ĐỀ 1 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. breath B. thread C. without D. theme
Question 2: A. extinct B. positive C. thrilling D. impressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. parent B. paper C. disease D. weather
Question 4: A. disaster B. countryman C. stadium D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Many of the items such as rings, key chains, or souvenirs are made of unusual shell or unique
stones illegally _______ from the protected areas.
A. which is removed B. removing C. which is removing D. removed
Question 6: He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7: As soon as the taxi _______, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. arrives B. arrive C. will arrive D. arrived
Question 8: Educated women are becoming less dependent _______ their husbands’ decisions.
A. about B. of C. on D. for
Question 9: A strong wind spread the flames very quickly, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Question 10: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 11: Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the _______ that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
Question 12: Let's take _______ the situation before we make a final decision.
A. up with B. up on C. stock of D. out of
Question 13: Every man in this country who reaches the age of 18 is required _______ in the army for two
years.
A. to serve B. serving C. served D. serve
Question 14: I am afraid that if this solution isn't accepted, we'll be back to _______ one.
A. circle B. rectangle C. triangle D. square
Question 15: The teacher and her students _______ a discussion about job orientation when the light went out.
A. were having B. are having C. have had D. have
Question 16: I _______ my breath waiting for my exam’s result and fortunately I passed it.
A. held B. have C. gave D. save
Question 17: He _______ the job as an administrative assistant if he meets the requirements of the company.
A. offers B. will be offered C. offered D. is offering
Question 18: Every morning, my mother usually drinks several cups of tea, has a _______ breakfast and then
leads the buffalo to the field.
A. quick B. quickly C. quickness D. quicker
Question 19: When there is a surplus electricity on the grid, these facilities use that power to pump water from
the lower _______ to the higher one.
A. reservoir B. lake C. puddle D. pond
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: “Why don't we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?”
- Susan: “_______”
A. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! B. No, they are not available.
C. You should agree with us. D. I'm sorry to hear that.
Question 21: Mrs. Kate is talking to her students at the end of the lecture.
- Mrs. Kate: "I wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!"
- Students: "_______ "
 A. You're welcome. B. So so.
C. Just for fun! D. The same to you!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the invitation to a dinner
party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired B. disrespected C. worshipped D. expected
Question 23: Once you choose to be in showbiz, you must learn to shut your ears to all rumours.
A. pay attention B. be indifferent C. refuse to listen D. be in reaction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 24: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Question 25: A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social networking
sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: It’s possible that it will rain heavily this evening.
A. It must rain heavily this evening. B. It can’t rain heavily this evening.
C. It needn’t rain heavily this evening. D. It may rain heavily this evening.
Question 27: The last time she went out with him was two years ago.
A. She hadn’t gone out with him for two years. B. She has gone out with him two years ago.
B. She hasn't gone out with him for two years. D. She have gone out with him since two years.
Question 28: He said to them: “Who will you see before you leave here?”
A. He asked them who they would see before they left there.
B. He asked them who would they see before they left there.
C. He asked them who they would see before you left there.
D. He asked them who you would see before they left there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: The therapy aims to make thyroid cancers more responsible to treatment with radioactive iodine.
A. therapy B. thyroid C. responsible D. radioactive
Question 30: The final football match is postponed last Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. final B. is C. Sunday D. heavy
Question 31: The FBI is seeking a 49-year-old man for their alleged involvement in a US$3 billion money
laundering scheme.
A. The FBI B. their C. involvement D. laundering
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: Her English is not good. She can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
A. If her English were good, she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
B. If her English had been good, she couldn’t have applied for the job as a interpretter.
C. She wishes her English weren’t good so that she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
D. Provided that her English is good, she can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
Question 33: He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
A. No sooner had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
B. Not until he returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
C. Only after he had returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each the numbered blanks.
This article discusses the Roles of ICT, Information communication technologies, in education. ICTs are
making dynamic changes in society as well as influencing (34) _______ aspects of life. Even though ICTs play
significant roles in representing equalization strategy for developing countries, the reality of the digital divide,
which is the gap between those people having access to, and control technology and those people (35) _______
do not make a huge difference in the use of ICTs. This means that the introduction and integration of ICTs at
different levels and various types of education is the most challenging undertaking. Failure to (36) _______ the
challenges would mean a further widening of the knowledge gap and deepening of existing economic and social
inequalities among the developed and the developing countries. (37) _______, the purpose of this review article
is to discuss the benefits of ICT use in education, in the enhancement of student learning and experiences of
some countries in order to encourage policy makers, school administrators, and teachers to pay (38) _______ so
as to integrate this technology in their education systems.
(Adapted from ‘The Role of Information communication’ by FissehaMikre.)

Question 34: A. every B. all C. each D. much

Question 35: A. whose B. which C. who D. when
Question 36: A. handle B. control C. take D. make
Question 37: A. On the contrary B. Therefore C. However D. Yet
Question 38: A. role B. effort C. ability D. attention
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Is synchronized swimming really a sport? Despite the doubt of many people, synchronized swimming is one
of the most underrated but most difficult sports, and it certainly deserves to be in the Olympic Games.
Olympic synchronized swimmers train for as long as eight hours a day, for six days a week− much longer than
most other Olympic sports. The athletes are not just in the water the whole time, they spend hours stretching,
doing Pilates, strength conditioning, diligently training, lifting weights, performing ballet, and even dancing and
doing gymnastics. Because of this, synchronized swimmers are some of the strongest and skillful athletes to
compete in the modern Olympic Games.
Synchronized swimmers must perform many movements and positions called figures while managing their
breathing and coordination with the swimmers around them. To increase their lung capacity, often times
synchronized swimmers will do exercises called “unders” during practices. They will swim a 25-meter lap
underwater, repeating this exercise over and over until they’re beyond exhausted. This exercise is completely
necessary for synchronized swimmers to master, because more than half of a routine is performed underwater.
Although synchronized swimming is a very graceful and beautiful sport, there can be some dangers. The
synchronized swimmers can’t touch the bottom of the pool in a routine, or they’ll be disqualified. They must
continuously move their legs in circular movements, like an egg-beater. Because synchronized swimming is a
contact sport and the swimmer’s kicks are so powerful, swimmers may get hit by other competitors’ legs,
causing concussions or knocking off nose clips, which is an essential piece of equipment. Since it’s fairly
common for a nose clip to get knocked off, many times swimmers will swim with a couple extras.
(Adapted from https://swimswam.com/)
Question 39: What is the best tittle of the passage?
A. History of synchronized swimming B. Synchronized swimming competition
C. The requirement of synchronized swimming D. Synchronized swimming
Question 40: The word “skillful” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. experienced B. healthy C. clever D. accomplished
Question 41: As mentioned in the passage, what do swimmers have to pay attention in order to have a
successful performance?
A. They have to remember every movement to complete them at the same time with others.
B. They have to practice “unders” exercises whenever they perform this sport.
C. They have to control their breath while harmoniously performing with other swimmers.
D. They have to swim a 25-meter lap underwater to manage their breathing.
Question 42: According to the passage, the followings are true about what synchronized swimmers have to do
EXCEPT _______.
A. swim a 25-meter lap underwater
B. run around the fool before swimming
C. perform ballet and do gymnastics
D. keep their legs moving in their performance.
Question 43: What does the word “their” in the third paragraph refer to?
A. synchronized swimmers B. figures
C. positions D. movements
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Members of the royal family have led an outpouring of tributes from around the world at the death of Prince
Philip, the husband of Queen Elizabeth. Buckingham Palace has spoken of the Queen’s “deep sorrow” after her
husband of 73 years, who had been by her side throughout her reign, died peacefully at Windsor Castle aged 99
on Friday night (Australian time).
 Flags at Buckingham Palace and government buildings across the United Kingdom were lowered to half-
mast, and within an hour of the announcement the public began to lay flowers outside Windsor Castle and
Buckingham Palace. However, mourners have been urged not to gather and leave tributes at royal residences,
and the public has been asked to stay away from funeral events because of the coronavirus pandemic. An online
book of condolence has been launched on the Royal Family’s official website for people to leave messages of
sympathy.
The prince died two months short of his 100th birthday. He had recently spent four weeks in hospital with an
infection where he was treated for a heart condition before being discharged and returned to Windsor early in
March. The Duke of Edinburgh had been by his wife’s side throughout her 69-year reign, the longest in British
history, and during that time earned a reputation for a tough, no-nonsense attitude, and a propensity for
occasional gaffes. A Greek prince, Philip married Elizabeth in 1947, and together they had four children, eight
grandchildren, and nine great grandchildren. He played a key role helping the monarchy adapt to a changing
world in the post-World War II period, and behind the walls of Buckingham Palace was the one key figure the
Queen could trust and turn to, knowing he could tell her exactly what he thought.
