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The document contains instructions for an examination on Information and Communication Technology. It provides details on the structure of the paper such as the number of questions, duration of the exam, and rules for answering. It also lists the first 11 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to computer hardware, software and applications.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views

3 ICTEnglish

The document contains instructions for an examination on Information and Communication Technology. It provides details on the structure of the paper such as the number of questions, duration of the exam, and rules for answering. It also lists the first 11 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to computer hardware, software and applications.

Uploaded by

Kishan Udeshana
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 12

229

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All Rights Reserved]

~:x3l cx;.o~
~ (9Ot:!)) I @6u~Ql)6iU UIfLQD6j; ~6Ul6Rr6;a;fTTLD I Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

Open Competitive Examination for Recruitment to Class 2 Grade II of Sri Lanka


Information and Communication Technology Service - 2015

(01) Information and Communication Technology


(Two hour~

• Instructions to Candidates

Very Important:
Write your Index Number here, and
Do not use Pencils on pages 3 and 5 in the spaces
to write answers. indicated.

*
/
Answer scripts where the numbers are
.......................................
Checked as correct

.......................................
not written as indicated below will not be
marked I evaluated. Invigilator's Initials
I 2 3 4
Important: For Examiner's use only
This paper consists of 65 questions on 11pages.
* Page No. QuestionNo. Marks Awarded
Before answering the paper arrange all the pages
* in order. 2 1 - 11
3 12 - 18
Answer all questions on this paper itself.
* 4 19 - 30
The time allowed for this paper is two hours.
* answering
5 31- 42

* Commence only after


Centre Supervisor's announcement.
the 6
7
43 - 52
53- 56
Instructions given should be strictly
* followed in answering this paper and marks
8 57 - 58
9 59 - 61
will not be awarded for answers not in
accordance with these instructions. 10 62- 63
11 64- 65
Even if you are not attempting the paper hand
* it over to the Supervisor. Total
Write the answers clearly and legibly in blue
* or black ink only and not in pencil. Final Score
It is an offence to remove this paper
* from the examination hall or turn out Iln figures
photocopies of the same.
Answer scripts with illegible figures, illegible
In words
I I
* handwriting, those where erasing fluid has Marking Examiner
been used and written in pencil will not be
Checked by
marked I evaluated.

[See page two


-2-

• For questions from No. 1 to SO, select the correct or the most appropriate answer and write the
number of the relevant choice on the dotted line provided against the question.

1. Which of the following is correct with respect to L1 cache memory?


(1) It always resides in RAM.
(2) It always resides in CPU.
(3) It comes in between registers and RAM.
(4) It is an external device. ( )

2. The memory that can be accessed by a processor having 32-bit address bus is
(1) 2KB (2) 2GB (3) 4GB (4) 32GB ( )

3. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ..................... transmission.


(1) automatic (2) half duplex (3) full duplex (4) simplex ( )

4. .... .. . ..... .... .. ... is an operating system used in mobile phones.


(1) CentOS (2) Android (3) Fedora (4) SSP ( )

5. Consider the following freely available office suites.


A - Apache OpenOffice
B - Google Docs
C - LibreOffice
Which of the above are 'open source Software'?
(1) A and B only (2) A and Conly (3) Band Conly (4) All A, Band C ( )

6. The facility that looks for hidden contents, other information and properties that might create
compatibility issues in an MS Word document is,
(1) backstage view. (2) inspect document.
(3) track changes. (4) check compatibility. ( )

7. Which of the following object can't be inserted to a MS Word document?


(1) bit map image (2) hyperlink (3) header (4) e-mail message ( )

8. The facility in MS Excel to step through each part of the formula individually is called
(1) trace precedents. (2) watch window.
(3) error checking. (4) evaluate formula. ( )

9. In MS Excel a field that appears on the pivot table but not a field in the source data is
called,
(1) a ghost field. (2) a calculated field.
(3) a source field. (4) a dynamic field. ( )

10. Consider the following expressions and the figure. r-:t\"""",A ... ~""~a .. ",,'r c .z,_- .._Di;~'.t 4
P: AS( Compca!Y Ltd. I
A - =CONCATENATE (A4, " ", B4) ] &..Ie,,,.. Detaib
B - =SUM (A4, B4) -3 -- -- ••• - Adchullllo .,MIdr

C - =A4&" "&B4 4-!SIIhiIa _ •••_ •• 1_ ,.Iw ••••••••••


SAaoaIee

Which of the above will you select to enter in C4 to get the Full Name, using the Fi ame and
Last Name you have already entered in A4 and B4 as shown in the figure.
(1) A and B only. (2) B and Conly.
(3) A and Conly. (4) All A, B and C. ( )

11. What can you do when saving a Powerpoint presentation if you have to show i in a comp
which may not have the same font you used to create this presentation?
(1) check compatibility (2) font embedding
(3) check accessibility (4) font replacement (. )

[See page three 0


Open Competitive Examination for Recruitment to Class 2
-3-
Grade II oi Sri Lanka Information and Communication
Technology Service - 2015
(01) Intonnatlon and Communleatlon T""hnol"IY
1-------------\ Index No. : .

