PRACTICAL QUESTIONS

Problem 1
Random cracking due to drying shrinkage of a slab is controlled by:
a) Isolation joints
b) Construction joints
c) Limiting the area between control joints places to induce cracking at preselected locations
d) Fiber reinforcing

Problem 2
Slab construction depends on the following factors
a) Slab type
b) Site preparation including preparation of the slab bed, grading and backfilling
c) Precautions to control: ground and surface moisture
d) Thermal control when required

Problem 3
Concrete should be compacted by a method appropriate to the material and its location in order to ______.
a) Eliminate stope pockets and large air bubbles
b) Consolidate each layer with that previously placed
c) Completely embed reinforcing and fixtures
d) Bring just enough fine materials to the faces and top surfaces to produce the desired finish.

4. Impact strength or toughness = The total energy, from elastic deformation to fracture, that a material can
absorb before breaking under impact is called
5. Elastomers = The molecular materials that show the greatest tendency to strength elastically are the class of
rubbers known as
6. Modulus of elasticity = The proportionally constant between stress and strain
7. Modulus of elasticity = the most common measure of a materials stiffness or ability to resist elastic
deformation.
8. Plastic deformation = is a permanent or irreversible deformation
9. Mechanical properties = describes the response of a material to static (continuous) or dynamic intermittent
loads)
10. Flatness = It is a measure of the degree to which the surface of a slab deviates from a plane
11. Levelness = It is a measure of the degree to which a slab deviates from horizontal
12. Leveling = The bringing of a concrete surface to true grade with enough mortar to produce the desired finish
13. Bleeding = Generally, the dry materials used in making quality concrete are heavier than water. Thus shortly
after placement they have the tendency to settle to the bottom and displace the mixing water to the surface.
14. Edging = When all bleed water and water sheen have left to surface and the concrete has started to stiffen,
other operations such as ________ may be started to prevent chipping or damage.
15. The objective of a traffic control system (all of the above)
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
a) To provide for the safe and orderly movement of traffic
b) To resolve conflicts between vehicles, vessels or aircraft.
c) To minimize the cost of transportation.
16. Troweling = is done on slabs that are to be left exposed or to receive thin finishes, such as resilient flooring;
carpet tile or paint.
17. Brooming or brushing = Steel troweled concrete surfaces are very smooth and become slippery when wet.
They can be slightly roughened to produce an non slip surface by brooming or brushing
18. Except when joints will be later sawed, immediately following or during edging, premolded inserts are placed
in concrete slabs to control cracking as a result of shrinkage, this is called Jointing.
19. Concrete should be compacted by a method appropriate to the material and its location to (All of the
above)
a) Eliminate stone pockets and large air bubbles
b) Consolidate each layer with that previously placed.
c) Completely embed reinforcing and fixtures.
d) Bring just enough fine material to the faces and top surfaces to produce the desired finish.

20. Concrete is either delivered to the site by truck or in small projects mixed at the site and moved to its
placement location by ____ (All of the above)
a) Dumping directly from a trucks chute.
b) Buggy
c) Dumping from a trucks chute into a larger bucket, which is then lifted by crane and deposited in its proper
location
d) Dumping from a truck into a concrete pump which delivers the mix to its final location through a hose.

21. Slump = a measure of the consistency of the concrete mix.

22. Scaling = the breaking away of hardened concrete surface usually occurring at an early age of concrete.
23. Laitance = a soft, weak layer of mortar appearing on a horizontal surface of concrete due to segregation or
bleeding.
24. Speed of progression = the speed at which vehicles are presumed to travel through the coordinated signal
system
25. Through band = the space time path intersecting the green at all signals.

26. Band width = the time difference between the beginning and the end of the through band at any point.

27. The time difference between the beginnings of the greens at any two signals is known as The offset of the
cycle at one intersection relative to that at the offer.