The death of the Duke comes in the midst of the worst public health crisis for generations as Britain and
countries around the globe reel from the devastating impact of the coronavirus pandemic. Philip will not have a
state funeral nor lie in state for the public to pay their respects ahead of the funeral, the College of Arms said,
with arrangements revised to meet coronavirus restrictions.
(Adapted:https://thenewdaily.com.au/entertainment)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Prince Philip’s death B. The public’s tribute to Prince Philip
C. A bibliography of Prince Philip D. Life and contributions of Prince Philip
Question 45: The word “mourners” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. bearers B. visitors C. participants D. grievers
Question 46: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Prince Philip was 25 years old when he got married to Queen Elizabeth.
B. Flowers were laid outside some royal residences after the death announcement.
C. Prince Philip was admitted to hospital for 28 days.
D. Prince Philip was born into a Greek royal family.
Question 47: How should the public express their condolence?
A. They can gather at royal residences.
B. They can attend funeral events.
C. They can leave messages of sympathy in an online book.
D. They can leave tributes at Windsor Castle.
Question 48: The word “discharged” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. admitted to hospital B. allowed to leave hospital
C. given priority to meet doctors D. asked to stay
Question 49: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. countries B. the public C. generations D. arrangements
Question 50: Which statement can be inferred from the passage?
A. Prince Philip will not have a state funeral as he comes from Greece.
B. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted online to avoid coronavirus spread.
C. Prince Philip will be buried behind the walls of Buckingham Palace.
D. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted differently from other royal funerals.

THE END
 ĐỀ 2 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. teach B. break C. deal D. clean
Question 2: A. century B. capital C. capable D. captain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. manage B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. compassion D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: The Bhaktapur Durbar square, also__________as Bhadgaon, consists of at least four distinct
squares.
A. known B. knew C. to know D. knowing
Question 6: Goods sold in the open markets are often __________than those in the supermarket.
A. resonable B. most reasonable
C. the most reasonable D. more reasonable
Question 7: She says she won’t phone us _______
A. until she has the information B. when she had the information
C. after she had had the information D. by the time she got the information
Question 8: Jane: "Shall we turn back?" - Tom: "Well, I'm______turning back. It’s too dangerous to go
mountain climbing against this weather.
A. for B. agaisnt C. off D. over
Question 9: The mail scarcely ever arrives before noon , ________?
A. is it B. doesn’t it C. does it D. don’t they
Question 10:Global warming, the rise in temperature around the earth’s atmosphere, is one of _______
biggest issues facing humans nowadays.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 11: Road atlas programs will map out your route between two cities or set up a
whole__________of stops.
A. excavation B. dome C. cruise D. itinerary
Question 12: Being self-reliant is what many young people__________.
A. take care of B. strive for C. cope with D. figure out
Question 13: Mark remembered__________many wild animals in Cuc Phuong national park.
A. to see B. to be seen C. seeing D. being seen
Question 14:You’re falling short on class attendance and you failed to submit the last assignment. You’re
__________in this semester.
A.walking on thin ice B. walking on thin eggshells
C.walking on thin air D.walking on thin sky
Question 15: When Carol called last night, I ________ my favorite show on television.
A. watched B. am watching C. was watching D. have watched
Question 16:The minister refused to______ the figures to the press.
A. leak B. release C. show D. add
Question 17: The next meeting ________ in May.
A. will hold B. will be held C.are dicuss D. discuss
Question 18: Don't worry! He'll do the job as ________ as possible.
A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D.economizing
Question 19: Dawson, I hear that the new regulation will take ________from October 1st, won’t it?
A.effect B. force C. power D. use
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Two students are talking about Pho, a Vietnamese dish.
- Ted: "I think one of the most popular food for Vietnamese people is Pho."
- Kate: " . Everyone likes it because it is delicious. "
A. Oh! That’s a problem B. Not at all C. I totally disagree D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21: Tony is in a café.
- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?” - Waiter: "_________.”
A. Sure. Wait a minute, please B. Don't mention it, please
C. It's too hard D. Sorry for saying that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22:Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to B. don’t have the necessary skills for
C. are offered D. don’t want to take
Question 23:Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. satisfy B. sympathize C. please D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: Polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice
but have nowhere farther north to go.
A.shrinking B. getting bigger C. melting D. getting warmer
Question 25: Portable digital projectors allow teachers to give interactive presentations without the use of
the cumbrous equipment as before.
A.weighty B. manageable C. light D. portable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26:You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 27:The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 28: '' How long have you lived in Ha Noi''? said my friend.
A. My friend asked me how long have I lived in HaNoi.
B. My friend asked me how long had I lived in HaNoi.
C. My friend asked me how long I had lived in HaNoi.
D. My friend asked me how long I have lived in HaNoi.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass
the exam
A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass
Question 30:The earth is the only planet with a large amount of oxygen in their atmosphere.
A. the B.amount C.oxygen D. their
Question 31: After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion
of the issues which were risen in the talk.
A. social science lecture B. are invited
C. of the issues D.risen in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32:He didn’t study hard,so he gets bad marks now.
A. If only he had studied hard,he wouldn’t have got bad marks now.
B. If he didn’t study hard,he wouldn’t get bad marks now.
C. He wouldn’t get bad marks now if he had studied hard.
D. If he didn’t study hard,he wouldn’t have got bad marks now.
Question 33: I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. Shortly after that, I heard the sound of the
alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. Not until I hardly heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and close my eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and closed my eyes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Pollutants are clogging up the atmosphere above our planet and trapping the sun's heat. That makes our
planet warmer, which causes glaciers to melt, crazy weather patterns to develop, and natural disasters
spread like wildfires.
But there are other consequences that people don't always associate with climate change. One surprising
fact about global warming is that it makes people more aggressive.
As the world gets hotter, tempers also get fierier. A new study found that violent crimes and even war
become more likely as temperatures rise. Heart rates tend to be elevated in warm weather, so people are
prepped for a physical response to a situation. That’s not to say we're headed for a violent end as Earth
warms up, though. Advances in everything from technology to health have sparked a decline in conflict. It's
just that global warming might be slowing that decline. Climate change increases the amount of smog in
the air and causes plants to produce more pollen, according to the Natural Resources Defense Council.
Those combine to make breathing harder for people, which can be especially tricky for people with asthma
and other respiratory illnesses.
Question 34: What is trapping the sun’s heat?
A. The atmosphere B. Pollutant
C. Glaciers D. The atmosphere above our planet
Question 35: According to the paragraph 1, all of the following are results of our planet getting warmer
EXCEPT
A. Melting glaciers B. Increasing greenhouse gas
C. Natural disasters like wildfires D. Crazy weather patterns to develop
Question 36: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. other consequences B. global warming C. surprising fact D. climate change
Question 37: The word “elevated” is closest in meaning to
A. dropped B. grew C. enlarged D. raised
Question 38: What is the topic of the passage?
A. A global warming surprising fact B. Aggressive modem people
C. The bad effects of global warming D. A study on global warming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
“One month on since the devastating earthquake hit Türkiye and Syria, the scale of the humanitarian
response has yet to meet the enormous needs of displaced Syrian families and children (39)_____have
suffered from compounded crises for almost 12 years now,” said Johan Mooij, director of World Vision’s
Syria crisis response. “It is crucial that (40)_____ access channels to northwest Syria remain open, and that
aid deliveries are scaled up through earmarked funding for the emergency response. Only this will ensure
that children’s mental health needs are covered, and their trauma addressed.”
Snow and bitter winter weather have placed children at great risk of hypothermia(41)_____ they struggle
to survive in sub-zero temperatures. Many survivors have had to sleep in cars, outside, or in makeshift
shelters. Doctors (42)_____ that children are also at risk of exposure to waterborne diseases such
as cholera or Hepatitis A due to the damage to shelters and water infrastructure.
These children are now even more vulnerable to family separation, exploitation, and abuse. As buildings
are deemed unsafe, they also are unable to return to school.
“In northern Syria, in particular, the threats to children from abuse were already extreme. The soaring
poverty, within a warzone, now devastated by earthquakes, has created an unimaginable number of
challenges, and suffering for children,” says Johan, director of the Syria crisis response in Amman, Jordan.
“This earthquake has created the perfect environment for a health crisis -fueled by reduced healthcare
capacity and disease (43)_____.”