12. Which of following statements is true with regard to 'slide masters' in MS Powerpoint?
(1) You can have multiple slide masters in one presentation.
(2) Slide master saves information about the theme, contents and properties of the
presentation.
(3) A presentation may not have any slide Master.
(4) Changes you do in the slide master affect all the slides of the presentation. ( )

• Consider the following ER diagram to answer the questions 11 and 12.

13. Cardinality of the above ER diagram is


(1) one to one. (2) one to many. (3) many to many. (4) many to one. ( )

14. Which of the following correctly implements the above ER diagram in a relational database
system?
(1) I I I
ExamD Center

(2) I ExamlD I I
Date

(3)
~ M=1 I I I I I CandiD ExamD Date Center

(4)
~
I ExamD I I I I
Date I I
CandiD ExamD Center ( ......... )

15. A relational database table in O-normal form can be converted to l-normal form by reducing

(1) duplicate values of its fields.


(2) duplicate rows in the tables.
(3) duplicate attributes in the tables.
(4) all attributes which do not depend on the primary key. ( )

16. Which of the following is not a database model?


(1) Relational (2) Object-oriented
(3) Network (4) Standard ( )

17. Which of the following is true with respect to composite keys?


(1) Value of an attribute of a composite key can be blank.
(2) Each of the attributes in a composite key can uniquely identify records.
(3) A foreign key, if available, should be a part of the composite key.
(4) Composite key is necessary when any individual attribute cannot identify records uniquely. ( )

18. Which of the following is a Data Definition Language (DDL) statement?


(1) select from employee;
(2) update age where employee = "EOO2";
(3) insert into Emp values (EmpNumber="15102", EmpName"="Sunil");
(4) drop table employee; ( )

[See page four 0


-4-
19. Consider the following integrity constraints.
A - Primary key
B - Foreign key
C - Unique
D - Not duplicate
Which of the above avoid data duplication?
(1) A and B only (2) A and Conly
(3) A and D only (4) All A,B,C and D ( )

20. A primary key of a relational database table can be replaced by an attribute available in

(1) Candidate key. (2) Alternate key. (3) Composite key. (4) Foreign key. ( )

21. A and B are attributes of a composite key. If, only the attribute B decides a non-key
attribute C, there is,
(1) transitive dependency (2) partial dependency
(3) internal dependency (4) external dependency ( )

22. The SQL statement which adds a table into a database is .


(1) MAKE TABLE. (2) ALTER TABLE.
(3) DEANE TABLE. (4) CREATE TABLE. ( )

23. The SQL statement DROP TABLE,


(1) deletes only the structure of a table. (2) deletes all the data and structure of a table.
(3) creates an error. (4) deletes the first attribute. ( )

24. To which layer of the OSI model of data communication systems does the router belong?
(1) application layer (2) network layer (3) session layer (4) physical layer ( )

25. Select the answer that contains the layers of OSI model arranged in the correct order.
(1) application layer, session layer, network layer
(2) network layer, data link layer, physical layer
(3) physical layer, network layer, data link layer
(4) network layer, physical layer, data link layer ( )

26. What is the correct order in data encapsulation?


(1) data, frame, segment, packet. (2) data, segment, frame, packet.
(3) data, segment, packet, frame. (4) frame, packet, segment, data. ( )

27. What protocol helps to find the hardware address of a local device in a network?
(1) RARP (2) ARP (3) IP (4) ICMP ( )

28. Which of the following is true with respect to IP address?


(1) It identifies the computer uniquely.
(2) It is used by the transport layer.
(3) It identifies the connection to a network uniquely.
(4) It helps the data link layer to check transmission errors. ( )

29. Which of the following is true with respect to 'a frame' in a computer network?
(1) It helps error checking at the application layer.
(2) It contains only one packet.
(3) A data packet can have one or more frames.
(4) It is used by the data link layer to check communication errors. ( )

30. Which of the following is true with respect to TCPIIP based Intranet?
(1) It always assures the delivery of data to the destination.
(2) It can be considered as a fault-tolerant system.
(3) It provides a dedicated physical connection between the server and the destination.
(4) Data transmission is impossible between a TCPIIP based intranet and a Novel
Netware Intranet. ( )