28. Two basis types of traffic signals.

a) Fixed time (or pretimed)
b) Traffic actuated
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS

29. Indication = the red, yellow or green light that is displaced to drivers in a given movement.
30. Cycle = the time required for one complete of signal indications.
31. Interval = the discrete portion of a cycle during which the indications do not change.
32. Phase = the portion of the cycle during which the movement with the right of way do not change.
33. Which of the following are normal specifications for concrete?
1) Classification: ASTM C 150, type III, grey
2) Aggregate type: fine and coarse per ASTM C33
3) Water: clean, potable, and not detrimental to concrete
4) Maximum water to cement ratio: 0.45
5) Slump: 2 – 4 in.
34. Occupancy = The function of time that vehicles are present at a point in space.
35. Volume = the number of vehicles counted in a specific time interval.
36. Headway = the reciprocal of flow or average time separation.
37. Time gaps = distance measured from the rear of one vehicle to the front of the next.
38. Density = the number of vehicles per unit distance occupying a section of a roadway at a given instant in time
express in veh/mile or vehicle per kilometer.
39. Distance separation or spacing of vehicles = the reciprocal of density
40. Distance gaps = are measured from the rear of one vehicle to the front of the next.
41. Asphalt pavement are subject to the following pavement distress or failure (all of the above)
a) Alligator cracking = a series of interconnected or interlaced cracks cause by fatigue failure of the asphalt
concrete surface under repeated traffic loading
b) Block cracking = cracks forming large interconnected polygons usually with sharp corners or angles. These
cracks are usually caused by hardening and shrinkage of asphalt in the pavement.
c) Transverse cracking = cracks approximately at right angles to the asphalt pavement center line.
d) Longitudinal cracking = cracks approximately parallel to the asphalt pavement center line
e) Drip track raveling = progressive disintegration of the surface between the wheel paths caused by dripping of
gasoline or oil from vehicles on an asphalt pavement.
f) Bleeding or flushing = the exuding of bitumen onto the asphalt pavement surface causing reduction in skid
resistance.
42. Types of pavement distress affecting Portland cement concrete pavements include the following (all
of the above)
a) Faulting = elevation differences between adjacent slabs at transverse joints
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
b) Settlement = local sagging in the pavement caused by differential settlement consolidation or movement of
underlying earth mass.
c) Blow ups = localized upward buckling and shattering of the slabs at transverse joints.
d) Joint or crack spalling = the breakdown or disintegration of slab edges at joints or cracks.
e) Surface attrition or surface abrasion = abnormal surface wear usually resulting from poor quality surface
mortar or coarse aggregate
f) Surface publish = loss of the original surface texture due to traffic action.
43. Cost of overhaul = is the cost of hauling material beyond the free haul distance.
44. Limit of economical haul = the longest distance that a material should ever be hauled where the cost of
hauling a unit volume of material is equal to the cost of borrowing it.
45. The cost of excavation normally includes the cost of removing the material from its existing state, hauling it up
to some specified distance referred to as the Free haul distance.
46. Mass diagram = is a graph of cumulative volume of earthwork versus distance in stations from the beginning
of the job in which cut is considered to be positive and fill negative.
47. Balance lines = any horizontal lines spanning the loop of a mass diagram which indicates the volume of cut
is equal to the volume of fill.
48. Pavements usually consists of a (all of the above)
a) Surface course 9of asphalt or Portland cement concrete)
b) Base course
c) Sub-base constructed on top of prepared subgrade material.
49. Haul = the product of a volume of material times the average distance it is hauled.
50. Horizontal alignment for linear transportation facilities such as highways and railways consists of the
following (all of the above)
a) Horizontal tangents
b) Circular curves
c) Possibly transition curves
51. True stress and true strain from a tensile test performed on a metal bar are plotted on a log-log graph in
accordance with ASTM E646. If the slope of the curve is between 0.5 and 1.0, which conclusion can be drawn
about the metal?
Answer: The metal has a high strain-hardening capacity.

