased by 50 percent and the percentage of Hindi
teachers decreased by 25 percent then what will be the total number of Mathematics and Hindi
teachers together?
(A) 946
(B) 843
(C) 1046
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)

10. If two-ninths of the teachers who teach Physics are female, then the number of male Physics
teachers is approximately what percentage of the total number of teachers who teach Chemistry?
(A) 97
(B) 92
(C) 94
(D) 99
Answer: (B)

11. What is the total number of teachers teaching Chemistry, English and Biology?
(A) 1,172
(B) 872
(C) 972
(D) 990
Answer: (C)

12. An effective teaching means all of the following except

(A) A teacher teaches with enthusiasm
(B) A teacher aims at diagnosing the mistakes of his students
(C) A teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than on class control
(D) A teacher is interested in making the subject matter understand rather on completing the course
Answer: (B)

13. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Inculcation of knowledge
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Acquisition of skills
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is false? Consider the following statements.

(A) Using of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) for learning promotes fast
communication promotes cooperative learning for students
(B) Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
(C) Information and Communication Technology (ICT) promotes student privacy
(D) Plagiarism cannot be prevented
Answer: (D)

15. Value based education can be inculcated among the students through the following initiatives
(i) Making pupil’s behavior conformist by imposing the strict rules, regulations and punishment
(ii) By creating an external authority to monitor the behavior of the students and teachers
(iii) Providing freedom and autonomy to the students and effective socialization and discussion
(iv) Encouraging the students to have proper role models for their personal and intellectual
development
(A) i, ii, iii are correct
(B) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
(C) iii and iv are correct
(D) i and iii are correct
Answer: (B)

16. My reaction to the statement: “A good teacher is essentially a good researcher” is that this is
(A) My firm belief
(B) Something I find difficult to agree
(C) Something which I accept only as an opinion
(D) Only a hypothesis
Answer: (C)

17. Sin Qua Non of good research is

(A) A set of well documented hypothesis
(B) A good research supervisor
(C) Adequate library facilities
(D) A good research problem
Answer: (D)

18. India launched National Green Tribunal to make polluters pay damages, in the year:
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
Answer: (C)

19. At what stage of an ecological / succession an ecosystem exhibits total photosynthesis equal to
respiration?
(A) Pioneer
(B) Climax
(C) Virgin
(D) Mid-Seral
Answer: (B)

20. What will be the number in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
5 9 ? 29 54 103
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 14
(D) 13
Answer: (B)
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21. In this question, there are three statements followed by four conclusions. You have to take the
three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: All tables are chairs. No chair is book, some books are flowers.
Which of the following conclusions is definitely true?
(A) No flower is chair
(B) No flower is table
(C) Some chairs are not table
(D) No book is table
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (Question No. 22 to 25)
Talent is a force not a tool, Talent is neither good nor bad. Being multi-talented is a very
mixed blessing. For some people, it is a curse. Ability or performance is the result of complex
interaction between various parts of the mind / body system. Some parts of the ability are due to
“nurture”. The most important of these environmental factors is knowledge in one form or another.
Nature is the basis of talent.
We all know, understand and operate on more levels than just the conscious. Talents or
Aptitudes are unleamed abilities-gut-level and non-conscious ways of operating. Some people call
them knacks. Aptitudes have major impact not just on performance, but on our individual and
unique states of being. They are a big part of the reason “One man’s meat is another man’s poison”.
Most people know for more than they realize about knacks and talents. People usually know if
they are mechanical, have a sequence of direction, pickup language enjoy puzzles or are good with
their hands. Anyone who has managed or trained people has seen the clear impact of learned
abilities. In any area, some folks take to it like ducks to water. Once trained they stay ahead of the
crowd. Others sweat to keep up or fail miserably.
Strong talents do not equal high performance. Having the right knacks or talents provides a
head start and on-going advantage. They are not useful without knowledge and motivation.
Aptitudes have to be trained in order to be used well. Peak performance occurs when one has the
right combination of talents, knowledge, motivation, opportunity, courage, luck, tools and X factors.