39. A. where B. whom C. which D. who
40. A. much B. few C. all D. little
41. A. moreover B. but C. so D. as
42. A. warned B. warns C. have warned D. is warning
43. A. acceleration B. outbreaks C.development D. promotion
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's
largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge
body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its
unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's
core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the
area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware
of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice
remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands
upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that
have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the
difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with
obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination.
Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 44: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. level B. ice C. region D. radar
Question 45: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it .
A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake's exact size D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if .
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 47: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 48: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it
A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 49: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 50: The purpose of the passage is to .
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
 ĐỀ 3 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. southern B. feather C. threaten D. leather
Question 2: A. instrument B. flight C. similar D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. pollute B. appear C. answer D. become
Question 4: A. fantastic B. perfection C. computer D. fascinate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: One masterpiece of literature _______ for the first time in 1975 has been nominated the best short
story ever.
A. was published B. published C. which published D. has published
Question 6: Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. the most difficult B. most difficult C. more difficult D. the least difficult
Question 7: That rising star won’t appear in the commercial _______.
A. once the contract will be signed B. when the contract had been signed
C. until the contract has been signed D. after the contract was signed
Question 8: Doctors advise people who are deficient _______ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 9: Bob told you something about my story, _______?
A. didn’t he B. doesn’t he C. did he D. hadn’t he
Question 10: Half of the children were away from school last week because of an outbreak of _______
influenza.
A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 11: Monica, his mother agrees to _______ David, a robotic boy capable of human emotions.
A. interfere B. resurrect C. reunite D. activate
Question 12: They _______ an old cottage in the Scottish Highlands because it was in bad condition.
A. did up B. filled up C. set up D. turn up
Question 13: The researchers advise people _______ car windows when in traffic because the car fumes.
A. to close B. close C. closing D. to closing
Question 14: The student had to keep his _______ to the grindstone all year and passed the entrance exam into
the university he wanted.
A. nose B. mind C. heart D. face
Question 15: When he came, his girlfriend _______ in the living room.
A. has studied B. is studying C. studied D. was studying
Question 16: Many A.I. experts believe that A.I. technology will soon _______ even greater
advances in many other areas
A. say B. make C. take D. do
Question 17: The new shopping mall _______ next month and a grand opening ceremony is being planned.
A. will be opened B. opens C. opened D. will open
Question 18: Darwin's theory of _______ explains that the strongest species can survive because they have the
ability to adapt to the new environment better than others.
A. evolution B. evolute C. evolutional D. evolutionally
Question 19: It was the case of any port in a _______ when the supermodel went to work in my centre after she
had been unemployed for 10 months due to corona pandemic.
A. storm B. typhoon C. tornado D. hurricane
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
 - Dane: “_______. We can use paper bags instead.”
A. It's not true B. I completely agree C. I don't quite agree D. You're wrong
Question 21: A student is talking to his teacher about his IELTS result.
- Student: “Teacher, I’ve got 8.5 on the IELTS test.”
- Teacher: “_______. Congratulations!”
A. Oh, hard luck B. Good job C. Big deal D. Good way
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22: Do you really think humans will be exterminated when more and more intelligent machines are
invented in the future?
A. wiped out B. stored C. resurrected D. killed
Question 23: Instead of getting all riled up about the boy’s uncooperative behaviours, the teacher should try to
figure out how to get him involved in the class activities.
A. getting highly excited B. becoming really annoyed
C. being extremely satisfied D. appearing quite unconcerned
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 24: Understanding why women have to apply for social assistance at the different life stages requires
knowledge about their support situation during their entire life course.
A. help B. benefit C. need D. acceptance
Question 25: The minister’s confession implicated numerous officials in the bribery scandal.
A. encouraged B. instructed C. indicated D. developed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: Drivers are required to wear their seat belts while driving.
A. Drivers may wear their seat belts while driving.
B. Drivers needn’t wear their seat belts while driving.
C. Drivers shouldn’t wear their seat belts while driving
D. Drivers must wear their seat belts while driving.
Question 27: Lucas and Oliver last got together more than a year ago.
A. The first time that Lucas and Oliver got together was more than a year ago.
B. Lucas and Oliver didn’t get together last year.
C. Lucas didn’t get together with Oliver for more than a year.
D. Lucas and Oliver haven’t got together for more than a year.
Question 28: “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son.
A. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair.
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair.
C. She asked her son what to do to his hair.
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: Many students at the institution worshipped her father because he was a distinguishable professor
and achieved many prestigious awards.
A. prestigious B. achieved C. distinguishable D. worshipped
Question 30: My close friends spend most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community last
year.
A. spend B. of C. close D. helping
Question 31: Bottlenose dolphins are usually slow swimmers, but it can reach speeds of over 30 mph for
short periods .
A. usually B. of C. it D. periods
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: My brother is not old enough. He can’t take the driving test.
A. If my brother were old enough, he could take the driving test.
B. Provided that my brother is old enough, he can’t take the driving test.
C. If only my brother were young enough to take the driving test.
D. If my brother had been old enough, he could have taken the driving test.
Question 33: Emily had just finished saving all the documents. The computer crashed then.
 A. Hardly had Emily finished saving all the documents when the computer crashed.
B. The moment Emily started to save all the documents, the computer crashed.
C. Had it not been for the computer crash, Emily could have saved all the documents.
D. No sooner had the computer crashed than Emily finished saving all the documents.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each the numbered blanks.
Wave power
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source of clean energy,
wave power can be categorised along with (34) _______ sustainable energy sources, such as wind and solar
power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along ocean (35) _______ that
produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (36) _______ comprises three WECs, was built off the coast of
Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two megawatts of energy – enough to power 2,000 homes. Sadly,
the project hit a (37) _______ block two months into operation and has remained offline ever since,
demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide, (38) _______ it is worth cultivating the extraction of
wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three terawatts – enough for billions of
homes and businesses.
(Adapted from “Use of English for advanced”)
Question 34: A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 35: A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks
Question 36: A. whom B. which C. why D. who
Question 37: A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling
Question 38: A. despite B. so C. as D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Millions of people in the UK are putting their sight at risk by continuing to smoke, warned specialists. Despite
the clear connection, only one in five people recognise that smoking can lead to blindness, a poll for the
Association of Optometrists (AOP) finds. Smokers are twice as likely to lose their sight compared with non-
smokers, as tobacco smoke can cause and worsen a number of eye conditions.
Cigarette smoke contains toxic chemicals that can irritate and harm the eyes. Additionally, Smoking can make
diabetes-related sight problems worse by damaging blood vessels at the back of the eye. Smokers are also
around three times more likely to get age-related macular degeneration - a condition affecting a person's central
vision, meaning that they lose their ability to see fine details. Moreover, they are 16 times more likely than non-
smokers to develop sudden loss of vision caused by optic neuropathy, where the blood supply to the eye
becomes blocked.
The AOP says stopping or avoiding smoking is one of the best steps you can take to protect your vision, along
with having regular sight checks. Aishah Fazlanie, Optometrist and Clinical and Regulatory Adviser for the
AOP, said: "People tend to know about the link between smoking and cancer, but many people are not aware of
the impact that smoking can have upon the eyes.”
In the UK, 17% of men and 13% of women - around 7.4 million people - are smokers. More than half (61%) of
them say they want to quit. In 2017, around 2.8 million people - 5.5% of the UK - were using e-cigarettes, and
the most common reason given for this was to help quit smoking.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The connection between smoking and cancer
B. Smoking’s negative effects on the human eye
C. People in UK switching to e-cigarette to quit smoking
D. How we can protect our vision from cigarette smoke
Question 40: According to the passage, smokers can unexpectedly lose vision when _______.
A. they suffer from macular degeneration.
B. blood vessels at the back of the eye are damaged.
C. blood is prevented from reaching the eye.
D. toxic chemicals in cigarette smoke harm the eye.
Question 41: The word “fine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. relevant B. exact C. excellent D. lively
Question 42: The AOP suggest doing all of the following to protect our sight EXCEPT _______.
A. Checking our sight frequently. B. Switching to e-cigarettes.
C. Avoid smoking. D. Quit smoking completely.
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. non-smokers B. details C. problems D. smokers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about 54
percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to
recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to
critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can
only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed.
The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks
materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal
development. Well-managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network
effects while reducing the impact on climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic
activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and
create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of
the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the
hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if
planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases,
be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid
and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas,
we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
(Adapted from https://www.zurich.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What Has Driven Rapid Urbanization?
B. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Countries
D. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
Question 45: The word “profound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. right B. meaningful C. deep D. severe
Question 46: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Population B. Urbanization C. Development D. Unsanitary condition
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Weather and climate in the city will not be improved.