52. What property describes the variance of a metal’s crystalline structure depending on temperature?
Answer: Allotropism
53. What kind of material has properties that depend on direction?
Answer: Anistropic
54. According to ASTM standards, which test is utilized to test the hardness of metals?
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
Answer: Scleroscopic
55. The primary difference between components (materials) use to produce Portland cement concrete and mortar
for masonry is explained best by which of the following statements?
Answer: Mortar contains caustic lime
56. The abbreviation ‘’WWF’’ on a construction document relating to concrete features is most likely to refer to:
Answer: Welded wire fabric
57. The center point loading test is no longer standard in determining the modulus of rupture for concrete because
Answer: It is difficult to perform accurately in the laboratory.
58. The modulus of rupture test yields a higher value of strength than a direct tensile test or slitting tensile
test made on the same specimen because
a) The assured stress block shape does not match the real shape
b) Direct tensile stress is sensitive to any accidental eccentricity.
c) The concrete is assuming to be perfectly elastic
d) All of the above
59. Which of the following would a cast in place ground slab or floor NOT use to separate steel reinforcing bars
or wire mesh from the ground?
Answer: Wood rise and cellulose spacer blocks
60. Which of the following types of joints typically does NOT use dowels?
Answer: Control joints and isolation joints
61. In addition to location of the pour, tremie concrete poured under water differs from common concrete poured
in the air primarily in its
Answer: Placement method and equipment
62. In very hot weather, thin floor slabs of newly poured concrete would most normally be.
Answer: Sprayed with or submerged in water.
63. In shored construction, which factors do NOT influence the length of time between pouring concrete and
stripping the forms?
Answer: Project schedule, local ordinance
64. A four lane concrete highway is paved in two passes, two adjacent lanes at a time. To facilitate connecting
with the subsequent pour, the edge of the concrete is filled with concrete dowels running transverse to the direction
of travel and the edge is keyed. This joint would most likely be referred to as
Answer: Longitudinal tied construction joint
65. Under base conditions, what is the highest possible two-way flow rate for a two lane highway?
Answer: 3200 pcph both directions combined
66. What is the maximum ideal capacity in both directions sustainable for short distances?
Answer: 3200 pcph
67. What is the maximum ideal capacity of one lane of a four lane freeway?
Answer: 2400 pcph
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
68. A benefit/cost analysis is to be performed to justify the installation of safety related road improvements such
as flexible barriers and breakaway poles. What records could be used to obtain value for property damage
prevented and human lives saved by the safety improvements?
Answer: Insurance records, state disability fund records, accepted federal standards (OSHA) and
property damage reports on file with police
69. Which assumption (impact speed or coefficient of friction) produces the greatest possible error in initial speed
calculations?
Answer: The coefficient of friction is more sensitive to error.
70. Which of the following types of information can be found in the AASHTO HSM?
Answer: Suggested procedures for the implementation of roadway safety features.
71. According to AASHTO HSM, which implementation for traffic control devices would NOT be used as part of
the positive guidance approach to roadway design?
Answer: A speed limit sign, a ‘’No Parking Any Time’’ sign and a ‘’No Left Turn’’ sign arrange vertically
on a sign pole.
72. There have been several reports of crashes along a roadway segment, all rashes involving vehicles, colliding
with a drainage headwall at the edge of the pavement. As part of a project to reduce the crash frequency along
the roadway segment, a city engineer reviews the design plans for the headwall. Which step in the AASHTO HSM
roadway safety management diagnosis process is being performed by the city engineer?
Answer: Asses supporting documentation
73. A line on a topographic map connecting points of equal elevation is known as:
Answer: A Contour line
74. Greens theorem (Greens law) is the basis for determining the
Answer: Surface area of a construction site to be scarified
75. Four different locations along a highway each have large numbers of crashes of particular types. One roadway
segment is the site of many wet pavement crashes, another roadway segment is the site of many crashes involving
pedestrians, a signalized intersection is the site of many right angle crashes, and an unsignalized intersection is
the site of many collisions at driveways. Per the AASHTO HSM, which of the following contributing factors is most
likely to be a common factor in all these crashes?
Answer: Excessive speed
76. In an effort to reduce left turn collisions at a signalized intersection, the green light signal duration for a
protected left turn is lengthened by 30 seconds for an eight-week evaluation period. The data collected during the
eight weeks is then compared to data taken before the green light signal duration was lengthened. Which study
method is being used to evaluate the effectiveness of the lengthened signal duration?
Answer: Experimental before/after evaluation study.
77. Which of the following are common methods of conducting topographic surveying?
a) Transit-tape and transit-stadia
b) Total station
c) Global positioning system (GPS)
d) Photogrammetry
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
78. Haul roads crowns should ideally have a slope of:
Answer: 3%
79. Which of the following is a true statement regarding a neat line on an excavation drawing?
Answer: The contractor will not normally be paid for excavating beyond the neat line
80. Which of the following formulas for bank volume, (BCY), loose volume (LCY), compacted volume (CCY), swell
factor (S), shrinkage factor (D), and load factor (LF) is not correct?
𝑳𝑪𝒀
Answer: 𝑪𝑪𝒀 = 𝟏+𝑺