22. A child always opening the “crossword puzzles page in a newspaper” is an analogy for
(A) Some folks take to it like ducks to water
(B) One man’s meat is another man’s poison
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

23. “One man’s meat is another man’s poison”. In this statement we are referring to:
(A) The food habits of a person
(B) The likes and dislikes of a person
(C) The relative importance of people’s talents
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

24. Aptitudes are

i. Talents
ii. Knacks
iii. Performance
iv. Unlearned abilities
(A) i, ii, iv
(B) ii, iii, iv
(C) i, ii, iii
(D) i, iii, ii
Answer: (A)

25. Peak performance occurs when one has the right combination of
(i) Talents
(ii) Knowledge
(iii) Opportunity
(iv) Motivation
Of the above the aspects that are nurtured are
(A) i and ii
(B) ii and iii
(C) ii and iv
(D) i and iii
Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To develop thinking power of students
(B) To give information related to the syllabus
(C) Prepare the students for examination
(D) Help the students for getting jobs
Answer: (A)

27. The National Policy on Education, 1986 has emphasized on

i. Decentralisation of Education
ii. Introduction of self-financing courses in Universities
iii. Vocational Education
iv. Increasing employability for University Graduates by providing knowledge and skills
(A) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
(B) i, ii, iii are correct
(C) ii and iii are correct
(D) ii and iv are correct
Answer: (D)

28. Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act was passed in the year
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Answer: (D)

29. Which of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(A) Slmlipal National Park
(B) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park
Answer: (D)

30. The most essential step in the research process that determines every step that follows is to
(A) Decide whether qualitative or quantitative methods are to be used
(B) Review the literature in order to acquaint oneself with comprehensive knowledge
(C) Have a clear idea about the methods of analyzing data and drafting a plan to achieve it
(D) Formulation of the problem with its objectives, hypotheses, variables and limitations
Answer: (B)

31. What is a statistical inference?

(A) Reaching conclusions from a sample
(B) Analysing statistical data
(C) Applying statistical method
(D) Developing statistical theories
Answer: (A)

32. Coal mine workers are prone to be victims of the following disease
(A) Pneumonoconisis
(B) Byssinosis
(C) Asbestos
(D) Silicosis
Answer: (A)

33. Assertion (A): The challenge that the Indian state is facing today is how to achieve an equivalence
between the state and the civil society within a democratic frame work.
Reason (R): Crominalization of politics, political corruption and communal violence stand in the way
of creating a value-based political culture.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: (A)

34. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below
List-I List-II
1. World Environment Day i. September 8
2. World Population Day ii. December 10
3. International Literacy Day iii. July 11
4. International Human Right Day iv. June 5
(A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
(B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
(C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
(D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
Answer: (D)

35. Direction to Q. No. 35: The following question is followed by two arguments I and II. You have to
decide which argument is strong?
Should the opinion polls predicting outcome of elections before the elections be banned in India?
Argument I: Yes, the outcome of opinion polls may influence the voting pattern.
Argument II: No, such polls are conducted all over the world.
(A) Argument I is strong
(B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both arguments are strong
(D) Neither I nor II is strong
Answer: (A)

36. Put in descending order as per content of Carbon.

1. Peat
2. Lignite
3. Bituminous Coal
4. Anthracite
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: (D)

37. Which one of the following is true about the Indian Polity?
(A) It is true Federation
(B) It is a Confederation
(C) It is Quasi-federal
(D) It is a Unitary State
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Answer: (C)

38. In certain code DREAMING is written as BFSFEMHL. How is SELECTED written in that code?
(A) FMFTCDSB
(B) FMFTEFUD
(C) EKDRCDSB
(D) EKDREFUD
Answer: (A)

39. In certain code BRING is written as ‘53 © © 2’ and Guide is written as ‘2$©76’. How is GINGER
written in that code?
(A) 2 © © 253
(B) 2 © © 263
(C) 2 © © 753
(D) 2 © © $53
Answer: (B)

40. A solar cell is basically a

(A) p-type semiconductor
(B) n-type semiconductor
(C) p-n-diode
(D) p.n.p transistor
Answer: (C)
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41. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(A) Tabala
(B) Flute
(C) Music
(D) Piano
Answer: (C)