B. Urbanization makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
D. Urbanization minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
Question 48: The word “disparities” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advantages B. outcomes C. inequalities D. developments
Question 49: According to the passage, urban expansion facilitates the spread of disease because _______.
A. poverty cannot be eliminated thoroughly
B. most of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums
C. too many people hope for a better life in cities
D. employment opportunities in cities are greater than those in rural areas.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. About 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
B. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
C. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
D. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
THE END
 ĐỀ 4 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lunch B. kitchen C. technology D. purchase
Question 2: A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. second B. travel C. balance D. decide
Question 4: A. activation B. population C. diversity D. engineering
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, _________?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: We decided ____________ at home this afternoon.
A. staying B. stayed C. stay D. to stay
Question 7: The charity fundraiser, _____ by a local non-profit, raised thousands of dollars for a good cause.
A. held B. were held C. holding D. were holding
Question 8:The snow ___________ heavily when we woke up this morning.
A. was falling B. fell C. has fallen D. had been falling
Question 9:The message ____ to her before she leaves.
A. will convey B. conveyed C. will be conveyed D. is conveying
Question 10: ________, there will be great joy throughout the land.
A. After the war had been over. B. When the war was over
C. As soon as the war is over D. Once the war will be over
Question 11: John would like to specialize ___________ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
Question 12: He was the last man _________ the ship.
A. who leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left
Question 13: We haven’t reached the final _______ on the funding for scientific research yet.
A. decides B. decision C. deciding D. decisive
Question 14: Please help me with this math problem. I can’t___________the answer.
A. end up B. face up to C. come up with D. run into
Question 15: If we lose the case we may be _______________ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 16: The committee is _______ of well-known mountaineers.
A. contained B. comprised C. included D. consisted
Question 17: This ticket ____ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B. grants C. entitles D. credits
Question 18: We were all in___________of the fact that the new manager was our oldfriend Duncan.
A. surprise B. shock C. awe D. amazement
Question 1 9 : It is estimated that about 640 women remain illiterate in the world, mostly in
________developing countries.
A. the B. no article C. a D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: Computers are becoming much more sophisticated machines.
A. expensive B. complicated C. convenient D. difficult to operate
Question 21: The student was asked to account for her absence from her last lesson.
A. arrange B. complain C. exchange D. explain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Question 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 24: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Question 25: James: "Do you know that many inventions were inspired by the natural world?"
Anna: “____________________.”
A. Of course. You're right. B. There is no hope about it.
C. Well, that sounds interesting. D. Yes, I couldn't agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that Londoners use their cell phones
the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let calls be answered by voice mail (a recorded
message) and then they check for messages later. If the English do answer a call on the street, they seem to
dislike talking with others around. They tend to move away from a crowded sidewalk and seek out a place (26)
________ they cannot be heard, such as the far side of a subway entrance or even the edge of a street. They
seem to feel that the danger of the traffic is (27) ___________ to the risk of having their conversation be
overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser has called "clustering." At a busy time of day on the streets of
London, you may find small crowds of cell phone users grouped together, each one talking into a cell phone.
Even when it is raining—as it is often in London—people still prefer not to hold their conversations where
others could hear. They talk (28) _____________ their umbrellas or in a doorway.
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is not considered polite to
use a phone in a restaurant, (29) ______________, though it might be acceptable in the more informal setting of
a café. One special custom that has developed in cafés seems unique to Paris. Young women often place their
cell phones on the table beside them to signal that they are expecting someone. When the friend arrives, the
phone is (30) _____________. In fact, the French are generally very disapproving of phone use in public and
are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 26: A. which B. when C. where D. what
Question 27: A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential
Question 28: A. on B. under C. in D. after
Question 29: A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance
Question 30: A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
There was a man who had four sons. He wanted his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent
them each on a quest, in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son went in
the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in the fall. When they had all
gone and come back, he called them together to describe what they had seen.
The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent, and twisted. The second son said no – it was covered with
green buds and full of promise. The third son disagreed, he said it was laden with blossoms that smelled so
sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had ever seen. The last son disagreed with all of
them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfilment.
The man then explained to his sons that they were all right, because they had each seen but one season in the
tree’s life. He told them that you cannot judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the essence of
who they are – and the pleasure, joy, and love that come from that life – can only be measured at the end, when
all the seasons are up. If you give up when it’s winter, you will miss the promise of your spring, the beauty of
your summer, fulfilment of your fall.
Don’t judge a life by one difficult season. Don’t let the pain of one season destroy the joy of all the rest.
(source: https://www.beliefnet.com)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Seasons of Life B. The Observation of a Tree
 C. Father and Four Sons D. Love all the Seasons in a Year
Question 32: According to the paragraph 2, what did the second son see in his turn?
A. The tree was gloomy, withered and crooked.
B. The tree was in buds and teeming with vigor.
C. The tree was blossoming and gave off a sweet scent.
D. The tree was bountifully fruitful, brimming with life force.
Question 33: The word “laden” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. loaded B. decorated C. enhanced D. given
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. the four sons B. green buds C. trees, people D. the pleasure, joy and
love
Question 35: According to the paragraph 4, what is the lesson the father wanted to impart to his children?
A. Moral lessons can come from the most unexpected and ordinary things.
B. No matter what season it is outside, you always have to cherish it.
C. The old age of humans is similar to the winter of nature.
D. Persevere through the difficulties and better times are sure to come sometime sooner or later.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with scientists
blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic islands this summer
by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once
in 40 years of monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project
leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how climate change affects
nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming quicker than any
other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder temperatures in the region
led to unusually heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This
meant the reindeer could not dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual
pastures, the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food is scarce,
but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach problems.
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and weakest are
often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were so many calves
last year. But the large number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms
Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier this year.
Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept in check by the
animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report by the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was partly to
blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases
spread by flies and parasites. The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7C since 1900, more
than three times the global average increase of about 1C. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s “Doomsday” seed
vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was flooded following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 37: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 38: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 39: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 40: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 41: According to Ms. Onvik Pedersen, why is the death rate of reindeer so high this year?
A. Because of the high number of calves born. B. Because of heavy rain.
C. Because of natural selection. D. Because of the shortage of vegetation.
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs?
A. After over 2 months investigated, reindeer populations were reported to decrease because of the increase
of unwanted plant species.
B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades.
C. Beside the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality.
D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7C since 1990.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The number of students attending English courses at our university was increasing every year
A. students B. attending C. at D. was
Question 44: Unlike the old one, this new car can perform their functions in half the time
A B C D
Question 45: It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46:The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.
C My going to the museum lasted a year. D At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 47: The teacher said to us: “Don’t make so much noise”.
A. The teacher asked us not to make so much noise.
B. The teacher told us that we didn’t make so much noise.
C. The teacher said we didn’t make so much noise.
D. The teacher ordered us if we didn’t make so much noise.
Question 48: It’s possible that we won’t go camping this weekend.
A. We will probably go camping this weekend.
B. We will not go camping this weekend.
C. We may not go camping this weekend.
D. We must not go camping this weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 50: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.
A. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected
B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home
 ĐỀ 5 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. substantial B. initiate C. particular D. attention
Question 2:A. spear B. gear C. fear D. pear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. effort C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. community
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Taj Mahal is the second World Heritage site__________under the campaign which will be
carried out by ONGC at this monument.
A. covered B. covering C. to cover D. to be covered
Question 6: Universities in Vietnam have become ____________ to foreign students than ever before.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive C. more attractive D. attractive
Question 7: I will call and tell you something interesting _______.
A. when I come home after work B. after I had come home after work
C. before I came home after work D. while I was coming home after work
Question 8: Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in order
to________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 9: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10:It is _______ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11:The discovery was a major ________ for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
Question 12: I think there's a picture of the hotel ________ the first page.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
Question 13: To save energy, we should remember ________off the lights before going out.
A. being turned B. turning C.to turn D. turn
Question 14:I tried to talk to her, but she was __________
A. as high as a kite B. as high as a house C. as high as a sky D. as high as a wall
Question 15: I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 16:The young girl ______ down completely on hearing of her father’s death.
A. broke B. fell C. turned D. went
Question 17: This old wooden chest _______ by my grandfather over 40 years ago.
A. built B. had built C. was built D. was building
Question 18: Delegates will meet with from industry and the government.
A. Represented B. representative C. representatives D. representers
Question 19:We usually do go by train, even though the car……………….is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Question 21: Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
-Tony :“Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don't mind it at all.