81. In order to minimize disturbance causing possible subsequent erosion, motorized equipment driven over
stream banks should have tires that exert a ground pressure of less than___
Answer: 6 psi
82. A contractor at a remote job site notices the concrete batch just received contains lumps. What should the
contractor do?
Answer: Reject the load
83. A balance dirt job is one in which
Answer: Cut and fill volumes are equal
84. Which of the following installation instructions for erosion control features in INCORRERCTLY stated?
Answer: Install a silt fence, straw bale barriers, and other erosion control methods along the toe of the
slope before the high water level of the receiving stream channel.
85. An activity is coded as 0793-31 62 13.16 using the Construction Specification Institute’s post – 2004 Master
Formath TM. This coding represents.
Answer: Driving a deep foundation pile
86. Which of the following items usually does NOT need to be remediated or abated prior to most bldg.
demolitions?
Answer: Radon
87. According to the International Bldg. Code (IBC) what is the minimum compressive strength of concrete used
in footing structures in seismic design A, B or C?
Answer: 2500 psi
88. According to the International Bldg. Code, what is the min. thickness of a concrete slab that is cast directly on
the ground?
Answer: 3.5 inches
89. ‘’Mean of egress’’ refers to the
Answer: Path of travel to an exit, the exit itself and the exit discharge.
90. For the purpose of electric service design, if a room contains only a shower, how would the room be classified?
Answer: Bathroom
91. When may a consulting professional engineer sign an inspection report normally signed by an agency
inspector?
Answer: When the engineer is an agent of the agency.
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
92. A contractor’s liquidity ratio in three consecutive years is 1.01, 1.05 and 1.09 respectively. It is probably true
that the contractor is:
Answer: Accumulating cash
93. An engineering design firm has a yearlong lease on a bucket crane used to inspect construction details at
second and third floor levels. Into which general ledger account should the cost of the lease be accumulated?
Answer: Overhead
94. A 14 ft. high wall is placed at a rate of 4 ft./hr. Concrete is lightweight (135 lb/ft 3) made with type I cement and
retarding admixture. The average temperature is 60°F. Determine the lateral design pressure exerted by the fresh
concrete.
Answer: 870 psf.
95. According to OSHA the limiting exposure (dB) to impulse or impact peak noise level is most nearly ______
Answer: 140 dB
96. According to Osha, lifelines shall be secured above the point of operation to an anchorage or structural
member capable of supporting a dead weight of at least ______.
Answer: 5000 lb. (22.2 kN0 per person attached.
97. An inexperienced estimator wishes to determine the approximate cost of compacting soil by means of a sheets
foot roller making 4 passes with the 12 in lift. How should the estimator proceed?
Answer: Use published resources and cost date.
98. Which of the following describes a preparation difference between construction drawings (i.e, prepared by
architects and used by bidders, contractors, and inspectors) and design drawings prepared by engineers and
designers?
Answer: Construction drawings are typically larger in size than design drawings
99. Which of the following details would NOT normally be found in the specification for a large roadway contract
requiring subgrade preparation?
Answer: limits and boundaries
100. Record drawing (also known as ‘’ as built’’ of a buried sewer line insulation that will be submitted to the client
should be certified by the:
Answer: Engineer
101. A project manager finds a loose sheet of binder paper at a construction site. The paper contains various
numbers, some with abbreviation BF, CF, SF, WLD, and WHD. The manager should probably make an effort to
give the sheet of paper to the:
Answer: Contractor
102. When a project is completed late, the amount of money specified by the contract to be paid to the owner by
the contractor (or withheld by the owner from the contractor’s final payment is known as:
Answer: Liquidated damages
103. In a bid document, the engineer allowed bidders to install either cast in place or pre cast concrete culverts
and headers, with the requirements that submitted bids include a description and separate price (bid) for the
method used. This is an example of bid.
