Sample Paper

English Segment:

1. In large cities people are cut _____ from nature.

A. away
B. off Co
C. out
D. down

2. “You can have ____ the chicken dish _____ the fish dish for dinner tonight.”

A. as, as
B. whether, or
C. either, or
D. whether, nor

3. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.

After demonetization (1) the banks are definitely (2) more safer than (3) your home, for keeping
your money. (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. In the question below, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, choose 'No improvement'.
Finishing his work, he went for a movie.
A. On finishing
B. Having finished
C. To finish
D. After finishing of his
5. In the question below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to the
highlighted part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, choose 'No improvement.'
Nothing can absolve you your responsibility.
A. In your responsibility
B. Your responsibilities.
C. From your responsibility.

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D. By your responsibilities

6. Choose the sentence which is grammatically incorrect.

A. May received a cool reception on her first visit to India last November, with Prime Minister
Narendra Modi stressing the importance not only of trade but also of freedom of movement for his
country's skilled workers.
B. While Ms. Jayalalithaa may had denied any “fissiparous” intent in her demand for more freedom,
the struggles of the European Union in balancing common market policies for economically diverse
nations should serve as a gentle reminder for an even more diverse India.
C. Much income and wealth in non-western countries is obtained or held extra-legally through black
market and underground activities such as unregistered businesses, informal property ownership
arrangements, etc
D. Whatever be the reasons, it is quite evident that the priorities of a more prosperous State will be
quite different from those that are still very poor.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

7. I at times wonder ______ what happened to the man who used to sell mud toys, outside our
school.
A. about
B. of
C. by
D. at

8. Although he spoke English ___________, his knowledge of the same was not ________.

A. Well, good
B. Good, well
C. Bad, well
D. Exquisite, well
9. In the following question, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the answer
that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase:
To bite the dust
A. Give up the ghost
B. Fall in the dust
C. Eat dust
D. To live amidst dust
10. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

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 A. Armour
B. Conference
C. Vacuum
D. Symposeum
11. In the following question, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the
alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
Jake burned the midnight oil because he had a presentation to give to his boss
A. Kept the lamp burning
B. Worked at midnight
C. Worked late at night
D. Woke up at midnight
12. Four words are given below. Choose the pair of words that most nearly mean the SAME or
OPPOSITE of each other.
A. Encore
B. Concordant
C. Inappropriate
D. Lame

A. A–B
B. B–C
C. C–D
D. A–D

13. In the question, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Against each
five options are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each
sentence. Mark that option as your answer.
I. The syllabus is being revamped so as to remove all the _______ material and put in more relevant
ones.
II. The guide asked his PhD student to remove all the ______ observations about the experiment
A. Interesting
B. Delightful
C. Important
D. Extraneous
14. The beginning of something
A. commensuration
B. salutation
C. commencement
D. deleterious
15. Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word in
bold. You may choose option 1, 2, 3 or 4.

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You can precede with the solution and complete the project.
A. Proceed
B. Resist
C. Wonder
D. Regret
16. Below, a passage is given with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, five options are given
for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage,
and mark the corresponding answer.
India has an asymmetric __ (A) __ government, with elected officials at the federal, state and local
levels. As elections approach there is a __ (B) __ of activities in the corridors of every political party.
The Election Commission of India is an __ (C) __, constitutionally established, federal authority
responsible for administering all the electoral processes in the Republic of India. Under the supervision
of the commission, free and fair elections have been held in India at regular intervals as per the
principles __ (D) __ in the Constitution. The Supreme Court of India has held that where the enacted
laws are silent or make insufficient provision to deal with a given situation in the conduct of elections,
the Election Commission has the __ (E) __ powers under the Constitution to act in an appropriate
manner.
Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?
A. Flurry
B. Quisling
C. Waffle
D. Reticent