[See page five 0


I 21
3
Open Competitive Examination for Recruitment to Class
Grade [[ of Sri Lanka Infonnation and Communication - 5 - (
1'""1 TechnologyService- 2015 ~----------\\..Index No. :••••••••••••••••••••••••
(01) information and CommunieatioD Technology I

31. Which of the following is correct with respect to public and private keys used in data
encryption?
(1) Data encrypted by private key of a sender can only be decrypted by public key of the
receiver.
(2) Data encrypted by public key of the sender can only be decrypted by the receiver's
private key.
(3) Data should be encrypted using sender's public key so that the receiver can decrypt
using receiver's public key.
(4) Sender's private key should be used for encryption so that the receiver can decrypt using
its private key. ( )

32. Which of the following is correct with regard to MD5 and SHA protocols used in computer
networks?
(1) Data encrypted using MD5 cannot be decrypted.
(2) Both MD5 and SHA can be used for data encryption only.
(3) Both MD5 and SHA can be used for data decryption only.
(4) Data encrypted using SHA cannot be decrypted. ( )

33. Data sent by a sender having IP address ...... will not be proceeded by the routers outside
the network.
(1) 172 . 16 . 4 . 10 (2) 192. 248 . 24 . 15
(3) 192 . 248 . 1 . 2 (4) 248 . 168 . 2 . 4 ( )

34. DNS is normally used to


(1) convert domain name into IP address. (2) cache web pages.
(3) find the target network. (4) find the next hop. ( )

35. The Bus topology is physically implemented in an Ethernet network as a topology.


(1) star (2) complete (3) ring (4) hybrid ( )

36. Hyper-text is a text dealt with .


(1) links. (2) images. (3) audio/video. (4) tables. ( )

37. Which of the following is a protocol related to email?


(1) HTTP (2) SMfP (3) PIP (4) TCP ( )

38. WWW is a collection of .


(1) hyperlinked documents. (2) databases.
(3) documenting tools. (4) web servers. ( )

39. Which of the following is used to test the connectivity between two devices attached to the
internet?
(1) ping (2) telnet (3) tracert (4) rlogin ( )

40. Which of the following is a valid network IP address?


(1) 192.248.0.0 (2) 192.248.24.0 (3) 192.0.0.0 (4) 170.212.3.0 ( )

41. What is the true statement with respect to sending an email?


(1) The sender machine knows the existence of the receiver machine.
(2) The sender and the receiver machines are on-line
(3) The sender knows the availability of the email server.
(4) Mail will always be immediately sent to the receiver. ( )

42. WAMP is used to .....


(1) send emails. (2) send SMS.
(3) provide a web server. (4) scan email for viruses. ( )

[See page six 0


-6-

43. Which of the following is a major weakness in Waterfall model of system development?
(1) Process invisibility.
(2) It does not support project management.
(3) It requires well defined set of requirements to begin with.
(4) Resource management is difficult. ( )

44. Which of the following SDLC model does not support process iteration?
(1) waterfall (2) agile (3) spiral (4) RAD ( )

45. The objectives of unit testing is to assure that .


(1) the system is error free.
(2) the program of the system works according to the specifications.
(3) the program of the system is free of syntax errors.
(4) the program of the system is free of logical errors. ( )

46. Consider the following stakeholders of a software development project


A - programmer
B - system analyst
C - client
Who is/are involved in the acceptance testing?
(1) A and B only (2) A and Conly (3) Band Conly (4) All A, B and C ( )

47. Consider the following diagrams.


A - Structural diagram
B - Data flow diagram
C - Use case diagram
Which of the above represent the diagrams available in UML?
(1) A and B only (2) Band Conly (3) A and Conly (4) All A, B and C ( )

• Consider the following user requirements for a mobile phone to answer questions 48 - 50.
A - A user shall be able to make a call
B - A user should be able to receive a call
C - The weight of the phone shall not exceed 500g
48. Which of the above represent the functional requiremenus)?
(1) A and B only (2) A and Conly (3) Band Conly (4) all A, Band C ( )

49. What is/are (a) non-functional requirement(s)?


(1) A only (2) B only (3) Conly (4) A and B only ( )

50. What is/are (a) mandatory functional requirement(s)?


(1) A only (2) B only (3) Conly (4) A and B only ( )

• Write the answers to questions from No. 51 to 65 in the spaces provided.

51. Write the possible range in decimal if the integers are represented using sign magnitude representation
in 16 bits.

.................................................................................................................................

52. Convert 16.1662510 into Octal representation .

.................................................................................................................................

.................................................................................................................................

{See page seven 0


-7-

53. Briefly explain each of the following metrics used to measure the performance of the Central Processing
Unit (CPU).
(i) Throughput .

