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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage discusses the potential of hydropower energy and also the challenges associated with it,
which makes it clear that hydropower plants will play a role in the energy mix of the nation, but obviously
can’t fulfil energy needs. So, Option a is an inference that can be made, but not the most critical. So,
option a is incorrect.
The passage states that ‘environmental impact of dams and the displacement of communities have
sparked opposition to new projects’. So, it can be inferred from the passage that dams have some adverse
impacts on the environment. But this again is not the most critical inference as this is one aspect of the
dam being discussed. So, option b is incorrect.
In the passage it’s discussed that ‘India needs to shift towards renewable energy sources that are more
accessible and cost-effective’, but it can’t be concluded that they can meet India’s energy demands as it’s
also stated that hydropower will remain. So, option c is incorrect.
After discussing the challenges associated with hydropower energy, but still its relevance in the energy
mix and the potential of renewable energy sources, passage at the end highlights that ‘the future lies in a
diversified and sustainable approach that prioritizes the needs of communities and the environment’. It
implies that everything has to be done keeping in mind the needs of the environment and communities.
i.e. We are switching to renewable energy to save the communities and environment. So, option d is the
most critical inference that can be drawn. Hence option d is correct.

Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In the passage, it’s stated that ‘Despite extensive efforts to detect and measure this mysterious substance,
its nature and properties remain largely unknown.’ So, it indicates that knowing the nature and properties
of dark matter is difficult. So, it is an idea discussed in the passage, but not the central idea of the
passage. His option a is incorrect.
Since it’s stated in the passage, dark matter is composed of electromagnetic radiation, which is difficult to
detect and dark matter is composed of weakly interacting massive particles (WIMPs), which do not
interact with light or other forms of electromagnetic radiation and also dark matter is difficult to measure
and detect. So, it sums up to the statement that the nature of dark matter remains a mystery, thus this is
the central idea of the passage. Hence, option b is correct.
Passage states that the search for WI MPs has so far yielded no conclusive evidence. So, it implies that it
has led to ambiguous manifestations. So, this is an idea discussed in the passage but not a central idea. So,
option c is incorrect.
It is stated in the passage that recent simulations may provide new avenues for experimental exploration.
So again, this is an idea in the passage but not the central idea. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘feudalism emerged as the dominant economic, social and political system, which
was characterized by a hierarchical system of land ownership and control’. It implies that land ownership
decided the social stratum. Hence statement 1 is correct.
In the passage, it’s mentioned that monasteries and religious orders were often the only sources of
education and healthcare. So, it implies that sometimes there were other sources of education and health
care. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Passage states that feudalism emerged as the dominant, economic, social and political system. So it
implies that other economic and political systems of medieval Europe were Trivial. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
The passage states that ‘The feudal system was accompanied by a complex web of social customs and
traditions that regulated the behavior of different classes of people’. It implies that feudalism regulated
the behaviour of the people. Statement 4 says the same thing, just the words have been rephrased. (Tab
on demeanour ⇒ regulating behaviour). Hence statement 4 is correct.

Q.4)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘The Aryan invasion theory is a contentious topic in Indian history’. Implies it is a
debatable topic but the statement one states that it is deep-rooted (opposite of contentious). Hence
option a is incorrect.
The passage discusses various Aryan invasion theories and how it has been a subject of debate among
scholars due to a lack of evidence. It has not come to any conclusion as to which is the accepted theory.
So, this is the crux of the passage. Hence, option b is correct.
Statement 3 is a part of theory discussed, but it is not the crux of the passage. Hence option c is
incorrect.
In the first theory it’s stated that they brought Sanskrit and established a new social hierarchy based on
caste. Another theory mentions that assimilation of Aryans led to development of Hinduism. So, it’s again
an aspect of theory discussed, it is not the crux of the passage. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.5)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let’s n(M) = Percentage of students who ate Mexican food = 49%
n(C) = Percentage of students who ate Chinese food = 53%
n(I) = Percentage of students who ate Italian food = 62%
n(M ∩ C) = Percentage of students who ate both Mexican and Chinese = 27%
n(I ∩ C) = Percentage of students who had both Italian and Chinese =29%
n(M ∩ I) = Percentage of students who had Mexican and Italian = 28%
Since 5% ate nothing, so n(M u C u I) = 95 %
Now the formula of Union is,
n(M u C u I) = n(C) + n(M) + n(I)- n(M ∩ C) -n(I ∩ C) -n(M ∩ I) + n( C ∩ M ∩ I)
Putting all the values from the given above equations:—
95 %= 53%+49%+62%-27%-29%-28%+ n( C ∩ M ∩ I)
n(C ∩ M ∩ I) = 15%
So, 15% students ate all three foods,
Number of students who ate all three foods = 500x(0.15) = 75

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-1 : 3 Pizzas + 7 Frappes + 1 Ice cream = Rs 120 ——————————-(1)
Statement-2 : 5 Pizzas + 9 Frappes + 3 Ice creams =Rs 164.50————————-(2)
Adding equation 1 and 2:
8 Pizzas + 16 Frappes + 4 Ice creams = Rs 284.40

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Dividing both the sides by ‘4’ :— 2 Pizzas + 4 Frappes + 1 Ice cream = Rs 71.10
Hence it is evident that either of the Statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the question.

Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

From Image e, it can be concluded that Some planets are not satellites. Hence conclusion 1 can’t be
drawn.
From Image f, it is evident that some planets are satellites, hence conclusion 2 can’t be drawn.
From Image e, it is evident that all planets are not satellites. Hence conclusion 3 can’t be drawn.
From Image e and f it is evident that all satellites are not planet. Hence conclusion 4 can’t be drawn.
Hence option d.

Q.8)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Given : Two facts which is certain : John is standing at the front of the queue and Farukh is standing at the
third from the end.
It’s given that position of Sarah can be at any of the index 2,3,4,6,7. Because in the Statement 1 it’s not
given that immediately behind. So, she can be at any place after John. So, when position of Sarah can’t be
determined with 100% certainty, then who is standing at the exact centre can’t be determined too.
Statement 2 also just talks about position of Farukh, for rest the position is not clear.
Combing the 2 statements, we cannot say for certain who is standing at position 4 (centre of the queue).
Hence Neither Statement-1 nor statement-2 is sufficient to answer the question.

People John Farukh

Index 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Poke is lighter than Tarun only:

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Implies all other Qaida, Romy, Sekhar are lighter than Poke. So, Romy can be either after Poke or after
Sekhar. But position of Tarun is known now.

Implies Traun is the heaviest. So statement 1 alone can give the answer.
Statement 2: Here also the position of Poke and Romy can’t be known with certainty, but who is the
heaviest is known. Hence Statement 2 alone too can give the answer.