17. Direction- Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.

The _________ of the chronic balance of payments deficit which has _________ the Finance Ministry
under three Prime Ministers is very real.
A. Dilemma, plagued
B. Temptation, reviled
C. Understanding, menaced
D. Impact, underestimated
18. Complete the sentence with a suitable option given below the sentence.
In an increasingly frightening scenario, another South East Asian flight has crashed
_________________________________.
A. Calling for investigations into lax air traffic control measures.
B. Calling for a ban of all airlines operating out of the region.
C. Prompting politicians to capitalize on the tragedy.
D. Forcing people to re-evaluate travel arrangements on a need-to-need basis.
19. In the following question a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and
represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage
complete and coherent.

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Erosion of America's farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies
and grasslands under the plough in the nineteenth century. ----------------------------------- Even after 40
years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by
heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to
replace petroleum scarcity as the nation's most critical natural resource problem.
A. But today the conditions are different.
B. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmland were damaged by erosion.
C. This has severely affected the overall crop production.
D. Certain crops have also contributed towards this.
20. Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. The text is a collection of 1,028 hymns and 10,600 verses, organized into ten books (Mandalas).
B. The hymns are dedicated to Rigvedic deities. For each deity series the hymns progress from longer to
shorter ones; and the number of hymns per book increases
C. Rig Veda is an ancient Indian collection of Vedic Sanskrit hymns.
D. A good deal of the language is still obscure and many hymns as a consequence seem unintelligible?
E. Some of its verses continue to be recited during Hindu rites of passage celebrations such as weddings
and religious prayers, making it probably the world's oldest religious text in continued use.
F. It is one of the four canonical sacred texts (śruti) of Hinduism known as the Vedas.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A. C
B. F
C. A
D. E
21. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank
space provided so as to make meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
Drug addiction, contrary to the popular belief, is not a result of willful inclination towards violation of
accepted norms or insufficiency of morality but _____________
A. an effect on the lives of people addicted to the problem of drug addiction.
B. behaviour of the individuals.
C. a consequence of physiological change in the addicts' metabolic functioning.
D. a misguidance of the wards by parents.
22. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?
A. Harvested
B. Ceremoney
C. Conversation
D. Infamy

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23. Dir-Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word
in bold. You may choose option 1, 2, 3 or 4.
Roshan raked his brains and tried to find an answer to a tricky question given in the test but couldn’t
find one.
A. Rake his brain
B. Racked his brain
C. Racked brains
D. Raked brain
24. In the question below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to
the highlighted part which may improve the sentence.

India’s banks, staggering under the world’s highest bad-asset ratio, may be pushed to wind up or
combine with rivals if its capital levels fall below set ratios under new guidelines issued by the country’s
central bank.
A. Unless there
B. If thus
C. Unless its
D. If their
25. In the question given below, there are five statements marked A-D. All the statements except one
belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options.
A. A record event was organised by Silicon Andhra, a cultural non-profit organisation in association with
the Andhra Pradesh Government at IGMC Stadium.
B. Kuchipudi dancers from various age groups (as young as 5 to more than 60 years) from across the
world, including from US, UAE, UK, Russia, Hong Kong and Mauritius took part in performance.
C. It is capable of engaging ground targets with high precision up to a range of 100 kms like a high
precision guided bomb.
D. The ‘Mahabrinda Natyam’ was part of the 5th International Kuchipudi Dance Convention hosted by
the Andhra Pradesh Government’s Department of Language and Culture.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Numerical Reasoning Segment:

26. What approximate value will come in place of question mark in the following question?
23.003 × 22.998 + 100.010 =?
A. 630
B. 720
C. 840
D. 520