B. I do. I've been excited about it now.
C. However, My parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22:I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be lonely B. be public C. be quiet D. be private
Question 23:Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high levels of expertise.
A.capability B. incompetence C. expertness D. skillfulness
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. taken over B. wiped out C. run on D. set up
Question 25: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be
unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: It’s mandatory for people to check their temperature before entering the bank.
A. People should check their temperature before entering the bank.
B. People must check their temperature before entering the bank.
C. People can’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
D. People wouldn’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
Question 27:The last time I ate spaghetti was five months ago.
A. I didn’t eat spaghetti five months ago. B. I would eat spaghetti in five months.
C. I have eaten spaghetti for five months. D. I haven’t eaten spaghetti for five months.
Question 28:Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 30: Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime C. being D. the
Question 31: After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year, new
recruits will be offered a long-term contract.
A. going through. B. protection. C. last. D. new recruits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32:I'd prefer to be out with my friends. I have too much homework now.
A. I wish I had no homework now and can be out with my friends.
B. If only I didn't have too much homework now and could be out with my friends.
C. If I don't have much homework now, I will be out with my friends.
D. Provided I have no homework now, I will be out with my friends.
Question 33: I didn’t recognize my uncle. I did after he raised his voice only.
A.Not until I recognized my uncle did he raise his voice.
B. My uncle raised his voice as soon as I recognized him.
C. Only after my uncle raised his voice did I recognize him.
 D.No sooner had I recognized my uncle than he raised his voice.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.

Bali, the fabled "Island of the Gods", has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its rich cultural
traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes and cool mountain lakes down
through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure waters, every square inch of Bali offers a
fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2.7 million souls whose artistry and piety are recognized
throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology. Tantric Buddhism and
homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali's inhabitants, and so deeply woven into the fabric of
their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island's fascinating culture will have plenty of opportunities, as
colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with regularity of sunrise. Most hotels offer nightly
dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist audiences but none the less exquisite. The hill town
of Ubud, the island's premier arts center, also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby stone-
cutter's village of Batubulan is famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find Bali a
treasure house of handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and craftsmen,
and their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they regard their
universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and intricately designed jewelry in gold
and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of option. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving, surfing, even
bungy jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn/books)
Question 34: The topic of the given passage is _______.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for recreation
Question 35: The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of Bali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 36: The word "their" in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. 2.7 million souls B. Bali's inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 37: Which of the following might be a synonym of the word "exquisite" in the third paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 38: You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT _______.
A. horseback riding B. nature walks C. water rafting D. parachute jumping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
ChatGPT: New AI chatbot has everyone talking to it
A new chatbot has passed one million users in less than a week, the project behind it says.ChatGPT was
publicly released on Wednesday by OpenAI, an artificial intelligence research firm (39)_____ founders
included Elon Musk.ChatGPT is the latest in a series of AIs which the firm refers to as GPTs, an acronym
which (40)_____ for Generative Pre-Trained Transformer.To develop the system, an early version was fine-
tuned through conversations with human trainers.The system also learned from access to Twitter
data according to a tweet from Elon Musk who is no longer part of OpenAI's board. The Twitter boss wrote
that he had paused access "for now".The results have impressed (41)_____ who've tried out the chatbot.
OpenAI chief executive Sam Altman revealed the level of interest in the artificial conversationalist in a
tweet.The project says the chat format allows the AI to answer "follow-up questions, admit its mistakes,
challenge incorrect premises and reject inappropriate requests"A journalist for technology news site
Mashable who tried out ChatGPT reported it is hard to provoke the model into saying offensive things.
(42)_____, OpenAI warns that "ChatGPT sometimes writes plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical
answers".Training the model to be more cautious, says the firm, causes it to decline to answer questions that
it can answer correctly.Briefly questioned by the BBC for this article, ChatGPT revealed itself to be a
cautious interviewee (43)_____ of expressing itself clearly and accurately in English.
https://www.bbc.com/news/technology
Question 39: A. where B. which C. who D. whose
Question 40: A. care B. take C. stand D. look
Question 41: A. little B. few C. much D. many
Question 42: A.As a result B. Therefore C. However D.So
Question 43: A. afraid B. fond C. able D. capable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Advocates of the laws and journalists who cover the issue often neglect to ask what will replace plastic
bags and what the environmental impact of that replacement will be. People still need bags to bring home
their groceries. And the most common substitute, paper bags, may be just as bad or worse, depending on the
environmental problem you are most concerned about.
That is leading to a split in the anti-bag movement. Some bills, like in Massachusetts, try to reduce the
use of paper bags as well as plastic, but still favour paper. Others, like in New York City, treat all single-use
bags equally. Even then, the question remains as to whether single-use bags are necessarily always worse
than reusable ones.
Studies of bags’ environmental impacts over their life cycle have reached widely varying conclusions.
Some are funded by plastic industry groups, like the ironically named American Progressive Bag Alliance.
Even studies conducted with the puret of intentions depend on any number of assumptions. How many
plastic bags are replaced by one cotton tote bag? If a plastic bag is reused in the home as the garbage bag in
a bathroom waste bin, does that reduce its footprint by eliminating the need for another small plastic garbage
bag?
If your chief concern is climate change, things get even muddier. One of the most comprehensive
research papers on the environmental impact of bags, published in 2007 by an Australian state government
agency, found that paper bags have a higher carbon footprint than plastic. That is primarily because more
energy is required to produce and transport paper bags.
“People look at paper and say it’s degradable, therefore it’s much better for the environment, but it’s not
in terms of climate change impact,” says David Tyler, a professor of chemistry at the University of Oregon
who has examined the research on the environmental impact of bag use. The reasons for paper’s higher
carbon footprint are complex but can mostly be understood as stemming from the fact that paper bags are
much thicker than plastic bags. “Very broadly, carbon footprints are proportional to mass of an object,” says
Tyler. For example, because paper bags take up so much more space, more trucks are needed to ship paper
bags to a store than to ship plastic bags.
(Adapted from https://www.wired.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Paper bags are a good substitute for plastic ones. B. Is plastic really worse than paper?
C. Activities of American Progressive Bag Alliance D. What people think about paper bags
Question 45: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. people B. groceries C. paper bags D. plastic bags
Question 46: American Progressive Bag Alliance is the name of a _______.
A. plastic bag seller B. paper bag company C. law company D. plastic industry group
Question 47: The word “muddier” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______.
A. uglier B. luckier C. rarer D. vaguer
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Paper bags can be the substitute for plastic bags.
B. New York City prefers single-use bags.
C. Studies reach the same conclusion on bags’ environmental impacts.
D. Plastic bags have a higher carbon footprint than paper according to research in 2007.
Question 49: The word “stemming” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. looking for B. asking for C. deriving from D. keeping from
Question 50: What can be inferred the reason for paper’s higher carbon footprint?
A. Paper bags are difficult to ship. B. Paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags.
C. Paper bags take less space. D. Paper bags are easily torn.
 ĐỀ 6 ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. health B. smooth C. bath D. depth
Question 2: A. climate B. livable C. city D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. depend C. discuss D. struggle
Question 4: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: We can also see the stone dragons of Kinh Thien Palace and relics associated with many
Vietnamese royal families, ____ during archaeological excavations.
A. discovered B. being discovered C. to discover D. discovering
Question 6: Going by air is sometimes __________ than going by train.
A. dangerous B. most dangerous C. the most dangerous D. more dangerous
Question 7: I will send you some postcards, ______.
A. until I will arrive at the destination B. as soon as I arrive at the destination
C. when I arrived at the destination D. after I had arrived at the destination
Question 8: The Iphone 14 Pro Max is very popular _______ young adults because of its notable features.
A. with B. on C. for D. about
Question 9: The flowers in our school garden are very beautiful, _______?
A. aren't we B. is it C. isn't he D. aren’t they
Question 10: The concert is expected to attract a lot of audience, so you should book _______ tickets in
advance.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 11: Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking down
many invisible _______.
A. barriers B. trends C. gaps D. races
Question 12: I am thinking of changing my current job because I can’t _______ my low salary.
A. live on B. pay out C. save up D. set out
Question 13: The acupoints are stimulated _______ the healing capability of the body itself.
A. enhance B. to enhance C. enhancing D. enhanced
Question 14: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their______ down
for a while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
Question 15: When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks
Question 16: At the beach, seagulls _______ a bad reputation for swooping down on unsuspecting people
to steal their food.
A. pay B. take C. have D. get
Question 17: The contract ________ when we reach an agreement on the price .
A. will have signed B. signs C. is signing D. will be signed
Question 18: For a public campaign to_______, it is important to make use of existing social organizations
as well as other relations.