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Rule 1: 1st three letters’ position is increased by two: C D E,
Rule 2: Next three letters’ position is increased by three: G H I
next three with Rule 1: I J K
Next three with Rule 2: M N O
Next three with Rule 1: O P Q
Next three with Rule 2: S T U
Next three with Rule 1: U V W
Next three with Rule 2: Y Z A
Next three with Rule 1: A B
Now write all together in a sequence:-
CDEGHIIJKMNOOPQSTUUVWYZAAB
Now to find the letters at the exact centre , divide the sequence into two half of 12 letters each.
The two letters at 13th and 14th position are at the exact centre.
That is O P

Q.11)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage discusses the challenges and complexities of the modern world, so it is an aspect being
discussed, but not the critical message being conveyed. Hence Option a is incorrect.
The passage is all about finding inspiration in the wisdom of those who came before us. The passage
discusses the challenges and complexities of the modern world and the need for mindfulness and
resilience in the face of these challenges. But emphasizes the importance of drawing upon the wisdom
and inspiration of those who have faced similar struggles in the past. The critical message conveyed by

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

the passage is that we can find hope and guidance in the experiences of those who have come before us,
and that their wisdom and resilience can help us navigate the challenges of our own time. Hence option b
is correct.
Option c discusses the nature of challenge that it can be overwhelming, so this is not the critical message
being conveyed. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage also tells about the need for mindfulness and resilience in the face of these challenges. So it
again discusses the precautions to be taken, so it is not the critical message being conveyed. Hence
option d is incorrect.

Q.12)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage nowhere mentions or indicates that climate change has no clear solutions. Hence Option a is
incorrect.
The passage in the beginning mentions that some governments have made commitments to transition,
but the progress has been slow, also there is lack of political will and at the end also it’s mentioned in the
passage that decisive actions are needed because the consequences of inactions are dire. So the most
critical message being conveyed is that the government needs to take bolder commitments to address
climate change’. Hence Option b is correct.
The passage states that the consequences of inaction are described as dire, with rising sea levels, more
frequent natural disasters, and widespread environmental degradation. So this is a message being
conveyed, but not the most critical message. Hence Option c is incorrect.
In the passage it’s mentioned that ‘While some governments have made commitments to transition away
from fossil fuels and invest in renewable energy sources’, from this it can’t be implied that renewable
energy sources are the solution to mitigate the effects of climate change, hence option d is incorrect.

Q.13)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage states that India is the world's second-largest fish-producing country, and the sector
employs millions of people. So it implies that it is a significant contributor to the country’s economy.
Hence statement 1 is a valid assumption.
In the passage it’s mentioned that the lack of proper infrastructure for storage and transportation has
resulted in significant losses for fishermen and huge upsurge in the price of fish stock has been observed
due to wastage during movement from sea to plate. So it’s implicit that Efficient means of transportation
keeps a check on the price of the fish stock. So statement 2 is a valid assumption.
While the passage does mention that the fisheries industry is a source of livelihood for millions of people,
it does not state that it is sustainable. Statement 3 is an invalid assumption.

Q.14)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage states that 'Some benefit some struggle'. So it can't be said that it is beneficial for the
employees, as this becomes debatable. So, Option a is incorrect.
The passage states that 'While some people thrive in this environment, others struggle to adapt to the
lack of structure and face-to-face interaction', so it implies that some employees need face to face
interaction, but Option b says about all remote employees as 'the employees have been used'. So option b
is incorrect.

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

In the passage it's stated that 'Remote workers need to have self discipline and time management skills to
stay productive'. So, it assumes that a disciplined life is a prerequisite for being productive. Hence Option
c is correct.
The passage states that ‘Employers need to prioritize communication and collaboration tools to ensure
that remote workers are not isolated’. But it can't be said that it is more important for remote workers.
Hence Option d is incorrect.

Q.15)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement-1: Andy receives a salary of Rs1000 and he gets three successive equal percentage rise in his
salary.
From this percentage hike can’t be achieved. So, option 1 is incorrect.
Statement-2 : The hike is such that the sum of Rs 100 turns into Rs 140.99.
Implies Rs 100 becomes Rs 140.99
Means hike = 140.99-100 = 40.99
Percentage hike = (40.99)100x 100= 40.99 %
So, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.16)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The given sequence is two Geometric progression (GP)
1st sequence is : 2,8,32,128,512,2048,8192
Here a (1st term) is 2, r (common ratio) is 4 and the nth term of a GP is ax{r^(n-1)}
1st term = 2x {4^(1-1)} = 2
2nd term = 2x {4^(2-1)} = 8
3rd term = 2x {4^(3-1)} = 32
4th term = 2x {4^(4-1)} = 128
5th term = 2x {4^(5-1)} = 512
6th term = 2x {4^(6-1)} = 2048, which in the question is written incorrectly as 2024.
2nd sequence is: 5,10,20,40,80,160
Where 1st term a is 5, and the common ratio is 2
1st term = 5x {2^(1-1)} = 5
2nd term = 5x {2^(2-1)} = 10
3rd term = 5x {2^(3-1)} = 20
4th term = 5x {2^(4-1)} = 40
5th term = 5x {2^(5-1)} = 80
6th term = 5x {2^(6-1)} = 160
Here in this sequence all terms are correct.
So, the incorrect term is 2024.

Q.17)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In every column,
The Middle row number value = (sum of numbers in first and third row)/4
Let's verify this logic in First and third column:

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

First column, 7 = (9+19)/4

Third column 10=(18+22)/4
Hence, Second Column’s middle value will be (11+13)/4 = 6
Now let's see the alphabet of each cell. It’s nothing but the letter's position of english alphabets (see the
below table for reference).
Since the missing cell value is 6 so the corresponding alphabet value will be F. Hence, the missing term is
6F.