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27. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
(NOTE: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
21.714 × (8.749 – 5.393) =?
A. 70
B. 45
C. 96
D. 65
28. What should come in place of x in the following question?
1501 + 411 – 364 – 2113 = x
A. 965
B. -565
C. -875
D. 565
29. Simplify: 0.6 + 0.6 – 0.6 of 0.6 ÷ 0.6 + (0.6 × 0.6)
A. 0.33
B. 0.81
C. 0.90
D. Non of the above
30. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
8100 ÷ 15 ÷ 5 = ?
A. 215
B. 109.68
C. 185.56
D. 108
31. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 29. Find the largest of these numbers.
A. 42
B. 28
C. 32
D. 36
32. The average salary of the entire staff in a office is Rs. 120 per month. The average salary of officers is
Rs. 460 and that of non- officers is Rs. 110. If the number of officers is 15, then find the number of non-
officers in the office.
A. 610
B. 510
C. 410
D. Can’t be determined
33. The average age of a man and his son is 18 years. The ratio of their ages is 5:1 respectively. What will
be the ratio of their ages after 6 years?

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 A. 10:3
B. 5:2
C. 4:3
D. 3:1
34. The average weight of 3 men A, B and C is 96kg. Another man D joins the group and the average now
becomes now 88 kg. if another man E, whose weight is 4 kg more than that of D, replace A, then the
average weight B, C, D and E becomes 82 kg. The weight of A is:
A. 70 kg
B. 72 kg
C. 92 kg
D. 80 kg
35. The average salary in an industry having a staff of 16 engineers and 30 clerks is Rs. 750. The average
salary of engineers is Rs. 1200. Find the average salary of clerks.
A. 480
B. 500
C. 510
D. 515
36. In 2014 India played 48 one day international (ODI). The winning % in 1st 20 ODI was 40. The winning
% in next 10 ODI was 80 and the winning % was 50 in the remaining ODI’s of 2014. What was the
(approx) overall winning % of India in ODI’s in 2014?
A. 60%
B. 45%
C. 68%
D. 52%
37. When 12 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to 20% of twice that number. Find the number.

A. 20
B. 18
C. 22
D. 24
38. In a company, there are 75% skilled workers and remaining ones are unskilled. 80% of skilled
workers and 20% of unskilled workers are permanent. If number of temporary workers is 126, then find
the number of total workers.
A. 124
B. 388
C. 324
D. 360
39. Due to reduction of 20% price in wheat, A man can get 10 kg more in Rs 600. New rate of wheat is–
A. Rs 11.50 / kg
B. Rs 12.50 / kg
C. Rs 12 / kg

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 D. Rs 13 / kg
40. The third proportional to 3 and 15 is a multiple of:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 7
D. 6
41. What is the value of x, if it is 2% of the fourth proportional to 6, 7 and 36?
A. 0.23
B. 0.42
C. 0.84
D. 0.92
42. What will be the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs.16,800 in 9 months at the rate of 6 ¼ %
p.a.?
A. Rs.787.50
B. Rs.812.50
C. Rs.860
D. Rs.887.50
43. A vendor marks his goods at such a price that he can give a discount of 24% for cash payment and
yet make 20% profit. Find the market price of an item which cost him Rs. 275.50.
A. Rs. 418.25
B. Rs. 420.75
C. Rs. 435
D. Rs. 400
44. A shopkeeper gives 25% discount on an article and makes a profit of 10%. If the cost price of the
article is Rs 300 then what is the marked price?

A. Rs 360
B. Rs 480
C. Rs 404
D. Rs 440
45. 2 numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3.If they differ by 18 what in the product of the two numbers?
A. 9
B. 133
C. 243
D. 1215
46. In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in
the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number.
Since the new attendance forms supersided the previous documents, please shred all of the old forms.
A. Attendance

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 B. Supersided
C. Documents
D. Shred
47. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of
the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
Sherlock Holmes, the famous (1) detective created by Arthur Conan Doyle (2) used to live at (3) Baker
Street. (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
48. In the question below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to the
highlighted part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
We are not going to focus on the disadvantages because you already know all of that.