A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 19: The________lay with the organizers, who failed to make the necessary arrangements for
dealing with so many people.
A. mistake B. foul C. fault D. error
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office.
- John: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?"
- Passer-by: "______"
A. Look it up in a dictionary! B. Just round the corner over there.
C. There's no traffic near here. D. No way! I hate him.
Question 21: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 23: John has been unemployed for the past three years – he’s really in dire straits.
A. in a serious situation B. in a bad situation
C. in a difficult situation D. in a pleasant situation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.
A. enormous B. cautious C. careless D. famous
Question 25: Young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not compatible.
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of living harmoniously D. capable of having children
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
Question 27: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
Question 28: “How long have you been working as a journalist?” She asked him.
A. She asked him how long he has been working as a journalist.
B. She asked him how long has he been working as a journalist.
C. She asked him how long he had been working as a journalist.
D. She asked him how long had he been working as a journalist.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: The company had better develop more rapid and reliant systems for handling customers’
complaints.
A. company B. rapid C. reliant D. complaints
Question 30: My brother leaves his job last week because he did not have any chance to travel.
A. leaves B. because C. did not have D. to travel
Question 31: Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a small
amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
A. do not fly B. vicinity C. because D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: She is snowed under with work. She cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
A. If she weren't snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
B. Provided that she is snowed under with work, she cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
C. She wishes she were snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
D. If she were snowed under with work, she couldn’t go out with her friends at weekend.
Question 33: Ngoc’s personal information was leaked. She was aware of the danger of the Internet.
A. No sooner had Ngoc realised that the Internet was dangerous than her personal information was
leaked.
B. Only after Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked did she realise how dangerous the Internet
was.
C. Not until Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked was she aware of the benefit of the Internet.
D. Hardly had Ngoc’s personal information been leaked when she realised how beneficial the Internet
was.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Teen spending
A large-scale study has been done by advertisers on the spending habits of today’s teenagers. It has come up
with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18 were interviewed. The
researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and sophisticated and are willing to spend to
(34) ______ the look they want — when they have the money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it comes to buying clothes. (35) ______ interesting
piece of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers go for clothes that are practical and
comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more concerned about appearance, (36) ______ they
all agreed that the clothes should fit them properly. All the girls (37) _______ were interviewed shop for
clothes regularly, half of them buying something from a department store or a large clothes shop at least
once a month. They also see it as a social (38) ______ and going round the shops with their friends is the
main way they learn what the latest trends are.
(Adapted from “Laser B2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 34: A. reach B. manage C. succeed D. achieve
Question 35: A. Many B. Another C. Few D. Other
Question 36: A. although B. so C. but D. for
Question 37: A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 38: A. circumstance B. aspiration C. activity D. commitment
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Scientists have dreamed for a long time about building a 'flying train' which can float through the air above
the tracks. With Maglev technology, their dreams are now a reality. Maglev trains have no wheels.
Instead, powerful magnets lift them into the air and push them forward, at speeds of up to 500 km per hour.
As well as speed, Maglev has a number of advantages over other transport systems. The trains are quieter
and the journey is smoother because they don't have wheels. They are also greener because they don't use
fuel and so create less pollution. Right now there is only one high-speed Maglev train system in the world.
It carries passengers from Shanghai city centre to the airport. However, work has started on a new, longer
Maglev track in Japan. Trains will go from Tokyo to Nagoya in 40 minutes. But don't expect to ride on it on
your next trip to Japan. It won't open until 2027! Then, in 2045, the line will extend to Osaka.
There is one major problem with Maglev technology: it is incredibly expensive to build the tracks.
Transport planners predict that the Tokyo to Osaka line will cost 91 billion dollars. The high cost means
that Maglev technology probably won't replace other forms of transport in the near future. However, the
technology is still in development and somebody might find a cheaper and simpler way to build the tracks.
And then, who knows? In the future, some of us might fly to work by train.
(Adapted from Navigate by Caroline Krantz and Julie Norton)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The End of Trains? B. Flying by Train
C. Train System in Shanghai D. The Next Generation of Technology
Question40. The word “powerful” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. heavy B. simple C. standard D. strong
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, Maglev trains ________.
A. don’t do much harm to the environment B. require a special type of fuel
C. travel faster than other vehicles D. don’t make any noise
Question 42: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. wheels B. transport systems C. Maglev trains D. advantages
43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A high-speed Maglev train system was first developed in Shanghai.
B. The cost of building Maglev train tracks can be enormous.
C. Maglev train system in Japan will come into operation in 2045.
D. Maglev trains can travel at an incredibly fast speed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The world's population reached five billion on the day I was born. That was in Indonesia back in 1987, and
my parents were amazed that there were so many people on the planet. However, since then the population
has continued to increase.
The growth of our human population is extraordinary. For more than two million years, humans lived with
no permanent home, finding plants to eat and hunting animals for meat. Then, just 10,000 years ago, we
invented agriculture. At that time, there were only about five million humans, but this fgure quickly
doubled. The population reached a billion in 1805, and since then it has multiplied seven times.
The human population has never been bigger, but in some ways the planet seems to be getting smaller. In
the past, travellers from Europe to Indonesia spent months at sea. Now you just have to sit on a plane for a
few hours. When you arrived in another country a hundred years ago, you saw unfamiliar styles of clothing
and architecture and discovered a completely different culture. In many places today, clothing and new
buildings are very similar, and people enjoy the same sports, music, flms and TV shows. We also buy the
same products from huge, global companies. In our different continents, we are starting to live the same
lives. Even the languages that we use are becoming more global. There are around seven thousand
languages in use today, but the number is decreasing fast.
The same thing is happening around the world. Experts think that the number of different languages will
halve to just 3,500 by the end of this century. Where will it stop? Will there be a time in the future when
Earth's billions all speak just one language, and there are no cultural differences to divide us? Perhaps the
planet would be more peaceful if this happened, but I must admit that the idea is quite depressing. I prefer
to think that, as our population grows, we can celebrate not the similarity but the fascinating diversity of the
human race.
(Adapted from Insight by Roberts and Sayer)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Languages: Why Saving Endangered Tongues Matters?
B. More People, Fewer Problems?
C. Going Global
D. Impressive Progress Across the Globe
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, the world’s population _______.
A. is set to stop at a certain time B. follows an upward trend
C. reached more than 5 billion in 1987 D. decreased quite a long time ago
Question 46: The word “extraordinary” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. unusual B. disappointing C. expected D. positive
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. agriculture B. meat C. home D. population
Question 48: The word “discovered” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. quit B. found C. sought D. brought
Question 49: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. In the past, humans only consumed plant-based products.
B. The global population rose considerably after the appearance of agriculture.
C. Taking a flight to travel from Europe to Indonesia is quite common nowadays.
D. Global products can only be bought at big companies.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The writer is in favour of a world with cultural differences.
 B. People living in this world will ultimately speak the same language.
C. There certainly won’t be any cultural conflicts if a global language is in use.
D. Earth citizens should embrace the idea of cultural assimilation.

THPT CHUYÊN THÁI BÌNH KÌ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2024 LẦN 1
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, 50 câu trắc nghiệm

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................

Số báo danh: .........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 1. David is talking to Lucy about her painting.
- David: "What a beautiful painting!"
- Lucy: "_____________”
A. No problem B. It's on the wall
C. I'm glad you like it D. You're welcome
Question 2. Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: "We should limit the use of plastic bags."
- Dane: "____________. We can use paper bags instead."
A. I completely agree B. It's not true
C. I don't quite agree D. You're wrong
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. those B. thin C. thank D. thought
Question 4. A. climate B. liveable C. city D. discussion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. govern B. cover C. perform D. father
Question 6. A. perfection B. computer C. fascinate D. fantastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 7. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams: independent living is the only
way to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 8. The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing
solar panels.
A. depleted B. exploited C. devastated D. expressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. The ASEAN Foreign Ministers had candid and fruitful discussions on ASEAN's priorities for
the year ahead, as well as deep exchanges on regional and international developments.
A. frank B. personal C. insincere D. dishonest
Question 10. They are always optimistic although they don't have a penny to their name.
A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11. By the time we get there tonight, the film________.
A. starts B. started C. will start D. will have started
Question 12. Last night Laura_______ a big diamond ring by her husband at her birthday party.
A. was giving B. gave C. gives D. was given
Question 13. Robert Mugabe has ruled Zimbabwe since the________ achieved independence in 1980.
A. national B. nation C. nationality D. nationally
Question 14. Did you have_______ good time at the party last night?