Q.18)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The main goal in this type of series is to identify the series type. Typically it focuses on basic arithmetic
operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division). There could be uncountable numbers of
series because the series is an imagination. So the best approach is to find logic between sequences of
numbers in Sequence-I,
Check the difference between successive numbers.
18-12 = 6
27-18 = 9
40.5-27= 13.5
60.75-40.5=20.25
91.125- 60.75=30.375
From the above, we can see that the ‘difference between the two consecutive numbers’ is half of the
previous number.
That is: Difference between 12 and 18 is half of 12.
(18-12) = 12/2
(27-18) = 18/2
(40.5-27) = 27/2
(60.75-40.5) = 40.5/2
(91.125-60.75) = 60.75/2
So, If we simplify the above sequence, we can write the formula as
(xn - xn−1 ) = ( xn−1 )/2 …………………………………….. equation 1
And since sequence I and sequence II are identical, and first number of sequence II is second number of
sequence I, hence sequence II will be exactly same as sequence I upto second last value (up to "D" cell)
i.e. 18,27,40.5,60.75,91.125
Let's assume last number is x, so from equation 1 we can write
(x-91.125) = 91.125/2
(x-91.125) = 45.5625
x = 136.6875
So, entry in place of E is 136.6875

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Q.19)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Such type of question has to be approached reverse way, that is, approach it from the statements given:
Statement 1: The numerator of the given fraction is square of smallest even number= 2^2 = 4
and the denominator is five time three = 5x3 = 15
Now check whether 4/15 satisfies all the conditions given in the question:—-
Condition 1: denominator is smaller than the square of the numerator by unity.=> 15= (4^2)-1
Condition 2: two is added both to the numerator and the denominator, the fraction will exceed ⅓ =
(4+2)/(15+2) = 6/17 which is 0.35 which is greater than ⅓(0.33)
Condition 3: subtract three from the numerator, and the denominator, the fraction will be positive but
smaller than 1/10, =>>> (4-3)/(15-3) = 1/12 which is smaller than 1/10
So, it satisfies all the given conditions. hence Statement 1 is correct.
Now take statement 2:
The numerator of the given fraction is cube of smallest even number =8
The denominator is seven times nine= 63
Now check whether 8/63 satisfies all the conditions given in the question:—-
Condition 1: denominator is smaller than the square of the numerator by unity.=> 63= (8^2)-1, condition 1
satisfied.
Condition 2: two is added both to the numerator and the denominator, the fraction will exceed ⅓=
(8+2)/(63+2)= 10/65 = 0.15 , so it doesn’t exceed ⅓ (0.33). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
In case you proceed from the question you will get two quadratic equations, which will consume too
much of time.

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Given, total amount of coffee served = 21.5 liters
Ratio of A’s coffee to B’s coffee = 5:4——————— (1)
Ratio of B’s coffee to C’s coffee = 6:8——————— (2)
Since B is common in both equations. So, to bring both ratios to same proportion,
We need to multiply equation 1 by 3 and equation 2 by 2:
A: B = 15: 12
B:C = 12:16
So now A:B:C = 15:12:16
So, now from the ratio it’s evident that B had the least coffee.
So, amount of coffee had by B = [ Ratio of B/ (Sum of ratio of A+B+C)] Total amount of coffee =
(12/43)x 21.5 = 6 liters.

Q.21)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The given passage implies that the priestly class, known as the Brahmins, had a
monopoly on religious knowledge and practice in ancient India. This monopoly was supported by the
ritualistic and ascetic practices prescribed in the Vedas, the religious texts of the time. Therefore, it
can be inferred that rituals helped the priestly class maintain its dominance over other social classes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not provide evidence to support the assumption that the
Vedic texts were widely accepted and respected across all regions and social classes in ancient India.

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Q.22)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage argues that socialization is a crucial process by which human infants acquire the skills
necessary to function as members of their society, and this process is necessary to perpetuate social
order. The institutionalization of social structures and norms creates a world that is perceived as
objective reality, despite its purely subjective origins. However, the process of objectification is not
complete or permanent, and the social world is subject to negotiation and interpretation. Through the
ongoing production and reproduction of social reality, individuals and groups can shape the social
structures and processes that govern their lives. Therefore, the best summary of the passage is that
socialization perpetuates social order by shaping individual experiences and understandings of reality.

Q.23)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage highlights that challenges related to antibiotics are not only technical or scientific but also
tied to social and economic conditions. It also emphasizes that issues of access, equity, and justice can
profoundly affect the ability of individuals and populations to benefit from antibiotics. These lines have
been given in the passage, “Antibiotic use has become enmeshed in complex networks of power and
influences that shape the ways in which antibiotics are discovered, tested, marketed, and prescribed.
Moreover, the use of antibiotics is often embedded within larger systems of health care delivery, where
issues of access, equity, and justice can have profound effects on the ability of individuals and populations
to benefit from these powerful drugs.”

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The author clearly argues that woman of tomorrow is yet to emerge. The author is suggesting that the
woman of today recognizes that the present society, including its history and cultural norms, is not the
only form of human life. She refuses to accept the current status quo as the only way things should be
and insists on revising the past to achieve a more accurate historical perspective. The following lines
highlight the same, “She is aware that her true significance and potential cannot be measured in terms of
the current concept of a woman. She refuses to accept the present as the only form of human life and
insists upon a complete revision of the past in order to achieve a true historical perspective. And she is
right.”

Q.25)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 gives comparison between X, Y and Z and W but not with V thus it is not alone sufficient to
answer the question.
Statement 2 given comparison X, Y and V but not with Z and W thus it is not alone sufficient to answer
the question.
However, if we combine both statements’ information, we get that:
Z and W<Y<X<V (Since V will be taller than Z and W thus despite having no relation between Z and W, we
will be able to answer the question.)
Therefore, the correct answer is: Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question.

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Q.26)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let the number of apples in basket B and C together be 5k.
So, number of apples in basket A = 2k
Total number of apples in three baskets = 2k + 5k = 7k
6 12k
Number of apples in basket B = × 2k =
5 5
12k 13k
Number of apples in basket C = 5k − =
5 5
13k
13
Thus, the fraction of total apples contained by basket C = 5
=
7k 35

Q.27)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In the mirror image,
1) The whole image gets reversed.
2) The right side of the object becomes the left side and the left side of the object becomes the right side.
3) The top and bottom sides of the object remain unchanged
Thus, option a is correct.

Q.28)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Distance AD2 = AE2 + ED2

AD2= 302 + 302
AD2 = 1800 = 900x2
AD = 30√2

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
As a and b are digits of a number, hence both would be non-negative integers.
From statement 1
For N to be divisible by 25, its last two digits should be divisible by 25.
So, possible values of ab = {00, 25, 50, 75}
Therefore, (a + b) min = 0 + 0 = 0

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Hence, statement 1 alone can answer the question.

From statement 2
For N to be divisible by 4 its last two digits should be divisible by 4.
So, possible values of ab = {00, 04, 08, 12, …………….}
Therefore, (a + b) min = 0 + 0 = 0
Hence, statement S2 alone can answer the question.
∴ the question can be answered by either of the statement alone.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q.30)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

By drawing the path of Malini’s journey, we can surmise that She is facing South at the moment.