A. you already knew it

B. already that is known
C. you already knew
D. No improvement
49. The previous government ______ less on education but the current government is spending even
______.
A. spent, least
B. was spending, lesser
C. spending, more lesser
D. spend, less
50. He is an expert _____ languages but cannot articulate feelings well.
A. In
B. On
C. With
D. Of
51. Point B is 12 meters south of point A. Point C is 24 meters east of point B. Point D is 8 meters south
of point C. Point D is 12 meters east of point E and point F is 8 meters north of point E.
If a man has to travel to point E from Point A (through these points by the shortest distance), which of
the following points will he pass through first?
A. Point C
B. Point D
C. Point F
D. Point B
52. Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

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Ramesh and Suresh live in same house. Early morning Ramesh leaves the house and walks for 6
kilometers following his own shadow. Then he turns towards his left and walks for another 6 kilometers.
Finally he turns his right and walks for another 2 kilometers. Same day in evening Suresh leaves the
house and walks for 4 kilometers following his own shadow and then turns to his right. He walks for 6
kilometers and then turns to left direction and finally walks for another 8 kilometers.
What is the position of Suresh with respect to Ramesh at last?

A. 20 km West
B. 20 km East
C. 28 km East
D. 32 km West
53. Study the information given below and answer the question that follow.
1) five friends Asha, Lata, Meena, Komal & Reena checking their weight on weighing scale.
2) Asha is 5 kg less than Meena & 10 kg less than Komal.
3) Lata is 65 kg & she is 15 kg more heavier than Asha.
4) Reena is 3 kg less than Asha.
Who have less weight among the friends?

A. Asha
B. Lata
C. Komal
D. Reena
54. JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

A. OEP
B. NEO
C. MEN
D. PFQ

55. Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement
may be true, false, or uncertain.

Joe is younger than Kathy.

Mark was born after Joe.
Kathy is older than Mark.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

56. Statements: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.

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Conclusions:
Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
People cannot eat vegetables.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows

57. In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some
conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the
given statements).

Hitesh told Mohit a ghost lived by the peepal tree on the outskirts of the village.

A. Peepal trees grow on the outskirts of the village.

B. Ghosts live on peepal trees.
C. Hitesh perhaps believed in the stories of ghosts.
D. Mohit must be afraid of ghosts.

58. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.

Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than both strawberries and blueberries.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A. true
B. false
C. uncertain
D. None of the above

59. Fact 1: Robert has four vehicles.

Fact 2: Two of the vehicles are red.
Fact 3: One of the vehicles is a minivan.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I: Robert has a red minivan.

II: Robert has three cars.
III: Robert's favourite colour is red.

A. I only
B. II only

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 C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

60. At the baseball game, Henry was sitting in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right of Henry in seat
254. In the seat to the left of Henry was George. Inez was sitting to the left of George. Which seat is Inez
sitting in?

A. 251
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256

61. The high school math department needs to appoint a new chairperson, which will be based on
seniority. Ms. West has less seniority than Mr. Temple, but more than Ms. Brody. Mr. Rhodes has more
seniority than Ms. West, but less than Mr. Temple. Mr. Temple doesn't want the job. Who will be the
new math department chairperson?

A. Mr. Rhodes
B. Mr. Temple
C. Ms. West
D. Ms. Brody

62. Struthers College has built its reputation for academic excellence largely on significant contributions
from wealthy alumni who are avid fans of the school’s football team. Although the team has won more
national championships over the years than any other team in its division, this year it did not even win
the division title, and so Struthers College can expect to see a decline in alumni contributions next year.
The above argument relies on which of the following assumptions about Struthers College?

A. The college’s reputation for academic excellence depends on the performance of its football
team.
B. Contributions from alumni are needed for the college to produce a winning football team.
C. Struthers alumni contributions depend to an extent on a winning record by the college's football
team.
D. The college’s football team will continue its losing streak next year.