(H) Turnaround time .

(Hi) Response time

54. CPU burst time for four processes PI, P2, P3 and P4 are given below.

I~ss PI
20
P2
4
P3
3
P4
6

Calculate the average turnaround time for a process when 5 ms time quantum is given to Round Robin
Scheduling.

55. Consider the 'EMPLOYEE' table given below.

'" ;10,"-fi~ ,,(


~~-<i!\l;f""",)!jf,
~~'"' ' ' ' -' ' '
~: ~4'
- , "'''''''.~''''~~:'
~:,:oc "'",,,-./~~-'
;, ~~~i:
"'-c ~""~<rf':?;-'''''s
:- " - -~_J +J.
'-'~- If''''~~''''~~~
-iii1~_
" e~: ~ f!ii;Q'
~~:ri >
'iiI"-
"~"
'\<
~~

~ ~5._,.,,~_~~~l~Li ____
._~~_~'"~,~*'::0J-~ ~£~~':;!i »c~~.~~~

EOOI Perera Manager FIN 51000


EOO2 Alwis Clerk FIN 33000
EOO3 Nimal Clerk ACC 30000
EOO4 Silva Engineer PROD 50000

Write SQL statements for each of the following requirements.


(i) To add a new employee with the details given in the order, E 007 ,Amal, Sys.Eng, IT,50 000 .

...........................................................................................................................
(H) To get the all details of all the employees having a Basic Salary of Rs. 40 000 or higher .

............................................................................................................................
(Hi) To get the number of employees and the total of basic salary of each branch .

...........................................................................................................................

[See page eight 0


-8-

56. Briefly explain the following terms with respect to a database.

(i) Partial dependency

(ii) Transitive dependency .

57. Given below is a table with details of a certain medical institute.

Treatment
Patient No. Patient Name. Treatment Charge (Rs.)
Date
1005 Nimal Perera Blood Test 200.00 10.02.2015
1210 Deepika Nilmini Urine Test 300.00 11.02.2015
1403 SanjayaAlwis X - ray 450.00 12.02.2015
1005 Nimal Perera X - ray 450.00 12.02.2015
1005 Nimal Perera Urine Test 300.00 12.02.2015
1005 Nimal Perera Allergy Test 500.00

(i) What is the present normal form of the above table? Justify your answer.

(ii) Normalize the above table to 3NF.

[See page nine 0


-9-

58. Assume that the network address assigned to your company is 192.150.111.0.
(i) If the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224, find the answers to the below, mentioning the steps clearly.
(a) The number of usable sub-nets


(b) The number of hosts and the address ranges for each of the above sub-nets

(ii) If these sub-nets are named consecutively as A.B,C ... , find the subnets to which the following
IP addresses can be assigned.
(a) 192.150.111.10 (b) 192.150.111.66
(c) 192.150.11l.l00 (d) 192.150.111.200
(e) 192.150.111.220 (f) 192.150.111.251

...........................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................
59. Compare IPv4 and IPv6 in point form .

....................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................
[See page ten 0
- 10-

60. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are two data transmission
protocols. Briefly explain when is it appropriate to use each of them giving suitable examples.

61. Briefly explain the following

(i) Phishing .

(i) Pharming .

(i) Spoofing .

62. Info books is a book sales enterprise. A page from its web site is given below.

c...:,.o.
~

HR.. R&'t..&AS •

.u... . .........-...
.. .....
L. ..,..

(i) Write the HfML code to display the index.html when the 'Home' button is clicked .

...........................................................................................................................

{See page eleven 0


- 11 -

(ii) In the subfolder 'image' locator in the folder 'web', where the index.html is saved, the logo of
the enterprise is saved as Books.jpg. Write the HfML code to show this logo.

(iii) Complete the following xml code to show the titles and the price of books in the table of this web page.
• < xml version = "1.0" >

63. Mention three possible security threats to a computer network.

64. Describe briefly two precautions to avoid the security threats you mentioned in question 64 above .

. .

....................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................

o
- 12-

65. A soft drinks manufacturing Company issues soft drinks to retail sellers once a week. Sellers should
have been registered with the company to buy soft drinks. Sellers usually place orders for soft drinks
at the order clerk over the phone. A single seller can make several orders per week. Orders are
confirmed only if stocks exist. Or else, alternatives are agreed upon. The order clerk sends copies of
the orders to the stores and the cashier. When payments are settled, invoice is issued by the cashier
in two copies, one for the stores and the other for the seller. The stores issue goods to the seller
together with a goods issue notice to be produced at the gate.
Create the level-O DFD to represent the above data and processes.

***

o
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