Q.31)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is that the new Indian elite, while intelligent
and ambitious, lacked idealism and vision, and were primarily concerned with maintaining their privileged
social status. The author notes that the new elite were "taught... to see themselves not as agents of social
transformation but as custodians of the status quo," and that they "believed they had a right to occupy
their positions of power and privilege." Additionally, the author notes that the new elite "lacked the
passion and vision of their forebears," suggesting that they were not primarily focused on bringing about
social change or challenging the status quo.

Q.32)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: There’s no mention of societal factors in the given passage that can alter an
individual's ability to appreciate experiences. The entire passage talks about one’s cognitive flexibility to
be an important component of subjective well-being and happiness.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage states that “people’s affective states are heavily influenced by the
degree of cognitive flexibility that they bring to the interpretation of their experiences,” indicating that a
person’s interpretation can affect his or her emotional state.

Q.33)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage describes how the computerization of society has transformed the way knowledge is
produced, validated, and circulated. It challenges traditional institutions like universities and research
centers and requires a new kind of thinking or new mindsets. The author has highlighted this in these
lines, “The traditional institutions of knowledge production, such as universities and research centres, are

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

being challenged by new forms of knowledge production that are more open, decentralized, and fluid.
This new condition of knowledge requires a new kind of thinking, one that is not based on the old models
of rationality and logic, but on the recognition of the contingency and instability of knowledge itself.”

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage states that Greek myth was originally a religious mystery drama representing the victory of
the Olympian gods over the Titans and that it was considered by the Greeks to be a true record of their
remote past. However, the passage goes on to explain that Greek poets and scholars, particularly Hesiod
and the Alexandrian scholars, rationalized and allegorized the myths and reduced their significance.
Following lines highlight this, “But Greek poets, particularly Hesiod and the Alexandrian scholars,
rationalized and sometimes allegorized the myths, reducing them to absurdity by explaining them as
historical incidents and personifications of natural phenomena. Although this made the myths more
interesting to the rational mind, it took away their real significance…”

Q.35)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Let the remainder in both cases be x.
Therefore, (12345-x) and (6789-x) are exactly divisible by that three-digit number.
The required number must be a factor of (12345 – 6789) or 5556.
5556 = 4 x 1389 = 4 x 3 x 463 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 463
463 is the required number.
We can see that dividing 12345 by 463 leaves remainder of 307 (with a quotient of 26)
= 12345- 26x463
= 12345- 12038
= 307
And dividing 6789 by 463 also leaves remainder of 307 (with a quotient of 14)
= 6789- 14x463
= 6789-6482
=307

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The given number = 84705Z2 is divisible by 9
Divisibility rule of 9: If the sum of digits of the number is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible
by 9.
According to the above concept,
84705Z2 = 8 + 4 + 7 + 0 + 5 + Z + 2
= 26 + Z = 26+0 (if we replace Z by 0) which is not divisible by 9
Now, we replace Z by 1, then it becomes 27, which is divisible by 9.
Thus, the minimum required value is 1.
Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In this case since we have to find the 99th term from the end.

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We will consider the first term to be -1139 and the common difference will be 11
Now, a = -1139, d = 11 and n = 99
T99 = a + (n – 1)d
T99 = -1139 + (99 – 1)11
T99 = -1139 + 1078 = -61
The value of 99th term from the end is -61.

Q.38)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Since value of a lies between - 6 and - 3, so value of a2 must lie between 36 and 9
And value of b lies between - 3 and 3, so value of b2 must lie between 9 and 0.
To get the upper value of the required range, we will take maximum value of a and minimum value of b: a2
- b2 = 36 - 0 = 36
To get the lower value of the required range, we will take minimum value of a and maximum value of b:
a 2 - b2 =
=9-9=0
Thus, the value of (a2 - b2) must be in between 0 and 36.

Q.39)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Total number of people in the group i.e. n(U) = 30
Number of people in the group who run i.e. n(R) = 15
Number of people in the group who swim i.e. n(S) = 13
Number of people in the group who cycle i.e. n(C) = 13
Number of people in the group who do both run and swim i.e. n (R ∩ S) = 5
Number of people in the group who do both cycle and swim i.e. n (C ∩ S) = 8
Number of people in the group who do both run and cycle i.e. n (R ∩ C) = 9.
Number of people who do all three activities i.e. R ∩ C ∩ S = 5.
By calculating, we get number of people who do none of the activities and people who only swim.
People who do not do any of the activities = 6; and people who only swim = 5
This would give us number of people who neither run nor cycle = 6+5 = 11

Q.40)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
From the above information:

From the above diagram we can see that there’s a clear possibility that some of the shrugs are chips and
thus conclusion I follows.

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From the above diagram we can see that while some shrugs can be sweets all shrugs are not sweets and
also some clothes have the possibility of being chips but not all clothes are chips. Thus, Conclusion II and
III does not follow.
Similarly, while some shrugs are chips but clearly not all shrugs are chips and thus Conclusion IV does not
follow.

Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage is all about how slavery shaped the economy, politics and culture of America. The ‘option a’
just states the nature of slavery, so it does not sum up the passage. Hence option a is incorrect.
Option b is about how was slavery challenged in America, so this too does not sum up the passage. Hence
option b is incorrect.
Option c is about how the abolitionist movement was fueled by moral outrage of many Americans. So, this
again is an idea discussed in the passage about the abolitionist movement. This doesn’t sum up the
passage. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage describes how slavery was not only a system of brutal exploitation but also a deeply
ingrained social institution that shaped American culture and politics for centuries. It also mentions how
slave labor was the backbone of the American economy, responsible for the rise of the plantation system
and the development of the Deep South. Therefore, the option d best summarizes the passage.
Hence option d is correct.

Q.42)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘old colonial empires were weakened in the wake of world war II and their
legitimacy was increasingly called into question’, wherein they were confronted with new reality’. And
this led to nationalist movements and hence decolonisation. Implies decolonisation is the result of
weakening of colonial empires, not vice versa. Hence Option 1 is incorrect.
Same logic holds for questioning of legitimacy of colonies in wake of war, which culminated in the form of
decolonisation, so this again is the cause of decolonisation, not it’s outcome. Hence Option 3 is incorrect.
In the passage it’s stated that Decolonisation reshaped global political landscape. Implies it led to
Revamping of global political landscape. Hence Option 2 is correct.
The passage states that ‘ decolonization brought forth a triumph for anti-colonial forces and a step
forward for global justice and equality’. Implies it led to conquest for anti-colonial forces and plunge
towards global justice and equality. Hence Options 4 and 5 are correct.