Answer: Alternative
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
104. The main parties to a construction project contract include the following.
Answer: Client, engineer architect and prime contractor
105. The term ‘’design-build’’ means the
Answer: Design firm both designs and builds the project
106. Which two categories of projects have different bidding procedures, rules and regulations?
Answer: Public and private
107. The term ‘’fast-track’’ refers to
Answer: A contractor providing full service to the owner, includes such things as obtaining financing,
planning and costing, cost management, shell construction and interior finishing.
108. An excavation trench is 5 ft. deep, 6 ft. wide and 95 ft. long. According to OSHA standards, how many ladders
are required to provide egress from the trench?
Answer: 2 ladders
109. Whenever a masonry wall is constructed, a limited access zone is to established. Which of the following is
true?
Answer: According to the standard practice for bracing masonry walls during construction whenever a
masonry wall is constructed, a limited access zone is to be established whose width shall be height plus
4ft.
110. There are many causes for concrete surface defects, some of the major defects, their causes and the
construction techniques that should be used to prevent them are the following.
a) Scaling = the breaking away of hardened concrete surface of a slab to a depth of about 1/6 in to 3/16 in (1.6
mm to 4.8 mm). It usually occurs at the early age of the slab.
b) Crazing = is the occurrence of numerous fine hair cracks in the surface of a newly hardened slab due to surface
shrinkage.
c) Dusting = is the appearance of a powdery material on the materials of a newly hardened concrete slab.
111. Type III Portland cement is used when high strength is designed at a very early time, usually a week
or less. It is used for the following conditions.
a) When early from removal is desirable
b) When concrete must be put into service quickly.
c) In cold weather to reduce the period required for protection against low temperatures.
d) When its use will secure high early strengths more satisfactorily or more economically than by using richer
mixes of Type I Portland cement.
112. Admixtures are materials other than portland cement, aggregates and water that are added to
concrete either immediately before or during its mixing to alter the properties of the concrete in a variety
of ways. Purpose of admixtures can be used in order to
a) Improve workability
b) Reduce separation of coarse and fine aggregates due to settling out of the heavier coarse aggregate
c) Entrain air
d) Accelerate or retard settling and hardening.
 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS
113. Accelerating increase the rate of early strength development in concrete. The purpose of accelerators
is to:
a) Reduce the time before finishing operations can be started.
b) Permit earlier removal of forms and screeds.
c) Reduce the period required for curing in certain types of work.
d) Advance the time when a structure can be place in service.
e) Partially compensate for the slow gain in strength of a concrete even with proper protection during cold weather.
f) Reduce the period of protection required for initial and final set in making emergency repairs and other work.
114. Because concrete is unable to maintain a particular shape before it sets, it must be placed in a form or mold.
In building construction this form or mold is called Formwork.
115. Most form work is temporary for two reasons.
a) Permanent forms would detract from the desired finish.
b) It is more economical to reduce form work.
116. The mixture of the ingredient of concrete will determine the following whether the concrete will be in
desirable range.
a) Consistency
b) Workability
c) Finish ability of plastic concrete
117. The mixture of the ingredients of concrete, will determine the essential properties of a hardened
concrete are obtained such as
a) Strength
b) Durability
c) Water tightness
d) Water resistance
e) Whether to concrete will be economical
118. A slump test may be used as a rough measure of
a) Consistency of concrete
b) Workability of concrete
c) Durability of concrete
d) Compressive strength of concrete
119. There are many causes for concrete surface defects. Some of the major defects, their causes and
the construction techniques that should be used to prevent them are as follows
a) Scaling
b) Crazing
c) Dusting