63. If Blue is called Green, Green is called Orange, Orange is called Yellow, Yellow is called Black, Black is
called Red and Red is called White. Based on this what is the colour of turmeric?
A. Orange
B. Green
C. White
D. Black
64. If A is to the south of B and C is to the east of B, in what direction is A with respect to C?
A. South-west
B. North-west

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 C. South-east
D. North-east
65. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Jay starts from point A, Walks 14 m towards the East, takes 1 left turn and walks 4 m. He then takes right
turn, walks 2 m and stops.
Sandeep starts from the same point A, walks 14 m towards the South, takes a left turn and walks 20 m
before stopping.
If Jay takes a right turn from the point where he stops walks 18 m and stops, how far would he be from
the position where Sandeep stopped?
A. 4m
B. 2m
C. 12 m
D. 18 m
66. Pointing to a photograph, a girl tells Armaan “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your
maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Armaan’s father?

A. Sister – in – law
B. Wife
C. Either 1 or 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
67. Read the following information and answer the questions given below it:
A + B means A is the daughter of B; A × B means A is the son of B and A – B means A is the wife of B.
If Z × T – S × U + P, what is U to Z.
A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Father
D. Can’t be determined
68. In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and
III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some towers are windows
All windows are houses
Some houses are temples
Conclusions:

I. Some towers are temple

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 II. Some houses are towers
III. Some temples are windows

A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only I and II follow
69. Study the following information and answer the questions given below it.
Seven people – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a circle. Five of them are facing the centre while two of
them are facing opposite to the centre.
R sits third to the left of S and both are facing the centre. T is neither an immediate neighbor of S nor R.
The one sitting exactly between S and U is facing opposite to centre. V sits third to the right of P and V is
facing the centre. One of Q’s neighbors is facing opposite to the centre. No 4 consecutive people are
facing towards center.
Who is sitting second to the left of P?

A. R
B. V
C. T
D. Q
70. Read the given information and answer below question.
Seven actors Akshay, Aamir, Salman, Ajay, Ranvir, Sahid and Varun have their movie releasing in
different months of the year, i.e., May, March, June, April, July, February and January, not necessarily in
that order. Each of them act in different movie, Padman, The Ring, Superstar, Dutt, Tubelight, Robot and
Bahubali, not necessarily in that order. Aamir act in Bahubali but his movie releases after Varun. Akshay
and Ajay do not have their movie releases in May. Ranvir has his movie releases in January. The Robot
releases one month earlier than the Tubelight and in one of them Varun is acting. The one who has his
movie release in March acting in Superstar. The one who act to Padman does not have release in April.
The one who act in The Ring has his release two months earlier than Salman but he is neither Ranvir nor
Sahid. Varun act in movie which release either in June or July.
If Ajay is Acting in Superstar then Who is acting in The Ring?
A. Sahid
B. Akshay
C. Varun
D. Ranvir
Directions for questions 71 to 74
Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

Number of Different Types of Batteries Sold by a company over the years (Numbers in Thousands)
Year Types of Batteries

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 4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total
1992 75 144 114 102 108 543
1993 90 126 102 84 126 528
1994 96 114 75 105 135 525
1995 105 90 150 90 75 510
1996 90 75 135 75 90 465
1997 105 60 165 45 120 495
1998 115 85 160 100 145 605

71. What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of 55AH batteries in 1998 compared to
that in 1992?

A. 28%
B. 31%
C. 33%
D. 34%

72. The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for which battery?

A. 4AH
B. 7AH
C. 32AH
D. 35AH

73. What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold in 1993 and 1997?

A. 24000
B. 28000
C. 35000
D. 39000

74. The percentage of 4AH batteries sold to the total number of batteries sold was maximum in the
year?

A. 1994
B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1997

75. The problem below contains a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide
whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.
What is the distance from city N to city Z in kms?
(I) City N is 80 kms from City D

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(II) City D is 45 kms from City Z
A. Statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
C. Both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
D. Both together are not sufficient.

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