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Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that decolonisation was marked by challenges and contradictions.” On the one
hand, decolonization brought forth a triumph for anti-colonial forces and a step forward for global justice
and equality. On the other hand, it was often a messy and violent process, marked by conflict and
instability” so statement 1 represents a contradiction not the challenge, hence statement 1 is incorrect.
In the passage it’s mentioned that ‘The question of how to transfer of power from colonial regimes to new
nationalist governments confronted all’, it implies it was a challenge. Confronted is another word for
challenged. Hence Option 2 is correct.
The passage states that ‘The legacy of colonialism in itself was a challenge’ and poverty, inequality, and
political instability were the legacy, so they are the challenges. Hence Option 3 is correct.
The passage mentions that transfer of power was difficult as ‘the nationalist movements were often
deeply divided and lacked the institutional capacity to govern effectively’. It implies it was a challenge of
decolonisation. So, Option 4 is correct.

Q.44)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
We know that the sum of degrees corresponding to all the tickets sold is 360 degrees.
Given,
Manhattan —- 90°
England ——— 50°
Huwaie———— 70°
Seychelles———80°
So, the degree corresponding to Saudi Arabia is {360 - ( 90 + 50 + 70 + 80 )} = 70°
Given total sales of ticket is 900
Tickets sold for Manhattan and England = {(90 + 50) /360} x 900 = 350———(1)
Tickets sold for Seychelles and Huwaie = {( 80 + 70 )/360}x900 = 375————-(2)
Difference between equation 1 and 2 is (375-350) = 25
% difference = (25/375)x 100 = 6.66%

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Here the reference point is June 11, 1998.
In the calendar, odd day is the remainder of days found by dividing the total number of days by 7.
If a year has 365 days, then the number of odd days is the remainder of 365/7, that is 1 day.
Similarly in a leap year, odd days will be the remainder of 366/7, that is 2 days.
Let’s begin the counting of number of odd days:
From June 12, 1998 to June 11, 1999 —- 1 odd day
From 12 June 1999 to 11 June 2000—- 2 odd days (2000 is a leap year)
From 12 June 2000 to 11 June 2001——- 1 odd day
From 12 June 2001 to 11 June 2002 ——-1 odd day.
Now number of days from 12 June 2002 to 9 September 2002—-> (19 days of June + 31 days of July + 31
days of August +9 days of September) = 90 days
Number of odd days in 90 days = Remainder of 90/7 = 6 odd days.
Now, adding all the odd days from 11 June 1998 to 9 September 2002= (1+2+1+1+6) = 11 odd days.

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Dividing it by 7, to get the final number of odd days.

We get remainder of (11/7) = 4 odd days
So, given 11 June 1998 was a Monday, 9 September 2002 will be 4 days after Monday, that is a Friday.

Q.46)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
(S1 ): Statement 1: Step 1- Use the statements : B5 is just older than B3. B4 who is just younger than B3.
This will fix the position of B5,B3,B4 ( all three adjacent to each other).
Step 2- B1 is older than B4. So B1 will be older than B5 that is clear, but how much older and who all are
between is not at all clear. Thus who will be at the second bottom is not clear too.
Hence In the drawing of Statement 1 below, we observe that who is the second youngest can’t be found
out. Thus statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(S2 ): Statement 2: Use the statement- B3 is older than just two friends. B4 is younger than B3, but in the
question it has not been written that B4 is just younger than B3. Implies B4 can be the second youngest or
youngest.
Hence from the diagram of Statement 2, who is second youngest can’t be concluded.
So statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Using both the Statements: —-

Step 1: Use the Statement - B5 is just older than B3 (S1).. B4 is just younger than B3(S1)
Step 2: Use the Statement- B3 is older than only two friends(S2).
So now it’s clear that B4 is the second youngest.
Hence both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are sufficient to answer the question.

Q.47)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In Statement 1, the number of students is given, that is 17.

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Let’s represent Mahi by M, and Rashid by R.

Left end M at 11th from right end Right end

11th 8th

M R

R at 8th from left end.

So, based on Statement 1, the position of Mahi with respect to Rashid is “just adjacent to her”.
So, Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
In Statement 2,
Number of students is not mentioned,

So, we don’t know how many more people are there between Rashid and Mahi. So Statement -2 alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.

Q.48)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let’s assume the Cost price (CP) of ghee is Rs 1/ gram.
So, the CP for 1kg = Rs (1x1000) = Rs 1000
The marked up price is = Rs[1000x(100+20)]/100 = Rs1200 for 1000 gm
Now he gives a discount of 10% , so the sell price (SP) = Rs [1200x(100-10)]/100 = Rs 1080 for 1000 gm.
Given, He cheats his supplier by 100 gm while buying 1000 gm
Implies he buys 1100gm at the cost of 1000 gm. That is his CP for 1100 gm is Rs1000————-(1)
Given, he cheats his buyer by 100 gm while selling 1000 gm
Implies he sells 900 gm at the SP of 1000 gm. That is his SP for 900 gm is Rs 1080——————-(2)
Now,
CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000
SP for 900 gm = Rs 1080
SP for 1100 gm by unitary method = (1080/900)x1100 = Rs 1320
From equation 1, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000
So the profit % ={ (1320-1000)/1000}X100 = 32%

Q.49)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The number of zeros can be calculated by counting the number of 5’s in the given expression.
The numbers in the given expression where we will count the number of 5 are:—
5^5 , 10^10 , 15^15 , 20^20 , 25^25, 30^30 __________ so on till 100^100
In 5^5 , five will be written 5 times.(5x5x5x5x5)
In 10^10= (2x5)^10, five will be written 10 times.
In 15^15 =(3x5)^15, five will be written 15 times
In 20^20 =(4x5)^20 , five will be written 20 times.
So for all the powers, other than 25^25, 50^50, 75^75, 100^100, the number of fives would be the same
as the power.

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But for,
25^25 = (5x5)^25, five will be written 50 times.
50^50 = (2x5x5)^50 , five will be written 100 times.
75^75 = (3x5x5)^75, five will be written 150 times.
100^100 = (4x5x5)^100 , five will be written 200 times.
Now the sum of all fives = (5+10+15+20+30+35+40+45+55+60+65+70+80+85+90+95) + (50+100+150+200) =
1300

Q.50)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let’s assume that both Ranveer and Umesh together take x hours to cook the dinner together.
Given, If Umesh cooks alone, he takes eight hours more to cook the dinner than if they both had cooked
together,
Time taken by Umesh alone to cook the dinner =( x + 8) hours———————-(1)
Given, If Ranveer cooks alone he takes 4.5 hours more to cook the dinner than they both had cooked
together,
Time taken by Ranveer alone to cook the dinner = (x + 4.5) hours——————-(2)
Now,
One hour cooking of Ranveer + one hour cooking of Umesh = one hour cooking of both
{1/(x+8) } + { 1/ (x+ 4.5) } = 1/ x———————(3)
Now here , if we start solving for x, we will get a complex quadratic equation, which would be too much
time consuming.
So here for such a type of question, the trick lies in going from the option, that is to check which one fits
the equation.
Using option a first:——-
Ranveer takes 10.5 hours to cook the dinner alone,
Now using equation 2, Time taken by Ranveer alone to cook the dinner = x+4.5 = 10.5, Implies x= 6
So using equation 2, time taken by Umesh alone to cook the dinner = 6+8 = 14
Now, using equation 3,
{1/(6+8)} + {1/(6+4.5) = (1/14 )+ (1/10.5)= 0.16666 , which is equal to ⅙ .
Hence option a is correct.