A. the B. an C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 15. Binh is 1.80 meters tall, and Linh is 1.65 meters tall. Binh is______ Linh
A. younger than B. older than C. taller than D. shorter than
Question 16. Her parents are working on the farm,________?
A. are they B. don't they C. do they D. aren't they
Question 17. When they______ for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had
clouded over.
A. set off B. went through C. carried out D. left out
Question 18. I don't have much opportunity for leisure_______ these days.
A. interests B. experiences C. practices D. pursuits
Question 19. As an adult, I am independent________ my parents financially.
A. on B. with C. of D. to
Question 20. ________to the party, we could hardly refuse to go.
A. Having invited B. To have invited
C. Having been invited D. To have been invited
Question 21. Could I pick your_________ on the subject before the meeting?
A. intellect B. head C. mind D. brains
Question 22. Nam is trying to break the_______ of staying up too late.
A. sound B. habit C. option D. race
Question 23. After leaving for school, my younger sister decided________ abroad.
A. to work B. work C. working D. to working
Question 24. There is a strong movement supporting the abolition of the death______.
A. condemnation B. punishment C. penalty D. discipline
Question 25. We will inform you_______.
A. as soon as we have the interview result
B. as soon as we were having the interview result
C. as soon as we had the interview result
D. as soon as we had had the interview result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. She doesn't have a car. She can't drive to work.
A. Provided that she has a car, she can drive to work.
B. If she had a car, she could drive to work.
C. If she has a car, she could drive to work.
D. As if she had a car, she can drive to work.
Question 27. I only realized what I had missed when they told me about it later.
A. Only after I had realized what I had missed did they tell me about it later.
B. As soon as they told me about it I realized what I had missed.
C. Only when they told me about it later did I realize what I had missed.
D. They told me about it and I realized what I had missed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28. It isn't necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn't discuss this matter in great detail.
D. We mustn't discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 29. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn't talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I haven't talked to Rose for three years. D. I hadn't talked to Rose for three years.
30. My mother said to me, "Have you finished your homework yet?"
A. My mother asked me if I had finished my homework
B. My mother told me to finish my homework.
C. My mother reminded me to finish my homework
 D. My mother questioned me whether I would finish my homework.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 31. It will require a collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet our
goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Question 32. Her last book is published in many languages 5 years ago.
A. last B. is C. published D. years
Question 33. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as providingopportunities
for their members.
A. economic growth B. their C. providing D. aims at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
THE GENERATION GAP
People talk about the generation gap as a kind of division between young people and their parents. It is
something (34)________ is generally a problem when children enter their teenage years, and results in
complaints on both sides. Parents, (35)________, can often be heard to say that young people are
disrespectful and disobedient and in addition tend to be irresponsible when spending because they don’t
(36)_______ the value of money. Adolescents, on the other hand, complain that their parents don’t
understand them.What has gone wrong? One explanation lies in how society has changed. In the past,
children would typically continue the way of life of their parents. In today’s world, parents are very (37)
______ for their children because they want them to achieve more than they did. The problem is that the
children often don’t agree with their parents’ plans. Teenagers also reach maturity at an earlier age than they
used to and want their independence sooner. The resulting conflict is painful to (38)_______ sides.
(Adapted from Mastering Use of English)
Question 34. A. whom B. who C. where D. which
Question 35. A. however B. for example C. therefore D. moreover
Question 36. A. admire B. award C. appreciate D. praise
Question 37. A. loyal B. sympathetic C. grateful D. ambitious
Question 38. A. both B. neither C. much D. each
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or course
tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out
which one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something
goes wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth. This
means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend the
reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating everyone
equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names. This
concern with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are even
ready to joke about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of
privacy mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with close
friends. While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless
the friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn.
Question 39. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A story about Australia B. Australian culture shock
C. Things to do in Australia D. Australian culture
40. The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to________.
A. circumstances B. Australians C. options D. students
Question 41. In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because_______.
A. Australians find it difficult to remember people's surnames
 B. Australians restrict class discrimination
C. Australians get on well with each other
D. Calling each other by their first names makes them friendlier
Question 42. The word "critical" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. faultfinding B. grateful C. complimentary D. appreciative
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly polite.
B. Australians are prepared to accept a range of opinions.
C. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
D. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
We are a planet of seven billion people, and this number is growing by about 370,000 people every day.
This is putting a huge strain on the planet's natural resources. For many governments and environmental
organizations, the race is on to drastically reduce our consumption of resources before they run out.
Water is one of our most precious resources. Our quality of life, as well as life itself, depends on the
availability of clean, fresh water. It is the most widely used resource in industry, and plays a major role in
energy production. Although 70 percent of the world is covered in water, only 2.5 percent of that is fresh
water, and less than one percent of that freshwater is readily available to us. Yet we often overestimate how
much water we have, and reduce it further through pollution or inefficient use. Some 92 percent of all fresh
water used annually is dedicated to growing plants and raising animals for food. This means that if water
runs out, our food supply might follow. In India, it is estimated that future water shortages could reduce
grain harvests by 25%. In a country where the population exceeds 1.2 billion people and is growing rapidly
every year, this is a huge concern. India, like many developing countries, is already struggling to provide for
its population. While most people in developed countries can get water at the turn of a tap, nearly four
billion people elsewhere lack access to safe water, according to United Nations Development Report.
Rain forests are another endangered-resource. While rain forests are critically important to
humanity, they are rapidly being destroyed by human activities. The biggest cause of deforestation is
conversion of forest land for agriculture. Often called the "Lungs of the Planet”, rain forests once covered 14
percent of the Earth's land surface, but this has shrunk to only six percent. Every second, an area of
rainforest, the size of a football field, is destroyed at this rate. Rain forests will possibly disappear
completely in less than 40 years.
(Adapted from: Active Reading)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Human and environment B. Resources for the future
C. Sustainability of resources D. Awareness of conservation
Question 45. The word "strain" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. contradiction B. depletion C. harmony D. pressure
Question 46. The word "overestimate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. increase B. reduce C. maintain D. exaggerate
Question 47. In paragraph 2, water is one of our most precious resources because________.
A. Most parts of the world are covered in fresh water
B. Our quality of life relies on the availability of fresh water.
C. Fresh water is hardly used for energy production.
D. All freshwater on earth is readily available to us.
Question 48. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. human activities B. rain forests C. resources D. humanity
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The shrink in forest area has been caused mainly by conversion of forest land for agriculture.
B. Most of the fresh water is used to grow plants and raise animals for food.
C. The availability of clean, fresh water greatly affects our quality of life.
D. Our forests, the so called the "Lungs of the Planet", are expanding steadily.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. "The Lung of our Planet" once covered most of the Earth's surface.
B. Rain forests are unlimited resources.
 C. Rain forests may disappear in the near future due to the interference of human beings.
D. The government must be responsible for the shrink of rain forests

THPT CHUYÊN LÊ HỒNG PHONG TỈNH KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐẦU NĂM
NAM ĐỊNH NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, 50 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. slaughter B. draught C. caught D. naughty
Question 2. A. pathway B. thought C. asthma D. maths
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. character B inflation C. physicist D. property
Question 4. A. experience B. refurbish C. recommend D. abolish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. The police officers signaled for the traffic to proceed through the intersection.
A. employ B. finish C. begin D. continue
Question 6. Many consumers are dubious about the reliability of the cars so they want to check-before taking
them on a long trip.
A. curious B. suspicious C. excited D. certain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. The recent report of how real the danger of a terrorist attack may be has put the wind up the
country citizens.
A. calmed B. worried C. interested D. scared
Question 8. This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news.
A. superficial B. indifferent C. casual D. inadequate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 9.Language, culture and personality may be considered independent of each other in thought, but they
are _______ in fact.
A. inseparable B. separated C. separable D. inseparably
Question 10. Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ________ ?
A. doesn't she B. is she C. didn't she D. isn’t she
Question 11. After the war, he declined many honors, _________ to remain a commoner.
A. prefer B. preferring
C. had better D. would rather than
Question 12. These courses are designed to _________ with university degrees.
A. accomplish B. accommodate C. articulate D. affiliate
Question 13: ____________ fire that broke out in a nice-story apartment building in Thanh Xuan (Hanoi City)
killed at least 56 people.
A. An B. x C. A D. The
Question 14. The injured ________ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. was taking C. were taken D. was taken
Question 15. ________, I will reply to you at once.
A. Until I received your message B. When I was receiving your message
C. As soon as I receive your message D. After I had received your message
Question 16. The more books you read, _________ you become.