42. Which of the following will come in the place of question mark?
IIZ JYK XLM NOW ?
(A) PQV
(B) QRV
(C) QWR
(D) PVQ
Answer: (D)

43. Assertion (A): CFCs destroy ozone molecules in stratosphere

Reason (R): CFCs have very high global warming potential
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
(B) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true (R) is false
(D) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer: (A)

44. The main purpose of the first degree in our Universities should be to
(A) Bring students to frontiers of knowledge and from there should be research
(B) Equip students with necessary competencies for different work experiences
(C) Prepare students for social service and bring them to the threshold of knowledge
(D) Bring to the frontiers of research from there necessary equipment of knowledge
Answer: (A)

45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Scientific method?

(A) Objectivity
(B) Verification
(C) Speculation
(D) Predictability
Answer: (C)

46. The minimum thickness to be used in biodegradable carry bags should be

(A) 5 microns
(B) 10 microns
(C) 15 microns
(D) 20 microns
Answer: (D)

47. Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?
(A) Getting informed consent of the participant
(B) Telling participants that they must continue until study has been completed
(C) Keeping participant’s identity anonymous
(D) Telling participants that they are free to withdraw at any time
Answer: (B)

48. In a row of forty-five girls racing South, D is sixteenth from the right end. There are 8 girls
between D and B. What is B’s position from the left end of the row?
(A) Twenty-first
(B) Ninth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data Inadequate
Answer: (D)

49. Internet and World Wide Web are

(A) One and the same
(B) Internet is part of World Wide Web
(C) World Wide Web is part of the Internet
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

50. The professionalism of a teacher can be tested in terms

(A) Love towards the profession
(B) Competency to teach
(C) Observance of professional ethics
(D) In-depth knowledge of subject
Answer: (C)

51. ENIAC is acronym for

(A) Electronic Numeric Integrator and Calculator
(B) Electronic Number Interchange Address Code
(C) Electronic Numeric Intercom and Calculator
(D) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator
Answer: (A)

52. M is brother of K. T is sister of M. J is brother of T. H is father of J. Then how is K related to H?

(A) Niece
(B) Son or Daughter
(C) Brother
(D) Sister
Answer: (B)

53. Study the following information to answer the given question:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north but not necessarily in the same order.
R sits third to the left of W. Neither R nor W sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sites
between R and T. S is not an immediate neighbour of either R or W. Two people sit between T and P.
Q is an immediate neighbor of S. Who amongst the following sits exactly between R and T?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) V
(D) S
Answer: (C)

54. The major part of air pollution load lies in

(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Thermosphere
(D) Ionosphere
Answer: (A)

55. A good piece of research is the outcome of

(A) Collective effort
(B) A touch of genius
(C) A reputed research institute
(D) A penetrating and analytical mind
Answer: (D)

56. Broad Band has a speed more than

(A) 256 KB/sec
(B) 512 KB/sec
(C) 1024 KB/sec
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

57. You got a mail telling you that you won one million dollars in a lottery
(A) It is time to celebrate and respond to the mail
(B) Forward the mail to your friend
(C) Suspect it could be tricking you and report it as Spam
(D) No action
Answer: (C)

58. What is the relative position of moon, earth and the sun during a lunar-eclipse?
(A) The sun and moon are in conjunction
(B) The sun and moon are opposite
(C) The three make an equilateral triangle
(D) The line joining the earth and sun, and earth and moon make right angle
Answer: (B)

59. Which one of the following is the usual sequence of scientific enquiry?
(A) Observation – Verification – Hypothesizing - Theorizing
(B) Experimentation – Observation – Verification - Hypothesizing
(C) Observation – Hypothesizing – Experimentation - Theorizing
(D) Theorizing – Observation – Experimentation - Hypothesizing
Answer: (C)

60. The Education Department invites projects or action research on instructional problems related
to your subject of specialization. How will you react to this?
(A) Prepare a project in case I have experienced a genuine complex problem
(B) Prepare a project on any problem that might be faced by a large number of teachers
(C) Prepare a project with the intention of getting recognition
(D) Prepare a project in case an award is declared
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Answer: (B)
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