Q.51)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The author has argued that cumulative acceleration of knowledge and the
transformation of technology has not reduced the unevenness of power differential among states. It is
highlighted in these lines, “This momentum, however, is not equally shared; the distribution of power
among states and within societies is a far more uneven process than the diffusion of knowledge and the
spread of technology.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: The author has not argued that pursuit of American principles and interests is
the most important factor in shaping the new world order. In fact he says that is a challenge for US to
shape this new world order in a manner consistent with American principles.

Q.52)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

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The passage discusses how the electric age has brought about significant changes in the content and
context of human communication, resulting in the restructuring of human sensory life. This restructuring
has caused individuals to become absorbed in the sensations produced by their extended faculties,
leading to a metaphorical state of "Narcissus narcosis," in which individuals lose touch with the basis of
their own actions.

Q.53)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Let the total number of coins be 2x, 3x and 6x.
We know that
25p = Rs. 1/4,
10p = Rs.1/10,
5p = Rs. 1/20.
So, adding
x(2/4 + 3/10 +6/20 )= 44
x (10+6+6/20) = 44
x (22/20) = 44
x= 44x20/22
= 40
Since x = 40
10p coins = 3x = 120

Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The given word is DANGER.
Number of letters is 6.
Number of vowels is 2 (i.e., A, E).
Number of consonants is 4 (i.e., D, N, G, R).
As the vowels cannot occupy odd places, they can be arranged in even places.
Two vowels can be arranged in 3 even places in 3P2 ways i.e., 6.
Rest of the consonants can arrange in the remaining 4 places in 4! ways.
The total number of arrangements is 6 x 4! = 144.

Q.55)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
All the terms are prime number followed by perfect squares.
Thus
11, 13, 17, 19 and 23 are prime numbers
9, 16, 25, 36 are perfect squares.
However, in place of 25 the sequence has 21 which is the wrong term here.

Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Only one white marble and other one is black = 50C1*1c1=50

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Both of the marbles are white = 50C2=1225

So, At least one white marble = 50 + 1225 = 1275

Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Since Ritu is younger than Suman but elder than Reena.
Thus,
Suman > Ritu > Reena
And Gayathri is elder than Suman.
Thus,
Gayathri > Suman > Ritu > Reena
Sharmila is younger than Reena.
Thus,
Gayathri > Suman > Ritu > Reena > Sharmila
Hence, Gayathri is the eldest of all.

Q.58)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Addition to everyone’s average age = 0.5x25 = 12.5 years
And new person’s own average age = 25.5 years
New Person’s actual age = 12.5 + 25.5 = 38 years

Q.59)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Total number of players = 25
Total number of ballers = 25 × 40/100 = 10
Then, number of batsman = 25 - 10 = 15
Let an event occurs in two stage X and Y.
If stage X can occurs in ‘M' ways and stage Y can occur in ’N' ways, where X and Y are independent of
each other, then the event can occur in( M×N )ways
Now, according to the question
Required number of combination = 15C7 × 10C4
= 6435 × 210 = 1351350

Q.60)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Wife of Vidya’s husband — Vidya;
Brother of daughter — Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Vidya’s son.
Vidya’s son’s sister is the sister of boy who is in the stage because Vidya’s daughter has only one brother.

Q.61)

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage discusses that recession has been caused by a combination of factors, so an idea being
conveyed about ‘the factors’, but this is not the central idea. Hence option a is incorrect.
The passage discusses at length about the inequality caused due to recession and how people are
suffering. “A significant consequence of the recession has been the widening income gap between the
rich and the poor. While the wealthy have been able to weather the economic storm relatively well, low-
income households have been hit the hardest. This has exacerbated existing inequalities in American
society and has highlighted the need for policies that address income inequality”. So This is the central
idea which is being conveyed. Hence option b is correct.
The passage mentions slow and uneven recovery even after government stimulus. So this also is one of
the ideas being discussed about the measures taken, but not the central idea. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage discusses how different sectors have been hit, so this again is one of the idea , but not the
central idea. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.62)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that ‘it marked the end of feudalism and the establishment of a more egalitarian
society’.so it can be inferred that it freed people from the evils of Feudalism. This statement just explains
the impact on French society, so it’s not the most critical inference. Hence option a is incorrect.
The passage states that the revolution served as a catalyst for the overthrow of monarchies throughout
Europe. So, it acted as a catalyst, it was not the prime reason for the overthrow of monarchies. Hence
option b is incorrect.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘The revolutionary ideas also spread to other parts of the world, inspiring
nationalist movements and independence struggles’ Representative governments were formed in parts of
the world.’ so this impact of the French Revolution was confined not only to Europe but to the larger
world, which ultimately gave birth to democracy and nationalism. Hence option c is correct.
The passage states that ‘He established a vast empire and introduced numerous reforms, including the
Napoleonic Code which continues till today.’ This again is centric to France, not to the larger world,
hence not the most critical. So, option d is incorrect.

Q.63)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Step 1: Raman was ranked first in swimming and was last in horse riding, so Raman is at Rank 1 in
swimming and rank five in horse riding.
Step 2: Rohan was just above Raman in the horse riding, hence Rohan is at rank four in horse riding.
Step 3: Rohan had the same ranking in both swimming and horse riding. So the rank of Rohan in
swimming is also four.
Step 4: In swimming Pakeezah was just above Dinesh, so Dinesh has to be at rank 3 to fulfill this
condition. Hence, Pakeezah will be at rank two in swimming.
Step 5: In horse riding Pakeezah was in the middle, hence Pakeezah is at rank three in horse riding
Step 5: Johnny scored a better rank than Pakeezah in horse riding. So ,Johny can be at rank one or rank
two, and there is no information about Dinesh. We cannot conclude who scored rank one in horse riding.