A. the more knowledgeable B. the most knowledgeable
C. as knowledgeable as D. more knowledgeable
Question 17. My aunt had to cancel her camping trip because she was suddenly _________ ill.
A. fallen B. taken C. become D. felt
Question 18. She frequently yolunteers __________ extra work because she really likes her job.
A. to B. for C. with D. in
Question 19.I have the greatest respect for his ideas _________ I don't agree with them.
A. although B. Because of
C. in spite of D. Despite of the fact that
Question 20. When I last saw Carrie, she told me she __________ of applying for another job, but now she's
changed her mind.
A. thought B. is thinking
C. was thinking D. has been thinking
Question 21. Fixed term employment also known as contract work is used for single projects or to replace
workers on ____________ .
A. permission B. leave C. duty D. absence
Question 22. Vietnam failed to ___________ in the second leg of the 2022 AFF Cup after losing 0-1 and let
Thailand lift the trophy.
A. sort it out B. bring it about
C. look it over D. turn it around
Question 23. Traditional ___________ industries such as handicrafts continue to play a role in the economies
of many Asian countries.
A. slum B. hut C. dwelling D. cottage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24.- Tom: "Who's going to win the contest?"
Jerry:” ”
A. It might be a good idea to bet
B. Your guess is as good as mine
C. I've set my heart on winning it
D. There's nothing you don't know about beauty
Question 25. - Mai: "Do you know an apple a day can help you keep fit, build healthy bones and prevent
disease like cancer?"
- Huong: “Wow! .”
A. I would love to B. It's a good idea C. That's incredible D. You must like apple
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 26. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen
who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. including B. What happened C. were D. his jobs
Question 27.Kate didn't enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was the most terrifying experience of their life.
A. of their life B. enjoy C. the most terrifying D. coaster ride
Question 28. With his extensive knowledge and experience, the seasoned professional was in
an envious situation of being sought after for his expertise.
A. seasoned B. extensive C. expertise D. envious
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
DEADLY TIKTOK CHALLENGES
TikTok, the popular app that (29) ________ users to create and share short videos, is now the most
downloaded app in the world. One of the most popular ways users engage with the app is to carry out
challenges. A successful challenge will (30) _______ viral, with hundreds of thousands of people around the
world taking part.
Copying another person's video is hardly original or creative. Even so, it's easy to see the appeal. Especially
among young audiences. Anyone with a Smartphone can get involved. No talent is required beyond ( 31)
__________ extroversion and commitment. Users can just ride the trend to gain popularity. (32)
____________ , challenges are ideal for people who have a little spare time, enjoy performing, and like getting
attention. Unsurprisingly, most of those (33) __________ take part are children, teenagers and young adults.
Question 29: A. allows B. lets C. makes D. forces
Question 30: A. cause B. take C. put D. go
Question 31: A. little B. a lot C. Lot D. a little
Question 32: A. Otherwise B. Nevertheless C. However D. As a result
Question 33: A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Universities love overseas students – they are clever and hardworking, they bring different cultures to
seminars and student life and they pay their way. In Britain, universities are getting ready to enroll more
overseas students. The British Council has published a report predicting that overseas student numbers
could soar to more than 800,000 by 2018. In 2010, figures put the total at over 400,000 international students
out of two and a half million students in UK higher education and it is clear that this influx is having an
enormous impact on universities and colleges.
These students bring welcome fees, of course, but they are also likely to be very intelligent students who
inject new cultural influences and bring changes to the old university systems. Their demand for vocational
subjects such as business, biotechnology and information technology, rather than traditional academic subjects,
is affecting what is taught as well.
The impressive expansion of foreign students has already had a significant impact on higher education.
Overseas student numbers, including European Union students, have risen from 270,000 in 2002 to 400,000 in
2010. During this time the number from China jumped more than tenfold, and numbers from India have been
going up. In contrast, the number of students from other countries has fallen, reflecting their governments’
efforts to educate more of their young people at home, as well as competition from Australia and the USA. But
as the Asian tiger economies expand their own universities, the good news for places like the London School of
Economics is that there are more and more graduates looking to improve their qualifications or to pursue
research in their subjects.
(Adapted from Gateway by Spencer and Edwards)
Question 34. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to avoid culture shock when living in Western countries?
B. How international students are changing Western university life
C. How to become an overseas student?
D. The decline in the number of overseas students at Western universities
Question 35. The word "soar" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. ascend B. decline C. hurt D. slump
Question 36. According to the paragraph 2, overseas students can help to .
A. abolish tuition fees for domestic students
B. bring only negative influences on the culture
C. introduce new changes to the old education system
D. increase the demand for core subjects
Question 37. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. Universities B. graduates C. foreign students D. students
Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. The number of overseas students in Britain has already reached its limit
B. Foreign students' abilities are often underestimated by Western universities
C. The number of foreign students from India has fallen over a specific period of time.
D. Some countries tried to persuade their young students to pursue their education at home
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet indicating the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
A majority of people think that their dream job is too hard and competitive to achieve, and believe that it is
all a matter of luck. All this is true actually, but why should that stop anyone from trying to get the job they
really want? A really determined person will always succeed and, in many ways, needs other people to give up
trying so that he or she can succeed.
Many job seekers feel limited by the choices they made at college or university. They may think that
because they studied marketing, all they can ever do is work in marketing. All the evidence shows that, in fact,
employers are less interested in acquired knowledge than the ability to think and learn. It is also very difficult to
predict the needs of society. The needs of employers and the economy can change very quickly, and often
unexpectedly.
Of course, if it is a very tough time economically, it is hard to find employment straight after university,
but it is by no means impossible. It might take several months longer to find a job after graduating, but there is
work out there. Never think about the other people going for the same jobs. It may be human nature to compare
your progress to your peers, but perhaps the best advice would be to try not to. Be focused on what you want
and how you are going to get it. After all, it may appear that a friend who has a really well-paid job is doing
well, but how do you know what their job is actually like? They may be working 12-hour days, have an
unreasonable boss, or be stressed out trying to meet unrealistic targets.
 Have a plan in place, even if it is a sketchy one. Have both short-term and long-term aims. Always think
that with hard work, dedication, a willingness to put yourself out, and a bit of luck, you could get your dream
job. A really key piece of advice is never to get downhearted by rejection because there will probably be a lot.
You can achieve your dream job, whatever it is. You must never give up. prepared to work hard and for long
hours without necessarily climbing up the career ladder. There is a lot to be said for learning your 'trade' from
the bottom up. At the start, there will probably be little money, but it will be worth it in the end. The best jobs
are not supposed to be easy- that is what makes them challenging. And if you like a challenge, just keep your
head down and go for it.
(Adapted from Objective by Felicity O'Dell and Annie Broadhead)
Question 39. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Challenges to Get a Job B. Tough Time Delays Getting Jobs
C. A Dream Job D. Determination Creates Success
Question 40. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. employers B. needs C. job seekers D. choices
Question41. According to paragraph 2, potential employers nowadays .
A. have very limited employment choices
B. find that knowledge gained through formal education is totally worthless
C. tend to value candidates who possess creative thinking
D. are very good at predicting different economic trends
Question 42. The phrase "stressed out" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. worried B. disappointed C. timid D. confused
Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. What you studied at university shouldn't determine what kind of job you're looking for.
B. Marketing students stand a better chance of finding their dream jobs than other graduates.
C. It's advisable for graduates to choose a job with good financial rewards.
D. Luck plays an integral part in finding a well-paid job in today's competitive labour market.
Question44. The word "sketchy" in paragraph 4 mostly means _.
A. sufficient B. impracticable C. thorough D. incomplete
Question 45. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. You can get your dream job with perseverance and diligence.
B. Only by getting a job after several months is a job seeker considered to be determined.
C. The writer must have chosen to study marketing at university.
D. You must always think outside the box to impress potential employers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Did you watch the football match last night?" Mark asked Tim.
A. Mark asked Tim if he had watched the football match the night before.
B. Mark asked Tim whether he watched the football match in the previous night.
C. Mark wanted to know Tim if he watched the football match last night.
D. Mark wondered Tim that he had watched the football match in the previous night
Question 47. John last used his phone two days ago.
A. John hasn't used his phone for two days.
B. John has used his phone for two days.
C. John started using his phone two days ago.
D. John didn't start using his phone for two days.
Question 48. It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message.
A. Joanna can't have received my message.
B. Joanna might have received my message.
C. Joanna may have received my message.
D. Joanna might not have received my message.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 49. The airplane took off, then Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Not until the airplane had taken off did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
B. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the airplane took off.
C. It was not until the airplane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
D. No sooner had the airplane taken off then Paul had realized he was on the wrong flight.
Question 50. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.