Rank Swimming Horse riding

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

1 Raman Johnny/ Dinesh

2 Pakeezah Dinesh/ Johnny

3 Dinesh Pakeezah

4 Rohan Rohan

5 Raman

Q.64)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the right answer.
Let’s assume that Aman received Rs x, Babita received Rs (1200-x)
Given, they are left with the sum that constitutes 85% of the whole sum.
Hence, they are left with (1200) x (85/100) = Rs 1020.
Implies, they spent Rs (1200-1020) that is Rs.180
Given Aman spends 12% of his money and Babitha spends 20% of her money,
{x X (12/100)} + {(1200-x) X (20/100)} = 180
0.12 x + (240-0.20x) = 180
x = 750
Aman received Rs 750,
He spent 750x (12/100) = Rs 90
He is left with Rs 750 - 90= Rs 660

Q.65)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Here the key lies in expanding the expression:
That is 10^3 = 1000
9^3 = 729
So ( (10^3 + 9^3) = 1000+729 = 1729
12^3 = 1728
Now we have to obtain the remainder of{ (1729)^752}/ 1728——>
Which is the remainder of 1729/1728, that is 1.

Q.66)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The number is composed of seven digits, to be filled by seven digits (4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6) where four is
repeated twice, five is repeated twice and six is repeated thrice.
_______
The seven digits can be arranged in factorial seven ways, but since there is repetition, there will be
division by the number of repetitions.
The number of distinct numbers greater than 10,00,00 that can be formed is (7!)/{(2!) x (2!)x (3!)}
= (7x6x5x4x3x2x1)/(2x1x2x1x3x2x1) = 210
Since four is repeated twice, five is repeated twice and six is repeated thrice so we divide the seven
factorials by the product of factorial two, factorial two and factorial three.

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5 (Alt) | L1 CSAT 2 – Solutions (112402) |

Q.67)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Time elapsed from 8 am to 3:45 pm is 7 hours 45 minutes = 7(¾) hours
2 minutes 4 seconds of London bridge clock = 2 minutes of the correct clock.
{(2/60) +(4/3600)} hours of London bridge clock = (2/60) hours of the correct clock.
So, (1/30)+(1/900) hours of London bridge clock= (1/30)hours of the correct clock.
Using unitary methods, find out (31/4) hours of London bridge clock equals how many hours of true
clock.
(31/4) hours of London bridge clock = (1/30)/{ (1/30)+(1/900)} hours of true clock.
Solving, we get (31/4) hours of London bridge clock = 30/4 hours of true clock = 7(2/4) hours = 7(½)
hours of the true clock.
So, the true time is 7 hours 30 minutes from 8 am. That is 3:30pm

Q.68)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Now break all the numbers in similar power. That is ———>
200^300 = (200^6)^50 = {(2^6) x (100^6)}^50 = {64x (100^6)}
300^200 = (300^4)^50 = {(3^4) x (100^4)}^50 = {81 x (100^4)}
400^150 = (400^3)^50 = {(4^3) x (100^3)}^50 = {64x (100^3)}
500^150 = (500^3)^50= {(5^3) x (100^4)}^50 = {125x (100^4)}
So, from the above expansions it is evident that 200^300 is the greatest. As this will have twelve zeroes,
more than all others.

Q.69)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
10 years ago, the sum of the ages of all family members of all employees was 260 years.
Number of employees =5, three of them are married, which implies three wives.
No one has any dependents, implies no parents or children to any of the employees.
Total number of members for which insurance is to be paid = 8.
Three years later,
Age of all the members = 260+(8x3) = 284 years
An employee died on the day of his retirement and the company‘s policy of retirement is at 60 years.
Age of seven members of the company= 284-60 = 224 years
A new child is added to the total number of people for whom insurance has to be paid.
So, the number of members remains the same.
After another three years,
Age of all the members = 224 + (8x3) = 248 years
one more employee died on the day of his retirement, so the remaining age = 248-60 = 188 years. ——(1)
Another new child is added to the total number of people for whom insurance has to be paid.
So, the number of members remains the same.
The question asks for the current age, so from here we have to take four years ahead.
At present, the age of all the members = 188+(4x8) = 220 years
Number of members = 8
Average age of all members = 220/8= 27.5 years

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Q.70)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Factors of 30 are 2,3,5. that is 2x3x5 = 30
The minimum power of any of these three factors will decide the maximum value of n.
Now we have to write the expression in their smallest factor:
(2x3x5x19) x (2x2x3x5) x (2x3x5) x(2x3x3x5) x (2x2x5x5) x (2x2x5x5x5) x (2x2x5x5x7) x (7x7x7) x
(2x2x2x2x3x3x5) x (3x3x3x3)
Number of 2’s in the above expression: 15
Number of 3’s in the above expression:11
Number of 5’s in the above expression: 12
The minimum number is for 3, that is the number of 3 is 11, and for any value of n greater than 11, the
expression will not be divisible by 30^n
Hence the power of 3 will decide the maximum power of 30 for which the given expression is perfectly
divisible by 30^n.

Q.71)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that child marriage is fuelled by variety of factors including poverty, social norms
and gender inequality. So, this is an idea being conveyed, but not the central idea. Hence, option a is
incorrect.
The second paragraph of the passage describes in detail about the consequences of child marriage, which
are so severe and it perpetuates the cycle of poverty. So, the main emphasis of the passage is on the ill
effects of child marriage which are long lasting. So, option b is the central idea being conveyed. Hence
option b is correct.
The passage begins with the statement ‘Child marriage is a deeply ingrained social issue in India’ and then
it goes on to explain how it perpetuates poverty also. So, it does not only cover the social aspects of child
marriage, but the economical and developmental aspects which are being hampered due to perpetuation
of poverty. Hence option c is not the main idea. Thus, option c is incorrect.
The passage says that ‘Gender sensitisation, girls empowerment through education and incentivising
parents are of importance to end this social evil’, so it definitely implies that multipronged approach is
required to eliminate child marriage, but here we must consider the fact that, since the consequences are
so permanent and acute that there is a need to eliminate child marriage. So, this again is not the central
idea. Hence, option d is incorrect.

Q.72)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is too broad and implies that all critical transitions can be prevented, which is not necessarily
true. Hence, option a is incorrect.
Option b is a statement made in the passage, but it is not the most practical implication. Hence, option b
is incorrect.
The passage discusses how statistical properties of the fluctuations in a system's dynamics can provide
early warning signals for critical transitions in ecosystems. Specifically, the coefficient of variation of the
fluctuations can increase as a system approaches a critical transition, serving as an early warning signal.
Hence, option c is correct.

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{Critical slowing down ===> can increase the autocorrelation and variance of the system dynamics ====>
increase in the coefficient of variation of the fluctuations ===> it can serve as an early warning signal for a
critical transition.}
Option d is also a statement/ fact stated in the passage, but it does not provide a practical implication.
Hence, option d is incorrect.

Q.73)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
While providing financial literacy programs to lower-middle-class and poor individuals may be helpful, it
does not address the root cause of the problem as the passage says that ‘The problem is compounded by
the fact that such scamsters run away from the country misusing loopholes of existing laws’. Hence
option a is incorrect.
Similarly, compensating victims would not prevent future scams. Hence option b is incorrect.
Banning chit fund schemes altogether may be extreme and not a practical solution. Hence option c is
incorrect.
The passage highlights the widespread problem of chit fund scams in India and the devastating
consequences for victims. The passage implies that the most logical, rational, and practical suggestion is
for the government to take urgent action (this includes providing financial literacy) to address the issue
and ensure that those responsible for these scams are brought to justice. This would not only prevent
future scams but also provide justice to the victims. Hence option d is correct.

Q.74)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is a statement about education, not a natural corollary to the passage. Hence option a is
incorrect.
Option b discusses few barriers to education but removing only these barriers is not sufficient to make
education accessible, as the passage only states that ‘lack access to education due to various reasons’. So,
it is not a natural corollary to the passage. Hence option b is incorrect.
Option c concludes the relevance of access to education, not only for individuals but for society. So, this
statement is a natural corollary to the passage. Hence option c is correct.
Option d discusses the need of education to stay relevant in their careers, which is not the direct focus of
the passage, hence it is not a natural corollary to the passage. So, option d is incorrect.

Q.75)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Total target of car company B = (75+75+150+200+100+50) = 650
Number of Alto cars sold by car company B = 75x(76/100)=57
Number of Baleno cars sold by car company B =75x(40/100)=30
Number of Suzuki cars sold by car company B=150x (86/100)=129
Number of Brezza cards sold by car company B=200x (73/100)=146
Number of Ciaz cars sold by car company B=100x (65/100)=65
Number of Honda cars sold by car company B=50x (70/100)=35
Total cars of all variety sold by car company B=( 57+30+129+146+65+35) = 462
Percentage of target achieved by car company B= (462/650)x 100= 71%

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Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
We can observe that the difference between the number of children among whom the balloons were
distributed and the number of balloons left is always one.
Example: He distributes among 10 children he has nine left. The difference is one.
He distributed among nine children he would have it left. Again, the difference is one.
He would have seven left if he distributes among six children. The difference is one.
He Distributed among five children would have four left. The difference is one.
Therefore, the minimum number of balloons bought would be= (LCM of 10,9,8,7,6,5 )-1
LCM of 10,9,8,7,6,5 = 2520
The minimum number of balloons bought would be=2520-1= 2519
The second minimum number of balloons bought would be = {(2520x2) -1} =5039

Q.77)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Use the Statement 1 :— let’s fix the position of flight D at one end of the row at index 11.
Flight H is standing to the immediate left of D (then flight H will be at index 10),
and third to the right of I (index if I will be at index 7)
Flight J is in the immediate vicinity of Flight A and B and third to the left of flight G. G can be or can’t be
placed at the center . But we don’t know the position of all other flights, so this can’t be said with
certainty. Hence Statement 1 alone is insufficient to answer the question.

Index 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Flight A J B G I H D

Use the statement 2: —-Flight A is standing second to the right of flight E, who is at one of the ends. Since
E has to be at the end, it can be at either index 11 or index 1. But if we place it at index 11, then the
condition that Flight A is standing second to the right of flight E will not be satisfied . Hence position of
flight E has to be index 1, then flight A will be at index 3.
Now let’s keep F at index 6,
Flight F is standing next to the right of flight D and flight D is second to the right of O.so index of flight D
will be 6 and that of O will be 4. But this again cannot be said with certainty as we do not know the
position of other flights. Hence Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Index 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Flight E A O D F

Now use Statement 1 and 2 together:

Step 1: Flight A is standing second to the right of flight E, who is at one of the ends. (S2), so the position of
E can be fixed at index one because it will never be at index 11. So, the index of flight a will be three.
Step 2: Flight J is in the immediate vicinity of Flight A and B, J is neighbour of both A and B so it has to be
at index four because if it will be at index 2 it will not be neighbour of B, so index of J is fixed at four and
the index of B is at five now.
Step 3: Flight J is third to the left of flight G. Index of G will be seven.
Step 4: Flight F is standing next to the right of flight D and flight D is second to the right of O.
Flight F can’t be at index 2, 6,8 and it has to be right of flight D, which has to be 2nd to the right of O.

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So the position for F is at index 11 so that both the condition of D and O satisfies.
Step 5 : Flight H is standing to the immediate left of D, so H is at index 9 and
Flight H is third to the right of I, so index of I has to be six.
This both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are needed to answer the question.

Index 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

flight E A J B I G O H D F

Q.78)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
We have to take into consideration the number of odd days from 2020 onwards.
Since it's not established in the month of January or February, so from 2020 to 2021 the number of odd
days will remain 1 only.
Since it was established on Wednesday, so to celebrate its next anniversary on a grand scale on Tuesday,
there has to be six odd days between those years.
Odd day is the remainder found by dividing the total days with 7.
By his establishment day in 2021, there will be 1 odd day.
By his establishment day in 2022, there will be 2 odd days .
By his establishment day in 2023, there will be 3 odd days.
By his establishment day in 2024, there will be 5 odd days. Given 2024 is a leap year.
By his establishment day in 2025, there will be 6 odd days.
So, in the year 2025, the establishment day will fall on Tuesday. And they will celebrate their next
anniversary on a grand scale on Tuesday.

Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

From Image 6 it is evident that some coconuts are bananas. Hence Conclusion I is correct.
From Image 4, it is concluded that All bananas are not radishes. Hence, Conclusion II is incorrect.
From image 6 it is clear that all tomatoes or not coconuts. Hence conclusion III is incorrect.
From image 6, it is evident that all bananas or not coconuts. Hence conclusion IV is incorrect.

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Q.80)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The sequence is based on the formula {(n^3)- (n^2) - n}, where n is a positive integer beginning from1.
(1^3) -(1^2) - 1 = -1
(2^3)- (2^2) - 2 = 2
(3^3) - (3^2) -3 = 15
(4^3) - (4^2) - 4 = 44
(5^3) - (5^2) - 5 = 95
(6^3) - (6^2) - 6 = 174
(7^3) - (7^2) - 7 = 287
Next term,
(8^3) - (8^2) - 8 = 440

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